Admission Test for Science, Technology, Engineering and

Mathematics (STEM)

ENGLISH

PART 1 – Grammar and Correct Usage

Directions: Fill-in the blanks with the word or phrase that best completes the
sentences. In the Answer Sheet, shade the circle that corresponds to your
correct answer

1. A number of interesting suggestions _____________ been made.

a. has b. have c. were d. would
2. Does your mother _______ adobo?
a. cooked b. cooking c. cooks d. cook
3. ________ you found my book in Social Studies?
a. have b. has c. were d. did
4. Bats spread the seeds of fruits, trees, and flowers.
a. Are they? c. Don’t they?
b. Aren’t they? d. Do they?
5. If I ________ in your shoes, I would accept my parent’s advice.
a. is b. was c. were d. will be
6. Rhododendrons _________ in shady places, and so would azaleas.
a. to grow b. growing c. grown d. grow
7. The news last night _______ incredible.
a. is b. was c. are d. were
8. During the past two years, the number of car accidents _________.
a. have decreased c. has decreased
b. was decreased d. were decreased
9. Turn your books _________ page 168.
a. in b. to c. for d. On
10. Some flowers ________ their richest fragrance at night.
a. give in b. give out c. give up d. give off

Refer to the paragraphs inside the box to answer numbers 15 – 17

 Bats are not the dirty, bloodthirsty monsters that they are
portrayed to be in vampire films. These animals groom themselves
carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the hundreds of
species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat
fruits, insects, spiders, or small animals. They consume on enormous
number of pests, pollinate many varieties of plant life, and help reforest

barren land by excreting millions of undigested seeds.

Almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at
night. As they fly, they emit a series of high – pitched squeaks at the
rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce off objects in
their path, an echo is detected by the bats’ sensitive ears which informs
them of the direction and distance of obstacles so that they can
undertake corrective or evasive action. But bats are not blind as widely
assumed. In fact, all species of bats can see, probably about as well as
human beings.
15. What is the author’s opinion of bats?

a. They are dirty and they carry rabies

b. They are the monsters in vampire films.
c. They are not very important in the animal world.
d. They are clean helpful members of the animal world.
16. According to the passage, how are bats similar to cats?
a. They both carry rabies.
b. Cats groom themselves, and so do bats.
c. Both cats and bats eat pests.
d. Bats use echolocation, and cats do, too.
17. How do bats help reforest the land?
a. By eating pests.
b. By excreting seeds.
c. By taking evasive action.
d. By hanging upside down in trees at night.

Items 18 - 20 refer to the paragraph in the box.

1. Some say that gift – giving is a luxury. 2. But when one

looks at the idea more seriously, he will realize that gift –
giving is a necessity. 3. Persons who never share with
others have shrivelled hearts. 4. They are not happy.

18. He/one in sentence (2) refers to:

a. Some b. Gift c. Idea d. One
19. They in sentence (4) refers to:
a. Gifts b. Hearts c. Others d. Persons
20. Which of the following words is not similar in meaning with shrivelled?
 a. unsullied b. withered c. shrunken d. desiccated

PART 2 – Error Analysis

Directions: In questions 1 – 10 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases marked
A,B,C,D. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be correct. In your answer sheet, shade the circle that need to be changed to make
your answer correct.

1. A triathlon with its combination of swimming, bicycling, and running is

A B C
one of the most challenging sport events.
D
2. The rise and fall of the tide are due to lunar influence.
A B C D
3. Neither the witnesses nor the police office know who caused the accident.
A B C D
4. The President surrounded by reporters from all the major newspapers
A B
describe the growing crisis.
C D
5. The number of teeth an average person have are thirty-two.
A B C D
6. The production of different kinds of artificial materials are essential to the
A B
conservation of our natural resources.
C D
7. One of the native orchids were cultured by the Bureau of Plants last year.
A B C D
8. Data is quickly updated by the researcher in the computer for
A B C
interpretation and analysis.
D
9. Amazingly a four- year old boy won in the national chess tournament.
A B C D
10. Most of the group finds they can eat and play word game puzzle at the
A B C D
same time.

