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CAT 2002 Question Paper
Quant
Instructions [1 - 2 ]
A boy is asked to put one mango in a basket when ordered 'One', one orange when ordered 'Two', one apple
when ordered 'Three', and is asked to take out from the basket one mango and an orange when ordered
'Four'.
A sequence of orders is given as: 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4
1. How many total oranges were in the basket at the end of the above sequence?

A 1

B 4

C 3

D 2
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
First counting only nos. 1,2 and 3.
So, we have 6 mangoes, 6 oranges and 7 apples.
We have 4 times 4 so finally we have 2 mangoes, 2 oranges and 7 apples, which is a total of 11 fruits.

2. How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?

A 9

B 8

C 11

D 10
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
On counting only numbers 1,2 and 3, we have 6 mangoes, 6 oranges and 7 apples.
We have 4 times number 4 => Finally we have 2 mangoes , 2 oranges and 7 apples. So, a total of 11 fruits.

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Instructions [3 - 4 ]
Directions for the next two questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Each of the 11 letters A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Z appears same when looked at in a mirror. They are
called symmetric letters. Other letters in the alphabet are asymmetric letters.
3. How many four-letter computer passwords can be formed using only the symmetric letters (no
repetition allowed)?

A 7,920

B 330

C 14,640

D 4,19,430
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The number of ways in which this can be done is 11*10*9*8 = 7920
4. How many three-letter computer passwords can be formed (no repetition allowed) with at least one
symmetric letter?

A 990

B 2,730

C 12,870

D 15,600
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
If there are 3 symmetric letters, it can be formed in 11*10*9 ways
If there are 2 symmetric letters, it can be formed in 11C2 * 15C1 * 3! ways
If there is only 1 symmetric letter, the password can be formed in 15C2*11C1*3! ways
Total = 990+330*15+630*11 = 12870 ways

Instructions [5 - 6 ]
Directions for the next two questions: Answer the questions based on the following diagram

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In the following diagram, ∠ABC = 90° = ∠DCH = ∠DOE = ∠EHK = ∠F KL = ∠GLM = ∠LMN
AB = BC = 2CH = 2CD = EH = FK = 2HK = 4KL = 2LM = MN

5. The magnitude of ∠F GO =

A 30°

B 45°

C 60°

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The length of FI is twice the length of IG.

So, the sides of the triangle FIG are in the ratio 2:1: 5.
So, angle FGO = angle FGI, which is definitely not equal to 30 or 45 or 60.
Hence, option D is the answer.
6. What is the ratio of the areas of the two quadrilaterals ABCD to DEFG?

A 1:2

B 2:1

C 12 : 7

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Area of ABCD = Area of triangle + Area of rectangle = Let AB = x. So, area = 3/2 ∗ x2 /2 = 3/4 ∗ x2
1 x x
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 1 x x
Area of ODE = 2 ∗ 2 ∗ 2 =x2 /8
x x
Area of OEFI = 2 ∗ 2 =x2 /4
Area of FGI = x2 /16
Total area of DEFG = 7x2 /16
Required ratio = 12:7
7. How many numbers greater than 0 and less than a million can be formed with the digits 0, 7 and 8?

A 486

B 1,084

C 728

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
According to given condiitons, number of 1 digit nos. = 2, number of 2 digit nos. = 2*3 , number of 3 digit
nos. = 2 ∗ 3 2 , number of 4 digit nos. = 2 ∗ 3 3 , number of 5 digit numbers. = 2 ∗ 3 4 , Number of 6 digit nos.
= 2 ∗ 35 .
Total summation 2*(1+3+9+27+81+243) = 728 .

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8. If there are 10 positive real numbers n1 < n2 < n3 ... < n10 , how many triplets of these numbers
(n1 , n2 , n3 ), (n2 , n3 , n4 ) can be generated such that in each triplet the first number is always less
than the second number, and the second number is always less than the third number?

A 45

B 90

C 120

D 180
Answer: C

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
For any selection of three numbers, there is only one way in which they can be arranged in ascending order.

So, the answer is 10 C3 = 120

9. In triangle ABC, the internal bisector of ∠A meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and ∠A = 60° , then the
length of AD is

A 2 3
12 3
B 7

15 3
C 8

6 3
D 7

Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:

By using cosine rule we can find BC = 13 . By angle bisector theorem we have BA / BD = AC / DC . Also
BD + DC = 13. So by substitution we get we get BD = 4* 13/7 . Now using cosine rule in triangle ABD
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taking AD = x, we get
12 3
x2 − 4 ∗ 13 ∗ x + 16 ∗ (36/49) = 0. Solving the equation we get x = 7 .

10. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm, whose centres are 25 cm
apart, is

A 24 cm

B 25 cm

C 15 cm

D 20 cm
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:

The radii of both the circles and the line joining the centers of the two circles form a right angled triangle.
So, the length of the common chord is twice the length of the altitude dropped from the vertex to the
hypotenuse.

Let the altitude be h and let it divide the hypotenuse in two parts of length x and 25-x
So, h2 + x2 = 15 2 and h2 + (25 − x)2 = 20 2
=> 225 − x2 = 400 − x2 + 50x − 625
=> 50x = 450 => x = 9 and h = 12
So, the length of the common chord is 24 cm.

(1+x)
11. If f(x) = log (1−x) , then f(x) + f(y) is

A f(x + y)
(x+y)
B f (1+xy)

1
C (x + y)f (1+xy)

f(x)+f(y)
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 f(x)+f(y)
(1+xy)
D

Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
(1+x) (1+y)
If f(x) = log (1−x) then f(y) = log (1−y)

Also Log (A*B)= Log A + Log B

(1+x)(1+y)
f(x)+f(y) = log (1−x)(1−y)
(1+xy +x +y)
=log (1+xy−x−y)

Dividing numberator and denominator by (1+xy)

(1+xy +x +y)
1+xy
(1+xy−x−y)

log 1+xy

1+xy (x+y)
1+xy + 1+xy
1+xy (x+y)
1+xy − 1+xy
=log
(x+y)
1+ (1+xy)
(x+y)

= log 1−
(1+xy)

Hence option B.
12. Four horses are tethered at four corners of a square plot of side 14 m so that the adjacent horses
can just reach one another. There is a small circular pond of area 20 m2 at the centre. Find the
ungrazed area.

A 22m2

B 42m2

C 84m2

D 168m2
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:

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Length of the rope tied to each horse = 7 m.
Total area of the portion that the horses can graze = 4* π7 2 /4 = 49π
Area of the circular pond = 20 m2
So, area left ungrazed = 14 2 − 20 − 49πm2 = 22 m2 (approx)
13. On a straight road XY, 100 m long, five heavy stones are placed 2 m apart beginning at the end X. A
worker, starting at X, has to transport all the stones to Y, by carrying only one stone at a time. The
minimum distance he has to travel is

A 472 m

B 422 m

C 744 m

D 860 m
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The weights are at distances of 0 m, 2 m, 4 m, 6 m and 8 m from X.
Let us first keep all the weights at a distance of 8 m from X. This would be 8 + 6*2 + 4*2 + 2*2 = 32 m.
Now from the point where all the weights are kept is at a distance of 92 m from Y. So total distance
required = 184+184+184+184+92 = 828 m.
So in all 860 m.

2
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14. In the figure given below, ABCD is a rectangle. The area of the isosceles right triangle ABE = 7 cm2 ;
EC = 3(BE). The area of ABCD (in cm2 ) is

A 21 cm2

B 28 cm2

C 42 cm2

D 56 cm2
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:

Let AB = BE = x

Area of triangle ABE = x2 /2 = 14; we get x = 14

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So we have side BC = 4* 14
Now area is AB*BC = 14 *4 = 56 cm2
15. The area of the triangle whose vertices are (a,a), (a + 1, a + 1) and (a + 2, a) is
[CAT 2002]

A a3

B 1

C 2a

D 21/2
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The triangle we have is :

The length of three sides is 2 , 2 and 2.

This is a right-angled triangle.
Hence, it's area equals 1/2 ∗ 2∗ 2=1
So, the correct answer is b)
Alternate Approach :
1
Area of triangle = 2 × base × height
1
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 1
So we get 2 × 2 × 1=1 square units
16. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along the
diagonal and saved a distance equal to half the longer side. Then the ratio of the shorter side to the
longer side is

A 1/2

B 2/3

C 1/4

D 3/4
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:

Let x be the shorter side and y be the longer one. The shortcut route would be of length x2 + y2 .
According to given condition we know that (x+y)- x2 + y2 = y/2 . Solving, we get 1=(x/y)+(1/4)
=> x : y = 3 : 4. Hence option D is the correct answer.

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17. Only a single rail track exists between stations A and B on a railway line. One hour after the
northbound super fast train N leaves station A for station B, a south-bound passenger train S
reaches station A from station B. The speed of the super fast train is twice that of a normal express
train E, while the speed of a passenger train S is half that of E. On a particular day, N leaves for B
from A, 20 min behind the normal schedule. In order to maintain the schedule, both N and S
increased their speeds. If the super fast train doubles its speed, what should be the ratio
(approximately) of the speeds of passenger train to that of the super fast train so that the passenger
train S reaches exactly at the scheduled time at A on that day?

A 1:3

B 1:4

C 1:5

D 1:6
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the speed of an express train be 4x, normal train be 2x and passenger train be x.
Let the distance between the 2 stations be D.
Since there is only 1 railway track, train N must reach station B before train S leaves.
Therefore, D/4x + D/x = 60
5D/4x = 60
D/x = 48

Train N leaves 20 minutes late. Therefore, the 2 trains must have covered the distance within 40 minutes
on this particular day.
Train N doubles its speed. Therefore, speed of train N will be 8x. Let the new speed of the passenger train
be y.

D/8x + D/y = 40
48/8 + D/y = 40
D/y = 34.

Speed of super fast train = D/8x = 6

Speed of passenger train = D/y = 34

Ratio of the speeds = 6/34 = 3/17.

The ratio is approximately equal to 1:6. Therefore, option D is the right answer.

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18. On a 20 km tunnel, connecting two cities A and B, there are three gutters (1, 2 and 3). The distance
between gutters 1 and 2 is half the distance between gutters 2 and 3. The distance from city A to its
nearest gutter, gutter 1, is equal to the distance of city B from gutter 3. On a particular day, the
hospital in city A receives information that an accident has happened at gutter 3. The victim can be
saved only if an operation is started within 40 min. An ambulance started from city A at 30 km/hr
and crossed gutter 1 after 5 min. If the driver had doubled the speed after that, what is the maximum
amount of time would the doctor get to attend to the patient at the hospital.
Assume that a total of 1 min is elapsed for taking the patient into and out of the ambulance?

A 4 min

B 2.5 min

C 1.5 min

D The patient died before reaching the hospital

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the distance between gutter 1 and A be x and between gutter 1 and 2 be y.
Hence, x + y + 2y + x = 20 => 2x+3y=20
Also x = 30kmph * 5/60 = 2.5km
Hence, y = 5km
After the ambulance doubles its speed it goes at 60kmph i.e. 1km per min. Hence, time taken for the rest of
the journey = 15*2 + 2.5 = 32.5
It takes 1 min to load and unload the patient.
Hence, total time = 5 + 32.5 + 1 = 38.5 mins
So, the doctor would get 1.5 min to attend to the patient.
19. Number S is obtained by squaring the sum of digits of a two-digit number D. If difference between S
and D is 27, then the two-digit number D is

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A 24

B 54

C 34

D 45
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Consider the options:
24: (Square of sum of digits - the number) = 36 - 24 = 12
54: (Square of sum of digits - the number) = 81 - 54 = 27
34: (Square of sum of digits - the number) = 49 - 34 = 15
45: (Square of sum of digits - the number) = 81 - 45 = 36
So, option b) is the correct answer.

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20. The nth element of a series is represented as
Xn = (−1)n Xn−1
If X0 = x and x > 0 , then which of the following is always true?

A Xn is positive if n is even

B Xn is positive if n is odd

C Xn is negative if n is even

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let x = 1, so, X0 = 1
X1 = -1
X2 = -1
X3 = 1
X4 = 1
X5 = -1

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X6 = -1
So, Xn need not be positive when n is even, Xn need not be positive when n is odd, Xn need not be
negative when n is even. So, none of the first three options are correct.
21. If x, y and z are real numbers such that x + y + z = 5 and xy + yz + zx = 3, what is the largest value that
x can have?

A 5/3

B 19

C 13/3

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The given equations are x + y + z = 5 -- (1) , xy + yz + zx = 3 -- (2)
xy + yz + zx = 3
x(y + z) + yz = 3
=> x ( 5 -x ) +y ( 5 - x - y) = 3
=> −y2 − y(5 − x) − x2 + 5x = 3
=> y2 + y(x − 5) + (x2 − 5x + 3) = 0
The above equation should have real roots for y, => Determinant >= 0
=>b2 − 4ac > 0
=> (x − 5)2− 4(x2 − 5x + 3) ≥ 0
=> 3x2 − 10x − 13 ≤ 0
13
=> −1 ≤ x ≤ 3
13 1 1
Hence maximum value x can take is 3 , and the corresponding values for y,z are 3 , 3
22. Neeraj has agreed to mow a lawn, which is a 20 m × 40 m rectangle. He mows it with 1 m wide strip.
If Neeraj starts at one corner and mows around the lawn toward the centre, about how many times
would he go round before he has mowed half the lawn? (Round off the answer to two decimal digits)

A 2.5

B 3.5

C 3.75

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
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To mow half of lawn is to mow 400 squares of 1m width each. Neeraj mows 40+18+40+18 = 116 squares
of 1m width each in 1st round, in 2nd round he mows 38+16+38+16 = 108 squares and in 3rd round, he
mows 36+14+36+14 = 100 squares. So, in total, he mows 324 squares; but he needs 400-324 = 76 more.
If he covers the 4th round completely, he mows 92 squares, to cover only 76, he needs to cover 76/92 =
0.826 round.
So in total 3.826 ≈ 3.83 rounds are required.

