REGIONAL DIRECTORATE

DAV INSTITUTIONS, ODISHA

CLASS-XII

SUPPORT MATERIAL-2023-24
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2023-24
Max. Marks: 80
Subject: English Core (Code- 301) Time: 3 hours
SET 1
General Instructions:
1. Please check that this question paper has 9 printed pages.
2. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
3. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
4. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
SECTION A: READING SKILLS (22 MARKS)
Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. [12]

1) In the first decade of the twentieth century, science initiated a second American revolution. A nation on
horseback was soon transformed by the internal combustion engine, manned flight and a multitude of other
inventions. These technological innovations quickly changed the lives of ordinary men and women. But
simultaneously an esoteric band of scientists was creating an even more fundamental revolution. Theoretical
physicists across the globe were beginning to alter the way we understand space and time. Radioactivity
was discovered in 1896, by the French physicist Henri Becquerel. Max Planck, Marie Curie and Pierre
Curie and others provided further insights into the nature of the atom. And then, in 1905, Albert Einstein
published his special Theory of Relativity.
2) Suddenly, the universe appeared to have changed. Around the globe, scientists were soon to be celebrated as
a new kind of hero, promising to usher in a renaissance of rationality, prosperity and social meritocracy. In
America, reform movements were challenging the old order. Theodore Roosevelt was using the bully pulpit
of the White House to argue that good government in alliance with science and applied technology could
forge an enlightened new Progressive Era.
3) Into this world of promise was born J. Robert Oppenheimer, on April 22, 1904. He came from a family of
first and second-generation German immigrants striving to be American. Ethnically and culturally Jewish,
the Oppenheimers of New York belonged to no synagogue. Without rejecting their Jewishness, they chose
to shape their identity within a uniquely American offshoot of Judaism—the Ethical Culture Society—that
celebrated rationalism and a progressive brand of secular humanism. This was at the same time an innovative
approach to the quandaries any immigrant to America faced—and yet for Robert Oppenheimer itreinforced a
lifelong ambivalence about his Jewish identity.
4) As its name suggests, Ethical Culture was not a religion but a way of life that promoted social justice over
self-aggrandizement. It was no accident that the young boy who would become known as the Father of the
Atomic Era was reared in a culture that valued independent inquiry, empirical exploration and the free-
thinking mind—in short, the values of science. And yet, it was the irony of Robert Oppenheimer’s odyssey
that a life devoted to social justice, rationality and science would become a metaphor for mass deathbeneath
a mushroom cloud.
(An excerpt from “American Prometheus: The Triumph and Tragedy of J. Robert Oppenheimer” written by Kai
Bird and Martin J. Sherwin)
 Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What technological innovations are mentioned as part of the second American Revolution in the early 20th
century? (1)
A. Electricity and telegraph
B. Internal combustion engine and manned flight
C. Printing press and steam engine
D. Telephone and radio
ii. What major scientific concept did Albert Einstein publish in 1905, as mentioned in the passage? (1)
A. Theory of Relativity
B. Theory of Evolution
C. Quantum Mechanics
D. Atomic Theory
iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words, to support the view that the tone of the writer is
informative and reflective. (2)
iv. Explain in about 40 words ‘the Oppenheimer of New York belonged to no synagogue’ (2)
v. Why does the author say, ‘And yet, it was the irony of Robert Oppenheimer’s odyssey …….’? (2)
vi. Read the five headlines (A) – (E) given below, and identify the option that does not correspond with
the occurrence in the passage. (1)
A. "Scientific Revolution and Irony: The Paradox of Robert Oppenheimer's Legacy"
B. "One Giant Leap for Mankind: The Apollo Moon Landing"
C. "Ethical Culture and Atomic Ambivalence: Oppenheimer's Journey"
D. "The Birth of Modern Science: Innovations and Ethical Dilemmas in the 20th Century”
E. "Robert Oppenheimer: A Hero of Science or a Symbol of Mass Destruction?"
vii. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or its description. (1)
Based on the information given in the excerpt, one can infer that in America, reform movements were
challenging the old order by
viii. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the writer’s expression, “ushering in a renaissance of rationality”
(1)
A. Herald a new age of intellect
B. Propelling a return to superstition
C. Bringing about an era of chaos
D. igniting a revolution of emotion
ix. Give a word from paragraph 4 that means - an adventurous journey, both in a literal and figurative sense,
which involves various trials and tribulations. (1)

2. Read the following text. [10]

Generation Alpha Stats 2023 (Insights & Trends)
- By Rohit Shewale
People born between 2010 and 2025 are referred to as Gen alpha. Over 2.74 million Generation Alphas are born
each week globally. Every 9 seconds, a member is added to the Gen Alpha family in the United States. The stats
further reveal that over 70% of Gen Alpha parents are Millennials. They are the first generation born in the 21st
century and are surrounded by technology right, left and centre! They have a faster adaptation rate to everything
tech as compared to other generations as they are exposed to it since birth.
Let us look at some interesting facts associated with them in this post: Generation Alpha Statistics: At a Glance:
− Over 2.74 million Generation Alpha are born worldwide each week as of 2023.
− The population of Gen Alpha will cross the benchmark of 2.2 billion by the end of 2025. 13% of the
population in the United States is Gen Alpha as of 2023.
 − Every nine seconds, a baby is born in the United States, increasing the population of Gen Alpha by 6.66 per
minute.
− Gen Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than the Millennials. The highest number of
Gen Alpha are Born in India, China, and Indonesia.
− 84% of the Gen Alpha in the United States use technology in their schools.
− 66% of Gen Alpha prefer to buy from companies and businesses that positively impact the world.
What is Generation Alpha? Generation Alpha is used to describe the generation of the people that are born
between the years 2010 and 2025. This term came into the limelight after being used by an Australian Social
researcher, Mark McCrindle, in a 2008 report.
Here are further differences between Gen Alpha and Gen Z.
Parameter Gen Alpha Gen Z
1. Birth year Born between 2010 and 2025 Born between 1995 and 2010
2. Age Younger than 14 years Between 13 and 27
3. Digitalization Will mark a new digital age First generation to witness digitalization
4. Consumer behavior Influences family purchase Influences family purchases after reaching a
decisions from a younger age. certain age.
5. The role played by Born in a world where Grew up with the evolution of Smartphones
social media and smartphones and social media are and social media
smartphones everywhere.
6. Optimism level Highly optimistic Low optimistic
7. Values More likely to be collaborative Like to be independent and value
and value inclusivity individuality.
8. Experience Is yet to experience economic Has experienced an economic crisis and a
challenges and new-age student debt crisis
education reforms.
9. Political and social Social and environmental More likely to be politically and socially
engagement awareness from a young age engaged
10. Trust in institutions Have greater trust in technology More skeptical and less trust in institutions
and institutions.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What differentiates Generation Alpha from Generation Z? Answer in 40 words. (2)
ii. What is the projected life expectancy of Generation Alpha when compared to Millennials? (1)
iii. ‘I have more confidence and belief in the reliability, effectiveness, and honesty of technology
and established organizations such as government bodies, corporations, schools and other institutions.’
Of the two generations who is likely to make this statement? (1)
iv. What does the parameter on values tell you about Gen Alpha? (1)
v. Which of the following is NOT a Gen Alpha trait? (1)
A. Pessimistic
B. Trust in technology
C. Environmental Awareness
D. Apt at using smartphones
 vi. Gen Alpha is expected to have a longer life expectancy than the Millennial, why do you think so?
Give two reasons in your own words. (2)
vii. Which is the most appropriate title for this passage? (1)
A. "Understanding Generation Alpha"
B. "The Future of Generation Alpha"
C. "Generation Alpha: A Tech-Savvy and Growing Force Shaping the Future
D. “Gen Alpha Trends"
viii. State whether the given assertion is true or false, and justify your answer. (1)
‘The highest number of Gen Alpha is born in the United States.’

SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 MARKS)

3. Attempt any ONE of two, in about 50 words. [4]

A. St. Mary’s Convent has recently created a charitable organization- Gift a Smile. As Nitin, the Secretary of the
organization draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board informing the
students about a planned bake sale on 22 December. Invite volunteers for this programme.
OR
B. You are the Secretary of Oceanus Blue, an independent senior living community. Draft a notice for the
community notice board, informing residents of the new in-house doctor available 24/7. Also, include the
news of added facilities such as new wheelchairs bought by the society.

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 50 words. [4]

A. You are Rohit/Rachel, Head Boy/Girl of Arya Public School, Bangalore. Your school is organizing a
felicitation ceremony for the brave hearts who helped rescue three children from a fire in a slum. Create an
invitation, inviting school parents to the ceremony. Include all necessary details.
OR
B. Mr. Thomas, your grandfather has received an invitation from his schoolmate, residing in the same city. The
invite is for the wedding of his son at the church and for dinner afterwards. Your grandfather would love to
attend the wedding but he has dietary restrictions and may not be able to stay back for the dinner. Draft an
appropriate reply accepting the invitation but also giving reasons as to why he cannot stay back for the dinner.
You are Mathew/Mariam.

5. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 120-150 words. [5]

A. You are Stella / Stephen of 11, MG Road, Pune. You have seen an advertisement in The Hindu for the post
of a Trained Graduate Teacher (TGT). Apply for the job with complete biodata. Write in 125-150 words.
OR
B. Public demonstrations cause a lot of disturbance in the daily routine of citizens. As Moksha/Mohit, write a
letter to the Editor of a leading national daily highlighting the need to discourage such demonstrations and
disturbance by the public on highways, which cause a great loss of time and opportunity for many.

6. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in 120-150 words. [5]

A. Within a few months, you will be joining college. How do you look at college life? A carefree life with no
worries about completing assigned homework, or is it the beginning of responsible preparation for a brilliant
career? Write an article on what you think of college life. You are Chaya/ Chinmaya.
OR
 B. You are Roshini/Rahul. You participated in a Career Counselling Programme organized by Media- Today.
You had the opportunity to listen to media professionals from various media fields. You realised that the
media industry is dynamic and constantly evolving, offering numerous career options. Write a report for the
school magazine on the programme.

SECTION C – LITERATURE (40 MARKS)

Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context.

7. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [6]

A. That for themselves a cooling covert make
‘Gainst the hot season; the mid forest brake,
Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms;
And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink (A Thing of Beauty)
i. Pick the quote that matches best with ‘And such too is the grandeur of the dooms we have imagined for the
mighty dead.’
A. In the night of death, hope sees a star, and listening love can hear the rustle of a wing.
B. When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men.
C. Endings are not always bad, most times they’re just beginnings in disguise.
D. Cowards die many times before their death; the valiant never taste of death but once.
ii. Pick the option that refers to what ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ suggests.
1. inspirational deeds of great men
2. a ceaseless series of dreams
3. an infinite source of strength
4. an elixir of life for the upliftment of the soul
5. an eternal source of delight
6. a boundless gift of love
A. 1, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 6
D. 2, 4 and 6
iii. Pick the option that pairs the TRUE statements based on the extract, from the list below.
1. The bushes with fragrant flowers lift the human spirit and bring joy.
2. Death is inevitable and everyone faces it no matter how powerful.
3. Immortality is achieved by man when he drinks the nectar of joy.
4. Legendary heroes and their heroic deeds instil inspiration in us.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
iv. The ‘lovely tales’ refers to .
v. Identify the rhyme scheme of the given stanza.
vi. Write a note on the contrast evident in the extract.
OR
 B. The polished traffic passed with a mind ahead,
Or if ever aside a moment, then out of sorts
At having the landscape marred with the artless paint
Of signs that with N turned wrong and S turned wrong…
i. The ‘polished traffic’ in the extract refers to .
ii. Fill in the blank with one word.
The “S’ and ‘N’ signs that have been painted artlessly make the urban rich feel .
iii. Explain the first line of the extract.
iv. The passers-by find the sign artless but the landscape .
A. animated
B. aesthetic
C. amusing
D. ancient
v. Choose the option that correctly categorizes the given literary devices as per the given analogy.
selfish cars: …............. :: ...................... metaphor
A. personification; polished traffic
B. transferred epithet; flower of cities
C. metaphor; pitiful kin
D. oxymoron; greedy good-doers
vi. Choose the option that correctly mentions the complaints made by the poet through this poem.
1. The rich people drive carelessly on the road hitting the poor people on purpose.
2. The city-dwellers remain highly insensitive and offhand towards the poor people.
3. The urban people are unable to understand the struggles of the impoverished people.
4. The goods are not being bought by the wealthy people even at discounted rates.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 4

8. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [4]

A. “At midnight when the town slept in peace, the dewan and his aged wife dragged the tiger into the car and
shoved it into the seat. The dewan himself drove the car straight to the forest where the Maharaja was hunting.
When they reached the forest, the tiger launched its satyagraha and refused to get out of the car. The dewan
was thoroughly exhausted in his efforts to haul the beast out of the car and push it down to the ground. On
the following day, the same old tiger wandered into the Maharaja’s presence and stood as if in humble
supplication, “Master, what do you command of me?” It was with boundless joy that the Maharaja took careful
aim at the beast. The tiger fell in a crumpled heap.
i. Pick the option that uses the same figure of speech as ‘town slept in peace’.
A. His actions really flared up my temper, so I walked out.
B. She is going through a rollercoaster of emotions.
C. My alarm clock yells at me every morning until I get out of bed.
D. The children were screaming and shouting in the fields.
ii. Based on the extract describe the dewan’s attitude.
iii. What does the term "satyagraha" imply in the context of the tiger's behaviour?
iv. Explain the significance of ‘boundless joy’.

OR
 B. Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking high
school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which
will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet. It’s been in operation for six years now,
headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich, curiosity-seekers who
could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he offers the future generation ofpolicymakers
a life-changing experience at an age when they’re ready to absorb, learn, and most importantly, act.

i. If you were to introduce the author of the above given lines to an audience, what would you say?
ii. The potential long-term benefits of engaging young individuals in programs like this are
iii. Discuss what ‘limited way’ could mean.
iv. Choose the option that marks the ODD ONE OUT based on your reading of the above extract.
A. Sumit donates 10% of his monthly income to the environment-friendly NGOs.
B. Manmeet and her twin plant a new plant on their birthday every year.
C. Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.
D. Afsana plans to devise a machine that recycles biodegradable wastes from home.

9. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [6]

A. What a thunderclap these words were to me! Oh, the wretches; that was what they had put up at the town-
hall! My last French lesson! Why, I hardly knew how to write! I should never learn anymore! I must stop
there then! Oh, how sorry I was for not learning my lessons, for seeking birds’ eggs, or going sliding on the
Saar! My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry, my grammar, and my history
of the saints, were old friends now that I couldn‘t give up. And, M. Hamel, too; the idea that he was going
away, that I should never see him again, made me forget all about his ruler and how cranky he was.

i. ‘Oh, the wretches!’ conveys

A. Disgust and Contempt
B. Frustration and Fear
C. Sadness and Despair
D. Disapproval and Judgement
ii. Why does the impending departure of M. Hamel affect the speaker so deeply, and what does it illustrate
about the theme of the lesson?
iii. Explain the significance of the phrase "My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to
carry".
iv. What is the primary realization the speaker has about their last French lesson, and how does it affect their
perspective on education?
A. They realize that their last French lesson was insignificant.
B. They realize that they were an exceptional student.
C. They realize that they should have valued education more, and this realization deepens their
appreciation for learning.
D. They realize that they should have skipped their lessons to have more fun.
v. What do the references to seeking bird's eggs and going sliding on the Saar symbolize in the passage?
vi. ‘That was what they had put up at the town-hall!’, what was put up?

OR

Page 7 of 9
 B. “He told me so.”
He muttered something inaudible and dragged himself round in his chair. “This another of your wild
stories?”
“She met him in the arcade,” Geoff said, and told him how it had been.
“One of these days you’re going to talk yourself into a load of trouble,” her father said aggressively.
“Geoff knows it’s true, don’t you Geoff?”
“He don’t believe you-though he’d like to.”
i. What is the father's reaction to the story Geoff and his daughter are sharing?
A. He is excited and believes the story.
B. He is curious and wants more details.
C. He is dismissive and questions the story.
D. He is indifferent and pays no attention.
ii. Choose the options that state the characteristic traits of Geoff mentioned in the above lines.
1. rigid
2. stubborn
3. distant
4. invincible
5. reserved
A. 1, 4
B. 2, 5
C. 2, 3
D. 3, 5
iii. Whom had Sophie met at the arcade? Why had she ‘chosen’ to meet only him?
iv. Fill in the blank with one word only.
From the above given extract, it can be deduced that the father and daughter shared a
relationship.
v. Father said aggressively, “One of these days you’re going to talk yourself into a load of trouble”, did this
prediction come true? Elucidate.
vi. Why does Sophie say, “Geoff knows it’s true, don’t you Geoff”?

10. Answer any FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words. [10]

i. Why did Gandhiji tell the court that he was involved in a 'conflict of duties'?
ii. I laughed and said, “Well, Mr.Terror, what do you think you can do to me?” Narrate the context in which
this question was asked.
iii. How does the story "The Rattrap" challenge conventional notions of identity and social status?
iv. Analyze the role of contrast in the poem My Mother at Sixty-Six.
v. How would you evaluate Mukund Padmanabhan as an interviewer?
vi. Discuss the significance of the make-up room in the chapter, ‘Poets and Pancakes’.

11. Answer any TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. [4]
i. “Where there is oppression, there will be resistance.” Comment on this statement with reference to the story
‘We Too Are Human Beings’.
ii. Do you think Derry’s mother is protective of him? Justify your opinion with textual evidence. (On the Face
of It).
iii. Pearl S Buck depicts the Japanese way of life and traditions through Dr Sado’s father. Elucidate.

Page 8 of 9
12. Answer any ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words. [5]
A. The story "Deep Water" explores the protagonist's fear of drowning and the impact it has on his life. The
poem "My Mother at Sixty-Six" reflects on the fear of losing a loved one and the impending reality of death.
Though both are faced with fear connected with death, the impact of this fear on both is vastly different.
Elucidate.
OR
B. Nature forms a major theme in both ‘A Thing of Beauty’ and ‘Keeping Quiet’. Write out a dialogue between
Keats and Pablo Neruda about their ideas of nature, and how nature helps find solutions to all that ails
humankind.

13. Answer any ONE of the following two questions in about 120-150 words. [5]

A. The king in the story 'The Tiger King' was driven by the single purpose of staying alive based on the
prophecy that the hundredth tiger would kill him. He hunted tigers out of fear.
Imagine that you are living in the Tiger King's times, and he has killed seventy tigers at this point. As
someone who cares about animal welfare, write a letter to the king convincing him to stop hunting tigers.
You may begin this way:
My sincerest greetings to his majesty, I am Rajan, a subject of your kingdom, and I am writing to you today
because….
OR
B. Imagine Zitkala-Sa and Bama meet each other. They both share their experience of being from marginalised
communities. They reflect on instances of oppression they faced and how those instances proved to be the
source of strength to fight against such oppression. Write down their discussion in a creative way, with
reference to their experiences.

**********
 SAMPLE PAPER 1 ANSWER KEYS

SECTION A: READING SKILLS (22 MARKS)

Reading Comprehension - Unseen Passages

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (12 Marks)
(i) Ans: B. Internal combustion engine and manned flight
(ii) Ans: A) Theory of Relativity
(iii) Ans: The passage provides historical information about the early 20th century, the scientific advancementsof
the time, and the background of Robert Oppenheimer. At certain points in the passage, there is a reflective tone,
especially when discussing the irony of Robert Oppenheimer's life and the contrast between his values and the
consequences of his work.
(iv) Ans: Without rejecting their Jewishness they chose to shape their identity within a uniquely American offshoot
of Judaism—the Ethical Culture Society—that celebrated rationalism and a progressive brand of secular humanism.

(v) Ans: Despite Oppenheimer's upbringing and values that championed rationality, social justice, and science forthe
betterment of humanity, his work ultimately led to the creation of a weapon that caused mass death and destruction.
This profound contrast between his intentions and the real- world impact of his scientific endeavors is the essence of
the irony highlighted in the statement.

(vi) Ans: B. "One Giant Leap for Mankind: The Apollo Moon Landing"
(vii) Ans: advocating for a government that aligns with science and applied technology to usher in an
enlightened new Progressive Era. Theodore Roosevelt, as mentioned in the passage, used the "bully pulpit of
the White House" to argue that good government, in collaboration with science and technology, could bring
about positive social and political change.
(viii) Ans: A. Herald a new age of intellect
(ix) Ans: Odyssey
2.
(i) Ans: Generation Alpha is defined by its birth years, which are from 2010 to 2025. This generation is
characterized by being younger than 14 years old, being the first to grow up in a world marked by
digitalization, influencing family purchase decisions from a young age, and having a high level of
optimism, collaborative values, and social and environmental awareness.