PART 3 – Word Analogy

Directions: Each question below consist of a related pair of

words/phrases followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the letter
of the word pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that
expressed in the original pair. Shade the letter of the best answer.
 1. SNAKE : REPTILE
a. dendrobium : orchid c. tree : coconut
b. bird : feathers d. dog : rabies
2. CLOCK : TIME
a. watch : wrist c. yardstick : distance
b. hourglass : sand d. radio : sound
3. HONE : SHARPEN
a. polish : shine c. erode : wash
b. whet : blunt d. varnish : stick
4. GAGGLE : GEESE
a. coop : chickens c. gill : fish
b. muzzle : dogs d. swarm : bees
5. JUDGE : GAVEL
a. carpenter : chisel c. teacher : lesson
b. doctor : hospital d. plumber : pipe
6. BLOW : BLOWN
a. do : does c. bite : bitten
b. drink : drank d. write : written
7. VAGUE : CLEAR
a. dry : produce c. tough : strengthen
b. disguise : recognize d. modest : boast
8. FAWN : DEER
a. kangaroo : joey c. cub : lion
b. beak : bird d. mare : horse
9. LAWYER : COURTROOM
a. patient : ward c. office : employee
b. prison : jail d. classroom : teacher
10. CURIOSITY : KNOW

Study the entries in the card catalog below and answer questions 12 -13

Philippines – Social Life and Customs

HN Reyes, Alfonso D.
713 The Philippine Poor I, (2 monographs)
I 58 Ateneo de Manila University, 2007
2007
v. 14 c. 2007

12. What type of card catalog is given above?

 a. Title card c. Author card
b. Subject card d. Cross reference card
13. What is the call number of the book?
a. c.2007 c. 2
b. HN d. 2007
713 v.14
I 58
14. If you want to know the correct pronunciation and the etymology of the word
reservoir, which of the following reference materials will you use?
a. atlas c. dictionary
b. almanac d. encyclopedia

PART 4 – Vocabulary
Directions: Choose the word that has most nearly the same meaning as the italicized word.
Shade the circle in your answer sheet which corresponds to the letter of your correct choice.
1. bashful lady
a. proud b. shy c. fresh d. lively
2. rare bird
a. unique b. often c. sick d. unusual
3. accumulated carcinogens
a. collected b. dispersed c. combined d. built up
4. immense land
a. vast b. rich c. isolated d. measurable
5. Hamlet’s soliloquy
a. Song b. oration c. monologue d. dialogue
6. nebulous ideas
a. distinct b. clear c. vague d. precise
7. nocturnal animals
a. wild b. sleepless c. insomniac d. night-animal
8. discrepancy in the amount
a. accuracy b. boundary c. difference d. inconsistency
9. qualms of conscience
a. fears b. forgiving c. powers d. bitterness
10. debilitating disease
a. contagious b. serious c. weakening d. severe
PART 5 – Reading Comprehension
1. What figure of speech is expressed in the given statement?
The earth is like a huge ball.
a. Alliteration c. Simile
 b. Metaphor d. Personification
2. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below?
The wind stood up and gave a shout.
a. Hyperbole c. Irony
b. Personification d. Simile
3. Marbyleine did not know how to write a book report in English. Nora offered to
guide her in doing the report. So, Marbyleine was able to come up with a good
project. What might happen next?
a. Nora was very happy. c. Both of them were happy.
b. Marbyleine was happy. d. None of them was happy.
Directions: Each sentence below, when put in the correct order, would make a well-
organized paragraph. Decide on the correct order of the sentences and then answer the
questions that follow.
Refer to Box A to answer number 4.

Box A
I. Marby is a very good student
II. She even goes to the library and consults reference materials.
III. Thus, her grades are very high.
IV. She plans her work well and does her homework daily.

4. Which sentence should come first?

a. I b. II c. III d. IV
Refer to Box B to answer number 5 – 6.

Box B
I. Transport ten (10) seedlings in each plot.
II. Put twenty (20) okra seeds on the pan with soil.
III. After a week, choose the healthy seedlings.
IV. Water the seeds on the pan with soil everyday.

5. Which sentence should come first?

b. I b. II c. III d. IV
6. Which sentence should be the last?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV

Refer to Box C to answer number 7.