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23. The owner of a local jewellery store hired three watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got
in and stole some diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he
gave 1/2 of the diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How
many did he steal originally?

A 40

B 36

C 25

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Suppose the thief stole 'x' diamonds. \
After giving the share to the first watchman, the thief has (x/2)-2 diamonds.
After giving to the second watchman, the thief has (x/4)-3 diamonds.
After giving to the third watchman, the thief has (x/8)-(7/2) diamonds.
This is equal to 1. So, (x/8) - 7/2 = 1
Solving this equation, we get x = 36
24. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a motorbike for $60. Mayank paid one-half of the sum of the
amounts paid by the other boys. Mirza paid one-third of the sum of the amounts paid by the other
boys. Little paid one-fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. How much did Jaspal
have to pay?

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A $15

B $13

C $17

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the amount paid by Mayank be x. So, amount paid by the other three = 2x
=> Total bill = x+2x = 3x = 60 => x = 20. So, Mayank paid 20
Similarly, amount paid by Mirza + 3*Amount paid by Mirza = 60
=> Amount paid by Mirza = 15
Amount paid by Little + 4*Amount paid by Little = 60
=> Amount paid by Little = 12
So, amount paid by Jaspal = 60 - (20+15+12) = 60 - 47 = $13
25. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not want anybody to know about him. One
day, his wife asked, " How many gold coins do we have?" After a brief pause, he replied, "Well! if I
divide the coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference between the two numbers
equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers." The wife looked puzzled. Can you
help the merchant's wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant has?

A 96

B 53

C 43

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let x = y+z such that z > y.
We know that 48 ∗ (z − y)2 = z 2 − y2
Solving the above equation, we get z + y = 48
So, option d) is the correct answer.

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26. Shyam visited Ram during his brief vacation. In the mornings they both would go for yoga. In the
evenings they would play tennis. To have more fun, they indulge only in one activity per day, i.e.
either they went for yoga or played tennis each day. There were days when they were lazy and
stayed home all day long. There were 24 mornings when they did nothing, 14 evenings when they
stayed at home, and a total of 22 days when they did yoga or played tennis. For how many days
Shyam stayed with Ram?

A 32

B 24

C 30

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the number of total days=N
They played tennis for=N-14 days
They did yoga for =N-24 days

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And the question says that total days when they did yoga or played tennis are 22
which means
N-14 + N-24 = 22
2N - 38 = 22
2N = 60
N = 30
Hence total days they stayed together were 30

27. Let S denotes the infinite sum 2 + 5x + 9x2 + 14x3 + 20x4 + ... , where |x| < 1 and the
coefficient of xn−1 is n( n + 3 )/2 , ( n = 1, 2 , . . . ) . Then S equals:

A (2 − x)/(1 − x)3

B (2 − x)/(1 + x)3

C (2 + x)/(1 − x)3

D (2 + x)/(1 + x)3
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let S = 2 + 5x + 9x2 + ....
S ∗ x = 2x + 5x + 9x3 + ...
2

S(1 − x) = 2 + 3x + 4x2 + ...

S(1 − x) ∗ x = 2x + 3x2 + 4x3 + ...
S(1 − x)(1 − x) = 2 + x + x2 + x3 + ... = 2 + x/(1 − x)
So, S = [2(1 − x) + x]/(1 − x)3 => S = (2 − x)/(1 − x)3

2 2 2
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28. If x2 + 5y2 + z 2 = 2y(2x + z), then which of the following statements is(are) necessarily true?
A. x = 2y B. x = 2z C. 2x = z

A Only A

B B and C

C A and B

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The equation is not satisfied for only x = 2y.
Using statements B and C, i.e., x = 2z and 2x = z, we see that the equation is not satisfied.
Using statements A and B, i.e., x = 2y and x = 2z, i.e., z = y = x/2, the equation is satisfied.
Option c) is the correct answer.

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29. Amol was asked to calculate the arithmetic mean of 10 positive integers, each of which had 2 digits.
By mistake, he interchanged the 2 digits, say a and b, in one of these 10 integers. As a result, his
answer for the arithmetic mean was 1.8 more than what it should have been. Then |b - a| equals

A 1

B 2

C 3

D None of these
Answer: B

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the actual average be n. So, the new average is n + 1.8
Actual total = 10n
New total = 10n + 18
Let the number which was miswritten = ab(a is the tenth's digit and b is the units digit) = 10a+b
and reversed number ba = 10b+a

So, 10b + a - (10a + b) = 18

=> 9(b-a) = 18
=> b-a = 2
30. A car rental agency has the following terms. If a car is rented for 5 hr or less, then, the charge is Rs.
60 per hour or Rs. 12 per kilometre whichever is more. On the other hand, if the car is rented for
more than 5 hr, the charge is Rs. 50 per hour or Rs. 7.50 per kilometre whichever is more. Akil
rented a car from this agency, drove it for 30 km and ended up playing Rs. 300. For how many hours
did he rent the car?

A 4 hr

B 5 hr

C 6 hr

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Suppose Akil drove the car for less than 5 hrs. In this case, by distance basis, Rs 360 should be charged.
This is not the case.
So he dove for more than 5 hrs. Cost comes more using time basis; which is Rs 300, i.e. he used the car for
6 hours.
31. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (i.e. 1 + 2 + 3 + …) so long his patience permitted.
As he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong, the child
discovered he had missed one number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was

A less than 10

B 10

C 15

D more than 15
Answer: D

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
If the child adds all the numbers from 1 to 34, the sum of the numbers would be 1+2+3+...+34 = 34*35/2 =
595
Since the child got the sum as 575, he would have missed the number 20.

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32. Suppose for any real number x, [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Let L(x, y) =
[x] + [y] + [x + y] and R(x, y) = [2x] + [2y]. Then it is impossible to find any two positive real numbers x
and y for which

A L(x, y) = R(x, y)

B L(x, y) 
= R(x, y)

C L(x, y) < R(x, y)

D L(x, y) > R(x, y)

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Consider different values of x and y:
x = -1.5 and y = -1.5; x = 1.5 and y = -1.5; x = -1.5 and y = 1.5; x = 1.5 and y = 1.5.
For these possibilities, options A,B and C gets satisfied , but it is impossible to find any two positive real
numbers x and y for which L(x, y) > R(x, y).
33. Ten straight lines, no two of which are parallel and no three of which pass through any common
point, are drawn on a plane. The total number of regions (including finite and infinite regions) into
which the plane would be divided by the lines is

A 56

B 255

C 1024

D not unique
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
If there are 'm' non-parallel lines, then the maximum number of regions into which the plane is divided
is given by
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[m(m+1)/2]+1
In this case, 'm' = 10
So, the number of regions into which the plane is divided is (10*11/2) + 1 = 56

34. When 2 256 is divided by 17, the remainder would be

A 1

B 16

C 14

D None of these
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
24 = 16 = −1 (mod 17)
So, 2 256 = (−1)64 (mod 17 )
= 1 (mod 17)
Hence, the answer is 1. Option a).

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35. The number of real roots of the equation A2 /x + B 2 /(x − 1) = 1 , where A and B are real
numbers not equal to zero simultaneously, is

A 3

B 1

C 2

D Cannot be determined
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
A2 ∗ (x − 1) + B2 ∗ x = x2 − x
The given equation can be written as :
=> x2 + x(−1 − A2 − B 2 ) + A2 = 0
Discriminant of the equation = (−1 − A2 − B 2 )2 − 4A2
=A4 + B 4 + 1 − 2A2 + 2B 2 + 2A2 B 2
= A4 + B 4 + 1 − 2A2 − 2B 2 + 2A2 B 2 + 4B 2
= (A2 + B 2 − 1)2 + 4B 2

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>= 0, 0 when B =0 and A =1
Hence, the number of roots can be 1 or 2.
Option d) is the correct answer.
36. At a bookstore, ‘MODERN BOOK STORE’ is flashed using neon lights. The words are individually
flashed at the intervals of 2.5 s, 4.25 s and 5.125 s respectively, and each word is put off after a
second. The least time after which the full name of the bookstore can be read again for a full
second is

A 49.5 s

B 72.5 s

C 1744.5 s

D 855 s
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
In this problem, the lights are flashed at the intervals 2.5, 4.25 and 5.125 seconds and put off after one
second each.
The total duration of intervals of these lights are (2.5+1) = 3.5 s, (4.25+1) = 5.25 s and (5.125+1) = 6.125 s.
We have to find the minimum duration. It would be the LCM of thes three numbers.
5 17 41
Since each word is put after a second. So LCM [( 2 + 1)( 4 + 1)( 8 + 1)] = LCM of numerator / HCF of
denominator = 49*3/2 = 73.5. Hence they will glow for full one second after 73.5-1 =72.5 sec.
37. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4.5 lb, 6.75 lb and 7.2 lb respectively are to be divided into parts of
equal weight. Further, each part must be as heavy as possible. If one such part is served to each
guest, then what is the maximum number of guests that could be entertained?

A 54

B 72

C 20

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
HCF of [(9/2), (27/4), (36/5)] = HCF of numerators / LCM of denominators = 9/20
Total weight = 18.45 lb
So no. of parts = 18.45 / (9/20) = 18.45*20/9 = 41
Hence option d) is the correct answer.
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 Top-500 Free CAT Questions (With Solutions)
38. After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4
respectively. What will be the remainder if 84 divides the same number?

A 80

B 75

C 41

D 53
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Since after division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4
respectively, the number is of form ((((4*4)+1)*3)+2)k = 53K
Let k = 1; the number becomes 53
If it is divided by 84, the remainder is 53.
Option d) is the correct answer.
Alternative Solution.
Consider only for 3 and 4 and the remainders are 2 and 1 respectively.
So 5 is the first number to satisfy both the conditions. The number will be of the form 12k+5. Put different
integral values of k to find whether it will leave remainder 5 when divided by 7. So the first number to satisfy
such condition is 48x4+5= 53
39. Six persons are playing a card game sitting around a circular table. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is
to the left of Ajay and to the right of Pramod. Ajay is to the left of Dhiraj. Yogendra is to the left of
Pramod. If Dhiraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and Pramod exchanges with Raghubir, who will
be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?

A Yogendra

B Raghubir

C Suresh

D Ajay
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The correct original circular arrangement sequence in clockwise manner is Suresh, Dhiraj, Ajay, Raghuveer,

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Pramod, Yogendra.

So after the changes, Suresh is to the left of Dhiraj.

40. A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel is a cat located at a point that is 3/8 of the distance
AB measured from the entrance A. When the train whistles the cat runs. If the cat moves to the
entrance of the tunnel A, the train catches the cat exactly at the entrance. If the cat moves to the exit
B, the train catches the cat at exactly the exit. What is the ratio of speed of train and cat ?

A 3:1

4
B
:1

C 5:1

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the length of the tunnel be x and distance of the train to entrance A be y. Let the speeds of train and cat
be t and c respectively.
Hence, when the cat runs 3x/8, the train covers y.
=> (3x/8)/c = y/t --- (1)
When the cat runs 5x/8 to the other end, the train covers x+y
=>(5x/8)/c = (x+y)/t ---(2)
Taking ratio of (1) to (2)
3/5 = y/(x+y) => 3x = 2y ---(3)
Substituting (3) in (1)
(2y/8)/c = y/t
=> t = 4c
Hence the ratio t:c is 4:1.

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 Free CAT Study Material
41. A piece of string is 40 cm long. It is cut into three pieces. The longest piece is three times as long as
the middle-sized and the shortest piece is 23 cm shorter than the longest piece. Find the length of
the shortest piece.

A 27

B 5

C 4

D 9
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the longest piece be x
Shortest piece = x - 23
Middle-sized piece = x/3
So, x + x - 23 + x/3 = 40 => 7x/3 = 63 => x = 27
Shortest piece = 27 - 23 = 4
42. Three travellers are sitting around a fire, and are about to eat a meal. One of them has 5 small loaves
of bread, the second has 3 small loaves of bread. The third has no food, but has 8 coins. He offers to
pay for some bread. They agree to share the 8 loaves equally among the three travellers, and the
third traveller will pay 8 coins for his share of the 8 loaves. All loaves were the same size. The
second traveller (who had 3 loaves) suggests that he will be paid 3 coins, and that the first traveller
be paid 5 coins. The first traveller says that he should get more than 5 coins. How much should the
first traveller get?

A 5

B 7

C 1

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Suppose A, B and C have 5 pieces of bread, 3 pieces of bread and 8 coins respectively. Since in total there
are 8 pieces of bread, each one should get around 2.66 bread. So A must give 2.33 part of his bread to C
and B must give 0.33. Distributing the amount in the same ratio of bread contribution, A must get 7 coins
and B must get 1 coin.