(ii) Ans: Gen Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than the Millennials.
(iii) Ans: The statement, "I have more confidence and belief in the reliability, effectiveness, and
honesty of technology and established organizations such as government bodies, corporations,
schools, and other institutions," is likely to be made by a member of Generation Alpha.
(iv) Ans: The parameter on values suggests that Gen Alpha is more likely to be collaborative and
value inclusivity, in contrast to Gen Z, which tends to be more independent and values
individuality.
(v) Ans: A. Pessimistic
(vi) Ans : Generation Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than Millennials for a
couple of reasons: First, advancements in healthcare and access to healthier living conditions may
contribute to a longer life. It could be inferred that a more digitally connected and informed world
may lead to healthier lifestyle choices.
(vii) Ans: C. "Generation Alpha: A Tech-Savvy and Growing Force Shaping the Future
 (viii) Ans: False. The passage does not provide information on the highest number of Gen Alpha being
born in the United States, but it does mention that the highest number of Gen Alpha is bornin
countries like India, China, and Indonesia.

SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 MARKS)

3. Attempt any ONE of two, in about 50 words. [4]

(A) NOTICE :
Answers A → Correct format ( as listed) → Drawing attention—students → Mentioning the event
→ Giving details -D,T,V → Inviting volunteers → Line with reference to the undersigned
OR
(B) NOTICE :
Correct format ( as listed) Drawing attention—residents → Stating the information → Giving details →Sharing
awaited news → Line with reference to the undersigned

(Format includes : Name of Organisation, Notice , Date , Heading , Signature Name of the issuing
authority, Designation)

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 50 words. [4]
A. Ans : Card type-formal invite →
a single sentence presentation in third person/end line punctuations skipped → Use the simple present
tense → answers the questions who, whom, when, where, what time and for what →includes
name and address of the organiser /host and name/s of special invitees (if any) → No signatures

Layout usually pertains to the following—

→ Name of host /hosts → Formal standard expression-cordial → Purpose of invitation → Date
/time of event → Venue (address) → Name of special guest (if any) → RSVP → Contact detail/
number
OR
B. Letter type-informal reply.
The following points may be included :
Reference to invitation – acceptance on behalf of your grandfather – confirmation of date, time, venue – commenton
the dietary restrictions of the grandfather, hence not able to stay back for the dinner.

5. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 120-150 words. [5]
A. Ans: Letter of job application (including CV) - Formal letter type
→ Content → Covering Letter → Reference to the advertisement → Conveying suitability for the
position → Submission of application Bio data as separate enclosure → Profile of self →Educational
and Professional Qualifications → Achievements → Work experience → Salary expectation →
Skills/interests → References Any other relevant information
OR
B. Ans: Letter to the Editor - Formal letter type
• In particular, the regularity and intensity of these demonstrations on our highways are a cause of concern.
• Firstly, these demonstrations result in the obstruction of traffic flow, which leads to massive
delays for commuters, workers, job seekers and students trying to reach their destinations in a
timely manner.
• This disruption can have a domino effect, causing inconvenience, frustration, and loss of
productivity.
 • Furthermore, public demonstrations on highways pose a safety risk, not only to the participants
but also to other road users.
• The congested roadways can lead to accidents and medical emergencies, which may have grave
consequences.
• Law enforcement agencies can work to ensure that these designated areas are accessible and
secure for peaceful demonstrations.
• While acknowledging the importance of freedom of expression and peaceful assembly, we must
also acknowledge the need to strike a balance between exercising these rights and ensuring the
well-being of our society.
• Encouraging a more organized and less disruptive approach to public demonstrations will allow
our citizens to enjoy their rights without undue interference with their daily routines. Encourage a
more responsible and considerate approach to public demonstrations for the betterment of our
society.
• (Any other relevant points to be accepted)

6. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in 120-150 words. [5]
A. Answer: Article :
• Format – 1 Content -2 Organization -1 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1
• College life, for many, represents the epitome of independence and freedom.
• It's a time to make new friends, explore new horizons, and immerse oneself in academic pursuits. But is it a
carefree existence devoid of responsibilities, or is it the commencement of diligent preparations for a
promising career? In my perspective, it's a delicate balance between both.
• The prospect of college life undoubtedly brings with it a sense of liberation.
• No longer bound by the strict schedules and assignments of school, college offers the freedom to design
our own timetables and choose our areas of study.
• There's a carefree element to it, as we can attend classes without the immediate pressure of completing
assigned homework by the next day.
• However, it's essential to recognize that this newfound liberty comes with a certain level of responsibility.
• College life marks the transition from adolescence to adulthood, and with it comes the expectation of
increased responsibility.
• We must take charge of our academic path, ensuring that we select courses aligning with our career
aspirations. It's a period for self-discovery and honing our skills, making choices that will have a profound
impact on our future.
• In college, we're given the space to explore our interests and passions, but this exploration must go hand-in-
hand with a sense of commitment and dedication.
• In essence, it's a time to prepare for a brilliant career by actively engaging in our studies and co-curricular
activities. While there may not be daily homework assignments, the workload can be overwhelming,
requiring us to manage our time effectively.
• Moreover, college life isn't just about academics. It's a holistic experience that involves developing life skills,
building social connections, and participating in extracurricular activities. These aspects are equally important
in shaping our personalities and preparing us for the challenges of the real world.
• College life is indeed a unique phase where we can enjoy freedom while shouldering the responsibility of
charting our own path.
• It's not just about escaping homework but embracing the opportunity to gain knowledge, develop character,
and prepare for a successful future.
(Any other relevant points to be accepted - Intro- Reasons- Conclusion)
OR
 B. Answer – Report for a school magazine:
Format • Headline & By line • Paragraphing organisation (Introductory paragraph + one or two paragraphs
including event details + Concluding paragraph inclusive of feedback of the participants.
The following points may be included :
• Who? How many?
• Where and when?
• What and How? Why?
• What did those present think?
• Diverse Panel of Media Professionals: The programme featured a panel of media professionals who
represented a wide spectrum of media fields, including print journalism, broadcast media, digital
media, public relations, advertising, and more. Their collective experience and expertise provided
a comprehensive view of the media industry.
• Insights into Media Careers: Each professional shared their personal journey, career challenges, and
successes. They emphasized the ever-changing nature of the industry and the need to adapt to new
technologies and trends. The speakers also discussed the essential skills and qualities required for
success in their respective fields.
• Interactive Q&A Sessions: Attendees had the opportunity to engage in interactive question- and-
answer sessions with the panelists. This allowed for a more personalized understanding of career
options and guidance for aspiring media professionals.
• Networking Opportunities: The programme encouraged networking among attendees, enabling the
exchange of ideas and the formation of valuable connections in the media industry.
• Inspiration and Motivation: The event served as a source of inspiration for attendees, motivating
them to pursue their dreams in the media sector. The success stories shared by the professionals
were particularly motivating.
• Future Trends: The panelists discussed emerging trends in media, such as the impact of social
media, data journalism, and the growing importance of multimedia content. This information was
crucial for understanding the evolving landscape of the industry.
• (Any other relevant points to be accepted)

SECTION C – LITERATURE (40 MARKS)

7. Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. Attempt ANY ONE of the
two extracts given. (6 Marks)
A. A Thing of Beauty
(i) (B) When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men.
(ii) (A) 1, 4 and 5
(iii) (C) 1 and 4
(iv) All classical stories of the mighty/noble / ancestors – stories of greatness/bravery that inspire/motivate us
(v) aabbcc
(vi) Cooling covert against the hot season

OR
B. A Roadside Stand
(i) sophisticated city dwellers in their vehicles.
(ii) angry/annoyed/irritated/cross/exasperated / (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(iii) The people are preoccupied only by the thoughts of their lives and nothing else.
(iv) B. aesthetic
(v) B. transferred epithet; flower of cities
 (vi ) B. 2, 3

8. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. (4 Marks) –

A. The Tiger King
(i) C. My alarm clock yells at me every morning until I get out of bed.
(ii) Desperate/worried/despairing (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(iii) refused to get out of the car/refused to obey command
(iv) King, happy and excited to have reached goal of hundred tigers, need not fear death /It signifies the
tiger's death and the Maharaja's satisfaction with the outcome.
B. A Journey to the end of the Earth
(i) Tishani Doshi, from Madras, Russian research vessel — the Akademik Shokalskiy visited Antarctica -
intrepid / adventurous / enthusiastic / observant
(ii) providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which will help them foster a new understanding
and respect for our planet/ High school students are at an age when they are eager to learn and are more
receptive to absorbing and acting on educational experiences, aligning with the program's goals.
(iii) Not giving back in terms of policy change/undoing the harm/trying ways to mitigate the ill effects of
man’s misdeeds / only taking the opportunity to visit the place nothing more – not taking the lessons
forward and learning from them.
(iv) C . Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.

9. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given. (6 Marks)
A. The Last Lesson
(i) C. Sadness and Despair
(ii) The impending departure of M. Hamel affects the speaker deeply because it marks the end of their
opportunity to learn French from a dedicated teacher. It illustrates one of the themes of the lesson,
procrastination/ highlighting the importance of seizing educational opportunities.
(iii) The phrase "My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry" signifies
the speaker's change in perspective from seeing their books as burdensome to valuingthem as
sources of knowledge and as a result his feelings of regret.
(iv) C. They realize that they should have valued education more, and this realization deepens their
appreciation for learning.
(v) The references to seeking bird's eggs and going sliding on the Saar symbolize the carefree and playful
activities of childhood.
(vi) Announcement, only German to be taught in schools, no more French, last day for French
OR
B. Going Places
(i) C. He is dismissive and questions the story.
(ii) D. 3, 5
(iii) Danny Casey, prodigy, famous football player, everyone’s favourite
(iv) strained/distant/cold / (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(v) Yes, set out to meet Danny Casey, set herself up for disappointment/sadness as it was only an imaginary
meeting.
(vi) Wants validation/ someone on her side / someone to believe her
10. Answer any FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words. (5x2 Marks)
(i) Gandhiji meant that he must not set a bad example by breaking the law, by refusing to comply with the
eviction order, at the same time he must also render humanitarian and national service for which he had
come to Champaran.
(ii) Douglas was not sure that all the terror had left. So he went to Lake Wentworth in New Hampshire, dived off
a dock at Triggs Island, and swam two miles across the lake to Stamp Act Island. He swam the crawl, breast
 stroke, side stroke, and back stroke. Only once did the terror return. When he was in the middle of the lake, he
put his face under and saw nothing but bottomless water. The old sensation returned in miniature.
(iii) The story challenges conventional notions of identity and social status by illustrating how a tramp, initially
seen as an outsider, can be reevaluated and embraced as part of a family based on his actions and character
rather than his social status.
(iv) The contrast between the peaceful sleep of the mother and the speaker's emotional turbulence
serves as a powerful literary device that underscores the emotional complexities and universal
themes of ageing, love, and the fragility of human existence. (Any other relevant points to be
accepted)
(v) Mukund Padmanabhan’s qualities of empathy and effective listening contribute to a successful and
meaningful interview that allows the interviewee to share his experiences and emotions openly. He
would only ask the kinds of questions that every reader needs to hear from a novelist. He also ensures
that the interviewee (Umberto) is not irritated or offended by any of his questions and that he never
touches any of the interviewee's sensitive life These reflect Mukund Padmanabhan's skill
as an interviewer in creating a supportive and engaging environment for the interviewee.
(vi) The role of make-up department of the Gemini Studios was to make the actors look presentable in the movies.
It was an example of national integration. According to the author, this is so because people from differentregions
and religious groups worked together in the same department.
The department was headed by a Bengali who was succeeded by a Maharashtrian. The other helpers included a
Dharwar Kannadiga, an Andhra, a Madras Indian Christian, an Anglo-Burmese and the local Tamils.