Box C
 I. The head of most adult insects has two large compound eyes
and two or three small simple eyes.
II. Ordinarily, the thorax bears three pairs of legs.
III. The body of an adult insect is subdivided into a head, a thorax
of three segments, and a segmented abdomen.
IV. One or more pairs of wings may be attached to the thorax.

7. Which of the following information describe the anatomy of insects?

A. I B. II c. III d. IV

8. Which statement best explains the relationship between the ecosystem and the
words biotic and abiotic?
a. Ecosystem interacts with the two components.
b. Ecosystem is a part of the biotic components.
c. Biotic components are needed by the abiotic components.
d. Biotic and abiotic components are parts of an ecosystem.

Study the outline below and answer questions 9 -11

I. Functions of Blood
a. Carrier of food, wastes, hormones, antibodies, and gases
b. Regulator of body temperature
II. Components of Blood
a. Liquid part
1. Plasma
b. Solid parts
1. White blood cell
2. Red blood cell
3. Platelet

9. What type of outline is presented above?

a. word outline c. clausal outline
b. topic outline d. sentence outline
10. How are the main headings of the outline presented?
a. by using capital letters c. by using Arabic numbers
b. by using Roman numbers d. by using lower case letters

11. Which of the following could be a possible title for the given outline?
a. The Functions of Blood
b. The Components of Blood
c. Blood: The River of Life
d. Blood: Its Functions and Compositions
Admission Test for Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics
(STEM)
 SCIENCE

Choose the option most appropriate for each of the given statements. Shade the
corresponding letter in the answer sheet.

1. Global warming is an environmental problem being brought about by activities of

human beings that change the quality of air. This may result to the following
EXCEPT
a. Extreme rise in temperature due to release of trapped methane gas and
glacier retreat
b. Having dry season to most parts of the earth through the years
c. Spread of tropical diseases due to constant migration of insects
d. Rising of sea levels and flooding of coastal cities
2. Which of the following is a chain effect of coral reef destruction?
a. Decrease in fish population → decrease in marine plants → economic
problem
b. Decrease in marine plants → decrease in fish population → economic
problem
c. Increase in marine plants → increase in fish population → ecological
imbalance
d. Decrease in fish population → increase in marine plants → ecological
imbalance
3. Your aquarium has clean water. The fishes do not lack the high – protein food. But
fish keep dying. What is the best thing to do?
a. Put more water plants.
b. Place a powerful aerator.
c. Decrease the number of fish.
 d. Move the aquarium to a sunny place
4. Which of the following does NOT happen when the stomata are open?
a. The water produced during photosynthesis leaves the leaf.
b. The oxygen gas produced in photosynthesis leaves the leaf.
c. The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis enters the leaf.
d. The nitrogen compounds needed for photosynthesis enters the leaf.
5. Hydrilla sprig was placed on each of the two test tubes with water. Test tube A was
placed directly under the sun while test tube B was located in a shaded area. The
number of bubbles released by each sprig was counted.

The result is as presented below:

Test Tube Location No. of bubbles in 1 minute
A Under the sun 75
B Shaded area 40

What conclusion can be derived from the given set of data?

a. Sunlight changes water to gas
b. Sunlight increases photosynthesis
c. Photosynthesis changes CO to O
d. Hydrilla sprig changes water to gas
6. Referring to the illustration below, if the seed germinates, which structure will
develop into a young plant?

a. W b. X c. Y d. Z
7. Sterile nutrient agar is placed in each of four sterile petri dishes. The substances
listed below were added to each dish. They were then placed in a warm place for 2
to 3 days. In which dish would NO microorganisms be growing?
a. Roasted soil , milk
b. Roasted soil, aquarium tank water
c. Fresh soil, boiled milk
d. Roasted soil, boiled water
 8. Given below is the relative number of individuals in some countries. Based on the
data, what can be predicted of each country’s population growth? The population
of
a. United States is most likely to grow rapidly; the Democratic Republic of
Congo will grow slowly while Germany may have a declining population
b. The Democratic Republic of Congo will undergo a rapid growth, slow for
the United States and a decline for Germany.
c. United States and the Democratic Republic of Congo are most likely to
grow rapidly but that of Germany may undergo a decline
d. United States and the Democratic Republic of Congo may undergo a rapid
growth while that Germany is likely to grow slowly.
9. Reading the labels of two sweetened macapuno bottles, you learned that the content
of A has food additives while B has only natural ingredients. Which of the two will
you buy?
a. Macapuno B because it will not have harmful effect on the body.
b. Macapuno A because it will not be spoiled at once.
c. Macapuno A because it will be more delicious.
d. Macapuno B because it will have a natural taste.