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43. In the following figure, ACB is a right-angled triangle. AD is the altitude. Circles are inscribed within
the triangle ACD and triangle BCD. P and Q are the centers of the circles. The distance PQ is

The length of AB is 15 m and AC is 20 m

A 7m

B 4.5 m

C 10.5 m

D 6m
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:

By Pythagoras theorem we get BC = 25 . Let BD = x;Triangle ABD is similar to triangle CBA => AD/15 = x/20
and also triangle ADC is similar to triangle ACB=> AD/20 = (25-x)/15. From the 2 equations, we get x = 9
and DC = 16
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We know that AREA = (semi perimeter ) * inradius
For triangle ABD, Area = 1/2 x BD X AD = 1/2 x 12 x 9 = 54 and semi perimeter = (15 + 9 + 12)/2 = 18. On
using the above equation we get, inradius, r = 3.
Similarly for triangle ADC we get inradius R = 4 .
PQ = R + r = 7 cm

44. If u, v, w and m are natural numbers such that um + vm = wm , then which one of the following is
true?

A m >= min(u, v, w)

B m >= max(u, v, w)

C m < min(u, v, w)

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Substitute value of u = v = 2, w = 4 and m = 1. Here the condition holds and options A and B are false.
Hence, we can eliminate options A and B.
Substitute u = v = 1, w=2 and m= 1. Here m=min(u, v, w). Hence, option C also does not hold. Hence, we can
eliminate option C.
Option d) is the correct answer.
45. In how many ways is it possible to choose a white square and a black square on a chessboard so that
the squares must not lie in the same row or column?

A 56

B 896

C 60

D 768
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
First a black square can be selected in 32 ways. Out of remaining rows and columns, 24 white squares
remain. 1 white square can them be chosen in 24 ways. So total no. of ways of selection is 32*24 = 768.
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46. 76n − 66n , where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by

A 13

B 127

C 559

D All of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Consider n=1 we have 7 6 − 66 which is = (73 + 63 )(73 − 63 ) = 13 * 127 * 43 which is divisible by all the 3
options.
Option d) is the correct answer.

Free Videos for CAT Preparation

47. If pqr = 1, the value of the expression 1/(1 + p + q−1 ) + 1/(1 + q + r−1 ) + 1/(1 + r + p−1 )

A p+q+r

B 1/(p+q+r)

C 1

D p−1 + q−1 + r−1

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let p = q = r = 1

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So, the value of the expression becomes 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1
If we substitute these values, options a), b) and d) do not satisfy.
Option c) is the answer.
48. It takes six technicians a total of 10 hr to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each
working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11 am, and one technician per
hour is added beginning at 5 pm, at what time will the server be completed?
[CAT 2002]

A 6.40 pm

B 7 pm

C 7.20 pm

D 8 pm
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the work done by each technician in one hour be 1 unit.
Therefore, total work to be done = 60 units.
From 11 AM to 5 PM, work done = 6*6 = 36 units.
Work remaining = 60 - 36 = 24 units.
Work done in the next 3 hours = 7 units + 8 units + 9 units = 24 units.
Therefore, the work gets done by 8 PM.
49. Davji Shop sells samosas in boxes of different sizes. The samosas are priced at Rs. 2 per samosa up
to 200 samosas. For every additional 20 samosas, the price of the whole lot goes down by 10 paise
per samosa. What should be the maximum size of the box that would maximise the revenue?

A 240

B 300

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 400
C

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the optimum number of samosas be 200+20n
So, price of each samosa = (2-0.1*n)

Total price of all samosas = (2-0.1*n)*(200+20n) = 400 − 20n + 40n − 2n2 = 400 + 20n − 2n2
This quadratic equation attains a maximum at n = -20/2*(-2) = 5
So, the number of samosas to get the maximum revenue = 200 + 20*5 = 300

About CAT exam

50. Three small pumps and a large pump are filling a tank. Each of the three small pump works at 2/3 the
rate of the large pump. If all four pumps work at the same time, they should fill the tank in what
fraction of the time that it would have taken the large pump alone?
[CAT 2002]

A 4/7

B 1/3

C 2/3

D 3/4
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let the work done by the big pump in one hour be 3 units.

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Therefore, work done by each of the small pumps in one hour = 2 units.
Let the total work to be done in filling the tank be 9 units.
Therefore, time taken by the big pump if it operates alone = 9/3 = 3 hours.
If all the pumps operate together, the work done in one hour = 3 + 2*3 = 9 units.
Together, all of them can fill the tank in 1 hour.
Required ratio = 1/3

Important Verbal Ability Questions for CAT (Download PDF)

Data Interpretation
Instructions [51]
Four students — Ashish, Dhanraj, Felix and Sameer sat for the Common Entrance Exam for Management
(CEEM). Each of the students has one profession among the four: Doctor, Chartered Accountant, Engineer,
and Economist. One student got admission offers from three NIMs (National Institutes of Management),
another from two NIMs, the third from one NIM, while the fourth got none. Below are some of the facts
about who got admission offers from how many NIMs and what is their educational background.
I. The one who is an engineer didn’t get as many admissions as Ashish.
II. The one who got the offer for admissions in two NIMs isn’t Dhanraj nor is he a chartered accountant.
III. Sameer is an economist.
IV. Dhanraj isn’t an engineer and received more admission offers than Ashish.
V. The doctor got the most number of admission offers.
51. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

Ashish is a chartered accountant and got offer for admission in three

A
NIMs.

Dhanraj is a doctor and got admission offer in one

B
NIM.

Sameer is an economist who got admission offers in two

C
NIMs.

Felix who is not an engineer did not get any offer for
D
admission.
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
From Statement I, we know that Ashish is not an engineer, and from Statement IV Dhanraj is not an
engineer either. Since Sameer is an Economist, Felix must be the engineer.

From Statement IV, Dhanraj got more offers than Ashish. Since Doctor got the most number of offers,

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Ashish is not the doctor:

We know that the doctor got offers from 3 NIMs and Ashish got more offers than the engineer. Since
Ashish is a CA and did not get 2 offers, he can only get 1 offer and the engineer gets none. The final table
will look like this:

Here, we can see that Sameer is an economist with offers from 2 NIMs. Hence only Option C is correct.

CAT 2023 Coaching By IIM Alumni

52. Five boys went to a store to buy sweets. One boy had Rs. 40. Another boy had Rs. 30. Two other
boys had Rs. 20 each. The remaining boy had Rs. 10. Below are some more facts about the initial
and final cash positions.
I. Alam started with more than Jugraj.
II. Sandeep spent Rs. 1.50 more than Daljeet.
III. Ganesh started with more money than just only one other person.
IV. Daljeet started with 2/3 of what Sandeep started with.
V. Alam spent the most, but did not end with the least.
VI. Jugraj spent the least and ended with more than Alam or Daljeet.
VII.Ganesh spent Rs.3.50.
VIII. Alam spent 10 times than what Ganesh did.
In the choices given below, all statements except one are false. Which one of the following
statements can be true?

A Alam started with Rs. 40 and ended with Rs. 9.50

B Sandeep started with Rs. 30 and ended with Re. 1

C Ganesh started with Rs. 20 and ended with Rs. 4

D Jugraj started with Rs. 10 and ended with Rs. 7

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
According to given condition we know that Alam started with 40 spent 35 and saved 5 , Daljeet started with
20 , ganesh started with 20 and saved 16.5 , Jugraj started with 10 and spent less than 3 rs , sandeep
started with 30 and spent more than 1.5 rs. So among the options only option D satisfies given
requirements.
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53. In a hospital there were 200 diabetes, 150 hyperglycaemia and 150 gastro-enteritis patients. Of
these, 80 patients were treated for both diabetices and hyperglycaemia. Sixty patients were treated
for gastro-enteritis and hyperglycaemia, while 70 were treated for diabetes and gastroenteritis.
Some of these patients have all the three diseases. Dr. Dennis treats patients with only gastro-
enteritis. Dr. Paul is a generalist. Therefore, he can treat patients with multiple diseases. Patients
always prefer a specialist for their disease. If Dr. Dennis had 80 patients, then the other three
doctors can be arranged in terms of the number of patients treated as:

A Paul > Gerard > Hormis

B Paul > Hormis > Gerard

C Gerard > Paul > Hormis

D Cannot be determined
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
We dont know out of other 2 doctors which doctor is specialist in which disease.
So it is not possible to find out the exact order.
54. Three children won the prizes in the Bournvita Quiz contest. They are from the schools: Loyola,
Convent and Little Flowers, which are located at different cities. Below are some of the facts about
the schools, the children and the city they are from.
I. One of the children is Bipin.
II. Loyola School’s contestant did not come first.
III. Little Flower’s contestant was named Riaz.
IV. Convent School is not in Hyderabad.
V. The contestant from Pune is not from Loyola School.
VI. The contestant from Bangalore did not come first.
VII. Convent School’s contestant’s name is not Balbir.
VIII. The contestant from Pune came in third.
Which of the following statements is true?

A 1st prize: Riaz (Little Flowers), 2nd prize: Bipin (Convent), 3rd prize: Balbir (Loyola)

B 1st prize: Bipin (Convent), 2nd prize: Riaz (Little Flowers), 3rd prize: Balbir (Loyola)

C 1st prize: Riaz (Little Flowers), 2nd prize: Balbir (Loyola), 3rd prize: Bipin (Convent)
D 1st prize: Bipin (Convent), 2nd prize: Balbir (Loyola), 3rd prize: Riaz (Litttle Flowers)
Answer: C

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
We can get the following from the information provided.

Hence, Option C is right.

How to prepare for Logical Reasoning for CAT

55. Two boys are playing on a ground. Both the boys are less than 10 years old. Age of the younger boy
is equal to the cube root of the product of the age of the two boys. If we place the digit representing
the age of the younger boy to the left of the digit representing the age of the elder boy, we get the
age of father of the younger boy. Similarly, if we place the digit representing the age of the elder boy
to the left of the digit representing the age of the younger boy and divide the figure by 2, we get the
age of mother of the younger boy. The mother of the younger boy is younger to his father by 3 years.
Then, what is the age of the younger boy?

A 3

B 4

C 2

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let x and y be the age of older and younger boy respectively(both single digit). According to given condition
we know that y2 = x.
Also Father's age = 10y + x and Mother's age = (10x+y)/2.
Only value which satisfies above equations is x=4 and y=2 .
56. Flights A and B are scheduled from an airport within the next one hour. All the booked passengers of
the two flights are waiting in the boarding hall after check-in. The hall has a seating capacity of 200,
out of which 10% remained vacant. 40% of the waiting passengers are ladies. When boarding
announcement came, passengers of flight A left the hall and boarded the flight. Seating capacity of
each flight is two-third of the passengers who waited in the waiting hall for both the flights put
together. Half the passengers who boarded flight A are women. After boarding for flight A, 60% of
the waiting hall seats became empty. For every twenty of those who are still waiting in the hall for
flight B, there is one air hostess in flight A. What is the ratio of empty seats in flight B to the number
of air hostesses in flight A?

A 10 : 1

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 5:1
B

C 20 : 1

D 1:1
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Out of 200 of the seating capacity, 180 seats are filled out of which 108 are males and 72 are females.
Remaining 20 seats are vacant. According to given condition seating capacity in both the planes is 120 .
Considering flight A - we can find that 100 passenger in waiting hall will be taking fight A . So 80 people
remain in in the waiting hall who will be taking flight B . Now for every 20 people taking flight B we have a
air hostess in flight A . So in total there are 4 air hostess in flight A. Flight B having 120 as seating capacity,
40 remain vacant. So required ratio 40:4 = 10:1 .
Instructions [57 - 60 ]
A country has the following types of traffic signals.
3 red lights = stop
2 red lights = turn left
1 red light = turn right
3 green lights = go at 100 km/hr speed
2 green lights = go at 40 km/hr speed
1 green light = go at 20 km/hr speed
A motorist starts at a point on a road and follows all traffic signals. His car is heading towards the north. He
encounters the following signals (the time mentioned in each case below is applicable after crossing the
previous signal).
Starting point - 1 green light
After half an hour, 1st signal - 2 red and 2 green lights
After 15 min, 2nd signal - 1 red light
After half an hour, 3rd signal - 1 red and 3 green lights

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After 24 min, 4th signal - 2 red and 2 green lights
After 15 min, 5th signal - 3 red lights
57. The total distance travelled by the motorist from the starting point till the last signal is

A 90 km

B 100 km

C 120 km

D None of these
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The distance traveled by the car in particular direction is as follows : First 10 km in north then 10 km in
west then 20 km north then 40 km east then again 10 km north.
So in all total distance traveled is 10+10+20+40+10 = 90 kms.

Data Interpretation for CAT Questions (download pdf)

58. What is the position (radial distance) of the most motorist when he reaches the last signal?

A 45 km directly north of the starting point

B 30 km directly to the east of the starting point

C 50 km away to the north-east of the starting point

D 45 km away to the north-west of the starting point

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
According to given conditions, the car first travels 10 km north then 10 km to west then gain 20 km north
then further travels east for 40 km then travel north for another 10 km before finally stopping. So in all the
car travels 30 km to the east and 40 km north. Hence, calculating the distance radially we get 50 km in
North-East direction.
59. After the starting point if the 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green lights, what would be the final
position of the motorist?

A 30 km to the west and 20 km to the south

B 30 km to the west and 40 km to the north

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 50 km to the east and 40 km to the north
C

D Directly 30 km to the east

Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Now if after starting point at first point the 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green lights then distance traveled by
the car would be as follows : 10 km in north then 10 km east then 20 km south then 40 km to west then 10
km to south . So overall the position of car is 30 km to the west and 20 km to south as compared to original
position.
60. If at the starting point, the car was heading towards south, what would be the final position of the
motorist?

A 30 km to the east and 40 km to the south

B 50 km to the east and 40 km to the south

C 30 km to the west and 40 km to the south

D 50 km to the west and 20 km to the north

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
If at the starting point, the car was heading towards south then following would have occured : 1st 10 km in
south ,2nd 10 km east, 3rd 20 km in south ,4th 40 km west, 5tht 10 km in south so overall 30 km to the
west and 40 km to the south from starting point.

