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PHYSICS Model 2014 G12

The document provides instructions and questions for a 2014 Grade 12 Physics model examination in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia. It includes 50 multiple choice questions testing concepts such as simple machines, vectors, projectile motion, energy, and momentum. Students are given 2 hours to complete the exam and are warned that cheating will not be tolerated.

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Kedir Mohammed
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
124 views11 pages

PHYSICS Model 2014 G12

The document provides instructions and questions for a 2014 Grade 12 Physics model examination in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia. It includes 50 multiple choice questions testing concepts such as simple machines, vectors, projectile motion, energy, and momentum. Students are given 2 hours to complete the exam and are warned that cheating will not be tolerated.

Uploaded by

Kedir Mohammed
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ADDIS ABABA EDUCATIN BUREAU

2014 GRADE 12 PHYSICS MODEL EXAMINATION

TIME ALLOWED: 2HOURS

GENERAL DIRECTIONS

THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS PHYSICS EXAMINATION FOR THE


NATURAL SCIENCE CANDIDATES ONLY. IN THIS EXAMINATION,
THERE ARE A TOTAL OF 50 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

THERE IS ONLY ONE BEST ANSWER FOR EACH QUESTION. CHOOSE


THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE SUGGESTED OPTIONS AND
BLACKEN THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
USE ONLY PENCILE TO MARK YOUR ANSWERS.

YOU WILL BE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM FOR 2 HOURS.


WHEN TIME IS CALLED, YOU MUST IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING,
PUT YOUR PENCIL DOWN, AND WAIT FOR FURTHER
INSTRUCTIONS.

ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMT TO CHEAT IN THE


EXAMINATION WILL RESULT IN AN AUTOMATIC DISMISSAL FROM
THE EXAMINATION HALL AND CANCELLATION OF YOUR SCORE(S).

PLEASE MAKE SURE THAT YOU HAVE WRITTEN ALL THE


REQUIRED INFORMATION ON THE ANSWER SHEET BEFORE YOU
START TO WORK ON THE EXAMINATION.
You may refer to the information given below when you need to work on some of the questions.
Number of constants Symbol Value
Acceleration due to gravity g 10m/s2
Mass of proton mp 1.67 x 10-27kg
Mass of electron me 9.11 x 10-31kg
The charge of electron e- 1.6 x 10-19C
Universal gravitation constant G 6.67 x 10-11Nm2/kg
Density of water ρ 1000kg/m3
Molar gas constant R 8.31J/mol.k
Permittivity of vacuum ɛ0 8.85 x 10-12F/m
Magnetic permeability of free space µ0 4π x 10-7Tm/A
Coulomb’s constant k 9 x109Nm2/C2
=0.5=
=0.87=
=0.6=

Read the Following Questions Carefully and Write Your


Appropriate Answer on Your Provided Answer Sheet!!

1. Which is an example of someone using a simple machine to do work?


A. a boy runs across a football field
B. a banker counts money
C. a mother pushes a stroller up a ramp into a building
D. a girl eats a sandwich
2. A weight of 500kg was moved through a distance of 7cm by an effort of 20kg which
moves through a distance of 140cm. what is the mechanical advantage and velocity ratio
of the machine respectively?
A. 25Kg, 20cm C. 71Kg, 7cm
B. 0.04Kg, 0.05cm D. 10000Kg, 980Cm
3. When do we say that a measurement of a certain physical quantity is accurate? When the
measured value is always…
A. Far from the accepted value C. Close to the accepted value
B. Less than the accepted value D. Greater than the accepted value
4. Hydraulic car lifts make use of the principle of a hydraulic press in which the smaller
circular piston has a radius of 1cm and the larger piston has a radius of 4cm then what
force must be applied to the smaller piston to obtain a force of 1600N at the larger
piston?
A. 6.25N B. 25N C. 400N D. 100N
5. Which one of the following is constant during change of state?
A. Temperature C. volume
B. Molecular speed D. Density
6. The property of a sound wave that is related to the louder is
A. The wavelength C. The intensity
B. The pitch D. The speed
7. What is the frequency of the signal that occupies five horizontal divisions and three
vertical divisions on a CRO for one complete cycle, if the time base is set at 1ms/div as
shown in the figure below?

A. 100Hz B. 250Hz C. 1000Hz D. 200Hz


8. An object is placed in front of on a concave mirror at a point between its focus and center
of curvature. The image formed will be----------?
A. Real and inverted. C. Virtual and inverted
B. Real and erected. D. Virtual and erected
9. The power input to a mains transformer is 200 W. If the primary current is 2.5 A, the
secondary voltage is 2 V and assuming no losses in the transformer, the turns ratio is:
A. 80:1 step-up C. 80:1 step-down
B. 40:1 step-up D. 40:1 step-down
10. In which rectifier the transformer is not required?
A. Half-wave
B. Full-wave
C. Bridge
D. All of the above
11. A packet contains silver powder of mass 20.23 g ± 0.01 g. Some of the powder of mass
5.75 g ± 0.01 g is taken out from it. The mass of the powder left back is
A. 14.48 g ± 0.00 g
B. 14.48 ± 0.02 g
C. 14.5 g ± 0.1 g
D. 14.5 g ± 0.2 g
12. Two forces of magnitude 2F and √ F act such that the resultant force is √ F. Then
what is the angle between the two forces?
A. 450 B. 900 C. 1200 D. 300
13. Two vectors 2i + 3j + 8k and 4i – 4j +αk are perpendicular to each other. What is the
value of α?
A. ½ B. -1/2 C. 1 D. -1
14. A child pulls a rope attached to a stone with a force of 60 N. The rope makes an angle of
600 to the ground. What is the effective force along the horizontal direction?
A. 45.96 N B. 40.3N C. 28N D. 30N
15. Three kids A, B and C are pulling a rope as shown in the figure. What are the magnitudes
of force with which B and C must pull in order to keep this system in equilibrium
respectively?
A. 20√ N, 15N C. 10√ N,10N
B. 20N, 15N D. 10N, 10N
16. Which of the following is the condition for two vectors to be collinear?
A. The vectors should be parallel to the same line.
B. The vectors should have same initial point.
C. The vectors should have the same magnitude.
D. The vectors should have the same magnitude 1 and 0 respectively.
17. A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration on a straight line. If its
velocity after making a displacement of 32 m is 8 m/s, its acceleration is
A. 1 m/s² B. 4 m/s² C. 2 m/s² D. 3 m/s²

18. If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is thrown horizontally
from the same height, then the ratio of vertical distance covered by both objects at any
instant t is?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0.5
19. If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct statement
A. The velocity and speed are constant.
B. The acceleration and speed are constant.
C. The velocity and acceleration are constant.
D. The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant.
20. Two objects are projected at angles 30° and 60° respectively with respect to the
horizontal direction. The ranges of two objects are denoted as 3 and 6 . Choose the
correct relation from the following
A. R300 = R600
B. R30 =4R60
C. R300 = R60 /2
D. R300 =2 R600
21. While traveling in its elliptical orbit around the Sun Mars gains speed during the part of
the orbit where it is getting closer to the Sun. Which of the following can be used to
explain gain in speed?
A. As Mars closer to the Sun, the Mars -Sun system loses potential energy and Mars gain
kinetic energy.
B. The component of the gravitational force exerted on Mars is perpendicular to the
direction casing acceleration and hence gain speed along the direction.
C. The torque exerted on Mars by the sun during this segment the orbit increases the
Mars – Sun system angular momentum.
D. The centripetal force exerted on Mars is greater than the gravitational force during
this segment of orbit, causing Mars to gain speed gets closer to the Sun.
22. Three blocks of masses 3m, 2m, and are connected to strings A, B, and C as shown
below. The blocks are pulled along a rough surface by a force of magnitude F exerted by
string C. The coefficient of friction between each block and the surface is the same.
Which string must be the strongest in order not to break?

A. A B. B C. C D. They must all be the same strength.


23. Two football players with mass 75 kg and 100 kg run directly toward each other with
speeds of 6 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. If they grab each other as they collide, the
combined speed of the two players just after the collision would be:
A. 2 m/s B. 3.4 m/s C. 4.7 m/s D. 7.1 m/s
24. The two blocks of masses M and 2M shown above initially travel at the same speed v but
in opposite directions. They collide and stick together. How much mechanical energy is
lost to other forms of energy during the collision?
A. 1/2 M v2 C. 4/3 M v2
B. 3/4 M v2 D. 3/2 M v2

25. An object of mass M travels along a horizontal air track at a constant speed v and collides
elastically with an object of identical mass that is initially at rest on the track. Which of
the following statements is true for the two objects after the impact?
A. The total momentum is Mv and the total kinetic energy is ½ Mv2
B. The total momentum is Mv and the total kinetic energy is less than ½ Mv2
C. The total momentum is less than Mv and the total kinetic energy is ½ Mv2
D. The momentum of each object is ½ Mv2
26. A rock is dropped from the top of a tall tower. Half a second later another rock, twice as
massive as the first, is dropped. Ignoring air resistance,
A. The distance between the rocks increases while both are falling.
B. The acceleration is greater for the more massive rock
C. They strike the ground more than half a second apart.
D. They strike the ground with the same kinetic energy.
27. An object is projected vertically upward from ground level. It rises to a maximum height
H. If air resistance is negligible, which of the following must be true for the object when
it is at a height H/2?
A. Its speed is half of its initial speed.
B. Its kinetic energy is half of its initial kinetic energy.
C. Its potential energy is half of its initial potential energy.
D. Its total mechanical energy is half of its initial value.
28. A bowling ball of mass M and radius R., whose moment of inertia about its center is
2/5MR2, rolls without slipping along a level incline surface at speed v. The maximum
vertical height to which it can roll if it ascends an incline is:

A. B. C. D.

29. Figure shows below a rigid rod of length 1.0 m is pivoted at O. By neglect the weight of
the rod for what value of m and the force F exerted on the rod by the pivot at O the rod
will be in equilibrium respectively are?

A. kg, N C. Kg, N

B. 2kg, 40N D. 40kg, 2N


30. The Young's modulus of the material of a wire is equal to the:
A. Stress required increasing its length four times.
B. Stress required producing unit strain.
C. Strain produced in it.
D. Half the strain produced in it.
31. Water flows through a pipe whose cross-sectional area is 50cm2 into another pipe whose
cross-sectional area is 10cm2. Both pipes are horizontal. If the velocity of the water in the
large pipe is 12m/s, the velocity in the small pipe is:
A. 0.24 m/s. B. 1.2 m/s. C. 60 m/s. D. 30 m/s

32. When a load of 500 kg is hanging from a steel wire of length 3m and cross-sectional area
0.20 cm2, the wire stretches beyond its no-load length. If the Young’s modulus for the
wire made of steel is Y = 2 x 1011 Pa, what is the change in length of the wire beyond its
no-load length?
A. 3.75 mm. B. 2.75 mm. C. 1.75 mm. D. 0.75 mm.
33. An ideal gas is taken through a closed path 1→2→3→4→1 as shown the figure below.
What is the net work done by the gas?

A. 6PV B. 9PV C. -6PV D. -9PV


34. Which of the following statement is best describes the second law of thermodynamics?
A. Heat flow spontaneously from hot to cold and entropy decrease.
B. Heat flow spontaneously from hot to cold and entropy increase.
C. Heat flows spontaneously from cold to hot and entropy increase.
D. Heat flows spontaneously from cold to hot and entropy remain the same.
35. An engine has an efficiency of 20% and produces 2000J of mechanical work during one
cycle. How much energy is transferred out of the engine by heating the environment
during one cycle?
A. 100J B. 2000J C. -8000J D. 10000J
36. An ideal massless spring is fixed to the wall at one end, as shown above. A block of mass
M attached to the other end of the spring oscillates with amplitude A on a frictionless,
horizontal surface. The maximum speed of the block is v, and then the force constant of
the spring is?

A. B. C. D.

37. The diagrams below represent 5 different standing sound waves set up inside of a set of
organ pipes 1 m long which of the following statements correctly relates the frequencies
of the organ pipes shown? Select two answers.

A. CY is twice the frequency of CX. C. CZ is five times the frequency of CX


B. OY is triple the frequency of Ox. D. Ox is twice the frequency of CX
38. In a Young's double-slit experiment the center of a bright fringe occurs wherever waves
from the slits differ in the distance they travel by a multiple of:
A. a fourth of a wavelength
B. a half a wavelength
C. a wavelength
D. Three-fourths of a wavelength.
39. In an interference pattern, at app point we observe the 16th order bright fringe or maxima
for ʎ1=7200Å. What order will be visible here if the source is replaced by light of
wavelength ʎ2=4800 Å.
A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 16
40. Two equal positive point charges repel each other with force 0.36 N when their
separation is 1.5 m. What force do they exert on each other when their separation is 1.0
m?
A. 0.81 N B. 0.36 N C. 0.24 N D. 0.16N
41. An electroscope is given a positive charge, causing its foil leaves to separate. When an
object is brought near the top plate of the electroscope, the foils separate even further. We
could conclude that:
A. The object is positively charged.
B. The object is electrically neutral.
C. The object is negatively charged.
D. Only the object is charged.
42. A positive point charge of +q and a negative point charge of –q is separated by a distance
d. What would be the magnitude of the electric field midway between the two charges?
A. B. C. D.

43. When two resistors, having resistance R1 and R2, are connected in parallel, the
equivalent resistance of the combination is 5. Which of the following statements about
the resistances is correct?
A. Both R1 and R2 are greater than 5.
B. Both R1 and R2 are equal to 5.
C. Both R1 and R2 are less than 5.
D. The sum of R1.
44. A galvanometer having a coil of resistance of 6 Ω shows deflection when a current of
1.0A passing through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read a current up to 5.0A
by:
A. connecting it in series to a resistance of 15 Ω
B. connecting it in series to a resistance of 24 Ω
C. connecting it in parallel to a resistance of 15 Ω
D. connecting it in parallel to a resistance of 24 Ω
45. A wire in the plane of the page carries a current directed toward the top of the page as
shown. If the wire is located in a uniform magnetic field B directed out of the page, the
force on the wire resulting from the magnetic field is:
A. directed to the left
B. directed out of the page
C. directed to the right
D. zero

46. A charged particle can move with constant velocity through a region containing both an
electric field and a magnetic field only if the:
A. Electric field is parallel to the magnetic field
B. Electric field is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
C. Electric field is parallel to the velocity vector.
D. Magnetic field is parallel to the velocity vector.
47. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f is induced in a conductor
whenever it:
A. Lies perpendicular.
B. Cuts magnetic flux due to relative motion
C. Lies in a magnetic field.
D. move parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
48. A series LC circuit with =4Ω, L=3 H and C=25µF is connected to a 200V a.c supply.
At what resonance will be the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete
cycle?
A. 1000W B. 2000W C. 3000W D. 4000W
49. In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is observed?
A. Pure capacitive circuit C. Pure resistive circuit
B. None of these D. Pure inductive circuit
50. The following nuclear reaction occurs:

A. a proton B. an electron C. a positron D. a neutron

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