11. Answer any TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. (2x2=4marks)
(i) The statement "Where there is oppression, there will be resistance" is profoundly reflected in the story "We Tooare
Human Beings" by Bama, which is a narrative that vividly portrays the lives of marginalized and oppressed
individuals. Education is depicted as a powerful tool of resistance in the story. Bama’s pursuit of education and
her determination to overcome the obstacles she faces demonstrate resistance against the oppression that seeks to
keep Dalits uneducated and economically disadvantaged.
(ii) Derry's mother is deeply concerned about his safety and well-being. She warns him to be careful
when he wants to go out to the garden to help Mr.Lamb. This concern reflects her protective
instincts as a mother. She is keen to ensure that Derry is making friends who won't hurt him,
showing her protective nature.
(iii) Sadao's father embodies the Japanese cultural values of duty and honour. Despite the fact that Sadao
has been living in America and has become accustomed to Western ways, his father insists on
following traditional Japanese customs. Sadao's father is depicted as a traditional figure of authority in
the family. The story also highlights the cultural tensions that arise when Sadao's Western education
and values clash with his father's adherence to traditional Japanese ways, including his choosing a
wife. (Any1 point)
12. Answer any ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words.
A. Deep Water and My Mother at Sixty - Six
− The fear of death through drowning drives the protagonist to avoid activities involving water and
restrict his own freedom.
− The fear becomes overwhelming, leading the protagonist to withdraw from social and romantic
relationships.
− Despite the similarity in fear, the impact on the protagonist in 'Deep Water' is one of isolation,
restriction, and missed opportunities.
− Fights against it and wins – confident and determined.
− The poem "My Mother at Sixty-Six" reflects on the fear of losing a loved one and the impending
reality of death.
− The poet's fear revolves around the mortality of her aging mother and the fear of being left alone.
− The fear creates a deeply emotional connection as the poet observes her mother's vulnerability
 and contemplates her mortality.
− Despite the similarity in fear, the impact on the poet in 'My Mother at Sixty-Six' is one of
emotional distress, reflection, and appreciation of life's fleeting nature.
− Accepting
B. A Thing of Beauty and Keeping Quiet – Written in the form of a dialogue between Pablo
Neruda and Keats. The following points may be included :
− power of beauty to provide solace and inspiration in life
− in a world filled with suffering and pain, the presence of beauty can bring joy and a sense of
connection to something greater.
− the importance of appreciating and valuing beauty in all its forms.
"Keeping Quiet" by Neruda:
− Uses elements of nature to provide analogy, examples and symbols to teach us silence
− to reflect on the fast-paced nature of modern life and the value of silence and introspection
− encourages individuals to pause and connect with themselves and others, suggesting that silence
can foster understanding and unity.
− collectively staying quiet for a moment, people can break free from their routines and find a deeper
meaning in life.
− Overall, both poems explore different perspectives on finding meaning and connection in life.
While Keats focuses on the power of beauty, Neruda emphasizes the importance of introspection
and stillness. Despite their differences, both works convey the idea that there is a deeper
significance to be found beyond the surface of everyday existence.
(Any other relevant points to be accepted)
13. Answer any ONE of the following two questions in about 120-150 words
A. The Tiger King (The following points may be included in the informal letter)
My sincerest greetings to his majesty, I am Rajan, a subject of your kingdom, and I am writing to you today
because your relentless killing of tigers in our forests has pained me deeply. Animals feel pain andhave a
right to live just like you and I do, your majesty. God has created us all as equals, so how can onespecies
kill another for no real scientific reason? I know that you have been doing this because of the astrologer's
prophecy. However, I urge you to look to your rational side that had claimed, as an infant, that everyone
must die one day. I must ask you this, then: does it matter how we die? If we must all meetour end one day,
wouldn't you rather enjoy the time you have on earth, live meaningfully and compassionately, instead of
worrying about a future where you are dead? I hope that you will, as our king, do right by all living creatures.
Your loyal subject, Rajan
(Any other relevant points to be accepted)
B. Memories of Childhood – Written in the form of a dialogue between Zitkala-Sa and Bama.
• Both of them faced discrimination; Zitkala-Sa was discriminated against because of cultural
differences while Bama faced discrimination due to her caste.
• Zitkala-sa rebelled and refused to get her hair cut. She put up a strong fight, though had to give in
finally. Bama was enraged and wanted to go and touch the packet of vadai to teach a lessonto the
landlord. But was guided by her elder brother to calm down. He showed her the path overcome
discrimination.
• Both of them worked hard to excel in education.
• Both succeeded as writers among other things; They have written much against discrimination and
evils of oppression, thus continuing the fight for justice for their communities. ( any relevant point)
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2023-24
Max. Marks: 80
Subject: English Core (Code- 301) Time: 3 hours
SET 2
General Instructions:
1. Please check that this question paper has 9 printed pages.
2. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
3. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
4. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
SECTION A: READING SKILLS (22 MARKS)

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. [12]

Maycomb was an old town, but it was a tired old town when I first knew it. In rainy weather the streets turned to
red slop; grass grew on the sidewalks, the courthouse sagged in the square. Somehow, it was hotter then: a
black dog suffered on a summer’s day; bony mules hitched to Hoover carts flicked flies in the sweltering
shade of the live oaks on the square. Men’s stiff collars wilted by nine in the morning. Ladies bathed before
noon, after their three-o’clock naps, and by nightfall were like soft teacakes with frostings of sweat and sweet
talcum.
People moved slowly then. They ambled across the square, shuffled in and out of the stores around it, took their
time about everything. A day was twenty-four hours long but seemed longer. There was no hurry, for there
was nowhere to go, nothing to buy and no money to buy it with, nothing to see outside the boundaries of
Maycomb County. But it was a time of vague optimism for some of the people: Maycomb County had recently
been told that it had nothing to fear but fear itself.
We lived on the main residential street in town— Atticus, Jem and I, plus Calpurnia our cook. Jem and I found
our father satisfactory: he played with us, read to us, and treated us with courteous detachment. Calpurnia was
something else again. She was all angles and bones; she was nearsighted; she squinted; her hand was wide as
a bed slat and twice as hard. She was always ordering me out of the kitchen, asking me why I couldn’t behave
as well as Jem when she knew he was older, and calling me home when I wasn’t ready to come. Our battles
were epic and one- sided. Calpurnia always won, mainly because Atticus always took her side. She had been
with us ever since Jem was born, and I had felt her tyrannical presence as long as I could remember.
Our mother died when I was two, so I never felt her absence. She was a Graham from Montgomery; Atticus met
her when he was first elected to the state legislature. He was middle- aged then, she was fifteen years his
junior. Jem was the product of their first year of marriage; four years later I was born, and two years later our
mother died from a sudden heart attack. They said it ran in her family. I did not miss her, but I think Jem did.
He remembered her clearly, and sometimes in the middle of a game he would sigh at length, then go off and
play by himself behind the car-house. When he was like that, I knew better than to bother him.
(An excerpt from “TO KILL A MOCKINGBIRD” by Harper Lee Copyright (C) 1960 by Harper Lee Copyright
(C))
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

(i) What is the setting of the passage described in the first paragraph? (1)
A. A bustling and prosperous town
B. A small and sleepy town
C. A modern and industrial city
D. A coastal resort

(ii) What can we NOT infer about the children's mother in the passage? (1)
A. She was a Graham from Montgomery;
B. She had a heart attack.
C. She and Atticus had a strained relationship.
D. She was much younger than Atticus.

(iii) Can you identify any contrasting tones or emotions in the passage, and if so, what purpose might they
serve in the story? (2)

(iv) How does the passage foreshadow the idea of change and transformation, particularly in the characters'
lives? (2)

(v) How does Calpurnia's personality and relationship with Scout and Jem appear to be described in the
passage? (1)
A. She is kind and gentle with the children.
B. She is strict and authoritative with them.
C. She is their mother.
D. She is indifferent and uninvolved with their upbringing.

(vi) Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or its description.

"Calpurnia was all angles and bones.”, based on the information given in the excerpt, what do you infer
from this phrase? (2)

(vii) Select the option that is similar in meaning to the writer’s expression, “Maycomb was an old town, but
it was a tired old town when I first knew it." (1)
A. Maycomb was an aging town, and it had a sense of exhaustion when I first became familiar with it.
B. Maycomb was a historic town, and it exuded a sense of vibrancy when I first became acquainted with it.
C. Maycomb was an ancient town, yet it felt lively and energetic when I first knew it.
D. Maycomb was an ageing town, but it had a youthful and vibrant atmosphere when I first became familiar
with it.