Logical Reasoning for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Instructions [61 - 63 ]
The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not
match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of this table.

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61. What percentage of cities located within 10 E° and 40 E° (10° East and 40° East) lie in the Southern
Hemisphere?

A 15%

B 20%

C 25%

D 30%
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
There are 5 countries which lie from 10 Deg E to 40 Deg E , but out of those only 1 lie in southern
hemisphere. hence 1*100/5 = 20%.
62. The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in
the table

exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the
A
southern hemisphere by 1

exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the
B
southern hemisphere by 2

is less than the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the east
C
of the meridian by 1

is less than the number of countries whose name begins with a consonant and are in the
D
east of the meridian by 2
Answer: D

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
There are 11 cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table
and there are 13 number of countries whose name begins with a consonant and are in the east of the
meridian. Hence option D.
63. The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern
hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the
table above is

A 3:2

B 3:3

C 3:1

D 4:3
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern hemisphere are 3
and number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table is 2.
Hence the ratio 3:2.

Quantitative Aptitude for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Instructions [64 - 67 ]
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they
have worked on complex, medium and simple operation in the month of June 2002. Even though the
employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have
minimum level of efficiency.

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64. The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 50 per day in complex operations is

A 4

B 3

C 5

D 6
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Average income can be found by dividing the total income by total number of days.
The average income is calculated as show in the table given below.

Using this formula, we can find that there are 5 employees (Employee IDs: 1151, 1158, 1164, 1172, and
1173) who earned more than Rs 50 per day.

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65. The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80%
attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too)
is

A 4

B 5

C 6

D 7
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
80% of attendance comes out to 20 days.
We can see from the table that there are 7 such employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having
more than 80% of attendance.
Hence option D.
66. The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium
operation is

A 2001180

B 2001164

C 2001172

D 2001179
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
We need to find the person who has the highest average per-day earnings in medium operations.
So, we divide the total income in medium operations by the total number of day in these operations.
Employee no. 2001180 earned 1262.9 by working 19 daysfor medium operation which is highest. Hence
option A.

Join MBA Telegram Group

67. Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of
employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more than average earning per
day in medium operations is

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A 2
B 3

C 5

D 8
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The average income is calculated as show in the table given below.

From the table given we can make out that number of employees whose average earning per day in
complex operations is more than average earning per day in medium operations for 8 employees
(2001148, 2001149, 2001150, 2001151, 2001158, 2001164, 2001171, 2001172)
Instructions [68 - 75 ]
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated
with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world
for 1998-2000.

68. How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East,..) of the company accounted for less
than 5% of the total revenue earned in 1999?
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A 2

B 3

C 4

D None of these
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
5% of total revenue in the year 1999 is 168.7 . Manually counting number of countries where the revenue is
less than 168.7, we see that 4 countries have revenue less than 168.7
69. How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East…) of the company witnessed more than
200% increase in revenue from 1999 to 2000?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Spain and rest of latin america has witnessed more than 200% increase in revenue from 1999 to 2000 for
the company.

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70. How many operations registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges
from 1998 to 2000?

A 3

B 4

C 5

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

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Explanation:
There are 4 such operations - North Africa & Middle East, Argentina, Rest of Latin America and Far East
- that registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges from 1998 to 2000.
71. Ignoring the loss making operations of the company in 1998, for how many operations was the
percentage increase in net income before taxes and charges higher than the average from 1998 to
1999?

A 0

B 1

C 2

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Percentage increase in net income before tax and
charges for total world (1998-99)
1375−248
= 248 ∗ 100 = 454.4%
Spain is making loss.
341−111
Percentage increase for North Africa and Middle-East = 111 ∗ 100 = 207.2%
838−94
Percentage increase for Argentina = 94 ∗ 100 =791.5%
From the table one can directly say that there is no operation other than Argentina, whose percentage
increase in net income before taxes and charges is higher than the average (world).
72. If profitability is defined as the ratio of net income after taxes and charges to expense, which of the
following statements is true?

The Far East operations witnessed its highest profitability in

A
1998

The North Sea operations increased its profitability from 1998 to

B
1999

The operations in Argentina witnessed a decrease in profitability from 1998 to

C
1999

D Both 2 and 3 are true

Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
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Profitability for the North Sea operations in 1998 was 20/52 and in the year 1999 was 54/65 . Hence we
can clearly see that the profitibility increased. hence option B.

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73. In 2000, which among the following countries had the best profitability?

A North Africa and Middle East

B Spain

C Rest of Latin America

D Far East
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
NetI ncomeA fterT axes
Profitability = Expenses

In 2000, Spain had the best profitability of 225/43.

Hence option B.
74. If efficiency is defined as the ratio of revenue to expenses, which operation was the least efficient in
2000?

A Spain

B Argentina

C Far East

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
revenue
Efficiency = expenses

In 2000, except Rest of the world, all the other operation have an efficiency of greater than 1.
20
Efficiency of Rest of the Worls = 33 , which is the least.
75. Of the following statements, which one is not true?

A The operations in Spain had the best efficiency in 2000

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 The Far East operations witnessed an efficiency improvement from 1999 to
B 2000

The North Sea operations witnessed an efficiency improvement from 1998 to

C
1999

D In 1998, the operations in Rest of Latin America were the least efficient
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
34
In 1998, the efficiency in Rest of Latin America was 57 .
5 34
In 1998, the efficiency in Rest of the world was 15 , which is less than 57 .
Hence, the efficiency of rest of latin america was not the least.

Instructions [76 - 77 ]
Chart 1 shows the distribution by value of top 6 suppliers of MFA Textiles in 1995.
Chart 2 shows the distribution by quantity of top 6 suppliers of MFA Textiles in 1995.
The total value is 5760 million Euro (European currency). The total quantity is 1.055 million tonnes.

76. The country which has the highest average price is

A USA

B Switzerland

C Turkey

D India
Answer: B

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
The country which has the highest average price would have low quality and high value when compared to
other countries..
Switzerland fits the above description.
Hence, option B is the answer.
77. The average price in Euro per kilogram for Turkey is roughly

A 6.20

B 5.60

C 4.20

D 4.80
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Turkey has a value of 16% and a quantity of 15%.
The average price in Euro per kilogram for Turkey is (16*5.760)/(15*1.055) which is nearly equal to 5.6.
Hence option B.

Instructions [78 - 83 ]
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots
are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH, and AAI.
Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting
one unit from depot to a district.

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78. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district?

A 95.2

B 0

C 205.7

D 284.5
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The least cost of sending one unit is from BC to AC and Then to AAC which is 0 . Hence option B.

79. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB?

A 0

B 284.5

C 95.2

D None of these
Answer: A

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
The least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB is from BD to AE and then from AE
to AAB. The whole cost is 0.
Hence option A.
80. What is the least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district?

A 284.5

B 311.8

C 451.1

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Route for least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district, would be first from BB to AB and
then from AB to AAC.
Hence total cost 311.8 + 0 = 311.8

81. What is the least cost of sending petrol from refinery BB to district AAA?

A 765.6

B 1137.3

C 1154.3

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
From the table, we can observe that the minimum cost of sending oil fro BB to AAA is via AB. Hence the
total cost is 311.8+205 = 516.8

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82. How many possible ways are there for sending petrol from any refinery to any district?

A 63

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B 42

C 54

D 378
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
1 refinery can be selected among 7 in 7 ways, depots can be further selected in 6 ways and any district ca
be selected in 9 different ways.
So, answer is 7*6*9 = 378
83. The largest cost of sending petrol from any refinery to any district is

A 2172.6

B 2193.0

C 2091.0

D None of these
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The costliest route would be from BE to AE then AE to AAH i.e 1157.7+1035.3 = 2193
Instructions [84 - 89 ]
The chart given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in rupees in crores) of seven
states from 1997 to 2001.
The values given at the top of each bar represents the total collections in that year

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84. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax collections, how
many states do not change the ranking more than once over the five years?

A 1

B 5

C 3

D 4
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
We have to consider the ranking of that state that doesn't change throughout or changes only once.
The rankings of the states are as follows:

So, the states West Bengal, Tamil Nau, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh do not change their
rankings more than once. There are 5 states in total under the criteria.

85. Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times when you rank
the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections each year?

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A Andhra Pradesh

B Uttar Pradesh

C Karnataka

D Tamil Nadu
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Ranking of UP changed 2 times which is highest among other states.
86. The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 1997 to 2001?

A Tamil Nadu

B Karnataka

C Gujarat

D Andhra Pradesh
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
49639
The overall revenue has increased by a ratio of 29870 = 1.67.
So, the state whose revenue ratio increases by more than 1.67 is the answer.
Among the given options, only AP's sales tax revenue ratio has increased.
87. Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in Maharashtra?

A 1997 to 1998

B 1998 to 1999

C 1999 to 2000

D 2000 to 2001
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Max growth rate can be calculated by finding percentage growth over previous year.
We can see a significant increase in the year 1999-2000.
10284
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 10284
On calculating the ratio, we get 8067 = 1.275, which is more than any other year.
Hence, 1999-2000 is the answer.

88. Identify the state whose tax revenue increased exactly by the same amount in two successive pair of
years?

A Karnataka

B West Bengal

C Uttar Pradesh

D Tamil Nadu
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Simple calculations show difference in values of sales for karnataka over 2 successive pair of years - 1999-
2000 and 2000-2001 - same.
The increase in 1999-2000 = 4839 - 4265 = 574
The increase in 2000-2001 = 5413 - 4839 = 574
89. Which state below has been maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of its contribution to
total tax collections?

A Andhra Pradesh

B Karnataka

C Tamil Nadu

D Uttar Pradesh
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Tamilnadu has maintaines the ranking of second highest tax revenue throughout the five years.
Hence, option C is the answer.
Instructions [90 - 92 ]
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality, categories and the
regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.

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90. How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of
Crop-3 or Crop-4?

A Zero

B One

C Two

D Three
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
It can be seen that region 9 produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of
Crop-3 or Crop-4.

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91. Which of the following statements is true?

All medium quality Crop-2 producing regions are also high quality Crop-3 producing
A
regions.

All high quality Crop-1 producing regions are also medium and low Crop-4 producing
B
regions.

There are exactly four Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but not Crop-
C
2.

D Some Crop-3 producing regions produce Crop-1, but not high quality Crop-2.
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
High quality crop 2 is produced by R5, R8 and R12.

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None of these regions produce crop 3.
Hence, option D is true.
None of the other options are true.
92. How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or
medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?

A One

B Two

C Three

D Zero
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Take a look at the table,
The low producing areas corresponding to Crop 1 is R9, R10, R11
Now medium yield area corresponding to Crop 3 is R9 and high yield are corresponding to crop 4 is R10
and R11.
Hence all three area are mentioned in the above two categories.
93. In a hockey match, the Indian team was behind by 2 goals with 5 min remaining. Did they win the
match?
A. Deepak Thakur, the Indian striker, scored 3 goals in the last 5 min of the match.
B. Korea scored a total of 3 goals in the match.

A The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Considering statement B there are 2 possible score values before last 5 mins possible. Korea 3:1 India
or Korea 2:0 India. Now considering statement A , in one case India wins (as the score becomes India 4:3
Korea) and in other there is a draw(as the score becomes India 3:3 Korea). Hence, The question cannot be
answered by either of the statements.

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 Enroll To CAT 2023 Comprehensive Course
94. Four students were added to a dance class. Would the teacher be able to divide her students evenly
into a dance team (or teams) of 8?
A. If 12 students were added, the teacher could put everyone in teams of 8 without any leftovers.
B. The number of students in the class earlier was not divisible by 8.

A The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Considering statement A 12 students can be written as 4 students + 8 students. Hence Even if only 4
students are added the teacher can divide students in teams of 8. Now considering statement B , we cant
perfectly tell if after adding teacher can divide in teams of 8 . Hence only A is enough to answer the
question. Hence , The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

95. Is x = y?
A. (x + y)(1/x + 1/y) =4
B. (x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2

A The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: A

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Consider statement 1:(x + y)(1/x + 1/y) =4
(x + y)2 /xy = 4
x2 + y2 + 2xy = 4xy
x2 + y2 + 2xy − 4xy = 0
(x − y)2 = 0
x = y.

Consider statement 2:(x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2

(x-y)(x+y-100) = 0
Either x = y or x+y = 100.
Statement 1 is sufficient whereas statement 2 is not sufficient to answer the question.
96. A dress was initially listed at a price that would have given the store a profit of 20% of the wholesale
cost. What was the wholesale cost of the dress?
A. After reducing the listed price by 10%, the dress sold for a net profit of $10.
B. The dress is sold for $50.

A The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:

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Let the initial selling price be s1 and changed value be s2, also wholesale cost price be c. According to the
given condition we have s1=1.28*c. By statement A we have s2=0.9*s1 and s2-c = 10 . Hence, wholesale
cost price can be found out.
Considering statement B we have just s2=50. Using this we can't find c. Hence, the question can be
answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.

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97. Is 500 the average (arithmetic mean) score in the GMAT?
A. Half of the people who take the GMAT score above 500 and half of the people score below 500.
B. The highest GMAT score is 800 and the lowest score is 200.

