HARVEST PUBLIC SCHOOL

CHEMISTRY WORK SHEET:JP1&JP2

CHEMISTRY

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

Single answer correct:

nd
1. Which of the following is correct energy expression (En)z of an electron which is revolving 2 orbit of
Hydrogen like atom in He+ is: [Consider a0 = Bohr’s atomic radius]
−e 2 −e 2 −e 2 −e 2
a) b) c) d)
16π a0ε 0 8π a0ε 0 4πε 0 a0 32πε 0 a0
2. What transition in emission spectrum of He+ ion will have same wavelength as the third line of
Paschen Series of Li2+ ion is?
a) 6 → 3 b) 4 → 2 c) 3 → 1 d) 2 → 1
3. According to photoelectric effect, from the below plot, the point at which the threshold wavelength is
greater than the wave length of incident light that strikes the metal surface

a) at ‘p’ only b) P,Q,R,S c) Q,R,S d) at ‘S’ only

4. According to given below diagram, the correct expression of momentum of an electron” is: [a0 =
Bohr’s atomic radius]

h 2h h h
a) b) c) d)
4π a0 3π a0 6π a0 3π a0
5. The radius expression for Hydrogen like atom represented as ( rn ) z :
( r3 ) H x
Where n = orbit number; Z = atomic number of Hydrogen like atom. If = then the value of
( r2 ) Li
2+ y

x
" " is”
y
a) 81 b) 4 c) 3 d) 9
6. When an electron in nth orbit of He+ ion, the ionization potential of He+ is equal to Hydrogen atom.
Then the value of ‘n’ is:
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
7. In an Hydrogen atom emission spectrum, if an electron return from 5th orbit to ground state level, then
the ratio between the number of lines of Lyman series to Paschen series is:
a) 4 : 1 b) 2 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 3 : 4
8. Which of the following energy expression is correct for an electron which is revolving in 3rd orbit of
Li2+

− RH ch − RH ch
a) − RH ch b) c) d) −3RH ch
9 3
9. The shortest wavelength of Balmer series of He+ ion emission spectrum is equal to: [RH: Rydberg
constant]
1 1
a) 4 RH b) c) d) RH
4 RH RH
10. The light with frequency (υ ) strikes the metal surface for photoelectric effect. If the plot makes

between square of maximum velocity (v2) of photoelectron to the frequency of light, then the slope is
equal to:

m 2h h 2h
a) b) c) d)
2h m m m
11. If the potential energy of an Hydrogen atom is –6.8 eV. Then electron was present in
a) 1st orbit b) 2nd orbit c) 3rd orbit d) 4th orbit
12. A bulb emits light of wavelength 124 nm. If the bulb is rated as 200w and 8.01% of the energy is
emitted as light. Then the number of photons are emitted by bulb per minute?
a) 6.0 ×1019 b) 1.0 × 1019 c) 6.0 × 1020 d) 1.0 × 1020
13. In Hydrogen atom, if an electron jumps to first excited state, then the change in angular momentum is
a) 2.109 ×10−34 J .sec b) 1.054 × 10−34 J .sec

c) 9.937 × 10−34 J .sec d) 1.325 × 10−33 J .sec

14. For a photoelectric effect with incident photon wavelength (λ) the stopping potential is V0. Identify
variation of V0 with “λ” is

a) b)

c) d)
15. For Hydrogen and Hydrogen like the atoms the different energy expressions represented as below:
Kinetic energy : ( KE ) n, z

Total Energy : ( E )n, z

Where n = orbit number; Z = atomic number

( KE )2, He +
Then the value of = ________?
( E )2, H

a) 2 b) – 4 c) 4 d) – 1

16. The kinetic energy of an electron in the 3rd Bohr orbit of a hydro like atom in Li2+ ion is [a0 is Bohr’s

radius]

h2 9h 2 9h 2 h2
a) b) c) d)
4π 2 ma02 4π 2 ma02 32π 2 ma02 8π 2 ma02
17. The following graph represent the photoelectric effect. Find out, due to which of the following
“electromagnetic radiation(s) the photoelectric effect takes place on metal ‘M” according given
electromagnetic.
where (V0 = stopping potentia; λ = wave length of incident ray)

Radiation: P = uv–light
Q = violet colour light
R = Red–colour light
S = Infrared
a) P, Q, R, S b) P only c) P, Q d) Q, R, S
18. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) ‘ns’ orbital has (n–1) radial nodes
b) In the hydrogen atom, the energy of 3s, 3p and 3d are equal
c) Number of angular notes for d orbital is zero
2

d) Exchange energy of d5 configuration is less than d4 configuration

1
19. In an atom, the total number of electrons having quantum numbers n = 4, ml = 1 and mz = + is
2
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8
20. Which of the following pair of transition is not having the same wavelength
a) 2nd line [Balmer series] of He+ and 4th line [Brackett series] of Be3+
b) 1st line [Lyman series] of H & 3rd line [Paschen series] of Li2+
c) 1st line [Lyman series] of H & 1st line [Balmer series] of He+
d) 3rd line [Paschen series] of Li2+ & 4th line [Brackett series] of Be3+
More than one correct Answer
1. Choose the correct relations on the basis of Bohr’s theory
1 1
a) Velocity of electron ∝ b) Frequency of revolution ∝
n n2
1
c) Radius of orbit ∝ n 2 Z d) Force on electron ∝
n2
2. Which of the following radius of orbits in hydrogen atom are possible?
a) 52.9 pm b) 182 pm c) 211 pm d) 364 pm
3. Uncertainty in measuring speed of a particle is numerically equal to uncertainty in measuring its
position. The value of these uncertainties may be