10. Referring to the figure below, which statement is true of the systems?

X Y Z
a. System Y is a fluid. X is a solid and Z is plasma
b. System X will diffuse fastest, followed by Y and then by X
c. System Z has strong force of attraction, followed by Y and the
least is X.
d. System X has definite shape, Y has definite volume, Z has no
definite shape and volume.

11. You need 10 ml of water in an activity, if all the given measuring

instruments are available, which do you have to use?
a. 25 mL beaker c. 50 mL beaker
 b. 25 mL graduated cylinder d. 50 mL graduated cylinder
12. Aside from electrical conductivity, copper wire is preferably used in
electrical connections because of which property of matter?
a. malleability c. ductility
b. elasticity d. durability
13. One teaspoon of sugar can sweeten a cup of coffee here on earth. When
at the moon, one will need how much sugar to sweeten a cup of coffee?
a. Greater than one teaspoon of sugar.
b. Lesser than one teaspoon of sugar.
c. Equal to one teaspoon of sugar.
d. Difficult to tell.
14. Mixtures that are being stirred dissolve faster than mixtures that are not
stirred. Which of the following factors can explain it?
a. exposed surface area c. kind of solvent
b. size of the solute particles d. temperature due to stirring
15. Kent’s classmate showed him a 3cm³ sample of yellow solid with a mass
of 26.7 g which he assumed to be gold. Is the assumption correct?
a. No, because its density is not equal to that of gold (19.3g/cm³)
b. No, because its being gold is merely an assumption.
c. Yes, because its color is the color of gold and it is a solid like gold.
d. Difficult to tell because the data is not enough to make a decision.
16. Which of the following processes CANNOT help you identify
whether a liquid is pure water or a solution?
I. Measuring its boiling and melting temperatures.
II. Observing the phase, color, odor or taste
III. Separating the components through physical means

a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I, II, III

17. Among the given pie charts, which correctly represents the components of air?
 Other gases
Other gases

Other gases Other gases

gasesgases

18. Ice cubes become liquid water when taken out of the refrigerator. The
process involved is _______________.
a. melting c. evaporation
b. liquefaction d. dissolving
19. Unlike physical change where the characteristics of the materials are
retained, chemical change results to the formation of a new substances with
properties different from the original material/s. This is due to the
a. production of new atoms c. formation of new ions
b. re-arrangement of particles d. production of gas
20. When you see bubbles on the bowl of soup which had been left on the
table for one night, you may infer that
a. the liquid component of the soup is evaporating.
b. physical change is taking place in the soup
c. the soup is undergoing chemical change
d. air is dissolved in the soup
21. SO from burnt fossil fuels reacts with water in the air forming acid
rain. Which is NOT an effect of acid rain to the environment? It may
a. cause chemical weathering.
b. Decrease the fish population.
c. Cause the formation of smog.
d. Result to the deterioration of buildings and other structures

22. Physical change is shown in which of the following situations?

a. salt making c. broiling fish
b. frying egg d. curdling of milk
23. Solution is a mixture which is formed when one matter dissolve and
mixes homogeneously with another matter. Which of the following
is NOT a solution?
a. seawater c. sandwich spread
b. soft drinks d. 14K gold
 24. If each arrow stands for a force, at which of the following situations
will the block NOT move?
a. C.

b. d

25. With the strong gravitational attraction between the earth and the sun, the
earth would be drawn close to the sun. What prevents it from happening?
a. The inertial force due to the earth’s circular motion around the sun.
b. The repulsive force between the poles of the sun and the earth.
c. The momentum caused by the earth’s rotation in its axis.
d. The gravitational attraction from other planets.
26. A non-magnetic piece of iron is placed within the magnetic field of a strong
magnet as shown below.
1 2

N S

Which is true of the piece of iron?