A The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Consider statement A alone and assume that half of the people scored 600 and half of the people scored
499, so average is not 500
Also there is a possibility that average can be 500 when half of the people score about 500 and the other
half score below 500.
Hence we won't get unique answer using A.
Consider statement B alone: We can't find average just by knowing the highest and the lowest score.
Even by using both the statements, we cannot find the answer to the question. Option d) is the correct
answer.
98. Is |x - 2| < 1?
A. |x| < 1
B. |x - 1| < 2

A if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

B if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

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 Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Statement A: -1<x<1
-3<x-2<-1
So 1<mod(x-2)<3
It is definitely greater than 1

Statement B: -2<x-1<2
-3<x-2<1
which implies mod(x-2) might be greater than or less than 1

So only one statement is sufficient.

99. People in a club either speak French or Russian or both. Find the number of people in a club who
speak only French.
A. There are 300 people in the club and the number of people who speak both French and Russian is
196.
B. The number of people who speak only Russian is 58.

A if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.

B if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let x,y,z be the no. of people speaking only French, only Russian and both respectively. By statement A we
have x+y+z = 300 and z = 196. Using this we can't find number of people in a club who speak only French.
Now considering statement B we have x = 58. So using both the statements together we can find number
of people in a club who speak only French. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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100. A sum of Rs. 38,500 was divided among Jagdish, Punit and Girish. Who received the minimum
amount?
A. Jadgish received 2/9 of what Punit and Girish received together.
B. Punit received 3/11 of what Jadgish and Girish received together.

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A if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
C
answered by using either statement alone.

D if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Let amount received by Jagdish, Punit and Girish be j,p,g rs. such that j+p+g = 38500. According to
statement A , j= 2*(p+g)/9 . Using this alone we can't answer the question.
Now consider statement B , we have p = 3*(j+g)/11. Using this alone we can't answer the question. But
considering both statements together we can answer the question. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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Verbal
Instructions [101 - 103 ]
Directions for the next 3 questions: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word
from the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the
author’s overall style and meaning when you choose the answers.
Von Nuemann and Morgenstern assume a decision framework in which all options are thoroughly
considered, each option being independent of the others, with a numerical value derived for the utility of
each possible outcome (these outcomes reflecting, in turn, all possible combinations of choices). The
decision is then made to maximize the expected utility. ... 1 ... such a model reflects major simplifications
of the way divisions are made in the real world. Humans are not able to process information as quickly and
effectively as the model assumes; they tend not to think ... 2 ... as easily as the model calls for; they often
deal with a particular option without really assessing its ... 3 ... and when they do assess alternatives, they
may be extremely nebulous about their criteria of evaluation.
101. 1

A Regrettably

B Firstly

C Obviously

D Apparently
Answer: A

 Video Solution

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Explanation:
The first two sentences of the paragraph start of with the description of the Von Nuemann framework on a
positive note. The third sentence, however, points out the flaw in such a framework. The correct word that
goes into the blank 1 is, therefore, 'Regrettably'.

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102. 2

A quantitatively

B systematically

C scientifically

D analytically
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The first part of the sentence, 'Humans are not able to process information as quickly and effectively as the
model assumes;' hints that that the word in the blank should be 'quantitatively'.
103. 3

A implications

B disadvantages

C utility

D alternatives
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The usage of the phrase "particular option" complements the word "alternatives".
Hence, option D is the answer.
Instructions [104 - 106 ]
Directions for the next 3 questions: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word
from the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the
author’s overall style and meaning when you choose the answers.
In a large company, ... 1 ... people is about as common as using a gun or a switch-blade to ... 2 ... an
argument. As a result, most managers have little or no experience of firing people, and they find it
emotionally traumatic; as result, they often delay the act interminably, much as an unhappy spouse will
prolong a bad marriage. And when the firing is done, it’s often done clumsily, with far worse side effects
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 than are necessary. Do the world-class software organizations have a different way of firing people? No,
but they do the deed swiftly, humanely, and professionally. The key point here is to view the fired employee
as a ‘failed product’ and to ask how the process ... 3 ... such a phenomenon in the first place.
104. Fill in the blank at 1.

A dismissing

B punishing

C firing

D admonishing
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The second sentence 'As a result, most managers have little or no experience of firing people,...' gives us
the hint that the word in the first blank should be firing.

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105. Fill in the blank at 2.

A resolve

B thwart

C defeat

D close
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
An argument is resolved and not thwarted or defeated or closed. So, the word in the second blank is
'resolve'.
106. Fill in the blank at 3.

A derived

B engineered

C produced

D allowed
Answer: D

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
According to the statement, a fired employee is a 'failed product' by itself and is not something that has
been produced or trained by the organization. Therefore, a failure of the process is not likely to derive or
engineer or produce such a product but it is likely to allow such a product. Therefore, the correct answer is
'allowed'.
Instructions [107 - 111 ]
Choose the best answer for each question.
The production of histories of India has become very frequent in recent years and may well call for some
explanation. Why so many and why this one in particular? The reason is a two-fold one: changes in the
Indian scene requiring a re-interpretation of the facts and changes in attitudes of historians about the
essential elements of Indian history. These two considerations are in addition to the normal fact of fresh
information, whether in the form of archaeological discoveries throwing fresh light on an obscure period or
culture, or the revelations caused by the opening of archives or the release of private papers. The changes
in the Indian scene are too obvious to need emphasis. Only two generations ago British rule seemed to
most Indian as well as British observers likely to extend into an indefinite future; now there is a teenage
generation which knows nothing of it. Changes in the attitudes of historians have occurred everywhere,
changes in attitudes to the content of the subject as well as to particular countries, but in India, there have
been some special features. Prior to the British, Indian historiographers were mostly Muslims, who relied,
as in the case of Sayyid Ghulam Hussain, on their own recollection of events and on information from
friends and men of affairs. Only a few like Abu’l Fazl had access to official papers. These were personal
narratives of events, varying in value with the nature of the writer. The early British writers were officials. In
the 18th century they were concerned with some aspect of Company policy, or like Robert Orme in his
Military Transactions gave a straight narrative in what was essentially a continuation of the Muslim
tradition. In the early 19th century the writers were still, with two notable exceptions, officials, but they were
now engaged in chronicling, in varying moods of zest, pride, and awe, the rise of the British power in India
to supremacy. The two exceptions were James Mill, with his critical attitude to the Company and John
Marchman, the Baptist missionary. But they, like the officials, were anglo-centric in their attitude, so that the
history of modern India in their hands came to be the history of the rise of the British in India.
The official school dominated the writing of Indian history until we get the first professional historian’s
approach. Ramsay Muir and P. E. Roberts in England and H. H. Dodwell in India. Then Indian historians
trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the
other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr Radhakumud Mukherji, and Professor Nilakanta Sastri. They, it
may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political. Finally have come the
nationalists who range from those who can find nothing good or true in the British to sophisticated
historical philosophers like K. M. Panikker.
Along the types of historians with their varying bias have gone changes in the attitude to the content of
Indian history. Here Indian historians have been influenced both by their local situation and by changes of
thought elsewhere. It is this field that this work can claim some attention since it seeks to break new
ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow in the field of Indian history. The early official
historians were content with the glamour and drama of political history from Plassey to the Mutiny, from
Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to
the less glorious but more solid ground of administration. Not how India was conquered but how it was
governed was the theme of this school of historians. It found its archpriest in H. H. Dodwell, its priestess in
Dame Lilian Penson, and its chief shrine in the Volume VI of the Cambridge History of India. Meanwhile, in
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Britain other currents were moving, which led historical study into the economic and social fields. R. C. Dutt
entered the first of these currents with his Economic History of India to be followed more recently by the
whole group of Indian economic historians. W. E. Moreland extended these studies to the Mughal Period.
Social history is now being increasingly studied and there is also of course a school of nationalist
historians who see modern Indian history in terms of the rise and the fulfilment of the national movement.
All these approaches have value, but all share in the quality of being compartmental. It is not enough to
remove political history from its pedestal of being the only kind of history worth having if it is merely to put
other types of history in its place. Too exclusive an attention to economic, social, or administrative history
can be as sterile and misleading as too much concentration on politics. A whole subject needs a whole
treatment for understanding. A historian must dissect his subject into its elements and then fuse them
together again into an integrated whole. The true history of a country must contain all the features just
cited but must present them as parts of a single consistent theme.
107. Which of the following may be the closest in meaning to the statement ‘restored India to Indian
history’?

A Indian historians began writing Indian history.

B Trained historians began writing Indian history.

Writing India-centric Indian history

C
began.

D Indian history began to be written in India

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines where it is written that "Then Indian Historians trained in the English school joined in, of
whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr.
Radhakumud Mukerji, and Professor Nilakanta Shastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history,
but their bias was mainly political."
Also refer the last lines of the 1st para"But they, like the officials, were anglo-centric in their attitude, so that
the history of modern India in their hands came to be the history of the rise of the British in India."
This clearly indicates option C.

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 Top-500 Free CAT Questions (With Solutions)
108. Which of the following is the closest implication of the statement ‘to break new ground, or perhaps
to deepen a freshly turned furrow’?

A Dig afresh or dig deeper.

B Start a new stream of thought or help establish a recently emerged perspective.

Begin or conduct further work on existing archeological sites to unearth new

C
evidence.

D Begin writing a history free of any biases.

Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The second paragraph is about changes in historians throughout British era. Then author mentioned
historians and their work post British era.
In the third paragraph author mentioned
"Along the types of historians with their varying bias have gone changes in the attitude to the content of
Indian history. Here Indian historians have been influenced both by their local situation and by changes of
thought elsewhere. It is this field that this work can claim some attention since it seeks to break new
ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow in the field of Indian history." Here author mentioned
that modern historians come with varying bias, change in their attitude. This can also result in new or in
depth discoveries, perspectives.
Hence, option B is correct.
Option A is not a complete representation of what author said, or what he intended to. Option B is a closer
implication than option A.
By the line '‘to break new ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow' author do not imply to begin
writing a history free of any biases. It is because of historians free of bias we can find new perspective or
start a new stream of thought. Hence, option D is incorrect.
Between B and C, B is more appropriate as compared to C because option C only talks about further work
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rather than starting from new.
109. Historians moved from writing political history to writing administrative history because

A attitudes of the historians changed.

B the raj was settled down.

C politics did not retain its past glamour.

D administrative history was based on solid ground.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd last para where it is written "The early official historians were content with the glamour
and drama of political history: Plassey to the Mutiny, from Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was
settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to the less glorious but more solid ground of
administration."
Using this line, we can say that option C is the answer.
110. According to the author, which of the following is not among the attitudes of historians mapping
Indian history?

A Writing history as personal narratives.

B Writing history with political bias.

C Writing non-political history due to lack of glamour.

D Writing history by dissecting elements and integrating them again.

Answer: D

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the following lines
"Only a few like Abul Fazl had access to official papers. These were personal narrative of events varying in
value with the nature of the writer."-1st para - This line eliminates Option A.
"Then Indian Historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir
Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr. Radhakumud Mukerji, and Professor
Nilakanta Shastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political."-
2nd para - This line eliminates option B.
"The early official historians were content with the glamour and drama of political history: Plassey to the
Mutiny, from Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and
they turned to the less glorious but more solid ground of administration."-3rd para - This line eliminates
option C.
Option D is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, option D is the answer.

Free CAT Study Material

111. In the list given below, match the historians to the approaches taken by them.
A - Administrative
B -Political
C - Narrative
D - Economic
E - Robert Orme
F - H.H. Dodwell
G - Radha Kumud Mukherji
H - R.C. Dutt

A A - F, B - G, C - E, D - H

B A - G, B - F, C - E, D - H

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C A - E, B - F, C - G, D - H

