Question

A safety and health professional needs to test the atmosphere of a confined space prior
to entry. It has already been determined that ventilation will be used during this work,
but the SHP discovers his 4-gas monitor will not calibrate for combustibles. The best
course of action for the SHP would be:

A. Authorize entry since the space will be ventilated.

B. Withhold entry until a working 4-gas monitor can be secured.
C. Provide an additional stand-by observer to observe the entrants.
D. Provide a powered air-purifying respirator.
Solution
Even though fresh air ventilation may well render the space safe, the procedure calls for
air sampling which must be done.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the primary purpose of workers compensation laws?

A. The primary purpose of workers compensation laws is to provide job security.

B. The primary purpose of workers compensation laws is to provide a safe and
healthy working environment for employees.
C. The primary purpose of workers compensation laws is to provide benefits to
employees that can no longer perform their job function.
D. The primary purpose of workers compensation laws is to provide compensation
for employees who have sustained injury, illness or death during the course of
employment.
Solution
Workers compensation provides a just and fair means of compensating employees who
have sustained injury, illness or death during the course of their employment.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the name of the legal standard requiring a direct relationship between an injured
party (plaintiff) and the entity potentially responsible for the injury (defendant)?

A. Quid pro quo

B. Privity
C. Tort
D. Voir dire
Solution
Privity requires a direct relationship between a plaintiff and defendant.
Privity was broken in the U.S. in the early 20th century when plaintiffs were allowed to
sue automobile manufacturers directly to recover damages caused by defective
autos. Prior to the breaking of privity, the injured would have had to sue the auto dealer
from whom they made the purchase.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Workers’ compensation insurance provides:

A. 100% compensation for lost pay resulting from a workplace injury

B. No-fault insurance to workers injured on the job
C. Federal penalties for companies who violate accepted safety practices
D. No coverage for workplace illnesses
Solution
In the 1900’s, the industrial revolution brought with it a rising tide of industrial injuries
that resulted in passage of workers’ compensation laws. By the 1920s, nearly every
state had adopted this no-fault insurance program.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A CSP safety consultant signed a confidentiality agreement with a client prior to
conducting an annual safety audit. The agreement stated that any observations made
during the audit were confidential information owned by the client, and the consultant
agreed to share his observations, analysis, and recommendations only with the client.
The consultant returned to the client’s facility for an audit one year later, and he
observed the same violations he had noted in his first report. The violations did not
pose an imminent danger risk.
Which of the following actions is consistent with the BCSP Code of Ethics?

A. The consultant notified the local OSHA inspection office.

B. The consultant mailed a copy of his report to the local newspaper editor.
C. The consultant provided a copy of his report to the client’s employees.
D. The consultant reiterated his observations in his second report with added
language reminding the client of their general duty to provide a workplace free of
recognized hazards.
Solution
Standard 2 of the BCSP Code of Ethics states:
Certificants shall:
BE honest, fair, and impartial; act with responsibility and integrity. Adhere to high
standards of ethical conduct with balanced care for the interests of the public,
employers, clients, employees, colleagues and the profession. Avoid all conduct or
practice that is likely to discredit the profession or deceive the public.
Releasing information obtained during the audit to anyone other than the client’s
designated representative violates the confidentiality agreement signed by the
consultant. It is unethical to violate the agreement.

The correct solution is D.

Question
An EHS coordinator conducted an environmental audit at a manufacturing plant. When
the audit was complete, the coordinator uploaded the audit, which contained several
pictures of non-conformances to environmental requirements. When she emailed the
audit results to the leadership team, the HR manager gave her a verbal warning, stating
that the results, especially the pictures, were “discoverable,” thereby placing the
company at risk for citations. Was the HR manager correct?

A. Yes, environmental audits should only be conducted when requested by an

attorney.
B. No, environmental self-audits are not discoverable.
C. No, but the pictures should be deleted.
D. Yes, and the pictures should be deleted.
Solution
If information is “discoverable”, it means that a legal entity, such as civil court, can
acquire it through the subpoena process. There is a lot of ongoing controversy about
audits of any type and specifically about emailing sensitive information. While there
should be a very clear written policy about how audits are conducted and how the
results are handled or archived, environmental self-audits are specifically not
discoverable at the federal level.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A manufacturer of a breakfast cereal made claims that consumers eating their cereal
would lower their cholesterol levels at least 10% within one year if the cereal is eaten
every day. The manufacturer believes this to be true based on independent research of
diets high in the raw materials used in this cereal.
If a consumer eats the cereal every day for a year, and their cholesterol is not lowered,
what is the type of liability claim they are most likely to use in a lawsuit against the
manufacturer?

A. Implied warranty claim

B. Express warranty claim
C. Negligence claim
D. Strict liability claim
Solution
An implied warranty claim is based on the implication that a product does not perform
as expected.
An express warranty claim is based on expressly stated performance of a product.
A negligence claim is based on a manufacturer that new (or should have known) of
defects in a product that caused harm.
A strict liability claim is based on a product causing harm without the negligent behavior
from the manufacturer.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The legal concept in Old English law that required a relationship to exist between the
injured party and the party whose negligence caused the accident is called:

A. Culpability
B. Privity
C. Quid Pro Quo
D. Caveat Emptor
Solution
Privity is the legal term that describes the requirement for a relationship to exist
between a plaintiff and defendant before a negligence suit could be filed. This
requirement ended in the United States in 1916 when McPherson sued car
manufacturer, Buick, for an accident involving a faulty steering wheel even though
McPherson only had a relationship with the car dealer from whom he purchased the
vehicle.
The correct solution is B.
Question
A safety and health professional working for a company has taken air samples on an
employee indicating exposure above the threshold limit value. Controlling exposure will
require an expensive local exhaust ventilation system for which the manager of the
department does not want to spend the money. The manager instructs the safety and
health professional to not inform the employee of the sampling results. What is the best
course of action for the safety and health professional?

A. Tell the employee the results anyway.

B. Explain to the manager that the employee has a legal and moral right to know
the results.
C. Put the employee in a respirator and file the air sampling results.
D. Report the issue to the appropriate legal authority.
Solution
The best course of action would be for the safety and health professional to use his or
her most effective communication skills to inform the manager that the employee has a
legal and moral right to see the sampling results and that respiratory protection should
only be used until engineering controls can be implemented or proven infeasible.

The correct solution is B.

Question
An equipment malfunction resulted in a worker being crushed to death. During the
investigation, the determination was made that a supervisor directed the worker to
operate equipment knowing it to be unsafe and watched the worker during the event.
The supervisor could be found guilty of which of the following?

A. Nothing: his employer would bear all liability

B. Criminal acts for directing the operation and observing the unsafe acts
C. Violating the victim’s civil rights
D. Harassment
Solution
The employer could well bear legal responsibility, especially if this was not an isolated
event. Civil action could be brought by both the governing OSH administration and the
victim’s family. However, if a supervisor directs someone to operate an unsafe piece of
equipment or observes someone working unsafely without taking action, that supervisor
would be guilty of a criminal act whether or not an injury or death resulted.
The correct solution is B.
Question
In which phase of a product liability lawsuit is evidence gathered?

A. Discovery
B. Complaint
C. Trial
D. Settlement
Solution
Evidence is gathered during the discovery phase.
The complaint is the filing of the lawsuit in the court with jurisdiction.
The trial is when each side presents their case to a judge or a jury.
A settlement may occur at any time during the process.

The correct solution is A.

Question
The EHS Director of Acme Manufacturing monitored air concentrations of chemical X
for the past six months using a “sniffer” taking a short “snapshot” measurement each
day. Twenty (20) of the measurements were over the 200 ppm STEL (Short Term
Exposure Limits) and four of these exceeded the ceiling limit of 600 ppm. The EHS
Director submitted a capital expense request for $200,000 to install ventilation and
continuous monitoring to shut down the process and notify employees to evacuate at
excessive concentrations. The project costs were not approved because of the cost,
and no further action was taken. Was there an ethical dilemma?

A. No. Costs should always be taken into consideration.

B. Yes. Excessive concentrations put employees at excessive risk.
C. No. Snapshot measurements are not valid.
D. No. More information is needed to determine the correct action.
Solution
The readings over the ceiling limit of 600 ppm indicate action must be taken.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A U.S. consumer is taken ill from eating a raw cookie dough product contaminated
with E. coli. The package states that the cookie dough must be baked before being
consumed. The manufacturer has no quality control procedures in place to ensure
that E. coli is not present. The consumer sues the manufacturer to cover lost wages
and medical expenses while being ill. What type of liability is the plaintiff likely to cite in
their lawsuit?

A. There is no basis for the lawsuit. The manufacturer is clearly not liable based
on the package information.
B. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer violated an express
warranty because the product made no mention of the possibility that E. coli could be
present.
C. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer was strictly liable because
the E. coli was present and made him sick.
D. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer was negligent because the
manufacturer should have anticipated the possibility that the product would be eaten
raw by some consumers.
Solution
The manufacturer did not make a specific claim that the cookie dough will not contain e
coli. The manufacturer did not violate an express warranty.
The plaintiff may make a strictly liable claim, but the plaintiff is more likely to claim
negligence. Raw cookie dough is frequently consumed in the United States, and many
ice cream products include raw cookie dough as a major ingredient. The court would
likely hold that a manufacturer should reasonably anticipate the product would be eaten
raw (think about children getting into the refrigerator), and the manufacturer should have
taken steps to ensure e coli is not present in the product.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which is the first event in a product liability lawsuit?

A. Complaint
B. Discovery
C. Trial
D. Settlement
Solution
The complaint is the filing of the lawsuit.
Discovery is the process of searching for and evaluating evidence.
The trial is process of both sides presenting their case in court.
A settlement may be reached at any time before a verdict. Many cases are settled
before trial, but not all cases reach a settlement.

The correct solution is A.

Question
In an aboveground in-door storage tank (AST) farm at XYZ Chemical plant, an engineer
installed a new 18,000-gallon storage tank and decided to directly connect it to an
existing identical storage tank by piping the two directly together at the bottom. Both
tanks contained a highly flammable chemical. Six other tanks, each having
10,000-gallon capacity, were located in the tank farm with secondary containment sized
appropriately. The engineer thought that since the chemicals were the same that he
could avoid the expense of installing a completely separate fill connection, valve, and
pumping system. However practical this approach might be, the engineer made a
mistake. Why?

A. 36,000 gallons of flammable materials cannot be stored in an indoor tank farm.

B. The engineer failed to consider the capacity of secondary containment.
C. The engineer should have installed a “double blind and bleed” system.
D. Fire suppression would not be adequate for that amount.
Solution
The major flaw to this approach would be secondary containment requirements. In an
indoor tank farm, secondary containment must be adequate to contain the contents of
the largest storage tank in the AST farm. By directly connecting the two largest tanks,
he effectively doubled the size of the largest tank, thereby breaking AST regulatory
requirements.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which of the following actions is unethical from an accredited safety professional
according to the BCSP code of ethics?

A. Advising an employer of unacceptable risks in the workplace.

B. Writing a letter to the editor of the local newspaper concerning a safety issue in
which the professional has direct experience.
C. Informing a potential client of a close friendship with one of the client’s
employees.
D. Exaggerating relevant safety experience when submitting a proposal to a
potential client.
Solution
The BCSP has established a code of ethics to sustain and advance the integrity, honor,
and prestige of the safety profession.
Exaggerating experience violates Standard 5 on avoiding deceptive acts that falsify or
misrepresent academic or professional qualifications.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Acme Manufacturing created and sold a tonic that was advertised to stimulate hair
growth on the top of a bald man’s head. The company includes a statement that they
guarantee results or they will provide a full refund. The company is sued by a customer
that used the hair tonic claiming that they used the tonic as directed and hair did not
grow. The company refused to refund the customer’s money. Which type of lawsuit is
this?

A. Negligence
B. Strict liability
C. Express warranty
D. Implied warranty
Solution
The guaranteed statement provided with the tonic becomes a contract between the
seller and buyer. The seller is specifically stating the product will perform as
advertised. This is an example of express warranty.

The correct solution is C.

Question
A CSP safety consultant observed an employee performing maintenance work on a
large piece of equipment. The employee did not adequately control for the potential
release of hazardous energy. The consultant stopped the work and notified the
employee’s supervisor of the event. Why did the consultant stop the work and report to
the supervisor?

A. The consultant has a legal requirement to notify employees and employers of

regulatory violations immediately.
B. The consultant has an ethical requirement to notify employees, clients,
employers, and appropriate authorities of unacceptable risks to people.
C. The consultant has a fiduciary responsibility to his client.
D. The consultant has a constitutional obligation to report unsafe acts.
Solution
The first section of the BCSP Code of Ethics states that certificants must:
HOLD paramount the safety and health of people, the protection of the environment and
protection of property in the performance of professional duties and exercise their
obligation to advise employers, clients, employees, the public, and appropriate
authorities of danger and unacceptable risks to people, the environment, or property.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A retailer sold bread that was labeled as “Gluten Free”. Unfortunately, the bread was
made with wheat flour and contained large amounts of gluten. The retailer knew the
bread actually contained gluten. Customers with celiac disease that consumed the
bread became very sick. Which liability theory may be used to sue the retailer?

A. Warranty
B. Negligence
C. Strict liability
D. All of the above
Solution
A warranty claim is appropriate when the product does not meet performance standards
as advertised or specifically stated by the seller.
A negligence claim is appropriate when a buyer was harmed by a deficient product, and
the seller knew (or should have known) of the deficiency and took no action. The
deficiency must have existed at the time it left the control of the seller.
A strict liability claim is appropriate when a product causes harm regardless of whether
the seller knew about the deficiency.
Some product liability claims may be filed under multiple theories.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Legal counsel for XYZ company requested a safety audit for the factory. He specified
that the audit be called “Attorney Work Product” and that all communications note this
on the header. Why?

A. The company will not be liable for any audit findings.

B. The audit findings will not be “discoverable.”
C. Regulatory agencies must have a court order to claim the material.
D. To keep the attorney out of trouble.

Solution
A company cannot avoid being responsible for the health and safety of its employees.
However, attorney work product is not discoverable under national and international law
if a warrant or subpoena were to be issued.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is a common theory used when establishing impairment benefits for a workers
compensation injury?

A. Age theory
B. Occupational projection theory
C. Whole man theory
D. Incongruency theory
Solution
Also known as the “physical impairment theory”, the whole man theory is used when
establishing impairment benefits for a workers compensation injury. This theory takes
into consideration the functional effects of the loss, it’s impact on normal functions, and
abilities. The theory defines disability as a percentage of a “whole” or fully functioning
person. It is calculated based on the degree of disability to income potential, this
defines the disability payments to the injured worker.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which example below most closely describes negligence from a manufacturing
company?

A. The company tests a product extensively before selling to the public, but a
previously unknown health hazard is discovered after the product has been on the
market for 10 years.
B. A consumer harms himself while using the product in an unintended manner.
C. The company sells a product that does not perform as advertised in its
marketing materials.
D. The company knew that raw material quality is critical in the manufacturing
process, but failed to perform quality control tests on raw materials. A batch of poor
quality materials from one supplier results in consumer harm.
Solution
In order for a consumer to successfully sue a manufacturing company for negligent
practices, the consumer must prove…
· a defected existed in the product when it left the manufacturer,
· the defect caused the consumer harm, and
· the manufacturer knew or should have known about the defect and had a duty to
provide a product free of defects.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which of the solutions below is one of the four criteria that must be met by a plaintiff in a
negligence lawsuit?

A. The product did not meet ANSI standards for quality control.
B. The defect that caused plaintiff’s harm existed at the time the product left the
defendant’s control.
C. The product did not perform as advertised.
D. The product did not perform as implied.
Solution
A plaintiff must prove the following four criteria in a negligence lawsuit.
1. The product was defective.
2. The defect existed at the time it left the control of the defendant.
3. The defect caused harm to the plaintiff.
4. The defendant had a duty to provide the product free of defects and was negligent
in that duty.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the best definition for the money awarded for compensatory damages in a
lawsuit to repair or replace proven harm, loss or injury suffered by the plaintiff?

A. Proven damages
B. Actual damages
C. Suffered damages
D. Civil damages
Solution
Money awarded to compensate for actual losses (also called compensatory damages)
is the amount of money awarded based on the proven harm, loss or injury suffered by a
plaintiff. The defendant in such cases must be proven to have been legally responsible
for the plaintiff’s injuries and/or losses.
Examples of actual or compensatory damages include: Medical care, property damage,
and lost wages.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Lawyers in product liability lawsuits often compare the actions of their client to:

A. a reasonable person.
B. a careless person.
C. an irrational person.
D. a perfect person.
Solution
A common defense in a court of law is to compare the actions of one of the parties to
what a reasonable person would do in a similar circumstance.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Which of the following activities is considered unethical based on the BCSP Code of
Ethics?

A. A CSP consultant increased his rates by 50% to improve his profitability.

B. A CSP consultant refused to work for a non-profit religious organization based
on the nature of the religion.
C. A CSP consultant wrote a letter to the editor of the local newspaper criticizing
the actions of safety regulatory agencies.
D. A CSP consultant wrote a safety audit report with caveats indicating he was
uncertain about some aspects regarding environmental risks.
Solution
Persons holding certifications conferred by the Board of Certified Safety Professionals
agree to act in a manner free of bias with regard to religion, ethnicity, gender, age,
national origin, sexual orientation, or disability.
The correct solution is B.
Question
Which one of the following determines the amount of a workers compensation claim?

A. State Law
B. Agreement of the parties
C. Mandate of workers compensation commissioner
D. Federal Law

Solution
State laws fix the amount of compensation in a workers compensation claim. The
compensation is paid without consideration of fault or negligence on the part of either
the employer or employee. In exchange for this right of compensation, the employee
gives up the right to sue the employer.

The correct solution is A.

