BATUMI STATE UNIVERSITY

Public Health and Epidemiology

Ques for Final exam
Teacher –Nino Nizharadze

1.Which of the following is not an important part of public health?

A. Preventive medicine
B. Environmental cleanliness
C. Sanitation
D. Education
E. All of these are important Correct answer

2. Which of these scenarios is a good example of proper public health?

A. None of these are good examples or principles of public health

B. Cutting spending on health education
C. Allowing citizens to dump drugs into drinking water
D. A law that's passed that allows refineries to pollute the community's air more and more
E. The promotion of vaccinating your kids against disease Correct answer

3. ______________________________uses computers and telecommunications equipment to deliver medical

care at a distance.
A. Medical Informatics
B. Telemedicine Correct answer
C. Computer Informatics
D. None of the above

4. Which department of the United States has spent millions of dollars on telemedicine equipment and
installation?
A. Veterans Affairs
B. Defense
C. Education
D. Health

5. ___________________ treats skin rashes at a distance.

A. TeleStroke
B. Telecardiology
C. Teleoncology
D. Teledermatology Correct answer

6. Which of these approaches allows doctors to consult with each other and with patients in real-time, at a
distance?
A. Store and send
B. Send and save
C. Store and forward
D. Interactive videoconferencing Correct answer
6. Three core functions of public health.
A. Assessment, Policy development and Ensurance Correct answer
B. Assessment, Law development and Assurance
C. Assessment, Policy development and Assurance
D. Testing, Policy development and Assurance

7. Incidence
A. Number of new cases present at specific point in time Correct answer
B. Number of cases present at a specific point in time

8. Prevalence
A. Number of new cases present at a specific point of time.
B. Number of cases present at a specific period of time. Correct answer

9. Which of the following characteristics would be most indicative of a healthy community?

A. Excellent private schools and superb fire and police systems
B. A United Way that receives large donations each year
C. An extensive array of services offered by private physicians
D. Clean air and water and a sense of community cohesion Correct answer

10. A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure?

A. Point source
B. Continuous common source
C. Intermittent common source
D. Person-to-person Correct answer

11.Which of the following statements is correct?

A. This is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified
populations and the application of this study to control of health problems
B. The epidemiology answers the question - Why does a disease develop in some people and not in
others?
C. This is the study of how disease is distributed in populations and the factors that influence or
determine this distribution.
D.All of above mentioned Correct answer

12. What are the objectives of epidemiology?

A. to identify the etiology or cause of a disease but not the relevant risk factors
B.to know how the disease is transmitted from one person to another but the epidemiology doesn’t
study how disease is transmitted from a nonhuman reservoir to a human population
C.to reduce morbidity and mortality from the disease Correct answer
D.None of above mentioned

13.What are the objectives of epidemiology?

A. to determine the extent of disease found in the community
B. to study the natural history and prognosis of disease.
C. to evaluate both existing and newly developed preventive and therapeutic measures and modes of
health care delivery
D. All of above mentioned Correct answer

14.Choose the correct answer :

A. Epidemiology is an invaluable tool for providing a rational basis on which effective prevention
programs can be planned and implemented.

B. Epidemiology is invaluable for conducting clinical investigations to evaluate both new therapies and
those that have been in use for some time, as well as newly developed interventions for disease
prevention.

C. Epidemiology is also invaluable for conducting clinical investigations to evaluate both new therapies
and those that have been in use for some time, as well as newly developed interventions for disease
prevention.

D. All of above mentioned Correct answer

15.Choose the incorrect answer :

A. The ultimate goal of the epidemiology is to improve the control of disease.
B. To control disease the epidemiology uses only preventive methods Correct answer
C. By using controlling methods of diseases, the epidemiology can prevent deaths from the disease and
will enhance the quality of life of those who have developed serious illness
D. All of above mentioned are correct

16. The crude mortality rate in Community A was higher than the crude mortality rate in Community B, but
the age-adjusted mortality rate was higher in Community B than in Community A. This indicates that:
A. Investigators made a calculation error
B. No inferences can be made about the comparative age of the populations from these data
C. The population of Community A is, on average, older than that of Community B Correct answer
D. The population of Community B is, on average, older than that of Community A

17.Which of the following is characteristic of a single-exposure, common-vehicle outbreak?

A. Frequent secondary cases

B. Increasing severity with increasing age
C. Explosive Correct answer
D. All of the above

18. Number of cases of dog bites per 100,000 population over time traditionally can be plotted by using:
A. Grouped bar chart
B. Histogram
C. Line graph Correct answer
D. Pie chart

19. Public health surveillance includes all of the following activities except of?
A. Data collection.
B. Data analysis.
C. Data interpretation.
D. Data dissemination.
E. Disease control. Correct answer
20. Current public health surveillance targets which of the following?
A. Chronic diseases.
B. Communicable diseases.
C. Occupational hazards.
D. Presence of viruses in mosquitoes.
E. All answers Correct answer

21. Public health surveillance can be described primarily as which of the following?
A. A method to monitor occurrences of public health problems. Correct answer
B. A program to control disease outbreaks.
C. A system for collecting health-related information.
D. A system for monitoring persons who have been exposed to a communicable disease.

22. Common uses and applications of public health surveillance include which of the following?
A. Detecting individual persons with malaria so that they can receive prompt and appropriate treatment.
B. Helping public health officials decide how to allocate their disease control resources.
C. Identifying changes over time in the proportion of children with elevated blood lead levels in a community.
D. Documenting changes in the incidence of varicella (chickenpox), if any, after a law requiring varicella
vaccination took effect.
E. All answers Correct answer

23. Data collected through which of the following methods is commonly used for surveillance except of?
A. Vital registration.
B. Randomized clinical trials. Correct answer
C. Disease notifications.
D. Population surveys.

24. Health-care providers might be important sources of surveillance data used by public health officials, and
they should receive feedback to close the surveillance loop as a courtesy; however, the results almost never
have any relevance to patient care provided by those health-care providers.
A. True.
B. False. Correct answer

25. Vital statistics are important sources of data on which of the following?
A. Morbidity.
B. Mortality. Correct answer
C. Health-related behaviors.
D. Injury and disability.
E. Outpatient health-care usage.

26. Notifiable disease surveillance usually focuses on morbidity from the diseases on the list and does not
cover mortality from those diseases.
A. True.
B. False. Correct answer

27. The list of diseases that a physician must report to the local health department is typically compiled by the
..
A. Local health department.
B. State health department. Correct answer
C. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D. Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologists (CSTE).
E. Medical licensing board.

28. Notifiable disease surveillance is focused….(choose the best answer)

A. On identifying individual cases. Correct answer
B. Can monitor trends over time.
C. Based on statistically valid sample.
D. Complete, unbiased reporting.

29. Evaluating and improving surveillance should address which of the following except of?
A. Purpose and objectives of surveillance.
B. Resources needed to conduct surveillance.
C. Effectiveness of measures for controlling the disease under surveillance. Correct answer
D. Presence of characteristics of well-conducted surveillance.

30. Criteria for prioritizing health problems for surveillance include which of the following except of?
A. Incidence of the problem.
B. Public concern about the problem.
C. Number of previous studies of the problem. Correct answer
D. Social and economic impact of the problem.

31. Routine analysis of notifiable disease surveillance data at the state health department might include
looking at the number of cases of a disease reported this week . . . (except of)
A. and during the previous 2–4 weeks.
B. and the number reported during the comparable weeks of the previous 2–5 years.
C. simultaneously by age, race, and sex of the patient. Correct answer
D. by county.
E. by county, divided by each county’s population (i.e., county rates).

32. One week, a state health department received substantially more case reports of a disease in one county
than had been reported during the previous 2 weeks. No increase was reported in neighboring counties.
Possible explanations for this increase include which of the following?
A. An outbreak in the county.
B. Batch reports.
C. Duplicate reports.
D. Laboratory error.
E. All answers Correct answer

33. The primary reason for preparing and distributing periodic surveillance summaries is which of the
following?
A. Document recent epidemiologic investigations.
B. Provide timely information on disease patterns and trends to those who need to know it. Correct answer
C. Provide reprints of MMWR articles, reports, and recommendations.
D. Acknowledge the contributions of those who submitted case reports.

