NOTES FOR

Pre Mid Term Examination- 2023

CLASS-IX

Prepared by

1.Mr.Raju Dabhade
2.Mr.Sanjeev
3.Ms.Anita
4.Ms.Lakshmi

Sanjay Ghodawat International School, Atigre

Kolhapur
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 CONTENT

CHAPTERS UNIT I PAGE

HISTORY

Chapter 1 The French Revolution

UNIT II
GEOGRAPHY

Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

UNIT III

DEMOCRATIC POLITICS

Chapter 2 Constitutional Design

UNIT IV
ECONOMICS

Chapter 2 People As Resources

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 CHAPTER-1
THE FRENCH REVOLUTION

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CONCEPTS –
The French Society during the Late 18th Century
The French Society Comprised:1st Estate: Clergy, 2nd Estate: Nobility, 3rd Estate: Big
businessmen, merchants, court officials, peasants, artisans, landless labourers, servants, etc.
Some within the Third Estate were rich and some were poor. The burden of financing activities of
the state through taxes was borne by the Third Estate alone.
The Struggle for Survival: Population of France grew and so did the demand for grain. The gap
between the rich and poor widened. This led to subsistence crises.

The Growing Middle Class: This estate was educated and believed that no group in society should
be privileged by birth. These ideas were put forward by philosophers such as Locke English
philosopher and Rousseau French philosopher. The American constitution and its guarantee of
individual rights was an important example of political theories of France. These ideas were
discussed intensively in salons and coffee houses and spread among people through books and
newspapers. These were even read aloud.

THE OUTBREAK OF THE REVOLUTION: The French Revolution went through various stages. When
Louis XVI became king of France in1774, he inherited a treasury which was empty. There was
growing discontent within the society of the Old Regime.
1789-Convocation of Estates General. The Third Estate forms National Assembly, the Bastille is
stormed, peasant revolts in the countryside.
1791 -A constitution is framed to limit the powers of the king and to guarantee basic right to all
human beings.
1792-93France becomes a republic. Jacobin Republic overthrown, a Directory rules France.
1795 A new Convention appointed a five-man Directorate to run the state from 26 October, 1795.
1799 The Revolution ends with the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte.

Time Line: The French Revolution

1770s-1780s — Economic decline: French Government in deep debt.
1788-1789 — Bad harvest, high prices, food riots 1789, May 5 — Estates-General convened,
demands reforms.
1789, July 14 — National Assembly formed. Bastille stormed on July 14. French Revolution starts.
1789, August 4 — Night of August 4 ends the rights of the aristocracy.
1789, August 26 — Declaration of the Rights of Man
1790 — Civil Constitution of the Clergy nationalises the Church.
1792 — Constitution of 1791 converts absolute monarchy into a constitutional Monarchy with
limited powers.
1792 — Austria and Prussia attack revolutionary France
1793 — Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette are executed.

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1792-1794 — The Reign of Terror starts. Austria, Britain, the Netherlands, Prussia and Spain are
at war with France.
— Robespierre’s Committee of Public Safety repels back foreign invaders. Executes many
“enemies of the people” in France itself.
1794 — Robespierre is executed. France is governed by a Directory, a committee of five men.
1799 — Napoleon Bonaparte becomes the leader.

WOMEN’S REVOLUTION -From the very beginning, women were active participants in the events
which brought about so many changes in the French society. Most women of the third estate had
to work for a living. Their wages were lower than those of men. In order to discuss and voice their
interests, women started their own political clubs and newspapers. One of their main demands
was that women must enjoy the same political rights as men. Some laws were introduced to
improve the position of women. Their struggle still continues in several parts of the world. It was
finally in 1946 that women in France won the right to vote.

THE ABOLITION OF SLAVERY - There was a triangular slave trade between Europe, Africa and
Americas. In the 18th century, there was little criticism of slavery in France. No laws were passed
against it. It was in 1794 that the convention freed all slaves. But 10 years later slavery was
reintroduced by Napoleon. It was finally in 1848 that slavery was abolished in the French colonies.
THE REVOLUTION AND EVERYDAY LIFE- The years following 1789 in France saw many changes in
the lives of men, women and children. The revolutionary governments took it upon themselves to
pass laws that would translate the ideals of liberty and equality into everyday practice. One
important law that came into effect was the abolition of censorship. The ideas of liberty and
democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These spread from
France to the rest of Europe during the 19th century.

NAPOLEON In 1804- Napoleon crowned himself emperor of France. He set out to conquer
neighbouring European countries, dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he
placed members of his family. He saw his role as a moderniser of Europe. He was finally defeated
at Waterloo in 1815.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 The Third Estate comprised

(a) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers (b) Peasants and artisans
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc. (d) All the above

Q.3.Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?

(a) Declared France a constitutional monarchy (b) Abolished the monarchy
(c) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote (d) Declared France a Republic

Q.5. How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?

(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains (b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots (d) All the above

Q.6. In the war against Prussia and Austria, the army sang which patriotic song?
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(a) 'Liberty', written by an unknown woman poet (b) ‘Marseillaise’ written by the poet Roget de
Lisle
(c) ‘Viva France’ written by a French peasant (d) None of the above

Q7.Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate?

(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only (b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and
some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands (d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the
army, or build roads

Q.8. Who wrote the pamphlet called ‘What is the Third Estate’?
(a) Mirabeau, a nobleman (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Rousseau, a philosopher (d) Montesquieu

Q.9. A guillotine was _______________________

(a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
(b) A fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) A special noose to hang people (d) none of the above

Q.10. When did the French Revolution begin?

(a) July 14, 1789 (b) January 10, 1780 (c) August 12, 1782 (d) None of the above

Q.11.The word livres stands for:

(a) unit of currency in France (b) tax levied by the Church
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state (d) none of these

Q.12.What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to28
million in 1789?
(a) Education became difficult (b) Rapid increase in the demand for food grains
(c) Housing problem occurred (d) All the above

Q.13.What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?

(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood (b) Subsidy in food grains
(c) Large-scale production of food grains (d) None of the above

Q.14.What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third Estate?
(a) Tithes (b) livres (c) taille (d) all of these
Q.15.What was ‘Estates General’?
(a) Post of Army General (b) A political body (c) Head of all landed property (d) Advisor of the king
Q.16Which social groups emerged in the 18th century?
(a) Lawyers (b) Administrative officials(c) Middle class (d) All the above

Q.17. The term ‘Old Regime' is usually used to describe

(a) France before 1000 B.C. (b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (d) None of the above

Q.18. In which of these countries was the model of government as advocated by Montesquieu
put into effect?
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(a) USA (b) China (c) USSR (d) All the above

Q.19.Which of these books was written by John Locke?

(a) The Spirit of the Laws (b) Two Treatises on Government(c) The Social Contract (d) All the above
Q.20.When did Louis XVI call an assembly of Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes?
(a) 2 January, 1775 (b) 10 March, 1780 (c) 5 May, 1789 (d) 14 July, 1789

Q.21. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded that
(a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether (c) Each Estate should have one vote
(b) Each member of the three Estates should have one vote (d) None of the above

Q.22. On 20th June, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the indoor tennis
court of Versailles for
(a) hunger strike (b) Drafting a Constitution for France which limited the king’s power
(c) Declaring a revolt (d) Making an appeal to support the king in times of need

Q.23. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
(a) Mirabeau (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Louis XVI (d) Both a and b

Q.24.What did Louis XVI do, seeing the power of his revolting subjects?
(a) He accorded recognition to the National Assembly (b) Accepted checks on his powers
(c) Ordered his army to crush the revolt (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.25.Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4 August, 1789?
(a) Abolition of feudal system of obligations (b) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(c) Tithes were abolished (d) All the above

Q.26.The new Constitution made France a

(a) Constitutional Monarchy (b) Communist state
(c) Fully democratic state (d) none of the above

Q.27. According to the new constitution of 1791, the National Assembly was to be
(a) Elected directly (b) appointed by the king(c) elected indirectly (d) a hereditary body

Q.28.Which of these people were entitled to vote?

(a) Only men above 25 years of age (b) Men and women above 30 years of age
(c) Men who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.29.Which of these rights were not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights by the
constitution of 1791?
(a) Right to life (b) Freedom of speech and opinion(c) Equality before the law (d) All the above

Q.30. which of these provisions form a part of the ‘Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen’?
(a) Men are born free (b) They are equal in rights before the law
(c) Liberty means powers to do what is not injurious to others (d) All the above

KEY OF MCQ
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1(d)2(b)3(d)4(b)5(d)6(b)7(a)8(b)9(a)10(a)11(a)12(b)13(a)14(c)15(b)16
(d)17(c)18(a)19(b)20(c)21(a)22(b)23(d) 24(d)25(d)26(a)27(c)28(d)29(d)30(d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Which incident sparked the French Revolution?

Ans: The attack by the third estate on the Bastille State prison (14th July 1789) and setting free
the prisoners was the incident which sparked the French Revolution.

Q 2. Why was Bastille prison attacked?

Ans: The revolutionaries attacked the Bastille prison with a hope to find hoarded ammunition for
the revolution.

Q 3. Why was the Bastille hated by all?

Ans: Bastille was hated by all because it was seen as a symbol of the despotic power of the king.

Q 4. What did the French Revolution of 1789 stand for?

Ans: The French Revolution of 1789 stood for the ideas of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Q5. What was the immediate cause of rioting in Paris?

Ans: The high price of bread was the immediate cause of rioting in Paris.

Q 6.Which ruler came to power in France in 1774? [CBSE 2012]

Ans: Louis XVI of the Bourbon family ascended the throne of France in 1774.

Q 7.What activity of the French monarchy hastened the revolution?

Ans:The extravagant lifestyle of the monarch brought France on the verge of bankruptcy and
hastened the revolution.

Q 8.How did the American War of Independence add more debt to France?
Ans: The French army supported thirteen colonies of America in the war of independence against
Great Britain. It added one billion livres (currency unit in France) that had risen to more than two
billion livres with interest.

Q 10.What was the Old Regime?

Ans: The term Old Regime is usually used to describe the society and institutions of France before
1789.

ASSERTION AND REASONING BASED QUESTIONS

For questions two statements are given – one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason
( R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below.

Q1. Assertion (A): In many ways, the French Revolution was a very significant event in the history
of the world.
Reason (R): The French Revolution not only inspired French citizens to take action, but it
inspired many philosophers and leaders across the globe.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
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C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q2. Assertion (A): During the eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of a middle class.
Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class happened on account of royal patronage.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q3. Assertion (A): In 1805, Napoleon Bonaparte crowned himself Emperor of France.
Reason (R): Initially, many saw him as a liberator who would bring freedom for the people.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q4. Assertion (A): On 21st September, 1792 the monarchy was abolished and France was declared
as a republic.
Reason (R): A republic is a form of government where the people elect the government including
the head of the government.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q5. Assertion (A): Women struggle for equal political rights continued for more than two hundred
years after the French Revolution.
Reason (R): In 1946, women in France won the right to vote.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q6. Assertion (A): Rousseau proposed an idea of government based on the social contract
between people and the representative.
Reason (R): Montesquieu proposed a division of power between the legislative, executive and
judiciary.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
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C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q7. Assertion (A): All the people of middle class group were educated.
Reason (R):They believed that person’s social position must depend on his birth rather than his
merit.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q8. Assertion: Upon his accession Louis XVI found an empty treasure
Reason : Long years old famine had drained the financial resources
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q9. Assertion : The members of the two estates enjoyed certain privileges by birth
Reason : They were respected by the society.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q10. Assertion : The representatives of the First Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen of the
whole French nation
Reason : They enjoyed certain privileges by birth.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q11. Assertion : The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred aas the Reign of Terror.
Reason : The members of the Jacobin club belonged to the less.
A . A is true, R is false.
B. A is false, R is true.
C. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]

Q.1. what was the subsistence crisis? Why did it occur in France during the Old Regime?
Ans. a- The population of France was on the rise. It rose from 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in
1789.This led to increase in the demand for food grains.
b-The production of food grains could not keep pace with the demand and the price of bread
which was the staple diet of the majority Rose rapidly.
c- The wages also did not keep pace with the rise in prices. The gap between the Rich and the
poor widened. This led to the subsistence crisis.