a. It becomes magnetic with end 1 as the S-pole and end 2 as the N-pole
b. It becomes a magnet with end 1 as the N-pole and end 2 as the S-pole
c. It is just attracted to the magnet without a change in itself
d. Nothing happened to the piece of iron
27. Jaybee kick a ball on a level sidewalk. It rolls to a stop after sometime
because
a. no force is acting on the ball
b. gravity pulls the ball down
c. inertia at rest is acting on the ball
d. friction slows the ball down
28. Bikers apply grease to the gears of bicycle to
a. reduce friction c. avoid accident
b. increase acceleration d. facilitate easy turn in the curve
29. Liquid pressure refers to the force exerted by the liquid in every unit area of
the container’s surface usually due to its weight. Four containers of the
same height but with different shapes and sizes as shown in the figure are
filled with tap water
A B C D
 What can be said of the liquid pressure acting on each container’s bottom?
Liquid pressure is
a. greatest at container A and least at container B
b. greatest at container B and least at container A
c. least at container A and greatest at container C
d. equal for all the containers
30. A satellite is moving with a constant speed in its orbit around the earth. The
satellite is
a. in uniform motion c. negatively accelerating
b. constantly accelerating d. positively accelerating
31. The following situations show that work is done on an object other than
oneself EXCEPT in
a. carrying a 50 N lap top to a distance of 100 m
b. going up a flight of stairs with a backpack
c. lifting a bag of grocery up a jeep
d. pushing a table across the room
32. Two identical boxes are to be placed into the back of a truck. John directly
lifts his box from the ground and up into the truck while Melvin wheels it up a ramp
into the truck with the use of a trolley. Compare the amount of work done by John
and Melvin on the box.
a. John did more work on the box than Melvin
b. Melvin did more work on the box than John
c. Melvin did no work on the box. It’s only John who did
d. John and Melvin did the same amount of work on the box
33. Mechanical Advantage (MA) tells us the benefit we get from a machine. An
inclined plane helps us do work by multiplying our force. An inclined
plane will have a Mechanical Advantage of 1 if it is ______________ .
a. rough c. twice the height an object is to be lifted
b. positioned vertically d. positioned horizontally
34. Levers are of three classes. All EXCEPT one are first class levers. Which is
the exception?
a. pair of scissors c. can opener
b. nail cutter d. nut cracker
35. Which of the following situations illustrates the direct transformation of
potential to kinetic energy?
a. A tank is being filled with water
b. An arrow is released mechanical from a bow
c. The driver steps on the brakes of the car
d. The spring of a mechanical toy car is being turned
36. Which energy transformation is true for a battery operating toy car?
 a. electrical to mechanical to sound energy
b. chemical to mechanical to sound energy
c. electrical to mechanical to heat and sound energy
d. chemical to electrical to mechanical and sound energy
37. In a power plant the energy from fuel is converted into electrical energy
through a series of energy transformation. Which of the following is an
unavoidable effect of this technology?
a. The high cost of technology is added to the daily expenses of the consumer
thereby resulting to economic problem
b. The technology serves as a vehicle for changes in the values and lifestyle
of the people especially the young ones
c. It develops negative tendencies among the people like over dependency on
whatever is available around
d. The series of processes involved in the technology causes environmental
problems
38. When toasting bread in an oven toaster the energy from the bulb transfers to
the bread through
a. conduction c. radiation
b. convection d. transformation
39. The advantage of a parallel circuit over a series circuit is that in parallel
Circuit
a. a minimal amount of wire is used
b. all bulbs burn at their brightest
c. current flowing along the bulbs are the same
d. less amount of electrical energy is consumed
40. Which describes the early life forms on earth?
a. They were unicellular
b. They merely occupied the land
c. They were simple plants and fungi
d. They belong to the family of dinosaurs
41. Soil is formed through weathering of rocks. Which type of rock probably
existed first starting the soil formation and the rock cycle?
a. Igneous c. sedimentary
b. Metamorphic d. any of the above
42. Which type of rocks enables us to trace the history of our past?
a. extrusive igneous rocks c. metamorphic rocks
b. intrusive igneous rocks d. sedimentary rocks
43. What makes the inner core of the earth solid while the outer core is liquid?
The inner core is
a. subjected to a greater pressure than the outer core.
b. made up of metals while the outer core is not.
c. of lower temperature than the outer core.
d. thicker than the outer core.
44. When the air temperature in a certain area is high, the pressure is low and the
 relative humidity is high, it can be expected that
a. the weather will be fair. c. there will be a thunderstorm
b. there will be rain. d. there will be a typhoon.
45. At high noon, it is refreshing to stay in the water than at the beach because
the sand is so hot whereas in the evening it is preferable to stay in the
water because the land is too cold. This shows that
I. land cools faster than the water.
II. water heats up faster than land.
III. during daytime the pressure on land is higher than at the water.
IV. land absorbs heat faster than the water.
a. I and II are correct c. I and IV are true
b. II and IV are true d. II and III are correct
46. Based on the situation given at item number 45, the air pressure above the
land and sea at noon is/are
a. Both high c. high for the land; low for the sea
b. Both low d. low for the land; high for the sea
47. The earth’s rotation on its tilted axis gave rise to the occurrence of alternating
day and night. What would have happened if the earth’s axis is not tilted?
a. Some places would just have daytime while others, only night time.
b. Some places may have very long nights and very short days
while others would have the reverse.
c. The days and nights throughout the globe would always be of
equal length.
d. The length of day and night would just be the same as when the
axis is tilted.
48. Arrange the jumbled statements given below. Based on the arranged
statements which order of weather elements leads to the development of
typhoon?
I. Great difference in pressure triggers strong wind movement.
II. High temperature causes ocean water to become very warm
III. Energy from warm water develops a low pressure area
IV. Continuous wind motion develops a storm
a. Temperature; Wind movement; Pressure; Storm
b. Temperature; Pressure; Wind movement; Storm
c. Pressure; Temperature; Wind movement; Storm
d. Pressure; Wind movement; Temperature; Storm
49. A total solar eclipse can occur only when the
a. earth is between the sun and the moon
b. moon is between the sun and the earth
c. moon is at right angle with
50. All of the following statements except one describes Venus as a planet.
Which is the EXCEPTION?
a. Venus shines brightly because it is covered with clouds that reflect about
80% of the sunlight
 b. The rotation of Venus is opposite the direction of its revolution.
c. One day in Venus is longer than a Venus year.
d. When at the right of the sun, Venus appears as the morning star and as
evening star when at the left of the sun.
51. Based on the diagrammed of the relative position of the sun (S), Earth (E) and moon (M),
at which position is spring tide most likely to occur?
I II

