FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

JEE (Advanced)-2024
FULL TEST – X
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 15-05-2024
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 51 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 17 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –03, 18 – 20, 35 – 37): This section contains NINE (9) questions. Each question has FOUR
options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (04 – 07, 21 – 24, 38 – 41): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (08 – 11, 25 – 28, 42 – 45): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (12 – 17, 29 – 34, 46 – 51): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) numerical based questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

1. Two coherent sources A and B emitting light of wavelength  are y

placed at positions (D, 0) and (D, 3) respectively (D >>>) as
shown in the figure, then choose the correct option(s).
(A) The number of minima on the y-axis is 6 (+ve as well as ve
y-axis)
(B) The number of minima is more than the number of maxima
on the y-axis (+ve as well as ve y-axis) O x
(C) The number of maxima on the x-axis is 3
(D) The number of maxima on the x-axis is more than the
number of minima on the x-axis

2. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at grazing angle y

on a long rectangular slab of thickness t = 1m at the
origin. The refractive index of the transparent slab
varies as   1  e2y . Then, choose the correct
option(s). t = 1m
(A) The equation of trajectory of light in the slab is = 1  e2y
x = (1  ey).
(B) The equation of trajectory of light in the slab is
x = (1  e2y ) .
(C) The co-ordinates of the point ‘P’ at which the light x
90
 e 1 
emerges from the slab are  ,1
 e 
(D) The co-ordinates of the point ‘P’ at which the light
 e 1 
emerges from the slab are  ,1
 e 

3. Thin insulated wire forms a plane spiral consisting of a large number N of

closely packed in turns through which a DC current I is flowing. The radii of
internal and external loops are a and b respectively. Choose the correct
+
option(s).
0IN b
(A) The magnetic field at the centre of the spiral is n
2(b  a) a
0IN b I
(B) The magnetic field at the centre of the spiral is n
(b  a) a
IN 2
(C) Magnetic moment of the spiral is (b  a2  ab)
2
IN 2
(D) Magnetic moment of the spiral is (b  a2  ab)
3

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 3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

4. A sinusoidal input voltage source v = (2 + 3sint + 4 cos t) volt is connected across a load, then
choose the correct option.
 33  2 2 7
(A) RMS value is  V (B) RMS value is  V
 2   2 
  
(C) Average value is zero (D) Average value is 5V

5. The battery connected across a coolidge tube operates at a power level of 1W when the no. of
electrons hitting the target in 1 second is 6.25  1013. Find the minimum wavelength in the
resulting X-rays spectrum:
(A) 0.06 Å (B) 0.12 Å
(C) 0.48 Å (D) 0.24 Å

6. Five identical capacitor plates are arranged such that they 10V
make four capacitors each of 2F. The plates are connected
to a source of emf 10 V. The charge on plate C is
(A) 20 C (B) 40 C
(C) 60 C (D) 80 C A

B
C

D
E

7. A cylindrical massless cork of length  = 10cm and radius r = 3cm is r

slowly extracted from the neck of a bottom opened bottle. If the normal
pressure between the bottle and un-extracted part of the cork at any 
5
10
instant is constant and equal to P  N/m2. The work done in

extracting it completely is
(Take the coefficient of friction between the cork and bottle is  = 0.3)
(A) 5 J (B) 9 J
(C) 12 J (D) 15 J

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

8. Components along and perpendicular to a position vector are known as radial and transverse
components respectively. A particle is projected horizontally from the top a tower. Assume
acceleration due to gravity to be uniform and the origin of the coordinate system at the point of
projection.
List –I List –II
(P) Radial component of velocity (1) Always increases.
(Q) Transverse component of velocity (2) Always decreases.
(R) Radial component of acceleration (3) First increases then decreases.
(S) Transverse component of acceleration (4) First decreases then increases.
(5) Remains Constant.
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (1) (Q)  (1) (R)  (1) (S)  (2)
(B) (P)  (2) (Q)  (1) (R)  (1) (S)  (4)
(C) (P)  (1) (Q)  (2) (R)  (1) (S)  (4)
(D) (P)  (1) (Q)  (1) (R)  (3) (S)  (1)

9. List –I contains different AC circuits with rms voltage of ac sources as shown. List –II contains the
corresponding rms currents supplied by the ac voltage sources. Then match the options of List-I
correctly with the options of List-II.
List –I List –II

XL = 8 R = 3
XC = 4

(P) (1) Irms = 25 A

~
100 V
XL = 6

XC = 3

(Q) R = 8 (2) Irms = 5 A

~
120 V
XL = 6

R = 8

(R) XC = 3
(3) Irms = 10 5 A

~
50 V

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 5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