(viii) Read the headlines (A)-(E) given below, which option is right for this passage. (1)
A. "Maycomb: A Thriving and Energetic Town"
B. "Maycomb County: A Modern Urban Centre"
C. "Maycomb's Vibrant Streets and Bustling Courthouse"
D. "Maycomb's Abundance of Wealth and Luxury"
E. "Nostalgia and Childhood in Maycomb County

(ix) Give a word from paragraph 1 that means - Oppressively hot; characterized by oppressive heat. (1)
 2. Read the following text. [10]
Generation Alpha Stats 2023 (Insights & Trends)
- By Rohit Shewale
People born between 2010 and 2025 are referred to as Gen alpha. Over 2.74 million Generation Alphas are born each
week globally. Every 9 seconds, a member is added to the Gen Alpha family in the United States. The stats further
reveal that over 70% of Gen Alpha parents are Millennials. They are the first generation born in the 21st century
and are surrounded by technology right, left and centre! They have a faster adaptation rate to everything tech as
compared to other generations as they are exposed to it since birth.
Let us look at some interesting facts associated with them in this post: Generation Alpha Statistics: At a Glance:
− Over 2.74 million Generation Alpha are born worldwide each week as of 2023.
− The population of Gen Alpha will cross the benchmark of 2.2 billion by the end of 2025. 13% of the
population in the United States is Gen Alpha as of 2023.
− Every nine seconds, a baby is born in the United States, increasing the population of Gen Alpha by 6.66 per
minute.
− Gen Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than the Millennials. The highest number of
Gen Alpha are Born in India, China, and Indonesia.
− 84% of the Gen Alpha in the United States use technology in their schools.
− 66% of Gen Alpha prefer to buy from companies and businesses that positively impact the world.
What is Generation Alpha? Generation Alpha is used to describe the generation of the people that are born between
the years 2010 and 2025. This term came into the limelight after being used by an Australian Social researcher,
Mark McCrindle, in a 2008 report.
Here are further differences between Gen Alpha and Gen Z.
Parameter Gen Alpha Gen Z
1. Birth year Born between 2010 and 2025 Born between 1995 and 2010
2. Age Younger than 14 years Between 13 and 27
3. Digitalization Will mark a new digital age First generation to witness digitalization
4. Consumer behavior Influences family purchase Influences family purchases after reaching a
decisions from a younger age. certain age.
5. The role played by Born in a world where Grew up with the evolution of Smartphones
social media and smartphones and social media are and social media
smartphones everywhere.
6. Optimism level Highly optimistic Low optimistic
7. Values More likely to be collaborative Like to be independent and value
and value inclusivity individuality.
8. Experience Has experienced an economic crisis and a
Is yet to experience economic
challenges and new-age student debt crisis
education reforms.
9. Political and social Social and environmental More likely to be politically and socially
engagement awareness from a young age engaged
10. Trust in institutions More skeptical and less trust in institutions
Have greater trust in technology
and institutions.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

 i. What differentiates Generation Alpha from Generation Z? Answer in 40 words. (2)
ii. What is the projected life expectancy of Generation Alpha when compared to Millennials? (1)
iii. ‘I have more confidence and belief in the reliability, effectiveness, and honesty of technology
and established organizations such as government bodies, corporations, schools and other institutions.’ Of
the two generations who is likely to make this statement? (1)
iv. What does the parameter on values tell you about Gen Alpha? (1)
v. Which of the following is NOT a Gen Alpha trait? (1)
A. Pessimistic
B. Trust in technology
C. Environmental Awareness
D. Apt at using smartphones

vi. Gen Alpha is expected to have a longer life expectancy than the Millennial, why do you think so?
Give two reasons in your own words. (2)
vii. Which is the most appropriate title for this passage? (1)
A. "Understanding Generation Alpha"
B. "The Future of Generation Alpha"
C. "Generation Alpha: A Tech-Savvy and Growing Force Shaping the Future
D. “Gen Alpha Trends"
viii. State whether the given assertion is true or false, and justify your answer. (1)
‘The highest number of Gen Alpha is born in the United States.’

SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 MARKS)

3. Attempt any ONE of two, in about 50 words. [4]

A. St. Mary’s Convent has recently created a charitable organization- Gift a Smile. As Nitin, the Secretary of the
organization draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board informing the students
about a planned bake sale on 22 December. Invite volunteers for this programme.
OR
B. You are the Secretary of Oceanus Blue, an independent senior living community. Draft a notice for the
community notice board, informing residents of the new in-house doctor available 24/7. Also, include the
news of added facilities such as new wheelchairs bought by the society.

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 50 words. [4]

A. You are Rohit/Rachel, Head Boy/Girl of Arya Public School, Bangalore. Your school is organizing a
felicitation ceremony for the brave hearts who helped rescue three children from a fire in a slum. Create an
invitation, inviting school parents to the ceremony. Include all necessary details.
OR
B. Mr. Thomas, your grandfather has received an invitation from his schoolmate, residing in the same city. The
invite is for the wedding of his son at the church and for dinner afterwards. Your grandfather would love to
attend the wedding but he has dietary restrictions and may not be able to stay back for the dinner. Draft an
appropriate reply accepting the invitation but also giving reasons as to why he cannot stay back for the dinner.
You are Mathew/Mariam.

5. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 120-150 words. [5]
 A. You are Stella / Stephen of 11, MG Road, Pune. You have seen an advertisement in The Hindu for the post
of a Trained Graduate Teacher (TGT). Apply for the job with complete biodata. Write in 125-150 words.
OR
B. Public demonstrations cause a lot of disturbance in the daily routine of citizens. As Moksha/Mohit, write a
letter to the Editor of a leading national daily highlighting the need to discourage such demonstrations and
disturbance by the public on highways, which cause a great loss of time and opportunity for many.

6. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in 120-150 words. [5]
A. Within a few months, you will be joining college. How do you look at college life? A carefree life with no
worries about completing assigned homework, or is it the beginning of responsible preparation for a brilliant
career? Write an article on what you think of college life. You are Chaya/ Chinmaya.
OR
B. You are Roshini/Rahul. You participated in a Career Counselling Programme organized by Media- Today.
You had the opportunity to listen to media professionals from various media fields. You realised that the
media industry is dynamic and constantly evolving, offering numerous career options. Write a report for the
school magazine on the programme.

SECTION C – LITERATURE (40 MARKS)

Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context.

7. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [6]

A. That for themselves a cooling covert make
‘Gainst the hot season; the mid forest brake,
Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms; And
such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read; An
endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink (A Thing of Beauty)
i. Pick the quote that matches best with ‘And such too is the grandeur of the dooms we have imagined for the
mighty dead.’
A. In the night of death, hope sees a star, and listening love can hear the rustle of a wing.
B. When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men.
C. Endings are not always bad, most times they’re just beginnings in disguise.
D. Cowards die many times before their death; the valiant never taste of death but once.
ii. Pick the option that refers to what ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ suggests.
1. inspirational deeds of great men
2. a ceaseless series of dreams
3. an infinite source of strength
4. an elixir of life for the upliftment of the soul
5. an eternal source of delight
6. a boundless gift of love
A. 1, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 6
D. 2, 4 and 6
iii. Pick the option that pairs the TRUE statements based on the extract, from the list below.
1. The bushes with fragrant flowers lift the human spirit and bring joy.
2. Death is inevitable and everyone faces it no matter how powerful.
3. Immortality is achieved by man when he drinks the nectar of joy.
4. Legendary heroes and their heroic deeds instil inspiration in us.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
iv. The ‘lovely tales’ refers to .
v. Identify the rhyme scheme of the given stanza.
vi. Write a note on the contrast evident in the extract.
OR
B. The polished traffic passed with a mind ahead,
Or if ever aside a moment, then out of sorts
At having the landscape marred with the artless paint
Of signs that with N turned wrong and S turned wrong…
i. The ‘polished traffic’ in the extract refers to .
ii. Fill in the blank with one word.
The “S’ and ‘N’ signs that have been painted artlessly make the urban rich feel .
iii. Explain the first line of the extract.
iv. The passers-by find the sign artless but the landscape .
A. animated
B. aesthetic
C. amusing
D. ancient
v. Choose the option that correctly categorizes the given literary devices as per the given analogy.
selfish cars: …............. :: ...................... metaphor
A. personification; polished traffic
B. transferred epithet; flower of cities
C. metaphor; pitiful kin
D. oxymoron; greedy good-doers
vi. Choose the option that correctly mentions the complaints made by the poet through this poem.
1. The rich people drive carelessly on the road hitting the poor people on purpose.
2. The city-dwellers remain highly insensitive and offhand towards the poor people.
3. The urban people are unable to understand the struggles of the impoverished people.
4. The goods are not being bought by the wealthy people even at discounted rates.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 4

8. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [4]

A. “At midnight when the town slept in peace, the dewan and his aged wife dragged the tiger into the car and
shoved it into the seat. The dewan himself drove the car straight to the forest where the Maharaja was hunting.
When they reached the forest, the tiger launched its satyagraha and refused to get out of the car.
 The dewan was thoroughly exhausted in his efforts to haul the beast out of the car and push it down to the ground.
On the following day, the same old tiger wandered into the Maharaja’s presence and stood as if in humble
supplication, “Master, what do you command of me?” It was with boundless joy that the Maharaja took
careful aim at the beast. The tiger fell in a crumpled heap.
i. Pick the option that uses the same figure of speech as ‘town slept in peace’.
A. His actions really flared up my temper, so I walked out.
B. She is going through a rollercoaster of emotions.
C. My alarm clock yells at me every morning until I get out of bed.
D. The children were screaming and shouting in the fields.
ii. Based on the extract describe the dewan’s attitude.
iii. What does the term "satyagraha" imply in the context of the tiger's behaviour?
iv. Explain the significance of ‘boundless joy’.
OR
B. Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking high
school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which
will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet. It’s been in operation for six years now,
headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich, curiosity- seekers who
could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he offers the future generation of policymakers
a life-changing experience at an age when they’re ready to absorb, learn, and most importantly, act.

i. If you were to introduce the author of the above given lines to an audience, what would you say?
ii. The potential long-term benefits of engaging young individuals in programs like this are
iii. Discuss what ‘limited way’ could mean.
iv. Choose the option that marks the ODD ONE OUT based on your reading of the above extract.
A. Sumit donates 10% of his monthly income to the environment-friendly NGOs.
B. Manmeet and her twin plant a new plant on their birthday every year.
C. Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.
D. Afsana plans to devise a machine that recycles biodegradable wastes from home.

9. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. [6]

A. What a thunderclap these words were to me! Oh, the wretches; that was what they had put up at the town-
hall! My last French lesson! Why, I hardly knew how to write! I should never learn anymore! I must stop
there then! Oh, how sorry I was for not learning my lessons, for seeking birds’ eggs, or going sliding on the
Saar! My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry, my grammar, and my history
of the saints, were old friends now that I couldn‘t give up. And, M. Hamel, too; the idea that he was going
away, that I should never see him again, made me forget all about his ruler and how cranky he was.

i. ‘Oh, the wretches!’ conveys

A. Disgust and Contempt
B. Frustration and Fear
C. Sadness and Despair
D. Disapproval and Judgement
ii. Why does the impending departure of M. Hamel affect the speaker so deeply, and what does it illustrate
about the theme of the lesson?
iii. Explain the significance of the phrase "My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to
carry".
iv. What is the primary realization the speaker has about their last French lesson, and how does it affect their
perspective on education?
A. They realize that their last French lesson was insignificant.
B. They realize that they were an exceptional student.
C. They realize that they should have valued education more, and this realization deepens their
appreciation for learning.
D. They realize that they should have skipped their lessons to have more fun.
v. What do the references to seeking bird's eggs and going sliding on the Saar symbolize in the passage?
vi. ‘That was what they had put up at the town-hall!’, what was put up?