5 h h
a) equal to b) less than c) greater than d) zero
4π m 4π m 4π m
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a) The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is 1:8:27
b) The ratio of magnitude of total energy : kinetic energy : potential energy for electron in any orbit of
hydrogen atom is 1:1:2.
c) The frequency of a green light is 6 ×1014 Hz , then its wavelength is 500 nm
d) The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a H–atom, He – atom and CH4 molecule moving with equal
kinetic energy is 4:2:1
5. If the radius of first Bohr’s orbit of H-atom is x, then which of the following is/are the correct
conclusion(s)?
a) The de-Broglie wavelength of electron in the third Bohr orbit of H-atom is 6πx
b) The de-Broglie wavelength of electron in the third Bohr orbit of Li2+ is 2x
c) The radius of fourth Bohr orbit of He+ ion is 8x
d) The radius of second Bohr orbit of Be3+ ion is x
6. If T is the time required by electron in taking one round in an orbit, n represents the number of waves
in an orbit, r represents the radius of orbit and E represents energy of the orbit, then which of the
following are correct ?
r2 ( H ) 1 T2 ( H ) 1 n2 ( H ) 1 E2 ( H ) 1
a) = b) = c) = d) =
r4 ( He +
) 2 T4 ( He +
) 2 n4 ( H ) 2 E4 ( He +
) 2
 7. Which is/ are correct statements

a) The difference in angular momentum associated with the electron present in consecutive orbits

h
of H-atoms ( n − 1)
2π

b) Energy difference between energy levels will be changed if, P.E., at infinity assigned value other

than zero

c) Frequency of spectral line in a H-atom is in the order of (2 → 1) < (3 → 1) < ( 4 → 1)

d) On moving away from the nucleus, kinetic energy of electron decreases

8. Which of the following statement(s) are correct

a) The lowest energy orbital of each shape has no radial node

b) All 3d-orbitals have two angular nodes

c) np orbitals have (n–2) spherical nodes

d) ψ2,1,0 orbital has probility of finding electron is zero in xy–plane

9. Among the following which pairs have same magnetic moment.

a) Cr + , Mn 2 + b) Cr + , Mn 2 + c) Fe3+ , Mn 2+ d) Co 2+ , Mn3+

10. Which of the following set of three quantum numbers are not possible for any orbitals of third orbit of

an atom

a) n = 3; l = 0; ml = +1 b) n = 3; l = 2; ml = 0

c) n = 3; l = 3; ml = −2 d) n = 3; l = 2; ml = −2

11. Identify the correct information(s) from the following

a) Magnitude of orbital angular momentum of p-orbital is zero

b) Orbital angular momentum for ‘ns’ orbital is zero

c) The magnetic moment of Fe3+ ion 5.91 BM

d) There are 10 electrons in C − which have magnetic quantum value equal to zero
12. Identify the correct variation(s) in the following plots. If
V0 = stopping potential

λ = wavelength of incident ray

rn = radius of nth orbit of H-atom

KE = kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit of H-atom

(Vn ) H = Velocity of electron in nth orbit of H-atom

a) b)

c) d)
13. In a hydrogen like atom the electron in ground state excited to fourth of excited state by absorbing
52.84 ev. While the electron returning to ground state, which of the following statements are incorrect
regarding emission spectrum of hydrogen like atom, [consider hc = 12400 ev A0]
a) The hydrogen like atom is He2+ ion
b) The maximum number of spectral lines the emission spectrum is 10
c) The minimum wavelength of a possible spectral line is close to 235 A0
d) Number of spectral lines in the visible region is 3
14. Which of the following is/are true information(s)?
a) No two electrons in an atom have the same set of three quantum numbers
b) Four electrons in an atom may have the following quantum numbers.
1
n = 4; ml = 2; ms = +
2
c) 3d5 is more stable 3d3 due to high exchange energy [one of the possible reason]
d) Number of unpaired valency electrons in Cr atom is 6
15. Identify the correct information(s) from the following
a) Orbit angular momentum of an electron in the first orbit of H-atom is equal “ ”
b) Orbital angular momentum for ‘ns’ orbital is zero
c) The magnetic moment of Fe3+ ion 5.91 BM
d) The wave-function for an electron in a H-atom [ψ 1s ] is proportional to e − r

 1 
if ψ 1s = . e− r / a0  [ a0 = Bohr atomic radius]
 π a03 
 
Integers
1. If kinetic energy of an electron is reduced to (1/9) then how many times its de Broglie wave length will
increase?
2. The amount of energy required to remove electron from a Li+2 ion in its ground state is how many
needed to remove the electron from an H-atom in its ground
times greater than the amount of energy needed
state
3. A single electron species requires 47.2 eV to excite the electron from second Bohr’s orbit to third
Bohr’s orbit. Find the atomic number of the element.
4. Calculate the wave number (in the unit of RH) of electromagnetic radiation emitted during the
transition of electron in between two levels of Li+2 ion whose principal quantum numbers sum is 4
and difference is 2.

5. Orbital frequency of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is twice that of 2nd orbit of He+. The
value of n is?
Comprehension 1:
The photoelectric effect shows that light has certain properties of particles. Although contrary to the
long-established wave theory of light, a similar view had been held before, but discarded. No
significant scientist, however had taken the view that matter is wave like. However, some progress
was made by Louis de-Broglie when, in 1924 he suggested that any particles travelling with a linear
momentum, p = mv, should have (in some since) a wavelength λ. And the de-Broglie relation is:
h
λ= .
ρ
1. The wavelength of an electron in a 10 Mev particle accelerator is
a) 3.87 pm b) 0.39 pm c) 0.62 pm d) 3.9 pm
2. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron which is revolving in 3rd orbit of He+ ion is: [a0 is Bohr
atomic radius]
a) 2π a0 b) 18π a0 c) 9π a0 d) 3π a0

Comprehension 2 :
According to de-Broglie relation, a wave of constant wavelength, corresponds to a particle with a
h
definite linear momentum p = .
λ
However, a wave does not have a definite location at a single point in space, so we cannot speak of the
precise position of the particle if it has a definite momentum.
According to “Heisen berg (in 1927), “It is impossible to specify simultaneously, with arbitrary
precision, both the momentum and position of a particle.
1. The incorrect quantitative version of the position-momentum uncertainty relation is
h h h h
a) ∆p.∆x ≥ b) ∆x.∆v ≥ c) ∆x.∆v ≥ d) ∆p.∆x ≥
2 2 4π m 2π
2. The minimum incertainity in the speed of an electron in a hydrogen is [taking its diameter as 100 pm]
a) 5.8 × 105 cm s −1 b) 5.8 × 103 cm s −1 c) 580 km s −1 d) 58 km s −1

Matrix Matching:
1. Match the equation (in List I) with the name/type (in list II).