XL = 6 R1 = 8

(S) XC = 4 R2 = 3 (4) Irms = 20 A

~
100 V
(5) Irms = 30 A
The correct option is:
(A) (P) → (4) (Q) → (1) (R) → (2) (S) → (3)
(B) (P) → (4) (Q) → (3) (R) → (1) (S) → (2)
(C) (P) → (3) (Q) → (2) (R) → (5) (S) → (1)
(D) (P) → (1) (Q) → (4) (R) → (2) (S) → (5)

10. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process T

as shown in Temperature-Pressure graph. Temperature and A
4T0
pressure of gas at ‘A’ is 4T0 and P0 respectively and
temperature in process BC is T0. The process AB is given by
TP2 = constant and the process CA is given by TP4 = constant.

T0 B
C

P0 P
List –I describe the name of thermodynamics process involve in the cyclic process and List-II
gives work done by gas in the process, charge in internal energy of the gas in the process and
heat given to the gas in the process.
List –I List –II
(P) In the thermodynamics process A  B (1) Work done by gas and heat given to
gas is negative
(Q) In the thermodynamics process B  C (2) Work done by gas is negative but
heat given to gas is positive
(R) In the thermodynamics process C  A (3) Work done by gas is positive but
heat given to gas negative
(S) In the cyclic process (4) Work done by gas and heat given to
gas is positive
(5) Work done by gas is positive and
change in internal energy of gas is
negative
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (1) (Q)  (4) (R)  (4) (S)  (1)
(B) (P)  (3) (Q)  (4) (R)  (1) (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (3) (Q)  (4) (R)  (4) (S)  (1)
(D) (P)  (1) (Q)  (4) (R)  (2) (S)  (1)

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6

11. Match the statements in List-I with the values in List-II.

List –I List –II
(P) A stationary source emits sound of (1) 600
frequency 660 Hz. The sound is reflected
by a reflector moving away from the source
with a velocity 33 m/s. The frequency (in
Hz) of the sound reflected by the reflector is
(speed of sound in air is 330 m/s)
(Q) A bus is moving towards a hill with speed (2) 500
16.5 m/s. The driver of the bus sounds a
horn of frequency of 627 Hz. The frequency
(in Hz) of the echo heard by a passenger in
the bus will be (speed of sound in air is 330
m/s)
(R) A fighter plane is travelling in a horizontal (3) 540
direction at a certain height from the ground
with a speed equal to half the speed of
sound in air. The frequency of the sound
produced by the plane is 450 Hz. What is
the frequency (in Hz) of the sound heard by
a stationary observer on the ground when
the plane is directly above the observer.
(S) A star emits a electromagnetic wave of (4) 620
frequency 500 3 GHz. It moves away
from a observer with a relative speed equal
to half of the speed of light in vacuum. The
frequency of the wave (in GHz) observed by
the observer is
(5) 693
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (2) (Q)  (4) (R)  (4) (S)  (1)
(B) (P)  (3) (Q)  (5) (R)  (1) (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (3) (Q)  (5) (R)  (1) (S)  (2)
(D) (P)  (1) (Q)  (4) (R)  (2) (S)  (1)

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

12. A wire bent in the form of an equilateral triangle ABC of A

side a carries a current I. The magnetic field at a point
 0i
having equal distance a from A, B, and is . Find k.
2 k a i

C B
a

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 7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

13. In a certain region, uniform electric field E  E0 kˆ and

magnetic field B  B0 kˆ are present. At time t = 0, a particle of z B0 E0

mass m and charge q is given a velocity v  v ˆj  v kˆ . Find 0 0

the time (in sec) when speed of particle gets minimum.
(Given mv 0  4qE0 )

14. Two identical thin converging lenses are kept in contact at a distance 12.5 cm from an object. If
real image produced is 4 times enlarged then what is the optical power of each lens in dioptres.

15. Consider the following nuclear reaction

X200  A110  B90  Energy
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B are 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively,
the energy released is 40K in MeV. Find the value of K.

16. In the figure, ground is smooth, coefficient of 

m m

friction between blocks m and M is ‘’. Find the
maximum value of F, such that there is no slipping M M F
between blocks m and M in newton. (m = 10 kg, M
= 40 kg,  = 0.3)

17. A uniform rod AB of mass m is suspended by two

identical string of length  as shown in the figure. If
this rod is turned by a small angle in horizontal plane  
about, the vertical axis passing through its centre C. C
In this process the strings are deviated by a small
angle 0 from vertical. Then the rod is released to A B
start performing angular oscillations. The period of

oscillation is 2 . Find the value of .
g

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

18. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

 H   U 
(A) For solid and liquid     .
 T P  T Vs
(B) The gas following the equation P  V  b   RT cannot be liquefied.
(C) The total energy of the ideal gas molecule is the kinetic energy.
(D) Below critical temperature, Z > 1.

19. Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation?

(A) 3-methyl pentanal (B) 1-phenyl propanone
(C) phenyl acetaldehyde (D) 2,2-dimethyl butanal

20. The correct statement(s) is/are about product ‘R’

1. MeCOCl/ AlCl3
2. m  CPBA

3. NaOH,H2 O
P  Q
4. H

NaHCO3
P   CO2
NaOH
Q 
CO /H
 R  Major 
2

(A) R gives white ppt. with bromine water.

(B) R is more acidic than its corresponding position isomer
Ac 2 O
(C) R  Py
 Aspirin
1. NaOH CaO, 
(D) R 
2. pH 8, PhN2Cl
 Colour compound

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

21. The green colour produced in the borax bead test of a chromium (III) salt is due to
(A) Cr BO 2 3 (B) Cr2 B 4 O7 3
(C) Cr2 O3 (D) CrB

22. A dilute aqueous solution of Na2 SO4 is electrolysed using Pt electrode. The products at the
anode and cathode respectively are:
(A) O 2 , H2 (B) S2 O82  , Na
(C) O 2 , Na (D) S2 O82  , H2

23. Magnitude of heat of neutralization for weak acid HF with strong base is
(A) 13.7 Kcal (B) > 13.7 Kcal
(C) < 13.7 Kcal (D) None of these

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 9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

24. Which of the following will not give positive Tollen’s test?
(A) OH (B) O

H3C CH OCH3 C H

(C) O (D) OCH3

H3C HC
H3C CH C CH3
OCH3
OH

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

25. Match List –I with List-II:

List – I List – II
(P) Schimdt reaction (1) RCOOH NaOH/CaO
 RH


(Q) Curtius reaction (2) Re d P/ X2

R  CH2COOH  R CH COOH


X
(R) Decarboxylation (3) i NaN3 / 
RCOCl  R  NH2
 ii H3 O
(S) HVZ reaction (4) N3H
RCOOH   R  NH2


(5) dil. OH
CH3 CHO 

 CH3  CH  CH  CHO


(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 1
(C) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
(D) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2

26. Match List –I with List-II:

List – I List – II
(Reaction) (Comment on major product and reaction
intermediate)
(P) (1) Optically active compound
Ph SOCl2

OH
(Q) D (2) Inversion of configuration
Ph SOCl2

NEt3

OH
(R) Me (3) Retention of configuration

HCl
 

(S) (4) Optically inactive compound

Ph 
i NaH
 ii CH3Br 
OH
(5) Carbocation intermediate

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10

(A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 2

27. Match List –I with List-II:

List – I List – II
(Reaction) (Characteristics of product)
(P) P2O3  H2 O  (1) One P – OH
Two P – H
One P = O
(Q) Re d P4  alkali  (2) Four P – OH
Two P = O
One P – P
(R) White P4  alkali 
 (3) Two P – OH
Two P – H
Two P = O
(S) PCl3  H3PO3  (4) Two P – OH
One P – H
One P = O
(5) Four P – OH
Two P = O
Two P – O – P
(A) P → 2; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 3
(B) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3

28. Match List –I with List-II:

List – I List – II
(Complex ion) (Number of unpaired electrons)
(P) Co  NH3 6 
2 (1) Zero

(Q) Ni NH  2  (2) One

  3 6 
(R) Fe  H2 O 6 
3 (3) Five

(S) Fe  CN5  NO  

2 (4) Two

(5) Three
(A) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(C) P → 1; Q → 5; R → 3; S → 2
(D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 3

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

o o
29. Number of 90 bond angles present in the molecule XeO64  ion is X and number of 90 bond
angles present in PCl3F2 is Y and 90o bond angles in ClF3 is Z. Then X – Y – Z is

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 11 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

30. P and Q are ideal gases that do not react each other. The mass of 1 mole of P is four times that
of Q. At standard temperature and pressure, how many of the following are correct based on
above data.
(i) Average kinetic energy of a molecule of P is equal to that of molecules of Q.
(ii) The mass of 1 dm3 of P is four times that of 1 dm 3 of Q.
(iii) On mixing 1 dm 3 of P with 1 dm 3 of Q, the partial pressure of each gas in the mixture will
be 0.5 atm.
(iv) The diffusion rate of P is four times that of Q.