Q.2.What was the system of voting in the Estates General? What change did the Third Estate
want in this system?
Ans. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted
a. According to the principle that each estate had one vote.
b. Members of the Third Estate demanded that voting must now be conducted by the assembly
as a whole, where each member would have one vote.
c. This was according to the democratic principles put forward by philosophers like Rousseau in
his book, The Social Contract.

Q.3. Describe the incidents that led to the storming of the Bastille.
Ans. a. National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution; the rest of France was
seething with turmoil.
b. A severe winter had meant a bad harvest, the price of bread rose. Often bakers exploited the
situation and hoarded supplies.
c. After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into the
shops.
d. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris. On 14 July, the agitated crowd
stormed and destroyed Bastille.

Q.4. Describe how the new political system of constitutional monarchy worked in France.
Ans The constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was
indirectly elected. That is,
a. Citizens voted for a group of electors, who in turn chose the Assembly. Not all citizens,
however, had the right to vote.
b. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage
were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote.
c. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.

d. To qualify as an elector and then as a member of the Assembly, a man had to belong to the
highest bracket of taxpayers.

Q.5.What was ‘natural and inalienable rights’?

Ans- a. The constitution began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizens
b) Rights such as the right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law
were established as ‘natural and inalienable rights’, i.e., they belonged to each human being by
birth and could not be taken away
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c)It was the duty of the state to protect each citizen’s natural right.

Q.6Why did slavery begin and why was it abolished in French colonies?
Ans-a. The slave trade began in the 17th century. The colonies in the Caribbean – Martinique,
Guadeloupe and San Domingo – were important Suppliers of commodities.
b) But the reluctance of Europeans to go and work in distant and unfamiliar lands meant a
shortage of labour on the plantations.
c) Throughout the eighteenth century there was little criticism of slavery in France. The National
Assembly did not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose incomes depended
on the slave trade
d) It was the Convention which in 1794 legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas
possessions. This, however, turned out to be a short-term measure. Napoleon reintroduced
slavery.
e. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.
Q.7. Explain what a revolution is. In what way did the French Revolution mean different things
to different people?
Ans It is an attempt by a large number of people to change the government of a country,
especially by violent action.
a) The Third Estate comprising the common men benefitted from the Revolution. The clergy and
nobility had to relinquish power.
b) Their land was confiscated. Their privileges were finished. The people of lower middle class
also benefitted.
c) Position of artisans and workers improved.
d) Clergy, feudal lords, nobles and even women were disappointed. The revolution did not bring
real equality as everyone was not given the right to vote meaning women who got it finally in
1946.

Q.8. Who was the people who comprised the Third Estate? Who paid the taxes and to whom?
Ans. a) -The people who comprised the Third Estate were big businessmen, merchants, lawyers,
peasants, artisans, small peasants, landless labour and servants.
b) These were 95 per cent of the population. They had to pay taxes to the state. Taxes included
taille, tithes and a number of indirect taxes.
Q.9. Who formed the National Assembly? On what date is ‘Bastille Day’ celebrated and why?
Ans. a)The representatives of the Third Estate assembled at Versailles on 20 June and declared
themselves a National Assembly
b)The Bastille Day is celebrated on 14th July every year because on this day the unruly Paris mob
stormed and attacked the prison of Bastille which was considered a symbol of terror and
despotism.

Q.10 Name three famous writers and philosophers who influenced the French- Revolution.
What were their ideas?

Ans. In Two Treaties of Government, Locke sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and
absolute right of the monarch.

a) Rousseau carried the idea forward, proposing a form of government based on a social contract
between people and their representatives.

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b) In the Spirit of the laws Moritesquieu proposed a division of power within the government
between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.

c) The ideas of these philosophers were discussed intensely in salons and coffee-houses and
spread among people through books and newspaper.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Case Study-1
Finally, a group of several hundred people marched towards the eastern part of the city and
stormed the fortress-prison, the Bastille, where they hoped to find hoarded ammunition. In the
armed fight that followed, the commander of the Bastille was killed and the prisoners released –
though there were only seven of them. Yet the Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the
despotic power of the king. The fortress was demolished and its stone fragments were sold in the
markets to all those who wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.
Q1. Why was the Bastille hated?
a. The Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic power of the farmers.
b. The Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic powers of the common people.
c. The Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic powers of the king.
d. The Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic powers of the animals.

Ans-C. The Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic powers of the king.

Q2. A group of several hundred people marched towards ----------------- part of the city.
a. Eastern b. Western c. Central d. Middle

Q3. What happened with the fortress?

a. The fortress was saved and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all those who
wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.
b. The fortress was renovated and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all those who
wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.
c. The fortress was demolished and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all those who
wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.
d. The fortress was built again and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all those who
wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.

Ans-c. The fortress was demolished and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all
those who wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.

Q4. The -------- was killed and the prisoners released.

a. Commander of the king. b. Commander of the Bastille c. Commander of the PM d.

Commander of the chief
Ans- b. Commander of the Bastille

Case Study-2- The outbreak of the Revolution

In France of the Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to his
will alone. Rather he had to call a meeting of the Estates General which would then pass his
proposals for new taxes. The Estates General was a political body to which the three estates sent
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their representatives. However, the monarch alone could decide when to call a meeting of this
body. The last time it was done was in 1614.

Q1. What was the Estate General?

a. The Estate General was a political body to which the nine estates sent their representatives.
b. The Estate General was a political body to which the three estates sent their representatives.
c. The Estate General was a political body to which the ten estates sent their representatives.
d. The Estate General was a political body to which the eleven estates sent their representatives.
Ans- b. The Estate General was a political body to which the three estates sent their
representatives.

Q2. The ----------was a political body.

a. Estate General b. King c. Prime minister d. Chief
Ans- a. Estate General
Q3. The ----------- alone could decide when to call a meeting.
a. Estate General b. Monarch c. Prime minister d. Chief
Ans- b. Monarch

Q4. Where did the Old Regime the monarch not have the power to impose taxes according to his
will alone
a. In Europe of the Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to
his will alone.
b. In France Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to his will
alone.
c. In Africa Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to his will
alone.
d. In Africa Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to his will
alone.
Ans- b. In France Old Regime the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes according to
his will alone.

Case 3- The Reign of Terror

The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Robespierre followed a policy
of severe control and punishment. All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic – ex-
nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members of his own party who did
not agree with his methods – were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary
tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty’ they were guillotined. The guillotine is a device consisting
of two poles and a blade with which a person is beheaded. It was named after Dr Guillotin who
invented it.

Q1. What was the purpose of Guillotine in the reign of Robespierre?

a. The people whom Robespierre thought as his enemies and the people who did not agree with
his methods were appreciated.
b. The people whom Robespierre thought as his enemies and the people who did not agree with
his methods were tried and guillotined .
c. The people whom Robespierre thought as his enemies and the people who did not agree with
his methods were happy.

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d. The people whom Robespierre thought as his enemies and the people who did not agree with
his methods were popular.
Ans- b. The people whom Robespierre thought as his enemies and the people who did not
agree with his methods were tried and guillotined .

Q2. Which period is referred to as the Reign of terror?

a. The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
b. The period from 1993 to 1994 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
c. The period from 1693 to 1694 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
d. The period from 1293 to 1294 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
Ans- a. The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.

Q3. ------------ followed a policy of severe control and punishment.

a. Robespierre b. Chief c. Prime minister d. Monarch

Q4. The Guillotine is a device consisting of ----------------- Poles.

a. Two b. Three c. Nine d. Six
Ans- a. Two

Case Study-4
The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Robespierre followed a policy
of severe control and punishment. All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic – ex-
nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members of his own party who did
not agree with his methods – were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary
tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty’ they were guillotined. The guillotine is a device consisting
of two poles and a blade with which a person is beheaded. It was named after Dr Guillotin who
invented it.
Q1. Which period is known as Reign of terror?
a. 1791 to 1794 b. 1793 to 1794 c. 1689 to 1791 d. 1897 to 1898
Ans- b. 1793 to 1794
Q2. Robespierre followed a policy of severe ------
a. control b. Torture c. control and torture d. control and punishment
Ans- d. control and punishment
Q3. Who invented Guillotin?
a. Louis XVI b. Dr. Guillotin c. Montesqui d. Louis Phillipe
Ans- b. Dr. Guillotin
Q4. The Guillotin is a device consisting of two ploes and a ------ with which a person is beheaded.
a. Knife b. Sickle c. Blade d. Saw
Ans- c. Blade
Q5. When was Robespeirre Executed?

a. 1974 b. 1783 c. 1791 d. 1794

Ans- d. 1794

Case Study 5-
The National Assembly completed the draft of the constitution in 1791. Its main object was to
limit the powers of the monarch. These powers instead of being concentrated in the hands of one

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person, were now separated and assigned to different institutions – the legislature, executive and
judiciary. This made France a constitutional monarchy.

Q1. The National Assembly framed a Constitution in 1791 to limit the powers of the---------
a. Monarch b. Businessman c. Wealthy man d. Press
Ans- a. Monarch

Q2. When was the National Assembly drafted?

a. 1777 b. 1789 c. 1791 d. 1700
Ans- c. 1791
Q3. What made France a constitutional monarch?
a. Separated legislature and judiciary
b. Separated executive, legislature and judiciary
c. None of the above
d. All of the Above
Ans- b. Separated executive, legislature and judiciary

Case Study 6-
In 1804, Napoleon Bonaparte crowned himself Emperor of France. He set out to conquer
neighbouring European countries, dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he
placed members of his family. Napoleon saw his role as a moderniser of Europe. He introduced
many laws such as the protection of private property and a uniform system of weights and
measures provided by the decimal system. Initially, many saw Napoleon as a liberator who would
bring freedom for the people. But soon the Napoleonic armies came to be viewed everywhere as
an invading force. He was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815. Many of his measures that carried
the revolutionary ideas of liberty and modern laws to other parts of Europe had an impact on
people long after Napoleon had left.
Q1. When did Napoleon declare himself as Emperor of France?
a. 1804 b. 1800 c. 1791 d. 1923
Q2. Initially many saw Napoleon as a --------- who would bring freedom for the people.
a. Monarch b. Liberator c. Dictator d. Prince
Q3. When was Napoleon defeated?
a. 1815 b. 1851 c. 1861 d. 1817

Case Study-7
On 5 May 1789, Louis XVI called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals
for new taxes. A resplendent hall in Versailles was prepared to host the delegates. The first and
second estates sent 300 representatives each, who were seated in rows facing each other on two
sides, while the 600 members of the Third Estate had to stand at the back. The third estate was
represented by its more prosperous and educated members. Peasants, artisans and women were
denied to entry to the assembly. However their grievances and demands were listed in some
40000 letters which the representatives have brought with them.

Q1. When did Louis XVI call the assembly of the Estates General ?
a) On 5 April 1789 b) On 5 May 1789 c) On 15 May 1789 d) On 5 May 1798

Q2. Which Estate sent 600 members to the assembly ?

a) The First Estate b) The Second Estate c) The Third Estate d) None of these
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Q3. Who were denied to the entry to the assembly ?
a) Members of the First Estate b) Members of the Second Estate c) More prosperous and
educated members of the Third Estate d) Peasants, artisans and women

Q4. How many representatives were sent by the first estate ?

a) 200 members b) 300 members c) 400 members d) 600 members

Q5. The Third Estate was represented by whom ?

a) More prosperous and educated members b) Peasants, artisans and women c) Nobles d)
None of these

Case Study-8
Louis XVI had signed the Constitution , he entered into secret negotiations with the king of
Prussia. The National Assembly voted in April 1792 to declare war against Prussia and Austria.
Thousands of volunteers thronged from the provinces to join the army. They saw this as a war of
the people against kings and aristocracies all over Europe. Among the patriotic songs they sang
was the Marseillaise, composed by the poet Roget de L’Isle ( It was sung for the first time by
volunteers from Marseilles as they marched into Paris and so got its name.) The Marseillaise is
now the national anthem of France.

Q1. The National Assembly voted in April 1792 to declare war against……………..
a) Germany b) Prussia and Austria c) England d) Denmark

Q2. Who composed the song, the Marseillaise ?

a) Rousseau b) George Denton c) Roget de L’Isle d) Voltaire
Q3. Who had signed the Constitution ?
a) Louis XIV b) Louis XV c) Louis XVI d) None of these

Q4. The Marseillaise is the national anthem of……………………..

a) France b) Germany c) Italy d) Prussia

Q5. Thousands of volunteers thronged from the -------------------- to join the army.
a) cities b) villages c) provinces d) None of these

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS ):

Q.1. Explain the importance of the following events on the course of the French Revolution:
(a) Storming of the Bastille (c) The passing of the Civil Constitution of the clergy

Ans. a) On July 14, 1789, a mob of Paris stormed the fortress – the prison of Bastille – considered
a symbol of oppression and despotism. The Swiss guards were killed and prisoners set free. The
mob stole arms and ammunition. To this day, France celebrates ‘Bastille Day’ on 14thJuly every
year.
c) In 1790, the Civil Constitution nationalised the church. The clergy or group of persons who
enjoyed special powers in the church were also forced to relinquish power. Tithes were abolished
and lands owned by the church were confiscated.
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Q.2. Describe the Reign of Terror and role played by Robespierre in it.
Ans. The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
a) Maximilian Robespierre, leader of the Jacobins, followed the policy of severe control and
punishment.
b) All those he saw as enemies of the Republic — ex-nobles, clergy, political opponents — were
arrested, tried and guillotined if found guilty.
c) He issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices.
d) Meat and bread were rationed.
e) Use of expensive white flour was forbidden.
f) Robespierre followed his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand
moderation. Finally, he was convicted, arrested and guillotined in July 1794.

Q.3What did the following symbols convey in the Declaration of Rights?

(i) The broken chain (ii) The bundle of rods or fasces (iii)Sceptre
(iv) Snake biting its tail to form a ring (v) Red Phrygian cap (vi)The law tablet
Ans. (i) the broken chains: Chains were used to fetter slaves. A broken chain stands for the act of
becoming free.
(ii) The bundle of rods or fasces: One rod can be easily broken, but not an entire bundle.Strength
lies in unity.
(iii) Sceptre: Symbol of royal power.
(iv)Snake biting its tail to form a ring: Symbol of eternity. A ring has neither beginning nor end.
(v) Red Phrygian cap: Cap worn by a slave upon becoming free.
(vi)The law tablet: The law is the same for all, and all are equal before it.

Q.4.write short note on Jacobins?

Ans. a) They got their name from the former convent of St. Jacob in Paris.
b) They belonged to the less prosperous sections of the society.
c)They included small shopkeepers, artisans such as shoemakers, pastry cooks, watch-makers,
printers, as well as servants and daily wage earners.
d) Their leader was Maximilian Robespierre.
e)A large group among the Jacobin decided to wear long striped trousers similar to those worn by
dock workers.
f)This was to set themselves apart from the fashionable sections of society especially the nobles
who wore knee breeches.

Q.5. Discuss the participation of women in political clubs, their activities and demands.
Ans. From the very beginning, women were active participants in the events which brought about
so many important changes in French society.
a) They hoped that their involvement would pressurise the revolutionary government to
introduce measures to improve their lives.

b) Most women of the third estate had to work for a living. They worked as seamstresses or
laundresses, sold flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market, or were employed as domestic
servants in the houses of prosperous people.
c)Most women did not have access to education or job training. Their wages were lower than
those of men.
d) One of their main demands was that women should be given the same political rights as men.
e) Women were disappointed that the constitution of 1791 reduced them to passive citizens.
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Q.7. Describe the causes for the fall of Jacobin government in France.
Ans. a) The Jacobin government in France was based on extreme measures. The period from
1793-1794 is referred to as the reign of terror. Robespierre followed a policy of severe Control
and punishment.
b) All those he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic nobles and clergy, members of other
political parties, even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods–were
arrested, imprisoned and guillotined. This led to chaos and resentment among the people.

c)Robespierre’s government ordered shutting down of churches and converting church buildings
into barricades or offices. Thus the clergy turned against the Jacobin regime and hastened its fall.
d) Robespierre pursued his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters turned against him.
They began to demand moderation and a middle path. Finally, he himself was tried by a court in
July 1794, arrested and guillotined.

HOTS
Q.1 What landmark decisions were taken by the National Assembly led by the Third Estate on
4th August, 1789
Ans. a) Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly and accepted the principle
that his powers would be checked by a constitution.
b) On 4 August 1789, the Assembly passed a decree abolishing the feudal system of obligations
and taxes. Members of the clergy too were forced to give up their privileges
c)Tithes were abolished and lands owned by the church were confiscated. As a result, the
government acquired assets worth at least 2, billion lives.

Q.2. Describe the importance of Declaration of the Right of Man in France.

Ans a) The Declaration of the Right of Man in France was a landmark decision in the history of
France.
b) The constitution began with a declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. Rights such as the
right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law, were established as
‘natural and inalienable’ rights. That is, they belonged to each human being by birth and could
not be taken away
c)It was the duty of the state to protect each citizen's natural rights. The declaration of the Right
of Man and Citizens influenced revolutionary movements elsewhere too.

Q.3. Discuss the participation of women in political clubs, their activities and demands.
Ans. a)Women played important role regarding various activities. In order to discuss and voice
their interests women started their own political clubs and newspapers. About sixty women’s
clubs came up in different French cities.
b)The Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was the most famous of them, their main
demands were that
(i) Women should be given the same political rights as men.
(ii) They demanded the right to vote, to be elected to the Assembly and to hold political office.
c) In the early years, the revolutionary government did introduce laws that helped improve the
lives of women. Together with the creation of state schools, schooling was made compulsory for
all girls. Their fathers could no longer force them into marriage against their will. Marriage was
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made into a contract entered into freely and registered under civil law. Divorce was made legal,
and could be applied for by both women and men. Women could now train for jobs, could
become artists or run small businesses.
d)Women’s struggle for equal political rights, however, continued. During the Reign of Terror, the
new government issued laws ordering closure of women’s clubs, and banning their political
activities. Women’s movements for voting rights and equal wages continued through the next
two hundred years in many countries of the world. It was finally in 1946 that women in France
won the right to vote.

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PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

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 Physical features of India
Very short answer type Questions

1. What is Khadar?
Answer: The younger alluvium of the flood plains is known as the Khadar.
2. What is meant by doab?
Answer:The land between two rivers is locally known as the doab.
3. What is the Terai Zone?
Answer:It is a zone next to the Bhabar zone which is wet and marshy. It has a thick forest
cover and a variety of wildlife.
4. What is a Bhangar? HOTS
Answer:The older alluvium soil of the northern plains is called the Bhangar.
5. Name the most continuous range of Himalayas consisting of the lofty peaks.
Answer:Himadri or Greater or Inner Himalayas.
6. Name the mountain range which bounds Central Highlands on the north west.
Answer: Aravalli Hills.
7. How long are east-west distances covered by the Himalayas?
Answer:2,400 km.
8. Which river marks the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas?
Answer: The Brahmaputra.
9. Name the part of the Himalayas lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers.
Answer: Assam Himalayas.
10. Which part of Himalayas is located between Kali and Satluj rivers? HOTS
Answer: Kumaon Himalayas.
11. Which is the most important and longest mountain range of Himachal Himalaya?
Answer: The Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range.
12. Which is the northernmost range of Himalayas?
Answer:The Himadri.
13. Which is the outermost range of Himalayas?
Answer:The Shiwalik.
14. Which is the highest peak of the world? Where is it situated?
Answer:Mount Everest (8848 m) located in Nepal is the highest peak in the world.
15. Which is the highest peak of the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:The Anaimudi hill in Kerala.
16. In which state Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are located?
Answer:Meghalaya.
17. .Name the Himalayan range lying between Himadri and Shiwaliks.
Answer:Himachal or lesser Himalayans.
18. What is the northern and southern extension of the western coast called?
Answer:Northern → Konkan coast, Southern → Malabar coast.
19. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges? HOTS
Answer:The Malwa Plateau.
20. What are Duns?
Answer:These are broad valleys between Himachal and the Shiwalik ranges.
21. Name any two hills which comprise the ‘PurvanchaT.
Answer:The Patkai, Naga, Manipur and the Mizo hills, (any two)

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22.What are the two divisions of Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
23. Where are the Lakshadweep Islands situated?
Answer:In the Arabian Sea.
24. Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:The Lakshadweep Islands.
25. What are Coral polyps?
Answer:Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies.
MCQ
Q 1. The northern most range of the Himalayas is known as
(a) Himadri
(b) lesser Himalaya
(c) Shivalik
(d) none of the above.
Answer: Himadri

Q 2.The Kangra and Kullu valley are located in

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Himachal Pradesh

Q 3.Majuli is a riverine island located in the river

(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Yamuna
(d) Kaveri
Answer: Brahmaputra

Q.4. Dudhwa National Park is located in the state of

(a) Assam
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: Uttar Pradesh

Q 5.The soil containing calcareous deposits is locally known as

(a) Bhangar
(b) Khadar
(c) Bhabar
(d) Kankar
Answer: Kankar

Q.6.The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Doda Betta
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(c) Ooty
(d) Mahendragiri
Answer: Mahendragiri

Q 7. Jaisalmer is in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Rajasthan

Q 8. Barchans are found in

(a) desert regions
(b) plains
(c) plateaus
(d) hilly regions
Answer:Desert region

Q 9.The northern part of the western coast is called the

(a) Konkan
(b) Kannad plain
(c) Malabar coast
(d) Coromandel coast
Answer:Konkan

Q 10.Lake Chilika lies in the state of

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Telangana
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: Odisha

Q. 11.A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as

(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above
Answer: Peninsula

Q.12.Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are
collectively called as
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvachal
(d) none of the above
Answer:Purvanchal

Q. 13 The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as;

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(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar
Answer:Kannad

Q.14 A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is :
(a) Mound
(b) Pass
(c) Strait
(d) Valley
Answer:Pass

Q.15.Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ?

(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills
(b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills
(d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills
Answer:Javadi and Shevroy Hills
.
Q. 16 The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as .
(a) Kangra Valley
(b) Patkai Bum
(c) Passes
(d) Duns
Answer:Duns

Q.17 In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu
located?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Duns
Answer:Himachal

Q.18 What are Lesser Himalayas known as?

(a) Himadri
(b) Himachal
(c) Shivaliks
(d) Purvanchal
Answer:Himachal

Q.19 Which of the following is the highest peak in India?

(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Nandadevi
Answer:Kanchenjunga
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Q. 20 Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
a)The Himalayas
b)The Northern plains
c)The Peninsula plateau
d)The Indian Desert
Answer:The Peninsula Plateau
Q. 21. Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?
(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila
(b) Nathula
(c) Khyber pass
(d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh
Answer c) Khyber Pass
Q. 22. Which of the following features is the distinct feature of the Peninsular plateau?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Bhabar
(c) Terai
(d) Black soil
Answer.d) Black soil
Q 23.Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different
parts of India?
(a) Difference in rock formations
(b) Weathering
(c) Erosion and deposition
(d) Land use
Answer a) Difference in rock formations
Q.24 Which of the following was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwana land?
(a) Europe
(b) India
(c) South America
(d) South Africa
Answer. a) Europe
Q 25.Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s
relief features?
(a) Geological formations
(b) Population density
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion and deposition
Answer. b) Population density

Short answer type Questions

Q 1.Name the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas and give their other names.
Answe: a)The Himadri (Greater Himalayas),
b)The Himachal (Lesser Himalayas),
c)The Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).

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Q 2 What is the difference between a tributary and a distributary?

Answer: A Tributary: A tributary is that river which joins the main river, and increases the volume
of water. It is generally found in the upper or the middle course of a river. For example, the
Yamuna is the main tributary of the river Ganga.
A Distributary: It is that river which originates from a main river. It is formed near the river’s
mouth before it falls into the sea. It is found in the lower course of the river. For example, the
Hooghly is the main distributary of the Ganga.

Q 3. Name the three major divisions of Himalayas from the north to south.and explain in brief
each.
Answer: The three major divisions of Himalayas from north to south are:
a)The northernmost range which is known as the Great Himalayas or Inner Himalayas or Himadri.
It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks. It has an average height of 6000
meters.
b)The southern range of Himadri which is known the Himachal or the lesser Himalayas lies to the
South of Himadri. It forms the most rugged mountain system. The ranges are mainly composed
of highly compressed and altered rocks. The altitude varies between 3700 and 4500 meters.
c)The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as Shiwaliks. Its height varies between 900
meters and 1100 meters. This range is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by
rivers from the main Himalayan ranges.
Q 4.How is Himadri range different from Himachal range? Mention any three differences.
Answer:
Himadri Himachal
Himachal is not so high as
This range is the highest of
Himadri. Its average height
(i) Himalayas with an average
is between 3,700 and 4,500
height of 6,000 metres.
metres.
This range contains loftiest This range contains hill
(ii) peaks. Example: Kanchenjunga stations Example: Shimla
and Nanda Devi. and Nainital.
This range is always covered
(iii) It snows here in winter.
with snow.

Q 5. Write about the main features of the Shiwaliks.

Answer:
a) It is the outermost range of the Himalayas.
b) The average altitude of the Shiwalik range varies between 900 m and 1,100 m above the sea
level, and extends over a width of about 10-50 km.
c) This range is made of unconsolidated material such as mud, silt and soft rocks and is prone to
earthquakes and landslides.
d) Some narrow valleys are found between the Shiwaliks and the Himachal. They are called ‘duns’.
For example, Dehradun, is situated in one such valley.

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Q 6.How did the northern plains come to existence? Write two points briefly. Also mention two
features of these plains.

Answer: a) The northern plains have been formed by the interplay of the three major river
systems, i.e., the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
(b) The northern plain is formed of the alluvial soil brought by these rivers.
Features:
a)These plains are very fertile.
b) These are densely polulated.
Q. 7 Why are Northern Plains agriculturally productive parts of India? Explain.
Answer: a)The deposition of alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills of the Himalaya over
millions of years, formed this fertile plain. It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sQuestion km.
b) The plain being about 2400 km. long and 240 to 320 km. broad, is a densely populated
physiographic division.
c) With a rich soil cover combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate, it is
agriculturally a very productive part of India.
Q.8 Which three river systems form the northern plains of India? Mention main features
Answer: The northern plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems—
the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
Features:
a) The river Indus and its tributaries form the western part of the northern plain which is referred
to as the Punjab plains. The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan.
b)The Ganga plain extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It spreads over the states of
North India; Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.
c)The Brahmaputra plain particularly lies mainly in Assam. It forms the largest riverine islands in
the world.
Q 9 Write a note on corals.
Answer:a)Corals are small, sedentary marine animals with a calcareous homy skeleton.
b)These thrive in warm shallow water and grow into large colonies called coral reefs.
c)They secrete hard rock like substance. The coral secretion and their skeletons form coral
deposits in the form of reefs.
d)They are mainly of three kinds: barrier reef, fringing reef and atolls.
Q 10 Write a short note on the Western Coastal Plains.

Answer: a)The Peninsular plateau is flanked by stretch of narrow coastal strips, running along the
Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
b) The western coast, sandwiched between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, is a narrow
plain. It consists of three sections.
c) The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai-Goa), the central stretch is called
the Kannad Plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Long answer type Questions

Q 1. “The land of India displays great physical variations”. Justify this statement with five
examples. HOTS
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Answer:Physical variations of land of India are:
a)Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s
surface. It was supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks.
b)The Himalayas and the Northern Plains are the most recent landforms.
c)From the yiew point of geology, Himalayan Mountains form an unstable zone.
d)The whole mountain system of Himalaya represents a very youthful topography with high
peaks, deep valleys and fast flowing rivers.
e)The Northern Plains are formed of alluvial deposits.
f)The Peninsular Plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks with gently rising hills
and wide valleys, (any five)

Q.2 “Each physiographic region of India complements the other and makes the country richer in
its natural resources.” Justify this statement with five examples.
Or
‘The diverse physical features of India are of immense value’.
Justify the statement by giving suitable examples.

Answer:Importance of diverse physical features of India is as follows:

a)The northern mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth.
b)The northern plains are the granaries of the country. They provide the base for early
civilisations.
c)The plateau is a storehouse of minerals which has played a crucial role in the industrialisation
of the country.
d)The coastal region and island groups provide sites for fishing and port activities.
e)The deserts are the storehouse of solar energy.

Q.3 Describe any five features of northern plains of India.

Answer:Features of northern plains of India are:

a) The northern plains have been formed from the alluvium deposited by the mountain rivers.
b) They are located between the Himalayan rivers in the north and the Peninsular Plateau in the
south.
c) They turned the soil on the surfaced land fertile for growing a rich harvest of variety of crops.
This led to the development of the Indus river valley civilization.
d) They are made up of deposits of alluvium and cover an area of 7 lakh km.
e) They are densely populated physiographic division of India and are believed to be highly
productive in terms of agriculture.

Q.4 Describe the features of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in reference to height, slope,
continuity, rivers and vegetation.

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Answer:
Features Western Ghats Eastern Ghats
The Eastern Ghats are
Their height is 900 to lower in height than
1,100 m. The highest the Western Ghats. It
(i) Height peak of this region is ranges from 600 to 900
from Anaimudi with a m. Mahendragiri is the
height of 2,659 km. highest peak in Eastern
Ghats.
They have steep slop as
They have a gentle
(ii) Slope height increases from
slope.
North to South.
They are continous and They are irregular and
(iii) Continuity can be crossed through discontinous and
passes only. dissected by the rivers.
They stretch from
They lie parallel to Mahanadi valley to
(iv) Rivers Western Coast and are Niligiris in South. The
source for some rivers. rivers flow through
easily.
Western Ghats have
Eastern Ghats have
tropical evergreen
scrub vegetation due
(v) Vegetation forests. They are
to overgrazing and
evergreen to deciduous
deforestation.
forests.

Q.5 What are Purvanchal hills?Name the important mountains of Purvanchal. Mention any two
features of these hills.

Answer:Mountains along the eastern boundary of India are called the Purvanchal. Some of the
important mountains of Purvanchal are:
a)The Patkoi Bum and the Naga Hills in the North.
b)The Mizo Hills in the South.
c)The Jaintia, the Khasi and the Garo hills from east to west.
Features:
a)They comprise of sandstone and sediments.
b)They are covered with dense forests.
c)They comprise of Patkoi Hills, Manipur hills etc. (any two)

Q.6 What is the significance of Himalayas?

Answer: The significance of Himalayas is as follows :

(a) The Himalayas stand like a mighty mountain wall in the north of India. They ‘ separate the
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Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia.
(b) They have vast snowfields and glaciers which are the source of numerous perennial rivers.
These rivers provide water for irrigation, navigation and generation of hydel power.
(c) The Himalayas act as a climatic barrier. They protect the Northern Plains from freezing cold
winds. They also stop and deflect the rain-bearing winds.
(d) The forests in the Himalayas provide a suitable habitat for wildlife. They also have many
wildlife sanctuaries.
(e) The Himalayas also have many beautiful hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital and
Darjeeling, which attract tourists.
Q.7 How do different physiographic regions of India complement each other?

Answer: A detailed account of the different physiographic units highlights the unique features of
each region :
(a) Each region complements the other and makes the country richer in its natural resources.
(b) The mountains are the major source of water and forest wealth.
(c) The Northern Plains are the granaries of the country. They provided the base for early
civilizations.
(d) The plateau is a storehouse of minerals, which has played a crucial role in the industrialization
of the country.
(e) The coastal region and island groups provide sites for fishing and port activities. Thus, the
diverse physical features of the land have immense future possibilities of development.
Q.8 Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.

Answer:a)The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
b) The Satpura range flanks its broad base in the north, while the Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and
the Maikal range form its eastern extensions.
c) The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards. An extension of the
Plateau is also visible in the northeast, locally known as the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau
and North Cachar Hills.
d) It is separated by a fault from the Chotanagpur Plateau. Three prominent hill ranges from the
west to the east are the Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia Hills.
e) The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the
‘ Deccan Plateau respectively.
Q.9 Describe the river systems of the Northern Plains.

Answer:a)The three river systems in the Northern plains from east to west are the Brahmaputra,
Ganga and Indus.
b) A large part of the Indus system lies in Pakistan. The Indus and its tributaries – the Jhelum, the
Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj originate in the Himalayas.
c) This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs
d). The Ganga plain extends between the Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It spreads over the states of
Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, parts of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
e)It has tributaries like the Yamuna, Gomati, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi. The Brahmaputra
Plain lies in Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Q.10 Describe the islands of India. Or Give a brief description of two islands of India
Answer: a)India has the Union Territories of Lakshadweep in the Arabian sea and the Andaman
and Nicobar islands in the Bay of Bengal.

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 b) Lakshadweep is a group of coral islands near the Malabar coast of Kerala. The Pitti island here
has a bird sanctuary.
c)The total land area of this group is only about 32 square km.
d)The Andaman and Nicobar islands are an elongated chain with dense forests and an equatorial
climate. This chain has the only active volcano in India on Barren island.
e)The Southernmost point of the Indian Union, Indira Point, at the end of the Nicobar chain, was
sunk due to the Tsunami of December, 2004. The total land area of this chain is 8249 square km.

Assertion and Reasoning

Question 1
Assertion(A): Purvanchal is located on the Eastern part of India.
Reason (R): It is a submountain range of Himalayas in the North East of India
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true,but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true ,but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true
Answer A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2

Assertion (A):Northern plains are agriculturally very productive part of India.

Reason (R): The Northern plains have fertile soil cover,adequate water supply,favorable climate
and terrain
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A.
B) Both A and R are true , but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true ,but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer:A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A.

Question 3
Assertion( A) : The rivers flowing from mountains to plains tend to loose their speed.
Reason (R) : The slopes become gentler over plains.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both a and r are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true , but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4
Assertion(A): The peninsula plateau has broad and shallow valley and gentle hills with rounded
tops.
Reason(R): The peninsula plateau is a part of the oldest landmass.
A) Both A and R are are true ,but R is not the correct explanation of a.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
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C) A is true , but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5
Assertion(A): The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular.
Reason (R): These Ghats are dissected by rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal.