Column – I Column – II
h P) de-Broglie equation
A) ∆x.∆p ≥
4π
nh Q) Heisenberg uncertainty rule
B) mvr =
2π
h2 R) Bohr’s radius of H-atom
C) r1 =
4π 2 me 2
h S) Angular momentum is quantized
D) λ =
2m ( KE )
2. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
A) H 0
P) Radius of 2nd orbit = 0.53 × 2 A
B) He + Q) Energy of 4th orbit = - 13.6 eV
C) Be3+ 0
R) Radius of 3rd orbit = 0.53 × 3A
D) Li 2 + S) velocity of electron in the 1st orbit = 2.18×108 cm/sec.
 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION

SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT :

1. Which of the following magnetic moment values will correspond to the highest ionization energy for
Mn species ?

a) 2 2 b) 15 c) 35 d) 24
2. Select the correct statement :
a) Ionic mobility of Al 3+ is greater than that of Mg 2+ in water

b) K ( aq ) has lesser ionic mobility than Ca ( aq )

+ 2+

c) Cl ( aq ) has the highest ionic mobility among halide (aq) ions

−

d) Ionic mobility of Cs ( aq ) is the highest among the alkali metal ions

+

3. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is :

a) K > Na > Li b) Be > Mg > Ca c) B > C > N d) Ge > Si > C
4. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon:
a) Charge on the ions only b) Size of the ions only
c) Packing of the ions only d) Charge and size of the ions

ONE OR MORE THAN ANSWER CORRECT

5. Select the correct statement(s)
a) size of H − is larger than F − b) Rb is more electropositive compared to Ca
c) Na + is more electronegative than Na d) Cl − is more electronegative than F
6. Select the incorrect ionization energy order :
a) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F b) Na < Mg < Al < Si < S < P < Cl
c) K < Ga < Ca < Ge < As < Se < Br d) Rb < Sr < In < Sn < Sb < Te < I
7. Select the correct statement(s) :
a) In general, more the ionization energy, more will be the electronegativity
b) Electronegativity increases means metallic character increases
c) In general, lower the ionization energy, higher will be the reducing property
d) Cl has higher electron affinity than F
8. Which of the following statement is/are false ?
a) Lanthanum is the first element of lanthanides
b) Actinium violates the Aufbau’s principle
c) Chromium violates the Pauli’s exclusion principle
d) Total 10 exchanges are possible for d – electrons in Zn
9. Select the incorrect statement(s):
a) p-orbital can accommodate 6e −
I . E .1
b) Na  → Na+ 
I . E .2
→ Na2+ 
I . E .3
→; the correct order of ionization energy i
I .E.2 > I .E.3 > I .E.1 .
c) Xe is a noble gas
d) B is a non-metal

COMPREHENSION:
If one electron has been removed from an atom, it becomes increasingly difficult to remove the second and
subsequent electrons from the resulting positively charged ions on account of electrostatic attraction.
1. Suppose a gas mixture of F, Cl, Br and I is irradiated with photons of frequency appropriate to ionize
Cl. What ion(s) will be present in the mixture ?
a) F + only b) Cl + only c) F + , Cl + , Br + only d) Cl + , Br + , I + only
2. If the ionization values of elements are plotted against atomic number, then peaks are occupied by :
a) Alkali metals b) Alkaline earth metals
c) Noble gas elements d) Halogens
3. The numerical value of energy involved in the given process K → K − is less than that of which of
the following processes ?
a) K − → K b) K → K + c) Both (a) and (b) d) none of these

COMPREHENSION
On moving across a period, the atomic size decreases and nuclear charge increases and therefore the force of
attraction exerted by the nucleus on the electron in the outermost shell increases.
4. The first ionization potentials (in eV) of As and Se atoms, respectively, are :
a) 14.6, 13.6 b) 13.6, 14.6 c) 13.6, 13.6 d) 14.6, 14.6
5. For the process
A( g ) + e − → A− ( g ) ; ∆H = x
and A− ( g ) → A( g ) + e − ; ∆H = y

Select correct alternate :

a) Ionization energy of A(−g ) is y b) Electron affinity of A( g ) is x

c) Electron affinity of A( g ) is –y d) All are correct statements

6. Potassium forms K’ ion but it does not form K 2+ be – cause of :

a) very low value of ( I .E.)1 and ( I .E.)2

b) very high value of ( I .E.)1 and ( I .E.)2

c) low value of ( I .E.)1 and low value of ( I .E.)2

d) low value of ( I .E.)1 and high value of ( I .E.)2

MATCHING :
1. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
(Characteristic involved in the given process of column - II) (Process described)
A) Energy released P) S → S −
B) Energy absorbed Q) O− → O2−
C) Inert gas configuration is achieved R) Sr → Sr 2+
D) Half filled configuration is achieved S) N − → N
T) Ge → Ge−

INTEGERS :
1. How many elements from the following are not transition elements ?
Zr , Co, Cd , Hg , Au , Cu
2. The first four ionization energy values of an element are 120, 240, 520 and 6420 kcal. The
number of valence electrons in the element is _____
3. Calculate the experimental bond moment (aporoximate, in debye) of the X – Y bond, if
electronegativity of elements X and Y is 1 and 2.5, respectively, and bond length is 3.92 A° .
 HARVEST PUBLIC SCHOOL
CHEMISTRY WORK SHEET:JP1&JP2

CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY

CHEMICAL BONDING

SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:

1. The types of bonds present in CuSO4 .5H2O are only

a) electrovalent and covalent

b) electrovalent and coordinate
c) electrovalent, covalent and coordinate
d) electrovalent, covalent, coordinate and H-bonds
2. Allyl isocyanide has
a) 9σ and 4π bonds b) 9σ , 3π and 2 non-bonding electrons
c) 8σ and 5π bonds d) 8σ , 3π and 4 non-bonding electrons
3. Hybridisation of Be in the solid form of BeCl2 is
a) sp b) sp 2 c) sp 3 d) dsp 2

4. The correct order of O − O bond length in O2 , H 2O2 and O3 is

a) O2 > O3 > H 2O2 b) O3 > H 2O2 > O2 c) O3 > H 2O2 > O3 d) H 2O2 > O3 > O2

5. The species having no pπ − pπ bond but has bond order equal to that of O2 :

a) ClO3− b) PO4−3 c) SO4−2 d) XeO3

6. Assuming pure 2s and 2p orbitals of carbon are used in forming CH 4 molecule, which of the

following statement is false ?

a) Three C – H bonds will be at right angle
b) One C – H bond will be weaker than other three C – H bonds
c) The shape of molecule will be tetrahedral
d) The angle of C – H bond formed by s – s overlapping will be uncertain with respect to other three
bonds.
7. Which of the following fact is directly explained by the statement ‘oxygen is a smaller atom than
sulphur’ ?
a) H 2 O boils at a much higher temperature than H 2 S

b) H 2 O undergoes intermolecular hydrogen bonding

c) H 2 O is liquid and H 2 S is gas at room temperature

d) S – H bond is longer than O – H bond
8. Which of the following set contains species having same angel around the central atom ?
a) SF4 , CH 4 , NH 3 b) NF3 , BCl3 , NH 3 c) BF3 , NF3 , AlCl3 d) BF3 , BCl3 , BBr3
9. Consider following compounds:

(I ) H 3
X − NCS ( II ) H Y − NCS
3 ( III )( H X )
3 2
O ( IV )( H Y )
3 2
O

The incorrect statement regarding given compound is:

a) If Y is carbon in compounds (II) and (IV), then both are bent
b) If X is silicon in compounds (I) and (III), then both are linear
c) If X is carbon and Y is silicon then compound (I) is more basic than compound (II)

d) If X is silicon and Y is carbon then X − Oˆ − X bond angle compounds (III) is greater than Y − Oˆ − Y
bond angle in compounds (IV)
10. Which of the following facts given is not correct ?
(I) Bond length order : H 2− = H 2+ > H 2

1
(II) O2+ , NO, N 2− have same bond order of 2
2
(III) Bond order can assume any value including zero upto four
(IV) NO3− and BO3− have same bond order for X – O bond (where X is central atom)

a) I, II & III b) I & IV c) II & IV d) I & II

ONE OR MORE THAN ONE ANSWER CORRECT:

11. Which among the following involve(s) pπ − pπ bonding ?

a) BF3 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) NF3

12. Which of the following molecule having zero dipole moment ?

a) 1, 4-Dichlorobezene b) 1, 3, 5-Trichlorobenzen
c) 1, 2-Dichlorobenzene d) Carbon disulphide
13. Which of the following is/are correct for boron and nitrogen in NH 3 , BF3 adduct ?

a) Both has sp 3 hybrid orbitals

b) Both has tetrahedral structure

c) N is sp 3 hybridized while B in BF3 is planar

d) N in NH 3 is pyramidal while B in BF3 is planar

14. Standard heat of formation of KI is −78.31kcal mol −1 . Calculate its lattice energy from following
informations :
I1 ( K ) = 4.3eV

E1 ( I ) = −73.4 kcal mol −1

Bond dissociation energy of I2 is 36.1kcal mol , sublimation energy of K is 21.51 kcal mol

a) – 124.7 Kcal / mol b) – 120.7 Kcal / mol c) 100 Kcal / mol d) 200 Kcal / mol
15. Which of the following statement is/are correct ?

a)  Ni ( CO )4  is tetrahedral, paramagnetic, sp 3 hybridized

2−
b)  Ni ( CN )4  is square planar, diamagnetic dsp 2 hybridized

c)  Ni ( CO )4  is tetrahedral, diamagnetic, sp 3 hybridized

2−
d) [ NiCl4 ] is tetrahedral, paramagnetic, sp 3 hybridized

16. Correct statement(s) regarding As ( CH 3 ) F2Cl2 molecule is/are:

a) Maximum three halogen atoms can lie in same plane

b) Both axial and equatorial plane may have equal number of atoms
c) As–Cl bond length is longer than As–F bond length
d) Maximum five atoms can lie in equatorial plane
17. Two compounds PX 2Y3 and PX 3Y2 . (Where P = Phosphorous atom and X, Y = monovalent atoms). If
all ‘X’ atoms are replaced by ‘Z’ atoms and electronegativity order is X>Y>Z. Then incorrect
statement(s) is/are:
a) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX 2Y3 is non-zero

b) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX 2Y3 is zero

c) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX 3Y2 is zero

d) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX 3Y2 is non-zero

18. Which of the following orders are correct for property indicated in brackets ?
a) HF > H 2O > NH3 (strength of hydrogen bonds)

b) H2O > H2 S > H2 Se (bond angle)

c) Cl > S > O > N (electron affinity)

d) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 (boiling point)
COMPREHENSION (Q.NOS. 19 – 20):
The amount of energy associated with each bond as it exists in a molecule is called the bond energy. It
represents the contribution of the bond to the total binding energy present in the molecule and thus the
summation of bond energies of all the bonds in a molecule gives the heat of formation of the molecule
from its atom. Bond energy is the measure of the bond strength and its value for a particular bond
remains the same in any molecule in which it is present. In polyatomic molecule bond dissociation
energy is considerable different from that of the average bond energy, but even then for practical
purposes the average bond energy is taken as the dissociation bond energy.
19. Which of the following is the strongest bond ?

a) F − F b) Cl − Cl c) Br − Br d) I − I
20. Which of the following combination of orbitals associated with the lowest bond energy ?