partial complete
31. XeF6 
hydrolysis
A XeF6 
hydrolysis
B
The sum of lone pairs on he central atoms in Xenon compound A and B are

32. Among B2H6 , B3N3H6 , N2 O, N2 O 4 , H2S2 O3 and H2 S2O 6 , the number of molecules containing
covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is

O
||
H2O Re d hot/Cu NO2 BF4 CH3  C  Cl
Sn/HCl 
 i NaOCl
CaC2 
 A  B 
  C   D   E  F
 ii NaNO2 /HCl
33. heating AlCl3
 iii H3PO2
Organic product
Sum of degree of unsaturation D and F is

34. The vapour pressure of two pure liquid A and B, that form an ideal solution is 100 mm Hg and
400 mm Hg respectively at temperature T. This liquid solution of A and B is composed of 1 mol of
A and 1 mol of B. What will be the final vapour pressure when 1 mole of the mixture has been
vapourised?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

th
35. Each of 2024 boxes in a line contains one red marble, and for 1  k  2024, the box in the k
position also contains k white marbles. A child begins at the first box and successively draws a
single marble at random from each box in order. He stops when he first draws a red marble. Let
P(n) be the probability that he stops after drawing exactly n marbles. The possible value(s) of n
1
for which P  n   is
2024
(A) 44 (B) 45
(C) 46 (D) 47

36. y = f(x) is a parabola having directrix with slope 0. If f2(0) + f 2(1) + f 2(2) + 45 = 10f(0) + 8f(1) +
4f(2), then
1
(A) y = f(x) is symmetric about x   (B) f(x) < 0  x  R
2
 41
(C) ln|f(x)| is one-one function (D) range of f(x) is  , 
 8

37. Let we have to construct an n  n square array from the numbers –1, 0, 1 such that all the sums,
namely rows, columns and both diagonal sums are distinct, then which of the options are
incorrect values of n
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

38. If 2024 C1012 can be prime factorized as 2a 3b 5c 7d..... where a, b, c, d are non-negative integers,
then a + b + c + d is equal to
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 11 (D) 9

39. Given that x1 = 211, x2 = 375, x3 = 420, x4 = 523, x5 = 267 and xn = xn – 1 – xn – 2 + xn – 3 – xn – 4

(where n  5), then the value of x2025  x 2026  x 2027 is
(A) 319 (B) 320
(C) 321 (D) 322

40. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = R and z2  z3, then minimum value
of |az2 + (1 – a)z3 – z1| is (where a  R)
1 1
(A) z2  z3  z1  z3 (B) z1  z2  z1  z3
2R 2R
1 1
(C) z2  z3  z1  z3 (D) z1  z2  z1  z3
4R 4R

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 13 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

41. For positive numbers a, b, c, d, e if a + b + c + d + e = 1, then minimum value of

1  a 1  b 1 c 1  d 1  e
    is
1  a 1 b 1  c 1  d 1  e
20 5
(A) (B)
3 3
6 10
(C) (D)
4 3

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

42. Match the following List-I with List-II

List – I List - II
1
(P) If  f
6  x   8x f 3  x   dx  16  0 , then f 3(1) is (1) 0
0
3

x
 x  f  1
If g  x     t 4  f  u  du  dt , then g(1) + g(1) is k1  , then k1 – k2
(Q)   k2 (2) 1
0 1 
(given f(1) = 5)
1 3
t 1
(R) The value of  dt is (3) 3
0
ln t

1 1
et t2 I
(S) Let I1   dt and I2   3 dt , then 1 is (4) 4
0 e 2  t 
0
1 t t 3 eI2

(5) 6
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (2); (Q)  (4); (R)  (3); (S)  (1)
(B) (P)  (2); (Q)  (3); (R)  (2); (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (4); (Q)  (5); (R)  (2); (S)  (3)
(D) (P)  (4); (Q)  (5); (R)  (1); (S)  (3)

43. Match the following List-I with List-II

List – I List – II
If P  1, 7, 2  be a point and the line L, 2 2  x  1  y  2 , z = 0. If PQ
(P) is the distance from plane 2x  y  z  1 from point P measured along a (1) 0
line inclined at angle 45 with the line L and is minimum, then the value of
PQ is
        
If a  ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ , b  ˆi  2ˆj  2kˆ and c  1 such that a  b b  c c  a 
(Q)   2 (2) 3
has a maximum value, then the value of  a  b   c is