S E M S M E

III IV M

S E S E

a. I only c. I and II
b. IV only d. III and IV
52. The figure below shows the sun, the earth and the moon at its four major
positions. Which of the statements below can be explained through the
figure? M

SUN M E M

I.There is no eclipse during quarter phases

II. Only one phase of the moon can be seen on Earth
III. The variations in the apparent shape of the moon at different
phases
IV. The great difference in the height of the water levels during
spring and neap tides

a. I only b. I & IV c. I,III & IV d. I,II,III,IV

53. Which of the following is true of the color and brightness of a star ?
a. A blue star means it is very near to us while a bright star means
it produces much light
b .A red star is a cooler star while a star far from us seems not
 so bright
c. A giant star is a bright blue star while a dwarf is a dull yellow star
d. Distance, size and amount of light have nothing to do with the
brightness and color of the star
54. Organisms vary according to what food they eat and how they eat it. Which
of the following combinations is NOT true?
a. python; wild pig; movable jaws
b. moth; plant parts; proboscis
c. frog; insects; rolled tongue
d. bird; insects; beak
55. A duckling requires a high food intake to support its fast rate of growth while
a germinating seed slowly takes in the nutrients available at the stored
food to sustain its growth. From the situation, it can be best inferred that
a. Living things need food to grow.
b. The food intake of living things depends on their rate of growth.
c. The rate of growth of living things is affected by its food intake.
d. The amount of food to be taken in by living things has no relation to
its growth but to its size.
56. Removal of wastes is essential in maintaining body functions. Which group
of systems helps the body remove wastes?

Admission Test for Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics

(STEM)
 MATHEMATICS

DIRECTIONS: Answer each problem with any of the four given choices A, B, C and D.
On your Answer Sheet, blacken the circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.
.
1. Which is the greatest common divisor of 16, 48 and 54?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
2. Which sign is appropriate in the blank? 1.085 ______ 1.086
a. > . b. < c. = d. ≡
3. Which of the figures below is NOT a polygon?
a. b. c. d.