Question
All of the following are elements of Workers’ Compensation except:

A. No-fault insurance that pays claims to the injured employee without placing
blame on the employer.
B. A determination that the injury was work-related.
C. Employers’ Workers’ Compensation premiums are determined by their
experience of previous claims.
D. Withholding payment on claims if the employee violated company policy.
Solution
Workers’ Compensation was established to avoid the complications associated with
assigning fault. Therefore, fault is not established so that the employee can receive
expeditious payment for injury services and the employer does not have to spend
resources defending the case. All of the other items listed are, in fact, part of Workers’
Compensation.

The correct solution is D.

Question
When is it appropriate for a CSP to issue a public statement regarding an investigation
of an industrial accident?
A. It is appropriate for a former CSP safety manager to issue a public statement.
B. It is appropriate for a consulting CSP who recently worked at the facility to issue
a public statement.
C. It is appropriate for the President of the BCSP to issue public statements
regarding specific industrial accidents.
D. It is appropriate for a current CSP safety manager of the facility authorized by
the company to issue public statements.
Solution
Certificants of the Board of Certified Safety Professionals should only issue public
statements in an objective and truthful manner and only when founded upon knowledge
of the facts and competence in the subject matter.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A company rents inflatable bouncing rooms to be used at children birthday parties. The
rental company includes a waiver for the parent to sign that the parent will not sue the
company if a child is injured while using the device. What is the main purpose of the
waiver?

A. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company from
strict liability lawsuits.
B. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company from
frivolous lawsuits.
C. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company
negligence lawsuits.
D. The main purpose is to inform the parent of the risk associated with using the
device.
Solution
Parents cannot give away or sign away the rights of their children. If a child is injured
due to the negligence of another party, they have a right to seek compensation for their
injuries.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A woman was severely injured (3rd degree burns) several years ago when she spilled
coffee on her lap she had just purchased from a restaurant. She sued the restaurant to
recover the costs of her medical bills. The company was held liable for the woman’s
damages by the court.
What theory of liability did the company violate?

A. Warranty
B. Negligence
C. Strict liability
D. None of the above is correct. The company was not actually liable.
Solution
Plaintiffs in a product liability lawsuit must show that the product was defective, the
defect existed when it left the defendant’s hands, and the defect caused the injury or
harm.
Warranty liability includes merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose. Implied
warranty is a branch of contract law. Merchantability applies to companies that
normally offer a product. There is an implied warranty that the product meets some
level of quality and is safe to use.
Negligence lawsuits must show the defendant had a duty to provide a product free of
the claimed defect and was negligent in performing that duty. Negligence is a behavior
and can be difficult to prove.
A manufacturer is strictly liable in tort when the company sold a product with a defect
and the defect caused an injury. It does not deal with the behavior of the company.

The correct solution is C.

B is also a possible solution, but we would need to know more information before
determining negligence.
Question
Which of the following actions is unethical from an accredited safety professional
according to the BCSP code of ethics?

A. Advising an employer of unacceptable risks in the workplace.

B. Writing a letter to the editor of the local newspaper concerning a safety issue in
which the professional has direct experience.
C. Informing a potential client of a close friendship with one of the client’s
employees.
D. Exaggerating relevant safety experience when submitting a proposal to a
potential client.
Solution
The BCSP has established a code of ethics to sustain and advance the integrity, honor,
and prestige of the safety profession.
Exaggerating experience violates Standard 5 on avoiding deceptive acts that falsify or
misrepresent academic or professional qualifications.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which of the solutions below is one of the four criteria that must be met by a plaintiff in a
negligence lawsuit?

A. The product did not meet ANSI standards for quality control.
B. The defect that caused plaintiff’s harm existed at the time the product left the
defendant’s control.
C. The product did not perform as advertised.
D. The product did not perform as implied.
Solution
A plaintiff must prove the following four criteria in a negligence lawsuit.
1. The product was defective.
2. The defect existed at the time it left the control of the defendant.
3. The defect caused harm to the plaintiff.
4. The defendant had a duty to provide the product free of defects and was negligent
in that duty.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which one of the following determines the amount of a workers compensation claim?

A. State Law
B. Agreement of the parties
C. Mandate of workers compensation commissioner
D. Federal Law

Solution
State laws fix the amount of compensation in a workers compensation claim. The
compensation is paid without consideration of fault or negligence on the part of either
the employer or employee. In exchange for this right of compensation, the employee
gives up the right to sue the employer.
The correct solution is A.
Question
An equipment malfunction resulted in a worker being crushed to death. During the
investigation, the determination was made that a supervisor directed the worker to
operate equipment knowing it to be unsafe and watched the worker during the event.
The supervisor could be found guilty of which of the following?

A. Nothing: his employer would bear all liability

B. Criminal acts for directing the operation and observing the unsafe acts
C. Violating the victim’s civil rights
D. Harassment
Solution
The employer could well bear legal responsibility, especially if this was not an isolated
event. Civil action could be brought by both the governing OSH administration and the
victim’s family. However, if a supervisor directs someone to operate an unsafe piece of
equipment or observes someone working unsafely without taking action, that supervisor
would be guilty of a criminal act whether or not an injury or death resulted.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The executive vice president of a public corporation has accepted a loan from the
corporation. In accepting the loan, the executive vice president has violated:

A. Nothing, if it is reported on the annual financials.

B. SEC rules governing anti-trust.
C. The Sarbanes Oxley Act.
D. GAAP rules.
Solution
The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) act was enacted in 2002 in response to several high-profile
corporate scandals involving fraud. Enforced by the Securities and Exchange
Commission (SEC), SOX sets forth strict accounting practices and mandates accuracy
of financial statements. SOX specifically prohibits corporate officers from accepting
loans from the company.

The correct solution is C.

Question
A safety and health professional working for a company has taken air samples on an
employee indicating exposure above the threshold limit value. Controlling exposure will
require an expensive local exhaust ventilation system for which the manager of the
department does not want to spend the money. The manager instructs the safety and
health professional to not inform the employee of the sampling results. What is the best
course of action for the safety and health professional?

A. Tell the employee the results anyway.

B. Explain to the manager that the employee has a legal and moral right to know
the results.
C. Put the employee in a respirator and file the air sampling results.
D. Report the issue to the appropriate legal authority.
Solution
The best course of action would be for the safety and health professional to use his or
her most effective communication skills to inform the manager that the employee has a
legal and moral right to see the sampling results and that respiratory protection should
only be used until engineering controls can be implemented or proven infeasible.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the name of the legal standard requiring a direct relationship between an injured
party (plaintiff) and the entity potentially responsible for the injury (defendant)?

A. Quid pro quo

B. Privity
C. Tort
D. Voir dire
Solution
Privity requires a direct relationship between a plaintiff and defendant.
Privity was broken in the U.S. in the early 20th century when plaintiffs were allowed to
sue automobile manufacturers directly to recover damages caused by defective
autos. Prior to the breaking of privity, the injured would have had to sue the auto dealer
from whom they made the purchase.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A manufacturer of a breakfast cereal made claims that consumers eating their cereal
would lower their cholesterol levels at least 10% within one year if the cereal is eaten
every day. The manufacturer believes this to be true based on independent research of
diets high in the raw materials used in this cereal.
If a consumer eats the cereal every day for a year, and their cholesterol is not lowered,
what is the type of liability claim they are most likely to use in a lawsuit against the
manufacturer?

A. Implied warranty claim

B. Express warranty claim
C. Negligence claim
D. Strict liability claim
Solution
An implied warranty claim is based on the implication that a product does not perform
as expected.
An express warranty claim is based on expressly stated performance of a product.
A negligence claim is based on a manufacturer that new (or should have known) of
defects in a product that caused harm.
A strict liability claim is based on a product causing harm without the negligent behavior
from the manufacturer.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A company rents inflatable bouncing rooms to be used at children birthday parties. The
rental company includes a waiver for the parent to sign that the parent will not sue the
company if a child is injured while using the device. What is the main purpose of the
waiver?

A. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company from
strict liability lawsuits.
B. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company from
frivolous lawsuits.
C. The main purpose is to create a legal document protecting the company
negligence lawsuits.
D. The main purpose is to inform the parent of the risk associated with using the
device.
Solution
Parents cannot give away or sign away the rights of their children. If a child is injured
due to the negligence of another party, they have a right to seek compensation for their
injuries.
The correct solution is D.
Question
The EHS Director of Acme Manufacturing monitored air concentrations of chemical X
for the past six months using a “sniffer” taking a short “snapshot” measurement each
day. Twenty (20) of the measurements were over the 200 ppm STEL (Short Term
Exposure Limits) and four of these exceeded the ceiling limit of 600 ppm. The EHS
Director submitted a capital expense request for $200,000 to install ventilation and
continuous monitoring to shut down the process and notify employees to evacuate at
excessive concentrations. The project costs were not approved because of the cost,
and no further action was taken. Was there an ethical dilemma?

A. No. Costs should always be taken into consideration.

B. Yes. Excessive concentrations put employees at excessive risk.
C. No. Snapshot measurements are not valid.
D. No. More information is needed to determine the correct action.
Solution
The readings over the ceiling limit of 600 ppm indicate action must be taken.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A safety and health professional needs to test the atmosphere of a confined space prior
to entry. It has already been determined that ventilation will be used during this work,
but the SHP discovers his 4-gas monitor will not calibrate for combustibles. The best
course of action for the SHP would be:

A. Authorize entry since the space will be ventilated.

B. Withhold entry until a working 4-gas monitor can be secured.
C. Provide an additional stand-by observer to observe the entrants.
D. Provide a powered air-purifying respirator.
Solution
Even though fresh air ventilation may well render the space safe, the procedure calls for
air sampling which must be done.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the best definition for the money awarded for compensatory damages in a
lawsuit to repair or replace proven harm, loss or injury suffered by the plaintiff?

A. Proven damages
B. Actual damages
C. Suffered damages
D. Civil damages
Solution
Money awarded to compensate for actual losses (also called compensatory damages)
is the amount of money awarded based on the proven harm, loss or injury suffered by a
plaintiff. The defendant in such cases must be proven to have been legally responsible
for the plaintiff’s injuries and/or losses.
Examples of actual or compensatory damages include: Medical care, property damage,
and lost wages.

The correct solution is B.

Question
In which phase of a product liability lawsuit is evidence gathered?

A. Discovery
B. Complaint
C. Trial
D. Settlement
Solution
Evidence is gathered during the discovery phase.
The complaint is the filing of the lawsuit in the court with jurisdiction.
The trial is when each side presents their case to a judge or a jury.
A settlement may occur at any time during the process.

The correct solution is A.

Question
In an aboveground in-door storage tank (AST) farm at XYZ Chemical plant, an engineer
installed a new 18,000-gallon storage tank and decided to directly connect it to an
existing identical storage tank by piping the two directly together at the bottom. Both
tanks contained a highly flammable chemical. Six other tanks, each having
10,000-gallon capacity, were located in the tank farm with secondary containment sized
appropriately. The engineer thought that since the chemicals were the same that he
could avoid the expense of installing a completely separate fill connection, valve, and
pumping system. However practical this approach might be, the engineer made a
mistake. Why?

A. 36,000 gallons of flammable materials cannot be stored in an indoor tank farm.

B. The engineer failed to consider the capacity of secondary containment.
C. The engineer should have installed a “double blind and bleed” system.
D. Fire suppression would not be adequate for that amount.
Solution
The major flaw to this approach would be secondary containment requirements. In an
indoor tank farm, secondary containment must be adequate to contain the contents of
the largest storage tank in the AST farm. By directly connecting the two largest tanks,
he effectively doubled the size of the largest tank, thereby breaking AST regulatory
requirements.

The correct solution is B.

Question
When is it appropriate for a CSP to issue a public statement regarding an investigation
of an industrial accident?

A. It is appropriate for a former CSP safety manager to issue a public statement.

B. It is appropriate for a consulting CSP who recently worked at the facility to issue
a public statement.
C. It is appropriate for the President of the BCSP to issue public statements
regarding specific industrial accidents.
D. It is appropriate for a current CSP safety manager of the facility authorized by
the company to issue public statements.
Solution
Certificants of the Board of Certified Safety Professionals should only issue public
statements in an objective and truthful manner and only when founded upon knowledge
of the facts and competence in the subject matter.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A CSP safety consultant observed an employee performing maintenance work on a
large piece of equipment. The employee did not adequately control for the potential
release of hazardous energy. The consultant stopped the work and notified the
employee’s supervisor of the event. Why did the consultant stop the work and report to
the supervisor?

A. The consultant has a legal requirement to notify employees and employers of

regulatory violations immediately.
B. The consultant has an ethical requirement to notify employees, clients,
employers, and appropriate authorities of unacceptable risks to people.
C. The consultant has a fiduciary responsibility to his client.
D. The consultant has a constitutional obligation to report unsafe acts.
Solution
The first section of the BCSP Code of Ethics states that certificants must:
HOLD paramount the safety and health of people, the protection of the environment and
protection of property in the performance of professional duties and exercise their
obligation to advise employers, clients, employees, the public, and appropriate
authorities of danger and unacceptable risks to people, the environment, or property.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A U.S. consumer is taken ill from eating a raw cookie dough product contaminated
with E. coli. The package states that the cookie dough must be baked before being
consumed. The manufacturer has no quality control procedures in place to ensure
that E. coli is not present. The consumer sues the manufacturer to cover lost wages
and medical expenses while being ill. What type of liability is the plaintiff likely to cite in
their lawsuit?

A. There is no basis for the lawsuit. The manufacturer is clearly not liable based
on the package information.
B. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer violated an express
warranty because the product made no mention of the possibility that E. coli could be
present.
C. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer was strictly liable because
the E. coli was present and made him sick.
D. The plaintiff is likely to claim that the manufacturer was negligent because the
manufacturer should have anticipated the possibility that the product would be eaten
raw by some consumers.
Solution
The manufacturer did not make a specific claim that the cookie dough will not contain e
coli. The manufacturer did not violate an express warranty.
The plaintiff may make a strictly liable claim, but the plaintiff is more likely to claim
negligence. Raw cookie dough is frequently consumed in the United States, and many
ice cream products include raw cookie dough as a major ingredient. The court would
likely hold that a manufacturer should reasonably anticipate the product would be eaten
raw (think about children getting into the refrigerator), and the manufacturer should have
taken steps to ensure e coli is not present in the product.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Workers’ compensation insurance provides:

A. 100% compensation for lost pay resulting from a workplace injury

B. No-fault insurance to workers injured on the job
C. Federal penalties for companies who violate accepted safety practices
D. No coverage for workplace illnesses
Solution
In the 1900’s, the industrial revolution brought with it a rising tide of industrial injuries
that resulted in passage of workers’ compensation laws. By the 1920s, nearly every
state had adopted this no-fault insurance program.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Legal counsel for XYZ company requested a safety audit for the factory. He specified
that the audit be called “Attorney Work Product” and that all communications note this
on the header. Why?

A. The company will not be liable for any audit findings.

B. The audit findings will not be “discoverable.”
C. Regulatory agencies must have a court order to claim the material.
D. To keep the attorney out of trouble.

Solution
A company cannot avoid being responsible for the health and safety of its employees.
However, attorney work product is not discoverable under national and international law
if a warrant or subpoena were to be issued.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the first step in preparing for an emergency?

A. Assemble the necessary equipment

B. Train the response team
C. Develop the emergency response plan
D. Assess the potential hazards
Solution
The first step in planning for an emergency is to assess the potential hazards of the
expected emergency. This must be done before developing a plan on responding to
the hazards.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Dust or mist explosions can occur due to a phenomenon called:

A. Detonation
B. Deflagration
C. Ignition
D. Reaction
Solution
The primary differences between a conflagration and detonation are speed and that
deflagration requires oxygen and detonation does not. Deflagration travels at less than
the speed of sound and detonation travels faster than sound. Dust or mist explosions
require all three components of the fire triangle (heat, oxygen, and fuel). Remove any of
the three and the explosion cannot occur.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which of the following is NOT a primary occupancy classification of NFPA 101?

A. Residential
B. Industrial
C. Health Care
D. Governmental
Solution
The primary occupancy classifications from NFPA 101 are listed below.
Assembly
Educational
Health care
Detention and correctional
Residential
Mercantile
Business
Industrial
Storage

The correct solution is D.

Question
A large tank that previously contained motor oil is to be cleaned. The tank will be
ventilated and the air tested prior to entry for cleaning. What is a safe level of the LFL
for entry?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Solution
The LFL is the lower flammable limit. The atmosphere in a confined space must be
below 10% of the LFL prior to entry.

The correct solution is A.

Question
How much heat would be released from the complete combustion of a 5-gallon
container of gasoline? The density of gasoline is 6.073 lbs/gal and its heating value is
18,772 BTU/lb.

A. 570,003 BTU
B. 570,012 BTU
C. 570,047 BTU
D. 571,055 BTU
Solution
This is a simple unit-conversion problem disguised as a fire safety question. The key to
solving this problem is to identify the units required by the final answer and then devise
a computational path to the desired units using information within the problem and/or
known conversions.

A BTU (British Thermal Unit) is a measure of energy that is equivalent to the amount of
heat required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1˚F. 1 BTU = 1,055 joules = 252
calories.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The following are characteristics of the Incident Command System except:

A. Common terminology
B. Establishment and transfer of command
C. Ultimate authority
D. Accountability
Solution
Ultimate authority is not a characteristic of the Incident Command System as the
authority to manage any given incident may change several times during an incident
depending on the nature of the incident.

The correct solution is C.

Question
ESFR (Early Sensing Fast Response) sprinklers are used in warehouse settings
because they:

A. Are easily maintained

B. Are economical because they can effectively replace in-rack sprinklers
C. Activate at the ignition point of paper
D. Can be use in place of in-rack systems over 45 ft. high.
Question
ESFR (Early Sensing Fast Response) sprinklers are used in warehouse settings
because they:

A. Are easily maintained

B. Are economical because they can effectively replace in-rack sprinklers
C. Activate at the ignition point of paper
D. Can be use in place of in-rack systems over 45 ft. high.
Question
When preparing to enter an area where potential release of hazardous substances has
occurred, the presence and concentrations of specific hazardous substances and health
hazards must be established. Risks associated with these substances include:
Exposures Exceeding the Permissible Exposure Limits and Published Exposure Levels,
IDLH Concentrations, Potential Skin Absorption and Irritation Sources, Potential Eye
Irritation Sources, Explosion Sensitivity and Flammability Ranges, and…

A. Oxygen Deficiency
B. Weather Patterns
C. Humidity
D. Reactivity
Solution
When determining the need for proper respiratory protection a potential entrant must
consider IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) atmospheres and Oxygen
levels.