34. Why should an investigator who has no clinical background nonetheless talk to a patient or two as an
early step in the outbreak investigation?
A. To advise the patient about common risk factors and the usual course of the illness, after reviewing such
information in appropriate reference material
B. To develop hypotheses about the cause of the outbreak and to learn more about the clinical manifestations
of the disease Correct answer
C. To verify the clinical findings as part of verifying the diagnosis
D. To verify the laboratory findings as part of verifying the diagnosis

35. A case definition during an outbreak investigation should specify (except of):
A. Clinical features
B. Time
C. Place
D. Person
E. Hypothesized exposure Correct answer

36. Common methods of identifying additional cases (expanding surveillance) as part of an outbreak
investigation include:
A. Advising the public through newspapers, TV, radio, and the health department’s website to contact the local
health department
B. Asking case-patients who they were with at the time of exposure (if known)
C. Sending a fax to healthcare providers
D. Telephoning the infection control practitioners at local hospitals
E. All answers Correct answer

37. A case report form devised for an outbreak investigation usually includes which of the following types of
information?
A. Identifying information
B. Demographic information
C. Clinical information
D. Risk factor information
E. All answers Correct answer

38. Possible explanations for a case that occurs substantially later than the other cases in an outbreak include:
A. Similar but unrelated disease
B. Secondary case
C. Case with unusually long incubation period
D. Time of exposure later than others
E. All answers Correct answer

39. A spot map is particularly useful for displaying:

A. Geographic location of exposure of each case-patient Correct answer
B. Incidence rate of disease by area
C. Prevalence rate of disease by area

40. Which of the following may be useful in generating hypotheses in an outbreak setting?
A. Review the literature
B. Look at the descriptive epidemiology
C. Look at the outliers
D. Talk with the local health authorities
E. All answers Correct answer

41. How did the WHO define health in 1946?

A. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease
and infirmity Correct answer

B. Health is state of mental and social well being

C. Health is state of the absence of disease and infirmity

D. Non above mentioned

42. What is public health?

A. Public Health system is organizational mechanism tend to treat the illness

B. Public health system the organizational mechanism of those activities undertaken within the formal structure
of government and the associated efforts of private and voluntary organizations and individuals Correct answer

C. The clinicians and epidemiologists have the same goal to treat and prevent diseases

43. What is community health?

A. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.

B. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

C. Community health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote,
protect, and preserve their health Correct answer

44. What is population health?

A. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect, and
preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.
Correct answer

45. What is global health?

A. Global health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative
actions and solutions Correct answer

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect,
and preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the
group.

46. What are the five major domains that determine a person’s health?
A. Physical
B. Social and cultural
C. Individual behaviors
D. Community organization
E. All above mentioned Correct answer
 47. The measure of central location generally preferred for additional statistical analysis is the:

A. Mean Correct answer

B. Median
C. Midrange
D. Mode

48. What is Bioterrorism?

A. Bioterrorism is international release of biological agent to influence animal population

B. Bioterrorism the threatened or intentional release of biological agents for the purpose of influencing the
conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a civilian population to further political or social objectives
Correct answer

C. Biological weapon like causing zoonotic diseases are used to affect human population

49. What means Public Health preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
C. All above mentioned

50. What means Medical preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
C. All above mentioned

51. Governmental Health Agencies are:

A. part of the governmental structure (federal, state, tribal and/or territorial, or local). They are funded
primarily by tax dollars and managed by government officials. Each governmental health agency is
designated as having authority over some geographic area. Such agencies exist at the four governmental
levels—international, national, state, and local. Correct answer

B. Non governmental structure managed by International organizations.

C. part of the governmental federal structure managed by government officials.

 52. World Health Organization (WHO) is:
A. The most widely recognized international governmental health organization. Its headquarters is located
in Geneva, Switzerland, and there are six regional offices around the world Correct answer

B. WHO is a United Nations specialized agency concentrating exclusively on health by providing technical
cooperation, carrying out programs to control and eradicate disease and striving to improve the quality
of human life

C. All above mentioned

53. . Purpose and Work of the World Health Organization are:

A. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint
action is needed
B. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation, and dissemination
of valuable knowledge
C. Setting norms and standards, and promoting and monitoring their implementation;
D. articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
E. All above mentioned Correct answer

54. . Core functions of public health is:

A. Assessment
B. Policy development
C. Assurance
D. All above mentioned Correct answer

55. Voluntary health agencies

A. Nonprofit organizations created by concerned citizens to deal with a health need not met by governmental
health agencies Correct answer
B. Organizations created by non Governmental organizations to deal with a health need not met by
governmental health agencies
C. Non above mentoned

56. Case means:

A. Person afflicted with a disease

B. Patient in incubation period
C. Patient with appear clinical symptoms
D. all above mentioned Correct answer

57. Rate is:

A. The number of events that occur in a given population in a given period of time Correct answer
B. The number of events in a geographic area
C. Comparing two dissimilar events

58. Natality (birth) rate is:

A. The number of live births divided by the total population Correct answer
B. The number of birth divided by live born
C. The number of <1 children divided by the total population
59. Morbidity rate is:

A. The number of people who are sick divided by the total population at risk Correct answer
B. The number new diagnosed cases divided by all registered cases
C. The number people who are sick divided by the population <65

60. Mortality (fatality) rate is:

A. Number of deaths by specific factor in a population divided by the total population

B. Number of deaths in a population divided by the total population Correct answer
C. Number of deaths in a population divided by the diagnosed cases.

61. Population at risk:

A. Those in the population who are susceptible to a particular disease or condition Correct answer
B. Those in the populations who are affected with particular disease
C. Those in the population who recovered

62. Choose one correct answer:

A. Acute disease lasts not more than 2 weeks

B. Acute disease a disease that lasts 3 months or less Correct answer
C. Acute disease lasts more than 3 months

63. Attack rate an incidence rate calculated:

A. For a particular population for a single disease outbreak and expressed as a percentage Correct answer
B. Attack rate and incidence rate are opposing
C. Attack rate is synonym of prevalence

64. Choose correct answer:

A. Notifiable diseases are for which health officials request or require reporting for public health reasons
B. Extremely dangerous diseases considered as notifiable diseases
C. all above mentioned Correct answer

65. Anthrax considered as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

66. Human rabies considered as as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

67. Life expectancy is:

A. The average number of years a person from a specific cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time Correct answer
B. The average number of years a person from a different cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time
C. Non above mentioned
68. which hypothesis is true:

A. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 65 or 75

B. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 55 or 65

C. Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) a measure for the burden of disease that takes into account premature
death and loss of healthy life resulting from disability Correct answer

69. which hypothesis is true:

A. Communicable (infectious) disease an illness caused by some specific biological agent or its toxic products
that can be transmitted from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host

B. Noncommunicable (noninfectious) disease a disease that cannot be transmitted from infected host
to susceptible host

C. all above mentioned Correct answer

70. Active immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease Correct answer

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them

C. Non above mentioned

71. Passive immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them
Correct answer

C. Non above mentioned

72. Isolation means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible Correct answer

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

73. Quarantine means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it
Correct answer

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

74. Disinfection means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host Correct answer

75. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment. Correct answer

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment.

76. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment.

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment. Correct answer

77. Socio-ecological approach (ecological perspective) Individuals influence and are influenced by their
families, social networks, the organizations in which they participate (workplaces, schools, religious
organizations), the communities of which they are a part, and the society in which they live

A. True Correct answer

B. False

78. Task force considered as:

A.A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem Correct answer

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal

C. all above mentioned

79. Coalition considered as:

A .A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal Correct answer

C. all above mentioned

80. Health education means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors Correct answer

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities
C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

81. What does Environmental health study?

A. The study and management of environmental conditions that affect the health and well-being of humans
Correct answer

B. Environmental hazards factors or conditions in the environment that increase the risk of human injury,
disease, or death

C. Environmental health means supervision air contamination

D. Non above mentioned

82. What are differences between primary and secondary air pollution?

A. Air pollution contamination of the air that interferes with the comfort, safety, and health of living organisms
Primary pollutant air pollutant emanating directly from transportation, power and industrial plants, and
refineries

B. Secondary pollutant air pollutant formed when primary air pollutants react with sunlight and other
atmospheric components to form new harmful compounds

C. All above mentioned Correct answer

83. All the next following are true:

A. Photochemical smog haze or fog formed when air pollutants interact with sunlight

B. Industrial smog haze or fog formed primarily by sulfur dioxide and suspended particles from the burning of
coal, also known as gray smog

C. Ozone (O3 ) an inorganic molecule considered to be a pollutant in the atmosphere because it harms human
tissue, but considered beneficial in the stratosphere because it screens out UV radiation

D. All above mentioned Correct answer

84. Which consideration is true?

A. Combustion by-products gases and particulates generated by burning

B. Volatile organic compound (VOC) compound that exists as vapor over the normal range of air pressures and
temperatures

C. Formaldehyde (CH2 O) a water-soluble gas used in aqueous solutions in hundreds of consumer products

D. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

85. Which definition is true?

A. Sanitation the practice of establishing and maintaining healthy or hygienic conditions in the environment
B. Surface water precipitation that does not infiltrate the ground or return to the atmosphere by evaporation;
the water in streams, rivers, and lakes

C. Groundwater water located under the surface of the ground

D. Aquifer porous, water-saturated layers of underground bedrock, sand, and gravel that can yield economically
significant amounts of water

E. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

86. Which definition is true?

A. Water pollution any physical or chemical change in water that can harm living organisms or make the water
unfit for other uses

B. Point source pollution that can be traced to a single identifiable source

C. Nonpoint source pollution all pollution that occurs through the runoff, seepage, or falling of pollutants into
the water where the source is difficult or impossible to identify

D. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

87. Injury prevention means:

A. Injury prevention (control) an organized effort to prevent injuries or to minimize their severity Correct answer

B. Unsafe act any behavior that would increase the probability of an injury occurring

C. Unsafe condition any environmental factor or set of factors (physical or social) that would increase the
probability of an injury occurring

D. All above mentioned

88. Which the following variables is sex?

A. Categorical Correct answer

B. Continuous
C. Interval
D. All above mentioned

89. Which the following variables is age?

A. Nominal
B. Continuous Correct answer
C. Interval
D. All above mentioned

90. Which the following variables is Lymphocyte Count?

A. Categorical
B. Quantitative Correct answer
C. Interval
D. Nominal
 91. How did the WHO define health in 1946?

A. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease
and infirmity Correct answer

B. Health is state of mental and social well being

C. Health is state of the absence of disease and infirmity

D. Non above mentioned

92. What is public health?

A. Public Health system is organizational mechanism tend to treat the illness

B. Public health system the organizational mechanism of those activities undertaken within the formal structure
of government and the associated efforts of private and voluntary organizations and individuals Correct answer

C. The clinicians and epidemiologists have the same goal to treat and prevent diseases

93. What is community health?

A. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.

B. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

C. Community health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote,
protect, and preserve their health Correct answer

94. What is population health?

A. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect, and
preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.
Correct answer

95. What is global health?

A. Global health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may
be influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by
cooperative actions and solutions Correct answer

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect,
and preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the
group.
 B. What are the five major domains that determine a person’s health?
A. Physical
B. Social and cultural
C. Individual behaviors
D. Community organization
E. All above mentioned Correct answer

97. The measure of central location generally preferred for additional statistical analysis is the:
A. Mean Correct answer
B. Median
C. Midrange
D. Mode

98. What is Bioterrorism?

A. Bioterrorism is international release of biological agent to influence animal population

B. Bioterrorism the threatened or intentional release of biological agents for the purpose of influencing the
conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a civilian population to further political or social objectives
Correct answer

C. Biological weapon like causing zoonotic diseases are used to affect human population

99. What means Public Health preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
C. All above mentioned

100. What means Medical preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
C. All above mentioned

101. Governmental Health Agencies are:

A. part of the governmental structure (federal, state, tribal and/or territorial, or local). They are funded
primarily by tax dollars and managed by government officials. Each governmental health agency is
designated as having authority over some geographic area. Such agencies exist at the four governmental
levels—international, national, state, and local. Correct answer
 B. Non governmental structure managed by International organizations.

C. part of the governmental federal structure managed by government officials.

102. World Health Organization (WHO) is:

A. The most widely recognized international governmental health organization. Its headquarters is located
in Geneva, Switzerland, and there are six regional offices around the world Correct answer

B. WHO is a United Nations specialized agency concentrating exclusively on health by providing technical
cooperation, carrying out programs to control and eradicate disease and striving to improve the quality
of human life

C. All above mentioned

103. . Purpose and Work of the World Health Organization are:

A. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint
action is needed
B. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation, and dissemination
of valuable knowledge
C. Setting norms and standards, and promoting and monitoring their implementation;
D. articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
E. All above mentioned Correct answer

104. Core functions of public health is:

A. Assessment
B. Policy development
C. Assurance
D. All above mentioned Correct answer

105. Voluntary health agencies

A. Nonprofit organizations created by concerned citizens to deal with a health need not met by governmental
health agencies Correct answer
B. Organizations created by non Governmental organizations to deal with a health need not met by
governmental health agencies
C. Non above mentoned

106. Case means:

A. Person afflicted with a disease

B. Patient in incubation period
C. Patient with appear clinical symptoms
D. all above mentioned Correct answer

107. Rate is:

A. The number of events that occur in a given population in a given period of time Correct answer
B. The number of events in a geographic area
C. Comparing two dissimilar events

108. Natality (birth) rate is:

A. The number of live births divided by the total population Correct answer
B. The number of birth divided by live born
C. The number of <1 children divided by the total population

109. Morbidity rate is:

A. The number of people who are sick divided by the total population at risk Correct answer
B. The number new diagnosed cases divided by all registered cases
C. The number people who are sick divided by the population <65

110. Mortality (fatality) rate is:

A. Number of deaths by specific factor in a population divided by the total population

B. Number of deaths in a population divided by the total population Correct answer
C. Number of deaths in a population divided by the diagnosed cases.

111. Population at risk:

A. Those in the population who are susceptible to a particular disease or condition Correct answer
B. Those in the populations who are affected with particular disease
C. Those in the population who recovered

112. Choose one correct answer:

A. Acute disease lasts not more than 2 weeks

B. Acute disease a disease that lasts 3 months or less Correct answer
C. Acute disease lasts more than 3 months

113. Attack rate an incidence rate calculated:

A. For a particular population for a single disease outbreak and expressed as a percentage Correct answer
B. Attack rate and incidence rate are opposing
C. Attack rate is synonym of prevalence

114. Choose correct answer:

A. Notifiable diseases are for which health officials request or require reporting for public health reasons
B. Extremely dangerous diseases considered as notifiable diseases
C. all above mentioned Correct answer

115. Anthrax considered as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

116. Human rabies considered as as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

117. Life expectancy is:

 D. The average number of years a person from a specific cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time Correct answer
E. The average number of years a person from a different cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time
F. Non above mentioned

118. which hypothesis is true:

A. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 65 or 75

B. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 55 or 65

C. Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) a measure for the burden of disease that takes into account premature
death and loss of healthy life resulting from disability Correct answer

119. which hypothesis is true:

A. Communicable (infectious) disease an illness caused by some specific biological agent or its toxic products
that can be transmitted from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host

B. Noncommunicable (noninfectious) disease a disease that cannot be transmitted from infected host
to susceptible host

C. all above mentioned Correct answer

120. Active immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease Correct answer

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them

C. Non above mentioned

121. Passive immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them
Correct answer

C. Non above mentioned

122. Isolation means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible Correct answer

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

123. Quarantine means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it
Correct answer

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

124. Disinfection means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host Correct answer

125. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment. Correct answer

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment.

126. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment.

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment. Correct answer

127. Socio-ecological approach (ecological perspective) Individuals influence and are influenced by their
families, social networks, the organizations in which they participate (workplaces, schools, religious
organizations), the communities of which they are a part, and the society in which they live

A. True Correct answer

B. False

128. Task force considered as:

A.A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem Correct answer

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal

C. all above mentioned

129. Coalition considered as:

A .A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal Correct answer

C. all above mentioned

130. Health education means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors Correct answer

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities

C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

131.. Health promotion means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities
Correct answer

C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

132. Program planning means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities

C. A process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority population Correct answer

133. Best practices are:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention Correct answer

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria

C. Best processes original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of
good planning processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories
and models

134. Best experience is:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria Correct answer

C. Best processes original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of
good planning processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories
and models

135. Best processes are:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria

C. Original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of good planning
processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories and models
Correct answer

136. Implementation means:

A. Putting a planned intervention into action Correct answer

B. Phasing in implementation of an intervention with a series of small groups instead of the entire population

C. Non above mentioned

137. Evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest Correct answer

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Summative evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

138. Formative evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program Correct answer

C. Summative evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program Outcome
evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

139. Summative evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population Correct answer

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

140. Impact evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program . Correct answer

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

141. Outcome evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program Correct answer

142. Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive Correct answer

B. Total dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Youth dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old

143. Total Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old Correct answer

C. Youth dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old

144. Youth Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth Correct answer

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old
145. Old age Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old Correct answer

146 Activities of daily living (ADLs) considered:

A. tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside Correct answer

B. Functional limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) more complex tasks such as handling personal finances,
preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling, using the telephone, and taking medications

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

147. Functional limitations considered as:

A. tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks Correct answer

C. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) more complex tasks such as handling personal finances,
preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling, using the telephone, and taking medications

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

148.. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. Complex tasks such as handling personal finances, preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling,
using the telephone, and taking medications Correct answer

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services
149.. Informal caregiver considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence Correct answer

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

150.. Care provider considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence

D. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the caregiving
service Correct answer

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

151.. Care manager considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence

D. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the caregiving
service

E. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the health care
services Correct answer

152. Mental health means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life Correct answer

B. Mental illness a collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

153. Mental illness means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders Correct answer

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

154. Mental disorders means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some combination thereof)
associated with distress and/or impaired functioning Correct answer

155. Long-term care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need Correct answer

B. End-of-life practice health care services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

156. End-of-life practice Health care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death Correct answer

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

157. Hospice care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. A cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and family support
services Correct answer

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem
158. Independent provider:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. A cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and family support
services

D. Health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health problem Correct answer

159. Allopathic provider:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease
Correct answer

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. Intern a first-year resident

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

160. Osteopathic provider:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment Correct answer

C. Intern a first-year resident

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

161. Intern means:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident Correct answer

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

162. Resident means:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease
B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident

D. A physician who is training in a specialty Correct answer

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

163. Nonallopathic providers:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident

D. A physician who is training in a specialty

E. Independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care Correct answer

164. What kind of health care does chiropractor provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column
Correct answer

B Complementary/alternative medicine (CAM) a group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices,
and products that are not presently considered to be a part of conventional medicine

C.Limited (restricted) care providers health care providers who provide care for a specific part of the body

165. What kind of health care does complementary/alternative medicine provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column

B. A group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not presently
considered to be a part of conventional medicine Correct answer

C.Limited (restricted) care providers health care providers who provide care for a specific part of the body

166. What kind of health care does limited care provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column

B. A group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not presently
considered to be a part of conventional medicine

C. Providers who provide care for a specific part of the body Correct answer

167. Private (proprietary or investor-owned) hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital Correct answer

B. Specialty hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility
not within the walls of a full-service hospital

C. Public hospital a hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

168. Specialty hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital

B. Hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility not
within the walls of a full-service hospital Correct answer

C. Public hospital a hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

169. Public hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital

B. Hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility not
within the walls of a full-service hospital

C. Hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions Correct answer

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

170. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The fraction 54 / 79 is a/an (except of):

A. Food-specific attack rate Correct answer

B. Attack rate

C. Incidence proportion
D. Proportion

171. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.
The fraction 50 / 54 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion Correct answer

172. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The fraction 50 / 53 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

E. All above mentioned Correct answer

173. The best measure of association to use for investigation outbreaks is:

A. Food-specific attack rate

B. Odds ratio

C. Risk ratio Correct answer

174 . Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The best estimate of the association between wedding cake and illness is:

A. 6.1 Correct answer

B. 7.7

C. 68.4

D. 83.7

E. 91.7

175 . Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The attributable proportion for wedding cake is:

A. 6.1%

B. 7.7%

C. 68.4%

D. 83.7% Correct answer

176. Mental health means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life Correct answer

B. Mental illness a collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

177. Mental illness means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders Correct answer

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

178. Mental disorders means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some combination thereof)
associated with distress and/or impaired functioning Correct answer

179. Long-term care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need Correct answer

B. End-of-life practice health care services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

180. Representative sample of residents were telephoned and asked how much they exercise each week and
whether they currently have (have ever been diagnosed with) heart disease.

Classify each of the following studies as:

A. Experimental
B. Observational cohort
C. Observational case-control
D. Observational cross-sectional Correct answer
E. Not an analytical or epidemiologic study

181. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The fraction 54 / 79 is a/an (except of):

A. Food-specific attack rate correct answer

B. Attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

182. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The fraction 50 / 54 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion correct answer

183. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding ill well total cake

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79
The fraction 50 / 53 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

E. All answers are true correct answer

184. The best measure of association to use for these data is a/an:

A. Food-specific attack rate

B. Odds ratio

C. Rate ratio correct answer

D. Risk ratio

185. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The best estimate of the association between wedding cake and illness is:

A. 6.1 correct answer

B. 7.7

C. 68.4

D. 83.7

E. 91.7

F. 94.3

186. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The attributable proportion for wedding cake is:

A. 6.1%
B. 7.7%

C. 68.4%

D. 83.7% correct answer

E. 91.7%

187. Investigators enrolled 100 diabetics without eye disease in a cohort (follow-up) study. The results of the
first 3 years were as follows:
Year 1: 0 cases of eye disease detected out of 92; 8 lost to follow-up
Year 2: 2 new cases of eye disease detected out of 80; 2 had died; 10 lost to follow-up
Year 3: 3 new cases of eye disease detected out of 63; 2 more had died; 13 more lost to follow-up

The person-time incidence rate is calculated as

A. 5 / 100
B. 5 / 63
C. 5 / 235
D. 5 / 250 correct answer

188. The units for the quantity you calculated in Question 7 could be expressed as:
A. cases per 100 persons
B. percent
C. cases per person-year correct answer

189. A population demonstrates the following vital statistics:

Choose the birth rate per 1000 from the following.

A. 12 correct answer
B. 10
C. 0.12
D. 30

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

190. According to the table determine the mortality rate per 1000.

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10 Correct answer
C. 0.12
D. 30
191. According to the table determine the infant mortality rate per 1000.

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10 Correct answer
C. 0.12
D. 30

192. According to the table determine the mortality rate for those over 65 (per 1000).

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10
C. 0.12
D. 30 Correct answer

193. participate in a study in which they receive the screening test while simultaneously undergoing a
definitive clinical examination. Results are tabulated in Table

disease No disease all

Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

What is the sensitivity of the screening test?

A. 40/50 = 0.800. correct answer

B. 125/150 = 0.833.
C. 40/65 = 0.615.

194. What is the specificity of the screening test

disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/135 = 0.926.
B. 40/50 = 0.800.

C. 125/150 = 0.833. Correct answer

D. 40/65 = 0.615.

195. According to the table What is the PVP of the screening test?
disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/150 = 0.833.

B. 40/65 = 0.615. Correct answer

C. 125/135 = 0.926.

D. 40/50 = 0.800.

196. According to the table What is the PVN of the screening test?
disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/150 = 0.833.

B. 40/65 = 0.615.

C. 125/135 = 0.926. Correct answer

D. 40/50 = 0.800.

197. Stress and conditions that lead to stress are indicated as a social determinant of health

A. True Correct answer

B. False

198. What period in history did Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch lead to the germ theory of disease being
accepted as the major explanation for the cause and spread of infectious disease?

A. Late 1800 s Correct answer

B. Late 1700 s

C. Late 1600 s

199. "The conditions in the environments in which people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age"
is a definition of what concept?

A. Genetic determinants

B. Social determinants of health Correct answer

C. physical determinants
200. Clinical care is prevention, treatment and management of illness and the preservation of mental and
physical well-being through the services offered by medical and allied health professions; also known as
health care.

A. True Correct answer

B. False

201.Which of the following is not an important part of public health?

A. Preventive medicine
B. Environmental cleanliness
C. Sanitation
D. Education
E. All of these are important Correct answer

202. Which of these scenarios is a good example of proper public health?

F. None of these are good examples or principles of public health

G. Cutting spending on health education
H. Allowing citizens to dump drugs into drinking water
I. A law that's passed that allows refineries to pollute the community's air more and more
J. The promotion of vaccinating your kids against disease Correct answer

203. ______________________________uses computers and telecommunications equipment to deliver

medical care at a distance.
A. Medical Informatics
B. Telemedicine Correct answer
C. Computer Informatics
D. None of the above

204. Which department of the United States has spent millions of dollars on telemedicine equipment and
installation?
A. Veterans Affairs
B. Defense
C. Education
D. Health

205. ___________________ treats skin rashes at a distance.

A. TeleStroke
B. Telecardiology
C. Teleoncology
D. Teledermatology Correct answer

206. Which of these approaches allows doctors to consult with each other and with patients in real-time, at a
distance?
A. Store and send
B. Send and save
C. Store and forward
D. Interactive videoconferencing Correct answer
206. Three core functions of public health.
A. Assessment, Policy development and Ensurance Correct answer
B. Assessment, Law development and Assurance
C. Assessment, Policy development and Assurance
D. Testing, Policy development and Assurance

207. Incidence
A. Number of new cases present at specific point in time Correct answer
B. Number of cases present at a specific point in time

208. Prevalence
A. Number of new cases present at a specific point of time.
B. Number of cases present at a specific period of time. Correct answer

209. Which of the following characteristics would be most indicative of a healthy community?
A. Excellent private schools and superb fire and police systems
B. A United Way that receives large donations each year
C. An extensive array of services offered by private physicians
D. Clean air and water and a sense of community cohesion Correct answer

210. A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure?

A. Point source
B. Continuous common source
C. Intermittent common source
D. Person-to-person Correct answer

211.Which of the following statements is correct?

A. This is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified
populations and the application of this study to control of health problems
B. The epidemiology answers the question - Why does a disease develop in some people and not in
others?
C. This is the study of how disease is distributed in populations and the factors that influence or
determine this distribution.
D.All of above mentioned Correct answer

212. What are the objectives of epidemiology?

A. to identify the etiology or cause of a disease but not the relevant risk factors
B.to know how the disease is transmitted from one person to another but the epidemiology doesn’t
study how disease is transmitted from a nonhuman reservoir to a human population
C.to reduce morbidity and mortality from the disease Correct answer
D.None of above mentioned

213.What are the objectives of epidemiology?

A. to determine the extent of disease found in the community
B. to study the natural history and prognosis of disease.
C. to evaluate both existing and newly developed preventive and therapeutic measures and modes of
health care delivery
D. All of above mentioned Correct answer

214.Choose the correct answer :

A. Epidemiology is an invaluable tool for providing a rational basis on which effective prevention
programs can be planned and implemented.

B. Epidemiology is invaluable for conducting clinical investigations to evaluate both new therapies and
those that have been in use for some time, as well as newly developed interventions for disease
prevention.

C. Epidemiology is also invaluable for conducting clinical investigations to evaluate both new therapies
and those that have been in use for some time, as well as newly developed interventions for disease
prevention.

D. All of above mentioned Correct answer

215.Choose the incorrect answer :

A. The ultimate goal of the epidemiology is to improve the control of disease.
B. To control disease the epidemiology uses only preventive methods Correct answer
C. By using controlling methods of diseases, the epidemiology can prevent deaths from the disease and
will enhance the quality of life of those who have developed serious illness
D. All of above mentioned are correct

216. The crude mortality rate in Community A was higher than the crude mortality rate in Community B, but
the age-adjusted mortality rate was higher in Community B than in Community A. This indicates that:
A. Investigators made a calculation error
B. No inferences can be made about the comparative age of the populations from these data
C. The population of Community A is, on average, older than that of Community B Correct answer
D. The population of Community B is, on average, older than that of Community A

217.Which of the following is characteristic of a single-exposure, common-vehicle outbreak?

A. Frequent secondary cases

B. Increasing severity with increasing age
C. Explosive Correct answer
D. All of the above

218. Number of cases of dog bites per 100,000 population over time traditionally can be plotted by using:
A. Grouped bar chart
B. Histogram
C. Line graph Correct answer
D. Pie chart

219. Public health surveillance includes all of the following activities except of?
A. Data collection.
B. Data analysis.
C. Data interpretation.
D. Data dissemination.
E. Disease control. Correct answer
220. Current public health surveillance targets which of the following?
A. Chronic diseases.
B. Communicable diseases.
C. Occupational hazards.
D. Presence of viruses in mosquitoes.
E. All answers Correct answer

221. Public health surveillance can be described primarily as which of the following?
A. A method to monitor occurrences of public health problems. Correct answer
B. A program to control disease outbreaks.
C. A system for collecting health-related information.
D. A system for monitoring persons who have been exposed to a communicable disease.

222. Common uses and applications of public health surveillance include which of the following?
A. Detecting individual persons with malaria so that they can receive prompt and appropriate treatment.
B. Helping public health officials decide how to allocate their disease control resources.
C. Identifying changes over time in the proportion of children with elevated blood lead levels in a community.
D. Documenting changes in the incidence of varicella (chickenpox), if any, after a law requiring varicella
vaccination took effect.
E. All answers Correct answer

223. Data collected through which of the following methods is commonly used for surveillance except of?
A. Vital registration.
B. Randomized clinical trials. Correct answer
C. Disease notifications.
D. Population surveys.

224. Health-care providers might be important sources of surveillance data used by public health officials, and
they should receive feedback to close the surveillance loop as a courtesy; however, the results almost never
have any relevance to patient care provided by those health-care providers.
A. True.
B. False. Correct answer

225. Vital statistics are important sources of data on which of the following?
A. Morbidity.
B. Mortality. Correct answer
C. Health-related behaviors.
D. Injury and disability.
E. Outpatient health-care usage.

226. Notifiable disease surveillance usually focuses on morbidity from the diseases on the list and does not
cover mortality from those diseases.
A. True.
B. False. Correct answer

227. The list of diseases that a physician must report to the local health department is typically compiled by
the . .
A. Local health department.
B. State health department. Correct answer
C. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D. Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologists (CSTE).
E. Medical licensing board.

228. Notifiable disease surveillance is focused….(choose the best answer)

A. On identifying individual cases. Correct answer
B. Can monitor trends over time.
C. Based on statistically valid sample.
D. Complete, unbiased reporting.

229. Evaluating and improving surveillance should address which of the following except of?
A. Purpose and objectives of surveillance.
B. Resources needed to conduct surveillance.
C. Effectiveness of measures for controlling the disease under surveillance. Correct answer
D. Presence of characteristics of well-conducted surveillance.

230. Criteria for prioritizing health problems for surveillance include which of the following except of?
A. Incidence of the problem.
B. Public concern about the problem.
C. Number of previous studies of the problem. Correct answer
D. Social and economic impact of the problem.

231. Routine analysis of notifiable disease surveillance data at the state health department might include
looking at the number of cases of a disease reported this week . . . (except of)
A. and during the previous 2–4 weeks.
B. and the number reported during the comparable weeks of the previous 2–5 years.
C. simultaneously by age, race, and sex of the patient. Correct answer
D. by county.
E. by county, divided by each county’s population (i.e., county rates).

232. One week, a state health department received substantially more case reports of a disease in one county
than had been reported during the previous 2 weeks. No increase was reported in neighboring counties.
Possible explanations for this increase include which of the following?
A. An outbreak in the county.
B. Batch reports.
C. Duplicate reports.
D. Laboratory error.
E. All answers Correct answer

233. The primary reason for preparing and distributing periodic surveillance summaries is which of the
following?
A. Document recent epidemiologic investigations.
B. Provide timely information on disease patterns and trends to those who need to know it. Correct answer
C. Provide reprints of MMWR articles, reports, and recommendations.
D. Acknowledge the contributions of those who submitted case reports.

234. Why should an investigator who has no clinical background nonetheless talk to a patient or two as an
early step in the outbreak investigation?
A. To advise the patient about common risk factors and the usual course of the illness, after reviewing such
information in appropriate reference material
B. To develop hypotheses about the cause of the outbreak and to learn more about the clinical manifestations
of the disease Correct answer
C. To verify the clinical findings as part of verifying the diagnosis
D. To verify the laboratory findings as part of verifying the diagnosis

235. A case definition during an outbreak investigation should specify (except of):
A. Clinical features
B. Time
C. Place
D. Person
E. Hypothesized exposure Correct answer

236. Common methods of identifying additional cases (expanding surveillance) as part of an outbreak
investigation include:
A. Advising the public through newspapers, TV, radio, and the health department’s website to contact the local
health department
B. Asking case-patients who they were with at the time of exposure (if known)
C. Sending a fax to healthcare providers
D. Telephoning the infection control practitioners at local hospitals
E. All answers Correct answer

237. A case report form devised for an outbreak investigation usually includes which of the following types of
information?
A. Identifying information
B. Demographic information
C. Clinical information
D. Risk factor information
E. All answers Correct answer

238. Possible explanations for a case that occurs substantially later than the other cases in an outbreak
include:
A. Similar but unrelated disease
B. Secondary case
C. Case with unusually long incubation period
D. Time of exposure later than others
E. All answers Correct answer

239. A spot map is particularly useful for displaying:

A. Geographic location of exposure of each case-patient Correct answer
B. Incidence rate of disease by area
C. Prevalence rate of disease by area

240. Which of the following may be useful in generating hypotheses in an outbreak setting?
A. Review the literature
B. Look at the descriptive epidemiology
C. Look at the outliers
D. Talk with the local health authorities
E. All answers Correct answer

241. How did the WHO define health in 1946?

A. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease
and infirmity Correct answer

B. Health is state of mental and social well being

C. Health is state of the absence of disease and infirmity

D. Non above mentioned

242. What is public health?

A. Public Health system is organizational mechanism tend to treat the illness

B. Public health system the organizational mechanism of those activities undertaken within the formal structure
of government and the associated efforts of private and voluntary organizations and individuals Correct answer

C. The clinicians and epidemiologists have the same goal to treat and prevent diseases

243. What is community health?

A. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.

B. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

C. Community health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote,
protect, and preserve their health Correct answer

244. What is population health?

A. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect, and
preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.
Correct answer

245. What is global health?

F. Global health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative
actions and solutions Correct answer

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect,
and preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the
group.

246. What are the five major domains that determine a person’s health?
F. Physical
G. Social and cultural
H. Individual behaviors
I. Community organization
J. All above mentioned Correct answer
 247. The measure of central location generally preferred for additional statistical analysis is the:

A. Mean Correct answer

B. Median
C. Midrange
D. Mode

248. What is Bioterrorism?

A. Bioterrorism is international release of biological agent to influence animal population

B. Bioterrorism the threatened or intentional release of biological agents for the purpose of influencing the
conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a civilian population to further political or social objectives
Correct answer

C. Biological weapon like causing zoonotic diseases are used to affect human population

249. What means Public Health preparedness

101. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against,
quickly respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
102. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
103. All above mentioned

250. What means Medical preparedness

D. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
E. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
F. All above mentioned

251. Governmental Health Agencies are:

A. part of the governmental structure (federal, state, tribal and/or territorial, or local). They are funded
primarily by tax dollars and managed by government officials. Each governmental health agency is
designated as having authority over some geographic area. Such agencies exist at the four governmental
levels—international, national, state, and local. Correct answer

B. Non governmental structure managed by International organizations.

C. part of the governmental federal structure managed by government officials.

 252. World Health Organization (WHO) is:
G. The most widely recognized international governmental health organization. Its headquarters is located
in Geneva, Switzerland, and there are six regional offices around the world Correct answer

H. WHO is a United Nations specialized agency concentrating exclusively on health by providing technical
cooperation, carrying out programs to control and eradicate disease and striving to improve the quality
of human life

I. All above mentioned

253 . Purpose and Work of the World Health Organization are:

A. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint
action is needed
J. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation, and dissemination
of valuable knowledge
K. Setting norms and standards, and promoting and monitoring their implementation;
L. articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
M. All above mentioned Correct answer

254. . . Core functions of public health is:

A. Assessment
B. Policy development
C. Assurance
D. All above mentioned Correct answer

255. Voluntary health agencies

A. Nonprofit organizations created by concerned citizens to deal with a health need not met by governmental
health agencies Correct answer
B. Organizations created by non Governmental organizations to deal with a health need not met by
governmental health agencies
C. Non above mentoned

256. Case means:

A. Person afflicted with a disease

B. Patient in incubation period
C. Patient with appear clinical symptoms
D. all above mentioned Correct answer

257. Rate is:

A. The number of events that occur in a given population in a given period of time Correct answer
B. The number of events in a geographic area
C. Comparing two dissimilar events

258. Natality (birth) rate is:

A. The number of live births divided by the total population Correct answer
B. The number of birth divided by live born
C. The number of <1 children divided by the total population
259. Morbidity rate is:

A. The number of people who are sick divided by the total population at risk Correct answer
B. The number new diagnosed cases divided by all registered cases
C. The number people who are sick divided by the population <65

260. Mortality (fatality) rate is:

A. Number of deaths by specific factor in a population divided by the total population

B. Number of deaths in a population divided by the total population Correct answer
C. Number of deaths in a population divided by the diagnosed cases.

261. Population at risk:

A. Those in the population who are susceptible to a particular disease or condition Correct answer
B. Those in the populations who are affected with particular disease
C. Those in the population who recovered

262. Choose one correct answer:

A. Acute disease lasts not more than 2 weeks

B. Acute disease a disease that lasts 3 months or less Correct answer
C. Acute disease lasts more than 3 months

263. Attack rate an incidence rate calculated:

A. For a particular population for a single disease outbreak and expressed as a percentage Correct answer
B. Attack rate and incidence rate are opposing
C. Attack rate is synonym of prevalence

264. Choose correct answer:

A. Notifiable diseases are for which health officials request or require reporting for public health reasons
B. Extremely dangerous diseases considered as notifiable diseases
C. all above mentioned Correct answer

265. Anthrax considered as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

266. Human rabies considered as as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

267. Life expectancy is:

G. The average number of years a person from a specific cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time Correct answer
H. The average number of years a person from a different cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time
 I. Non above mentioned

268. which hypothesis is true:

A. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 65 or 75

B. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 55 or 65

C. Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) a measure for the burden of disease that takes into account premature
death and loss of healthy life resulting from disability Correct answer

269. which hypothesis is true:

A. Communicable (infectious) disease an illness caused by some specific biological agent or its toxic products
that can be transmitted from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host

B. Noncommunicable (noninfectious) disease a disease that cannot be transmitted from infected host
to susceptible host

C. all above mentioned Correct answer

270. Active immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease Correct answer

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them

C. Non above mentioned

271. Passive immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them
Correct answer

C. Non above mentioned

272. Isolation means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible Correct answer

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

273. Quarantine means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it
Correct answer

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

274. Disinfection means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host Correct answer

275. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment. Correct answer

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment.

276. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment.

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment. Correct answer

277. Socio-ecological approach (ecological perspective) Individuals influence and are influenced by their
families, social networks, the organizations in which they participate (workplaces, schools, religious
organizations), the communities of which they are a part, and the society in which they live

A. True Correct answer

B. False

278. Task force considered as:

A.A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem Correct answer

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal

C. all above mentioned

279. Coalition considered as:

A .A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal Correct answer

C. all above mentioned

280. Health education means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors Correct answer

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities
C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

281. What does Environmental health study?

A. The study and management of environmental conditions that affect the health and well-being of humans
Correct answer

B. Environmental hazards factors or conditions in the environment that increase the risk of human injury,
disease, or death

C. Environmental health means supervision air contamination

D. Non above mentioned

282. What are differences between primary and secondary air pollution?

A. Air pollution contamination of the air that interferes with the comfort, safety, and health of living organisms
Primary pollutant air pollutant emanating directly from transportation, power and industrial plants, and
refineries

B. Secondary pollutant air pollutant formed when primary air pollutants react with sunlight and other
atmospheric components to form new harmful compounds

C. All above mentioned Correct answer

283. All the next following are true:

A. Photochemical smog haze or fog formed when air pollutants interact with sunlight

B. Industrial smog haze or fog formed primarily by sulfur dioxide and suspended particles from the burning of
coal, also known as gray smog

C. Ozone (O3 ) an inorganic molecule considered to be a pollutant in the atmosphere because it harms human
tissue, but considered beneficial in the stratosphere because it screens out UV radiation

D. All above mentioned Correct answer

284. Which consideration is true?

A. Combustion by-products gases and particulates generated by burning

B. Volatile organic compound (VOC) compound that exists as vapor over the normal range of air pressures and
temperatures

C. Formaldehyde (CH2 O) a water-soluble gas used in aqueous solutions in hundreds of consumer products

D. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

285. Which definition is true?

A. Sanitation the practice of establishing and maintaining healthy or hygienic conditions in the environment
B. Surface water precipitation that does not infiltrate the ground or return to the atmosphere by evaporation;
the water in streams, rivers, and lakes

C. Groundwater water located under the surface of the ground

D. Aquifer porous, water-saturated layers of underground bedrock, sand, and gravel that can yield economically
significant amounts of water

E. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

286. Which definition is true?

A. Water pollution any physical or chemical change in water that can harm living organisms or make the water
unfit for other uses

B. Point source pollution that can be traced to a single identifiable source

C. Nonpoint source pollution all pollution that occurs through the runoff, seepage, or falling of pollutants into
the water where the source is difficult or impossible to identify

D. All above mentioned are true Correct answer

287. Injury prevention means:

A. Injury prevention (control) an organized effort to prevent injuries or to minimize their severity Correct answer

B. Unsafe act any behavior that would increase the probability of an injury occurring

C. Unsafe condition any environmental factor or set of factors (physical or social) that would increase the
probability of an injury occurring

D. All above mentioned

288. Which the following variables is sex?

A. Categorical Correct answer

B. Continuous
C. Interval
D. All above mentioned

289. Which the following variables is age?

A. Nominal
B. Continuous Correct answer
C. Interval
D. All above mentioned

290. Which the following variables is Lymphocyte Count?

A. Categorical
B. Quantitative Correct answer
C. Interval
D. Nominal
 291. How did the WHO define health in 1946?

A. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease
and infirmity Correct answer

B. Health is state of mental and social well being

C. Health is state of the absence of disease and infirmity

D. Non above mentioned

292. What is public health?

A. Public Health system is organizational mechanism tend to treat the illness

B. Public health system the organizational mechanism of those activities undertaken within the formal structure
of government and the associated efforts of private and voluntary organizations and individuals Correct answer

C. The clinicians and epidemiologists have the same goal to treat and prevent diseases

293. What is community health?

A. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.

B. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

C. Community health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote,
protect, and preserve their health Correct answer

294. What is population health?

A. Health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative actions
and solutions

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect, and
preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group.
Correct answer

295. What is global health?

N. Global health describes health problems, issues, and concerns that transcend national boundaries, may be
influenced by circumstances or experiences in other countries, and are best addressed by cooperative
actions and solutions Correct answer

B. Health the health status of a defined group of people and the actions and conditions to promote, protect,
and preserve their health

C. The health outcomes of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the
group.
 296. What are the five major domains that determine a person’s health?
K. Physical
L. Social and cultural
M. Individual behaviors
N. Community organization
O. All above mentioned Correct answer

297. The measure of central location generally preferred for additional statistical analysis is the:
A. Mean Correct answer
B. Median
C. Midrange
D. Mode

298. What is Bioterrorism?

A. Bioterrorism is international release of biological agent to influence animal population

B. Bioterrorism the threatened or intentional release of biological agents for the purpose of influencing the
conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a civilian population to further political or social objectives
Correct answer

C. Biological weapon like causing zoonotic diseases are used to affect human population

299. What means Public Health preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
C. All above mentioned

300. What means Medical preparedness

A. The ability of the public health system, community, and individuals to prevent, protect against, quickly
respond to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those in which scale, timing, or
unpredictability threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities
B. Medical preparedness the ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond
to, and recover from health emergencies, particularly those whose scale, timing, or unpredictability
threatens to overwhelm routine capabilities Correct answer
C. All above mentioned

301. . Governmental Health Agencies are:

A. part of the governmental structure (federal, state, tribal and/or territorial, or local). They are funded
primarily by tax dollars and managed by government officials. Each governmental health agency is
designated as having authority over some geographic area. Such agencies exist at the four governmental
levels—international, national, state, and local. Correct answer
 B. Non governmental structure managed by International organizations.

C. part of the governmental federal structure managed by government officials.

302. World Health Organization (WHO) is:

A. The most widely recognized international governmental health organization. Its headquarters is located
in Geneva, Switzerland, and there are six regional offices around the world Correct answer

B. WHO is a United Nations specialized agency concentrating exclusively on health by providing technical
cooperation, carrying out programs to control and eradicate disease and striving to improve the quality
of human life

C. All above mentioned

303 . Purpose and Work of the World Health Organization are:

A. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint
action is needed
B. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation, and dissemination
of valuable knowledge
C. Setting norms and standards, and promoting and monitoring their implementation;
D. articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
E. All above mentioned Correct answer

304. Core functions of public health is:

A. Assessment
B. Policy development
C. Assurance
D. All above mentioned Correct answer

305. Voluntary health agencies

A. Nonprofit organizations created by concerned citizens to deal with a health need not met by governmental
health agencies Correct answer
B. Organizations created by non Governmental organizations to deal with a health need not met by
governmental health agencies
C. Non above mentoned

306. Case means:

A. Person afflicted with a disease

B. Patient in incubation period
C. Patient with appear clinical symptoms
D. all above mentioned Correct answer

307. Rate is:

A. The number of events that occur in a given population in a given period of time Correct answer
B. The number of events in a geographic area
C. Comparing two dissimilar events

308. Natality (birth) rate is:

A. The number of live births divided by the total population Correct answer
B. The number of birth divided by live born
C. The number of <1 children divided by the total population

309. Morbidity rate is:

A. The number of people who are sick divided by the total population at risk Correct answer
B. The number new diagnosed cases divided by all registered cases
C. The number people who are sick divided by the population <65

310. Mortality (fatality) rate is:

A. Number of deaths by specific factor in a population divided by the total population

B. Number of deaths in a population divided by the total population Correct answer
C. Number of deaths in a population divided by the diagnosed cases.

311. Population at risk:

A. Those in the population who are susceptible to a particular disease or condition Correct answer
B. Those in the populations who are affected with particular disease
C. Those in the population who recovered

312. Choose one correct answer:

A. Acute disease lasts not more than 2 weeks

B. Acute disease a disease that lasts 3 months or less Correct answer
C. Acute disease lasts more than 3 months

313. Attack rate an incidence rate calculated:

A. For a particular population for a single disease outbreak and expressed as a percentage Correct answer
B. Attack rate and incidence rate are opposing
C. Attack rate is synonym of prevalence

314. Choose correct answer:

A. Notifiable diseases are for which health officials request or require reporting for public health reasons
B. Extremely dangerous diseases considered as notifiable diseases
C. all above mentioned Correct answer

315. Anthrax considered as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

316. Human rabies considered as as notifiable disease

A. True Correct answer
B. False

317. Life expectancy is:

 J. The average number of years a person from a specific cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time Correct answer
K. The average number of years a person from a different cohort is projected to live from a given point in
time
L. Non above mentioned

318. which hypothesis is true:

A. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 65 or 75

B. Years of potential life lost (YPLL) The number of years lost when death occurs before the age of 55 or 65

C. Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) a measure for the burden of disease that takes into account premature
death and loss of healthy life resulting from disability Correct answer

319. which hypothesis is true:

A. Communicable (infectious) disease an illness caused by some specific biological agent or its toxic products
that can be transmitted from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host

B. Noncommunicable (noninfectious) disease a disease that cannot be transmitted from infected host
to susceptible host

C. all above mentioned Correct answer

320. Active immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease Correct answer

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them

C. Non above mentioned

321. Passive immunity

A. Occurs when exposure to a disease-causing organism prompts the immune system to develop antibodies
against that disease

B. Occurs when a person receives antibodies against a disease rather than their immune system producing them
Correct answer

C. Non above mentioned

322. Isolation means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible Correct answer

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

323. Quarantine means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it
Correct answer

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host

324. Disinfection means:

A. The separation of infected persons from those who are susceptible

B. limitation of freedom of movement of those who have been exposed to a disease and may be incubating it

C. The killing of communicable disease agents outside the host Correct answer

325. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment. Correct answer

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment.

326. Unmodifiable risk factor is:

A. Factor contributing to the development of a noncommunicable disease that cannot be altered by modifying
one’s behavior or environment.

B. Risk factor Contributor of a noncommunicable disease that can be altered by modifying one’s behavior or
environment. Correct answer

327. Socio-ecological approach (ecological perspective) Individuals influence and are influenced by their
families, social networks, the organizations in which they participate (workplaces, schools, religious
organizations), the communities of which they are a part, and the society in which they live

A. True Correct answer

B. False

328. Task force considered as:

A.A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem Correct answer

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal

C. all above mentioned

329. Coalition considered as:

A .A temporary group that is brought together for dealing with a specific problem

B. Formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal Correct answer

C. all above mentioned

330. Health education means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors Correct answer

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities

C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

331.. Health promotion means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities
Correct answer

C. Program planning a process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority
population

332. Program planning means:

A. Any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that
provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain health
behaviors

B. Any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms

that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities

C. A process by which an intervention is planned to help meet the needs of a priority population Correct answer

333. Best practices are:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention Correct answer

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria

C. Best processes original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of
good planning processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories
and models

334. Best experience is:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria Correct answer

C. Best processes original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of
good planning processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories
and models

335. Best processes are:

A. Recommendations for interventions based on critical review of multiple research and evaluation studies that
substantiate the efficacy of the intervention

B. Intervention strategies used in prior or existing programs that have not gone through the critical research and
evaluation studies and thus fall short of best practice criteria

C. Original intervention strategies that the planners create based on their knowledge and skills of good planning
processes including the involvement of those in the priority population and the use of theories and models
Correct answer

336. Implementation means:

A. Putting a planned intervention into action Correct answer

B. Phasing in implementation of an intervention with a series of small groups instead of the entire population

C. Non above mentioned

337. Evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest Correct answer

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Summative evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

338. Formative evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program Correct answer

C. Summative evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program Outcome
evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

339. Summative evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population Correct answer

D. Impact evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

340. Impact evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program . Correct answer

E. Outcome evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program

341. Outcome evaluation considered as:

A. Determining the value or worth of an object of interest

B. The evaluation that is conducted during the planning and implementing processes to improve or refine the
program

C. Evaluation the evaluation that determines the effect of a program on the priority population

D. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program .

E. Evaluation the evaluation that focuses on the end result of the program Correct answer

342. Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive Correct answer

B. Total dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Youth dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old

343. Total Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old Correct answer

C. Youth dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old

344. Youth Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth Correct answer

D. Old-age dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old
345. Old age Dependency ratio is:

A. A ratio that compares the number of individuals whom society considers economically unproductive to the
number it considers economically productive

B. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes both youth and old

C. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only youth

D. Dependency ratio the dependency ratio that includes only the old Correct answer

346 Activities of daily living (ADLs) considered:

A. tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside Correct answer

B. Functional limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) more complex tasks such as handling personal finances,
preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling, using the telephone, and taking medications

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

347. Functional limitations considered as:

A. tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks Correct answer

C. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) more complex tasks such as handling personal finances,
preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling, using the telephone, and taking medications

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

348.. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. Complex tasks such as handling personal finances, preparing meals, shopping, doing house work, traveling,
using the telephone, and taking medications Correct answer

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services
349.. Informal caregiver considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence Correct answer

D. Care provider one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the
caregiving service

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

350.. Care provider considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence

D. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the caregiving
service Correct answer

E. Care manager one who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the
health care services

351.. Care manager considered as:

A. Tasks such as eating, toileting, dressing, bathing, walking, getting in and out of a bed or chair, and getting
outside

B. Limitations difficulty in performing personal care and home management tasks

C. One who provides unpaid assistance to one who has some physical, mental, emotional, or financial need
limiting his or her independence

D. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual and also personally performs the caregiving
service

E. One who helps identify the health care needs of an individual but does not actually provide the health care
services Correct answer

352. Mental health means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life Correct answer

B. Mental illness a collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

353. Mental illness means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders Correct answer

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

354. Mental disorders means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some combination thereof)
associated with distress and/or impaired functioning Correct answer

355. Long-term care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need Correct answer

B. End-of-life practice health care services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

356. End-of-life practice Health care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death Correct answer

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

357. Hospice care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. A cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and family support
services Correct answer

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem
358. Independent provider:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need

B. Services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. A cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and family support
services

D. Health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health problem Correct answer

359. Allopathic provider:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease
Correct answer

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. Intern a first-year resident

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

360. Osteopathic provider:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment Correct answer

C. Intern a first-year resident

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

361. Intern means:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident Correct answer

D. Resident a physician who is training in a specialty

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

362. Resident means:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease
B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident

D. A physician who is training in a specialty Correct answer

E. Nonallopathic providers independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care

363. Nonallopathic providers:

A. Independent provider whose remedies for illnesses produce effects different from those of the disease

B. Osteopathic provider independent health care provider whose remedies emphasize the interrelationships of
the body’s systems in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment

C. A first-year resident

D. A physician who is training in a specialty

E. Independent providers who provide nontraditional forms of health care Correct answer

364. What kind of health care does chiropractor provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column
Correct answer

B Complementary/alternative medicine (CAM) a group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices,
and products that are not presently considered to be a part of conventional medicine

C.Limited (restricted) care providers health care providers who provide care for a specific part of the body

365. What kind of health care does complementary/alternative medicine provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column

B. A group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not presently
considered to be a part of conventional medicine Correct answer

C.Limited (restricted) care providers health care providers who provide care for a specific part of the body

366. What kind of health care does limited care provide?

A. A nonallopathic, independent health care provider who treats health problems by adjusting the spinal column

B. A group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not presently
considered to be a part of conventional medicine

C. Providers who provide care for a specific part of the body Correct answer

367. Private (proprietary or investor-owned) hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital Correct answer

B. Specialty hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility
not within the walls of a full-service hospital

C. Public hospital a hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

368. Specialty hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital

B. Hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility not
within the walls of a full-service hospital Correct answer

C. Public hospital a hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

369. Public hospital means:

A. A for-profit hospital

B. Hospital a standalone, single-specialty (e.g., women’s health, surgery, cardiac, or orthopedic) facility not
within the walls of a full-service hospital

C. Hospital that is supported and managed by governmental jurisdictions Correct answer

D. Voluntary hospital a nonprofit hospital administered by a notfor-profit corporation or charitable community

organization

E. Full-service hospital a hospital that offers services in all or most of the levels of care defined by the spectrum
of health care delivery

F. Limited-service hospital a hospital that offers only the specific services needed by the population served

370. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The fraction 54 / 79 is a/an (except of):

A. Food-specific attack rate Correct answer

B. Attack rate

C. Incidence proportion
D. Proportion

371. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.
The fraction 50 / 54 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion Correct answer

372. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The fraction 50 / 53 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

E. All above mentioned Correct answer

373. The best measure of association to use for investigation outbreaks is:

A. Food-specific attack rate

B. Odds ratio

C. Risk ratio Correct answer

374 . Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The best estimate of the association between wedding cake and illness is:

A. 6.1 Correct answer

B. 7.7

C. 68.4

D. 83.7

E. 91.7

375 . Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

The attributable proportion for wedding cake is:

A. 6.1%

B. 7.7%

C. 68.4%

D. 83.7% Correct answer

376. Mental health means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life Correct answer

B. Mental illness a collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

377. Mental illness means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders Correct answer

C. Mental disorders health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some
combination thereof) associated with distress and/or impaired functioning

378. Mental disorders means:

A. Emotional and social well-being, including one’s psychological resources for dealing with day-to-day problems
of life

B. A collective term for all diagnosable mental disorders

C. Health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior (or some combination thereof)
associated with distress and/or impaired functioning Correct answer

379. Long-term care means:

A. Different kinds of help that people with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or other conditions that limit them
physically or mentally need Correct answer

B. End-of-life practice health care services provided to individuals shortly before death

C. Hospice care a cluster of special services for the dying that blends medical, spiritual, legal, financial, and
family support services

D. Independent provider health care professional with the education and legal authority to treat any health
problem

380. Representative sample of residents were telephoned and asked how much they exercise each week and
whether they currently have (have ever been diagnosed with) heart disease.

Classify each of the following studies as:

A. Experimental
B. Observational cohort
C. Observational case-control
D. Observational cross-sectional Correct answer
E. Not an analytical or epidemiologic study

381. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The fraction 54 / 79 is a/an (except of):

A. Food-specific attack rate correct answer

B. Attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

382. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The fraction 50 / 54 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion correct answer

383. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding ill well total cake

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79
The fraction 50 / 53 is a/an:

A. Attack rate

B. Food-specific attack rate

C. Incidence proportion

D. Proportion

E. All answers are true correct answer

384. The best measure of association to use for these data is a/an:

A. Food-specific attack rate

B. Odds ratio

C. Rate ratio correct answer

D. Risk ratio

385. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The best estimate of the association between wedding cake and illness is:

A. 6.1 correct answer

B. 7.7

C. 68.4

D. 83.7

E. 91.7

F. 94.3

386. Within 10 days after attending a June wedding, an outbreak of cyclosporiasis occurred among attendees.
Of the 83 guests and wedding party members, 79 were interviewed; 54 of the 79 met the case definition. The
following two-by-two table shows consumption of wedding cake (that had raspberry filling) and illness status.

Ate wedding cake ill well total

Yes 50 3 53
No 4 22 26
total 54 25 79

The attributable proportion for wedding cake is:

A. 6.1%
B. 7.7%

C. 68.4%

D. 83.7% correct answer

E. 91.7%

387. Investigators enrolled 100 diabetics without eye disease in a cohort (follow-up) study. The results of the
first 3 years were as follows:
Year 1: 0 cases of eye disease detected out of 92; 8 lost to follow-up
Year 2: 2 new cases of eye disease detected out of 80; 2 had died; 10 lost to follow-up
Year 3: 3 new cases of eye disease detected out of 63; 2 more had died; 13 more lost to follow-up

The person-time incidence rate is calculated as

A. 5 / 100
B. 5 / 63
C. 5 / 235
D. 5 / 250 correct answer

388. The units for the quantity you calculated in Question 7 could be expressed as:
A. cases per 100 persons
B. percent
C. cases per person-year correct answer

389. A population demonstrates the following vital statistics:

Choose the birth rate per 1000 from the following.

E. 12 correct answer
F. 10
G. 0.12
H. 30

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

390. According to the table determine the mortality rate per 1000.

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10 Correct answer
C. 0.12
D. 30
391. According to the table determine the infant mortality rate per 1000.

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10 Correct answer
C. 0.12
D. 30

392. According to the table determine the mortality rate for those over 65 (per 1000).

Total midyear population 25000

Population size 65-years of age or older 2500
Number of live births 300
Total deaths (all cause) 250
Deaths in under 1-year olds 3
Deaths in persons 65 and over 75

A. 12
B. 10
C. 0.12
D. 30 Correct answer

393. participate in a study in which they receive the screening test while simultaneously undergoing a
definitive clinical examination. Results are tabulated in Table

disease No disease all

Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

What is the sensitivity of the screening test?

D. 40/50 = 0.800. correct answer

E. 125/150 = 0.833.
F. 40/65 = 0.615.

394. What is the specificity of the screening test

disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/135 = 0.926.
B. 40/50 = 0.800.

C. 125/150 = 0.833. Correct answer

D. 40/65 = 0.615.

395. According to the table What is the PVP of the screening test?
disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/150 = 0.833.

B. 40/65 = 0.615. Correct answer

C. 125/135 = 0.926.

D. 40/50 = 0.800.

396. According to the table What is the PVN of the screening test?
disease No disease all
Test + 40 TP 25 FP 65
Test - 10 FN 125 TN 135
Sum 50 150 200

A. 125/150 = 0.833.

B. 40/65 = 0.615.

C. 125/135 = 0.926. Correct answer

D. 40/50 = 0.800.

397. Stress and conditions that lead to stress are indicated as a social determinant of health

A. True Correct answer

B. False

398. What period in history did Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch lead to the germ theory of disease being
accepted as the major explanation for the cause and spread of infectious disease?

A. Late 1800 s Correct answer

B. Late 1700 s

C. Late 1600 s

399. "The conditions in the environments in which people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age"
is a definition of what concept?

A. Genetic determinants

B. Social determinants of health Correct answer

C. physical determinants
400. Clinical care is prevention, treatment and management of illness and the preservation of mental and
physical well-being through the services offered by medical and allied health professions; also known as
health care.

A. True Correct answer

B. False