OR

B. “He told me so.”

He muttered something inaudible and dragged himself round in his chair. “This another of your wild stories?”
“She met him in the arcade,” Geoff said, and told him how it had been.
“One of these days you’re going to talk yourself into a load of trouble,” her father said aggressively. “Geoff
knows it’s true, don’t you Geoff?”
“He don’t believe you-though he’d like to.”
i. What is the father's reaction to the story Geoff and his daughter are sharing?
A. He is excited and believes the story.
B. He is curious and wants more details.
C. He is dismissive and questions the story.
D. He is indifferent and pays no attention.
ii. Choose the options that state the characteristic traits of Geoff mentioned in the above lines.
1. rigid
2. stubborn
3. distant
4. invincible
5. reserved
A. 1, 4
B. 2, 5
C. 2, 3
D. 3, 5
iii. Whom had Sophie met at the arcade? Why had she ‘chosen’ to meet only him?
iv. Fill in the blank with one word only.
From the above given extract, it can be deduced that the father and daughter shared a
relationship.
v. Father said aggressively, “One of these days you’re going to talk yourself into a load of trouble”, did this
prediction come true? Elucidate.
vi. Why does Sophie say, “Geoff knows it’s true, don’t you Geoff”?

10. Answer any FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words. [10]

i. Why did Gandhiji tell the court that he was involved in a 'conflict of duties'?
ii. I laughed and said, “Well, Mr.Terror, what do you think you can do to me?” Narrate the context in which
this question was asked.
iii. How does the story "The Rattrap" challenge conventional notions of identity and social status?
iv. Analyze the role of contrast in the poem My Mother at Sixty-Six.
v. How would you evaluate Mukund Padmanabhan as an interviewer?
vi. Discuss the significance of the make-up room in the chapter, ‘Poets and Pancakes’.

11. Answer any TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. [4]
i. “Where there is oppression, there will be resistance.” Comment on this statement with reference to the
story ‘We Too Are Human Beings’.
ii. Do you think Derry’s mother is protective of him? Justify your opinion with textual evidence. (On the
Face of It).
iii. Pearl S Buck depicts the Japanese way of life and traditions through Dr Sado’s father. Elucidate.

12. Answer any ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words. [5]
A. The story "Deep Water" explores the protagonist's fear of drowning and the impact it has on his life. The
poem "My Mother at Sixty-Six" reflects on the fear of losing a loved one and the impending reality of
death. Though both are faced with fear connected with death, the impact of this fear on both is vastly
different. Elucidate.
OR
B. Nature forms a major theme in both ‘A Thing of Beauty’ and ‘Keeping Quiet’. Write out a dialogue between
Keats and Pablo Neruda about their ideas of nature, and how nature helps find solutions to all that ails
humankind.

13. Answer any ONE of the following two questions in about 120-150 words. [5]

A. The king in the story 'The Tiger King' was driven by the single purpose of staying alive based on
the prophecy that the hundredth tiger would kill him. He hunted tigers out of fear.
Imagine that you are living in the Tiger King's times, and he has killed seventy tigers at this point. As
someone who cares about animal welfare, write a letter to the king convincing him to stop hunting tigers.
You may begin this way:
My sincerest greetings to his majesty, I am Rajan, a subject of your kingdom, and I am writing to you today
because….
OR
B. Imagine Zitkala-Sa and Bama meet each other. They both share their experience of being from marginalised
communities. They reflect on instances of oppression they faced and how those instances proved to be the
source of strength to fight against such oppression. Write down their discussion in a creative way, with
reference to their experiences.

**********
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2 ANSWER KEYS

SECTION A: READING SKILLS (22 MARKS)

Reading Comprehension - Unseen Passages

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (12 Marks)
(i) B. A small and sleepy town
(ii) C. She and Atticus had a strained relationship.
(iii) Ans: Contrasting tones or emotions in the passage include weariness and optimism, which serve
to create a layered and nuanced atmosphere. [2]
(iv) Ans: The passage foreshadows the idea of change and transformation, particularly in the children's
lives as they grow and mature. [2]
(v) B. She is strict and authoritative with them.
(vi) The phrase "Calpurnia was all angles and bones" is a figurative description that conveys the idea
that Calpurnia is a thin and lean woman with a somewhat stern or strict appearance. [2]
(vii) A. Maycomb was an aging town, and it had a sense of exhaustion when I first became familiar with
it.
(viii) E. "Nostalgia and Childhood in Maycomb County

(ix) Sweltering
2.
(i) Ans: Generation Alpha is defined by its birth years, which are from 2010 to 2025. This generation is
characterized by being younger than 14 years old, being the first to grow up in a world marked by
digitalization, influencing family purchase decisions from a young age, and having a high level of
optimism, collaborative values, and social and environmental awareness.

(ii) Ans: Gen Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than the Millennials.
(iii) Ans: The statement, "I have more confidence and belief in the reliability, effectiveness, and
honesty of technology and established organizations such as government bodies, corporations,
schools, and other institutions," is likely to be made by a member of Generation Alpha.
(iv) Ans: The parameter on values suggests that Gen Alpha is more likely to be collaborative and
value inclusivity, in contrast to Gen Z, which tends to be more independent and values
individuality.
(v) Ans: A. Pessimistic
(vi) Ans : Generation Alpha is expected to have a 16% longer life expectancy than Millennials for a
couple of reasons: First, advancements in healthcare and access to healthier living conditions
may contribute to a longer life. It could be inferred that a more digitally connected and informed
world may lead to healthier lifestyle choices.
(vii) Ans: C. "Generation Alpha: A Tech-Savvy and Growing Force Shaping the Future
 (viii) Ans: False. The passage does not provide information on the highest number of Gen Alpha
being born in the United States, but it does mention that the highest number of Gen Alpha is born
in countries like India, China, and Indonesia.

SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 MARKS)

3. Attempt any ONE of two, in about 50 words. [4]

(A) NOTICE :
Answers A → Correct format ( as listed) → Drawing attention—students → Mentioning the event
→ Giving details -D,T,V → Inviting volunteers → Line with reference to the undersigned
OR
(B) NOTICE :
Correct format ( as listed) Drawing attention—residents → Stating the information → Giving details →Sharing
awaited news → Line with reference to the undersigned

(Format includes : Name of Organisation, Notice , Date , Heading , Signature Name of the issuing
authority, Designation)

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 50 words. [4]
A. Ans : Card type-formal invite →
a single sentence presentation in third person/end line punctuations skipped → Use the simple present
tense → answers the questions who, whom, when, where, what time and for what →includes
name and address of the organiser /host and name/s of special invitees (if any) → No signatures

Layout usually pertains to the following—

→ Name of host /hosts → Formal standard expression-cordial → Purpose of invitation → Date
/time of event → Venue (address) → Name of special guest (if any) → RSVP → Contact detail/
number
OR
B. Letter type-informal reply.
The following points may be included :
Reference to invitation – acceptance on behalf of your grandfather – confirmation of date, time, venue – comment
on the dietary restrictions of the grandfather, hence not able to stay back for the dinner.

5. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in about 120-150 words. [5]
A. Ans: Letter of job application (including CV) - Formal letter type
→ Content → Covering Letter → Reference to the advertisement → Conveying suitability for the
position → Submission of application Bio data as separate enclosure → Profile of self →
Educational and Professional Qualifications → Achievements → Work experience → Salary
expectation → Skills/interests → References Any other relevant information
OR
B. Ans: Letter to the Editor - Formal letter type
• In particular, the regularity and intensity of these demonstrations on our highways are a cause of concern.
• Firstly, these demonstrations result in the obstruction of traffic flow, which leads to massive
delays for commuters, workers, job seekers and students trying to reach their destinations in a
timely manner.
• This disruption can have a domino effect, causing inconvenience, frustration, and loss of
productivity.
 • Furthermore, public demonstrations on highways pose a safety risk, not only to the participants
but also to other road users.
• The congested roadways can lead to accidents and medical emergencies, which may have grave
consequences.
• Law enforcement agencies can work to ensure that these designated areas are accessible and
secure for peaceful demonstrations.
• While acknowledging the importance of freedom of expression and peaceful assembly, we must
also acknowledge the need to strike a balance between exercising these rights and ensuring the
well-being of our society.
• Encouraging a more organized and less disruptive approach to public demonstrations will allow
our citizens to enjoy their rights without undue interference with their daily routines. Encourage a
more responsible and considerate approach to public demonstrations for the betterment of our
society.
• (Any other relevant points to be accepted)

6. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below in 120-150 words. [5]
A. Answer: Article :
• Format – 1 Content -2 Organization -1 Accuracy of spelling and grammar -1
• College life, for many, represents the epitome of independence and freedom.
• It's a time to make new friends, explore new horizons, and immerse oneself in academic pursuits. But is it a
carefree existence devoid of responsibilities, or is it the commencement of diligent preparations for a
promising career? In my perspective, it's a delicate balance between both.
• The prospect of college life undoubtedly brings with it a sense of liberation.
• No longer bound by the strict schedules and assignments of school, college offers the freedom to design
our own timetables and choose our areas of study.
• There's a carefree element to it, as we can attend classes without the immediate pressure of completing
assigned homework by the next day.
• However, it's essential to recognize that this newfound liberty comes with a certain level of responsibility.
• College life marks the transition from adolescence to adulthood, and with it comes the expectation of
increased responsibility.
• We must take charge of our academic path, ensuring that we select courses aligning with our career
aspirations. It's a period for self-discovery and honing our skills, making choices that will have a profound
impact on our future.
• In college, we're given the space to explore our interests and passions, but this exploration must go hand-in-
hand with a sense of commitment and dedication.
• In essence, it's a time to prepare for a brilliant career by actively engaging in our studies and co-curricular
activities. While there may not be daily homework assignments, the workload can be overwhelming,
requiring us to manage our time effectively.
• Moreover, college life isn't just about academics. It's a holistic experience that involves developing life skills,
building social connections, and participating in extracurricular activities. These aspects are equally
important in shaping our personalities and preparing us for the challenges of the real world.
• College life is indeed a unique phase where we can enjoy freedom while shouldering the responsibility of
charting our own path.
• It's not just about escaping homework but embracing the opportunity to gain knowledge, develop character,
and prepare for a successful future.
(Any other relevant points to be accepted - Intro- Reasons- Conclusion)
OR
 B. Answer – Report for a school magazine:
Format • Headline & By line • Paragraphing organisation (Introductory paragraph + one or two paragraphs
including event details + Concluding paragraph inclusive of feedback of the participants.
The following points may be included :
• Who? How many?
• Where and when?
• What and How? Why?
• What did those present think?
• Diverse Panel of Media Professionals: The programme featured a panel of media professionals
who represented a wide spectrum of media fields, including print journalism, broadcast media,
digital media, public relations, advertising, and more. Their collective experience and expertise
provided a comprehensive view of the media industry.
• Insights into Media Careers: Each professional shared their personal journey, career challenges,
and successes. They emphasized the ever-changing nature of the industry and the need to adapt
to new technologies and trends. The speakers also discussed the essential skills and qualities
required for success in their respective fields.
• Interactive Q&A Sessions: Attendees had the opportunity to engage in interactive question- and-
answer sessions with the panelists. This allowed for a more personalized understanding of career
options and guidance for aspiring media professionals.
• Networking Opportunities: The programme encouraged networking among attendees, enabling
the exchange of ideas and the formation of valuable connections in the media industry.
• Inspiration and Motivation: The event served as a source of inspiration for attendees, motivating
them to pursue their dreams in the media sector. The success stories shared by the professionals
were particularly motivating.
• Future Trends: The panelists discussed emerging trends in media, such as the impact of social
media, data journalism, and the growing importance of multimedia content. This information was
crucial for understanding the evolving landscape of the industry.
• (Any other relevant points to be accepted)