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14

           
If a  2b  3c b  2c  3a c  2a  3b   36 where a, b and c are
     
a a a b a c
(R)       (3) 5
three vectors, then the value of b  a b  b b  c is equal to
     
c a c b c c
  
The plane  a ˆi  ˆj  7kˆ   r  1 ,  aiˆ  ˆj  2kˆ   r  1 and  2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ   r  5
(S)  (4) 4
intersect the plane k̂  r  0 along the lines DC, EC and ED respectively.
If CD subtends right angle at the origin, then value of 10a – 3 is equal to
(5) 1
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (4); (Q)  (3); (R)  (2); (S)  (1)
(B) (P)  (2); (Q)  (1); (R)  (4); (S)  (5)
(C) (P)  (4); (Q)  (3); (R)  (2); (S)  (5)
(D) (P)  (2); (Q)  (3); (R)  (4); (S)  (3)

44. Match the following List-I with List-II

List – I List – II
Let S be the sample space of all 3  3 matrices with entries from the set
{0, 1}. Let the event E1 and E2 be given by E1 = {A  S : Det A = 0} and
(P) E2 = {A  S : Sum of entries of A is 7}. If a matrix is chosen at random (1) 1
E  p
from S and P  1   where HCF (p, q) = 1, then value of p + q is
 E2  q

1 a a2  bc
(Q) The value of 1 b b2  ca is equal to (2) 2
2
1 c c  ab

If P, Q, R are the angles of triangle PQR, then the value of

1 cosR cos Q
(R) (3) 3
cosR 1 cosP is equal to
cos Q cosP 1

A is the n  n matrix whose elements are all 1 and B is the n  n matrix

(S) whose diagonal elements are all n and the other elements are (n – r), (4) 4
then 4 + |(B – rI)(B – (n2r – nr + r)I)| is
(5) 0
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (3); (Q)  (5); (R)  (2); (S)  (4)
(B) (P)  (4); (Q)  (3); (R)  (2); (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (3); (Q)  (5); (R)  (1); (S)  (4)
(D) (P)  (4); (Q)  (3); (R)  (5); (S)  (1)

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 15 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

45. Match the following List-I with List-II

List – I List – II

x2 y2
On the ellipse   1 , tangents drawn at P1, P2, P3 ..... Pn intersects
64 9
the major axis T1, T2, T3 ....., Tn respectively. If the value of
(P) (1) 8

n Area  PTS    PTS ' 
i i i i   18 , then n is equal to
 2
i 1 PTi i

(where S and S represents the two focus of ellipse)

If one of three normals drawn from point P(8, – 2) to parabola

(Q) y2 = 4ax(0 < a < 3) passes through (3a, 0). If length of latus rectum of (2) 5
parabola is k, then k – 4 is
Consider points P(7, 1) and O = (0, 0) if S is a point on the line y = x and T
(R) is a point on the x-axis so that P is on the line segment ST, then the (3) 4
minimum possible area of OST is
The line x + 2y = a intersects the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 at two distinct points A
and B. Another line 12x – 6y – 41 = 0 intersects the circle
(S) (4) 12
x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 1 = 0 at two another distinct points C and D. the value of
|a| for which A, B, C and D are concyclic
(5) 2
The correct option is:
(A) (P)  (1); (Q)  (3); (R)  (4); (S)  (4)
(B) (P)  (2); (Q)  (3); (R)  (5); (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (2); (Q)  (3); (R)  (1); (S)  (4)
(D) (P)  (1); (Q)  (3); (R)  (4); (S)  (5)

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

n  2 22 23 24 
46. Let n be the coefficient of x 2 in  2  x  , then find 3 lim      .....  
n  
 4 5 6 7 

47. A quadratic equation with roots  and  where  = 4, satisfies the equation
  a2  7
  2 . Number of integral values of a for which ,   (1, 4) is equal to
 1  1 a  4

48. The terms of in arithmetic sequence add to 465. The first term of sequence is increased by 1, the
th th
second term is increased by 3 and so on, in general the k term is increased by the k odd
positive integers. The terms of new sequence add to 690. If t1 and tn denotes first and last term of
t  t 
the original sequence respectively, then 1 n is
31
2 2 2
49. If three different polynomials x + ax + b, x + x + ab and ax + x + b have exactly one common
zero, where a, b are non-zero real numbers, then the values of a + 2b is

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50. The equation z4 + (5z – 1)4 = 0 has two pairs of complex roots 1, 1 and 2, 2. Each pair i, i
1 2 1
for i = {1, 2} are complex conjugates. Then value of 
13 i1 ii

 1
0 ; x  2
1
p
51.  
f x 
1 ; x  1
. If the value of  f  sin x  dx  q (where p and q) are relative prime, then the
0
 2
value of p + q is

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