a) sp3 − s b) sp3 − sp 2 c) sp 2 − s d) sp3 − sp3

COMPREHENSION (Q.NOS. 21 – 22):

In ice, hydrogen bonds hold water molecules in a rigid but open structure. When ice melts some of the
hydrogen bonds break and water molecules move into the holes that were in the ice structure. When ice
melts there is about a 10% decrease in volume and a corresponding increase in density. When water is
continuously heated above the melting point more hydrogen bonds break. The molecules become still more
closely packed and the density of water increases at 4°C . Above 4°C the density of water decreases with
temperature as we normally expect for a liquid.
21. One water molecule forms how many hydrogen bonds ?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3
22. Which of the following sample of water freezes first ?
a) cold water b) hot water c) normal water d) all of these
 PART - B
MATCH THE MATRIX:
1. Match the following
COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
2−
A)  Ni ( CN )4  P) sp 3

B) CuCl53− Q) dsp 2

C) AuCl4 − R) sp 3 d z 2

D) ClO4 S) d x 2 − y 2 sp 2

2. Match the following

Column – I Column – II
(Pair of species) (Identical property in pairs of species)
A) PCl3 F2 , PCl2 F3 P) Hybridisation of central atom

B) BF3 and BCl3 Q) Shape of molecule/ion

C) CO2 and CN 2−2 R) µ (dipole moment)

D) C6 H 6 and B3 N3 H 6 S) Total number of electrons

 PART – C
INTEGER ANSWER TYPE:
1. What is the % ionic character in HI ? Given electronegativity of H = 2 and I = 2.5.
2. The total number of lone pairs present in XeF2 molecule is ____

3. The sum of Hybrid Orbitals and Atomic Orbitals in benzene is XY. Then X is
4. The number of 90° bond angles present in BrF5 molecule is

5. Consider the following three compounds ( i ) AX 2nn− , ( ii ) AX 3n and ( iii ) AX 4nn+ , where central atom A is

15th group element and their maximum covalency is 3n. If total number of proton surrounding atom X
is n and value of n is one, then calculate value of “ x3 + y 2 + z ”. (Where x, y and z are total number of
lone pair at central atom in compound (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively).
6. Consider the following compounds
(1) H CF
3 ( 2 ) H CF
2 2 ( 3) CH 4
+
( 4 ) H CCF
3 3 ( 5) CH 3
C H2 ( 6) C H
2 4

and calculate value of Y ÷ X , (Where X is the total number of compounds which have H – C – H
bond angles equal to 109°28' and Y is the total number of compounds which have H – C – H bond
angles greater then 109°28' and less than 120° )
 HARVEST PUBLIC SCHOOL
CHEMISTRY WORK SHEET JP1 & JP2
CHEMISTRY

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:

1. For the reaction H2( g ) + I2( g )  2HI( g ) , the rate law expression is
1 d [ HI ] 2
a) − ⋅ = K−1 [ HI ] − K1 [ H 2 ][ I 2 ]
2 dt
2
1 d [ HI ] K1 [ HI ]
b) − ⋅ =
2 dt K −1 [ H 2 ][ I 2 ]
1 d [ HI ] 2
c) − ⋅ = K1 [ H2 ][ I2 ] − K−1 [ HI ]
2 dt
1 d [ HI ]
d) − ⋅ = K1K−1 [ H2 ][ I 2 ]
2 dt
2. Two moles of an equimolar mixture of two alcohols R1 − OH and R2 − OH are esterified with one
mole of acetic acid. If only 80% of the acid is consumed till equilibrium and the quantities of ester
formed under equilibrium are in the ratio 3 : 2. What is the value of equilibrium constant for the
esterification of R1 − OH ?
a) 0.48 b) 2.2 c) 0.32 d) 3.69
1
3. Following data are given for the reaction H 2 ( g ) + S2 ( g )  H 2 S ( g )
2
T ( K ) 1023 1218 1362 1473 1667
log K P 2.025 1.305 0.902 0.643 0.257
Assuming ∆ H ° and ∆ S ° constant for the given range calculate ∆ H ° for the reaction in the range
1023K to 1218K. Calculate ∆ G ° and ∆ S ° at 1023K.
a) ∆ H ° = − 9.5416 Kcal , ∆ G ° = 21.19 Kcal , ∆ S ° = −11.38 Kcal
b) ∆ H ° = 21.19 Kcal , ∆ G ° = − 9.5416 Kcal , ∆ S ° = 11.38Cal
c) ∆ H ° = − 21.19 Kcal , ∆ G ° = + 9.5416 Kcal , ∆ S ° = 11.38 Kcal
d) ∆ H ° = 11.38 Kcal , ∆ G ° = 21.19 Kcal , ∆ S ° = 21.19 Kcal
4. Progress of the following equilibrium is studied by reaction with K 2 Cr2O7 in acidic medium
2 SO2 + O2  2 SO3 .
Before O2 is mixed, SO2 required 1 mole of K 2 Cr2O7 and after taking the same quantity of SO2 and 2
1
moles of O2 in 1L flask at 300K, Equilibrium mixture required mole of K 2 Cr2O7 then find Initial
3
moles of SO2 , KC respectively.
a) 3, 5 b) 5, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 4, 3
5. 20g of sample of CaCO3 ( s ) of 50% impurity is placed in a sealed vessel of 1L capacity at 400K.
When 50% dissociation takes place. If CO2 gas at 0.5 atm is already present, then % dissociation of
CaCO3 is CaCO3 ( s )  CaO ( s ) + CO2 ( g )
a) 28.7 b) 40 c) 34.8 d) 25
6. In the following hypothetical equilibrium A ( g )  4 B ( g )
D
Values of (along Y axis) have been plotted Vs α
d
A