SECTION C – LITERATURE (40 MARKS)

7. Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. Attempt ANY ONE of the
two extracts given. (6 Marks)
A. A Thing of Beauty
(i) (B) When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men.
(ii) (A) 1, 4 and 5
(iii) (C) 1 and 4
(iv) All classical stories of the mighty/noble / ancestors – stories of greatness/bravery that inspire/motivate us
(v) aabbcc
(vi) Cooling covert against the hot season

OR
B. A Roadside Stand
(i) sophisticated city dwellers in their vehicles.
(ii) angry/annoyed/irritated/cross/exasperated / (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(iii) The people are preoccupied only by the thoughts of their lives and nothing else.
(iv) B. aesthetic
(v) B. transferred epithet; flower of cities
(vi ) B. 2, 3
 8. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. (4 Marks) –
A. The Tiger King
(i) C. My alarm clock yells at me every morning until I get out of bed.
(ii) Desperate/worried/despairing (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(iii) refused to get out of the car/refused to obey command
(iv) King, happy and excited to have reached goal of hundred tigers, need not fear death /It signifies the
tiger's death and the Maharaja's satisfaction with the outcome.
B. A Journey to the end of the Earth
(i) Tishani Doshi, from Madras, Russian research vessel — the Akademik Shokalskiy visited Antarctica -
intrepid / adventurous / enthusiastic / observant
(ii) providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which will help them foster a new understanding
and respect for our planet/ High school students are at an age when they are eager to learn and are more
receptive to absorbing and acting on educational experiences, aligning with the program's goals.
(iii) Not giving back in terms of policy change/undoing the harm/trying ways to mitigate the ill effects of
man’s misdeeds / only taking the opportunity to visit the place nothing more – not taking the lessons
forward and learning from them.
(iv) C . Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.

9. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given. (6 Marks)
A. The Last Lesson
(i) C. Sadness and Despair
(ii) The impending departure of M. Hamel affects the speaker deeply because it marks the end of their
opportunity to learn French from a dedicated teacher. It illustrates one of the themes of the lesson,
procrastination/ highlighting the importance of seizing educational opportunities.
(iii) The phrase "My books that had seemed such a nuisance a while ago, so heavy to carry"
signifies the speaker's change in perspective from seeing their books as burdensome to valuing
them as sources of knowledge and as a result his feelings of regret.
(iv) C. They realize that they should have valued education more, and this realization deepens their
appreciation for learning.
(v) The references to seeking bird's eggs and going sliding on the Saar symbolize the carefree and playful
activities of childhood.
(vi) Announcement, only German to be taught in schools, no more French, last day for French
OR
B. Going Places
(i) C. He is dismissive and questions the story.
(ii) D. 3, 5
(iii) Danny Casey, prodigy, famous football player, everyone’s favourite
(iv) strained/distant/cold / (Any other relevant answer to be accepted)
(v) Yes, set out to meet Danny Casey, set herself up for disappointment/sadness as it was only an imaginary
meeting.
(vi) Wants validation/ someone on her side / someone to believe her
10. Answer any FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words. (5x2 Marks)
(i) Gandhiji meant that he must not set a bad example by breaking the law, by refusing to comply with the
eviction order, at the same time he must also render humanitarian and national service for which he had
come to Champaran.
(ii) Douglas was not sure that all the terror had left. So he went to Lake Wentworth in New Hampshire, dived
off a dock at Triggs Island, and swam two miles across the lake to Stamp Act Island. He swam the crawl,
breast stroke, side stroke, and back stroke. Only once did the terror return. When he was in the middle of the
lake, he put his face under and saw nothing but bottomless water. The old sensation returned in miniature.
(iii) The story challenges conventional notions of identity and social status by illustrating how a tramp, initially
 seen as an outsider, can be reevaluated and embraced as part of a family based on his actions and
character rather than his social status.
(iv) The contrast between the peaceful sleep of the mother and the speaker's emotional turbulence
serves as a powerful literary device that underscores the emotional complexities and universal
themes of ageing, love, and the fragility of human existence. (Any other relevant points to be
accepted)
(v) Mukund Padmanabhan’s qualities of empathy and effective listening contribute to a successful and
meaningful interview that allows the interviewee to share his experiences and emotions openly. He
would only ask the kinds of questions that every reader needs to hear from a novelist. He also
ensures that the interviewee (Umberto) is not irritated or offended by any of his questions and that
he never touches any of the interviewee's sensitive life These reflect Mukund Padmanabhan's skill
as an interviewer in creating a supportive and engaging environment for the interviewee.
(vi) The role of make-up department of the Gemini Studios was to make the actors look presentable in the movies.
It was an example of national integration. According to the author, this is so because people from different
regions and religious groups worked together in the same department.
The department was headed by a Bengali who was succeeded by a Maharashtrian. The other helpers includeda
Dharwar Kannadiga, an Andhra, a Madras Indian Christian, an Anglo-Burmese and the local Tamils.
11. Answer any TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. (2x2=4marks)
(i) The statement "Where there is oppression, there will be resistance" is profoundly reflected in the story "We Too
are Human Beings" by Bama, which is a narrative that vividly portrays the lives of marginalized and
oppressed individuals. Education is depicted as a powerful tool of resistance in the story. Bama’s pursuit of
education and her determination to overcome the obstacles she faces demonstrate resistance against the
oppression that seeks to keep Dalits uneducated and economically disadvantaged.
(ii) Derry's mother is deeply concerned about his safety and well-being. She warns him to be careful
when he wants to go out to the garden to help Mr.Lamb. This concern reflects her protective
instincts as a mother. She is keen to ensure that Derry is making friends who won't hurt him,
showing her protective nature.
(iii) Sadao's father embodies the Japanese cultural values of duty and honour. Despite the fact that Sadao
has been living in America and has become accustomed to Western ways, his father insists on
following traditional Japanese customs. Sadao's father is depicted as a traditional figure of authority
in the family. The story also highlights the cultural tensions that arise when Sadao's Western
education and values clash with his father's adherence to traditional Japanese ways, including his
choosing a wife. (Any1 point)
12. Answer any ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words.
A. Deep Water and My Mother at Sixty - Six
− The fear of death through drowning drives the protagonist to avoid activities involving water and
restrict his own freedom.
− The fear becomes overwhelming, leading the protagonist to withdraw from social and romantic
relationships.
− Despite the similarity in fear, the impact on the protagonist in 'Deep Water' is one of isolation,
restriction, and missed opportunities.
− Fights against it and wins – confident and determined.
− The poem "My Mother at Sixty-Six" reflects on the fear of losing a loved one and the impending
reality of death.
− The poet's fear revolves around the mortality of her aging mother and the fear of being left alone.
− The fear creates a deeply emotional connection as the poet observes her mother's vulnerability
and contemplates her mortality.
− Despite the similarity in fear, the impact on the poet in 'My Mother at Sixty-Six' is one of
emotional distress, reflection, and appreciation of life's fleeting nature.
− Accepting
 B. A Thing of Beauty and Keeping Quiet – Written in the form of a dialogue
between PabloNeruda and Keats. The following points may be included :
− power of beauty to provide solace and inspiration in life
− in a world filled with suffering and pain, the presence of beauty can bring joy and a
sense ofconnection to something greater.
− the importance of appreciating and valuing beauty in all
its forms."Keeping Quiet" by Neruda:
− Uses elements of nature to provide analogy, examples and symbols to teach us silence
− to reflect on the fast-paced nature of modern life and the value of silence and introspection
− encourages individuals to pause and connect with themselves and others, suggesting
that silence can foster understanding and unity.
− collectively staying quiet for a moment, people can break free from their routines and
find a deeper meaning in life.
− Overall, both poems explore different perspectives on finding meaning and connection
in life. While Keats focuses on the power of beauty, Neruda emphasizes the importance
of introspection and stillness. Despite their differences, both works convey the idea that
there is adeeper significance to be found beyond the surface of everyday existence.
(Any other relevant points to be accepted)
13. Answer any ONE of the following two questions in about 120-150 words
A. The Tiger King (The following points may be included in the informal letter)
My sincerest greetings to his majesty, I am Rajan, a subject of your kingdom, and I am writing to
you today because your relentless killing of tigers in our forests has pained me deeply. Animals
feel pain andhave a right to live just like you and I do, your majesty. God has created us all as
equals, so how can onespecies kill another for no real scientific reason? I know that you have
been doing this because of the astrologer's prophecy. However, I urge you to look to your rational
side that had claimed, as an infant, that everyone must die one day. I must ask you this, then: does
it matter how we die? If we must all meetour end one day, wouldn't you rather enjoy the time
you have on earth, live meaningfully and compassionately, instead of worrying about a future
where you are dead? I hope that you will, as our king, do right by all living creatures. Your loyal
subject, Rajan
(Any other relevant points to be accepted)
B. Memories of Childhood – Written in the form of a dialogue between Zitkala-Sa and Bama.
• Both of them faced discrimination; Zitkala-Sa was discriminated against because of
cultural differences while Bama faced discrimination due to her caste.
• Zitkala-sa rebelled and refused to get her hair cut. She put up a strong fight, though had
to give in finally. Bama was enraged and wanted to go and touch the packet of vadai
to teach a lessonto the landlord. But was guided by her elder brother to calm down. He
showed her the path overcome discrimination.
• Both of them worked hard to excel in education.
• Both succeeded as writers among other things; They have written much against
discrimination and evils of oppression, thus continuing the fight for justice for their
communities.
(any relevant point)
***********
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2023-24
Max. Marks:
80
Subject: English Core (Code- 301) Time: 3 hours
SET 3
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains Three sections- READING, WRITING and
LITERATURE.
2. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION-A: READING (22 Marks)