4. Which of the triangles is of the same shape but of different size as the given triangle
below?

a. b. c. d.

5. What must be the value of n in n x 75 = 5625

 a. 95 b. 73 c. 75 d. 83

6. Which of the following sentences is true?

a. -15 > 5 b -.4 = 4 c. 8 > - 800 d. - 13 > 3
b. a circle with a diameter of 4.5 centimeters
c. a circle with an area of 3 square centimetres
d. a circle with an area of 8 square centimetres
7. Of the 12 300 students enrolled in the National High School,
6 795 were girls. How many were boys?
a. 5 505 b. 5 405 c. 5 455 d. 5 055
8. How many bottles can be filled out of 50 liters of cooking oil if each bottle
contains 0.25 liter?
a. 2 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2. 000
9. What is the average score if the scores are 81 in Math, 87 in Science, 86 in
Reading and 82 in English?
a. 82 b. 83 c. 84 d. 85

Using the graph below, answer question 10 – 11

10. Which ranking is in increasing order?

a. 1st year – 2nd year – 3rd year – 4th year
b. 2nd year – 3rd year – 4th year – 1st year
c. 3rd year – 4th year – 1st year – 2nd year
d. 4th year – 3rd year – 2nd year 1st year
11. What percentage of the total enrolment are fourth-year students?
 a. less than 50% c. 150%
b. more than 50% d. 200%
12.If candies are sold at 3 pieces for P2.00, how much will be paid for 2½
dozens of candies?
a. P10.00 b. P20.00 c. P30.00 d. P40.00
13. A farmer will enclose a rectangular portion of his field. If the enclosure is
120 meters long and 50 meters wide, with a two-meter opening allotted for
the entrance, how many meters of fencing will he use?
a. 340 b. 338 c. 170 d. 168
14. A circle has a circumference of 14Ӆ. Find its diameter
a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 28
15. What is the value of (-3)³ + (-5)²?
a. 19 b. 16 c. -1 d. -2
16. What is the sum of 2.3 x 10² and 3.5 x 10³
a. 580 b.2 650 c. 3 730 d. 5 800
17. How many squares are in the figure at the right?

a. 11 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8
18.Which graph represents the solution set of the inequality
3x ≤ 6?
a. b.
• •
_____________________ _____________________
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
c. d.
• •
______________________ ________________________
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4

19.The units digit of the number 12343t is unknown. If the number is

divisible by 3, how many possible values of t are there?
a. 1 b.2 c. 3 d. 4
20. 24 – 120 ÷ (2 + 4 x 2) = ?
 a. 2 b. 6 c. 10 d. 12
21. 635 is between what two integers?
a. 19 and 21 c. 23 and 25
b. b. 21 and 23 d. 25 and 27
22. How many positive integers are between 8 and 108 ?
a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
23.What value of n will make 4: n = n : 16?
a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16
24.What is the next number in the sequence: 81, 9, 64, 8, 49, ___?
a. 10 b. 9 c. 8 d. 7
25.What is the value of x in the sequence: 1 , 1 x 1 , 1
2 4 16 32
a. 1 b. 1 c. 1 d. 1
6 8 10 12
26.Which cannot be the value of x²?
a. 121 b. 132 c. 169 d. 196
27.When x = 2, y = - 1 and z = ½ , what is the value of -(5x³y²z)?
a. – 40 b. – 20 c. 20 d. 40
28.If a and b are both not zero and 6 = 15, then b is equal to
a b a
a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 90
90 5 2
•
• • •
• • • • • •
• • • • • • • • • •
1 3 6 10
29. The configurations above illustrate why the numbers 1, 3, 6, 10 are called
triangular numbers. Following the number sequence or the configuration,
what is the eight triangular number in this pattern?
a. 34 b. 36 c. 38 d. 40
30. If 3 of a number is 18, what is 1∕ 4 of the number?
2
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12
31.The sum of 2 3 and a number is 10 1. What is the number?
5 2
a. 8 9∕10 b. 9 7∕10 c. 79∕10 d. 131∕10
32.CJ has a total of 17 white and red shorts. The probability for each day that
he is wearing a white short is 8:17. How many red shorts does he have?
a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
33.Boy X is twice as old as Boy Y. The sum of their ages is 24. How old is
Boy Y?
a. 16 b. 12 c. 8 d. 6
34. What is the equivalent decimal of ½ ?
a. 0.5 b. 0.05 c. 0.2 d. 0.12
35.Which of the following has the greatest reciprocal?
a. 1 b. 2 c.3 d. 4
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5

