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AFCAT 2 2024 Ebook - 3507

The document provides an overview of the AFCAT 2 2024 exam including eligibility criteria, exam pattern, selection process, vacancy trends and cut-off marks. The exam consists of 100 questions in 2 hours across subjects like general awareness, English and numerical ability. Selection involves a written test, AFSB interview, document verification and medical exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
428 views35 pages

AFCAT 2 2024 Ebook - 3507

The document provides an overview of the AFCAT 2 2024 exam including eligibility criteria, exam pattern, selection process, vacancy trends and cut-off marks. The exam consists of 100 questions in 2 hours across subjects like general awareness, English and numerical ability. Selection involves a written test, AFSB interview, document verification and medical exam.

Uploaded by

Nallapu Sahithya
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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About the AFCAT 2 2024 Exam Overview

AFCAT 2 2024 Exam


AFCAT exam or Air Force Common Admission Test is conducted by Indian Air Force to select candidates as Class 1
gazetted officers in the Flying and Ground Duty (Technical and Non-Technical) branches.

AFCAT Exam Overview


Exam Name Air Force Common Admission Test(AFCAT 2/2024)
Conducting Body Indian Air Force
Periodicity Twice a year
Exam Level National
Mode of Exam Online (CBT)
Total Number of Questions 100 Questions
Total Marks 300 Marks
Exam Rounds 3 Stages (Written + AFSB + DV)
Job Location Across India
Official Website afcat.cdac.in

AFCAT Vacancy Trend


Year No. Of Vacancies
AFCAT 2 2024 304
AFCAT 1 2024 317
AFCAT 2 2023 276
AFCAT 1 2023 256
AFCAT 2 2022 304
AFCAT 1 2022 269

AFCAT Cut Off Trend


Year AFCAT Cut-off EKT Cut-off
AFCAT 1 2024 137 —
AFCAT 2 2023 151 —
AFCAT 1 2023 155 —
AFCAT 2 2022 157 —
AFCAT 1 2022 157 —
AFCAT 2 2021 157 18
AFCAT 1 2021 165 30
AFCAT 2 2020 155 40

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AFCAT 2 2024 Eligibility Criteria
The candidate must fulfill the following two criteria to be eligible for the AFCAT 2 2024 Exam:
(a) Nationality – The candidate must be a citizen of India as per the Indian citizenship act, 1955.

(b) Age – Given below is the age criteria for the multiple posts:
Flying Branch. 20 to 24 years as on 01 July 2025 i.e. born between 02 July 2001 to 01 July 2005(both dates inclusive).
The upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot License issued by DGCA (India) is
relaxable up to 26 years i.e. born between 02 July 1999 to 01 July 2005 (both dates inclusive).
Ground Duty (Technical/ Non-Technical) Branches. 20 to 26 years as on 01 July 2025 i.e. born between 02 July 1999
to 01 July 2005 (both dates inclusive).

c) Educational Qualifications:

Branch Sub-Branch Educational Qualification


Ground Duty Aeronautical Engineer Minimum 50% marks each in physics and mathematics at 10+2 level
Technical Branch (Mechanical) and a four-year degree in graduation/integrated or post-graduation
in the field of engineering and technology from a recognized
university. OR Those who have cleared the examination of associate
membership of the institution of engineers (India) in both A and B
sections, with a minimum of 60% in certain disciplines as prescribed
by IAF.
Ground Duty Aeronautical Engineer Minimum 50% marks each in physics and mathematics at 10+2 level
Technical Branch (Electronics) and a degree in graduation/post-graduation in the field of
engineering and technology from a recognized university. OR Those
who have cleared the examination of associate membership of the
institution of engineers (India) in both A and B sections, with a
minimum of 60% in certain disciples as prescribed by IAF.
Ground Duty Administration Graduate degree with a minimum of 60% marks with a three-year
(Non-Technical) degree course from a recognized university OR should have cleared
branches section A & B examination with a minimum of 60%.
Weapon System Must have cleared 10+2 with a minimum of 50% marks each in
Branch Maths and Physics. Must have graduated from a recognized
university with: Graduation with a minimum three years degree
course in any discipline from a recognized University with a
minimum of 60% marks or equivalent. OR (BE/B Tech degree (Four
years course) from a recognised University with a minimum of 60%
marks or equivalent.