D A - F, B - H, C - E, D - G
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
"Robert Orme in his Military Transactions gave a straight narrative" => C - E
"Then Indian historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir
Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr Radhakumud Mukherji, and Professor
Nilakanta Sastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political" =>
B-G
"R. C. Dutt entered the first of these currents with his Economic History" => D - H
=> Option A is the answer.
Instructions [112 - 117 ]
There are a seemingly endless variety of laws, restrictions, customs and traditions that affect the practice
of abortion around the world. Globally, abortion is probably the single most controversial issue in the whole
area of women’s rights and family matters. It is an issue that inflames women’s right groups, religious
institutions, and the self-proclaimed ‘guardians’ of public morality. The growing worldwide belief is that the
right to control one’s fertility is a basic human right. This has resulted in a worldwide trend towards
liberalization of abortion laws. Forty per cent of the world’s population live in countries where induced
abortion is permitted on request. An additional 25 per cent live in countries where it is allowed if the
women’s life would be endangered if she went to full term with her pregancy. The estimate is that between
26 and 31 million legal abortions were performed in that year. However, there were also between 10 and 22
million illegal abortions performed in that year.
Feminists have viewed the patriarchal control of women’s bodies as one of the prime issues facing the
contemporary women’s movement. They abserve that the defintion and control of women’s reproductive
freedom have always been the province of men. Patriarchal religion, as manifest in Islamic
fundamentalism,traditionalist Hindu practice, orthodox Judaism, and Roman Catholicism, has been an
important historical contributory factor for this and continues to be an important presence in contemporary
societies. In recent times, govenments, usually controlled by men, have ‘given’ women the right to
contraceptive use and abortion access when their countries were perceived to have an overpopulation
problem. When these countries are perceived to be underpopulated, that right had been absent. Until the
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19th century, a woman’s rights to an abortion followed English common law; it could only be legally
challenged if there was a ‘quickening’, when the first movements of the fetus could be felt. In 1800, drugs
to induce abrotions were widely advertised in local newpapers. By 1900, abortion was banned in every
state except to save the life of the mother. The change was strongly influenced by medical profession,
which focussed its campaign ostensibly on health and safety issues for pregnant women and the sancity
of life. Its position was also a means of control of non-licensed medical practitioners such as midwives
and women healers who practiced abortion.
The anti-abortion campaign was also influenced by political considerations. The large influx of eastern and
southern European immigrants with their large families was seen as a threat to the population balance of
the future United States. Middle and upper-classes Protestants were advocates of abortion as a form of
birth control. By supporting abortion prohibitions the hope was that these Americans would have more
children and thus prevent the tide of immigrant babies from overwhelming the demographic characteristics
of Protestant America.
The anti-abortion legislative position remained in effect in the United States through the first 65 years of
the 20th century. In the early 1960s, even when it was widely known that the drug thalidomide taken during
pregnancy to alleviate anxiety was shown to contribute to the formation of deformed ‘flipper-like’ hands or
legs of children, abortion was illegal in the United States. A second health tragedy was the severe outbreak
of rubella during the same time period, which also resulted in major birth defects. These tragedies
combined with a change of attitude towards a woman’s right to privacy led a number of states to pass
abortion permitting legislation.
On one side of the controversy are those who call themselves ‘pro-life’. They view the foetus as a human
life rather than as an unformed complex of cells; therefore, they hold to the belief that abortion is
essentially murder of an unborn child. These groups cite both legal and religious reasons for their
opposition to abortion. Pro lifers point to the rise in legalised abortion figures and see this as morally
intolerable. On the other side of the issue are those who call themselves ‘pro-choice’. They believe that
women, not legislators or judges, should have the right to decide whether and under what circumstances
they will bear children. Pro-choicers are of the opinion that laws will not prevent women from having
abortions and cite the horror stories of the past when many women died at the hands of ‘backroom’
abortionists and in desperate attempts to self-abort. They also observe that legalized abortion is especially
important for rape victims and incest victims who became pregnant. They stress physical and mental
health reasons why women should not have unwanted children.
To get a better understanding of the current abortion controversy, let us examine a very important work by
Kristin Luker titled Abortion and the Politics of Motherhood. Luker argues that female pro-choice and
prolife activists hold different world views regarding gender, sex, and the meaning of parenthood. Moral
positions on abortions are seen to be tied intimately to views on sexual bahaviour, the care of children,
family life, technology, and the importance of the individual. Luker identified ‘pro-choice’ women as
educated, affluent, and liberal. Their contrasting counterparts, ‘pro-life’ women, support traditional
concepts of women as wives and mothers. It would be instructive to sketch out the differences in the world
views of these two sets of women. Luker examines California, with its liberalized abortion law, as a case
history. Public documents and newspaper accounts over a 26-year period were analysed and over 200
interviews were held withheld with both pro-life and pro-choice activists.
Luker found that pro-life and pro-choice activists have intrinsically different views with respect to gender.
Pro-life women have a notion of public and private life. The proper place for men is in the public sphere of
work; for women, it is the private sphere of the home. Men benefit through the nurturance of women;
women benefit through the protection of men. Children are seen to be the ultimate beneficiaries of this
arrangement of having the mother as a full-time loving parent and by having clear role models. Pro-choice

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advocates reject the view of separate spheres. They object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s
sphere’. Women’s reproductive and family roles are seen as potential barriers to full equality. Motherhood
is seen as a voluntary, not a mandatory or ‘natural’ role. In summarizing her findings, Luker believes that
women become activists in either of the two movements as the end result of lives that centre around
different conceptualizations of motherhood. Their beliefs and values are rooted to the concrete
circumstances of their lives, their educations, incomes, occupations, and the different marital and family
choices that they have made. They represent two different world views of women’s roles in contemporary
society and as such the abortion issues represent the battleground for the justification of their respective
views.
112. According to your understanding of the author’s arguments, which countries are more likely to allow
abortion?

A Over populated countries like India and China

B Underpopulated countries like Australia and Mongolia

C Cannot be inferred from the passage

D Both (1) and (2)

Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 2nd para "In recent times, governments, usually controlled by men, have ‘given’
women the right to contraceptive use and abortion access when their countries were perceived to have an
overpopulation problem, when these countries are perceived to be under-populated, that right has been
absent."
According to this, we can say that option A is the answer.
113. Which amongst these was not a reason for banning of abortions by 1900?

A Medical professionals stressing the health and safety of women

B Influx of eastern and sourthern European immigrants

C Control of unlicensed medical practitioners

D A tradition of matriarchal control

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd para and the 3rd para "The change was strongly influenced by the medical profession,
which focused its campaign ostensibly on health and safety issues for pregnant women and the sanctity of
life. Its position was also means of control of non-licensed medical practitioners such as midwives and
women healers who practiced abortion." "The large influx of eastern and southern European immigrants

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with their large families was seen as threat to the population balance of the future United States."
Options A, B and C are stated in these lines. Hence, option D is the answer.

114. A pro-life woman would advocate abortion if

A the mother of an unborn child is suicidal.

B bearing a child conflicts with a woman’s career prospects.

C the mother becomes pregnant accidentally.

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
In the paragraph, it is not mentioned when the pro-life would advocate abortion.
Hence, none of these is the answer.
115. Pro-choice women object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s sphere’ because they believe

A that home is a ‘joint sphere’ shared between men and women.

that reproduction is a matter of choice for

B
women

C that men and women are equal

D Both (2) and (3)

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the last para where it is written " Pro-choice advocates reject the view of separate
spheres. They object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s sphere’. Women’s reproductive and
family roles are seen as potential barriers to full equality. Motherhood is seen as a voluntary, not a
mandatory or ‘natural’ role."
Both option B and option C are stated in these lines.
Hence, option D is the answer.
116. Two health tragedies affecting the US society in the 1960s led to

A a change in attitude to women’s right to privacy.

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 retaining the anti-abortion laws with some exceptions.
B

C scrapping of anti-abortion laws.

D strengthening of the pro-life lobby.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines "In the early 1960s, even when it was widely known that the drug thalidomide taken during
pregnancy to alleviate anxiety was shown to contribute to the formation of deformed ‘flipper-like’ hands or
legs of children, abortion was illegal in the United States. A second health tragedy combined with a change
of attitude towards a woman’s right to privacy led a number of states to pass abortion-permitting
legislation."
As some abortion permitting laws are passed, it can be inferred that some of the anti abortion laws must
have been scrapped in those states. Hence, option C is the right answer.

Free Videos for CAT Preparation

117. Historically, the pro-choice movements has got support from, among others,

A major patriarchal religions.

B countries with low population density.

C medical profession.

D None of these
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
It is nowhere mentioned in the paragraph about the support of pro-choice group. Likewise, it is mentioned
that the banning of abortion was influenced by medical profession. Patriarchial religions always observed
that the women reproductive freedom is always in the domain of men. Hence the correct answer is option
D.
Instructions [118 - 121 ]
The conceptions of life and the world which we call ‘philosophical’ are a product of two factors: one,
inherited religious and ethical conceptions; the other, the sort of investigation which may be called
‘scientific’, using this word in its broadest sense. Individual philosophers have differed widely in regard to
the proportions in which these two factors entered into their systems, but it is the presence of both, in
some degree, that characterizes philosophy.
‘Philosophy’ is a word which has been used in many ways, some wider, some narrower. I propose to use it
in a very wide sense, which I will now try to explain.
Philosophy, as I shall understand the word, is something intermediate between theology and science. Like
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theology, it consists of speculations on matters as to which definite knowledge has, so far, been
unascertainable; but like science, it appeals to human reason rather than to authority, whether that of
tradition or that of revelation. All definite knowledge, so I should contend, belongs to science; all dogma as
to what surpasses definite knowledge belongs to thelogy. But between theology and science there is a ‘No
man’s Land’, exposed to attack from both sides; this ‘No Man’s Land’ is philosophy. Almost all the
questions of most interest to speculative minds are such as science cannot answer, and the confident
answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing as they did in former centuries. Is the world divided
into mind and matter, and if so, what is mind and what is matter? Is mind subject to matter, or is it
possessed of independent powers? Has the universe any unity or purpose? It is evolving towards some
goal? Are there really laws of nature, or do we believe in them only because of our innate love of order? Is
man what he seems to the astronomer, a tiny lump of carbon and water impotently crawling on a small and
unimportant planet? Or is he what he appears to Hamlet? Is he perhaps both at once? Is there a way of
living that is noble and another that is base, or are all ways of living merely futile? If there is a way of living
that is noble, in what does it consist, and how shall we achieve it? Must the good be eternal in order to
deserve to be valued, or is it worth seeking even if the universe is inexorably moving towards death? Is
there such a thing as wisdom, or is what seems such merely the ultimate refinement of folly? To such
questions no answer can be found in the laboratory. Theologies have professed to give answers, all too
definite; but their definiteness causes modern minds to view them with suspicion. The studying of these
questions, if not the answering of them, is the business of philosophy.
Why, then, you may ask, waste time on such insoluble problems? To this one may answer as a historian, or
as an individual facing the terror of cosmic loneliness.
The answer of the historian, in so far as I am capable of giving it, will appear in the course of this work. Ever
since men became capable of free speculation, their actions in innumerable important respects, have
depended upon their theories as to the world and human life, as to what is good and what is evil. This is as
true in the present day as at any former time. To understand an age or a nation, we must understand its
philosophy, and to understand its philosophy we must ourselves be in some degree philosophers. There is
here a reciprocal causation: the circumstances of men’s lives do much to determine their philosophy, but,
conversely, their philosophy does much to determine their circumstances.
There is also, however, a more personal answer. Science tells us what we can know, but what we can know
is little, and if we forget how much we cannot know we may become insensitive to many things of very
great importance. Theology, on the other hand, induces a dogmatic belief that we have knowledge, where
in fact we have ignorance, and by doing so generates a kind of impertinent insolence towards the universe.
Uncertainty, in the presence of vivid hopes and fears, is painful, but must be endured if we wish to live
without the support of comforting fairy tales. It is good either to forget the questions that philosophy asks,
or to persuade ourselves that we have found indubitable answers to them. To teach how to live without
certainty, and yet without being paralyzed by hesitation, is perhaps the chief thing that philosophy, in our
age, can still do for those who study it.
118. The purpose of philosophy is to

A reduce uncertainty and choas.

B help us to cope with uncertainty and ambiguity.

C help us to find explanations for uncertainty.

D reduce the terror of cosmic loneliness.

Answer: B

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the last lines of the last para "To teach how to live without certainly, and yet without being
paralyzed by hesitation, is perhaps the chief things that philosophy, in our age, can still do for those who
study it."
119. Based on the passage, what can be concluded about the relation between philosophy and science?

A The two are antagonistic.

B The two are complementary.

C There is no relation between the two.

Philosophy derives from

D
science.
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
A and C are incorrect as there are no references to these options.
Between B and D, B is more suitable if we rea the lines of 3rd para " All definite knowledge-so I should

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contend-belongs to science; all dogma as to what surpass definite knowledge to theology. But between
theology and science there is a ‘No man’s Land’ exposed to attack from both sides; this ‘No Man’s Land’ is
philosophy. Almost all the questions of most interest to speculative minds are such as science cannot
answer, and the confident answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing as they did in former
centuries. Is the world divided into mind and matter, and if so, what is mind and what is matter? "

About CAT exam

120. From reading the passage, what can be concluded about the profession of the author? He is most
likely not to be a

A historian.

B philosopher.

C scientist.

D theologian.
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The correct answer is D as the author does not give the positive views about theologians throughout the
passage. For eg. refer to the given lines:"Almost all the questions of most interest to speculative minds are
such as science cannot answer, and the confident answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing
as they did in former centuries." There are many examples in the passage in which the author does not
present the favourable views about theologians.
121. According to the author, which of the following statements about the nature of universe must be
definitely true?

A The universe has unity.

B The universe has a purpose.

C The universe is evolving towards a goal.

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 None of these
D
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 3rd para " Is mind subject matter, or is it possessed of independent powers? Has
the universe any unity or purpose? Is it evolving towards some goal? Are there really laws of nature, or do
we believe in them only because of our innate love of order? "
All options are covered in these lines. According to the author, there are no definite answers to these
questions. Hence, none of these statements is definitely true.
Instructions [122 - 126 ]
Cells are the ultimate multi-taskers: they can switch on genes and carry out their orders, talk to each other,
divide in two, and much more, all at the same time. But they couldn’t do any of these tricks without a power
source to generate movement. The inside of a cell bustles with more traffic than Delhi roads, and, like all
vehicles, the cell’s moving parts need engines. Physicists and biologists have looked ‘under the hood’ of the
cell and laid out the nuts and bolts of molecular engines.
The ability of such engines to convert chemical energy into motion is the envy of nanotechnology
researchers looking for ways to power molecule-sized devices. Medical researchers also want to
understand how these engines work. Because these molecules are essential for cell division, scientists
hope to shut down the rampant growth of cancer cells by deactivating certain motors. Improving motor-
driven transport in nerve cells may also be helpful for treating diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s or
ALS, also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease.
We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t contract. We couldn’t grow
because the growth process requires cells to duplicate their machinery and pull the copies apart. And our
genes would be silent without the services of messenger RNA, which carries genetic instructions over to
the cell’s protein-making factories. The movements that make these cellular activities possible occur along
a complex network of threadlike fibres, or polymers, along which bundles of molecules travel like trams.
The engines that power the cell’s freight are three families of proteins called myosin, kinesin and dynein.
For fuel, these proteins burn molecules of ATP, which cells make when they break down the carbohydrates
and fats from the foods we eat. The energy from burning ATP causes changes in the proteins’ shape that
allow them to heave themselves along the polymer track. The results are impressive: In one second, these
molecules can travel between 50 and 100 times their own diameter. If a car with a five-foot-wide engine
were as efficient, it would travel 170 to 340 kilometres per hour.
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Ronald Vale, a researcher at the Howard Hughes Medical Institute and the University of California at San
Francisco, and Ronald Milligan of the Scripps Research Institute, have realized a long-awaited goal by
reconstructing the process by which myosin and kinesin move, almost down to the atom. The dynein
motor, on the other hand, is still poorly understood. Myosin molecules, best known for their role in muscle
contraction, form chains that lie between filaments of another protein called actin. Each myosin molecule
has a tiny head that pokes out from the chain like oars from a canoe. Just as rowers propel their boat by
stroking their oars through the water, the myosin molecules stick their heads into the actin and hoist
themselves forward along the filament. While myosin moves along in short strokes, its cousin kinesin
walks steadily along a different type of filament called a microtubule. Instead of using a projecting head as
a lever, kinesin walks on two ‘legs’. Based on these differences, researchers used to think that myosin and
kinesin were virtually unrelated. But newly discovered similarities in the motors’ ATP-processing machinery
now suggest that they share a common ancestor — molecule. At this point, scientists can only speculate
as to what type of primitive cell-like structure this ancestor occupied as it learned to burn ATP and use the
energy to change shape. “We’ll never really know because we can’t dig up the remains of ancient proteins,
but that was probably a big evolutionary leap,” says Vale.
On a slightly larger scale, loner cells like sperm or infectious bacteria are prime movers that resolutely push
their way through to other cells. As L. Mahadevan and Paul Matsudaira of the Massachusetts Institute of
Technology explain, the engines, in this case, are springs or ratchets that are clusters of molecules rather
than single proteins like myosin and kinesin. Researchers don’t yet fully understand these engines’ fueling
process or the details of how they move, but the result is a force to be reckoned with. For example, one
such engine is a spring-like stalk connecting a single-celled organism called a vorticellid to the leaf
fragment it calls home. When exposed to calcium, the spring contracts, yanking the vorticellid down at
speeds approaching three inches (eight centimetres) per second.
Springs like this are coiled bundles of filaments that expand or contract in response to chemical cues. A
wave of positively charged calcium ions, for example, neutralizes the negative charges that keep the
filaments extended. Some sperm use spring-like engines made of actin filaments to shoot out a barb that
penetrates the layers that surround an egg. And certain viruses use a similar apparatus to shoot their DNA
into the host’s cell. Ratchets are also useful for moving whole cells, including some other sperm and
pathogens. These engines are filaments that simply grow at one end, attracting chemical building blocks
from nearby. Because the other end is anchored in place, the growing end pushes against any barrier that
gets in its way.
Both springs and ratchets are made up of small units that each move just slightly, but collectively produce
a powerful movement. Ultimately, Mahadevan and Matsudaira hope to better understand just how these
particles create an effect that seems to be so much more than the sum of its parts. Might such an
understanding provide inspiration for ways to power artificial nano-sized devices in the future? “The short
answer is absolutely,” says Mahadevan. “Biology has had a lot more time to evolve enormous richness in
design for different organisms. Hopefully, studying these structures will not only improve our
understanding of the biological world, it will also enable us to copy them, take apart their components and
recreate them for other purpose.”
122. According to the author, one of the objectives of the research on the power source of movement in
cells can is to

A control the movement of genes within human systems.

B understand nano-sized devices better.

C arrest the growth of cells in a human being.

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 develop potential cures for a variety of diseases.
D
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Statements A and B are not given as aims of research on the power source of movement in cells. Hence,
we can eliminate the options.
Refer to the lines:"Because these molecules are essential for cell division, scientists hope to shut down the
rampant growth of cancer cells by deactivating certain motors. Improving motor-driven transport in nerve
cells may also be helpful for treating diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s or ALS, also known as Lou
Gehrig’s disease."
Between C and D, D is directly inferable from the information given above. Option C is incorrect since
arresting the 'growth of cells' is not the same as arresting the 'rampant growth of cancer cells'.

Important Verbal Ability Questions for CAT (Download PDF)

123. The author has used several analogies in the article. Which of the following pairs of words are
examples of the analogies used?
A. Cell activity and vehicular traffic
B. Polymers and tram tracks
C. Genes and canoes
D. Vorticellids and ratchets

A A and B

B B and C

C A and D
D A and C
Answer: A

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 1st para where it is written that "the inside of the cell bustles with more traffic than
Delhi Road".
Also refer to the middle of 3rd para "The movements that make these cellular activities possible occur
along a complex network of threadlike fibers, or polymers, along which bundles of molecules travel like
tram"
124. Read the five statements below: A, B, C, D, and E. From the options given, select the one which
includes a statement that is not representative of an argument presented in the passage.
A. Sperms use spring-like engines made of actin filament.
B. Myosin and kinesin are unrelated.
C. Nanotechnology researchers look for ways to power molecule-sized devices.
D. Motor proteins help muscle contraction.
E. The dynein motor is still poorly understood.

A A, B and C

B C, D and E

C A, D and E

D A, C and D
Answer: A

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd last para " Some sperm use spring like engines made of actin filaments to shoot out a
barb that penetrates the layers that surround an egg." This makes the argument A correct.

Refer to the 4th para "Each myosin molecule has a tiny head that pokes out from the chain like oars from a
canoe. Just as rowers propel their boat by stroking their oars through the water, the myosin molecules
stick their heads into the action and hoist themselves forward along the filament. While myosin moves
along in short strokes, it cousin Kinesin walks steadily along a different type of filament called a
microtubule. Instead of using a projecting head as lever, kinesin walks on two ‘legs’. Based on these
differences, researchers used to think that myosin and kinesin were virtually unrelated. But newly
discovered similarities in the motors’ ATP processing machinery now suggest that they share a common
ancestor-molecule." Hence, we can infer that Myosin and Kinesin are in fact related. Therefore, statement B
is False.

Refer to the 1st line of 2nd para "The ability of such engines to convert chemical energy into motion is the
envy of the nanotechnology researchers looking for ways to power molecule-sized devices."This makes C
correct.
The third para states that "We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t
contract." Hence, statement D is true.
Statement E is directly given in para 4, line 2.
Hence, only statement B is incorrect. Thus, the only option that includes a statement that is not
representative of an argument presented in the passage is option A which includes statement B.
125. Read the four statements below: A, B, C and D. From the options given, select the one which includes
only statements that are representative of arguments presented in the passage.
A. Protein motors help growth processes.
B. Improved transport in nerve cells will help arrest tuberculosis and cancer.
C. Though the smaller units that make up springs move only slightly, they collectively produce
powerful movement.
D. Vorticellid and the leaf fragment are connected by a calcium engine.

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A A and B but not C
B A and C but not D

C A and D but not B

D C and D but not B

Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer 1st lines of 3rd para "We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t
contract. We couldn’t grow because the growth process requires cells to duplicate their machinery and pull
the copies apart "This makes A correct.

Refer to the last para"Both springs and ratchets are made up of small units that each move just slightly, but
collectively produce a powerful movement. Ultimately, Mahadevan and Matsudaira hope to better
understand just how these particles create an effect that seems to be so much more than the sum of its
parts." This makes C correct.

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126. Read the four statements below: A, B, C and D. From the options given, select the one which includes
statements that are representative of arguments presented in the passage.
A. Myosin, kinesin and dynein are three types of protein.
B. Growth processes involve a routine in a cell that duplicates their machinery and pulls the copies
apart.
C. Myosin molecules can generate vibrations in muscles.
D. Ronald and Mahadevan are researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.

A A and B but not C and D

B B and C but not a

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C B and D but not A and C

D A, B and C but not D

Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Refer to the 3rd para"The engines that power the cell’s freight are three families of proteins, called myosin,
kinesin and dynein." It is given that Actin is a protein in the sentence, "Myosin molecules, best known for
their role in muscle contraction, form chains that lie between filaments of another protein called actin".
Hence, argument A is true.
Statement B is given in para 3 in the third line.
Statement C is not given - we know that Myosin causes contractions but not vibrations.
Statement D is not true according to the paragraph.
Instructions [127 - 131 ]
If translated into English, most of the ways economists talk among themselves would sound plausible
enough to poets, journalists, businesspeople, and other thoughtful though non-economical folk. Like
serious talk anywhere — among boat designers and baseball fans, say — the talk is hard to follow when
one has not made a habit of listening to it for a while. The culture of the conversation makes the words
arcane. But the people in the unfamiliar conversation are not Martians. Underneath it all (the economist’s
favourite phrase) conversational habits are similar. Economics uses mathematical models and statistical
tests and market arguments, all of which look alien to the literary eye. But looked at closely they are not so
alien. They may be seen as figures of speech - metaphors, analogies, and appeals to authority.
Figures of speech are not mere frills. They think for us. Someone who thinks of a market as an ‘invisible
hand’ and the organization of work as a ‘production function’ and his coefficients as being ‘significant’, as
an economist does, is giving the language a lot of responsibility. It seems a good idea to look hard at his
language.
If the economic conversation were found to depend a lot on its verbal forms, this would not mean that
economics would be not a science, or just a matter of opinion, or some sort of confidence game. Good
poets, though not scientists, are serious thinkers about symbols; good historians, though not scientists, are
serious thinkers about data. Good scientists also use language. What is more (though it remains to be
shown) they use the cunning of language, without particularly meaning to. The language used is a social

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object, and using language is a social act. It requires cunning (or, if you prefer, consideration), attention to
the other minds present when one speaks.
The paying of attention to one’s audience is called ‘rhetoric’, a word that I later exercise hard. One uses
rhetoric, of course, to warn of a fire in a theatre or to arouse the xenophobia of the electorate. This sort of
yelling is the vulgar meaning of the word, like the president’s ‘heated rhetoric’ in a press conference or the
‘mere rhetoric’ to which our enemies stoop. Since the Greek flame was lit, though, the word has been used
also in a broader and more amiable sense, to mean the study of all the ways of accomplishing things with
language: inciting a mob to lynch the accused, to be sure, but also persuading readers of a novel that its
characters breathe, or bringing scholars to accept the better argument and reject the worse.
The question is whether the scholar- who usually fancies himself an announcer of ‘results’ or a stater of
‘conclusions’ free of rhetoric — speaks rhetorically. Does he try to persuade? It would seem so. Language, I
just said, is not a solitary accomplishment. The scholar doesn’t speak into the void, or to himself. He
speaks to a community of voices. He desires to be heeded, praised, published, imitated, honoured, en-
Nobeled. These are the desires. The devices of language are the means. Rhetoric is the proportioning of
means to desires in speech.
Rhetoric is an economics of language, the study of how scarce means are allocated to the insatiable
desires of people to be heard. It seems on the face of it a reasonable hypothesis that economists are like
other people in being talkers, who desire listeners when they go to the library or the laboratory as much as
when they go to the office or the polls. The purpose here is to see if this is true, and to see if it is useful: to
study the rhetoric of economic scholarship.
The subject is scholarship. It is not the economy, or the adequacy of economic theory as a description of
the economy, or even mainly the economist’s role in the economy. The subject is the conversation
economists have among themselves, for purposes of persuading each other that the interest elasticity of
demand for investment is zero or that the money supply is controlled by the Federal Reserve.
Unfortunately, though, the conclusions are of more than academic interest. The conversations of
classicists or of astronomers rarely affect the lives of other people. Those of economists do so on a large
scale. A well-known joke describes a May Day parade through Red Square with the usual mass of soldiers,
guided missiles, rocket launchers. At last, come rank upon rank of people in grey business suits. A
bystander asks, “Who are those?” “Aha!” comes the reply, ”those are economists: you have no idea what
damage they can do!” Their conversations do it.
127. According to the passage, which of the following is the best set of reasons for which one needs to
‘look hard’ at an economist’s language?
A. Economists accomplish a great deal through their language.
B. Economics is an opinion-based subject.
C. Economics has a great impact on other’s lives.
D. Economics is damaging.

A A and B

B C and D

C A and C

D B and D

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 Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Option A and C are correct.Refer to the words"they think for us" and "giving a language a lot of
responsibility"
128. In the light of the definition of rhetoric given in the passage, which of the following will have the least
element of rhetoric?

A An election speech

B An advertisement jingle

C Dialogues in a play

D Commands given by army officers

Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Option A,B and C clearly qualifies for the rhetoric as they persuade people to be heard.Option D does not fit
the criteria. it is giving orders and not persuading people to be heard.
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 How to prepare for Logical Reasoning for CAT
129. As used in the passage, which of the following is the closest meaning to the statement ‘The culture
of the conversation makes the words arcane’?

A Economists belong to a different culture.

B Only mathematicians can understand economicsts.

Economists tend to use terms unfamiliar to the lay person, but depend on familiar
C
linguistic forms.

D Economists use similes and adjectives in their analysis.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Only option C correctly depicts the meaning of the statement.Rest of the options are deviating."Arcane"
means unfamiliar to the layman. Hence option c correctly depicts the meaning.
130. As used in the passage, which of the following is the closest alternative to the word ‘arcane’?

A Mysterious

B Secret

C Covert

D Perfidious
Answer: A

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  Video Solution

Explanation:
The dictionary meaning of arcane is deceptive.
131. Based on your understanding of the passage, which of the following conclusions would you agree
with?

A The geocentric and the heliocentric views of the solar system are equally tenable.

B The heliocentric view is superior because of better rhetoric.

C Both views use rhetoric to persuade.

D Scientists should not use rhetoric.

Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
If you refer these line:"Since the Greek flame was lit, though, the word has been used also in a broader and
more amiable sense, to mean the study of all the ways of accomplishing things with language: inciting a
mob to lynch the accused, to be sure, but also persuading readers of a novel that its characters breathe, or
bringing scholars to accept the better argument and reject the worse.", it suggests that both views
persuade people through rhetoric.
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 Data Interpretation for CAT Questions (download pdf)
132. Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most
closely matched.
"Measure"
A. Size or quantity found by measuring
B. Vessel of standard capacity
C. Suitable action
D. Ascertain extent or quantity
E. A measure was instituted to prevent outsiders from entering the campus
F. Sheila was asked to measure each item that was delivered.
G. The measure of the cricket pitch was 22 yards.
H. Ramesh used a measure to take out one litre of oil.

A-H, B-F, C-E, D-

A
G

A-G, B-E, C-F, D-

B
H

A-G, B-H, C-E, D-

C
F

A-F, B-H, C-E, D-

D
G
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
In point E, a certain action was taken in order to prevent outsiders from entering the campus. (C-E)
In point F, Sheila had to guage the capacity. "Ascertain extent or quantity" makes a good fit. (D-F)
In point G, the size of cricket pitch was guaged as 22 yards. (A-G)
In point H, Ramesh used a vessel marked with 1 litre capacity to take out the oil. (B-H)

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133. Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most
closely matched.
"Bound"
A. Obliged, constrained
B. Limiting value
C. Move in a specified direction
D. Destined or certain to be
E. Dinesh felt bound to walk out when the discussion turned to kickbacks.
F. Buffeted by contradictory forces he was bound to lose his mind.
G. Vidya's story strains the bounds of credulity.
H. Bound for a career in law, Jyoti was reluctant to study Milton.

A-F, B-H, C-G, D-

A
E

A-E, B-G, C-H, D-

B
F

A-E, B-H, C-F, D-

C
G

A-F, B-G, C-E, D-

D
H
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Point E says Dinesh had to leave walk out due to kickbacks. It was out of constrain by force of necessity.
(A-E)
Point F says it was certain that the contradictory forces would mess up his mind. (D-F)
According to point G, Vidya's story was not readily believable. (B-G)
Point H stresses on Jyoti's affinity towards a career in law, hence she was moving in a specific direction
towards her goal. (C-H)

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134. Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most
closely matched.
"Catch"
A. Capture
B. Grasp with senses of mind
C. Deception
D. Thing or person worth trapping
E. All her friends agreed that Prasad was a good catch.
F. The proposal sounds very good but where is the catch?
G. Hussain tries to catch the spirit of India in this painting.
H. Sorry, I couldn't catch you.

A-H, B-F, C-E, D-

A
G

A-F, B-G, C-E, D-

B
H

A-G, B-F, C-E, D-

C
H

A-G, B-H, C-F, D-

D
E
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Point E says, Prasad is a good catch, meaning a good person worth trapping. (D-E) is a clear match and
hence option D is the answer as it is the only option with (D-E) pair. For reference sake, we'll look at the
other points.
Point F senses a bit of deception as the proposal was too good to not be deceptive. (C-F)
In point G, Hussain tries to capture the spirit of India in his painting. (A-G)
In point H, one person was not able to make out what the other person was trying to say. The word "grasp"
fits in well. (B-H)

Logical Reasoning for CAT Questions (download pdf)

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135. Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most
closely matched.
"Deal"
A. Manage, attend to
B. Stock, sell
C. Give out to a number of people
D. Be concerned with
E. Dinesh insisted on dealing the cards.
F. This contract deals with handmade cards.
G. My brother deals in cards.
H. I decided not to deal with handmade cards.

A-F, B-E, C-G, D-

A
H

A-H, B-G, C-E, D-

B
F

A-F, B-H, C-G, D-

C
E

A-H, B-E, C-G, D-

D
F
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Point E says Dinesh wanted to give out the cards. So (C-E) is a pair.
Point F implies that the contract is related to (concerned with) handmade cards. So, (D-F) is a pair.
From the options, we can see that only B has this combination.

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136. Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most
closely matched.
"Turn"
A. Give new direction to
B. Send
C. Change in form
D. Opportunity coming successively for each person
E. It was now his turn to be angry.
F. Leena never turned away a beggar.
G. Ashish asked Laxman to turn his face to the left.
H. The old school building has been turned into a museum.

A-H, B-E, C-F, D-

A
G

A-G, B-F, C-E, D-

B
H

A-G, B-E, C-F, D-

C
H

A-G, B-F, C-H, D-

D
E
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
In point E, it was his chance to be angry, so E-D is a pair.
Point F means that Leena never sent the beggar away, so F-B is a pair.
In point G, Ashish asked Lakshman to change the direction of his face, so G-A is a pair.
In point H, the school changed its form to a museum, so H-C is a pair.
Option d) is the correct answer.

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137. The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Branded disposable diapers are available at many supermarkets and drug stores.
B. If one supermarket sets a higher price for a diaper, customers may buy that brand elsewhere.
C. By contrast, the demand for private-label products may be less price sensitive since it is available
only at a corresponding supermarket chain.
D. So the demand for branded diapers at any particular store may be quite price sensitive.
E. For instance, only SavOn Drugs stores sell SavOn Drugs diapers.
F. Then stores should set a higher incremental margin percentage for private label diapers.

A ABCDEF

B ABCEDF

C ADBCEF

D AEDBCF
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Among the statements we can see that the AD is the pair as A starts the topic and D continues with saying
that demand is price sensitive asbranded diapers are available at many stores. Also there is visible link
between EF as E gives an example and F continues with saying what should be done if E happens. Hence
correct sequence is ADBCEF.

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138. The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Having a strategy is a matter of discipline.
B. It involves the configuration of a tailored value chain that enables a company to offer unique
value.
C. It requires a strong focus on profitability and a willingness to make tough tradeoffs in choosing
what not to do.
D. Strategy goes far beyond the pursuit of best practices.
E. A company must stay the course even during times of upheaval, while constantly improving and
extending its distinctive positioning.
F. When a company’s activities fit together as a self-reinforcing system, any competitor wishing to
imitate a strategy must replicate the whole system.

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A ACEDBF
B ACBDEF

C DCBEFA

D ABCEDF
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
A introduces the main idea of the para - having a strategy.
C and E extend this idea in that order. So, ACE is a sequence.
DB is a mandatory pair. The 'it' in sentence B refers to 'the strategy' in sentence D.
F is the concluding sentence.
So, the correct order of sentences is ACEDBF.
139. The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. As officials, their vision of a country shouldn’t run too far beyond that of the local people with
whom they have to deal.
B. Ambassadors have to choose their words.
C. To say what they feel they have to say, they appear to be denying or ignoring part of what they
know.
D. So, with ambassadors as with other expatriates in black Africa, there appears at a first meeting a
kind of ambivalence.
E. They do a specialized job and it is necessary for them to live ceremonial lives.

A BCEDA

B BEDAC

C BEADC

D BCDEA

E BCEAD
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Statement B introduces the subject of the paragraph - "Ambassadors". Hence, it should be the opening
sentence of the paragraph.
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The main point of the paragraph is that Ambassadors need to carefully weigh their words so that their
vision is acceptable to the locals of the country.
Statement A says that the ambassador's vision of the country should not run beyond that of the local
people and D adds to this thought by saving as a result of this necessity there is an ambivalence in their
behaviour. C explains how this ambivalence is exhibited by them. Hence, A-D-C are logically connected.
Statement E which introduces the specialized nature of their job acts a connecting line between B and ADC.
Hence, the order is BEADC.
140. The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. “This face-off will continue for several months given the strong convictions on either side,” says a
senior functionary of the high-powered task force on drought.
B. During the past week-and-half, the Central Government has sought to deny some of the earlier
apprehensions over the impact of drought.
C. The recent revival of the rains had led to the emergence of a line of divide between the two.
D. The state governments, on the other hand, allege that the Centre is downplaying the crisis only to
evade its full responsibility of financial assistance that is required to alleviate the damage.
E. Shrill alarm about the economic impact of an inadequate monsoon had been sounded by the
Centre as well as most of the states, in late July and early August.

A EBCDA

B DBACE

C BDCAE

D ECBDA
Answer: D

 Video Solution

Explanation:
E is the opening sentence since it introduces the topic. This is followed by sentence C. The 'two' in C refers
to the 'Center and states' mentioned in E. B-D is a pair. B talks about the actions of Central Government
whereas D contrasts it with the actions of the State Governments. A is the concluding sentence. The
correct order of sentences is ECBDA.

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141. The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. This fact was established in the 1730s by French survey expenditions to Equador near the Equator
and Lapland in the Arctic, which found that around the middle of the earth the arc was about a
kilometer shorter.
B. One of the unsettled scientific questions in the late 18th century was that exact nature of the
shape of the earth.
C. The length of one-degree arc would be less near the equatorial latitudes than at the poles.
D. One way of doing that is to determine the length of the arc along a chosen longitude or meridian
at one degree latitude separation.
E. While it was generally known that the earth was not a sphere but an ‘oblate spheroid’, more curved
at the equator and flatter at the poles, the question of ‘how much more’ was yet to be established.

A BECAD

B BEDCA

C EDACB

D EBDCA
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Statement B is the first sentence of the paragraph. It introduces the topic. This is followed by E, which
dwells more on the 'unsettled scientific questions' talked about in B. Also there is link between statements
E and D as D provides the solution to the question asked in E. This is followed by sentence C and A is the
closing sentence of the paragraph.
Option b) is the correct answer.
142. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is that it is not always a bad thing, but
that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
B. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, it is
the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
C. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but
that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
D. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not it is always a bad thing, but that it
is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.

A A

B B

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C C

D D
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The idiom used in these sentences is “not __, but __”. So, the two phrases that follow ‘not’ and ‘but’ must
be parallel.
In sentence A, the phrase after ‘but’ starts with the subject but the phrase after ‘not’ doesn’t. Hence,
sentence A has a parallelism error. There are no other errors in sentence A. Option A is wrong.
All the options that have the same error can be eliminated. In sentence B, “not that it is” and “but it is” are
not parallel. Hence, option B is wrong.
Similarly, option D is also wrong because the phrases “not it is” and “but that it is” are not parallel.
This error is corrected in option C. “Not that it is” and “but that it is” are parallel and hence option C is the
correct answer.
143. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by
a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by
underhand deals.
B. A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and costs are
artificially escalated with a large number of devices and black money is generated through
underhand deals.
C. A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a
large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand
deals.
D. A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and by
large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand
deals.

A A

B B

C C

D D
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Contractors, bureaucracy and politicians are being talked about for the first time in the sentence. So, the
definite article 'the' should not be placed before any of them. Option b) is the grammatically correct
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sentence.

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144. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create difference of prices at
which goods are traded on the world market and their price within a local market.
B. The distinctive feature of tarriffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference of prices at
which goods are traded with the world market and their prices in the local market.
C. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference between
prices at which goods are traded on the world market and their prices within a local market.
D. The distinctive feature of tarriffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference across
prices at which goods are traded with the world market and their prices within a local market.

A A

B B

C C

D D
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
There are two prices that are being compared - prices at which goods are traded on the world market and
prices at which goods are sold in the local market. So, the difference is created 'between' the two prices.
Also, goods are traded 'on' the world market and not 'with' the world market. So, the grammatically correct
sentence is option c).
145. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. Any action of government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also
reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourage excessive hedging.
B. Any action by government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also
reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourage excessive gambling.
C. Any action by government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also
reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourages excessive gambling.
D. Any action of government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also
reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourages excessive gambling.

A A

B B

C C

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D D
Answer: B

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The correct preposition to be used before government is 'by' and not 'of'. So, options a) and d) are
incorrect.
In the second part of the sentence, which is in simple future tense, the grammatically correct form is
"thereby encourage" and not "thereby encourages". So, option b) is the correct answer.
146. From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Opprobrium: The police officer appears oblivious to the opprobrium generated by his blatantly
partisan conduct.

A Harsh criticism

B Acute distrust

C Bitter enmity

D Stark oppressiveness
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The meaning of 'opprobrium' is 'criticize scornfully'.
Only option a) brings out this meaning. None of the other options are applicable.

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147. From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Portend: It appears to many that the US ‘war on terrorism’ portends trouble in the Gulf.

A Introduces

B Bodes

C Spells

D Evokes
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:

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In the given context, "to portend" is 'to mean' something. It doesn't mean 'to start' something, hence options
A and D can be eliminated. Between "bodes" and "spells", "spells" fits better in this context. Option c) is the
correct answer.
148. From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Prevaricate: When a videotape of her meeting was played back to her and she was asked to explain
her presence there, she started prevaricating.

A Speaking evasively

B Speaking violently

C Lying furiously

D Throwing a tatrum
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
Option A is correct.
'To prevaricate' is 'to mislead deliberately'. In other words, it is to speak evasively.
Other options talk about furiousness and violence, which are wrong in this context.
149. From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Restive: The crowd became restive when the minister failed to appear even by 10 pm.

A Violent

B Angry

C Restless

D Distressed
Answer: C

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The correct option is 'restless'.
'Restive' means impatient or restless and doesn't imply the presence of anger and violence.
So, option c) is the correct answer.

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150. From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Ostensible: Manohar’s ostensible job was to guard the building at night.

A Apparent

B Blatant

C Ostentatious

D Insidious
Answer: A

 Video Solution

Explanation:
The correct option is "apparent".
The meaning of the word 'ostensible' is 'clearly evident' and does not hint any kind of pretense or deceit.
So, the word 'apparent' is the suitable word in this context.
Option a) is the correct answer.

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