36.Which of the following sentences is NOT true?

a. (3 -3) ÷ 3 = 0 c. 3 x (3 – 3) = 0
b. (3 – 3) x 3 = 0 d. 3 + ( 3- 3) = 0
37.Which property is NOT illustrated in the statement
1•0 = 0•1 = 0
a. Associative c. Commutative
b. Closure d. Identity

Below is the graph showing how Rio – Benn spent the allowance given
by his parents

38.If Rio-Benn had an allowance of 1250.00 for the week, how much was
spent for transportation?
 a. P300.00 c. P375.00
b. P350.00 d. P400.00
39.If on a day, he spent P125.00 for his lunch. What percent of his food
allowance was spent?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30%
40. How much more is the allotment for food than transportation?
a. P225.00 c. P275.00
b. P250.00 d. P300.00
41.What is 15% of ½ of 4800?
a. 2 400 b. 1 200 c. 720 d. 350
42.There are 320 items in an entrance exam. If Clara had answered 87.5% of
it, how many items did she fail to answer?
a. 280 b. 140 c. 40 d. 20
43. In a department store sale, 20% discount was given to all items worth
P500.00 and below. Peona paid P384.00 for a blouse. What was the
original price of the blouse?
a. P450.00 b. P440.00 c. P470.00 d. P480.00
44.There are 21 girls for every 25 boys in a group. How many girls are there
if there are 125 boys in group C?
a. 100 b. 105 c. 110 d. 115
45.The population of rats in a city doubles every six months. If the current
population is 65 536.
a. 1 024 b. 4 096 c. 8 192 d. 16 384
46. A rectangular can which is 6 inches long and 5 inches wide
contains water. When a stone was dropped in it, water rose by 2
inches. What could be the volume of the stone?
a. 30 in³ b. 40 in³ c. 50 in³ d. 60in³
47.If the side of the square measures 4 units, what is the ratio of the
area of the shaded region to the area of the unshaded region

a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:3 d. 2:3

48. What is the largest circle that can be cut out of a square paper
 whose area is 9 square centimetres?
a. a circle with a radius of 1½ centimeters
49. Which set of solids are ALWAYS similar
i. set of balls of different sizes
ii. set of cubes of different edges

a. only i b. only ii c. both i and ii d. neither i nor ii

50. Which can store the greatest volume of water?
a. A container 7 in. by 10in. by 5in.
b. A container 3ft. by 3ft. by 3ft.
c. A container 10cm. by 12cm. by 10 cm.
d. A container 1m. by 1m. by 1m.

51. If the measure of __ MAB is 90º, what is the measure of

MAR in the figure?

R
a. 18º c. 54º M
b. 36º d. 72º 3x
2x
A B

52. What is the total area of the shaded parts of the figure?

24 cm
a. 2cm² b. 14cm² c. 21cm² d. 42cm²

53. Angles can be measure using a ________ .

a. tape measure c. cylinder
b. protractor d. ruler
54. A triangle whose angles measure equal.
a. Scalene c. Equilateral
b. Isosceles d. Acute
55. Which value of n will make the equation 2n + 3 = 0?
a. ½ b. -2 c. -3 d. -3
3 2
56. x is more than 78.
a. x ˂ 78 b. x ≤ 78 c. x ˃ 78 d. ≥ 78
57. If the measure of the two angles of a triangles are 40 and 60.
What is the measure of the 3rd angle?
a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 85
58. What is the value of the expression 5x² y³ if x = 1, y = 2.
a. 6 b. 20 c. 80 d. 40
59. Which statement is true when y = 3?
a. 3y = 15 b. y – 2 ˃ 5 c. 3y ˃ 10 d. y – 1 ˂ 5
60. Which of the following is considered to be an integer?
a. 0.2 b. -2 c. 1 d. none of the following
2