AFCAT Selection Procedure 2024


The AFCAT 2024 selection process includes a written exam, AFSB testing, document verification, and a medical
examination. After these steps, a final conference evaluates candidates' overall performance. A merit list is then
created, ranking candidates based on their performance in all stages, with the top candidates selected. AFCAT Exam
consists of following stages-
1. Written Examination
2. AFSB Interview
3. Document Verification.
4. Medical Test

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AFCAT 2 2024 Written Exam pattern
AFCAT 2024 Written Exam is an entry-level exam for candidates. One must need to score the minimum qualifying
marks (or the cut-off being announced by the Indian Air Force) in order to get the call letter for AFSB. A candidate
needs to clear both the Written Exam as well as AFSB Interview in order to get their names in the final merit list.
• 3 marks will be given for every correct answer
• There is a negative marking of 1 mark.

Subject No of Questions Time Maximum Marks


General Awareness
Verbal Ability in English
100 2 hours 300
Numerical Ability
Military Aptitude Test and Reasoning

AFCAT Technical Branch/Non-Technical Branch Exam Pattern


Section Marks Questions Time
Military Aptitude Test and Reasoning 105 35
Verbal Ability in English 90 30
2 Hours
Numerical Ability 45 15
General Awareness 60 20

AFCAT Topic Wise Analysis


Given below is the topic wise exam analysis.
AFCAT 1 2024 Exam Analysis: English Language

Topic Question Asked


Reading Comprehension 4-5
Sentence Rearrangement 2-3
Error Detection 4-5
Idioms & Phrases 2-3
Synonyms & Antonyms 4-5
Cloze Test 4-5

AFCAT 1 2024 Exam Analysis: Numerical Ability

Topics Question Asked


SI (Simple Interest) 1-2
Time and Work 1-2
Time and Distance 1
Profit & Loss 1-2
Average 1
Ratio & Proportion 1-2
Number System 2-3
Number Series 2-3

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AFCAT 1 2024 Exam Analysis: Reasoning and Military Aptitude
Topic Question Asked
Odd One Out 1-2
Rearrangement Letter 1-2
Mathematical Relation 2-3
Blood Relations 2-3
Coding-Decoding 1-2
Analogy 1-2
Puzzle Test 2-3

AFCAT Syllabus 2024


The AFCAT exam consists of four sections i.e. General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test.
Subjects AFCAT Syllabus
General Awareness • History
• Geography
• Sports
• National & International Organisations
• Art & Culture
• Personalities
• Environment & Ecology
• Indian Polity
• Economy
• Basic Science Based Knowledge
• Science & Technology
• Current Affairs (National & International)
• Defence.
English • Comprehension
• Detecting Errors in Sentences
• Sentence Completion/Filling in of correct word
• Synonym/Antonym
• Cloze Test or Fill in the Gaps in a paragraph
• Idioms and Phrases
• Analogy
• Sentence Rearranging
• Substitution in a Sentence/One Word Substitution.
Numerical Ability • Decimal Fraction
• Time and Work
• Average/Percentage
• Profit & Loss
• Ratio & Proportion
• Simple and Compound Interest
• Time & Distance and Races (Trains/Boats & Streams)
• Area and Perimeter
• Probability
• Number System & Number Series
• Mixture & Allegation Rules
• Clocks.
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning

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AFCAT Syllabus 2024 Technical Branch
Subject Topics Covered
Engineering Mathematics, Engineering Physics, Engineering Drawing, Engineering
General Engineering
Mechanics
Aircraft Systems Aircraft Structures, Propulsion, Flight Mechanics, Aerodynamics, Material Science

Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer, Fluid Mechanics, Engineering Materials,


Mechanical Engineering
Manufacturing Technology
Computer Networks, Data Structures, Programming Languages, Database
Computer Science
Management Systems, Algorithms
Electrical Machines, Control Systems, Power Electronics, Power Systems, Electronic
Electrical Engineering
Devices
Analog and Digital Electronics, Electronic Devices and Circuits, Microprocessors,
Electronics
Communication
Instrumentation Measurement and Control Systems, Industrial Instrumentation, Process Control