The correct solution is A.

Question
All of the following are necessary to create a combustible dust explosion except:

A. fuel
B. oxygen
C. confinement
D. poor ventilation
Solution
Fuel, oxygen and heat or spark all occurring within confinement are necessary to create
a combustible dust explosion. Poor ventilation may lead to a buildup of fuel and the
ventilation system may be considered to be confined, but poor ventilation alone is not a
component of a combustible dust fire.
The correct solution is D.
Question
Which type of fire detector is appropriate for a facility manufacturing wooden furniture?

A. Ionizing detector
B. Photoelectric detector
C. Heat detector
D. UV flame detection
Solution
The ionizing detector senses smoke by ionizing smoke particles in the air. This is not a
good choice because there are likely to be lots of particles in the air from working with
the wood.
The photoelectric detector senses smoke when the smoke particles interfere with a
beam of light. This is the not the best choice either.
A heat detector senses a fire from the heat generated. This is a good choice for
storage facilities that can sustain some damage. The fire must usually be well
established before the heat detector senses the flames.
The UV flame detector senses the UV light radiating from flames. This is likely the best
choice.

The correct solution is D.

Question
An envelope containing a white powder is opened in an office. The white powder may
be anthrax spores. Which response is most likely to minimize risks?

A. Set the HVAC on maximum airflow to bring in fresh air.

B. Shut down the airflow through the HVAC system.
C. Set the HVAC on the maximum temperature setting.
D. Set the HVAC on the minimum temperature setting.
Solution
Risk will be minimized by keeping the powder as localized as possible. Shutting down
the HVAC system will keep spores from being spread throughout the workplace.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Select the strongest control measure for prevention of an internet security breach.

A. Comprehensive written internet security program

B. Employee training program
C. Install a firewall
D. Do not allow computers to connect to the internet.
Solution
A comprehensive written program and employee training are examples of administrative
controls. A firewall is an engineering control. The strongest measure in managing
risks is to eliminate the hazard.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which of the following is not a main objective in planning for fire safety in buildings?

A. Requiring the use of noncombustible materials in construction

B. Getting occupants out safely
C. Minimizing property loss for structures and contents
D. Minimizing interruption of operations
Solution
Fundamental objectives for fire safety include
• Getting occupants out safely

• Minimizing property loss for structures and contents

• Minimizing interruption of operations

- Brauer, Roger. Safety and Health for Engineers 2nd edition. John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Hoboken, NJ.

The correct solution is A.

Question
A well-maintained fire suppression system uses wet-pipe sprinklers to control fires in an
office building. The sprinklers are designed to allow water flow when the temperature
of the sprinkler head reaches 100°F. There is a drop-down ceiling in the office building,
and many of the panels in the ceiling have been removed. How is the removal of the
ceiling panels likely to affect the sprinkler head operation?
A. The sprinklers are likely to respond more quickly to a fire.
B. The sprinklers are likely to respond more slowly to a fire.
C. The sprinklers are unaffected by the removal of ceiling panels.
D. There is not enough information to correctly answer this question.
Solution
The hot gases and smoke from a fire will rise past the sprinkler head and collect above
the ceiling panels. It will take longer for the sprinkler heard to reach 100°F.

The correct solution is B.

Question
How close must a fire alarm manual pull station be located next to an exit door?
A. Within 5 feet

B. Within 10 feet
C. Within 15 feet
D. Within 20 feet
Solution
NFPA 72 section 5.13.6 states that manual pull stations must be within 5 feet of an exit
door.
The correct solution is A.
Question
A safety professional is attending a safety conference in a large city. His hotel room is
on the 12th floor. One day while riding the elevator up to his room, a fire alarm is
activated in the hotel. What is the elevator likely to do?

A. Stop at the 12th floor and open the door and lock in this position.
B. Proceed to the floor with the shortest path to the nearest exit discharge, open
the door, and lock in this position.
C. Stop immediately and open the doors so passengers can discharge and enter
a stairwell to exit the building and lock in this position.
D. Stop at the nearest floor and open the doors so passengers can discharge
and enter a stairwell, and lock in this position.
Solution
Elevators are designed to return to the floor of primary recall if a fire is detected. The
floor of primary recall will be the floor that is closest to an exit discharge. This floor will
have a star by its number on the elevator control panel.
If the fire is detected on the floor of primary recall, then the elevator will stop at
secondary floor (often one floor above or below).
The correct solution is B.
Question
List the three aspects of criminal activity.

A. A person intent to steal, a weapon, and a quick method of escape.

B. A package on the front porch, no one home, and the desire to steal.
C. A potential victim or property, motivation to commit the crime, and opportunity to
commit the crime.
D. An unlit parking lot, a person walking to their car alone, and a stranger waiting in
the shadows
Solution
Security professionals define the conditions for a crime to happen as:
1. A potential victim (or property)
2. Desire or motivation to commit the crime
3. The opportunity to commit the crime.
If any one of these is removed, then a crime will not happen.

The correct solution is C.

Question
The main purpose of a dry-pipe sprinkler system is to:

A. Protect expensive electronic equipment.

B. Ensure that sprinkler water does not freeze.
C. Prevent corrosion in sprinklers that could block water flow.
D. To provide dry extinguishing media to the fire such as in a kitchen.
Solution
The main purpose of a dry-pipe system is to keep water in the sprinkler pipes from
freezing. A pre-action sprinkler system is most often used to protect electronic
equipment.

The correct solution is B.

Question
At a minimum, an emergency action plan must include:
• Fire and emergency reporting procedures
 • Procedures for those who remain to operate critical operations prior to evacuation

• Procedures to account for employees after evacuation

• Procedures for emergency evacuation, including the type of evacuation and exit routes

• Procedures for employees performing rescue and medical duties

And which of the following?

A. Contact information for legal counsel and Worker’s Comp insurance

adjuster
B. HAZWOPER training
C. Names of those to contact for further information or explanation about the
plan
D. All emergency procedures in a safe location off-site

Solution
In order to be prepared for an emergency situation at any time, the names of those to
contact for further information or explanation about the plan is needed.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which NFPA Standard is referred to as the Life Safety Code?

A. NFPA 13
B. NFPA 20
C. NFPA 72
D. NFPA 101
Solution
NFPA 13 is the standard for sprinkler systems.
NFPA 20 is the standard for stationary fire pumps.
NFPA 72 is the standard for fire alarms.
NFPA 101 is the life safety code.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the first step in creating an emergency preparedness plan for a public school?
A. Train the faculty to respond to the emergency.
B. Assess all possible hazards.
C. Create an evacuation plan.
D. Develop a communication system.
Solution
The first step in developing an emergency preparedness plan is to assess all the
potential hazards.

The correct solution is B.

Question
An emergency responder has arrived at the scene of an overturned tanker truck that is
spilling its contents onto the road. What is the best resource for the responder to use to
determine which initial actions to take?

A. The hazardous waste manifest.

B. The safety data sheet (SDS).
C. The placards on the tanker truck.
D. The US Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook.
Solution
While the placards on the tanker will help identify the material, the ERG will give the
emergency responder the quickest and best information on first response.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the primary reason for providing ventilation in a battery charging room?

A. Reduce the concentration of sulfuric acid mist.

B. Remove heat from the heat generated by charging batteries.
C. Remove hydrogen gas that could explode.
D. Keep the area dry to prevent electrical shocks.
Solution
Charging of lead-acid batteries can produce hydrogen gas. If hydrogen gas reaches
sufficient concentrations in the presence of a spark, it will explode.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which type of detection device is most likely to first sense the presence of a smoldering
fire started in a hidden compartment?

A. Fixed temperature heat detector

B. Rate-of-rise heat detector
C. Ionization smoke detector
D. Flame detector
Solution
Fixed temperature sensors will alarm when a preset temperature is reached.
Rate-of-rise sensors respond to quick changes in temperature.
Ionization detectors use radioactive materials to detect smoke particles.
Flame detectors monitor specific wavelengths of light evaluating the presence of flames.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the key difference between a detonation and a deflagration?

A. Speed of the resultant concussive wave-front

B. Rate of reaction within the subject material
C. Amount of pressure generated within the surrounding environment
D. Degree of confinement or enclosure around the subject material
Solution
Deflagrations and detonations are general classifications of types of combustion
explosions produced by some exothermic chemical reactions. A chemical reaction that
results in a deflagration has a rate of reaction that is slower than that of one that
produces a detonation. A deflagration will not always produce sufficiently rapid
increases of pressure to produce what would be recognized as an “explosion”, but a
detonation typically does produce an explosion. The primary difference between a
deflagration and a detonation is the rate of reaction within the subject material.
For more on explosions and their hazards, refer to Chapter 17 of Safety and Health for
Engineers (2nd edition), by Roger L. Brauer.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Under the Incident Command System, “effective span of control” refers to the number of
persons that a supervisor can effectively manage during an incident response. What is
the maximum range of direct reports recommended for effective resource
management?

A. 1 to 4
B. 3 to 7
C. 4 to 8
D. 5 to 9
Solution
The maximum range recommended for effective resource management is from 3 to 7
direct reports with a recommended ratio of 1 supervisor per 5 direct
reports. Source: http://training.fema.gov/EMIWeb/IS/courseOverview.aspx?code=IS-10
0.b

The correct solution is B.

Question
The Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act (EPCRA) requires that for
any hazardous chemical used or stored in the workplace, facilities must maintain a
Safety Data Sheet (SDS). Facilities must submit SDSs, or a list of hazardous
chemicals, to which of the following?

A. A third-party emergency response firm with the capability to deal with hazardous
chemicals.
B. The EPA (biennially) along with a plan for reducing the use of hazardous
materials.
C. State Emergency Response Commission (SERC), Local Emergency Planning
Committee (LEPC), and their local fire department.
D. They are not required to submit anything but must maintain a chemical inventory
on file.
Solution
SARA title 3, section 311 requires facilities to submit a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for any
hazardous chemical used in the workplace. They must also submit an annual inventory
of these chemicals by March 1 of each year to their SERC, LEPC, and local fire
department. The information submitted by facilities must be made available to the
public.

The correct solution is C

Question
A chemical reaction that produces a pressure wave that is less than the speed of sound
is considered to be:

A. a detonation
B. an explosion
C. a deflagration
D. a BLEVE
Solution
The definition of a deflagration is a chemical reaction that has an associated pressure
wave that has the speed less than the speed of sound. Most industrial fires would be
considered deflagrations.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which type of automatic fire suppression system utilizes sensors within the protected
area in addition to sensors in each sprinkler head to open a valve and fill the distribution
pipe before the sprinkler heads open?

A. Wet-pipe
B. Dry-pipe
C. Preaction
D. Deluge
Solution
A wet-pipe sprinkler system always contains water under pressure.
A dry-pipe sprinkler system is used in locations where freezing can be a problem and so
the system is filled with pressurized gas which, upon opening of a sprinkler head, is
released allowing water to fill the system and be distributed by open sprinkler heads.
A preaction system is a special type of dry-pipe system that utilizes additional sensors
which cause the affected parts of the system to fill with water before the sprinkler heads
open. The advantage of a preaction system over a traditional dry-pipe system is that it
delivers pressurized water to the affected parts of the system more quickly than in a
straight dry-pipe system.
A deluge system has all sprinkler heads open at all times and utilizes sensors within the
protected area to actuate a water valve and deliver water to the open sprinkler heads.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the approximate total pressure loss due to friction within 1500 ft of an 8” ID
sprinkler supply pipe with a coefficient of friction of 137 with a flow rate of 1250 gpm?

A. 6.2 psi
B. 10.8 psi
C. 16.2 psi
D. 22.8 psi
Solution
Pressure loss due to friction is determined using the following formula:

Where:
Pd is pressure loss due to friction in psi/ft
Q is flow rate in gallons per minute
C is coefficient of friction
d is the inside diameter measurement of the pipe

Plugging in the values from the problem, we get:

Multiplying the Pd by the distance of the run:

Total loss = 1,500 ft x (10.8 x 10-3 psi/ft) = 16.2 psi

The correct solution is C.

Question
A group of safety engineers are attending a safety conference. The group enters an
elevator on the 16th floor of their hotel and presses the button for the lobby. While they
are riding the elevator to the lobby, a fire alarm is triggered in the building. On which
floor will the elevator stop and discharge its passengers?
A. Lobby marked “L” on the elevator panel
B. Garage marked “G” on the elevator panel
C. First floor marked “1” on the elevator panel
D. Second floor marked “2*” where the * is a star on the elevator panel.
Solution
Elevator panels always have a floor marked with a star. This floor is the floor of primary
recall in the event a fire is detected in the building.

The correct solution is D.

Question
An employee from XYZ contractor is working inside a chemical storage tank under a
confined space permit. The attendant, who has been conversing with the entrant, steps
out of hearing range to answer a radio call. When he returns and speaks to the entrant,
there is no response. What is the attendant’s next action?

A. Go inside the tank just for a second or two to verify that the entrant is still
there
B. Contact his supervisor and explain the situation
C. Assume that the entrant has exited the tank
D. Initiate rescue operations
Solution
While the attendant may make periodic atmospheric checks, his attention must be
focused on the entrant at all times. An attendant must never enter the confined space.
The only correct response after the entrant failed to respond was to assume the worst
and initiate rescue operations.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What type of information from the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook is readily
available to a police officer responding to an accident involving a tractor-trailer carrying
hazardous materials?

A. OSHA Permissible Exposure Limits of the hazardous material

B. Manufacturer’s identity and phone number
C. Evaporation rate of the substance
D. Initial guidance on response procedures
Solution
The emergency response guidebook provides guidance on the initial response to a
hazardous materials incident.

The correct solution is D.

Question
The weakest and most overlooked link in most organizations’ security is:

A. The human factor

B. Lack of budgeting for software upgrades
C. Weak or faulty firewalls
D. Outdated or nonfunctional access controls
Solution
The weakest link in most organizations’ security is the human factor, not financing or
technology. Even though it is the weakest link, it is often overlooked in security
programs.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Look at the table below. Select the most flammable substance based on air
concentration.

Substance LFL (% volume) UFL (% volume)

Acetone 2.5 13
Carbon disulfide 1.3 50
Ethanol 3.3 19
Gasoline 1.4 7.6

A. Acetone
B. Carbon disulfide
C. Ethanol
D. Gasoline
Solution
LFL stands for lower flammability limit. It is the airborne concentration of a substance in
which there is enough fuel and oxygen present in normal atmospheres to support
combustion.
The substance with the lowest LFL is the most flammable based on air concentration.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A fire truck with a 500-gallon water tank arrives on the scene of a residential fire. The
firefighters immediately string 2” water hose and start spraying down the structure. The
water hose is using water at the rate of 200 gallons per minute. How much time does
the team have to connect the truck to a fire hydrant before the water tank runs dry?

A. 2.0 minutes
B. 2.5 minutes
C. 5.0 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Solution
Total water used = time x water usage rate
500 gal = time x 200 gal/min

The correct solution is

Question
What type of fire extinguisher rating is appropriate for a restaurant kitchen?

A. Class K
B. Class B
C. Class A
D. Class ABC
Solution
Class A fires are fueled by ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, and cloth.
Class B fires are fueled by liquids such as paint and oil.
Class C fires involved electrified equipment such as electric motors.
Class D fires are fueled by solid metals such as potassium and sodium.
Class K fires are fueled by cooking oils and greases.

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is important to remember about fire rated walls?

A. Fire rated walls do not need to be maintained once built.

B. Fire rated walls must not allow passage of heat, fire gas, or smoke.
C. Fire rated walls must be clearly marked with an exit sign.
D. Fire rated walls do not need to be sealed around penetrations of electrical
conduit, but they must be sealed around plumbing penetrations.
Solution
Fire rated walls are designed to contain a fire or slow the spread of the fire. Any
penetrations that allow hot gases and smoke to pass through the wall destroy the
integrity of the wall.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the minimum clearance needed between the ceiling of an office space and the
top of materials stored on filing cabinets where sprinklers are flush with the ceiling?

A. 6 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
Solution
A minimum clearance of 18 inches is required below ceilings to allow sprinklers to work
effectively.
The words in italics were added to correct the original question based on information
provided by Gary Ciampenelli.
Here is the additional information:
Storage must be 18” below bottom of the sprinkler head; if you have a sprinkler which is
three inches below the ceiling the storage height would be 21 inches. Your [original]
question also does not provide enough conditions as written. If the room is not
sprinklered the storage would be 24” below the ceiling.
Thank you, Gary.
The correct solution is C.
Question
Which of the following will increase fire risk in an office building?

A. Elevated humidity levels

B. Low volume of outdoor air in the HVAC system
C. Mounting the HVAC compressor and fan on the roof
D. Missing ceiling tiles from a suspended ceiling with fire sprinklers
Solution
Smoke from a fire rises. Sprinkler heads with a suspended ceiling are mounted at the
level of the ceiling tiles. When ceiling tiles are missing, smoke from a fire can rise
above the tiles causing a delayed response time for the sprinklers.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which of the following is effective fire prevention?

A. Smoke and heat detectors

B. Carbon monoxide sensors
C. Explosion-proof cabinets for storing gasoline cans
D. Well-maintained fire extinguishers

Solution
Smoke and heat detectors are used for fire detection at an early or incipient stage. Fire
extinguishers can prevent that same incipient fire from escalating. Storing flammable
liquids such as gasoline in explosion-proof cabinets can prevent a fire from starting.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What classification would be given to a fire containing lithium?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Solution
Lithium is a combustible metal; therefore it would be classified as a Class D fire.
Class A: Materials such as wood, rubbish
Class B: Oil, grease, paints
Class C: Electrical equipment
Class D: Combustible metals
Class K: Cooking oil and grease

The correct solution is D.

Question
Given the options below when developing emergency planning guidelines, which option
would take priority?

A. Safe re-entry procedures

B. Securing the scene of an emergency
C. Protect yourself/organizational employees
D. Identification of the hazard
Solution
When developing emergency planning guidelines for an organization, the recommended
priority is for workers to “protect themselves”. Other general guidelines include:
· Identification of the hazard
· Securing the scene
· Obtaining additional help/resources
· Following through with safe site entry

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which situations below are most likely to lead to a workplace violence incident?

A. Low morale and lost productivity

B. Substance abuse and conflicts with co-workers
C. Introduction of new equipment to facility
D. New security measures at facility
Solution
Common triggers of a workplace violence incident include: disputes with co-workers
and/or customers, personal financial issues, company layoffs, unfavorable performance
review, a perceived “unfairness”, substance abuse, personal problems and emotional
problems.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which fire extinguisher should be used on a trash can full of paper ignited by a
cigarette?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class K
Solution
Class A fire extinguishers are used on ordinary combustible materials.
Class B fire extinguishers are used on combustible liquids.
Class C fire extinguishers are used for electrical fires.
Class K fire extinguishers are used for commercial kitchen fires.

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is the purpose of the fire stop in building construction?

A. It stops fires from starting.

B. It extinguishes fires within 2 minutes of ignition.
C. It is a point in the building that will allow the fire department to tap into the
sprinkler system.
D. It stops fire from spreading.
Solution
Fire stops are used to prevent the hot gases in a fire from spreading through the
structures. Fire stops may be fire walls, and they may be caulks or insulation placed in
gaps between floors and rooms.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the minimum temperature at which liquid gives off vapor within a test vessel in
sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with the air at or near the surface of
the liquid?

A. UFL
B. LFL
C. Flash Point
D. EFL
Solution
The flash point of a substance is the minimum temperature at which liquid gives off
vapor within a test vessel in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with the
air near the surface of the liquid. Flash point is an indication of the susceptibility of
ignition.
UFL: Upper flammability limit-maximum vapor concentration supporting combustion
LFL: Lower flammability limit- minimum vapor concentration supporting combustion

The correct solution is C.

Question
The first layer of physical security at a manufacturing facility is likely to be:

A. the entry point.

B. perimeter security.
C. interior security.
D. detection equipment.
Solution
The first layer of physical security is the perimeter. This is likely to be a fence.
The second layer of physical security is the entry point to the property. This is likely to
be a guard to check identification before entering.
A third layer of physical security might be detection equipment at a security desk.
A fourth layer of physical security is likely to ensure all visitors are escorted.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The three basic types of physical security controls are prevention, detection, and
response. Which of the following could be considered to address all three?
A. Smoke and heat detectors
B. Network firewall
C. Access control to the facility
D. Documented processes
Solution
Smoke and heat detectors only supply- as the name implies- detection. However, they
could be configured to initiate a responsive fire suppression system.
Access control systems are generally understood to be preventative, and as technology
advances, detective.
Documentation of processes supplies instructions for prevention of factors such as
human error.
Network Firewalls, when installed as security measures, can detect hackers and
malware, prevent them from accessing sensitive data and respond by requiring
verification of information such as suspicious emails or by “locking” certain sites.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the flashpoint of an NFPA Class IIIA combustible liquid?

A. <73 F
B. ≥73 F and <100 F
C. ≥100 F and <140 F
D. ≥140 F and <200 F
Solution
Letter A is characteristic of Class IA and IB flammable liquids.
Letter B describes a Class IC flammable liquid.
Letter C describes a Class II combustible liquid.
Letter D describes a Class IIIA combustible liquid.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Physical security hardening measures include:
A. Fencing, locks, access control cards
B. Sign-in logs
C. Visitor escort
D. Criminal trespass charges
Solution
In addition to fencing, locks, access control cards, a “hard” physical security system can
also include monitoring physical using surveillance cameras and notification systems,
such as intrusion detection sensors, heat sensors and smoke detectors and fire
suppression systems.
The correct solution is A.
Question
Harry’s haunted house is a popular attraction at Halloween. Customers walk through
an old mansion through scenes of horrible crimes with ghosts and witches and goblins
and other monsters. Harry is concerned about the safety of his customers and
employees. He spent over $50,000 to install fire sprinklers in the mansion in case of
fire. Harry’s haunted house has one dead-end corridor that is 70 feet long.
Has Harry violated sound fire safety practice? Why?

A. No. Harry does not need to worry about fire exits because he installed a fire
sprinkler system.
B. No. Fire codes do not generally apply to temporary or seasonal businesses.
C. Yes. Sprinklers are not allowed as fire extinguishers.
D. Yes. Harry exceeded the fire codes on the maximum length of a dead-end
corridor protected with a sprinkler.
Solution
The maximum length of a dead-end corridor using sprinkler protection is 50 ft. in a
mercantile occupancy.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which types of materials do not increase fire risk when stored together?

A. Acids and alkali salts

B. Oxidizers and oils
C. Paper and wood
D. Oxidizers and explosives
Solution
Acids and alkali salts will react with each other.
Oxidizers support combustion. Oil is a fuel of combustion and explosives should be
stored separately.
Paper and wood are both made from wood fiber. These materials will not increase fire
risk when stored together.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Fine airborne dispersions of which one of the following materials is least likely to
facilitate a combustible dust explosion?

A. Carbon black
B. Wheat flour
C. Diatomaceous earth
D. Aluminum
Solution
All of the choices except for C may present an increased risk of combustible dust
explosions.
Diatomaceous earth, also known as amorphous silica (CAS 61790-53-2), is commonly
used as a liquid filtration aid and its composition is 80-90% silica. Amorphous silica is
the naturally-occurring non-crystalline form of silicon dioxide, and it is not believed to be
a human carcinogen. Crystalline silica (CAS 14808-60-7) is a known human
carcinogen.
References: http://www.osha.gov/Publications/combustibledustposter.pdf , http://www.o
sha.gov/Publications/3371combustible-dust.pdf ,
and http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/npg/npgd0552.html

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the approximate total pressure loss due to friction within 1500 ft of an 8” ID
sprinkler supply pipe with a coefficient of friction of 137 with a flow rate of 1250 gpm?

A. 6.2 psi
B. 10.8 psi
C. 16.2 psi
D. 22.8 psi
Solution
Pressure loss due to friction is determined using the following formula:
Where:
Pd is pressure loss due to friction in psi/ft
Q is flow rate in gallons per minute
C is coefficient of friction
d is the inside diameter measurement of the pipe

Plugging in the values from the problem, we get:

Multiplying the Pd by the distance of the run:

Total loss = 1,500 ft x (10.8 x 10-3 psi/ft) = 16.2 psi

The correct solution is C.

Question
Look at the table below. Select the most flammable substance based on air
concentration.

Substance LFL (% volume) UFL (% volume)

Acetone 2.5 13
Carbon disulfide 1.3 50
Ethanol 3.3 19
Gasoline 1.4 7.6

A. Acetone
B. Carbon disulfide
C. Ethanol
D. Gasoline
Solution
LFL stands for lower flammability limit. It is the airborne concentration of a substance in
which there is enough fuel and oxygen present in normal atmospheres to support
combustion.
The substance with the lowest LFL is the most flammable based on air concentration.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The three basic types of physical security controls are prevention, detection, and
response. Which of the following could be considered to address all three?

A. Smoke and heat detectors

B. Network firewall
C. Access control to the facility
D. Documented processes
Solution
Smoke and heat detectors only supply- as the name implies- detection. However, they
could be configured to initiate a responsive fire suppression system.
Access control systems are generally understood to be preventative, and as technology
advances, detective.
Documentation of processes supplies instructions for prevention of factors such as
human error.
Network Firewalls, when installed as security measures, can detect hackers and
malware, prevent them from accessing sensitive data and respond by requiring
verification of information such as suspicious emails or by “locking” certain sites.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which is most accurate for adult learners vs. child learners?

A. Adults learn best by repetition or “rote”

B. Adults are dependent on the instructor knowledge
C. Adults are more motivated by external pressures
D. Adults want to know the reason for training and how it benefits them
Solution
Adults learn best through practical application and “hands-on” techniques such as role
play and case study. They tend to apply new concepts to their own experiences and
knowledge. Adults are more motivated when they know why they are being trained or
“what’s in it for them.”

The correct solution is D.

Question
According to ANSI/ASME B13.1 standard for color coding, a pipe carrying sodium
hydroxide should carry which color?

A. Purple as special cleaning material

B. Red due to its dangerous properties
C. Orange because it is a corrosive liquid
D. It is up to the company to select a color
Solution
The original “ANSI 6" are: Yellow (with black lettering) for flammable fluids and gasses,
Red (with white lettering) for fire-quenching fluids, Orange (with black lettering) for
corrosive fluids and gasses, Green (with white lettering) for all water (potable, boiler,
etc.), Blue (with white lettering) for air, and Brown (with white lettering) for combustible
fluids and gasses. Sodium hydroxide is a corrosive liquid.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Select the best written training objective below.

A. Participants will be able to list the criteria that define a permit-required confined
space.
B. Participants will understand the importance of using an attendant during a
permit-required confined space entry.
C. Participants will review the definition of a permit-required confined space.
D. Participants will want to use a multiple gas monitoring system when entering
permit-required confined spaces.
Solution
Well written training objectives describe an action that learners will be able to
accomplish after the training is completed. The action should be measurable, and there
are typically conditions, constraints, and clearly defined success for meeting the
objective.

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is the first step in creating a training program when following the ADDIE model?

A. Implement the training

B. Evaluate the training
C. Develop the training
D. Analyze the training needs
Solution
ADDIE is an acronym for analyze, design, develop, implement, and evaluate. The first
step is to analyze the training needs and objectives.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the generally accepted maximum time between breaks for a training workshop?

A. 60 minutes
B. 90 minutes
C. 120 minutes
D. 4 hours
Solution
The maximum time between breaks for a training workshop is 90 minutes.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is cognitive learning?

A. Development of attitudes feelings and preferences.

B. Development of competence in the performance of a task.
C. Acquiring information and concepts coupled with the ability to apply it to new
situations.
D. Development of resources to meet a specific need.
Solution
Affective learning is the fostering of attitudes, feelings and preferences.
Behavioral learning is the development of competence in the performance of tasks,
procedures, operations and techniques.
Cognitive learning is the acquisition of information and concepts related to course
content.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What training technique provides the greatest participant retention?

A. Students reading material

B. Students listening to a lecture
C. Students watching a video
D. Students actively participating in a training game
Solution
Average retention rates of instructional modes are given below1:
Lecture 5%
Reading 10%
Audiovisuals 20%
Demonstration 30%
Discussion 50%
Practice by Doing 75%
Teaching others 90%

1
Silberman, Mel. Active Training. John Wiley & Sons, Inc. San Francisco, CA. 2006.
Question
Question
A lean manufacturing technique which focuses on prevention or detection of errors is
called:

A. Poka-Yoke
B. Kaizen
C. 5-S
D. Design of experiments
Solution
Dr. Shigeo Shingo developed the concept of Poka-Yoke as a mistake-proofing idea.
There are two basic types: prevention and detection. Control poka-yoke stops a process
before an error can occur. An example would be a fixture that only allows a part to be
inserted properly for processing. Detection poka-yoke provides communication or alarm
when an error occurs and stops the process until a correction is implemented.
Kaizen, a Japanese term, refers to continuous improvement.
5-S is a structured method for creating and improving housekeeping.
Design of experiments is one technique for lean manufacturing implementation.

The correct solution is A

Question
Given the choices below, what would be considered a training objective?

A. Know the value of ethics in the occupational health community

B. Be aware of the safety and health rules of the organization
C. Compare and list the benefits with active and passive sampling methods
D. Aim to develop comprehensive listening techniques
Solution
Learning objectives provide a clear indication of the goals and purpose of
training. Trainers can use them to focus on the training and to assess performance and
success of participants. Participants can also use them to evaluate training from their
own perspective.
Learning objectives are a set of statements setting out what the participants should be
able to demonstrate or understand by the end of the training session. Solution “C”
provides the platform for both demonstration (list and compare) and understanding.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Four characteristics of sound training programs include: accurate information, a
credible instructor, clarity and _________.
A. Foundational
B. Fundamental
C. Practical
D. Exceptional
Solution
A general review of training “best practices” reveals four characteristics that sound
training programs have in common. The best training programs are accurate, credible,
clear and practical
Accurate Training materials should be prepared by qualified individuals, updated as
needed, and facilitated by appropriately qualified and experienced individuals employing
appropriate training techniques and methods.
Credible Training facilitators should have a general safety and health background or be
a subject matter expert in a health or safety- related field. They should also have
experience training adults or experience working with the target population. Practical
experience in the field of safety and health as well as experience in training facilitation
contribute to a higher degree of facilitator credibility.
Clear Training programs must not only be accurate and believable, but they
must also be clear and understandable to the participant
Training materials should be written in the language and grammar of the everyday
speech of the participants. Training developers should ensure that readability and
language choices match the intended audience.
Practical Training programs should present information, ideas, and skills that
participants see as directly useful in their working lives. Successful transfer of learning
occurs when the participant can see how information presented in a training session
can be applied in the workplace.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which training method is likely to maximize learner retention of a manual skill?

A. One-hour lecture with no hands-on practice

B. 30-minute lecture followed with 30 minutes of hands-on practice
C. 60-minute discussion followed with 30 minutes of hands-on practice
D. Brief demonstration of the skill followed by hands-on practice, and skill review
on a regular basis until the skill is mastered.
Solution
Retention of manual skills is greatly improved with hands-on practice and regular
review.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Select the correct statement about education and training.

A. There is no difference between education and training.

B. Training focuses on developing skills or behavior change.
C. Education focuses on how to do something.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Solution
According to the National Safety Council, the focus on education is on how much
people know, not how well they apply the information. It provides the “what and why” of
a subject but not the “how”. Training focuses on developing skills or behavior change
and provides information on how to do a task.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which of the following is most important when developing a training lesson plan?

A. Exciting introduction
B. Interesting video
C. Measurable training objectives
D. Hands-on demonstration
Solution
Health and safety training must include measurable objectives. The objectives describe
what the trainees will learn from the training. It is the starting point for lesson plan
development.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which of the following is most important when conducting safety training?
A. Provide cookies and snacks for participants.
B. Instill a sense of fear in participants regarding serious hazards.
C. Keep participants mentally active during the training.
D. Assure participants there is no reason to be concerned with serious hazards.
Solution
Training presentation must be geared to the values and learning styles of the trainees.
It is important to keep trainees mentally active.
Trainers must avoid unreasonable fear of occupational hazards and lack of fear of
occupational hazards.
- Saccaro, Joseph A. Developing Safety Training Programs. Van Nostrand
Reinhold. New York, NY. 1994.

The correct solution is C.

Question
People are most likely to remember:

A. What they hear

B. What they say
C. What they practice
D. What they read
Solution
According to The Cone of Learning, we remember about 10% of what we read, about
20% of what we hear, about 70% of what we say, and about 90% of what we practice.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Select the best written objective below.

A. At the end of this training, participants will be able to determine proper

respiratory protection for all painting applications.
B. At the end of this training, participants will know about respirators.
C. At the end of this training, participants will want to review respiratory protection
requirements before painting.
D. At the end of this lesson, participants will have watched a movie.
Solution
Training objectives must describe under what conditions a behavior will be
accomplished and to what level of mastery.

The correct solution is A.

Question
When training adult workers successful transfer of learning occurs when:

A. The worker fully understands that the training is a requirement for employment
or continued employment.
B. The worker understands how the training materials can apply to their job.
C. The worker can repeat the subject matter almost verbatim.
D. The worker achieves a passing score on an exam.
Solution
Adults expect to gain information that is immediately applicable to their life experiences.
Adult workers learn information that has a practical application to their job very quickly.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Designers of adult training often follow the ADDIE model. What does ADDIE mean?

A. Analysis, Design, Develop, Implement, Evaluate

B. Attitudes Develop Delightful Instructional Exams
C. Ask, Decide, Driven, Inspire, Excite
D. Attire, Determination, Daring, Insightful, Entertaining
Solution
ADDIE stands for Analysis, Design, Develop, Implement, Evaluate.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Active training is an effective method of training employees. Active training requires
that _______

A. instructors actively demonstrate the lesson material.

B. instructors remain animated and active throughout the lesson.
C. instructors actively read to their students.
D. employees do most of the work in the lesson.
Solution
Active training requires that students do most of the work. They are active (doing
something) in the learning process.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Training works best for problems that are:

A. Information and practice related

B. Equipment related
C. Employee motivation related
D. Reoccurring
Solution
Training is not the solution for every safety and health problem. Training works best
when problems are information or practice related, meaning that the employee does not
have the information or does not know how to do something.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Which of the following training objectives would be an example of a “SMART” goal?

A. Employees will understand the importance of wearing PPE.

B. Employees will be able to conduct behavior-based safety observations.
C. Employees will be able to identify the recommended PPE on a safety data sheet
within 10 minutes.
D. Employees will know how to neutralize an acid spill from a forklift battery.

Solution
For a training goal to be a SMART goal, it must be specific, measurable, achievable,
realistic and time-bound. Answer C includes all the SMART goal elements.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which solution below best describes synchronous web-based training?
A. Learners review previously recorded lectures, and complete assignments on their
own time.
B. Learners participate in group discussions using an online message board at their
convenience.
C. Learners download reading lessons and homework assignments from the internet
to complete on their own schedule.
D. Learners join a live virtual classroom to participate in real time with the instructor
and other participants.
Solution
Synchronous training happens when the instructor and the participants are in class at
the same time.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the primary purpose of Kirkpatrick training model?

A. Measure the reaction and behavior or participants

B. Evaluate the effectiveness of training
C. Measure participant’s reaction and response to stimuli during training
D. Observe participant behavior and reaction to training material
Solution
The Kirkpatrick Model is the worldwide standard for evaluating the effectiveness of
training. It considers the value of any type of training, formal or informal, across four
levels. Level 1 Reaction evaluates how participants respond to the training. Level 2
Learning measures if they actually learned the material. Level 3 Behavior considers if
they are using what they learned on the job, and Level 4 Results evaluates if the
training positively impacted the organization.
Created by Dr. Don Kirkpatrick in the 1950s, the model is applied before, during and
after training to both maximize and demonstrate training's value to the organization.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What training program management functions must be evaluated?

A. Accountability, Responsibility, Development, and Evaluation process

B. Responsibility, Sustainability, Process Immobilization, and Equalization
C. Development, Administration, and Process Evaluation
D. None of the above

Solution
The correct solution is A.

Source: ANSI/ASSE Z490.1

Question
Under the GHS (Global Harmonized System) what signal words are required on Safety
Data Sheets and Labels?

A. Flammable, toxic, carcinogenic

B. Long term (chronic) and short term (acute) effects
C. Explanation of any pictogram
D. Either “Warning” or “Danger”
Solution
One of two signal words must be used under the Global Harmonized System to
communicate the severity of hazard of a substance, either “Warning” or “Danger.”

The correct solution is D.

Question
The criteria for training instructors should include:

A. An appropriate level of technical knowledge, skills, and abilities in the subjects

they teach.
B. Be competent in delivery techniques and methods appropriate to adult learning
C. Maintain training skills by participating in continuing education, development
programs, or experience related to their subject matter expertise and delivery skills
D. All of the above.
Solution
The correct solution is D.

Source: ANSI/ASSE Z490.1

Question
The safety manager of a manufacturing plant was discussing with a contractor the
importance of wearing seatbelts while driving a fork truck. When the contractor stated
that the fork truck belonged to the contractor and that they had their own rules, the
manager replied: “Get off the fork truck.” Which communication style most correctly
describes the statement?

A. Passive
B. Passive-aggressive
C. Assertive
D. Aggressive
Solution
Passive communicators are more likely to act indifferently, yielding to others.
Passive-aggressive communicators will mutter to themselves rather than confront a
person or issue. Assertive communicators aim for both sides to win in a situation.
Aggressive communicators often issue commands, ask questions rudely, and fail to
listen to others.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which of the following selections describes important aspects of all safety training
programs?

A. Needs Assessment, Lesson Plans, Record Keeping

B. Needs Assessment, Powerpoint Presentations, Record Keeping
C. Lesson Plans, Record Keeping, Appropriate Videotape
D. Needs Assessment, Appropriate Videotape, Lesson Plans
Solution
All safety training programs should include the following:
Needs assessment – determine what training is needed at your facility
Training delivered by a competent person
Lesson plans – Training should be designed to meet the training needs, these should
include learning objectives and ways to evaluate training effectiveness
Record Keeping – training needs to be documented
Program evaluation – ensure training efforts are meeting the needs

The correct solution is A.

Question
Which method of communicating safety rules to employees is most likely to be
successful?

A. New-hire orientation meeting with human resources.

B. Posting a copy of rules on the company bulletin board.
C. Annual email with a copy of safety rules sent out to all employees.
D. One-on-one communication between co-workers or from a direct supervisor.
Solution
Employee participation in developing safety rules and procedures is likely to receive
greater acceptance than rules handed down from management.
Frequent and direct communication with a co-worker or a direct supervisor is the best
way to develop relationships and foster effective communication.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which skill is most helpful in resolving conflicts?

A. Using facts and logic to actively state the proof of your truth.
B. Reacting immediately to all incorrect statements.
C. Actively listening to the other party, and re-stating what was heard without using
language of moral judgment.
D. Using power and authority to force the opposition into submission.
Solution
Conflicts are best resolved through understanding each of the viewpoints from the
concerned parties. The use of active listening to hear the other party and share what is
heard is essential.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which sign color typically represents a safe condition?

A. Red
B. Orange
C. Yellow
D. Green
Solution
Red typically signifies dangerous conditions.
Orange is typically used as a warning color.
Yellow signifies important information.
Green is typically used to indicate a safe condition.

The correct solution is D.

Question
When sending out an email message to a large audience, it is important to:

A. use all capital letters for the text.

B. use language loquaciously.
C. write in short, simple and clear sentences.
D. use common abbreviations.
Solution
All capital letters in the text of an email is frequently interpreted as shouting.
Messages to large groups of people should be short, simple, and clear. Messages that
are too long are often not read. Complex messages and abbreviations may be
misunderstood.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which of the following training techniques provides retention of material on a scale of
less retention to greater retention?

A. practicing the material, seeing the material, reading the material

B. reading the material, hearing the material, practicing the material
C. verbalizing the material, seeing the material, hearing the material
D. seeing the material, verbalizing the material, reading the material
Solution
People tend to retain information at the following rates:
· reading the material 10%
· hearing the material 20%
· seeing the material 30%
· seeing and hearing the material 50%
· verbalizing the material 70%
· practicing the material 90%
Based on the above scale, reading the material, hearing the material, and practicing the
material is the best answer.

The correct solution is B.

Question
George S., plant manager at ABC Chemical Company, has implemented a very detailed
communication policy. He went onto the floor one morning without wearing eye
protection. A machine operator stopped him and asked him to go back and get his
safety glasses. George politely refused, stating that he did not have time. What very
important communication concept did George fail to observe?
A. Setting clear and concise communication standards
B. Defining rolls and responsibilities
C. Leading by example
D. Nothing: as plant manager, George had a perfect right to be on the floor
without eye protection
Solution
Probably the most important concept in any communications program is that there are
no double standards. Best practice, in this case, is to always enforce and, more
importantly, follow safety rules and lead by example.
The correct solution is C.
Question
What training program management functions must be evaluated?

A. Accountability, Responsibility, Development, and Evaluation process

B. Responsibility, Sustainability, Process Immobilization, and Equalization
C. Development, Administration, and Process Evaluation
D. None of the above
Solution
The correct solution is A.

Source: ANSI/ASSE Z490.1

Question
Which training method is likely to maximize learner retention of basic knowledge?
A. Repeating a PowerPoint presentation of the information 3 times within one
week.
B. Presenting a PowerPoint presentation once followed by a memory quiz
administered three times over a four-week period.
C. Provide a handout of the information to the learner followed by a memory quiz
administered one week later.
D. Hang a poster with the information on an employee bulletin board.
Solution
Basic knowledge is more easily retained when a learner has practiced recalling the
information multiple times.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is one of the benefits of using a quiz at the end of a safety training lesson?

A. A quiz can be written to ensure everyone answers all questions correctly and
documents that the lesson objectives are met.
B. A quiz can provide another learning opportunity.
C. A quiz can inspire participants to learn more about the subject.
D. A quiz can document improved attitudes of participants.
Solution
There are 3 main benefits when using a quiz with a safety training lesson.
1. The quiz is another form of documentation that employees completed the training.
2. The quiz encourages learners to pay attention.
3. The quiz is another learning opportunity. Learners are engaged when completing
a quiz; questions can be written to emphasize specific points from the lesson.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Select the best written training objective from the options below.

A. Participants will be able to locate the safety data sheets for chemicals in the
workplace.
B. Participants will understand the need to wear a seat belt.
C. Participants will want to follow all safety rules.
D. Participants will have fewer accidents.
Solution
Training objectives must be measurable knowledge or skills that participants can
demonstrate after training is completed.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Employee performance problems caused by ___________ are most likely to be
amenable to training solutions.

A. Poor supervision
B. Environmental factors
C. Lack of skills and knowledge
D. Insufficient motivation to perform
Solution
Performance problems caused by lack of skills and knowledge are most amenable to
training solutions because training can provide the skills and knowledge to employees.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Training works best for problems that are:

A. Information and practice related

B. Equipment related
C. Employee motivation related
D. Reoccurring
Solution
Training is not the solution for every safety and health problem. Training works best
when problems are information or practice related, meaning that the employee does not
have the information or does not know how to do something.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Select the correct statement about education and training.

A. There is no difference between education and training.

B. Training focuses on developing skills or behavior change.
C. Education focuses on how to do something.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Solution
According to the National Safety Council, the focus on education is on how much
people know, not how well they apply the information. It provides the “what and why” of
a subject but not the “how”. Training focuses on developing skills or behavior change
and provides information on how to do a task.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Active training is an effective method of training employees. Active training requires
that _______

A. instructors actively demonstrate the lesson material.

B. instructors remain animated and active throughout the lesson.
C. instructors actively read to their students.
D. employees do most of the work in the lesson.
Solution
Active training requires that students do most of the work. They are active (doing
something) in the learning process.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Given the choices below, what would be considered a training objective?

A. Know the value of ethics in the occupational health community

B. Be aware of the safety and health rules of the organization
C. Compare and list the benefits with active and passive sampling methods
D. Aim to develop comprehensive listening techniques
Solution
Learning objectives provide a clear indication of the goals and purpose of
training. Trainers can use them to focus on the training and to assess performance and
success of participants. Participants can also use them to evaluate training from their
own perspective.
Learning objectives are a set of statements setting out what the participants should be
able to demonstrate or understand by the end of the training session. Solution “C”
provides the platform for both demonstration (list and compare) and understanding.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which of the following training objectives would be an example of a “SMART” goal?

A. Employees will understand the importance of wearing PPE.

B. Employees will be able to conduct behavior-based safety observations.
C. Employees will be able to identify the recommended PPE on a safety data sheet
within 10 minutes.
D. Employees will know how to neutralize an acid spill from a forklift battery.
Solution
For a training goal to be a SMART goal, it must be specific, measurable, achievable,
realistic and time-bound. Answer C includes all the SMART goal elements.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Estimate the dose of a 25 mCi source emitting photons with an energy level of 1.33
MeV at a distance of 1 foot.

A. 25 mrem/hr
B. 50 mrem/hr
C. 100 mrem/hr
D. 200 mrem/hr
Solution
The equation can be used to estimate the dose rate at a distance of 1
foot.

S = dose rate (rad/hr) (1 rem = 1 rad for gamma and beta radiation)
C = activity (curies)
E = energy level (MeV)

6(0.025)(1.33) = 0.20 rad/hr = 200 mrem/hr

Question
To determine when a patient who has been treated with Iodine-131 for thyroid cancer
can safely be near other people, what must be calculated?

A. The patient’s metabolism

B. The radioactive half-life of I-131
C. The biological half-life of I-131
D. The effective half-life I-131
Solution
To determine when the amount of radiation in the patient’s body has reduced to safe
levels, the effective half-life must be calculated. The effective half-life takes into account
the radioactive half-life and the biological half-life.
Question
What is the volume of one mole of gas at 25 Celsius and 1 atm?
PV = nRT
ideal gas constant = 0.0821 L atm/K mol

A. 22.4 cubic feet

B. 1 cubic meter
C. 22.4 liters
D. 24.45 liters
Solution
The molar volume of a gas varies with pressure and temperature following the ideal gas
law.
PV = nRT
where:
P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
R = ideal gas constant (0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1)
T = absolute temperature

Question
A new process is being added to a factory production line. The current noise level at
workstation A is 89 dBA. Three additional machines are being added. The expected
noise contribution at workstation A from each of these machines is 78 dBA. What is the
expected noise level at workstation A after the new process is operating?

A. 81 dBA
B. 89 dBA
C. 90 dBA
D. 99 dBA

Solution
Use this equation to solve the problem:

Lpt = 10 log (108.9 + 107.8 + 107.8 + 107.8)

Lpt = 89.9

Question
Which material would be most appropriate for use as a shield against beta radiation
exposure in a laboratory environment?

A. Lead brick
B. Masonry brick
C. Clay-coated cardstock paper
D. Acrylic glass
Solution
Low density (“low Z”) materials are best for shielding beta radiation. High density
materials, such as lead, can result in production of Bremsstrahlung (similar to X-ray
radiation) when exposed to energetic beta particles.

The correct solution is D.

What is the volume of a 6-foot diameter cylindrical tank that is 20 feet

tall?
(1 ft3 = 7.48 gallons)
A. 120 gallons
B. 377 gallons
C. 565 gallons
D. 4,228 gallons
Solution

Question
Of the four major types of dust collectors for particulate contaminants, which
primarily collects dust in a wetted state to reduce additional exposure during the
disposal of the collected material?

A. Electrostatic Precipitator
B. Fabric Collectors
C. Scrubbers
D. Dry Centrifugal
Solution
The correct solution is C.
Source: Industrial Ventilation: A Manual of Recommended Practice (25 edition)

Question
Denver, Colorado is located at a higher altitude than Los Angeles, California. Which of
these statements is true:

A. Water boils at a higher temperature in Los Angeles

B. Water boils at a higher temperature in Denver
C. Water boils at a lower temperature in Los Angeles
D. Water boils at the same temperature in Denver and Los Angeles
Solution
At higher altitudes, air pressure is lower. When atmospheric pressure is lower, such as
at a higher altitude, it takes less energy to bring water to the boiling point. Less energy
means less heat, which means water will boil at a lower temperature at a higher
altitude.
Therefore, water will boil at a lower temperature in Denver, Colorado (located at a
higher altitude than Los Angeles, California), thus given the solutions, water will boil at a
higher temperature in Los Angeles compared to Denver, Colorado.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Ethylene glycol has a density of 1.11 grams/ cubic centimeter. What is the specific
gravity of ethylene glycol?
Density of water = 1 gm/cm3

A. 1.11 grams
B. 1.11
C. 0.11
D. 11.0
Solution

Specific gravity is the density of a material divided by the density of

water. Water has a density of 1 gram/cubic centimeter.

The 1.11 answer alone is correct because SG is unitless.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The minimum current difference between conductors at which a ground fault circuit
interrupter (GFCI) will trip is:

A. 2 amps
B. 2 milliamps
C. 15 amps
D. 20 amps
Solution
A GFCI is detecting the current flow between conductors in the circuit. Whenever a
difference in current is detected, the assumption is that the missing current is going
through a person. For that reason, the GFCIs are designed to trip at very low current
differences. Current through the heart as low as 30 milliamps can cause ventricular
fibrillation in a person.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle where the other
two sides are 10 feet and 25 feet long?
c2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab cos C

A. 17.5 feet
B. 20.0 feet
C. 25.0 feet
D. 26.9 feet
Solution
a 2 + b 2 = c2
102 + 252 = c2
c2 = 725

c= = 26.9

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the required airflow through a plain opening hood to generate a
capture velocity of 200 feet/min at a centerline distance of 20 inches in
front of a 14-inch duct?
A. 777 cfm
B. 3550 cfm
C. 5790 cfm
D. 6910 cfm

Solution
Use the capture velocity equation on the CSP exam reference sheet to
solve this problem.

V = 200 feet/min
X = 20 in = 1.67 ft
A = cross-sectional area

Diameter = 14 in = 1.17 ft

Q = [10(1.67 ft)2 + 1.07 ft2](200 ft/min)

Q = [10(2.79 ft2) + 1.07 ft2](200 ft/min)
Q = (29.0 ft2)(200 ft/min) = 5790 ft3/min

The correct solution is C.

Question
An unshielded radioactive source has an intensity of 40 mrad/hour at 10 feet. What is
the intensity at 2 feet?

A. 20 mrad/hour
B. 400 mrad/hour
C. 1,000 mrad/hour
D. 2,000 mrad/hour
Solution

The correct solution is C.

Question
Use the table below to determine the Spearman Rank Correlation of safety audit scores
and injury recordable rate. A high audit score indicates that the location has a good
safety program. A high injury recordable rate indicates the location has a lot of
occupational injuries.

LOCATION AUDIT SCORE RECORDABLE RATE

Chicago 84 0.55
St. Louis 93 0.68
New Orleans 63 0.48
New York 88 0.52
Seattle 77 0.49

A. -1.00
B. -0.90
C. +0.90
D. +1.00
Solution
Step 1: Set up a table with rank of audit score and recordable rate. Remember
a high recordable rate means a high injury rate. Add an additional column to note the
difference (D) in rank between the 2 scores.

Location Audit Rank Recordable Rank Difference (D)

Chicago 3 4 1
St. Louis 1 5 4
New Orleans 5 1 4
New York 2 3 1
Seattle 4 2 2

Step 2: Calculate the Spearman Rank Correlation.

rs = 1 - 1.9 = -0.9

The correct solution is B.

Question
Calculate the Spearman Rank Correlation of Audit Rank and Performance Rank for the
four sites.

Site Audit Rank Performance Rank

AA 1 4
BB 2 3
CC 3 2
DC 4 1
A. -1.00
B. -0.50
C. 0.00
D. 1.00
Solution
Site Audit Rank Performance Rank D
(Audit – Performance)
AA 1 4 -3
BB 2 3 -1
CC 3 2 1
DC 4 1 3

The correct solution is A.

Question
A Standard Threshold Shift (STS) is a change in hearing threshold relative to the
baseline audiogram of….

A. the reciprocal of 25 decibels or more at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hertz in one ear.
B. the sum of 10 decibels or more at 3000, 6000, and 9000 Hertz in both ears.
C. an average of 10 decibels or more at 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hertz in either ear.
D. None of the above.

Solution
The correct solution is C.
Source: Safety Professional’s Reference and Study Guide, p. 153.
Question
The acronym, LASER, stands for:

A. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Razors

B. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
C. Lower Amplification by Simplified Electromagnetic Radiation
D. None of the above
Solution
The correct solution is B.
Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, p. 390.

Question
There are 3 resistors wired together in parallel. R1 = 500 Ω, R2 = 1000 Ω, and R3 =
1500 Ω. What is the total resistance of this circuit?

A. 0.0037 Ω
B. 272 Ω
C. 1,000 Ω
D. 3,000 Ω
Solution

RT = 273 Ω The correct solution is B

. Question
Acme manufacturing makes gloves for chemical protection. 7 gloves were randomly
chosen from the production process and tested for the breakthrough time from a test
agent. The breakthrough times are given below, and all times are in minutes. If we
assume the breakthrough times have a normal distribution, what is the estimate of the
breakthrough time for gloves at the 5th percentile?
497 487 502 513 512 517 478

A. 477
B. 501
C. 523
D. 527
Solution
Step 1: Determine the estimate of the mean:

= 500.9

Step 2: Determine the estimate of the standard deviation:

= 14.5

Step 3: Select the value of z from a normal distribution that yield the
5th percentile. This is found on the z-table.
z = -1.65

Step 4: Solve the z statistic for the 5th percentile.

-1.65 =
χ = 500.9 - 1.65 (14.5) = 477

The correct solution is A.

Question
An equation for a line based on data was created using linear
regression. Which R2 value below indicates a strong relationship
between the equation and the actual data?

A. 0.05
B. 0.25
C. 0.50
D. 0.92
Solution
Regression analysis can be used to estimate a linear relationship between two
variables. Regression analysis that produces a graph where the data points are very
close to the straight line, indicates a high level of correlation. The closer the calculated
R2 is to 1, the stronger the correlation.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Downstream of the fan, which is true?

A. The VP is positive
B. The TP is positive
C. The SP is positive
D. All of these are true
Solution
Upstream of the fan (or before the fan) the velocity pressure is positive but the static
pressure and total pressure are negative. Downstream of the fan, the velocity, static,
and total pressures are all positive.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A large retail establishment is under construction. The contractor built the first wall
before building the rest of the building. The first wall is 20 feet high and 300 feet long,
and it is unsupported. A 15 mph wind is blowing broadside against the wall exerting a
pressure of 0.011 psi. What is the total force against the wall?

A. 0.011 lbs
B. 95.0 lbs
C. 190 lbs
D. 4.75 tons
Solution
Step 1: Calculate the area of the wall.
Area = 20 ft x 300 ft = 6,000 ft2

Step 2: Convert the area to square inches.

= 864,000 in2

Step 3: Calculate the force against the wall.

Force = = 9500 lbs.

Step 4: = 4.75 tons

The correct solution is D.

Question
A computer controlling a critical process system must have continuous power. The
main power source is supplied from the local utility via overhead powerlines. The plant
has a backup diesel generator to supply power when the local utility has an
outage. The computer has a backup battery to supply power if both the utility and
diesel generator go down.
The plant has a 0.005 probability of suffering a local power outage on any given
day. The diesel generator has a 0.0001 probability of failing on any given day. The
battery backup has a 0.00001 probability of failing on any given day.
What is the probability the computer will lose power on any given day in one year?

A. 0.000000000005
B. 0.000000001825
C. 0.00511
D. 0.999999998175
Solution
The total probability of 3 independent events happening is the product of each
event. Thus, the probability of total failure today is given by
P(failure today) = (0.005)(0.0001)(0.00001) = 0.000000000005 = 5 x 10 -12

The probability of no failure today is given by

P(no failure today) = 1 - P(failure today) = 1 - (5 x 10-12) = 0.999999999995

The question asks for the probability of no failure for 365 successive days. There are
365 independent events multiplied together. Probability of no failure for 365 days is
given by
P(no failure for 1 year) = [1 - (5 x 10-12)]365 = 0.999999998175

The probability of at least one failure is given by

P(at least 1 failure in 1 year) = 1 - P(no failure for 1 year) = 1 - [1 - (5 x 10-12)]365
P(at least 1 failure in 1 year) = 0.000000001825

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the weight of 500 ml of acetone (s.g. = 0.79)?
1 kg = 2.2 lb
density of water = 1 gm/cm3

A. 7.9 oz
B. 14 oz
C. 500 oz
D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given.
Solution
Density of acetone = s.g. (Density of water)
Density of acetone = 0.79 (1 g/cm3) = 0.79 g/cm3 = 0.79 g/ml
Weight of acetone = (0.79 g/ml)(500 ml) = 395 g
The correct solution is B.
Question
The magnehelic gauge on a baghouse dust collector is indicating a reading that is 4
inches of water higher than the upper pressure reading specified for the dust
collector. The most likely cause of the elevated reading is:

A. The broken bag indicator on the baghouse is malfunctioning.

B. Dust is building up on the bags because the reverse pulse system is
malfunctioning.
C. The magnehelic gauge is malfunctioning.
D. A door to the baghouse was left open.
Solution
The function of the reverse pulse is to dislodge caked-on dust from the dust collector
bags. If dust is allowed to accumulate on the bags, the pressure drop will increase and
cause the dust collector to become ineffective.

The correct solution is B.

Question
There are 12 safety professionals working for a corporation. Each of the 12 safety
professionals are responsible for one plant each. At the annual meeting the CEO
wants 5 of the safety professionals to give a presentation to the group of managers. If
the 5 speakers are randomly selected, how many combinations of speakers are
possible?

A. 12
B. 792
C. 7920
D. 95040
Solution
Because order does not matter, this is a combination, not a permutation.
Use the formula for combinations where C= combination, n= total number of objects,
k=how many taken at a time.
In this case, n=12 and k=5
On the TI-30Xs calculator provided in the Bowen EHS classes, simply enter the
following:
12, prb button, select 2 for combination and press enter, press enter again, 5, enter

The correct solution is B

Question
An insurance inspector notified Safety Manager Sam that his plant needs to install fall
protection at the tanker unloading dock. (Truck drivers must climb their trucks to open
hatches and make connections.) Plant Manager Pete (a mechanical engineer by
training) decides to design and build the fall protection himself.
Sam is hesitant about Pete's decision, but he will okay the project if it is tested
first. Pete is designing a body harness and lanyard connected above the tanker
unloading dock. Sam says the design must be able to stop a 300 lb man (some truck
drivers don't get much exercise) after dropping 6 ft vertically. Sam also says he wants
Pete to build in a safety factor of 3 (to allow for REALLY BIG guys and other potential
problems).
Pete has the fall protection installed, and they are going to test it by dropping a 900 lb
weight a vertical distance of 6 feet. The lanyard before the fall is 4 feet long, and it is 6
feet long after the drop.
What is the maximum force on the lanyard when the weight is dropped?
v2 = v02 + 2as
F=ma

A. 530 lbs
B. 900 lbs
C. 1800 lbs
D. 2990 lbs
Solution
The first thing to do in every physics problem is draw a picture.

Now, we need to determine the speed after the weight has dropped 4 ft.
We can determine the speed after a 4 ft drop using the given formula.
v2 = v02 + 2as

v = velocity at distance s
v0 = initial velocity (in this example it is 0).
a = acceleration due to gravity = 32.2 ft/sec2 (on the formula sheet)
s = distance

The next step is to determine the deceleration rate while the lanyard is slowing the
weight. Deceleration is actually a negative acceleration. We use the equation above to
determine the deceleration. This time v = 0 (final speed when stopped) and s = 2 ft
(stopping distance).

We know that F=ma. One thing to note is that the unit for mass is not pounds but
slugs. The conversion from pounds to slugs is taken from page 7 of the formula sheet.

mass = = 27.95 slugs

F = ma = 27.95 (-64.4) = -1800 lbs

(It is negative because the force is working against the direction of motion.)

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the estimated probability of failure of a system that has 4 components with the
following characteristics? Components A & B are in parallel. Either A or B must be
working for the system to operate. Components C & D are in series with the combined
A & B. Both C & D must be working for the system to operate. Assume all
components are independent.

The probability that A will fail in 1 year is 0.002.

The probability that B will fail in 1 year is 0.002.
The probability that C will fail in 1 year is 0.0001.
The probability that D will fail in 1 year is 0.0001.

A. 4 x 10-14
B. 4 x 10-6
C. 2 x 10-4
D. 2 x 104
Solution
A diagram of the system is given below.
Solution
A diagram of the system is given below.

P(A and B failing) = P(A failing) x P(B failing) = 0.002 x 0.002 = 4 x 10 -6

Probability of the system failing = P(A and B failing) + P(C failing) + P(D failing)
Probability of the system failing = 4 x 10-6 + 0.0001 + 0.0001 = 2.04 x 10-4

The correct solution is C.

P(A and B failing) = P(A failing) x P(B failing) = 0.002 x 0.002 = 4 x 10-6
Probability of the system failing = P(A and B failing) + P(C failing) + P(D failing)
Probability of the system failing = 4 x 10-6 + 0.0001 + 0.0001 = 2.04 x 10-4

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the major injury from electrical arc flashes?

A. Electrocution
B. Burns
C. Heart attack
D. None of the above
Solution
A tremendous amount of energy is released during an arc flash. Employees exposed
to arc flashes frequently receive very severe burns.

The correct solution is B.

Question
You enter the restroom at work and notice a particularly noxious smell. You turn on the
ventilation fan and leave. If the smell has an odor threshold of 20.0 ppb, and the initial
concentration is 100 ppm, how long must you wait before you may safely enter the
room? The effective airflow from the fan is 100 cfm, and the bathroom dimensions are
4 ft x 5 ft x 8 ft.

A. 1.4 min
B. 2.6 min
C. 10.9 min
D. 13.6 min
Solution

C1 = 100 ppm = 100,000 ppb

C2 = 20 ppb
Q’ = 100 cfm
V = 4 ft x 5 ft x 8 ft = 160 ft3
Δt = t2 – t1

-8.517 = -0.625 / min Δt

Δt = = 13.6 min

The correct solution is D.

Question
A research scientist needs to create a vacuum in a spherical container. He is able to
lower the pressure in the container to 4 Torr at a temperature of 72 F. He then applies
a liquid nitrogen blanket around the container. This lowers the temperature of the
container to -300 F. What is the pressure inside the container after the nitrogen blanket
was added?

A. 0.96 Torr
B. 1.20 Torr
C. 3.23 Torr
D. 13.3 Torr
Solution

P1 = 4 Torr
V1 = V2
T1 = 72 + 460 = 532 R
T2 = -300 + 460 = 160 R
P2 = 1.20 Torr

The correct solution is B.

Question
A worker needs to enter a tank that has been classified as a permit required confined
space. The tank has been evacuated of its previous contents of clary sage and
hexane. An explosion-proof blower is on site to purge the space. The tank is 20 feet
tall and 10 feet in diameter and has one 36-inch man-way at the top. The blower is
rated to provide 500 cubic feet per minute of air. How long will it take to complete 10 air
changes of the space with clean air?

A. 628 minutes
B. 12.56 minutes
C. 125 minutes
D. 31.4 minutes
Solution
The radius of the tank is 5 feet.
The volume of the tank is π r2 x h
3.14 x (5 ft)2 x 20 ft = 1,570 ft2
The blower is rated for 500 cfm
Time for one air change:
1,570 ft3 ÷500 ft3/min = 3.14 minutes per air change
10 air changes x 3.14 minutes/change = 31.4 minutes
Since there is only the one man-way, there is no air coming in from any source other
than the blower, so one air change will purge the space.

The correct solution is D.

Question
There are four machines making noise at an operator's station. The sound pressure
level from each machine at the station is given below. Determine the total sound
pressure level for an operator at the station.
82 dB 94 dB 96 dB 96 dB
A. 92 dB
B. 99 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 368 dB
Solution
The total sound pressure level is given by

where Li is the ith sound pressure level and N is the number of measurements.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which of the following can cause the greatest internal hazard?

A. Alpha radiation
B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. X-Rays
Solution
Alpha radiation is a particle consisting of two protons and two neutrons. It is easily
stopped by a few inches of air, the outer layers of dead skin, or even a piece of
paper. If an alpha source is ingested or inhaled, the particles will interact with living
tissue. It can cause serious harm as it causes molecular ionizations.
Alpha radiation is approximately twenty times more dangerous internally than gamma
and beta radiation and X-rays. The correct solution is A.
Question
The ventilation rate in a room with dimensions 100 ft x 10 ft x 10 ft is 2500 cfm. How
many air changes per hour are occurring in the room?

A. 1 air change every minute

B. 15 air changes every minute
C. 1 air change every hour
D. 15 air changes every hour
Solution
Nchanges = 60Q/Room Volume
Nchanges = 60(2500)/10,000
Nchanges = 15 changes per 60 minutes or 15 air changes per hour

The correct solution is D.

Question
An octave band analysis taken at a manufacturing production line that employs
pneumatic controls indicates the following readings. Which source of noise listed below
is the largest contributor to the overall noise level?

Band Center Frequency in Hertz Sound level in dB

31.5 76
63 78
125 78
250 80
500 82
1000 84
2000 92
4000 104
8000 91
16,000 82

A. Compressed air leak

B. Local exhaust fan
C. Highway noise
D. HVAC system
Solution
The octave band analysis shows most of the sound energy is coming from 4000
hertz. High frequency noise is characteristic of a compressed air leak. Fixing the
compressed air leak could significantly lower the overall noise level.

The correct solution is A.

Question
The circuit breakers in an electrical panel will trip when the amperage
through the circuit exceeds the rating of the breaker. This feature
protects from which hazard?

A. Electrocution
B. Damage to electrical motors
C. Damage to the electrical distribution system
D. Fire
Solution
Circuit breakers protect circuits from high current. High current can cause the wires to
overheat. Circuit breakers protect from fire.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A car is traveling at 45 mph. It takes 3.0 seconds to stop the car after the brakes are
applied. What is the braking distance of the car?

1 mile = 5,280 ft

A. 48 ft
B. 99 ft
C. 165 ft
D. Not enough information is given to solve this problem.
Solution
Step 1: Convert the speed units of mph to feet/second.
Step 2: Determine the acceleration (a negative number since the car is slowing down).

Step 3: Determine the braking distance.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A sample of gas occupies 1500 liters at 10 degrees C and 60 psi. If the gas volume is
reduced to 500 liters and the temperature remains constant, what is the new pressure?

A. 20 psi
B. 180 psi
C. 20 atm
D. 180 atm
Solution

T1 = T2
60 x 1500 = P2 x 500

The correct solution is B.

Question
The sound level from a fire alarm was measured at 115 dBA at a distance of 3
feet. What is the estimated sound level at a distance of 20 feet?
A. 95.0 dBA
B. 98.5 dBA
C. 114 dBA
D. 135 dBA
Solution

Question
There are two air contaminant sources in a room. The first source emits ethanol at a
rate of 12.5 gallons every 8 hours. The second source emits nitrous oxide at a rate of
1.25 gallons every 24 hours. The TLV for ethanol is 1000 ppm. The TLV for nitrous
oxide is 50 ppm. The room has a volume of 10,000 cubic feet. Determine the required
airflow to keep the room within the TLV for the two substances using dilution
ventilation. Assume the room has perfect mixing.

A. 2.9 cfm
B. 3.5 cfm
C. 5.8 cfm
D. It is not possible to solve this problem with the given information.
Solution
Step 1: Convert the emission rates from gallons per hour to cfm.

Ethanol:
Nitrous Oxide:

Step 2: Determine the required airflow for each substance.

Ethanol:

Nitrous Oxide:

Step 3: Add the airflows together for the total airflow.

3.47 cfm + 2.32 cfm = 5.79 cfm

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which statement best describes the principle of operation employed by a GFCI?

A. The GFCI detects minute fluctuations in the conductivity of the neutral wire in
an AC circuit, triggering a fast-acting switch that interrupts the supply of electricity.
B. The GFCI detects changes in resistance of the supply wire in an AC circuit,
triggering a fast-acting switch that interrupts the supply of electricity.
C. The GFCI detects line voltage differences between the supply wire and the
ground wire in an AC circuit, triggering a fast-acting switch that interrupts the supply of
electricity.
D. The GFCI detects line amperage differences between the supply wire and the
ground wire in an AC circuit, triggering a fast-acting switch that interrupts the supply of
electricity.
Solution
A GFCI, Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter, is sensitive to very small differences in the
amperage (flow of current) on the supply wire of an AC electrical circuit and the
grounded neutral wire, which must be equal in an intact electrical circuit. A difference
between the two wires indicates current leakage, which could represent leakage into a
piece of equipment or into a person. When a difference is sensed by the device, it
triggers a fast-acting switch that interrupts the supply of electricity to the protected
portion of the circuit. The sensitivity of a GFCI is typically around 0.2 mA.
The correct solution is D.
Question
Which material will adequately protect people from ionizing radiation hazards of an
external alpha radiation source?

A. Paper
B. Glass
C. Lead
D. All of the above
Solution
Alpha radiation cannot penetrate materials very deeply. Any of the materials above will
protect from external alpha radiation.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the purpose of a histogram?

A. A histogram is used to set the 95% confidence interval for the mean.
B. A histogram is used to diagram the data distribution.
C. A histogram is used to evaluate the history of repeated measures.
D. A histogram is used to determine the critical value of a t-test.
Solution
A histogram is a graphical representation of the data distribution.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A substance is stored in a pressurized container at normal temperatures has a vapor
pressure of 5168 mm Hg and a vapor density of 2.4. How is this substance likely to
behave if the container is damaged and the contents are released?

A. The contents will rise and disperse easily into the atmosphere.
B. The contents will sink and stay low to the ground.
C. The contents will solidify into a powder on the ground.
D. The contents will mix easily with the air neither rising into the atmosphere or
sinking and staying low to the ground.
Solution
The contents are under very high pressure at 5168 mm Hg. The substance will quickly
leave the container. The vapor density is 2.4; this will cause the substance to stay low
to the ground since it is much heavier than air.
The substance in this problem is chlorine.

The correct solution is B.

Question
An airliner recently made a water landing in the Hudson River. If the
airliner including passengers, fuel and cargo has a weight of 150,000
lbs, what is the buoyant force on the plane while it is floating in the river?

A. 75,000 lbs
B. 150,000 lbs
C. 300,000 lbs
D. There is not enough information to solve this problem.
Solution
The force of gravity is pulling the down with a force of 150,000 lbs.
We know that the plane is floating which means it is not moving down. Therefore, the
buoyant force works opposite of the force of gravity. The sum of the forces is zero.
Sum the forces:
Fbuoyant + Fgravity = 0
Fbuoyant + (-150,000 lbs) = 0
[Fgravity has a negative sign because it is pulling down.]
Fbuoyant = 150,000 lbs

The correct solution is B.

Question
Calculate the standard deviation from the following sample data.
15 22 14 18 21
A. 3.16
B. 3.54
C. 5.0
D. 18

Solution

s = 3.54

The correct solution is B.

Question
How many chlorine atoms are in 500 ml of a 3 M solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl)?

A. 500
B. 1500
C. 1.50 x 1023
D. 9.03 x 1023
Solution

Molarity (M) =

= 1.5 moles of HCl in the solution

Number of molecules =

= 9.03 x 1023 molecules

Each molecule of HCl has one Cl atom.

Number of Cl atoms = 9.02 x 1023

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the total resistance of four 1,000-ohm resistors connected together in a parallel
circuit?

A. 250 ohms
B. 1,000 ohms
C. 4,000 ohms
D. 16,000 ohms
Solution

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is the best definition of “hazard”?

A. The measure of the severity and probability of an event.

B. An event that is not expected, foreseen or intended.
C. An unsafe condition.
D. How dire the consequences will be if an event happens.
Solution
Answer A describes risk. Answer B describes an accident. Answer D describes
severity.

The correct solution is C.

Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, Roger Brauer.
Question
Which of the following is the least important consideration when determining the
location of a nuclear power plant?

A. Natural conditions
B. Nearby populations
C. Security
D. Land values
Solution
There are many variables to consider when determining the location of an industrial
facility. Companies need to evaluate the safety of the surrounding population, proximity
to transportation corridors and access to a stable employee base as well as many
others.
Nuclear power plants have the potential of causing catastrophic harm if things were to
go very bad. Examples include Three Mile Island in the U.S. and Chernobyl in the
former Soviet Union (now Ukraine).
It is important to protect nuclear facilities from potential natural disasters (e.g.
earthquakes) and minimize potential exposures to large populations. Security of the
facility is also extremely important. The least important consideration of the listed
options is the value of the land.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A safety manager observed an employee on the floor without hearing protection in an
area that is clearly posted that hearing protection is required. What is the best
response of the safety manager?

A. Take no action.
B. Speak directly with the employee.
C. Speak directly with the employee’s supervisor about the issue.
D. Wait until the safety meeting next week, and speak about it privately with the
employee’s supervisor.
Solution
Safety is a line responsibility. It is the supervisor’s responsibility to ensure their
employees are working in a safe manner.
Behaviors are more likely to be modified if the feedback regarding the behavior is
provided in a timely manner. It is important to minimize delay in providing feedback.

The correct solution is C.

Question
A five (5) MPH speed limit sign posted inside a warehouse for fork truck drivers is
considered what type of control?

A. Engineering control
B. Administrative control
C. Velocitizing control
D. No control. People never read the signs.
Solution
An engineering control is a design change such as speed controls to eliminate the
hazard of driving too fast. People can become velocitized when driving at certain rate of
speed and so need a reminder to slow down in certain areas like inside a warehouse.
Administrative controls use behavior changing techniques such as policy, training and
signs when engineering controls cannot be applied.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Who is the person at a manufacturing facility ultimately responsible for ensuring safety
procedures are followed?

A. Safety Manager
B. Engineering Manager
C. Plant Manager
D. Human Resources Manager
Solution
Safety is clearly a line responsibility. The plant manager is ultimately responsible to
ensure safety procedures are followed.
The safety manager serves on the staff of the plant manager providing advice regarding
assessment of risks within the facility and suggested methods of managing these risks.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What should a permit-required confined space attendant fully understand?

A. The attendant never enters the confined space for any reason.
B. The attendant may partially go into the confined space to rescue an entrant in
trouble.
C. It is okay for the attendant to clean and do minor tasks in the immediate area as
long as proper attention is paid to the work inside the tank.
D. The attendant should always maintain visual contact with the workers.
Solution
There have been many cases where attendants have attempted to rescue confined
space entrants. Most of them have ended in disaster. While the attendant is trained to
make atmospheric checks periodically, he or she should never enter the confined space
for any reason and specifically should never perform any other task, no matter how
minor.

The correct solution is A.

Question
A company experienced 25 recordable injuries in 2014. The total number of hours
worked by 735 employees was 1,470,000 hours. What is the calculated recordable
injury rate?

A. 1.7 x 10-5
B. 25
C. 3.4
D. 58800
Solution

Recordable Injury Rate =

The correct solution is C.

Question
Calculate the monetary value after ten years of a behavior based safety program that
costs $40,000 per year at the start. Assume an inflation rate of 4.3%.

A. $60,900
B. $223,000
C. $400,000
D. $487,000
Solution
Here is the formula to calculate the future value of an annual payment.

Where
F = future value
A = annual payment
i = interest rate per period
n = number of periods

The correct solution is D.

Question
What are the five dominoes in Heinrich’s Domino Theory of incident causation?
A. Injury, incident, unsafe act, unsafe condition, undesirable trait
B. Injury, incident, unsafe act, uncontrolled energy, social environment
C. Injury, incident, unsafe condition, uncontrolled energy, social environment
D. Injury, incident, unsafe act or unsafe condition, undesirable traits, social
environment
Solution
The five dominoes in Heinrich’s domino theory are injury, incident, unsafe act or unsafe
condition, undesirable traits, and social environment.

The correct solution is D.

Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, Roger Brauer.
Question
Which of the following are not included in the “Seven Cardinal Rules of Risk
Communication” established by the US EPA?

A. Meet the needs of the media

B. Speak clearly and with compassion
C. Accept and involve the public/other consumers as legitimate partners
D. Coordinate and collaborate only with others who agree with your view
Solution
For effective risk communication, you should coordinate and collaborate with other
credible sources, not only people who agree with your view point. In addition to A, B,
and C, you should:
1. Be honest, frank, and open
2. Listen to the public's specific concerns
3. Plan carefully and evaluate your efforts with a focus on your strengths,
weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
Source: Covello, Vincent T.; Allen., Frederick H. (April 1988). Seven Cardinal Rules of
Risk Communication. Washington, DC: U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
OPA-87-020.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the value of an initial $50,000 investment after 5 years that is earning 3.2%
annual interest compounded monthly?
A. $51,600
B. $52,200
C. $58,529
D. $58,664
Solution

Monthly interest = = 0.002667

n = 5 x 12 = 60

F = $50,000 (1 + 0.002667)60
F = $50,000 (1.17328)
F = $58,664

The correct solution is D.

Question
A product costs a merchant $12.37 to sell and the sales price is $15.99.
What is the merchant's profit margin on this product?

A. 22.6%
B. 26.9%
C. 29.3%
D. 31.9%
Solution
Profit margin is a way to express the amount of profit generated by a given transaction
and can be computed in the following manner:

Profit Margin =

Profit Margin =
So, approximately 22.6%, or $3.62, of the price of every unit sold is profit from the
transaction.
Knowing how to calculate profit margin is important to solving some engineering
economy problems.

The correct solution is A.

Question
A safety professional proposes an ergonomics improvement project that she expects
will save her employer $36,000 per year in each of the next 5 years due to reduced
injuries, insurance premium savings and increased productivity. The firm requires a
10% rate of return on all funded projects. What is the maximum amount of funding that
the firm could authorize for this project?

A. $128,652
B. $136,468
C. $215,912
D. $236,439
Solution
As with all time value of money problems, first identify the type of problem it represents
and each known variable giving special attention to the units associated with the period
of the investment (usually in months or years) as well as the compounding
frequency. If unstated, the compounding frequency can be assumed to be in the same
units as for the interest rate period (usually years).
The scenario in this problem describes a “present value of an annuity” problem, which is
a way to evaluate the net present value of a string of evenly distributed cashflows over a
given period of time. To solve the problem, we use the formula below, which is also on
the CSP Examination Reference (2009):

Known variables:
i=0.10 , period is per year
A=$36,000 per year
n=5 years
Substituting the values into the formula yields a present value of $136,468.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The Williams-Steiger Act of 1970 was known as “the Safety Bill of
Rights” and established which permanent agencies?

A. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA);

B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA);
C. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH);
D. Only B and C.
Solution
The Williams Steiger Act or OSH Act established OSHA, NIOSH, and the Occupational
Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC).

The correct solution is D.

Source: OSHA’s website at https://www.osha.gov/as/opa/osha-at-30.html
Question
The Herzberg Motivation/Hygiene theory of management would list all but ______ as
hygiene factors.

A. Money
B. Achievement
C. Company Policies
D. Working Conditions
Solution
The Herzberg theory of management considers money, company policies and working
conditions to be hygiene factors and consequently do not provide for long term
motivation. Working conditions that provide for achievement will provide long-term
sustainable motivation.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The functional sequence followed by the ISO quality and environmental standards is:
A. do, check, plan, act
B. plan, act, check, do
C. plan, do, check, act
D. act, do, check, plan
Solution
The functional sequence followed by the ISO standards is plan, do, check, act.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the first step in creating a safety program?

A. Creating a safety policy statement

B. Training employees
C. Weekly audits
D. Employee participation
Solution
The first step in creating a safety program is to create a safety policy statement. The
policy will state the commitment of management to safety.

The correct solution is A.

Source: OSHA
Question
What annual payment is required for a 10-year loan of $500,000 with a 7% interest
rate?

A. $25,343.82
B. $55,678.18
C. $71,354.71
D. $80,000.00
Solution
i = 0.07
n = 10
P = $500,000

The correct solution is C.

Question
Panic hardware may be used

A. in maintenance supplies.
B. on interior doors.
C. on exit doors.
D. on elevators.
Solution
Panic hardware devices are used to keep emergency exits locked, but they will allow
persons to exit when enough pressure in the direction of travel is applied.

The correct solution is C.

Question
When establishing performance goals with direct-reporting staff members, which factor
is most important?

A. Creating a mutually agreed upon description of acceptable performance

B. Creating a mutually agreed upon completion date
C. Creating a mutually agreed upon budget for use while pursuing the goal
D. Creating a mutually agreed upon tactical plan to achieve the goal
Solution
Goals, when properly constructed, can be tremendously motivating and helpful for
employees and their organizations.
The most essential element of the process of establishing performance goals is for the
manager and subordinate to arrive at an agreement as to what constitutes “acceptable
performance” each goal statement. To avoid ambiguity, assumptions, and
misinterpretations, it is generally best for the employee and the organization if the
agreed-upon description of acceptable performance for each goal is reduced to writing.
Most general management textbooks devote at least a few pages to discussion of
goal-setting. One timeless and particularly good reference on goal-setting is Goal
Setting, A Motivational Technique That Works, by Edwin A. Locke and Gary P. Latham
(1984), Prentice-Hall, Inc.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Which position of the safety director at an organization indicates a very strong emphasis
on risk minimization within the culture of a manufacturing company?

A. Safety director is a staff position of human resources, and human resources

reports to the legal department. The head of the legal department is an assistant
manager reporting to the plant manager.
B. Safety director is a staff position on the management team reporting directly to
the plant manager.
C. Safety director is an additional responsibility added to a quality assurance
inspector reporting to the operations manager who reports to the plant manager.
D. There is no person specifically assigned the safety director responsibilities.
Solution
The person with direct responsibility for managing a facility is the plant manager. One
indication of the safety emphasis at a plant is the relationship between the plant
manager and the safety director.
Solution B shows the closest relationship between the safety director and the plant
manager.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the value of a project in the year 2019 that has an initial cost of $25,000 in 2009
and an annual maintenance cost of $2,000 when the effective interest rate is 6.2%?
A. $45,000
B. $60,500
C. $68,300
D. $72,200
Solution
This is a three-step problem.

1. Determine the future value of the principal.

F =$25,000 (1 + 0.062)10 = $45,600

2. Determine the future value of the annual maintenance costs.

3. Add the future value of the principal to the future value of the annual
maintenance costs.
$45,600 + $26,600 = $72,200

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which statement is true regarding OHSAS 18001?

A. OHSAS 18001 is a required safety standard by the US

Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
B. OHSAS 18001 is compatible with ISO 9001 and ISO 14001.
C. Compliance with OHSAS 18001 is mandated for international
companies by the United Nations.
D. OHSAS 18001 requires specific safety performance.

Solution
OHSAS is the Occupational Health and Safety Assessment Series. It was developed to
provide organizations with an internationally accepted system for managing the
organizations activities and processes in order to minimize occupational health and
safety risks to employees. It is compatible with ISO 9001 and ISO 14001.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which person in an organization has the greatest direct influence on minimizing risk in
an organization?

A. President
B. Plant Manager
C. Safety Manager
D. Shift Foreman
Solution
The president of an organization can state a vision for safety. The plant manager can
carry out the vision at the plant level. The safety manager can advise management on
the best method to reach the vision. The shift foreman works directly with workers in
implementing safety procedures.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Santa Claus is an elderly worker and manager living at the North Pole. Mr. Claus
spends most of the year managing a toy manufacturing and distribution center. On
December 24 of each year, he turns his focus to becoming an overnight delivery
service. He utilizes flying reindeer and an open sleigh to deliver items to children all
over the planet in a single night. The standard protocol is for Mr. Claus to land on the
roof a residence and slide down through the chimney to deliver his packages to girls
and boys.
Mr. Claus also has a side job while delivering his packages. Not many people know
this, but Mr. Claus is also a licensed Fire Inspector for the International Fire Protection
Agency. You will note that traditional work uniform is a red suit, and he is often seen
riding on fire equipment with local fire departments.
Each year while he delivers his packages, he also conducts a thorough safety
inspection of the house starting with the cleanliness of the chimney. He also evaluates
escape routes, smoke detectors and fire extinguishment equipment.
Which item below is Mr. Claus most interested in evaluating regarding residential fire
safety in the U.S.A.?

A. Exit routes well marked

B. Working smoke detector in the kitchen
C. Working smoke detector in the basement
D. Fire extinguisher near the fireplace
Solution
Cooking is the leading cause of residential fires in the U.S.A., and it is important to
detect fires quickly.
Mr. Claus will complete a thorough investigation of residential fire safety, but he is most
interested in the kitchen.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which management system is used to minimize the introduction of new hazards or
increase risk from existing hazards in a chemical process that is being updated for the
purpose of increased efficiency?

A. Fault tree analysis (FTA)

B. Management of change (MOC)
C. Job safety analysis (JSA)
D. Total quality management (TQM)
Solution
Management of change (MOC) systems are used to evaluate the changes in a chemical
process to minimize the introduction of new hazards or increased risk of additional
hazards when there is a change in the process. MOC will use a variety of techniques
including formal system safety analysis to identify potential increased risks. MOC also
requires documentation of changes in piping and instrumentation diagrams (P&ID) after
the project is complete.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Select the correct statement.
A. Safety management is primarily an educational problem.
B. Safety management is primarily an enforcement problem.
C. Safety management is primarily an engineering problem.
D. Safety management is primarily a motivational problem.
Solution
Dan Petersen discusses the current research and the history of safety management in
his book Safety Management: A Human Approach published by the American Society of
Safety Engineers.
Dr. Petersen explains that traditional safety management was focused on the three E’s
(engineering, enforcement, and education). He clearly states that safety is a people
problem, and all safety depends on motivation.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which Federal law regulates hazardous waste from cradle to grave,
including generation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous
wastes?

A. NIOSH
B. TSCA
C. RCRA
D. None of the above
Solution
RCRA stands for Resource Conservation and Recovery Act and was enacted in 1976.
NIOSH is the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health.
TSCA stands for Toxic Substance Control Act.

The correct solution is C.

Source: Safety Professional’s Reference and Study Guide, p. 438.
Question
Select the statement most closely associated with strict liability.

A. A product does not perform under the advertised claims.

B. A corporation failed to provide adequate warnings.
C. A plant manufacturer fails to provide adequate exits from the workplace.
D. A machine, that is unlikely to be examined by the consumer, is unreasonably
dangerous.
Solution
Strict liability deals with characteristics of products that are unreasonably dangerous.
Brauer, Roger. Safety and Health for Engineers, Second Edition, John Wiley and Sons,
Inc. 2006.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which is a fundamental tenet of ISO 9001?

A. All accidents are preventable.

B. Top management is responsible to define, document, and communicate
quality policy and objectives in an organization.
C. Hazard identification is an integral part of the planning process.
D. The organization must comply with legal safety requirements.
Solution
ISO 9001 is a management tool for ensuring a company’s products and services meet a
high standard of quality.
Top management is responsible for defining, documenting and communicating quality
policies and objectives in an organization.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A corporate safety director is retiring from her employer. She is given a lump-sum
distribution of her pension of $860,000. She invests the money into a mutual fund
expecting to yield a return of 5.4%. How much can the retired safety manager draw
from the fund each year if she wants the account to last for 30 years?

A. $28,670
B. $58,520
C. $177,530
D. $224,960
The annual payment is calculated with this equation:

where
A = annual payment
P = Principal investment
i = interest rate
n = number of years

The correct solution is B.

Question
The Safety Department intends to purchase 100 new lanyards & harnesses in 3 years
at a cost of $11,000.00. How much should be invested (annual interest rate equals
4.0%) to cover the $11,000.00 cost in 3 years?
P = F (1 + i)-n

A. $8,898.72
B. $9,355.87
C. $9.778.96
D. $10,040.44
Solution
P = F (1 + i)-n
Where:
P = present value
F = future value
i = interest rate
n = number of periods (years)
P = $11,000 (1 + 0.04)-3 = $9,778.96

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the most important element in an organization’s workplace violence program to
prevent violence perpetrated by an employee?

A. Ensure all employees are trained in self-defense.

B. Train employees on how to identify the signs of potential workplace violence.
C. Ensure employees understand the disciplinary consequences of committing
workplace violence.
D. Provide ample alarms to summon the authorities.
Solution
The primary line of defense for avoiding workplace violence incidents is to ensure that
employees can recognize the signs of potential workplace violence so they can take
appropriate actions.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The financial policy of a major corporation requires that capital investments must have
an annual return of 12%. An engineering solution to a safety problem will cost
$250,000 for the initial installation, and it will cost $12,000 annually to maintain for 15
years. What is the required annual savings from this project in order for it to be
approved by the chief financial officer?

A. $12,000
B. $30,00
C. $42,000
D. $48,700
Solution
Determine the annual payment that will result from an investment of $250,000 earning
an annual 12% return for 15 years.
Add the maintenance costs to the annualized return expected from the initial
investment.
$12,000 + $36,700 = $48,700

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which answer makes this statement correct according to OSHA regulations? Mobile
scaffolds must __________

A. have a seat with a seatbelt for employee use during movement.

B. be plumb, level and squared.
C. have a height to base width ratio of 3:1 or more during movement with an
employee.
D. have outriggers when the height to base ratio exceeds 2:1.
Solution
There is no requirement for seatbelts on scaffolds.
Mobile scaffolds must be plumb, level and square.
Increasing the height to base width ratio decreases scaffold stability.
Mobile scaffolds must have outriggers when being moved with employees riding the
scaffold and the height to base width ratio exceeds 2:1.
Refer to 29 CFR 1926.452

The correct solution is B.

Question
A maintenance employee receives a minor laceration while repairing a press. The
employee cleans the wound and applies a dressing to the wound. She reports the
wound to her supervisor on the day of the injury. It took the employee 30 minutes to
administer first aid to the wound and report the injury to her supervisor. The injury
happened at 3:00 pm, and the shift ends at 4:00 pm. The supervisor tells the
maintenance employee to take the rest of the day off since it is so close to quitting time.
The supervisor reports the incident to the Safety Director the next morning. How
should the safety director record this injury on the OSHA 300 form?

A. Lost workday case

B. Restricted workday case
C. Recordable injury, no lost workdays or restricted workdays
D. The safety director should note the injury on a first aid log, but not the OSHA
300 form
Solution
The OSHA recordkeeping requirements are provided in 29 CFR 1904.
An injury that causes an employee to miss one complete day of work (or shift) is a lost
workday case.
An injury that causes an employee to alter their regular job assignment is a restricted
workday case.
An injury that requires medical attention is a recordable injury. See the regulations on
what is considered medical attention.

The correct solution is D.

Question
OSHA’s Process Safety Management regulation requires analysis of the process
hazards, identification of incidents that have the potential for catastrophic
consequences, engineering/administrative controls and consequences of their failure,
facility siting, human factors and qualitative evaluation of the possible safety and health
effect of control failures. This can be accomplished by which methods:

A. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

B. Fault Tree Analysis
C. Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP)
D. Any of the above
Solution
The correct solution is D.
Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, p. 666.
Question
A plant manager wants to improve the safety performance at his facility. He decides to
implement a safety incentive program for employees. Each employee will receive a
bonus each year they do not have an injury. Which management theory describes this
method of managing safety?

A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. Theory of self-actualization
Solution
Theory X assumes that workers do not really want to work. They must be externally
motivated to work with a system of rewards and discipline.
Theory Y assumes that workers are self-motivated and only need the proper tools and
goals to achieve the desired result.
Theory Z assumes that work is best conducted in a group type setting.
Abraham Maslow developed a motivational theory of “The Hierarchy of
Needs”. Self-actualization is the highest priority of persons who have already satisfied
needs lower down on the hierarchy.

The correct solution is A.

Question
Which one of the following specification standards provides the criteria for
environmental management systems?

A. OHSAS 18001
B. ISO 9001
C. ANSI Z10
D. ISO 14001
Solution
OHSAS 18001 is an international occupational health and safety management system
specification.
ISO 9001 is an international specification for quality management systems.
ANSI Z10 is a US occupational health and safety management system specification.
ISO 14001 is an international specification that provides the criteria for environmental
management systems.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A small grocery store has total annual sales of $2,500,000 with a 5.4% profit margin. A
newly hired stocking clerk slips and strains his back during his second week on the
job. An investigation reveals he used improper lifting techniques. He had received no
training on lifting prior to the accident. The total cost of the injury including the medical
costs was $13,000. What is the amount of grocery sales necessary to recover the cost
of the injury?
A. $702
B. $13,000
C. $70,200
D. $241,000
Solution
The profit margin is 5.4%. This means that for every $100 in sales, the grocer earns
$5.40.
0.054 S = $13,000, where S = sales needed to generate $13,000.
0.054 S = $13,000

It will take $240,740 in sales to cover the cost of the injury. This is almost 10% of the
total annual sales volume.

The correct solution is D.

Question
Which safety devices are most likely to help prevent a transportation accident?

A. Airbags
B. Energy absorbing guardrails
C. Antilock brakes
D. Break-away highway signs
Solution
Anti-lock brakes help a driver maintain control of his car if he goes into a skid. This
may prevent an accident.
All other devices listed help minimize the consequences or damage resulting from an
accident.

The correct solution is C.

Question
What is the future value of a safety improvement that costs $12,000 per year over 7
years? The company is borrowing the money at an annual interest rate of 5.8%.
A. $14,383
B. $17,807
C. $67,467
D. $100,114
Solution

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the DART (days away, restricted, transferred) rate for a company that had
eleven (11) recordable incidents and worked a total of 452,000 annual man hours?

A. 3.4
B. 4.9
C. 7.8
D. 11.0
Solution
This question was poorly worded. We needed to specify that each of the recordable
incidents resulted in lost time or (days away, restricted or transferred).
If you assumed that each of the incidents resulted in lost time, then the correct
calculation is given below.

The correct solution is B.

Question
What is the most common type of workplace eye injury?
A. Cataracts
B. Foreign body
C. Thermal burn
D. Chemical burn
Solution
Foreign bodies are the most common type of physical injury to the eye. Cataracts can
be occupationally caused by: ionizing radiation, ultraviolet radiation, infrared radiation,
foreign bodies, and chemicals.

The correct solution is B.

Question
The span of control recommended by the Incident Command System is:

A. 6-9, 7 ideal
B. 3-7, 5 ideal
C. 1-3, 2 ideal
D. 8-10, 9 ideal
Solution
The Incident Command System is a management structure designed to assist in
emergency response. Span of control is the number of direct reports to any position in
the Incident Command System for a particular event. The recommended span of
control is 3-7 with 5 being ideal. The intent is to not have too many individuals reporting
to a position in order to make communication more efficient and effective.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which of the following statements complies with the OSHA requirements on control of
hazardous energy?

A. Tags may be routinely used instead of locks if locks are not available.
B. Tags may be removed by any person needing access to equipment under
maintenance.
C. Tags must be attached with string.
D. Tags must be able to withstand the environment in which they are used.
Solution
Tags may only be used when the device is incapable of accepting locks.
Tags may only be removed by the person placing the tag.
Tags must be attached with a device capable of withstanding at least 50 lbs of force.
Tags must be able to withstand the environment in which they are used.

The correct solution is D.

Question
What is the primary purpose of the Job Safety Analysis (JSA)?

A. Eliminate hazards in a job before it is completed

B. Minimize hazards in an existing task through awareness and training of
employees
C. Implementation of redundant systems to minimize risk
D. Determine the probability of a negative event
Solution
The job safety analysis (JSA) can be an effective tool to minimize hazards in an existing
task through awareness and training of employees. The JSA is often completed by an
employee experienced in performing the task.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A company had 263 employees that worked a total of 425,500 hours during the
calendar year. The company had 5 recordable injuries in the same calendar
year. What is the company’s OSHA Incidence Rate?

A. 2.35
B. 5.25
C. 10.63
D. 12.10
Solution
5 X 200,000/425,500 = 2.35

The correct solution is A.

Source: OSHA
Question
A safety engineer wants to spend $500,000 on safety improvements for his plant. The
plant controller says he can earn 6% interest on the money over the next 10
years. What is the expected value of the safety improvements 10 years in the future?
F = P(1 + i)n

A. $269,000
B. $500,000
C. $800,000
D. $895,000
Solution
The future value of money spent today is given by: F = P(1 + i)n
where:
F = the future value
P = present day value (or principal)
i = interest rate per period
n = the number of periods (in this case, periods = years)

F = $500,000(1 + 0.06)10 = $895,000

The correct solution is D.

Question
According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs what must be met before one’s safety needs
can be met?

A. Human metabolic requirements

B. Financial security
C. Social belonging
D. Fame
Solution
According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs Theory, human metabolic needs must be
met prior to their safety/security needs. Metabolic needs include things that are
required for basic human survival including air, water and food. Such needs can be
classified as physiological needs, which serve as the foundation of Maslow’s
theory. Additional physiological needs include clothing and shelter

The correct solution is A.

Question
Select the true statement relating to behavior-based safety processes.

A. Behavior-based safety is based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

B. Behavior-based safety is a management driven process.
C. Behavior-based safety is focused on the correct discipline of employees
violating safety procedures.
D. None of the above statements is true.
Solution
Behavior-based safety is based on the measurement of safe behaviors in the
workplace. It is an employee-driven process that will only succeed with the active
participation of employees.

The correct solution is D.

Question
As the Safety Director for your company, you are helping to evaluate whether or not to
hire a contractor who has an Experience Modification Rate (EMR) of 0.8. Based on this
rate, what should your decision to hire be?

A. Refuse to hire because the EMR is below industry standards

B. Hire because the contractor’s safety performance is better than other
companies in its industry.
C. Get more information from the contractor
D. Rely on incidence rate for safety performance and not EMR
Solution
Insurance companies calculate Experience Modification Rates to determine what
premium to charge a company. The more accidents a company has, the higher their
premium will be. Each company’s claim experience is rated against other companies of
a similar risk group. If a company has an EMR of less than 1, it means they have made
fewer claims (had fewer accidents) than other companies in their risk group. A score of
0.8 is significantly lower than 1, so they would be a good company to hire from a safety
perspective.

The correct solution is B.

Question
A safety director wants to install a device that is expected to lower the company’s
worker compensation costs by $5,000 per year. The company requires that capital
projects must pay for themselves within 8 years. The company pays an interest rate of
9%. What is the maximum amount the company will pay for the device?

A. $9,963
B. $27,674
C. $50,589
D. $55,142
Solution
The equation to determine the principal investment amount with an annual payment is
given below:

where
P = principal
A = annuity payment
I = interest rate
n = number of years

P = $27,680

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which technique below is most likely to result in a positive safety record at a company?

A. Hire outside safety consultants to evaluate facility safety.

B. Hold safety meetings only after major incidents.
C. Hire a CSP as the company safety director.
D. Hold supervisors and managers accountable for safety with a cost accounting
system for safety.
Solution
Line management has the greatest impact on safety at any company. Holding line
management accountable for their safety performance is most likely to result in a
positive safety record.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A wide variety of research is conducted at a large university. There is research
conducted in every one of the physical and health science departments of the
university. The university maintains a 40-person EHS department supporting the
research. Who is the top person responsible to ensure risks are appropriately
managed?

A. University President
B. Director of EHS Department
C. Principal investigators (research professors)
D. Graduate students conducting research
Solution
The responsibility to ensure risks are appropriately managed falls to the top person in
the organizational chart. The Director of EHS is an advisory role to the university
management. It is the management’s responsibility to ensure risk minimization
practices are correctly implemented.

The correct solution is A.

Question
A proposed project will cost $120,000 to implement and will have no residual value at
the end of its 7-year operational lifetime. Assuming the cost of capital is 10%, how
much annual income is this project expected to produce in each year of its lifetime?

A. $24,648.66
B. $26,972.36
C. $29,834.24
D. $32,981.13
Solution
As with all engineering economy questions, it is essential to correctly identify the
variables and the type of problem presented.
This problem is known as a “present value of an annuity – looking for the
payment”. We need to solve for the annual payment, A (annuity payment, also PMT on
a financial calculator). The formula to use is:

The given variables are:

· P (present value ; PV on financial calculator): $120,000
· n (number of compounding periods; N on financial calculator): 7
· i (interest rate; I/YR on financial calculator)

Plugging in the values and computing the result:

A = $120,000 (0.2054055) = $24,648.66

Alternately (a better and faster solution), if a financial calculator is used, enter the
following: P=120000, I/YR=10, N=7, F=0, solve for PMT to arrive at $24,648.66.
The correct solution is A.
Question
Which of the following symptoms could indicate heat stroke?

A. Feeling of euphoria coupled with numbness.

B. Throbbing headache.
C. Intense sweating.
D. Lowered exterior body temperature.
Solution
Symptoms of heat stroke include lack of sweating, red, hot, dry skin, muscle weakness
or cramps, nausea and vomiting, rapid heartbeat (which may be either strong or weak),
rapid, shallow breathing, and a throbbing headache.
The correct solution is B.
Question
A plaintiff must present evidence to prove a product caused an injury in a strict liability
claim. Which of the following does not have to be proven in a strictly liability case?

A. The product was defective.

B. The defect existed at the time it left the defendant’s hands.
C. The defendant was negligent.
D. The defect caused the injury or harm and was proximate to the injury.
Solution
A plaintiff in a strict liability case does not need to prove negligence.

The correct solution is C.

Question
If you have a bloodborne pathogen exposure incident that is not a needle stick, you
must still record it if it results in any of the following, except _______.
A. loss of consciousness
B. skin irritation
C. days away from work
D. treatment beyond first aid
Solution
The correct solution is B.

Source: OSHA
http://www.oshatrain.org/courses/studyguides/708studyguide.pdf
Question
An extension ladder is needed to access a roof that measures 20 feet from where the
ladder contacts the roof and the ground. What is the length of the ladder that is needed
to safely access the roof?
c2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab cos C

A. 25 feet
B. 24 feet
C. 21 feet
D. 23 feet
Solution
To solve this problem, use the law of cosines which reduces to the Pythagorean
theorem for right triangles: a2 + b2 = c2
The five feet of the base comes from the guideline that the base of the ladder should be
1 foot out from the vertical for every 4 feet of height.

a = 20 feet, b = 5 feet
a2 = 400, 52 = 25
400 + 25 = 425
c2 = 425

c= = 20.61

The length of the ladder needed to incline the ladder and reach the 20-foot roof is 20.61
feet. To that we need to add 3 feet beyond the roof for safe access which gives us
23.61. Since ladders are only sold in full foot lengths we need to round up 24 feet.

The correct solution is B.

Question
Which of the following should be included in a company’s fleet safety program?

A. Employees using their personal vehicles to drive to the post office to pick up
company mail
B. Employees using their personal vehicles to drive from home to work
C. Employee use of public transportation
D. Employee use of rental vehicles while on vacation
Solution
A company should carefully consider how employees are driving for work even if they
are using their personal vehicles.

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is the incidence rate at a small manufacturer with each of 50 employees working
2,000 hours in a year? There were a total of 3 injuries.

A. 3.0
B. 4.5
C. 6.0
D. 9.0
Solution

Incidence rate =

The correct solution is C.

Question
All of the following are critical to the success of a Behavior-Based Safety program
except:

A. Upper Management support

B. Employee Involvement
C. Training on how to conduct observations
D. A recordable injury rate that is below the average for the applicable industry.
Solution
The injury experience of a company may be part of the motivation for implementing a
Behavior-Based Safety program, but it is not critical to the success of the program.

The correct solution is D.

Question
A safety manager is saving top purchase an accelerometer. He is saving $100 each
month in a savings account paying 1.3% annual interest compounded monthly. How
much will he have at the end of 2 years?
A. $2,400.00
B. $2,415.60
C. $2,430.13
D. $2,797.47
Solution

A = $100/month
i = 0.013/12 months = 0.00108
n = 2 years x 12 months/year = 24 months

The correct solution is C.

Question
Who popularized management approaches that incorporated massive employee
involvement and the use of various statistical tools for problem solving and
decision-making?

A. B. F. Skinner
B. W. Edwards Deming
C. Lyman Porter and Edward Lawler
D. H. W. Heinrich
Solution
The correct solution is B.
Source: Safety Management: A Human Approach (3rd edition), p. 25.
Question
A small manufacturing facility employs 250 people. The management team includes the
plant manager, the financial controller, the operations manager, the safety manager,
and the human resources manager. What is the most important duty of the safety
manager at the facility?
A. Being a risk assessment resource to the management team
B. Leading accident investigations
C. Training employees on safe practices
D. Conducting safety audits looking for violations
Solution
The plant manager is ultimately responsible for safety at the facility. The main role of the
safety manager is to serve as a resource to the plant manager and the rest of the
management team. An effective safety manager will work with management helping
them to identify risks at the facility and develop methods to manage the risks.

The correct solution is A.

Question
What is the value of $25,000 invested with 6.7% annual rate of return 7 years from
now?
F = P(1 + i)n

A. $11,725
B. $36,725
C. $39,363
D. $167,500
Solution
F = P(1 + i)n
F = $25,000 (1 + 0.067)7
F = $39,363

The correct solution is C.

Question
Which management philosopher is most closely associated with the 3-Es (engineering,
education, enforcement) of safety management?

A. Douglas McGregor
B. Frederick Herzberg
C. H.W. Weinrich
D. Chris Argyris
Solution
Douglas McGregor is known for Theory X and Theory Y management.
Frederick Herzberg is known for Motivation-Hygiene Theory.
H. W. Heinrich is recognized as a pioneer in safety management. He focused on
unsafe acts and unsafe conditions.
Chris Argyris is known for Incongruency Theory.

The correct solution is C.

Question
Who proposed the theory, Hierarchy of Needs (1943), which states that all human
beings are motivated by unsatisfied needs and that certain lower factors need to be
satisfied before higher needs can be satisfied?

A. Eli Whitney
B. Ben Franklin
C. Carl Jung
D. Abraham Maslow
Solution
Maslow’s theory also states that the lower needs have to be satisfied before the next
need level serves as a motivator and that once that level has been satisfied, it no longer
serves as a motivator.

The correct solution is D.

Source: Safety Professional’s Reference and Study Guide, p. 323.
Question
Which management system is focused on quality control in a company?

A. ANSI 9001
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 14001
D. OHSAS 18001
Solution
ANSI is the American National Standards Institute.
The mission of ISO is to develop and promote common standards worldwide to foster
the international exchange of goods and services.
ISO 9001 is focused on quality systems.
ISO 14001 is focused on environmental systems
OHSAS works with both ISO 9001 and ISO 14001 to develop a strong health and safety
system.

The correct solution is B.