Read the passage given below. (12)
1. Suspense was over when my high school results finally came out. But I was upset. I had not done as well
as I expected. My father tried to console me. “Why are you worried? You have done very well, my dear.”
“No, I haven’t, Baba,” I protested, controlling my tears, and wondering if I had disappointed him. “It
doesn’t really matter,” he assured me. “Do you know what I got when I finished high school?” I looked
into Baba’s face and waited for the answer to his own question. “You know,” he told me, “I have never
told you this. I got just a third division. But, look at me, I have done quite well.” Baba got a third
division! I was almost in shock, but the thought of my having done a lot better than that made me realize
that I had no reason to complain. I certainly felt better! “Everything is under control!” said Baba,
smiling. That was his favorite phrase. Posted in Kolkata, my father was then a senior official, in the
Indian Railway Service, and an expert in goods traffic operations. He was soon to become a director
with the Railway Board. By the time he retired in 1981, he was general manager of the Central Railways.
By the time Baba passed away in November 2000, his name had found place in several hearts as well.
He was open, easy to know, and full of life. We are extremely close, but I had so much more to learn
about him from many things I came to know after his death.
2. In September 2000, he was in hospital for treatment of cancer and given just two months to live. When
he found out, his reaction was an extremely rational one. He asked me to fetch files from his cupboard,
so that he could explain the details of my mother’s pension. He also dictated his will from his hospital
bed. “Everything is under control!” After Baba’s death, Satish, our old family retainer, was inconsolable.
We tried to cheer him up. “Your Baba had scolded me only once in all these years!” he cried. Satish
pointed to the watch on his left hand. “I had been coming late for work and everyone in the family was
complaining about it,” said Satish. “Then, one day, your Baba gave me this watch and told me, now that
you have a watch, you can’t be late’.” That was the scolding Satish received. On the fourth day after
Baba’s death, my sister and I had to perform a ceremony. Since several relatives were expected, we
decided to order lunch from a caterer in our locality, reputed for his home cooked food. But, when we
went to pay the owner, we got a surprise. He refused to accept any money! “When I wanted to start my
catering business, it was your father who lent me money,” he told us. It seems Baba never asked for it
back. Now, after four or five years, the caterer wanted to repay the debt. Of course, we made him accept
the full payment for the fine food and service. “It was Baba’s gift and it ought to remain so,” I told him.
3. Some days later, there was yet another piece of information as we were preparing for the main ceremony.
Vikram, my brother drove me to the local market. On recognizing our car, the parking assistant, in his
twenties, came running towards us and asked why he had not seen its owner for long. We had to break
the news to him and to our utter surprise, he started crying. We were really surprised by this reaction
from a stranger until the man told us that Baba used to pay his daughter’s school fees and buys her books.
 After Baba’s death, I was amazed to learn that he had got a first division in his high school diploma in
1937, a rare achievement in those days.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below:
i). Select the option that suggests why the narrator was in tears when her school results came out.
(1)
a) She did better than what she expected.
b) She did not do as expected.
c) Her Baba had not done well.
d)Her Baba had done better than her.

ii)On knowing the result, how did the narrator’s father react? (1)
a) He scolded her.
b) He beat her.
c) He consoled her.
d) He made fun of her.
iii) Why did the narrator say that she had nothing to complain? What does it reflect on her
character? Answer in about 40 words. (2)
iv) Complete the following sentence using a suitable word or phrase.
As per the information provided in the passage, the caterer was a person with profound
_______________. (1)
v) Choose the option that is not correct: (1)
a) Baba was a senior official in the Indian Railway Service.
b) Baba was to become a director with the Railway Board.
c) Baba was the general manager of the Central Highways.
d) Baba had got a third division in high school.
vi) ‘That was the scolding Satish received.’ What was the scolding? (2)
Explain in 40 words.
vii) State whether the following statement is TRUE/FALSE (1)
Most of Baba’s acts of charity were secretive.
viii) Why did the narrator’s father hide his real division in examination? What does it speak about
his nature? (2)
ix) Choose the option that lists the correct combination of the traits of Baba’s personality.
(1)
1)Impoliteness
2)Empathy
3)Hypocrisy
4)Helpfulness
5)Intolerance
6)Pragmatism
a)1 and 3
b)2,4 and 6
c)1 and 5
d)4 and 6
2. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow: (10)
1. With novel Coronavirus spreading rapidly all over the country, there are only three states right now,
Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, that have less than 1,000 people infected with the
disease.
2. Lakshadweep, of course, still hasn’t reported even a single case till now, the only region in India entirely
 free of the epidemic.
3. Otherwise, even the relatively smaller states now have significantly large spread of the disease. Goa, for
example, has seen more than 7,000 of its people infected by the virus till now. Tripura has over 5,500 cases,
while Manipur has more than 3,000, and Nagaland a little less than 2,500. Puducherry has more than 4,000
cases, while even Daman and Diu has over 1,300 people infected.
4. And in each of these states, the numbers are rising at a fast pace, at a rate higher than the national level.
The infections had initially reached these states in the first and second week of May, when the lockdown
was relaxed for the first time to enable people stuck in different parts of the country to return to their native
places.
5. After a period of very slow growth, the number of cases have begun to rise rapidly in the last one month.
In Goa, for example, the total number of infected people has nearly doubled in the last 15 days. Same has
happened in Puducherry, as well.
6. Tuesday was one of those rare occasions when the number of active cases in the country, those who are yet
to recover from the disease, went down compared to the previous day. That is because the number of
recoveries, combined with the number of deaths, exceeded the new cases that were detected on Tuesday.

7. With over 52,500 new cases detected in the country, the total number of infections crossed 19 lakh, out of
`which 12.82 lakh people have recovered from the disease. The number of dead is now close to 40,000.
8.The number of recoveries on Tuesday was the highest-ever for a single day. More than 51,700 people were
declared to have been recovered. Three days earlier, the number of recoveries had crossed 50,000 for the
first time, but in the next two days the number had fallen to much lower levels.
Choose the correct option to answer the questions based on the above passage and graphics.

(i) Infer from the above passage how these three states –in Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar
Islands are different from the rest of India? (2)
(ii) __________ is the only region in India which is entirely free of the epidemic. (1)
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Tripura
(iii) Which date in the graph shows the highest jump of detected cases in a day? (1)
(iv) What is common among Goa, Tripura, Manipur, Nagaland, Puducherry and Daman and Diu?
(1)
(A) The numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates lower than the national level
(B) The numbers are falling at a fast pace at rates equal than the national level
(C) The numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates higher than the national level
(D) All of the above
(v) When had the number of recoveries crossed 50,000 for the first time? (1)
(i) two days earlier
(ii) Tuesday
(iii) three days earlier than Tuesday
(iv) none of these
(vi) Based on your understanding of the passage, answer in 40 words why the number of active cases on Tuesday
was the lowest. (2)
(vii) Complete the following analogy suitably: (1)
Assist: supplement, indigenous: ______________
(viii) State whether the following sentence is TRUE/FALSE. (1)
The information furnished in the above passage is assuring of a good time ahead.

SECTION-B: CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 Marks)

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. (4x1=4)
A. You are Tripti/Trilok Lahiri, secretary, ABL School Cricket Association. It has been decided that a meeting
of all the members of the school cricket team will be held to discuss plans and strategies for the coming Zonal
Tournament. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing the members of the team about the meeting
and requesting them to attend it.

OR

B. You are the Health Secretary of Students Council Citizens Public School, Saheed Nagar, Bhubaneswar. With
the rising cases of Dengue & Malaria in the capital city, the Council has decided to start a week-long cleanliness
drive from the 2nd of October around the school. Draft a notice in about 50 words asking classes XI & XII
students to enrol for the drive.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. (4)

A. Your friend, P.V. Satish, has invited you to attend the wedding of his sister, Jaya. You find that you have an
important paper of Pre-board examination on the day of the wedding. Thus, you cannot attend the event. Write
a formal reply in about 50 words to the invitation expressing your regret. You are Priya/ Pradeep, Vim, Fort
Road, Chennai.
OR
B. Sarvodaya Public School is organising its Annual Sports Day. The Principal wishes to invite Mr P k Singh
the District Magistrate as the Chief Guest to preside over the function. Draft a formal letter of invitation in 50
words to be sent to the above-mentioned dignitary.
5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. (5)
A. Write an application (including a resume), in 120-150 words for the post of Receptionist advertised in a
National Newspaper by JKL Publishers, Peshwa Road, Pune. You are Karuna, M114, Mall Road, Pune, a
graduate from SNDT University and have done a Secretarial Practice Course from YWCA, Mumbai.
OR
B. Lack of job opportunities in the rural areas is forcing people to migrate to cities. Every big city thus, has a
number of slums in it. Life in these slums is miserable. Write a letter in 120-150 words, to the editor of a
national newspaper on how we can improve the living conditions in the slums. You are Karan/Karuna, B114,
Jagatpur, Cuttack.
6.Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. (5)
A. Traffic rules are set in place for the safety of people, but it is sad to share that people break traffic rules,
and meet with fatal accidents. As the RTO you want to share awareness among the citizens of the nation. As a
responsible citizen, draft an article in about 120-150 words. on the theme “Stop Road Accidents Before
They Stop You.” You are Rohit/Rajni.
OR
B. The efforts of 400 volunteers working with the NGO, 4 Literacy, in the district of Malkangiri, Odisha, was
 lauded by the District Collector, Shri V. Singh (IAS). As a staff reporter of ‘The Odisha Bhaskar’, write a
report about this in 120-150 words covering all the details of the event, such as training, teaching and
infrastructure involved in the ‘Each One Teach One Campaign’, initiated by the district administration in
association with the NGO.

SECTION-C
LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND SUPPLEMENTARY READING TEXT (40 Marks)

7.Readthegiven extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given (6x1=6Marks)
A.
Sometimes I feel myself I can hardly bear
The thought of so much childish longing in vain,
The sadness that lurks near the open window there.
That waits all day in almost open prayer
For the squeal of brakes , the sound of a stopping car,

(A) Why does the poet call the farmers’ Longing ‘childish’?
(B) Why does the poet say “Sometimes I feel myself I can hardly bear ‘ ?
(a) Because the poet observes the farmers’ plight.

(b) Because he knew the roadside stand farmer.

(c) