1. Which of the following patients would be considered b.

Hematocrit
anemic with a hemoglobin value of 14.5 g/dL? Refer to c. Reticulocyte count
reference intervals inside the front cover of this text. d. Red cell distribution width
a. An adult man 8. Which of the following is detectable only by examination of
b. An adult woman a peripheral blood film?
c. A newborn boy
d. A 10-year-old girl a. Microcytosis
b. Anisocytosis
2. Anemia most commonly presents with which one of the c. Hypochromia
following set of symptoms: d. Poikilocytosis
a. Abdominal pain (from splenomegaly) 9. Schistocytes, ovalocytes, and acanthocytes are examples of
b. Shortness of breath and fatigue abnormal changes in RBC:
c. Chills and fever
d. Jaundice and enlarged lymph nodes a. Volume
b. Shape
3. Which of the following are important to consider in c. Inclusions
the patient’s history when d. Hemoglobin concentration
investigating the cause of an anemia?
10. Refer to Figure 16.3 to determine which one of the
a. Diet and medications following conditions would be included in the differential
b. Occupation, hobbies, and travel diagnosis of an anemic adult patient with an absolute
c. Bleeding episodes in the patient or in his or her reticulocyte count of 20 x109 /L and an MCV of 65 fL.
family members
d. All of the above a. Aplastic anemia
b. Sickle cell anemia
4. Which one of the following is reduced as an adaptation to c. Iron deficiency
long-standing anemia? d. Folate deficiency
a. Heart rate 11. Which one of the following conditions would be included
b. Respiratory rate in the differential diagnosis of an anemic adult patient with an
c. Oxygen affinity of hemoglobin MCV of 125 fL and an RDW of 20% (reference interval
d. Volume of blood ejected from the heart with 11.5% to 14.5%)? Refer to Table 16.4.
each contraction
a. Aplastic anemia
5. An autoimmune reaction destroys the hematopoietic stem b. Sickle cell anemia
cells in the bone marrow of a young adult patient, and the c. Iron deficiency
amount of active bone marrow, including erythroid precursors, d. Vitamin B12 deficiency
is diminished. Erythroid precursors that are present are normal
in appearance, but there are too few to meet the demand for 1. The mother of a 4-month-old infant who is being breastfed
circulating red blood cells, and anemia develops. The sees her physician for a routine postpartum visit. She
reticulocyte count is low. The mechanism of the anemia would expresses concern that she may be experiencing postpartum
be described as: depression because she does not seem to have any energy.
Although the physician is sympathetic to the patient’s concern,
a. Effective erythropoiesis she orders a CBC and iron studies seeking an organic
b. Ineffective erythropoiesis explanation for the patient’s symptoms. The results are as
c. Insufficient erythropoiesis follows: CBC: all results within reference intervals except the
RDW, which was 15%.
6. What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for
the diagnosis of anemia? Serum iron: decreased
a. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count TIBC: increased
b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood
film examination % transferrin saturation: decreased
c. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12, Serum ferritin: decreased
and folate assays
d. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral Correlate the patient’s laboratory and clinical findings. What
blood film examination can you conclude?
a. The results of the iron studies reveal findings
consistent with a thalassemia that was apparently
7. An increase in which one of the following suggests a previously undiagnosed.
shortened life span of RBCs and hemolytic anemia? b. The patient is in stage 2 of iron deficiency,
a. Hemoglobin concentration before frank anemia develops.
 c. The results of the iron studies are inconsistent c. A 63-year-old man with reactivation of
with the CBC results, and a laboratory error tuberculosis from his childhood
should be suspected. d. A 40-year-old man who lost blood during
d. There is no evidence of a hematologic surgery to repair a fractured leg
explanation for the patient’s symptoms.
7. Which of the following individuals is at the greatest risk for
2. A bone marrow biopsy was performed as part of the cancer the development of anemia of chronic inflammation?
staging protocol for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma.
Although no evidence of spread of the tumor was apparent in a. A 15-year-old girl with asthma
the bone marrow, other abnormal findings were noted, b. A 40-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
including a slightly elevated myeloid-toerythroid ratio. WBC mellitus
and RBC morphology appeared normal, however. The c. A 65-year-old man with hypertension
Prussian blue stain showed abundant stainable iron in the d. A 30-year-old man with severe rheumatoid
marrow macrophages. The patient’s CBC revealed a arthritis
hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL, but RBC indices were within 8. In what situation will increased levels of free erythrocyte
reference intervals. RBC morphology was unremarkable. protoporphyrin be present?
These findings are consistent with:
a. Loss of function mutation to one of the enzymes
a. Anemia of chronic inflammation in the heme synthesis pathway
b. Sideroblastic anemia b. A mutation that prevents heme attachment to
c. Thalassemia globin so that protoporphyrin remains free
d. Iron deficiency anemia c. Any condition that prevents iron incorporation
3. Predict the iron study results for the patient with Hodgkin into protoporphyrin IX
lymphoma described in question 2. Serum Iron Level TIBC % d. When red blood cells lyse, freeing their contents
Transferrin into the plasma

Saturation Serum Ferritin Level 9. In the pathogenesis of the anemia of chronic inflammation,
hepcidin levels:
a. Decreased Increased Decreased Decreased
b. Increased Normal Increased Normal a. Decrease during inflammation and reduce iron
c. Increased Increased Normal Increased absorption from enterocytes
d. Decreased Decreased Normal Normal b. Increase during inflammation and reduce iron
absorption from enterocytes
4. A 35-year-old white woman went to her physician c. Increase during inflammation and increase iron
complaining of headaches, dizziness, and nausea. The absorption from enterocytes
headaches had been increasing in severity over the past 6 d. Decrease during inflammation and increase iron
months. This was coincident with her move into an older absorption from enterocytes
house built about 1900. She had been renovating the house,
including stripping paint from the woodwork. Her CBC results 10. Sideroblastic anemias result from:
showed a mild hypochromic, microcytic anemia, with a. Sequestration of iron in hepatocytes
polychromasia and basophilic stippling noted. Which of the b. Inability to incorporate
following tests would be most useful in confirming the cause heme into apohemoglobin
of her anemia? c. Sequestration of iron in myeloblasts
a. Serum lead level d. Failure to incorporate iron into
b. Serum iron level and TIBC protoporphyrin IX
c. Absolute reticulocyte count 11. In general, most instances of hereditary hemochromatoses
d. Prussian blue staining of the bone marrow to result from mutations that impair:
detect iron stores in macrophages
a. The manner in which developing red cells
5. In men and postmenopausal women whose diets are acquire and manage iron
adequate, iron deficiency anemia most often results from: b. The hepcidin-ferroportin iron regulatory system
a. Increased need associated with aging c. The TfR-Tf endocytic iron acquisition process
b. Impaired absorption in the gastric mucosa for body cells other than red blood cells
c. Chronic gastrointestinal bleeding d. The function of divalent metal transporter in
d. Diminished resistance to hookworm infections enterocytes and macrophages

6. Which one of the following individuals is at greatest risk for 12. In the erythropoietic porphyrias, mild anemia may be
the development of iron deficiency anemia? accompanied by what distinctive clinical finding?

a. A 15-year-old boy who eats mainly junk food a. Gallstones

b. A 37-year-old woman who has never been b. Impaired night vision
pregnant and has amenorrhea c. Unintentional nighttime leg movements
d. Heightened propensity for sunburn
1. Which of the following findings is consistent with a a. Transcobalamin
diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia? b. Intrinsic factor-vitamin B12 complex
c. Holotranscobalamin
a. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils d. Haptocorrin-vitamin B12 complex
b. Decreased serum lactate dehydrogenase level
c. Absolute increase in reticulocytes 8. Folate and vitamin B12 work together in the production of:
d. Increased MCV
a. Amino acids
2. A patient has a clinical picture of megaloblastic anemia. b. RNA
The serum folate level is decreased, and the serum vitamin c. Phospholipids
B12 level is 600 pg/mL (reference interval is 200 to 900 d. DNA
pg/mL). What is the expected value for the methylmalonic
acid assay? 9. The macrocytosis associated with
megaloblastic anemia results from:
a. Increased
b. Decreased a. Reduced numbers of cell divisions with normal
c. Within the reference interval cytoplasmic development
b. Activation of a gene that is typically active only
3. Which one of the following statements characterizes the in megakaryocytes
relationships among macrocytic anemia, megaloblastic c. Reduced concentration of hemoglobin in the
anemia, and pernicious anemia? cells so that larger cells are needed to provide the
same oxygen-carrying capacity
a. Macrocytic anemias are megaloblastic. d. Increased production of reticulocytes in an
b. Macrocytic anemia is pernicious anemia. attempt to compensate for the anemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia is macrocytic.
d. Megaloblastic anemia is pernicious anemia. 10. Which one of the following groups has the highest risk for
pernicious anemia?
4. Which of the following CBC findings is most suggestive of
a megaloblastic anemia? a. Malnourished infants
b. Children during growth periods
a. MCV of 103 fL c. Persons older than 60 years of age
b. Hypersegmentation of neutrophils d. Pregnant women
c. RDW of 16%
d. Hemoglobin concentration of 9.1 g/dL 1. The clinical consequences of pancytopenia include:
5. In the following description of a bone marrow smear, find a. Pallor and thrombosis
the statement that is inconsistent with the expected picture in b. Kidney failure and fever
megaloblastic anemia. “The marrow appears hypercellular c. Fatigue, infection, and bleeding
with a myeloid-to-erythroid ratio of 1:1 due to prominent d. Weakness, hemolysis, and infection
erythroid hyperplasia.
2. Idiopathic acquired aplastic anemia is due to a(n):
Megakaryocytes appear normal in number and appearance.
WBC elements appear larger than normal, with especially a. Drug reaction
large metamyelocytes, although they otherwise appear b. Benzene exposure
morphologically normal. Erythroid precursors also appear c. Inherited mutation in stem cells
large. There is nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony, with the d. Unknown cause
nucleus appearing more mature than expected for the color of
the cytoplasm.”
3. The pathophysiologic mechanism in acquired idiosyncratic
a. Erythroid nuclei that are more mature than aplastic anemia is:
cytoplasm
b. Larger than normal WBC elements a. Replacement of bone marrow cells by abnormal
c. Larger than normal erythroid precursors cells
d. Normal appearance of megakaryocytes b. Destruction of stem cells by autoimmune T cells
c. Defective production of hematopoietic growth
6. Which one of the following findings would be inconsistent factors
with elevated titers of intrinsic factor blocking antibodies? d. Inability of bone marrow stroma to support stem
a. Hypersegmentation of neutrophils cells
b. Low levels of methylmalonic acid 4. Based on the criteria in Table 19.1, what is the aplastic
c. Macrocytic RBCs anemia classification of a 15-year-old girl with a bone marrow
d. Low levels of vitamin B12 cellularity of 10%, hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, absolute neutrophil
7. Which of the following is the most metabolically active count of 0.1x109 /L, and platelet count of 10x109 /L?
form of absorbed vitamin B12? a. Nonsevere
 b. Moderate 11. The primary pathophysiologic mechanism of anemia
c. Severe associated with chronic kidney disease is:
d. Very severe
a. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
5. The most consistent peripheral blood findings in severe b. Excessive hemolysis
aplastic anemia are: c. Hematopoietic stem cell mutation
d. Toxic destruction of stem cells
a. Hairy cells, monocytopenia, and neutropenia
b. Macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia 12. Which one of the following findings is not consistent with
c. Blasts, immature granulocytes, myelophthisic anemia?
andthrombocytopenia
d. Polychromasia, nucleated RBCs, and a. Reticulocytosis
hypersegmented neutrophils b. Teardrop RBCs
c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
6. The treatment that has shown the best success rate in young d. Leukoerythroblastic blood picture
patients with severe aplastic anemia is:
1. The term hemolytic disorder in general refers to a disorder
a. Immunosuppressive therapy in which there is:
b. Long-term red blood cell and platelet
transfusions a. Increased destruction of RBCs in the blood, bone
c. Administration of hematopoietic growth factors marrow, or spleen
and androgens b. Excessive loss of RBCs from the body
d. Bone marrow transplant with an HLA-identical c. Inadequate RBC production by the bone marrow
sibling d. Increased plasma volume with unchanged red
cell mass
7. The test that is most useful in differentiating
2. RBC destruction that occurs when macrophages ingest and
Fanconi anemia from other causes of pancytopenia is: destroy RBCs is termed:
a. Bone marrow biopsy a. Extracellular
b. Ham acidified serum test b. Macrophage mediated
a. c. Diepoxybutane-induced chromosome c. Intra-organ
breakage d. Extrahematopoietic
c. Flow cytometric analysis of CD55 and CD59
cells 3. A sign of hemolysis that is typically associated with both
fragmentation and macrophagemediated hemolysis is:
8. Mutations in genes that code for the telomerase complex
may induce bone marrow failure by causing which one of the a. Hemoglobinuria
following? b. Hemosiderinuria
c. Hemoglobinemia
a. Resistance of stem cells to normal apoptosis d. Elevated urinary urobilinogen level
b. Autoimmune reaction against telomeres in stem
cells 4. An elderly white woman is evaluated for worsening anemia,
c. Decreased production of hematopoietic growth with a decrease of approximately 0.5 mg/dL of hemoglobin
factors each week. The patient is pale, and her skin and eyes are
d. Premature death of hematopoietic stem cells slightly yellow. She complains of extreme fatigue and is
unable to complete the tasks of daily living without napping in
9. Diamond-Blackfan anemia differs from Fanconi anemia in midmorning and midafternoon. She also tires with exertion,
that in the former: finding it difficult to climb even five stairs. Which of the
features of this description points to a hemolytic cause for her
a. Reticulocyte count is increased anemia?
b. Fetal hemoglobin is decreased
c. Only erythropoiesis is affected a. Pallor
d. Congenital malformations are absent b. Yellow skin and eyes
c. Need for naps
10. Which anemia should be suspected in a patient with d. Tiredness on exertion
refractory anemia, reticulocytopenia,
hemosiderosis, and binucleated erythrocyte 5. Which of the following tests provides a good indication of
precursors in the bone marrow? accelerated erythropoiesis?
a. Fanconi anemia a. Urine urobilinogen level
b. Dyskeratosis congenita b. Hemosiderin level
c. Acquired aplastic anemia c. Reticulocyte count
d. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia d. Glycated hemoglobin level
6. A 5-year-old girl was seen by her physician several days 1 2 3
before the current visit and was diagnosed with pneumonia.
She was prescribed a standard course of antibiotics. Her a. Increased Positive Positive
mother has brought her to the physician again because the b. Decreased Negative Negative
girl’s urine began to darken after the first visit and now is c. Decreased Positive Positive
alarmingly dark. The girl has no history of anemia, and there d. Increased Positive Negative
is no family history of any hematologic disorder. The CBC 1. In HS, a characteristic abnormality in the CBC results is:
shows a mild anemia, polychromasia, and a few schistocytes.
This anemia could be categorized as: a. Decreased MCH
b. Decreased platelet and WBC counts
a. Acquired, fragmentation c. Increased MCHC
b. Acquired, macrophage mediated d. Increased MCV
c. Hereditary, fragmentation
d. Hereditary, macrophage mediated 2. The altered shape of the spherocyte in HS is due to:
7. A patient has a personal and family history of a mild a. Abnormal precipitation of the hemoglobin
hemolytic anemia. The patient has consistently elevated levels molecule
of total and indirect serum bilirubin and urinary urobilinogen. b. A mutated RBC membrane protein affecting
The serum haptoglobin level is consistently decreased, vertical protein interactions
whereas the reticulocyte count is elevated. The latter can be c. A mutated RBC membrane protein affecting
seen as polychromasia on the patient’s peripheral blood film. horizontal protein interactions
Spherocytes are also noted. Which one of the findings d. Defective RNA catabolism and clearance
reported for this patient is inconsistent with a classical
diagnosis of fragmentation hemolysis? 3. Which one of the following sets of results is consistent with
HS?
a. Elevated total and indirect serum bilirubin
b. Elevated urinary urobilinogen a. Decreased osmotic fragility, negative DAT result
c. Decreased haptoglobin b. Decreased osmotic fragility, positive DAT result
d. Spherocytes on the peripheral blood film c. Increased osmotic fragility, negative DAT result
d. Increased osmotic fragility, positive DAT result
8. Under normal circumstances, the major fraction of bilirubin
in the plasma is: 4. The RBCs in HE are abnormally shaped and have unstable
cell membranes as a result of:
a. Unconjugated bilirubin secreted by in the liver
b. Urobilinogen reabsorbed from the intestines a. Defects in horizontal membrane protein
c. Macrophage-secreted indirect bilirubin interactions
d. Direct bilirubin conjugated by hepatocytes b. Deficiency in cation pumps in the RBC
membrane
9. A patient has anemia that has been worsening over the last c. Lack of Rh antigens in the RBC membrane
several months. The hemoglobin level has been declining d. Mutations in the ankyrin complex
slowly, with a drop of 1.5 g/dL of hemoglobin over about 6
weeks. Polychromasia and anisocytosis are seen on the 5. The peripheral blood film for patients with mild HE is
peripheral blood film, consistent with the elevated reticulocyte characterized by:
count and red cell distribution width (RDW). Serum levels of
a. Densely stained RBCs with a few irregular
total bilirubin and indirect fractions are normal. The urinary
projections
urobilinogen level also is normal. When these findings are
b. Elliptical RBCs
evaluated, the conclusion is drawn that the anemia does not
c. Oval RBCs with one or two transverse ridges
have a hemolytic component. Based on the data given here,
d. Overhydrated RBCs with oval central pallor
why was hemolysis ruled out as the cause of the anemia?
6. Laboratory test results for patients with HPP include all of
a. The decline in hemoglobin is too gradual to be
the following except:
associated with hemolysis.
b. The elevation of the reticulocyte count suggests a a. Increased MCV and normal RDW
malignant cause. b. Low fluorescence when incubated with eosin-5-
c. Evidence of increased protoporphyrin catabolism maleimide
is lacking. c. Marked poikilocytosis with elliptocytes, RBC
d. Elevated RDW points to an anemia of decreased fragments, and microspherocytes
production. d. RBCs that show marked thermal sensitivity at
41° C to 45° C
10. Which of the following sets of test results is typically
expected with chronic fragmentation hemolysis? 7. Acanthocytes are found in association with:
1. Serum Haptoglobin Urine a. Abetalipoproteinemia
2. Hemoglobin b. G6PD deficiency
3. Urine Sediment Prussian Blue Stain
 c. Rh deficiency syndrome d. Prolonged prothrombin time and partial
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency thromboplastin time
8. The most common manifestation of G6PD deficiency is: 2. Typical laboratory findings in TTP and HUS include:
a. Acute hemolytic anemia caused by drug a. Schistocytosis and thrombocytopenia
exposure or infections b. Anemia and reticulocytopenia
b. Chronic hemolytic anemia caused by cell shape c. Reduced levels of lactate dehydrogenase and
change aspartate aminotransferase
c. Chronic hemolytic anemia caused by d. Increased levels of free plasma hemoglobin and
intravascular RBC lysis serum haptoglobin
d. Mild compensated hemolysis caused by ATP
deficiency 3. The pathophysiology of idiopathic TTP involves:

9. A patient experiences an episode of acute intravascular a. Shiga toxin damage to endothelial cells and
hemolysis after taking primaquine for the first time. The obstruction of small blood vessels in glomeruli
physician suspects that the patient may have G6PD deficiency b. Formation of platelet-VWF thrombi due to
and orders an RBC G6PD assay 3 days after the hemolytic autoantibody inhibition of ADAMTS13
episode began. How will this affect the test result? c. Overactivation of the complement system and
endothelial cell damage due to loss of regulatory
a. Absence of enzyme activity function
b. False decrease in enzyme activity due to d. Activation of the coagulation and fibrinolytic
hemoglobinemia systems with fibrin clots throughout the
c. False increase in enzyme activity due to microvasculature
reticulocytosis
d. No effect on enzyme activity 4. Which of the following tests yields results that are abnormal
in DIC but are usually within the reference interval or just
10. The most common defect or deficiency in the anaerobic slightly abnormal in TTP and HUS?
glycolytic pathway that causes chronic HNSHA is:
a. Indirect serum bilirubin and serum
a. a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase haptoglobin
deficiency b. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
b. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency c. Lactate dehydrogenase and aspartate
c. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency aminotransferase
d. Pyruvate kinase deficiency d. Serum creatinine and serum total protein
11. Which of the following laboratory tests would be best to 5. Which of the following laboratory results may be seen in
confirm PNH? both traumatic cardiac hemolytic anemia and exercise
induced hemoglobinuria?
a. Acidified serum test (Ham test)
b. Flow cytometry for detection of eosin- a. Schistocytes on the peripheral blood film
5maleimide binding on erythrocytes b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Flow cytometry for FLAER binding, CD24 on c. Decreased serum haptoglobin
granulocytes, and CD14 on monocytes d. Hemosiderinuria
d. Osmotic fragility test
6. Which Plasmodium species is widespread in Malaysia, has
12. A 22-year-old man with a moderate decrease in RBCs with multiple ring forms, has band-shaped early
hemoglobin level and a decrease in RBC, WBC, platelet, and trophozoites, shows a 24-hour erythrocytic cycle, and can
reticulocyte counts has a history of infrequent and mild cause severe disease and high parasitemia?
episodes of hemolysis with hemoglobinuria. His bone marrow
showed 15% cellularity with no abnormal cells, and flow a. P. falciparum
cytometry revealed that 15% of his circulating granulocytes b. P. vivax
were GPI deficient. He most likely has: c. P. knowlesi
d. P. malariae
a. A hereditary RBC membrane defect
b. Classic PNH 7. One week after returning from a vacation in Rhode Island, a
c. Hypoplastic PNH 60-year-old man experienced fever, chills, nausea, muscle
d. Subclinical PNH aches, and fatigue of 2 days’ duration. A complete blood count
(CBC) showed a WBC count of 4.5x109/L, a hemoglobin
1. Which one of the following is a feature found in all level of 10.5 g/dL, a platelet count of 134x109 /L, and a
microangiopathic hemolytic anemias? reticulocyte count of 2.7%. The medical laboratory scientist
noticed tiny ameboid ring forms in some of the RBCs and
a. Pancytopenia some tetrad forms in others. These findings suggest:
b. Thrombocytosis
c. Intravascular RBC fragmentation a. Bartonellosis
b. Malaria
 c. Babesiosis 4. The most important finding in the diagnostic investigation
d. Clostridial sepsis of a suspected autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:
8. What RBC morphology is characteristically found within a. Detection of a low hemoglobin and hematocrit
the first 24 hours following extensive burn injury? b. Observation of hemoglobinemia in a specimen
c. Recognition of a low reticulocyte count
a. Macrocytosis and polychromasia d. Demonstration of IgG and/or C3d on the RBC
b. Burr cells and crenated cells surface
c. Howell-Jolly bodies and bite cells
d. Schistocytes and microspherocytes 5. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, a positive DAT is
evidence that an:
9. A 36-year-old woman was brought to the emergency
department by her husband because she had experienced a a. IgM antibody is in the patient’s serum
seizure. He reported that she had been well until that morning, b. IgG antibody is in the patient’s serum
when she complained of a sudden headache and malaise. She c. IgM antibody is sensitizing the patient’s red
was not taking any medications and had no history of previous blood cells
surgery or pregnancy. Laboratory studies showed a WBC d. IgG antibody is sensitizing the patient’s red
count of 15x109 /L, a hemoglobin level of 7.8 g/dL, a platelet blood cells
count of 18x109 /L, and schistocytes and helmet cells on the
peripheral blood film. Chemistry test results included 6. Which of the following is not a mechanism of drug-induced
markedly elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase activity and a hemolytic anemia?
slight increase in the level of total and indirect serum bilirubin. a. Drug adsorption on red blood cell membrane
The urinalysis results were positive for protein and blood, but b. Drug-RBC membrane protein immunogenic
there were no RBCs in the urine sediment. Prothrombin time complex
and partial thromboplastin time were within the reference c. RBC autoantibody induction
interval. When the entire clinical and laboratory picture is d. IgM autoantibody sensitization of RBCs after
considered, which of the following is the most likely exposure to cold temperatures
diagnosis?
7. Which of the following describes a penicillininduced
a. HUS AIHA?
b. HELLP syndrome
c. TTP a. Extravascular hemolysis, positive DAT with IgG,
d. Exercise-induced hemoglobinuria gradual anemia
b. Intravascular, possible renal failure, positive DAT
10. Which of the following laboratory test results are with C3d
abnormal in HELLP syndrome but not in DIC? c. Extravascular hemolysis, positive DAT with C3d,
a. Aspartate aminotransferase acute onset
b. Prothrombin time d. Intravascular hemolysis, positive DAT with IgG
c. Platelet count 8. Which one of the following statements is true about DHTR?
d. Hemoglobin
a. It usually is due to an ABO incompatibility
1. Immune hemolytic anemia is due to a(n): b. Hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria often
a. Structural defect in the RBC membrane occur
b. Allo- or autoantibody against an RBC antigen c. It is due to an anamnestic response after repeat
c. T cell immune response against an RBC antigen exposure to a blood group antigen
d. Obstruction of blood flow by intravascular d. The DAT yields a positive result for C3d only
thrombi 9. Chronic secondary CAD is most often associated with:
2. The pathophysiology of immune hemolysis with IgM a. Antibiotic therapy
antibodies always involves: b. M. pneumoniae infection
a. Complement c. B cell malignancies
b. Autoantibodies d. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Abnormal hemoglobin molecules 10. A 63-year-old man is being evaluated because of a
d. Alloantibodies decrease in hemoglobin of 5 g/dL after a second cycle of
3. In hemolysis mediated by IgG antibodies, which abnormal fludarabine for treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
RBC morphology is typically observed on the peripheral The patient’s DAT result is strongly positive for IgG only, and
blood film? antibody testing on his serum and an eluate of his RBCs yield
positive results with all panel cells and the patient’s own cells.
a. Spherocytes This suggests which mechanism of immune hemolysis for this
b. Nucleated RBCs patient?
c. RBC agglutination
d. Macrocytes a. Drug-RBC membrane protein complex
 b. Drug adsorption c. Substitution of tyrosine for the proximal
c. RBC autoantibody induction histidine in the B chain
d. Drug-induced nonimmunologic protein d. Double amino acid substitution in the B chain
adsorption
7. A well-mixed specimen obtained for a CBC has a brown
11. A group A Rh-negative mother gave birth to a group O color. The patient is being treated with a sulfonamide for a
Rh-positive baby. The baby is at risk for HDFN if: bladder infection. Which of the following could explain the
brown color?
a. This was the mother’s first pregnancy
b. The mother has IgG ABO antibodies a. The patient has Hb M.
c. The mother was previously immunized to the D b. The patient is a compound heterozygote for Hb S
antigen and thalassemia.
d. The mother received Rh immune globulin before c. The incorrect anticoagulant was used.
delivery d. Levels of Hb F are high.
1. A qualitative abnormality in hemoglobin may involve all of
the following except:
a. Replacement of one or more amino acids in a
globin chain 8. Through routine screening, prospective parents discover
b. Addition of one or more amino acids in a globin that they are both heterozygous for Hb S. What percentage of
chain their children potentially could have sickle cell anemia (Hb
c. Deletion of one or more amino acids in a globin SS)?
chain a. 0%
d. Decreased production of a globin chain b. 25%
2. The substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 of c. 50%
the B chain of hemoglobin results in hemoglobin that: d. 100%

a. Is unstable and precipitates as Heinz bodies 9. Painful crises in patients with SCD occur as a result of:
b. Polymerizes to form tactoid crystals a. Splenic sequestration
c. Crystallizes in a hexagonal shape b. Aplasia
d. Contains iron in the ferric (Fe3") state c. Vasoocclusion
3. Patients with SCD usually do not exhibit symptoms until 6 d. Anemia
months of age because: 10. The screening test for Hb S that uses a reducing agent,
a. The mother’s blood has a protective effect such as sodium dithionite, is based on the fact that
b. Hemoglobin levels are higher in infants at birth hemoglobins that sickle:
c. Higher levels of Hb F are present a. Are insoluble in reduced, deoxygenated form
d. The immune system is not fully developed b. Form methemoglobin more readily and cause a
4. Megaloblastic episodes in SCD can be prevented by color change
prophylactic administration of: c. Are unstable and precipitate as Heinz bodies
d. Oxidize quickly and cause turbidity
a. Iron
b. Folic acid 11. DNA analysis documents a patient has inherited the sickle
c. Steroids mutation in both B-globin genes. The two terms that best
d. Erythropoietin describe this genotype are:

5. Which of the following is the most definitive test for Hb S? a. Homozygous/trait

b. Homozygous/disease
a. Hemoglobin solubility test c. Heterozygous/trait
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at alkaline pH d. Heterozygous/disease
c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at acid pH 12. In which of the following geographic areas is Hb S most
prevalent?
6. A patient presents with mild normochromic, normocytic
anemia. On the peripheral blood film, there are a few target a. India
cells, rare nucleated RBCs, and hexagonal crystals within and b. South Africa
lying outside of the RBCs. Which abnormality in the c. United States
hemoglobin molecule is most likely? d. Sub-Saharan Africa

a. Decreased production of B chains 13. Which hemoglobinopathy is more common in Southeast

b. Substitution of lysine for glutamic acid at Asian patients?
position 6 of the B chain a. Hb S
 b. Hb C 4. "B-thalassemia minor (heterozygous) usually exhibits:
c. Hb O
d. Hb E a. Increased Hb H
b. 10% to 35% Hb F
14. Which of the following Hb S compound heterozygotes c. No Hb A
exhibits the mildest symptoms? d. Increased Hb A2
a. Hb S-B-thalassemia 5. RBC morphologic features in "B-thalassemia major usually
b. Hb SG include:
c. Hb SC-Harlem
d. Hb SC a. Microcytes, hypochromia, target cells, RBC
inclusions, NRBCs
a. b. Macrocytes, acanthocytes, target
cells, polychromasia, NRBCs
b. Microcytes, hypochromia, target cells, sickle
15. A 1-year-old Indian patient presents with anemia, and both cells, elliptocytes
parents claim to have an “inherited anemia” but can’t c. Macrocytes, hypochromia, target cells, RBC
remember the type. The peripheral blood shows target cells, inclusions, NRBCs
and the hemoglobin solubility is negative. Alkaline 6. "B-thalassemia major of the genotype "B0 /"B0 can be
hemoglobin electrophoresis shows a single band at the “Hb C” differentiated from the "B+/"B+ genotype by the amount of:
position and a small band at the “Hb F” position. Acid
hemoglobin electrophoresis shows two bands. The most likely a. Hb A
diagnosis is: b. Hb A2
c. Hb F
a. Hb CC d. Hb H
b. Hb AC
c. Hb CO 7. Homozygotes for deletional-type HPFH are characterized
d. Hb SC by:
16. Unstable hemoglobins exhibit all of the following findings a. 10% to 35% Hb F with normal RBC morphology
except: b. 100% Hb F with slightly hypochromic,
microcytic RBCs
a. Globin chains that precipitate intracellularly c. 1% Hb F with normal RBC morphology
b. Heinz body formation d. 5% to 15% Hb F with slightly hypochromic,
c. Elevated reticulocyte count microcytic RBCs
d. Only homozygotes are symptomatic
8. What abnormal hemoglobin is present in adults with a-
1. Thalassemia is caused by: thalassemia, genotype (– –/a –)?
a. Structurally abnormal hemoglobins a. A2
b. Absent or reduced synthesis of a polypeptide b. F
chain of hemoglobin c. H
c. Excessive absorption of iron d. Bart
d. Reduced or absent protoporphyrin synthesis
9. Bart is composed of:
2. Thalassemia is more prevalent in individuals from areas
along the tropics because it confers: a. Two a and two B chains
b. Two E and two Y chains
a. Resistance to heat in heterozygotes with a c. Four B chains
thalassemia mutation d. Four Y chains
b. Selective advantage against tuberculosis
c. Resistance to severe malaria in heterozygotes 10. When one a gene is deleted (a –/– –), a patient has:
with a thalassemia mutation
a. d. Selected advantage against a. Normal hemoglobin levels
tick-borne illnesses b. Mild anemia (hemoglobin range 9 to 11 g/dL)
c. Moderate anemia (hemoglobin range 7 to 9
3. The hemolytic anemia and ineffective erythropoiesis g/dL)
associated with "B-thalassemia is due to: d. Marked anemia requiring regular transfusions
a. A structurally abnormal hemoglobin 11. In which part of the world is the a gene mutation causing
b. Oxidation of hemoglobin to Heinz bodies Hb Bart hydrops fetalis (– –/– –) most common?
c. Uncoupling of the RBC membrane from the
cytoskeleton a. Northern Africa
d. Precipitation of excess a chains in RBCs and b. Mediterranean
their precursors c. Middle East
 d. Southeast Asia a. Pelger-Huët anomaly
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease
12. A patient with a hemoglobin concentration of 8.0 g/dL and c. Alder-Reilly anomaly
an MCV of 62 fL had microcytes, target cells, and a few sickle d. May-Hegglin anomaly
cells on his peripheral blood film. High-performance liquid
chromatography showed 25% Hb A, 65% Hb S, 6% Hb A2, 4. Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is
and 4% Hb F. These results are most compatible with: characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm
and storage of glucocerebroside?
a. Sickle cell trait
b. Sickle cell anemia a. Sanfilippo syndrome
c. Hb S-"0 -thalassemia b. Gaucher disease
d. Hb S-"%-thalassemia c. Fabry disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease
13. Hb H inclusions in a supravital stain preparation appear as:
5. The neutrophils in chronic granulomatous disease are
a. A few large, blue, round bodies in the RBCs incapable of producing:
with aggregated reticulum
b. Uniformly stained blue cytoplasm in the RBC a. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Small, evenly distributed, greenish-blue granules b. Hypochlorite
that pit the surface of RBCs c. Superoxide
d. Uniform round bodies that adhere to the inner d. All of the above
RBC membrane
6. Individuals with X-linked SCID have a mutation that affects
14. Which of the following laboratory findings is inconsistent their ability to synthesize:
with "B-thalassemia minor?
a. Deaminase
a. A slightly elevated RBC count and marked b. Oxidase
microcytosis c. IL-2 receptor
b. Target cells and basophilic stippling on the d. IL-8 receptor
peripheral blood film
c. Hemoglobin level of 10 to 13 g/dL 7. An absolute lymphocytosis with reactive lymphocytes
d. Elevated MCHC and spherocytic RBCs suggests which of the following conditions?

15. A 9-month-old infant of Asian heritage is seen for severe a. DiGeorge syndrome
fatigue and pallor. Her hemoglobin concentration is 6.5 g/dL b. Bacterial infection
with an MCV of 59 fL; microcytosis, hypochromia, c. Parasitic infection
poikilocytosis, basophilic stippling, Howell Jolly bodies, d. Viral infection
Pappenheimer bodies, and nucleated RBCs are noted on the 8. What leukocyte cytoplasmic inclusion is composed of
peripheral blood film. High-performance liquid ribosomal RNA?
chromatography showed 0% Hb A, 96% Hb F, and 4% Hb
A2. These findings should lead the physician to suspect: a. Primary granules
b. Toxic granules
a. "B-thalassemia major, B0 /B0 c. Döhle bodies
b. "B-thalassemia major, B+/B+ d. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Severe iron deficiency anemia
d. Homozygous a-thalassemia (– –/– –) 9. The expected complete blood cell count (CBC) results for
women in active labor would include:
1. Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is
caused by a mutation in the lamin B receptor? a. High total white blood cell (WBC) count with
increased lymphocytes
a. Pelger-Huët anomaly b. High total WBC count with a slight shift to the
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease left in neutrophils
c. Alder-Reilly anomaly c. Normal WBC count with increased eosinophils
d. May-Hegglin anomaly d. Low WBC count with increased monocytes
2. Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders 10. Which of the following is true of an absolute increase in
involves mutations in nonmuscle myosin heavy-chain IIA? lymphocytes with reactive morphology?
a. Pelger-Huët anomaly a. The population of lymphocytes appears
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease morphologically homogeneous.
c. Alder-Reilly anomaly b. They are usually effector B cells.
d. May-Hegglin anomaly c. The reactive lymphocytes have increased
3. Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might cytoplasm with variable basophilia.
be seen in Hurler syndrome? d. They are most commonly seen in bacterial
infections.
 8. Imatinib is an example of what type of leukemia treatment?
1. Lymphomas differ from leukemias in that they are: a. Supportive care
b. Chemotherapy
a. Solid tumors c. Bone marrow conditioning agent
b. Not considered systemic diseases d. Targeted therapy
c. Never found in peripheral blood
d. Do not originate from hematopoietic cells 9. Which one of the following is FALSE about epigenetic
mechanisms?
2. Which one of the following viruses is known to cause
lymphoid neoplasms in humans? a. Epigenetic mechanisms control how genes are
expressed and silenced.
a. HIV-1 b. Micro RNAs can bind to specific mRNAs and
b. HTLV-1 block their translation.
c. Hepatitis B c. Hypermethylation of CpG islands in gene
d. Parvovirus B promoters result in their overactivation.
3. Loss-of-function of tumor suppressor genes increase the d. Histone deacetylases keep chromatin of target
risk of hematologic neoplasms by: genes in a closed inactive state.

a. Suppressing cell division 10. Which one of the following is NOT a source of
b. Activating tyrosine kinases which promote hematopoietic stem cells for transplantation?
proliferation a. Spleen
c. Promoting excessive apoptosis b. Bone marrow
of hematopoietic cells c. Peripheral blood
d. Allowing cells with damaged DNA to progress d. Umbilical cord blood
through the cell cycle
1. According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias
4. Oncogenes are said to act in a dominant fashion because: with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of
a. Leukemia is a dominating disease that is blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is:
systemic a. 10%
b. The oncogene product is a gain-of-function b. 20%
mutation c. 30%
c. A mutation in only one allele is sufficient to d. 50%
promote a malignant phenotype
d. They are inherited by autosomal dominant 2. A 20-year-old patient has an elevated WBC count with 70%
transmission blasts, 4% neutrophils, 5% lymphocytes, and 21% monocytes
in the peripheral blood. Eosinophils with dysplastic changes
5. Which one of the following is NOT one of the cellular are seen in the bone marrow. AML with which of the
abnormalities produced by oncogenes? following karyotypes would be most likely to be seen?
a. Constitutive activation of a growth factor a. AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22)
receptor b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)
b. Constitutive activation of a signaling protein c. APL with PML-RARA
c. Acceleration of DNA catabolism d. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)
d. Dysregulation of apoptosis
3. Which of the following would be considered a sign of
6. Which one of the following is an example of a tumor potentially favorable prognosis in children with ALL?
suppressor gene?
a. Hyperdiploidy
a. ABL1 b. Presence of CD19 and CD20
b. RARA c. Absence of trisomy 8
c. TP53 d. Presence of BCR/ABL gene
d. JAK2
4. Signs and symptoms of cerebral infiltration with blasts are
7. G-CSF is provided as supportive treatment during leukemia more commonly seen in:
treatment regimens to:
a. AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities
a. Suppress GVHD b. Therapy-related myeloid neoplasms
b. Overcome anorexia c. AML with myelodysplasia-related changes
c. Prevent anemia d. ALL
d. Reduce the risk of infection
5. An oncology patient exhibiting signs of renal failure with
seizures after initial chemotherapy may potentially develop:
 a. Hyperleukocytosis b. Monocytic
b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Granulocytic
c. Acute leukemia secondary to chemotherapy d. Lymphoid
d. Myelodysplasia
1. A peripheral blood film that shows increased neutrophils,
6. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly
in association with leukemia characterized by which of the suggestive of:
following mutations?
a. AML
a. t(12;21)(p13;q22) b. CML
b. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) c. MDS
c. inv(16)(p13;q22) d. Multiple myeloma
d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)
2. Which of the following
7. Which of the following leukemias affects primarily chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML?
children, is characterized by an increase in monoblasts and
monocytes, and often is associated with gingival and skin a. t(15;17)
involvement? b. t(8;14)
c. t(9;22)
a. Pre-B-lymphoblastic leukemia d. Monosomy 7
b. Pure erythroid leukemia
c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23) 3. A patient has a WBC count of 30 X 109 /L and the
d. APL with PML-RARA following WBC differential: Segmented neutrophils—38%

8. A 20-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, easy Bands—17%

bruising, and swollen gums. Bone marrow examination Metamyelocytes—7%
reveals 82% cells with delicate chromatin and prominent
nucleoli that are CD14+, CD4+, CD11b+, and CD36+. Which Myelocytes—20%
of the following acute leukemias is likely?
Promyelocytes—10%
a. Minimally differentiated leukemia
b. Leukemia of ambiguous lineage Eosinophils—3%
c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic leukemia
Basophils—5%
d. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
Which of the following test results would be helpful in
9. Pure erythroid leukemia is a disorder involving:
determining whether the patient has CML?
a. Pronormoblasts only
a. Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction product
b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts
increased
c. All forms of developing RBC precursors
b. Myeloperoxidase increased
d. Equal numbers of pronormoblasts and
c. Periodic acid–Schiff staining decreased
myeloblasts
d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1 fusion
10. A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of
4. A patient in whom CML has previously been diagnosed has
3.0 X 109 /L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60%
circulating blasts and promyelocytes that total 30% of
blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The
leukocytes. The disease is considered to be in what phase?
most likely type of leukemia is:
a. Chronic stable phase
a. Acute lymphoblastic
b. Accelerated phase
b. Acute megakaryoblastic
c. Transformation to acute leukemia
c. Acute monoblastic
d. APL with PML-RARA 5. The most common mutation found in patients with primary
PV is:
11. SBB stains which of the
following component of cells? a. BCR-ABL1
b. Philadelphia chromosome
a. Glycogen
c. JAK2 V617F
b. Lipids
c. Structural proteins 6. The peripheral blood in PV typically manifests:
d. Enzymes
a. Erythrocytosis only
12. The cytochemical stain a-naphthyl butyrate is a b. Erythrocytosis and thrombocytopenia
nonspecific esterase stain that shows diffuse positivity in cells c. cErythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and
of which lineage? granulocytosis
d. Anemia and thrombocytopenia
a. Erythroid
7. A patient has a platelet count of 700 X 109 /L with 4. For an erythroid precursor to be considered a ring
abnormalities in the size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a sideroblast, the iron-laden mitochondria must encircle how
WBC count of 12 X 109 /L; and hemoglobin of 11 g/dL. The much of the nucleus?
Philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely
diagnosis is: a. One-quarter
b. One-third
a. PV c. Two-thirds
b. ET d. Entire nucleus
c. CML
d. Leukemoid reaction 5. According to the WHO classification of MDS, what
percentage of blasts would constitute transformation to an
8. Complications of ET include all of the following except: acute leukemia?
a. Thrombosis a. 5%
b. Hemorrhage b. 10%
c. Seizures c. 20%
d. Infections d. 30%
9. Which of the following patterns 6. A patient has anemia, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented
is characteristic of the peripheral blood in patients neutrophils. Which of the following tests would be most
with PMF? efficient in differential diagnosis of this disorder?
a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, a. Serum iron and ferritin levels
immature granulocytes b. Erythropoietin level
b. Abnormal platelets only c. Vitamin B12 and folate levels
c. Hypochromic erythrocytes, immature d. Chromosome analysis
granulocytes, and normal platelets
d. Spherocytes, immature granulocytes, and 7. A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician with fatigue
increased numbers of platelets and malaise. Her hemoglobin is 8 g/dL, hematocrit is 25%,
RBC count is 2.00 X1012/L, platelet count is 550 X 109 /L,
10. The myelofibrosis associated with PMF is a result of: and WBC count is 3.8 X 109 /L. Her WBC differential is
unremarkable. Bone marrow shows erythroid hypoplasia and
a. Apoptosis resistance in the fibroblasts of the hypolobulated megakaryocytes; granulopoiesis appears
bone marrow normal. Ring sideroblasts are rare.
b. Impaired production of normal collagenase by
the mutated cells Chromosome analysis reveals the deletion of 5q only. Based
c. Enhanced activity of fibroblasts as a result of on the classification of this disorder, what therapy would be
increased stimulatory cytokines most appropriate?
1. MDS are most common in which age group? a. Supportive therapy; lenalidomide if the disease
progresses
a. 2 to 10 years b. Aggressive chemotherapy
b. 15 to 20 years c. Bone marrow transplantation
c. 25 to 40 years d. Low-dose cytosine arabinoside, accompanied by
d. Older than 50 years cisretinoic acid
2. What is a major indication of MDS in the peripheral blood 8. Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to the
and bone marrow? death of patients with MDS?
a. Dyspoiesis a. Neutropenia
b. Leukocytosis with left shift b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Normal bone marrow with abnormal c. Organ failure
peripheral blood features d. Neuropathy
d. Thrombocytosis
9. Into what other hematologic disease does MDS often
3. An alert hematologist should recognize all of the following convert?
peripheral blood abnormalities as diagnostic clues in MDS
EXCEPT: a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
a. Oval macrocytes c. AML
b. Target cells d. Myeloproliferative disease
c. Agranular neutrophils
d. Circulating micromegakaryocytes 10. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia is
classified in the WHO system as:
a. A myeloproliferative neoplasm
 b. Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassified 9. In most cases the diagnosis of lymphoma relies on all of the
c. MDS/MPN following except:
d. Acute leukemia
a. Microscopic examination of affected lymph
1. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can be nodes
best differentiated from reactive disorders by: b. Immunophenotyping
c. Molecular analysis
a. Genetic testing d. Peripheral blood examination and complete
b. Immunophenotyping blood count
c. Absolute lymphocyte count
d. Blood film review 10. Which of the following is present in monoclonal
gammopathy of underdetermined significance?
2. Which laboratory test is most suggestive of autoimmune
hemolytic anemia in a patient with CLL? a. Hypercalcemia
b. Serum monoclonal protein
a. Direct antiglobulin test c. Anemia
b. Hemoglobin d. Bone lesion
c. Lymphocyte count
d. Platelet count
3. What is the best test or method for determining if a clonal
population of T cells is present in a specimen?
a. Molecular diagnostic testing
b. Flow cytometry for CD3, CD5, and CD7
c. Immunohistochemical stain
d. Karyotyping
4. A rise in the lymphocyte count from 4.1 X 109 /L to 5.5 X
109 /L in a patient with monoclonal B lymphocytosis
suggests:
a. Acute lymphocyte leukemia
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. Acute myelocytic leukemia
d. A reactive condition
5. Which test is often used to differentiate CLL from mantle
cell lymphoma?
a. Annexin A staining
b. Lymph node biopsy
c. Immunohistochemistry
d. FISH for BCL2 translocation
6. If not treated, which of the following would generally be
associated with the best outcome?
a. Peripheral T cell lymphoma
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma
d. Sézary syndrome
7. What do CLL and myeloma have in common?
a. Osteolytic lesions
b. Light chain restriction
c. Cell of origin
d. Immunophenotype
8. In Hodgkin lymphoma the Reed-Sternberg cell and
_________ are malignant.
a. Popcorn cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Histiocytes