JEMScN-2023

(Booklet Number)

Duration : 90 minutes No. of MCQ : 100 Full Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Each question carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect
answer or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ marks will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
marked A, B, C or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the
respective bubbles completely.
5. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified
locations of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your
signature (as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet
may also become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to
it. The consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling
by the candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen,
log-table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth
devices etc. inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited
items will be reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself, Additional blank pages are
given in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________

(as in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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1
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks :- 4 )

PART – A

1. _________ acts as exocrine and endocrine gland in human.

(A) Gall bladder (B) Spleen (C) Liver (D) Thyroid

2. Bile salts break up large molecules into smaller one by a process called _________.
(A) Cholereticaction (B) Antibacterial action
(C) Endogenous synthesis (D) Emulsification

3. A fibrous connective tissue that attached muscle to bone is called _________.

(A) Ligaments (B) Tendon (C) Cartilage (D) Joints

4. Baroreceptors are present in :

(A) Aortic arch (B) Carotid sinus
(C) Root of right subclavian artery (D) All of the above

5. The second cranial nerve is _________.

(A) Olfactory (B) Optic
(C) Oculomotor (D) Trigeminal

6. The parts of the brain responsible for co-ordination is _________.

(A) Pons (B) Medulla (C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum

7. The movement of an individual from one social group to another at the same level is
defined as __________.
(A) Horizontal mobility (B) Vertical mobility
(C) Intra-generational mobility (D) Inter-generational mobility

8. Rites are also known as __________.

(A) Folkways (B) Ceremonies (C) Mores (D) Etiquettes

9. According to Thurstone, how many primary mental abilities are there ?

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

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10. Which of the following is not true in Id ?
(A) It is based on the pleasure principle. (B) It deals with our conscience.
(C) It is present at birth. (D) It contains aggressive instinct.

11. In Win Win approach :

(A) Both parties look for outside support.
(B) Both parties look for solution.
(C) Both do not look into each other’s feeling.
(D) Both yield to pressure.

12. Bacterial structure involved in respiration is :

(A) Ribosome (B) Pili (C) Mesosome (D) Flagella

13. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of :

(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) E. Coli
(C) Vibrio cholera (D) Candida

14. A fungal infection is :

(A) Malaria (B) Filariasis
(C) Athlete’s Foot (D) Typhus Fever

15. When food materials are preserved at a temperature just above freezing temperature, the
process is called :
(A) Freezing (B) Pasteurisation
(C) Chilling (D) Frosting

16. Most commonly affected valve in rheumatoid heart disease is :

(A) Mitral valve (B) Aortic valve
(C) Pulmonary valve (D) Tricuspid valve

17. Sheehan’s syndrome is :

(A) Irradiation damage of pituitary gland (B) Scarred pituitary adenoma
(C) Postpartum pituitary necrosis (D) Surgical removal of pituitary gland

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18. Highest incidence of ectopic pregnancy is in :
(A) Ampulla (B) Isthmus (C) Ovary (D) Fimbriae

19. Which term represents a pair of contrasting characters ?

(A) Hetero zygous (B) Homo zygous
(C) Codominanat genes (D) Allelomorphs

20. A teratogenic action is :

(A) Toxic action on the liver.
(B) Negative action on the foetus causing foetal malformation.
(C) A Toxic action on blood system.
(D) Toxic action on kidneys.

21. Which of the following local anaesthetics is called a universal anaesthetic ?

(A) Procaine (B) Ropivacaine
(C) Lidocaine (D) Bupivacaine

22. Norepinephrine produces :

(A) Vasoconstriction
(B) Vasodilatation
(C) Bronchodilation
(D) Decreased potassium concentration in the plasma

23. Chronic long term therapy of myasthenia gravis is usually accomplished with :
(A) Edrophonium (B) Neostigmine
(C) Echothiophate (D) Carbachol

24. Most commonly used model of care in ICUs ?

(A) Term nursing (B) Functional nursing
(C) Total patient care (D) Primary nursing

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25. Bedside performance of a student nurse can be ideally assessed by :
(A) Checklist (B) Rating scale
(C) Anecdotes (D) Peer review

26. Every sub-ordinate should receive orders from & be accountable to only one superior is
called :
(A) Scalar chain (B) Unity of command
(C) Centralization (D) Unity of direction