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Previous Year Paper
Directions (1-2): Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms given in bold:

Q1. That dress made her look fat, let’s call a spade a spade before she goes out wearing it and embarrasses
herself. Source: theidioms.com
(a) ignite the argument
(b) speak in a straight forward manner
(c) remain undecided
(d) become enemy

Q2. Leaving England wasn't easy and I had cold feet about it a couple of times.
(a) ignored the idea
(b) felt enthusiastic
(c) experienced nervousness
(d) sought the drawbacks

Directions (3-7): In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the
help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem
insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then, that
the Assisted Reproductive Techniques (ART) Bill, which was cleared by the Union Cabinet this week, came
after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the
amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal
Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the
reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to (5) _________ clinics offering fertility
treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008. ART measures
help couples unable to (6) _________ naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-the-art technology to
achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, (7) _________ the initial
years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise
Brown, the first ‘test tube baby’, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the
world’s second test tube baby. Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth, as infertility rates went
up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is (8) _________ to
reach $45 billion by 2026. Among Asian countries, India’s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of
regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This,
in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country.
Undoubtedly, this also led to a (9) _________ of legal, social and ethical issues.

Q3. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 1


(a) regularize
(b) appoint
(c) regulation
(d) regulate

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Q4. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 2
(a) convene
(b) convince
(c) conceive
(d) concede

Q5. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 3


(a) through
(b) thorough
(c) thoroughly
(d) though

Q6. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 4


(a) expected
(b) accepted
(c) excepted
(d) inspected

Q7. Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 5


(a) abundance
(b) plethora
(c) scarcity
(d) paucity

Directions (8-12): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:-

Q8. AUDACIOUS
(a) Timid
(b) Simplicity
(c) Fearless
(d) Meek

Q9. EXONERATE
(a) Convict
(b) Acquit
(c) Haste
(d) Access

Q10. ADVOCATE
(a) Critic
(b) Withdraw
(c) Proponent
(d) Intrude

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Q11. PREAMBLE
(a) Fault
(b) Significant
(c) Preface
(d) Friendly

Q12. PRODIGIOUS
(a) Negligible
(b) Lustrous
(c) Community
(d) Massive

Directions (13-17): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:-

Q13. BEGUILE
(a) Repel
(b) Elegance
(c) Dazzle
(d) Occupy

Q14. CALLOW
(a) Naive
(b) Sophisticated
(c) Artless
(d) Cessation

Q15. NIMBLE
(a) Pious
(b) Stiff
(c) Spry
(d) Outdated

Q16. WRATH
(a) Fury
(b) Delight
(c) Fake
(d) Ire

Q17. VALIDATE
(a) Verify
(b) Uphold
(c) Applaud
(d) Disprove

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Directions (18-22): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:
It has been close to 18 months since the Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, launched the country-wide
implementation of Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), or the national health
protection scheme; the initial momentum has been very encouraging. The scheme is currently being
implemented in 32 of 36 States and Union Territories. It has provided 84 lakh free treatments to poor and
vulnerable patients for secondary and tertiary ailments at 22,000 empanelled hospitals, countrywide.
Under PM-JAY, there is one free treatment every three seconds and two beneficiaries verified every second.
As the scale of this scheme grows, a key area of focus is to expand the secondary and tertiary hospitals
empanelled under PM-JAY and ensure their quality and capacity while keeping the costs down. At present,
there is one government bed for every 1,844 patients and one doctor for every 11,082 patients. In the
coming years, considering 3% hospitalisation of PM-JAY-covered beneficiaries, the scheme is likely to
provide treatment to 1.5 crore patients annually. This means physical and human infrastructure capacity
would need to be augmented vastly. Conservative estimates suggest that we would need more than
150,000 additional beds, especially in Tier-2 and -3 cities. While a comprehensive long-term strategy will
focus on expanding hospital and human resources infrastructure, an effective near-term approach is
needed to improve efficiencies and bridge gaps within the existing supply and likely demand. A strong, yet
under-tapped lever for accelerating health system efficiency and bridging these gaps is mainstreaming
innovation in the Indian health system.

Q18. What is the other name for Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)?
(a) New Health Scheme
(b) New Health Policy
(c) National Policy for Health Protection
(d) National Health Protection Scheme

Q19. Which among the following statements regarding PM-JAY is/are wrong?
(i) there are two beneficiaries verified every second
(ii) there are three free treatments every second
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Q20. What should be the key area of focus for PM-JAY?


(a) to expand the primary hospitals empanelled under PM-JAY.
(b) to achieve a target of providing treatment to 1.5 crore patients annually.
(c) to increase the secondary and tertiary hospitals enlisted under PM-JAY.
(d) to make the doctor-patient ratio 1:1

Q21. What should be the short-term approach of the said scheme?


(a) to expand hospital infrastructure
(b) to bridge gaps within the existing supply and likely demand
(c) to expand human resources infrastructure
(d) to provide free treatment for primary ailments

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Q22. What does the Conservative estimates suggest?
(a) there is a need of more than 150,000 additional beds
(b) the scheme is likely to provide treatment to more than 1.5 crore patients
(c) the government will double the funds allocated for the scheme
(d) there is a need of more than 2 lakh doctors

Directions (23-25): Choose the best phrasal verb to fill in the blank.

Q23. It is obvious that the new law has __________ some revolutionary changes in the current tax system but
there are still some points to be revised.
(a) brought about
(b) broken away
(c) taken in
(d) pulled out
(e) come at

Q24. If it weren't for the loan I got from the bank, it would have been impossible for me to ___________my
own business.
(a) set up
(b) cross out
(c) drop off
(d) take down
(e) throw up

Q25. Though he loved his fiancée very much, the boy acted in accordance with his parent's wishes and
____________with her.
(a) set out
(b) turned out
(c) made up
(d) broke up
(e) looked in

Q26. What is the southernmost capital in the world?


(a) Cannbera
(b) Wellington
(c) Cape Town
(d) Buenos Aires

Q27. Longest freshwater lake in the world is ?


(a) Michigan
(b) Superior
(c) Lake Tanganyika
(d) Victoria

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Q28. Worlds's largest riverine island?
(a) Bananal Island
(b) Uarini Island
(c) Majuli
(d) Tupinambarana

Q29. Which country is known as 'Land of Morning Calms'?


(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Indonesia
(d) Korea

Q30. Which river passes through the largest freshwater lake in India?
(a) Satluj
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ganga
(d) Yamuna

Q31. Shooting is a national sport of which country?


(a) Afganistan
(b) Argentina
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Switzerland

Q32. FIFA was established in .....?


(a) 1904
(b) 1900
(c) 1940
(d) 1920

Q33. When was the construction of Red Fort completed?


(a) 1648
(b) 1600
(c) 1669
(d) 1670

Q34. CASTLE term is related to which sport?


(a) Athletics
(b) Chess
(c) Boxing
(d) Cricket

Q35. Where is the headquarter of International Renewable Energy Agency?


(a) New York
(b) Nairobi
(c) Masdar City
(d) Washington DC

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Q36. Which among the following was Navratana of Akbar?
(a) Faizi
(b) Fakir Aziao-Din
(c) Abul-Fazal
(d) All of these

Q37. Which of the following party formed out of India?


(a) Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha
(b) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(c) Gadar Party
(d) Swaraj Party

Q38. When was the Planning Commission was established ?


(a) 15 January 1950
(b) 15 January 1960
(c) 15 March 1950
(d) 25 March 1960

Q39. Reykjavik is the capital of which country?


(a) Sweden
(b) Norway
(c) Greenland
(d) Iceland

Q40. Project Tiger was launched in?


(a) 1993
(b) 1990
(c) 1983
(d) 1973

Q41.The term fault is related to which sport?


(a) Cricket
(b) Hockey
(c) Tennis
(d) Football

Q42.Clay courtts are used in which Grand Slam tournaments?


(a) US Open
(b) Wimbeldon
(c) Australian Open
(d) French Open

Q43.Where is the headquarter of World Intellectual Property Organization?


(a) New York
(b) Geneva
(c) London
(d) Nairobi

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Q44.Who is also known as Deshbandhu ?
(a) Chittaranjan Das
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Q45.Which country was known as SIAM?


(a) Indonesia
(b) Japan
(c) Myanmar
(d) Thailand

Q46.Thomas cup is related to which sport?


(a) Tennis
(b) Badminton
(c) Football
(d) Cricket

Q47. Which river originates from Gangotri Glacier?


(a) Satluj
(b) Indus
(c) Jhelum
(d) Ganga

Q48.The Bhagirathi River originates from?


(a) Gangotri Glacier
(b) Mansarovar
(c) Kedarnath
(d) Gaumukh Glacier

Q49. Who is the Longest serving PM of India?


(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpaee

Q50. Who is known as the Iron Man of India?


(a) Chittaranjan Das
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q51. What is the Currency of thailand?


(a) Paiso
(b) Thai Baht
(c) Dinar
(d) Rupee

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Q52. Pattachitra is a traditional painting of which state ?
(a) Odisha
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamilnadu
(d) Maharastra

Q53. Which among the following is not the terrestrial planet?


(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter

Q54. Silver revolution is related to


(a) Fish
(b) Eggs
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Flowers

Q55. Which of the following was discovered by Madam Curie ?


(a) Polonium
(b) Radium
(c) Cyanide
(d) Both a and b

Q56. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for two years compounded
annually at 20% p.a is 1331. Find the Principal.
(a) 32275
(b) 33275
(c) 35015
(d) 38975

Q57. A can complete a task in 10 days while B can finish it in 15 days, B left work after 3 days , find the time
taken to complete the remaining work by A?
(a) 7½days
(b) 3days
(c) 5days
(d) 4days

Q58. The average of 10 students is 32 while if the age of teacher is included the average increases by 1.5.
Find the age of the teacher?
(a) 46.5
(b) 49.5
(c) 47.5
(d) 48.5

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Q59. A train passes a pole in 15 seconds , while the same train crosses a platform in 47 seconds if platform
length is 640m, then find the length of the train?
(a) 300m
(b) 225m
(c) 375m
(d) 400m

Q60. A shopkeeper gives a successive discount of 40% and 20%. Find the selling price if marked price of
the article is Rs.1600?
(a) 778
(b) 768
(c) 868
(d) 878

Q61. The ratio of the speed of the boat upstream and downstream is 4:7. Find the speed of the boat if the
speed of stream is 0.5m/sec?

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d) 1

Q62.
(a) 5
(b) 6
1
(c) 7 5
(d) 9

Q63. A , B and C can complete a work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively, Find the time taken to complete
the work if B assists with half of its efficiency and C assist on every alternate days?

(a)

(b)
(c)
(d)

Q64. A sells two watches one at a gain of 23% while other at the loss of 23%. Find his overall profit/gain
percentage ?
(a) no profit and loss
(b) 4%
(c) 3%
(d) 5.29

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Q65. The average of 17 observations are 20 if one more observation is added, the average decreases by 2.
Find the 18thobservation?
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 18

Q66. In how many years the sum of of Rs. 3375 at 30% p.a compounded semi-annually will yield Rs 4096.
(a) 3 years
(b) 1½years
(c) 1 years
(d) 2 years

Q67. A’s salary is 25% lower than B’s salary, which is 30% lower than C’s salary. By how much percent is
C’s salary greater than B’s salary?
(a) 66.66%
(b) 56.25%
(c) 42.85%
(d) 40%

Q68. A person A sells his horse at a discount of 25% to B while B sells the horse to C at a discount of 20%.
C buys for Rs 1800. Find the original price at which A had bought the horse?
(a) 1234
(b) 1500
(c) 2000
(d) 3000

Q69. A person walk from point X and Y at 8am same time B start from Y to X , they meet at O after crossing
B takes 16 hrs while A takes 25 hrs. If the speed of A is 24km/hr, then the speed of B?
(a) 32km/hr
(b) 24km/hr
(c) 30km/hr
(d) 35km/hr

Q70.

(a)
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 11

Q71. Select the Venn diagram that best represent the given classes.
Teacher, College, Student

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q72. Select the Venn diagram that best represent the given classes.
Iron, Lead, Nitrogen

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q73. Select the Venn diagram that best represent the given class.
Musician, Singers, Women

(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d)

Q74. Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Indoor games, Chess, Table tennis.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q75.
(a) Naira
(b) Rupee
(c) Dollar
(d) taka

Q76. Complete the series:


Cataract : Eye :: Pneumonia: ?
(a) kidney
(b) nose
(c) stomach
(d) lungs

Q77. Compete the series:


Bihu : Assam :: Onam : ?
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(a) Karnataka
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

Q78. Complete the series:


International literacy Day : September 8 :: International woman’s Day : ?
(a) March 8
(b) June 26
(c) April 22
(d) November 4

Q79. Choose odd one out


(a) Sailor
(b) Tailor
(c) Goldsmith
(d) Blacksmith

Q80. Choose odd one out


(a) Albatross
(b) Ostrich
(c) Pelican
(d) Penguin

Q81. Choose odd one out


(a) Pharynx
(b) Bronchiole
(c) Auricle
(d) Alveoli

Q82. Choose odd one out


(a) Mendicant
(b) Ascetic
(c) Pious
(d) Hermit

Q83. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and FATE is written as GATE, then how will BLUE be
written in that code.
(a) CLUE
(b) GLUE
(c) FLUE
(d) SLUE

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Q84. In, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will DIAGRAM be in that
code?
(a) BGYEPYK
(b) BGYPYEK
(c) GLPEYKGB
(d) LKBGYPK

Q85. If MUSTARD is written as 132119201184, how is PROFUSE written in that code?


(a) 161815621195
(b) 161816621195
(c) 161815620195
(d) 162015621195

Q86. Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q87. Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘×’ is embedded.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q88. Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is is embedded.

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(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q89. Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror of the given figure when mirror is right and
when mirror is placed at right side.
PANCHAL

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q90. Choose the option that most closely resembles the water image of the given figure when mirror is
placed at right side.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q91. Identify the alternative which resembles the mirror image of the given word.
DL9Q3574

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q92. If A = 1, CAT = 24, then POLICE = ?


(a) 57
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) 59
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Q93. Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct.
25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26
(a) + and ÷
(b) + and ×
(c) – and ÷
(d) + and –

Q94. Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
2, 12, 30, ?, 90, 132
(a) 48
(b) 56
(c) 72
(d) 63

Q95. Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
79, 71, 61, 53, 43, ?
(a) 49
(b) 37
(c) 41
(d) 35

Q96. Study the diagram given below and identify the region representing girls who are employed but
unmarried.

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q97. Which figure represent the relationship among sun, moon, molecule.

(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d)

Q98. Which figure best represent the relationship among Men, Vegetables and Cow?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q99. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.


(a) 23
(b) 29
(c) 37
(d) 33

Q100. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.


(a) 183
(b) 283
(c) 231
(d) 209

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Solutions
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Call a spade a spade: to not dress the truth up and speak in a straight forward manner.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. To have cold feet: to experience nervousness or anxiety before one attempts to do something, often to
the extent that one tries to avoid it.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Regulate: control (something, especially a business activity) by means of rules and regulations.
Regularize: make (something) regular.
Hence, “regulate” is the only correct option.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. Conceive: (of a woman) become pregnant.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Though: however (indicating that a factor qualifies or imposes restrictions on what was said
previously). Hence, ‘though’ is the correct choice.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Expected: regarded as likely; anticipated.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Plethora: a large or excessive amount of something.
‘Abundance’ also means the same as ‘plethora’ but since the antecedent is an indefinite article “a” therefore
‘abundance’ cannot be taken as the correct answer.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Audacious: showing a willingness to take surprisingly bold risks.
Synonyms – fearless, courageous, daring, intrepid, bold, valiant.
Hence, option c is the correct answer which conveys the same meaning as that of given word.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is option b.
Exonerate: absolve (someone) from blame for a fault or wrongdoing.
Synonyms- vindicate, discharge, absolve, exculpate, acquit.
Hence, option b is the correct answer which conveys the same meaning as that of given word.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Advocate: a person who publicly supports or recommends a particular cause or policy.
Synonyms – exponent, protector, supporter, promoter, proponent.
Hence, option c is the correct answer which conveys the same meaning as that of given word.

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S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Preamble: a preliminary or preparatory statement; an introduction.
Synonyms – preface, prologue, prelude, introduction.
Hence, option c is the correct answer which conveys the same meaning as that of given word.

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is option d.
Prodigious: remarkably or impressively great in extent, size, or degree.
Synonyms – enormous, vast, immense, colossal, massive, large.
Hence, option d is the correct answer which conveys the same meaning as that of given word.

S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. Beguile: charm or enchant (someone), often in a deceptive way.
Repel: be repulsive or distasteful to.
Hence option A is the correct antonym.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Callow: inexperienced and immature.
Sophisticated: having, revealing, or involving a great deal of worldly experience and knowledge of fashion
and culture.
Hence option B is the correct antonym.

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Nimble: quick and light in movement or action; agile.
Stiff: not easily bent or changed in shape; rigid.
Hence option B is the correct antonym.

S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. Wrath: extreme anger.
Delight: great pleasure.
Hence option B is the correct antonym.

S17. Ans.(d)
Sol. Validate: demonstrate or support the truth or value of.
Disprove: prove that (something) is false.
Hence option D is the correct antonym.

S18. Ans.(d)
Sol. Refer to the 1st line “Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, launched the country-wide implementation of
Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), or the national health protection
scheme”. Hence, option(d) is the correct choice.

S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. The second statement is wrong as there is only one free treatment every three seconds under PM-JAY.
Refer to “Under PM-JAY, there is one free treatment every three seconds and two beneficiaries verified
every second”.

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S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. Refer to, “As the scale of this scheme grows, a key area of focus is to expand the secondary and
tertiary hospitals empanelled under PM-JAY and ensure their quality and capacity while keeping the
costs down”.

S21. Ans.(b)
Sol. Refer to last para, “an effective near-term approach is needed to improve efficiencies and bridge gaps
within the existing supply and likely demand”. Hence, option(b) is the correct choice.

S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. Refer to “Conservative estimates suggest that we would need more than 150,000 additional beds,
especially in Tier-2 and -3 cities”.

S23. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bring about: to make something happen

S24. Ans.(a)
Sol. Set up: to create something or start it

S25. Ans.(d)
Sol. Break up: to come to an end

S26. Ans.(b)
Sol. New Zealand's capital, Wellington, sits at the southwestern tip of North Island near the Cook Strait.
The city in the second largest in New Zealand (after Auckland), and at 41 south latitude, it is the
southernmost capital city in the world.

S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. Lake Tanganyika is an African Great Lake, It is the world's longest freshwater lake

S28. Ans.(c)
Sol. Majuli, the largest river island in the world, is situated in the northeastern state of Assam. Majuli means
land in the midst of two rivers. It is formed by the Brahmaputra River in the south and the Kherkutia Xuti
joined by the Subansiri River in the north.

S29. Ans.(d)
Sol. Korea is also called 'Land of Morning Calm'.

S30. Ans.(b)
Sol. Wular Lake It is sited in Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir.The lake basin was formed as a
result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River

S31. Ans.(d)
Sol. The National game of Switzerland is Shooting and Gymnastics.

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S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. FIFA was founded on 21 May 1904 at Paris, France

S33. Ans.(a)
Sol. Red fort was completed on 6th April 1648, under the supervision of Shah Jahan

S34. Ans.(b)
Sol. Chess, Castling is a special type of chess move.

S35. Ans.(c)
Sol. International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is headquartered in Masdar City, Abu Dhabi.

S36. Ans.(d)
Sol. Akbar's navaratnas were Abul-Fazal, Raja Todar Mal, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana, Raja Birbal , Faizi,
Mulla Do-Piyaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Tansen and Raja Man Singh I.