D/d

1.0
α
α = Degree of dissociation
d = experimental vapour density
D = Theoretical vapour density
D
What is value of at the point A corresponding to α = 1
d
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
7. For equilibrium N2O4 ( g )  2 NO2 ( g )
K P = K C will be attained when
a) T = 1K b) T = 27.3 K c) T = 12.18 K d) T = 273 K
8. Which of the following addition will cause deep red colour to disappear
2+
Fe 3+
( aq ) + SCN −
  Fe ( SCN )  ( aq )
( aq )
Pale yellow Colourless Deepted
a) H 2 C2 O4 b) AgNO3 c) HgCl2 d) All the above
9. Increase in pressure equilibrium H 2O ( l )  H 2O ( g ) result is
a) Liquefaction of steam b) Formation of more steam
c) Decrease in boiling point of H 2O d) Increase in boiling point of H 2O
10. For the equilibrium C ( s ) + CO2 ( g )  2CO ( g ) K P = 63 atm at 1000K. If at equilibrium
PCO = 10 PCO2 then total pressure at equilibrium can not be
a) 6.93 b) 69.3 c) 0.63 d) 6.3

MULTIPLE ANSWER CORRECT

11. When NH 4 HS ( s ) is vaporized in any empty vessel and maintained at 200C, the equilibrium is
established NH 4 HS ( s )  NH3( g ) + H 2 S ( g ) and the total pressure of gases at equilibrium is 0.4 atm.
When NH 4 HS ( s ) is vaporized in the presence of NH3 (g) in the same vessel at 200C, the partial
pressure of NH3(g) at equilibrium is 0.5 atm. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
a) At second equilibrium, the final partial pressure of H2S (g) is 0.08 atm
b) In second experiment, the initial pressure of NH3 (g) was 0.42 atm
c) In the presence of NH3 (g), the extent of dissociation of NH4HS is decreased
d) At second equilibrium, the mole fraction of H2S(g) is 0.5
 1
12. For dissociation of a gas N2O5 as N 2O5( g )  2 NO2( g ) + O2( g ) . The reaction is performed at constant
2
temperature and volume. If D is the vapour density of equilibrium mixture, P0 is initial pressure of
N2O5( g ) and M is molecular mass of N2O5, then the correct information(s) at the equilibrium is/are
P0 ⋅ M
a) the total pressure of gases at equilibrium is
2D
M − 2D
b) the degree of dissociation of N2O5( g ) is
3D
( 5D − M ) ⋅ P0
c) the partial pressure of N2O5( g ) at equilibrium is
3D
( M − 2D) ⋅ P0
d) the partial pressure of O2 (g) at equilibrium is
3D
13. A gaseous substance AB2( g ) converts to AB ( g ) in the presence of solid A as AB2( g ) + A( s)  2 AB( g ) .
The initial pressure and equilibrium pressure are 0.7 and 0.95 bar, respectively. Now, the equilibrium
mixture is expanded reversibly and isothermally till the gas pressure falls to 0.4 bar. Then, which of
the following statements is correct?
a) The volume percent of AB(g) at final equilibrium is nearly 27%
b) The volume percent of AB2 (g) at final equilibrium is nearly 32.5%
c) KP for the equilibrium is 5/9
d) The ratio of equilibrium pressure of AB2 (g) at initial and final equilibrium is more than 2 but less
than 3
14. The rate of effusion of an equilibrium mixture in one litre vessel at 300 K for decomposition of
A2  2 A through a pinhole is 0.707 times of rate of diffusion of O2 under identical conditions of P
and T. Which of the following are correct, If Atomic weight of ‘A’ is 46. ( log 25.16 = 1.4)
A
a) mole ratio of = 0.643 approximately b) ∆ G° = −8.041×103 J
A2
c) Molecular weilght of mixture = 64 d) K C = 25.16 mol / L
15. Two solid compounds A1 and A2 in a container dissociates at temperature ‘T’ to show the equilibrium
A1 ( s )  A ( g ) + 2B ( g ) K P1 = 9 ×10−3
A2 ( s )  C ( g ) + 2B ( g ) K P2 = 4.5 ×10−3
Then find the incorrect statements
P
a) 1 = 2
P2
P
b) 1 = 4
P2
c) Total pressure of gases at equilibria is 0.45 atm
d) Total pressure of gases at equilibria is 0.9 atm
16. 4 mol C2 H 4 ( g ) and 2.5 mol Br2 ( g ) are placed in a closed vessel the reaction
C2 H 4 ( g ) + Br2 ( g )  C2 H 4 Br2 ( g ) establishes an equilibrium. Figure below shows the concentration
of C2 H 4 ( g ) as it changes over time at a fixed temperature

4
Molarity
2.5 C2H4(g)

Time
then Identify correct statements
a) volume of container is 1L b) moles of Br2 reacted is 1.5
c) moles of C2 H 4 Br2 formed is 1.5 d) K C for above reaction is 0.6 L/mol

PARAGRAPH (17-18)
A saturated solution of Iodine in water contains 0.33 g of I 2 per litre of solution. More than this can
dissolve in KI solution because of the following equilibrium I 2 ( aq ) + I −  I3−
A 0.1M KI solution actually dissolves 12.5 g of I 2 / Litre, most of which is converted to I 3− .
Assuming that the concentration of I 2 in all saturated solutions is the same.
17. The equilibrium concentration of I 3− is
12.5 13.23
a) 0.0479 M b) M c) Both a and b d) M
254 254
18. The equilibrium constant for the above reaction is
a) 807 b) 708 c) 70.8 d) 80.7

PARAGRAPH (19 – 20)

The degree of dissociation of NH3 in a vessel V1 (initially evacuated) at T K at an equilibrium
pressure of 50 atm is same as that of SO3 (g) at a total equilibrium pressure equal to KP for
2 SO3 ( g )  2 SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )
A vessel V2 (capacity 100L and maintained at T K) initially contains equimolar mixture of NH3, N2,
H2 and Ne. The total mass of the mixture containing four gases is 0.134 kg. At equilibrium, N2 was
found to be 52.24% by mass (Ne = 20)
19. The degree of dissociation of NH3 at T K in the vessel of volume V1 is
a) 0.33 b) 0.50 c) 0.67 d) 0.75
20. The value of KP for the reaction: 2 NH 3 ( g )  N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) at T K is
a) 2700 atm2 b) 2500 atm2 c) 3.7 × 10−4 atm2 d) 4.0 × 10−4 atm2
MATRIX MATCH
1. For an endothermic reaction: 4 A ( g ) + B2 ( g )  2 A2 B ( g )
Column – I Column – II

P) Increase in temperature

A)

Q) Increase in pressure

B)

R) Addition of A2B at equilibrium

C)

S) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure

D)

INTEGERS

1. For a reversible reaction A P , the equilibrium constant is expressed as :

2000
log K = 0.47 −
T
(
0
(All values in SI unit) the standard entropy of reaction ∆S rxn ) is closest to which
integer (in JK −1 unit)
2. The density of an equilibrium mixture of N2O4 and NO2 at 1 atm and 348K is 1.84 g/L. Calculate K C
for the equilibrium N2O4 ( g )  2 NO2 ( g ) .
NUMERICAL

1. Hot copper turnings can be used as an oxygen getter for inert gas supplies by slowly passing the gas
over the turnings at 600K.
1
2Cu ( s ) + O2 ( g ) → Cu2O ( s ) ∆ G° = −124.944kJ
2
If the molecules of O2 left in 1L of a gas supply after equilibrium has been reached is ‘y’ then find ‘y’.
A.L (10.8757 = 7.5 ×1010 )
2. 59gm PCl5 were completely vapourised at 250°C in a vessel of 1.9 L capacity. The mixture at
equilibrium exerted a pressure of one atmosphere. If the degree of dissociation is ‘P’ then find the
value of P + 1
3. Equilibrium constant can also be expressed in terms of K X , when concentrations of the species are
taken in molefraction
F2 ( g )  2 F ( g )
X F2
KX =
X F2
For the above equilibrium mixture, average molarmass at 1000K was 36.74 g/mol.
If K x is y ×10−3 . Find the value of y.
 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT:

1. The pH of a mixture of 1M benzoicacid ( pKa = 4.2) and 1M sodium benzoate is 4.5, in 150mL
buffer benzoicacid find volume of benzoicacid.
a) 150mL b) 100mL c) 50mL d) 125mL
2. What is the maximum volume of water required to dissolve 1g of calcium sulphate at 25°C . For
CaSO4 K sp = 9 ×10−6 .
a) 0.408 L b) 3 × 10 −3 L c) 1 L d) 2.45L
+
3. A 0.1 M solution of Cu ( NH3 )4  is stirred with an excess of potassium cyanide sufficient to convert
−3
all the ammonium complex to the corresponding cuprocyanide complex Cu ( CN )4  and in addition
to provide the solution with an excess of CN − equal to 0.2 M. Calculate the maximum pH of the
solution when the final solution is treated with hydrogen sulphide to maintain [ H 2 S ] = 0.1M and the
−3
precipitation of cuprous sulphide is prevented. The instability constant for Cu ( CN )4  is
6.4 ×10−15 Ka, overall of H 2 S = 1.6 ×10−21 , Ksp of Cu2 S = 2.56 ×10−27
a) 4.0 b) 10.0 c) 10.8 d) 3.2
At what minimum pH will 10 M − Al ( OH )3 go into solution (V = 1L ) as Al ( OH )4 at what maximum
−3 −
4.
pH, it will be dissolved as Al 3+ ? Given: log 2 = 0.3
−
Al ( OH )4  Al 3+ + 4OH − ; K eq = 1.6 × 10−34
Al ( OH )3  Al 3+ + 3OH − ; Keq = 8.0 ×10−33
a) 9.3, 4.7 b) 4.7, 9.3 c) 9.3, 4.3 d) 4.3, 9.3
5. How much must a 0.2M solution of sodium acetate be diluted at 25°C in order to double the degree
of hydrolysis
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3
2 2
6. 2.5mL of M weak monoacidic base ( Kb = 1×10−12 ) is titrated with M HCl in water at 298K.
5 15
The concentration of H + at equivalent point is ( KW = 1×10−14 at 298K ) approximately.
a) 3.7 ×10−13 M b) 3.2 × 10−7 M c) 3.2 × 10−2 M d) 2.7 ×10−2 M

MULTIPLE ANSWER CORRECT

7. ( )
K sp 250 C of Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10−12 . Which of the following mixing will bring about precipitation of
Ag2CrO4 ?
a) 10 mL 3 ×10−4 M AgNO3 + 10 mL10−4 M Na2CrO4
b) Adding 10 m mol Na2CrO4 to 100 mL saturated AgCl ( K sp = 2 × 10 −10 ) solution
c) Mixing equal volumes of 10−4 M AgNO3 with 10−4 M Na2CrO4 solution
d) 10mL10−3 M AgNO3 + 15 mL10−3 M Na2CrO4
8. The correct statement(s) regarding the following reaction is/are
+ 3+ 2+ 2+
Cu ( H 2 O )3 ( OH )  +  Al ( H 2 O )6   Cu ( H 2 O )4  +  Al ( H 2 O )5 ( OH ) 
A B C D
a) A is acting as an acid while B is a base
b) A is base while B is an acid
c) C is conjugate acid of A and D is conjugate based of B
d) C is conjugate base of A and D is conjugate base of B
9. A solution is 0.01 M in ( NH4 )2 SO4 and 0.02 M in NH 4OH ( K b = 2 × 10−5 ) . Which of the following
is(are) true about this solution?
a) The solution has buffer property
b) pH of this solution is ( 9 + 2log 2 )
c) pH of this solution is ( 9 + log 2 )
d) Adding water to the above solution will increase pH
10. Given K sp of AgCl = 1×10−10 then select the correct statements (Assume PX = − log X )
a) PAg + PCl = 10
b) PCl = 8 in 0.01M Ag +
c) PAg + PCl < 10 in presence of Ag +
d) PAg = PCl = 5 in saturated AgCl solution
11. A solution of weak acid HA was tirated with base NaOH. The equivalence point was reached when
36.12mL of 0.1M NaOH was added now 18.06mL of 0.1 M HCl were added to titrated solution, the
p H was found to be 4.92. What will not be p H of the solution obtained by mixing 10mL of 0.2M
NaOH and 10mL of 0.2M HA.
a) 9 b) 5 c) 10 d) 8
12. Salt mixture containing Cu3 ( AsO4 )2 ( K sp = 8 ×10 ) and Pb3 ( AsO4 )2 ( K sp = 4.096 ×10−36 ) is shaken
−36

with waer. Neglect any hydrolysis of dissolved ions. Then identify correct statements
a)  Pb+2  = 8.825 ×10−8 b) Cu +2  = 7.1×10−8
c)  Pb+2  = 7.1×10−8 d) Cu +2  = 8.825 ×10−8

PARAGRAPH (13-14)
The solubility product constant of AgCN is 2.5 × 10−16 . The acid dissociation constant of HCN is
6.2 × 10−10 . Now solid AgCN is dissolved in a buffer solution of pH 3.
13. The concentration ratio of HCN to CN − in the solution is
a) 6.25 × 10 −7 b) 1.6 × 106 c) 1.6 × 109 d) 6.2 × 10−10
14. The solubility of AgCN ( mol L−1 ) in the above solution is
a) 1.58 ×10−8 b) 6.2 × 10−10 c) 2 × 10 −5 d) 4 × 10 −7
Paragraph (15-16)
50mL of 0.1M Na2 Co3 solution is titrated with 0.1M HCl solution (log3 = 0.48)
Given: Co32 − + H +  HCo3− K1 = 2.1× 1010
HCo3− + H +  H 2Co2 K 2 = 2.2 × 106
15. The p H of solution at the start of titration is about
a) 6.4 b) 7.5 c) 8.3 d) 11.15
H H
16. The p of solution at half neutralisation point and p of solution at the complete neutralisation point
is about
a) 8.33, 4 b) 2.1, 8.05 c) 9.56, 5 d) 11.16, 8.33

INTEGERS
1. Solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble salt MCl2 is 4 × 10−12 at 250C. Also, at 250C,
solubility of MCl2 is an aqueous solution of CaCl2 is 4 × 10 8 time less compared to its solubility in
pure water. Hence, concentration (molarity) of CaCl2 solution is
2. The solubility product constant of a metal carbonate MCO3 is 2 × 10−12 at 250C. A solution is 0.1M in
M ( NO3 )2 and it is saturated with 0.01 M CO2. Also the ionization constant of CO2 are :
Ka1 = 4 ×10−7 and Ka2 = 5 ×10−11 at 250C. The minimum pH that must be maintained to start any
precipitation is

NUMERICAL
1. A given solution is saturated with both Ag 2 CrO4 and Ag 2 C2O4 . K SP ( Ag2CrO4 ) = 9 ×10−12 and
KSP ( Ag2C2O4 ) = 6 ×10−12 and in the resulting solution concentration of Ag + is determined as

( 1/ 3
)
 Ag +  ×105 what is  Ag +  ( 240) = 6.214
M 2x
2. If p H of 10% dissociated H 2CO3 solution is x then find value of .
200 5

Match matrix
1.
Column – I Column – II
A) Buffer capacity is maximum for an acidicic buffer is 1
P) p H = p Ka + log
3
1 1
B) At the th of the equivalence point for the titration of Q) p H = ( p Ka + log 3)
4 2
weakacid HA
3 1
C) At the th of the equivalence point for the titration of R) p H = p Ka − log
4 3
weak acid HA
1 S) p H = p Ka
D) The p H of M solution of weakacid HA.
3
 Atomic structure

Single correct:

1.b 2.b 3.c 4.d 5.c 6.c 7.b 8.a 9.c 10.d 11.b 12.c 13.a 14.a
15.b 16.d 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.c

More than one correct:

1.abd 2.ac 3.ac 4.bcd 5.acd 6.abc 7.cd 8.acd

9.abc 10.ac 11.bcd 12.abcd 13.abd 14.bcd 15.abcd

Integers:

1.3 2.9 3.5 4.8 5.1

Comprehension-1:
1.b 2.d

Comprehension-2:
1.b 2.c

Matching:

1. A-Q; B-S; C-R; D-P.

2. A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R.
 Periodic classification

Single correct:

1.a 2.b 3.b 4.d

More than one correct:

5.abc 6.abc 7.acd 8.b 9.ab

Comprehension-1:

1.d 2.c 3.b

Comprehension-2:

4.a 5.a 6.d

Matching:

1. A-PST; B-QR; C-QR; D-ST

Integers:

1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
 Chemical bonding
Single correct:

1.d 2.b 3.c 4.d 5.d 6.c 7.d 8.d 9.b 10.b

More than one correct:

11.abc 12.abd 13.ab 14.a 15.bcd 16.abcd

17.bd 18.abcd

Comprehension-1:

19.b 20.b

Comprehension-2:

21.b 22.b

Matching:

1. A-QS; B-R; C-QS; D-P.

2. A-PQ; B-PQR; C-PQRS; D-PQRS.

Integers:

1.7 2.9 3.3 4.0 5.9 6.5

 Chemical equilibrium

Single correct:

1.a 2.d 3.b 4.c 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.d 9.a 10.c

More than one correct:

11.abc 12.abc 13.bc 14.abcd 15.bd

16.abcd

Comprehension-1:

17.a 18.b

Comprehension-2:

19.c 20.a

Matching:

1. A-ST; B-R; C-Q; D-P.

Integers:

1.9 2.9

Numerical:

1. 2.16
2. 1.84
3. 4.71
 Ionic equilibrium

Single correct:

1.c 2.d 3.b 4.c 5.b 6.c

More than one correct:

7.bd 8.bc 9.ac 10.abd 11.bcd 12.cd

Comprehension-1:

13.b 14.c

Comprehension-2:

15.c 16.a

Integers:

1.2 2.4

Numerical:

1. 31.07
2. 1.20
3. 6.96

Matching:

A-S; B-P; C-R; D-Q.