27. The most crucial phase of group dynamic is :

(A) Forming (B) Norming
(C) Storming (D) Adjourning

28. False harmful written report is called :

(A) Libel (B) Slander (C) Tort (D) Felony

29. When weight of a person is recorded as 61 kg, the type of data is expressed as ?
(A) Attrebutes (B) Dichotomous
(C) Discrete data (D) Continuous data

30. Standard deviation is a measure of :

(A) Central tendency (B) Range
(C) Deviation from mean value (D) Skewness

31. When the value of r is ‘–1’, the correlation is :

(A) Negative (B) Positive
(C) Perfectly positive (D) Perfectly negative

32. In a survey, Socio-economic Status (SES) was collected in the following manner-lower,
lower middle, upper middle, upper. What type of variable is SES ?
(A) Ordinal (B) Nominal (C) Interval (D) Ratio

33. Most frequently observed value in a series of observation is known as :

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Average

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34. One of the first internationally recognized efforts to establish ethical standard in research
is referred to as :
(A) Helsinki Declaration (B) Belmont Report
(C) Nuremberg Code (D) None of the above

35. The cultural behaviour pattern of a specific population is observed and described by a
researcher. This type of study is described as :
(A) Phenomenological study Side effects include drowsiness and weight gain
(B) Grounded theory
(C) Ethnographical study
(D) Historical study

36. Major factors of the development of curriculum :

(A) Educational psychology (B) Educational philosophy
(C) Social change (D) All of the above

37. Anecdotal record means :

(A) Factual description of an event.
(B) Factual description of multiple events.
(C) Record analysis of an event.
(D) Described in specific proforma.

38. If the test measured what it seeks to measure, it is known as :

(A) Validity (B) Reliability
(C) Objectivity (D) Practicability

39. ‘Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man’ – was said by

(A) Guru Nanak (B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Sankaracharya (D) Rabindranath Tagore

40. Field trip is an example of :

(A) Discovery method (B) Natural learning method
(C) Inspirational method (D) Expository method

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PART – B

41. Restating the client’s message in the nurse’s own wards is called :
(A) Paraphrasing (B) Clarifying
(C) Focusing (D) Summarizing

42. Trendelenburg position is used to prevent :

(A) Shock (B) Aspiration (C) Dyspnea (D) Backache

43. In triage, yellow colour indicates :

(A) Life threatening injuries (B) Non-life threatening injuries
(C) Minimal injuries (D) Dead

44. The name of the nursing diagnosis is linked to the aetiology with the phrase :
(A) As “manifested by” (B) “Related to”
(C) “Evidenced by” (D) “Due to”

45. Which of the following is inducted in Orem’s theory ?

(A) Maintenance of sufficient intake of air (B) Self-perception
(C) Love & belongings (D) Physiologic needs

46. When recording Blood pressures, the sounds which can be heard with a stethoscope
placed over the artery is termed as :
(A) Wheeze (B) Murmurs
(C) Crackles sound (D) Korotkoff sound

47. Which of the following is a nurse’s role in the health promotion ?

(A) Health risk appraisal
(B) Teach client to be effective health consumer
(C) Work site wellness
(D) None of the above

48. Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty not to harm ?
(A) Beneficence (B) Non-maleficence (C) Fidelity (D) Veracity

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49. Abbreviation for micro-drop is :
(A) µgtt. (B) gtt. (C) mdr. (D) mgts.

50. Which of the following conditions has an increased risk for developing hyperkalaemia ?
(A) Crohn’s disease (B) Cushing’s disease
(C) Chronic heart failure (D) End stage renal disease

51. Arterial blood gas analysis results of pH 7.5, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 ion 24 mEq/L is
diagnosed as :
(A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Metabolic acidosis
(C) Respiratory alkalosis (D) Metabolic alkalosis

52. Paradoxical movement of chest wall may be found in :

(A) Pneumothorax (B) Flail chest
(C) Cardiac tamponade (D) Pleural effusion

53. In chest drainage, chest tube is placed in 2nd intercostal space in case of :
(A) Haemothorax (B) Hydrothorax
(C) Pneumothorax (D) Empyema

54. The hallmarks clinical manifestation of intestinal obstruction are :

(A) Malaise, anaemia, anorexia
(B) Abdominal pain, vomiting, distention & constipation
(C) Food intoleration
(D) Bloody diarrhoea

55. The contraindicated drug for glaucoma is :

(A) Betaxolol (B) Pilocarpine
(C) Acetazolamide (D) Atropine sulfate

56. Which branch of the coronary artery supply the atrioventricular node and Purkinje fibres ?
(A) Left main coronary artery (B) Left anterior descending artery
(C) Right coronary artery (D) Circumflex artery

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57. The most appropriate intravenous fluid for second and third degree burn patient during
the first 24 hours is :
(A) Ringer’s lactate solution (B) Normal saline
(C) Albumin (D) 5% dextrose

58. A P wave on an ECG represents an impulse :

(A) Originating at the SA node and depolarizing the atria.
(B) Originating at the SA node and repolarizing the atria.
(C) Originating at the AV node and depolarizing the atria.
(D) Originating at the AV node and spreading to the bundle of His.

59. The most important dietary risk factor for prostate cancer is :
(A) High fat diet (B) Vitamin D containing diet
(C) Purine containing diet (D) Drinking tea & coffee

60. Excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone is responsible for which of the following
disorder ?
(A) Diabetes Insipidus
(B) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(C) Cushing syndrome
(D) Addison disease

61. Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in :

(A) Dermatitis (B) Pellagra
(C) Marasmus (D) Kwashiorkor

62. Which is not a component of APGAR score ?

(A) Colour of the baby (B) Muscle tone
(C) Heart rate/min (D) Respiratory rate/min

63. Boot shaped heart is seen in which condition ?

(A) ASD (B) PDA (C) TOF (D) TAPVC

64. All are the signs of hydrocephalus in a neonate except :

(A) Enlarge head (B) Sunset sign
(C) Delayed milestone (D) Depressed fontanelle

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65. A 10 months old child has had a cough that lasted 3 days, has a breathing rate of 46/min
and on examination no chest indrawing. How a nurse will classifies the disease ?
(A) No pneumonia (B) Pneumonia
(C) Severe pneumonia (D) Very severe disease

66. Large for gestational age is when the birth weight is greater than the _________.
(A) 95th percentile (B) 85th percentile
(C) 90th percentile (D) 80th percentile

67. The following are characteristics of autism except :

(A) Onset after 6 years of age (B) Repetitive behaviour
(C) Delayed language development (D) Severe deficit in social interaction

68. Which of the following statement is true regarding ‘Golden minute’ of birth ?
(A) To start PPV within one minute after birth.
(B) To complete CPR within one minute.
(C) Observe one minute after birth for spontaneous ventilation.
(D) All of the above

69. In patent ductus arteriosus connection is between :

(A) Aorta and coronary artery
(B) Aorta and pulmonary artery
(C) Aorta and subclavian artery
(D) Pulmonary artery and subclavian artery

70. Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever according to
modified Jones criteria ?
(A) ASO titre (B) Carditis
(C) Fever (D) Sub-cutaneous nodule

71. The bleeding pattern in placenta Previa is :

(A) Painful bright red bleeding (B) Painless bright red bleeding
(C) Painful dark red bleeding (D) Painless dark red bleeding

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72. Oxygenated blood enters the fetal circulation from umbilical vein via :
(A) Ductus venosus (B) Ductus arteriosus
(C) Intra-hepatic vein (D) Intra-hepatic artery

73. Hydatiform mole is principally a disease of :

(A) Amnion (B) Chorion (C) Uterus (D) Decidua

74. Tertiarry villi are completed by :

(A) 17th day (B) 19th day (C) 21st day (D) 23rd day

75. Suppression of lactation may occur following the use of all except :
(A) Oxytocin (B) Bromocriptine
(C) Estrogen (D) Ergot derivatives

76. Diagnosis of unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy can be made by :

(A) Serum β-hCG level when titre is falling.
(B) Transvaginal Sonography showing empty uterine cavity.
(C) Combination of serum β-hCG & transvaginal sonography.
(D) Careful history taking & examination in majority.

77. Decreased in fetal heart rate during labour are called :

(A) Acceleration (B) Deceleration
(C) Baseline rate (D) Variability

78. Oligohydramnios may indicate which anomaly in the new born ?

(A) Abnormalities of the gastrointestinal tract
(B) Cardiac abnormalities
(C) Neurological abnormalities
(D) Urinary tract abnormalities

79. After examination the cervix of a woman is 5 cm dilated and 50% effaced. The nurse
knows that she is in the :
(A) Second stage (B) First stage-latent phase
(C) First stage-transitional phase (D) First stage-active phase

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80. An infant’s intestines are sterile at birth. Therefore the infant lack the bacteria necessary
for synthesis of :
(A) Bilirubin (B) Bile salts
(C) Vit.-K (D) Intrinsic factors

81. Which neurotransmitter has been implicated in the development of Alzheimer’s disease ?
(A) Acetylcholine (B) Dopamine
(C) Epinephrine (D) Serotonin

82. According to Eugen Bleuler, the fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia are :

(A) Ambivalence, autism, affects disturbance, association disturbance.
(B) Hallucination, delusion, inappropriate affect, anhedonia.
(C) Delusion of persecution, hallucinations, thought block.
(D) Ambivalence, autism, delusion, hallucination.

83. Which of the following is the most prominent characteristic of borderline personality
disorder ?
(A) Suspiciousness (B) Magical thinking
(C) Instability in personal relationship (D) Unlawful behaviour

84. Pathological repetition by imitation of the behaviour of another person is termed as :

(A) Echolalia (B) Echopraxia (C) Encopresis (D) Enuresis

85. According to Erikson, a young adult must accomplish the tasks associated with the stage
known as :
(A) Initiative Vs. guilt (B) Intimacy Vs. isolation
(C) Industry Vs. inferiority (D) Generativity Vs. stagnation

86. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of
the following medications is Nurse most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of
alcohol withdrawal ?
(A) Naloxone (Narcan) (B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
(C) Magnesium sulfate (D) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

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87. Esha with a diagnosis of depression is started on imipramine (Tofranil), 75 mg by mouth
at bed time. The nurse should tell the client that :
(A) This medication may be habit-forming and will be discontinued as soon as the
client feels better.
(B) This medication has no serious adverse effects.
(C) The client should avoid eating such foods as aged cheeses, yogurt, and chicken
livers while taking the medication.
(D) This medication may initially cause tiredness, which should become less
bothersome over time.

88. The therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child includes the following except :
(A) Engage in diversionary activities when acting-out.
(B) Provide an atmosphere of acceptance.
(C) Provide safety measures.
(D) Rearrange the environment to activate the child.

89. Nurse is aware that Dementia unlike delirium is characterized by

(A) Slurred speech (B) Insidious onset
(C) Clouding of consciousness (D) Sensory perceptual change

90. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is hospitalized in an inpatient unit. Which

nursing response is most therapeutic ?
(A) Accepting the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviours.
(B) Challenging the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviours.
(C) Preventing the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviours.
(D) Rejecting the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviours.

91. Flaccid paralysis, fever, sore throat are the manifestations of :

(A) Diphtheria (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Polio (D) Tetanus

92. H1N1 is otherwise called as :

(A) Influenza (B) Swine flu (C) Bird flu (D) Wild flu

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93. Perinatal mortality rate includes :
(A) Death of foetus from 20 weeks to 28 weeks.
(B) Death of foetus from 28 weeks to first 24 hours of birth.
(C) Abortion + stillbirths.
(D) Stillbirth + death of newborn within first 7 days of life.

94. In India the most common cause of IMR is :

(A) Acute respiratory infection (B) Congenital anomalies
(C) Low birth weight (D) Diarrhoea

95. The best recommended BMI (Body Mass Index) for adult is :
(A) 15-19 (B) 19-25 (C) 25-30 (D) 31-35

96. Which of the following is a zoonosis or zoonotic disease ?

(A) Chikungunya (B) Malaria (C) Rabies (D) AIDS

97. Under Janani Suraksha Yojana, a female who delivered in Govt. hospital in rural area is
paid :
(A) ` 1,800 (B) ` 1,400 (C) ` 1,200 (D) ` 1,000

98. Components of school health services includes :

(A) Health appraisal (B) Immunization
(C) Healthy school environment (D) All of these

99. A community health centre covers the population of :

(A) 5,000-6,000 (B) 15,000-18,000
(C) 1,00,000-1,20,000 (D) 50,000-60,000

100. Health survey and planning committee is also known as :

(A) Bhore Committee (B) Mudaliar Committee
(C) Srivastav Committee (D) Kartar Singh Committee
_____________

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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