S37. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Ghadar Party, initially the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, was formed in 1913 in the United
States.
It was founded by Sohan Singh Bhakna and Lala Hardayal. Its aim was to get rid of the colonial super-power
by means of an armed struggle and to set up a national democratic government on the sub-continent.

S38. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Planning Commission was established on 15 March 1950

S39. Ans.(d)
Sol. Reykjavik is the capital of Iceland and it is the northernmost capital.

S40. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Govt. of India had launched “Project Tiger” on 1st April 1973 to promote conservation of the tiger

S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. Tennis. Double fault means hitting a fault on the second service.

S42. Ans.(d)
Sol. The French Open uses clay courts, making it unique among the Grand Slam tournaments.

S43. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Convention establishing the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) comes into force
and BIRPI is thus transformed to become WIPO. The newly established WIPO is a member state-led,
intergovernmental organization, with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.

S44. Ans.(a)
Sol. Chittaranjan Das popularly called Deshbandhu

S45. Ans.(d)
Sol. Siam, as Thailand was officially called until 1939.

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S46. Ans.(b)
Sol. Thomas Cup, trophy signifying world supremacy in the sport of badminton. The cup was donated in
1939 by Sir George Thomas for a series of men's international team competitions to be managed by the
International Badminton Federation (IBF), of which Thomas was then president.

S47. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Gangotri glacier is the largest glacier in the Garhwal Himalaya and the source of the sacred river
Ganga

S48. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Bhagirathi River originates from Gaumukh Glacier.

S49. Ans.(c)
Sol. Jawaharlal Nehru is The First & The Longest Served Prime Minister of India. He took the command of
the office from 15 August 1947 to 27 May 1964. He served for a total of 16 years & 286 days.

S50. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, remembered as the 'iron man of India,' on Tuesday on his death anniversary.

S51. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Thai Baht (THB) is the official currency of the Kingdom of Thailand. 1 THB is composed of 100
satangs and the currency is issued and managed by the central bank of Thailand.

S52. Ans.(a)
Sol. Pattachitra is a traditional painting of Odisha, India.

S53. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Terrestrial Planets. From top: Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. The planets Mercury, Venus, Earth,
and Mars, are called terrestrial because they have a compact, rocky surface like Earth's terra firma. The
terrestrial planets are the four innermost planets in the solar system.

S54. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Silver Revolution is related to the immense growth of egg production in India by using advanced
methods and technologies to enhance efficient growth in poultry farming.

S55. Ans.(d)
Sol. Madam Curie won the 1911 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for her discovery of the elements polonium and
radium

S56. Ans.(b)
Sol.

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S57. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S58. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S59. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S60. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S61. Ans.(c)
Sol.

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S62. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S63. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S64. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S65. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S66. Ans.(b)
Sol.

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S67. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S68. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S69. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S70. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S71. Ans.(a)
Sol.

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S72. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S73. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S74. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S75. Ans.(a)
Sol. Pakistan : Rupee :: Nigeria : Naira
Country and currency relation.

S76. Ans.(d)
Sol. Cataract : Eye :: Pneumonia : Lungs
Cataract related to Eye disease and similarly pneumonia related to lungs disease.

S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. Bihu : Assam :: Onam : Kerala
Bihu festival celebrated in Assam and Onam celebrated by Kerala people.

S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. International literacy Day : September 8 :: International woman’s day : March 8.

S79. Ans.(a)
Sol. All except “sailor” need raw material.

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S80. Ans.(b)
Sol. All except “ostrich” are water birds.

S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. All except “Auricle” Part of lungs. while Auricle part of heart.

S82. Ans.(a)
Sol. All except mendicant are synonyms.

S83. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S84. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S85. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S86. Ans.(a)
S87. Ans.(d)
S88. Ans.(b)
S89. Ans.(a)
S90. Ans.(c)

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S91. Ans.(a)

S92. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S93. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S94. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S95. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S96. Ans.(d)

S97. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S98. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S99. Ans.(d)
Sol. All except “33” are prime number.

S100. Ans.(a)
Sol. All except “183” are in 200 series.

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