A) Both A and R are are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true , but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer A) Both A and R are are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6
Assertion (A) The Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken rivers flow from South West to North – east.
Reason (R) The Central highland slopes from South West to North – East direction.
Codes:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 7

Assertion (A) The Himalyas forms the highest and the rugged mountains in the world.
Reason (R) The Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world lying in the Himalayas.
Codes:
A)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 8
Assertion (A) : Northern plains is a densely populated physiographic division of India.
Reason (R) : With a rich soil cover combined with adequate water supply and favorable climate it
is agriculturally a productive part of India.
A)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true
Answer A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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Question 10

Assertion (A)The peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline igneous and
metamorphic rocks .
Reason (R) It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land.

A)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true

Answer A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Case study question

Case study 1
1.The Himalayas, geologically young and structurally fold mountains stretch over the Himalayas
northern borders of India. These mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to
the Brahmaputra. The Himalayas represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain
barriers of the world. They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2,400 Km. Their width
varies from 400 Km in Kashmir to 150 Km in Arunachal Pradesh. The altitudinal variations are
greater in the eastern half than those in the western half. The Himalaya consists of three parallel
ranges in its longitudinal extent. A number of valleys lie between these ranges. The northern
most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas. It is the most continuous range consisting
of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres. It contains all the prominent
Himalayan peaks.

The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature. The core of this part of Himalayas is
composed of granite. It is perennially snow bound, and a number of glaciers descend from this
range.
Questions:
1. The Great or Inner Himalayas is also known as?
2. Give two features of the folds of Great Himalayas.
3. Give two features of the Inner Himalayas.
Answers:
1. The Great or Inner Himalayas is also known as the ‘Himadri’.
2. (Any two relevant points)
 The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature.
 The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.
 It is perennially snow bound, and a number of glaciers descend from this range.
1. Features of the Inner Himalayas:
 It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of
6,000 metres.
 It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks.

Case study 2

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 The Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. These divisions
have been demarcated by river valleys. The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali
rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas .The Kali and Tista rivers demarcate the Nepal Himalayas
and the part lying between Tista and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas. There are
regional names also in these broad categories.

A) The divisions of Himalayas have been demarcated by ________

Answer: River valleys

B) What are Kumaon Himalayas?

Answer : The part of Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers is known as Kumaon
Himalayas.

C) What are Assam Himalayas?

Answer: The part lying between Tista and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.

D) The Himalayas are divided on the basis of ________ from West to East.
Answer: Regions

Case study 3
The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the shiwaliks. They extend over a width of 10
to 50 km and have an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres. These ranges are
composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan
ranges located farther north. These valleys are covered with thick gravel and alluvium.Tthe
longitudinal value lying between lesser Himalaya and shiwaliks are known as duns.Dehra
Dun,Kotli Dun ,and Patli Dun are some of the well known duns.
A) What is the outer most range of the Himalayas called?
Answer Shivalik
B) What is the width of Shivalik?
Answer: 10-50 kms
C) What are these ranges of Shivalik composed of?
Answer: Unconsolidated sediments
D)What are longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalaya and the shiwaliks known?
Answer: Dun

Case study 4

The northern plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems, namely
the Indus ., the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. This plane is formed
by Alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills of the Himalaya
over millions of years formed this fertile plain. It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq. Km.The
plaine being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad is a densely populated
physiographic division.

A) The Northern plains are made by how many river systems?

Answer: 3
B) The Northern plain is formed of which soil?
Answer: Alluvial soil
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C) Which is not the part of river system of northern plains?
Answer: Yamuna
D) Which is a densely populated physiographic division?
Answer: Northern plains

Case study 5
Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies. They flourish in
shallow mud- free and warm waters. They secret calcium carbonate.The Coral secretion and
their skeletons from coral deposits in the form of reefs: they are mainly three kinds: Barrier
Reef, fringing Reef and atolls. The Great barriers reef of Australia is a good example of the first
kind of coral reefs. Attols are circular or horseshoe- shaped Coral reefs.
A) What does coral polyps secrete?
Answer: Calcium Carbonate
B) What is the shape of Attols?
Answer: Circular
C) Give example of the first kind of coral reefs?
Answer: Great barriers reef of Australia.
D) How many kinds of reefs are there?
Answer: Three

Case study 6
It is a table land composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. Itwas formed
due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making it a
part of the oldest landmass. The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded
hills. This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands and
the Deccan Plateau.
1. Identify the physiographic division described in the given extract.
a) The Himalayan mountains
b) The Peninsular Plateau
c) The Indian Desert
d) The Coastal Plains
Answer:b) The Peninsular Plateau
2. Which of the following is not true with respect of the Physiographic Division identified by you?

a) It is an interplay of three major river systems namely the Indus, the Ganga and the
Brahmaputra.
b) The Chambal, the Sind and the Betwa are the rivers which drain this region.
i) Only a is true
ii) Only b is true
iii) Both a and b are true
iv) Neither a nor b is true
Answer: I) Only a is true
3. The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river, covering a major
area of Malwa plateau is known as..........
a) Western Ghats
b) Eastern Ghats
c) The Deccan Plateau
d) The Central Highland
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Answer: d) The central highland
4. Which of the following is the prominent soil found in the Peninsular plateau?
a) Red soil
b) Laterite soil
c) Black soil
d) Alluvial soil
Answer: c) Black soil

€
Case study 7
These, geologically young and structurally fold mountain stretch over the northern borders of
India. These mountain ranges run in a west- east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
These represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain
barriers of the world. They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2400 km.
There width varies from 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh. The altitudinal
variations are greater in the Eastern half than those in the Western half.
These consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. A number of valleys lie between
these ranges.

1. Which of the following physiographic divisions have been described in the given extract?
a) The Coastal Plains
b) The Islands
c) The Himalayan Mountains
d)The Peninsular Plateau
Answer:c) The himalayan mountain
2.Which of the following three parallel ranges belong to the Physiographic division identified by
you?
a) Garo, Khasi, Jantia
b) Aravali, Vindhya and Satpura
c) Himadri, Himachal and Shivalik
d) Sulaiman, Hindukush and Kunlun
Answer: c) Himadri,Himachal and Shivlik
3. .................and.............. peaks are located in the Himalayas.
a) Anai Mudi and Kanchenjunga
b) Kanchenjunga and Dhaulagiri
c) Dhaulagiri and Anai Mudi
d) Mahendragiri and Anai Mudi
Answer: b) Kanchenjunga and Dhaulagiri
4. The loftiest peak lying in India is
a) Mt.Everest
b) Kanchenjunga
c) Nanda Devi
d) Anai Mudi
Answer: Kanchenjunga

Case study 8
The Northern plains have been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely
the Indus the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. This plain is formed of
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alluvial soil. The deposition of Alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills of the Himalaya over
millions of years formed this fertile plain. It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq. km. The plain being
about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division. With
a rich soil cover combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate, it is agriculturally
a productive part of India. The rivers coming from northern mountains are involved in
depositional work. In the lower course, due to a gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases,
This results in the formation of riverine islands. Majauli, in the Brahmaputra river, is the highest
inhabited riverine island in the world. The rivers in the lower course splits into numerous
channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as distributaries.
1. The source given above relates to which of the following options?
a) The Coastal plains
b) The Islands
c) The Northern plains
d) Drainage system
Answer: c) The northern plains
2. The Northern Plains have been formed by which of the following rivers?
a) The Indus
b) The Ganga
c) The Brahmaputra
d) All of these.
Answer: d) All of these
3. The rivers in the lower course split into numerous channels due to deposition of........ ,
these channels are known as........
a) silt, distributaries
b) clay, gulf
c) gravel, strait
d) sound, isthmus
Answer: a) Silt,distributaries
4. Which of the following is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world?
a) Majuli island
b) Bhoka island
c) Richards island
d) Sumba island

Answer: a) Majuli island

Case study 9
The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crysrtaline ,igneous and metamorphic
rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus making it a
part of the oldest landmass.The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. This
plateau consists of two broad divisions namely, the central highlands ,and the deccan plateau.The
part of the peninsular plateau lying to the North of the Narmada river, covering a major area of
the Malwa plateau,is known as the central highlands. The Vindhya range is bounded by the
Satpura range on the South and the Aravalis on the northwest.

1.The peninsular plateau is composed of

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A) Crystalline rocks
B) Igneous rocks
C) Metamorphic rocks
D) All of these

Answer: All of these

2. Peninsular plateau is formed due to breaking and drifting of which land?

A) Gondwana
B) Deccan plateau
C) Narmada river
D) Satpura range
Answer: A) Gondwana
3. The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the narmada river,covering a major
area of the Malwa plateau is known as
A) Deccan plateau
B) Peninsular plateau
C) Central highlands
D) Vindhya range
Answer: C) Central Highlands

4. Which range is bounded by the Satpura range on the South and the Aravalis on the
northeast?
A) Deccan plateau
B) Peninsulr plateau
C) Central highlands
D) Vindhya range
Answer: D) Vindhya range

Case study 10
A detailed account of the different physiographic units highlights the unique features of each
region .It would however be clear that each region complements the other and makes the
country richer in its natural resources. The mountains are the major sources of water and
forest wealth. The northern plains are the graneries of the country . They provide the base for
early civilisations. The plateau is a storehouse of minerals ,which has played a crucial role in the
industrialisation of the country. The coastal region and the island groups provide sites for
fishing and port activities . Thus the diverse physical feature of the land have immense future
possibilities of development.

1. Graneries of the country are

A) Mountains
B) Coastal plains
C) Northern plains
D) Peninsular Plateau
Answer: c) Northern Plains
2. Which among the following is known as storehouse of mineral?
A) Islands
B) River
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 C) Peninsular Plateau
D) Himadri
Answer: C) Peninsular Plateau
3. Which among the following provide sites for fishing and port activities?
A) Coastal regions
B) Island
C) Both A) and B)
D) Non of these
4. What are the main sources of water and forest wealth?
A) Mountains
B) Coastal Plains
C) Northern plains
D) Peninsular plateau
Answer: A) Mountains

********************************************************

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 DEMOCRATIC POLITICS

CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on
(a) 26 January 1950
(b) 26 November 1949
(c) 26 January 1949
(d) 15 August 1947

Answer: (b) 26 November 1949

Question 2.
Which of the following sentences is wrong about Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
(а) He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
(b) He was born in Maharashtra.
(c) He was law minister in post-independence India.
(d) He was the founder of the Republican Party of India.

Answer: (b) He was born in Maharashtra.

Question 3.
Who among the following was not the member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Nelson Mandela remained in the jail for
(a) 28 years
(b) 29 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 31 years

Answer: (a) 28 years

Question 5.
Apartheid in South Africa was discrimination on the basis of
(a) gender
(b) religion
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(c) race
(d) economic status

Answer: (c) race

Question 6.
How many members had the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian
Constitution?
(a) 200
(b) 199
(c) 198
(d) 190

Answer: (b) 199

Question 7.
Which of the following terms is not included in the Preamble to the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Secular
(d) Religion

Answer: (d) Religion

Question 8.
The Indian Constitution came into effect on
(a) 26 January 1949
(b) 26 January 1950
(c) 26 January 1952
(d) 26 November 1950

Answer: (b) 26 January 1950

Question 9.
On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a) For treason
(b) For breaking the laws
(c) For corruption charges
(d) for possessing illegal property

Answer: (a) For treason

Question 10.
In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races
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(b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categor ies
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 11.
why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in g overnment for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 12.
when did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995
(b) 26 April, 1994
(c) 24 March, 1994
(d) 27 April, 1996

Answer: (b) 26 April, 1994

Question 13.
Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom
(b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c) Walk to Freedom
(d) Our Freedom

Answer: (a) The Long Walk to Freedom

Question 14.
what did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property
(b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature
(d) some special rights

Answer: (a) Protect its privileges and property

Question 15.
which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
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(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above)

Answer: (b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions

Question 16.
Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Karachi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi

Answer: (b) Karachi

Question 17.
According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in
1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Government of India Act, 1935

Question 18.
which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) American War of Independence

Answer: (c) Russian Revolution

Question 19.
when did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949
(b) 26 December, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 26 January, 1949

Answer: (a) 26 November, 1949

Question 20.
How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500
(b) Around 2000
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(c) Around 1550
(d) Around 1000

Answer: (b) Around 2000

Question 21.
Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of M ahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 22.
The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface
(b) Preamble
(c) Introduction
(d) Article

Answer: (b) Preamble

Question 23.
which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 24.
which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

Answer: (c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies

Question 25.
which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the
constitution?
(a) Republic Day
(b) Independence Day
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(c) Gandhi Jayanti
(d) Constitution Enforcement Day

Answer: (a) Republic Day

Q1. What do you mean by Apartheid ?

Ans: The system of racial discrimination practised in South Africa.

Q.2. What is meant by segregation ?

Ans: The act of separating or a setting apart people from others or from the main
body or group especially , when applied to separate people by race.

Q3. Define Constitution.

Ans: The Constitution is the system of belief and laws by whole country , state or
organisation is governed.

Q.4. On what basis the system of apartheid divided people.

Ans: The people were divided on the basis of skin colour in the apartheid system.

Q5. On what charge was Nelson Mandela tried by white South African Government ?
Ans: Charge of Treason.

Q6. What would have happened in South Africa if the black majority had decided to take revenge
on the whites for all their oppression and exploitation ?
Ans: Violence would have erupted in South Africa , bloodshed would have taken place. A great
loss of life and property would have taken place.

Q7. Which type of system adopted by the white racist government of South
Africa tocontinue to rule ?
Ans: Detaining ( arrest / custody) torturing and killing thousands of blacks.

Q8. When did the constituent assembly adopted the constitution of India ?
Ans: The constitution was adopted on 26th Nov, 1949.

Q9. What was the contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel just after the independence ?
Ans: The integration of the Indian princely states.

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Page 48 of
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Q.10. What is a country called where citizens have complete freedom to follow any
religion
?
Ans: Secular country.

Q.11. Why is India called a Republic country ?

Ans: Because its head is an elected one and non-hereditary.

Q.12. What is constitutional amendment ?

Ans: Constitutional amendment means a change in the constitution made by the Supreme
legislative body ( parliament ). Here there is scope for making changes or removing existing
laws.

Q13. What do we call an introductory statement which contains the philosophy and guiding
values on which the entire constitution has been built ?
Ans : Preamble.

Q14. Who drafted the constitution for India in 1928 ?

ans: Motilal Nehru and eight other congress leaders drafted the constitution for India in
1928.

Short Answer Type Questions :

Q1. What is the importance of one person , one vote and one value ?
Ans: a) It brings political equality. b) It also means that every individual in the country
irrespective of caste, gender and economical status is allowed to vote for his own
representative. c) The choice and opportunity is available to all the citizens on an equal
basis without any discrimination.

Q2. Explain the efforts made to form a new constitution after attaining
democracy inSouth Africa ?
Ans: a) In order to build a new South Africa on the basis of democratic values, social justice
and human rights they sat together to draw up a new constitution.
b) They came up withthe finest constitution through discussions.
c) It provided the most extensive rights to thecitizens of South Africa.

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Q3. Explain the term Apartheid. What were its implications ?

Ans: Apartheid was the system of racial discrimination unique to south Africa. In this
system people were discriminated on the basis of skin colour such as black and whites.
Implications :

a) White rulers treated non-whites as inferiors.

b) Non-whites did not haveright to vote.

c) They were forbidden to live in the areas where whites were living.

d) They were allowed to work there but only with prior permission.

e) Trains, buses, hospitals, school, cinemas, public places and public toilets were all
separate for the whites and blacks.

Q4. Highlight any three ideals of the Indian constitution.

Ans; a) Justice : Citizen cannot be discriminated on the basis of gender, caste and religion.
b) Liberty: Citizens are free to express their thoughts, feelings and ideas. c) Equality:
Everyone is equal before the law irrespective of gender, caste and religion.

Q5. Explain the importance of institutional design of the constitution of India.

Ans: a) The Indian constitution is a detailed document.

b) It needs to be amended to keepit updated.

c) It provides to incorporate changes from time to time, called as constitutional

amendments.

d) It also defines who will have much power to take a particular decision.

e) It also limits the power of the government by providing some rights to the citizens
whichcannot be violated.

Q6. Explain the significance of Preamble in the Indian constitution.

Ans: a) The Preamble is an introductory statement in a constitution which states the
reasons and the guiding values of a constitution.

b) It contains the philosophy on which the entire constitution has been built.

c) It provides a standard to examine and evaluate anylaw and action of the government.

Q7. How values of freedom struggle were embedded in the preamble of the
Indian constitution ?
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Ans: a) The constitution is mainly about embodying these values into institutional
arrangements.
b) Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it,
formed the foundation of Indian democracy.
c) The Preamble basically, is a short statement of its basic values.

Q8. The Preamble of Indian constitution provides philosophy and values of

constitution. Explain any three values that you derive from it.
Ans: a) It provide socio-economic justice for all.

b) It is based on the principle ofaccommodation of opinion.

c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of individual.

d) It is based ona sense of social welfare for all.

Q9. Which factors helped the Indian leaders to develop the Indian constitution.
Explain any three.
Ans: a) Ideals of the French revolution.
b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain.
c) Bill ofRights in the U.S.A.

Q10. What was the situation at the time India achieved independence ?
Ans: a) At the time of independence, India and Pakistan were born through a partition on
the basis of religious differences.

B) Lakhs of people were killed on both the sides of the border during the partition.

C) The British had left it to the rulers of princely states to decide whether they wanted
to merge with India or with Pakistan. This created a lot of turmoil.

Long Answer Type Questions.

Q1. State the steps involved in the framing of Indian constitution.

Ans. a)The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of
elected representatives called the Constituent assembly Elections to the Constituent
Assembly were held in July 1946.

b) Its first meeting was held in December 1946. It had 299 members.

c) The assembly adopted the constitution on 26 November 1949 and it came into force on
26 January 1950.

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Q2. Regarding the constitution-making, what was the compromise reached at
between the blacks and whites?

Ans. a)The constitution of South Africa was drawn together by the party of whites which had
rules through oppression and the party that led the freedom struggle.

b) The constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country.
After long negotiations both parties agreed to a compromise.

c) The whites agreed to the principle of majority rule and that of one person one vote.

d)They also agreed to accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers.

e) The blacks agreed that the majority rulewould not be absolute.

f) They agreed that the majority would not take away the property of the white minority.

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Q3. Describe how the Constituent Assembly worked to prepare the constitution for
India.

Ans. a) The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. First
some basic principles were decided and agreed upon.

b) Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for
discussion.

c) Several rounds of discussion took place, clause by clause. More than 2000 amendments were
made.
d) The members deliberated for 114 days spread over 3 years.
e) Every document presented and every word spoken in the Constituent Assembly was recorded
and preserved. These arecalled ‘Constituent Assembly Debates’.

Q4. What is meant by Apartheid ? How did the people of South Africa struggle
againstit ?
Ans: Apartheid was the system of racial discrimination between the black natives and white
Europeans in South Africa.
Efforts made by South African people were : a) Launched protest, marches, strikes.
B)The African National Congress led the struggle.
C) Many sensitive whites also joined the struggle with ANC.
D) Many worker unions and the communist party joined the movement.

Q5. Explain with five facts of the transition of apartheid to democracy and multi-
racialgovernment that took place in South Africa.
Ans: a) After the emergence of the new democratic South Africa, the black leaders appealed to
the fellow blacks to forgive the whites for the atrocities they had committed while in
power.
B) They built a new South Africa based on equality for races, democratic values, social
justice and human rights.
C) The party that ruled through brutal killings and the party that led the freedom struggle
sat together to draw up a common constitution.
D) After two years of discussions and debate , they came up with one of the finest
constitution.
E) This constitution gave its citizen the most extensive rights available in any country. Together
they decided that nobody should be excluded, no one should be treatedas a demon.

Q6. What is a constitution ? Explain the role of a constitution in a country.

Ans: A constitution is the supreme law of a nation, containing fundamental rulers governing the
politics and society in a country. The need for a constitution is as follows :

a) Specifies how the government will work and who will have the powers to take decisions.

B) It also limits the powers of the government and tells the rights of the citizen.

C) It also expresses the aspirations of the people.

Q7. Why do we need a constitution ?

Ans: a) it specifies how the government will be constituted and who will have the powers to
take decisions.

b) It also limits the power of the government and guides to respect the fundamental rights
of the people.

c) It aims at the creation of good society and gives scope to the aspirations of the people.

d) It generates trust and coordination among the different groups of people to live together.

Q8. How was the Indian Constitution framed ?

Ans: a) The constituent Assembly started to frame the constitution on Dec, 4, 1946.

b) A drafting committee was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr. Ambedkar on 29, Aug,
1947. This committee prepared a draft constitution by Feb, 1948.

c) The Constituent assembly met in Nov, 1948 to consider the provisions of the drafting
committee clause by clause, which was the first reading.

d) Second reading of the different clause was completed by 17, Oct, 1949.

e) Third reading began to give final shape to the constitution which was adopted on Nov, 26,
1949.

f) Then it received the signatures of the President and was declared as passed. Thus it took
about 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to preparethe constitution of free India.

Q9. Write a note on the composition of the Constituent Assembly.

Ans: a) The Constituent Assembly 1946 under the provisions of Cabinet Mission Plan with 389
member elected by the Provisional Assemblies.

b) Due to the partition, the membership reduced to 308 in 1947 which represented people from
different communities, region and opinion.

c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, Maulana Azad, Dr. Ambedkar, K.M.
Munshi, Rajagopalachari, Dr. H.C. Mukherjee, Frank Anthony, Dr. H.P.Modi, Sardar Hukam
singh, Sardar Baldev Singh and many others.

d) Many women members also like Sarojini Naidu, Durgabai Deshmukh and Renuka Rai also
 played an important role in the constituent Assembly.

Q10.Why do you think there is importance of a constitution to a democratic country ?

Ans: a) It ensures that the government must work for the people and in no case one should
misuse its power.
b) Powers of a democratic government are clearly defined in a constitution. It also
act as a guide to the government.
c) The constitution also provides special rights to its people and safeguards the rights of
the citizens.
d) It is not a mere document. It also constantly goes on growing and evolving according to
the needs andaspirations of the people.

Reason and Assertion

1). Assertion (A) : In India political parties which formed the government represent the
majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the Centre and the
Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the Majority of votes.
Reason (R ) : The elections based on the majority vote system decided the result on the basis
of relative majority of votes secured.

A). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B). Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C). A is true but R is false

D). A is false bur R is true

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2). Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has made the President the Supreme Commander
of Armed Forces.
Reason (R ) : Democracy maintains civilian supremacy over the military force.

A). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B). Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C). A is true but R is false

D). A is false bur R is true

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3). Assertion (A) : Only those parties that are recognised as national parties can contest in
elections for Parliament.
Reason (R ) : Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by the Election
Commission.

A). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B). Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C). A is true but R is false

D). A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: A is false but R is true

4). Assertion (A) : If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha is not passed within the
stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected.
Reason (R ) : In financial matters, the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.

A). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B). Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C). A is true but R is false

D). A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

5). Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution is the bulkiest Constitution in the world, about five
times the size of the Constitution of U.S.A.
Reason (R ) : The fathers of the Constitution wanted to include all good elements from about
four score Constitutions of the free world at that time and special clauses have been
provided for laying down the Fundamental Right, Directive Principles, rules for elections, a list
of national languages and details about the conduct of the government.

A). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B). Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C). A is true but R is false

D). A is false bur R is true

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
 Case study 1

The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an

assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.
Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first
meeting was held in December 1946. The Constituent Assembly that
wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members. The Assembly
adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 but it came into
effect on 26 January 1950. To mark this day we celebrate January 26
as Republic Day every year.First some basic principles were decided
and agreed upon. Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion. Several
rounds of thorough discussion took place on the Draft Constitution,
clause by clause. More than two thousand amendments were
considered. Every document presented and every word spoken in the
Constituent Assembly has been recorded and preserved. These are
called ‘Constituent Assembly Debates’. When printed, these debates
are 12 bulky volumes! These debates provide the rationale behind
every provision of the Constitution. These are used to interpret the
meaning of the Constitution.

Answer the following questions:

Q1. How many members were there in a

constituent Assembly?

a) 350 b) 299 c) 451 d) 345

Q2. When did the constitution came into effect?

a. 26 Jan 1949 b) 26 nov, 1949 c) 26 Jan, 1950

d) 26 Nov, 1950

Q3. Who chaired the drafting committee?

a. M.K.Gandhi
b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Jawahar Lal Nehru
d. Subhash Chander Boss
e.
Q4. How many volumes printed of the constitution?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 12
d. 20

**********************
 Economics

Chapter -2 (People as resource)

 Economics
Chapter -2 (People as resource)
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children
and improve their nutritional status?
a. Aanpurna Ann Yojana
b. Vocational streams
c. Mid-day meal
d. Navodaya Vidhyalay
Ans 1. (c) Mid-day meal

2. Which aspect decides the growth rate of the country?

a. Gender ratio among girls and boys
b. Literary rate among the population
c. Quantity of the population
d. Quality of the population
Ans. (d) Quality of the population

3. Which of the following is a tertiary economic activity?

a. Manufacturing
b. Agriculture
c. Fishing
d. Trade
Ans. (d) Trade

4. Which sector is the most labour the absorbing sector of the economy?
a. Service
b. Agriculture
c. Secondary
d. Manufacturing
Ans.(b) Agriculture

5. The probability of certain communities becoming or remaining poor in the coming years is
called
a. Exclusion
b. Vulnerability
c. Inter state disparities
d. Service
Ans. (b) Vulnerability

6. Which of the following option is not true regarding the agricultural sector?
a. There has been a decline in the dependence of the population on agriculture partly.
b. It is considered as Secondary sector.
c. It is related to disguised unemployment
d. It is the most labor absorbing sector of the economy.
Ans.(b) It is considered as Secondary sector.

7. Which new services are now appearing in the tertiary sector?

a.. Mining and Animal Husbandry
b. Construction and Manufacturing
c. Biotechnology and Information technology
d. Banking and Construction
Ans.(c) Biotechnology and Information technology

8. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing education to all children in
the age group:
a. 6-14 years
b. 5-10 years
c. 10-15 years
d. 5-14 years
Ans.(a) 6-14 years

9. Which aspect is an indispensable basis for realising one’s well-being?

a. Age
b. Education
c. Earnings
d. Health
Ans.(d) Health

10. Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a ________ economy.

a. Developing
b. Flourished
c. Growing
d. Depressed
Ans.(d) Depressed

11. In which sector new services like biotechnology and information technology are now
appearing?
a. Tertiary
b. Manufacturing
c. Secondary
d. Primary
Ans.(a) Tertiary

12.Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector
Ans. (a) Primary Sector

13.Domestic work by housewife is a _____ activity.

(a) Economic
(b) Non-economic
(c) Both of them
(d) None of the above
Ans– (b) Non-economic

14.The literacy rates have increased from ………… in 1951 to ………… in 2001.
(a) 18%-45%
(b) 20%-55%
(c) 18%-55%
(d) 18%-65%
Ans– (a) 18%-45%

15. Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector
Ans– (a) Primary sector

16. The two determinants of earning by an individual in the market are:

(a) Health and education
(b) Education and skill
(c) Age and education
(d) Skill and age
Ans– (b) Education and skill

17.Which of the following is a non-economic activity?

(a) Mother doing household work
(b) Washerman washes doth of people
(c) Chef cooking food in the hotel
(d) All of the above
Ans– (a) Mother doing household work

18.Which of the following is included in the primary sector?

(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication
Ans– (c) Forestry

19. Economic activities have two parts:

(a) market activities and sale activities
(b) market activities and non-market activities
(c) only market activities
(d) none of the above
Ans– (b) market activities and non-market activities
20. Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health
Ans– (d) Health

21. Investment in human capital can be made through

(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three
Ans– (d) All the three

22. A market activity known as production for

(a) exchange
(b) earning income
(c) earning profit
(d) all the above
Ans– (d) all the above

23. The literacy rate during 2010-11 was

(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans– (b) 74%

24.Why are rural women employed in low-paid jobs?

(a) They do not need to work in high-paid jobs
(b) They lack in education or the necessary skill
(c) They are not allowed by their families to do high paid jobs
(d) They are not aware of the wage structure
Ans– (b) They lack in education or the necessary skill

25.Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:

(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country
Ans– (a) Increase in life expectancy

In the questions given below, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the
other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below:
1.Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields a return just like an investment in physical
capital.

Reason (R): It can bring in higher incomes and higher productivity.

Ans. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Education, training, medical care can be considered as investments in human
capital which yields a return just like an investment in physical capital. This can be seen
directly in the form of higher incomes earned because of the higher productivity of the more
educated or the better-trained persons, as well as the higher productivity of healthier people.
The reason explains the assertion

2.Assertion (A): Human capital is superior to other resources.

Reason (R): Other resources can be developed only by human beings with their skills and
knowledge.
Ans.) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Human capital is superior to other resources because other resources can be
developed only by human beings with the skills and knowledge they cannot be developed
and become useful on their own.

3. Assertion (A): Over the last five decades, India has built a vast health infrastructure.
Reason (R): To generate the manpower required at the primary, secondary, and tertiary
sectors in the government sector.
Ans.(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Health is an indispensable basis for realizing one’s well-being.
Therefore,improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of the
country. Our national policy, too, aims at improving the accessibility of healthcare, family
welfare, and nutritional service with a special focus on the underprivileged segment of the
population. Over the last five decades, India has built a vast health infrastructure and has also
developed the manpower required in the primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors in
government, as well as, in the private sector.

4.Assertion (A): Countries having no natural resources can also become rich and developed.
Reason (R): It can be done by importing the natural resource needed in their country.
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Countries, like Japan, have invested in human resources. They did not have any
natural resources. These countries are developed/rich. They import the natural resource
needed in their country. They have invested in people, especially in the field of education and
health. These people have made efficient use of other resources, like land and capital.
Efficiency and the technology evolved by people have made these countries rich/developed.

5.Assertion (A): Kerala succeeded in reducing poverty.

Reason (R): Kerala has invested in human resource development.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Kerala has succeeded in reducing poverty by investing on human resource
development.Kerala is the highest literate state of country.

6.Assertion (A) : The positive aspect of a large population is huge human resources. Reason
(R) : The negative aspect of a arge population is limited food and resources.i
A. Both A and R are true and R s the correct explanation of A. i
B. Both A and R are true but R Is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R IS wrong
D A is wrong but R is correct.
Solution:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct exp anat on of A

7.Assertion (A): People who are an asset for the economy turn into a liability.
Reason (R): Unemployment has a detrimental impact on the overall growth of an economy.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d)A is wrong but R is correct.
Solution:
Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resources. People who are an asset for the
economy turn into a liability. There is a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth.
People do not have enough money to support their family. Inability of educated people who
are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great social Waste.

8.Assertion (A) : Educated society has direct and indirect advantages.

Reason (R) : Educated and healthier people gain higher incomes.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is correct but R is wrong.
(d)A is wrong but R is correct.
Solution:
The more educated and healthier people earn higher income for themselves and their
families. This is one aspect. The other aspect is that society also gains in other indirect ways
because the advantages of a more educated or a healthier population spreads to those also
who themselves were not directly educated or given health care. In fact, human capital is in
one way superior to other resources like land and physical capital. Human resources can
make use of land and capital. Land and capital cannot become useful on its own.

9.Assertion (A): Education helps individuals to make better use of the economic opportunities
available before them.
Reason (R): Education and skill are the major determinants of the earning of any individual in
the market.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. i
(c)A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Solution:
Education enhances the quantity and quality of individual productivity, which in turn adds to
the growth of the economy. Aware of the benefits of education, educated persons help in its
perpetuation. The advantages of an educated population spread to even those who
themselvesi are not educated.
10. Assertion (A) : Investment in human resources leads to a low rate of return.
Reason (R) : Human resource is a never ending resource.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Solution:
Investment in human capital yields a higher return because of higher productivity of the
more educated or the better trained persons, as well as the higher productivity of healthier
people.

Case Study

Answer the questions based on the following case study:

Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
1.Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages
cannot find jobs. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years. In case
of India, we have unemployment in rural and urban areas. However, the nature of
unemployment differs in rural and urban areas. In the case of rural areas, there is seasonal
and disguised unemployment. Urban areas have mostly educated unemployment.Seasonal
unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the
year. People dependant upon agriculture usually face such kind of problem. There are certain
busy seasons when sowing,harvesting, weeding and threshing are done. Certain months do
not provide much work to the people dependant on agriculture. In case of disguised
unemployment people appear to be employed. They have an agricultural plot where they
find work. This usually happens among family members engaged in agricultural activity. The
work requires the service of five people but engages eight people. Three people are extra.
These three people also work in the same plot as the others. The contribution made by the
three extra people does not add to the contribution made by the five people. If three people
are removed the productivity of the field will not decline. The field requires the service of five
people and the three extra people are disguised as unemployed. In case of urban areas
educated unemployment has become a common phenomenon. Many youths with
matriculation, graduation and post-graduation degrees are not able to find a job.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

1. In which of the following fields is disguised unemployment found?
a. Industries
b. Agriculture
c. Mining
d. Fisheries
Ans. (b) agriculture

2. If a person in rural areas cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of
employment is this called?
a. Structural unemployment
b. Educated unemployment
c. Seasonal unemployment

d. Disguised unemployment
Ans.(c) Seasonal unemployment
3. The persons who are not working by choice are covered under ________.
a. seasonal unemployment
b. disguised unemployment
c. educated unemployment
d. none of these
Ans.(d) none of these

4. At Palampur village, in an agricultural field 6 men are required for weeding, but 10
people are doing the work. This kind of employment is known as:
a. Disguised unemployment
b. Seasonal unemployment
c. Rural unemployment
d. All of these
Ans.(a) Disguised unemployment

Case Study 2
Keeping in view the continuing hardships faced by banks in terms of social distancing of staff
and consequent strains on reporting requirements, the Reserve Bank of India has extended
the relaxation of the minimum daily maintenance of the CRR of 80% for up to September 25,
2020. Currently, CRR is 3% and SLR is 18.50%.
“As announced in the Statement of Development and Regulatory Policies of March 27, 2020,
the minimum daily maintenance of CRR was reduced from 90% of the prescribed CRR to 80%
effective the fortnight beginning March 28, 2020 till June 26, 2020, that has now been
extended up to September 25, 2020,” said the RBI.

Q.1 The full forms of CRR and SLR are:

Current Reserve Ratio and Statutory Legal Reserves

Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Legal Reserves
Current Required Ratio and Statutory Legal Reserves
Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (ans)
Q.2 What will be the value of the money multiplier?

(a)33.33
(b)5.4
(b)4.65 (ans)
(d)None of these

Q.3 SLR implies:

a) Certain percentage of the total banks’ deposits has to be kept in the current account with
RBI
b) Certain percentage of net total demand and time deposits have to be kept by the bank
themselves (ans)
c) Certain percentage of net demand deposits has to be kept by the banks with RBI
d) None of the above

Q.4 Decrease in CRR will lead to __.

a) fall in aggregate demand in the economy
b) rise in aggregate demand in the economy (ans)
c) no change in aggregate demand in the economy
d) fall in the general price level in the economy

Case Study 3
An important lesson that the COVID-19 pandemic has taught the policymakers in India is to
provide greater impetus to sectors that make better allocation of resources and reduce
income inequalities. COVID-19 has also taught a lesson that in crisis the population returns to
rely on the farm sector. India has a large arable land, but the farm sector has its own
structural problems. However, directly or indirectly, 50 percent of the households still
depend on the farm sector. Greater support to MSMEs, higher public expenditure on health
and education and making the labour force a formal employee in the economy are some of
the milestones that the nation has to achieve.
One of the imminent reforms to be done in the country is labour reforms. Labour laws are
outmoded in India, and some of these date back to the last century.
India’s complex labour laws have been blamed for keeping manufacturing businesses small
and hindering job creation. Industry hires labour informally because of complex laws and that
is responsible for low wages.

(a)Which types of structural problems are faced by the agricultural sector?

(b)“It is necessary to create employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal
sector.’’ Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument.
(c)Hired labour comes in …………………. (Informal organisation / formal organisation)
(d)What do you mean by MSMEs?

Case Study 4
People spend to acquire information relating to the labour market and other markets like
education and health. This information is necessary to make decisions w.r.t investment in
human capital and its efficient utilization. Thus, expenditure incurred for acquiring
information relating to the labour market and other markets is also a source of human capital
formation.

Q1. Which of the following is the source of human capital formation in India?
(a)Health
((b)Migration
(c)Acquiring information
(d)All of these (ans)

Q2. Education provides ___________

(a)Private benefit
(b)Social benefit
(c)Both 1) and 2) (ans)
(d)None of these
Q3. __ persons contribute more to the growth of an economy.
(a)Educated
(b)Healthy
(c)Both 1) and 2) (ans)
(d)None of these

Q4. Training given by a company to its employees is generally__________

(a)Investment (ans)
(b)Social Investment
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(d)None of these

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What is meant by human capital formation?

Ans. When the existing human resources are further developed by imparting education and
by giving advance health facilities, it is called human capital formation.
2. Which type of investment is known as human capital investment?
Ans. The investment made in the form of education, training and medical care is known as
human capital formation.
3. Which Asian country invested their most part of resources on people, especially in
the field of education and health?
Ans. Japan.
4. How has Japan become a developed country?
Ans. By investing more on the development of Human Resources.
5. Banking is included in which sector of activity?
Ans. Tertiary sector.
6. Which sector is includes manufacturing?
Ans. Secondary sector.
7. Name any two economic activities associated with secondary sector.
Ans. Manufacturing of cars and manufacturing of cycles.
8. Forestry and agriculture are activities of which sector?
Ans. Primary sector.
9. Mention two factors which decide the quality of population in a country.
Ans. Health and literacy rate.
10. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step toward providing education to children
of which age group?
Ans. 6 to 14 years.
11. Which state has poor health indices and a few medical colleges?
Ans. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
12. What is infant mortality rate?
Ans. Infant Mortality rate indicates the number of children that die before the age of one
year as a proportion of thousand live children born in a particular year.
13. What was the literacy rate of India in 2001?
Ans. 65%.
14. What is the main aim of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Ans. To provide elementary education to all the children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
15. What was the expenditure percentage of GDP in 1951-52 on education?
Ans. 0.64%.
16. Which state has the highest literacy rate in India?
Ans. Kerala.
17. What does the increase in unemployment indicate?
Ans. It is an indicator of depressed economy.
18. What is work force population?
Ans. It includes people for 15 years to 59 years of age group.
19. What is meant seasonal unemployment?
Ans. People are not able to find jobs during some months of the year.
20. Which type of unemployment is common in urban areas?
Ans. Educated unemployment.

Short Answer Type Questions

1.Explain the Negative aspects of a large population.

Ans. a.A large unskilled population leads to low productivity and low economic growth.
b.Large educated, unskilled population is considered a liability.
c..It creates problems related to employment, food, education, and access to health facilities.

2. Write a short note on ‘people as resource’.

Ans. a. 'People as resource’ is a way of referring to a country’s working people in term
of their existing productive skills and abilities.
b.These skills and abilities help them in contributing to the creation of Gross National Product.
c.They can act as an asset for the economy.

3.. What is the role of education in human capital formation?

Ans. a.It generates technical skills and creates manpower which is suited for improving labour
productivity.
b.It also simulates innovation and provides knowledge to understand changes in society and
advancements.
c.It results in social benefits since it spread to others who may not be skilled.

4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?

Ans. a.Health is a state of compete physical, mental and social well being.
b.It is an important input for the development of a nation because healthy persons can
devote more time for work.
c.Therefore they can contribute more towards Gross Domestic Product if they are efficient
and productive.

5.What part does health play in individual’s working life?

Ans.a. Health plays an important role in an individual’s working life.
b.The health of a person helps him to know his capacity and the ability to fight illness.
c.A healthy person can act as an asset for an organization as it helps in increasing the
production.
6.Why are women employed in low paid work?
Ans. a.Women are employed in low paid work due to historical and cultural reasons as the
majority of them have meager education and low skill formation.
b.Education and skill are the major determinants of the earning of an individual but due to
lack of education and skill formation, women are paid lower than men.
c.They do not have job security due to this reason.

7. Why is ‘educated unemployed’ a peculiar problem of India?

Ans. a.Educated unemployed is a peculiar problem of India as it leads to wastage of
manpower resource.
b.he massive expansion on the education facilities-both at the school and the university
levels is a major reason for this.
c.Greater enrolment of people in educational institute and the widespread craze for having
university degrees, have all contributed to the growth of educational persons who are on the
lookout for white-collared jobs.

8. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to migrate the problem of the
educated unemployed?
Ans. a.Emphasis should be given on vocational education so that people can find suitable jobs
after completion of education.
b.Such education will help them in starting self employment ventures.Higher education of
high quality of high quality and high standards and research oriented should be imparted.
c.Institutes imparting technical education to students should be opened.

9.Define Market and Non Market activitiess.

Ans. a.Market activities remuneration to anyone who performs i.e., activities performed for
pay or profit these include production of goods or services including government services.
b.Non market activities are the production for self consumption.
c.These can be consumption and processing of primary products and own account production
fixed assets.

10. Define Birth rate, Death Rate and Infant Mortality rate.
Ans.a. Birth rate is the number of babies born there for every one thousand people during a
particular period of time.
b.Death rate is the number of people per one thousand who died during a particular period
of time.
c.Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under one year of age.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Explain any five benefits of investment in human capital formation.

Ans. a.More educated or the better trained persons or the healthier people are good
resources of the country.
b.Due to investment on human capital the output of the persons is increased.
c.With the investments made on her education and health, can yield a high return in the
future in the form of higher earnings and greater contribution to society.
d.By investing more on education and health, the educated people have made efficient use
of other resources like land and capital.
e.Efficiency and the technology evolved by people have made their countries rich and
developed.

2. ‘Human resources are indispensable factor of production’. Explain.

Ans. a.Yes, human resources are indispensable factor of production.Human resources have
ability to put together land labor and physical capital.
b.With the efforts of human resources the production process is possible.Every process of
production is organized by combining land labour and physical capital and human capital.
c.The quality of human resource is the symbol of economic and social status of people.
d.As such, human development requires improvements.
e.The healthy, educated, efficient and skilled people are the asset of the nation.

3. Why are educated parents found to invest more heavily on the education of their child?
Ans. a.Educated parents are found to invest more heavily on the education of their children.
b.This because they have realized the importance of education for themselves.
c.They are also conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene.
d.They accordingly look after their children’s needs for education at school and good health.
e.A virtuous cycle is thus created in this case.

4. Why did Japan emerge as a developed country in spite of its poor natural resources?
Ans. a.Japan has invested heavily on the development of human resources.
b.They did not have any natural resource.
c. This country is developed and rich country.
d.They have invested on people especially in the field of education and health.
e.These people have made efficient use of other resources like land and capital.Efficiency and
the technology evolved by people have made these countries rich and developed.

5. Describe the policy of government on higher education as per Eleventh Plan.

Ans. a.Emphasis should be given on vocational education so that people can find suitable jobs
after completion of education.
b.Such education will help them in starting self employment ventures.
c.Higher education of high quality of high quality and high standards and research oriented
should be imparted.
d.Institutes imparting technical education to students should be opened.

6. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?
Ans. a.Human resource means the size and quality of people have skills, knowledge and
expertise in a country whereas land is a natural resource and physical capital consists of
buildings, plant and machinery equipments, etc. required for future production of goods and
services.
b.Human resource increase efficiency to produce goods and services.
c.These resources have ability to improve through education, training and health care.
d.Other resources like land and physical capital have no ability to bring about changes in
themselves by their own effort.
e.Human resources can make use of land and capital but land amd capital cannot become
useful on their own.

7. Mention any five characteristics of women workforce of India

Ans.a. The household work done by women is not recognized as a productive work.
b.Women are ill paid because they are less educated and low skill formation.
c.Most of the women are working in unorganized sector where there is no job security.
d.Women with high education and skill formation are paid at par with the men.
Indian society is conservative society; they don’t allow the women to work outside the home.

8. Explain the unemployment problem of urban areas.

Ans. a. In case of urban areas educated unemployment has become a common phenomenon.
b.any youth with matriculation, graduation and post graduation degrees are not able to find
job.
c.A study showed that unemployment of graduate and post graduate has increased faster
than among matriculate.
d. A paradoxical man power situation is witnessed as surplus of manpower in certain
categories coexist with shortage of manpower in others.
e.There is unemployment among technically qualified person on one hand, while there is a
dearth of technical skills required for economic growth.

9. Mention the peculiarities of literacy in India.

Ans. a.The literacy rates have increased from 18% in 1951 to 74% in 2010-11.
b.Literacy is not only a right, it is also needed if the citizens are to perform their duties and
enjoy their rights properly.
c.However a vast difference is noticed across different sections of population.Literacy among
mails is nearly 16.6% higher than females and it is about 16.1% higher in urban areas as
compared to the rural areas.
d.In 2011 literacy rates vary from 94% in Kerala to 62% in Bihar.
e.The Primary school system has expanded to over 7.68 lakhs in 2004-05.

10. What are the major factors for unemployment in India?

Ans.a. Rapid growth of population is major cause of unemployment in India.
b.Due to the shortage of capital and other essential inputs, the industrialization process is
very slow.
c.Underdevelopment is also responsible for unemployment.Faulty education policy is also a
major cause of unemployment.
d.Decline in cottage industry is also a cause of unemployment in India. In rural areas cottage
industry was the only means of employment particularly of the land less people.
e.Dependence of maximum population of India on the agriculture.

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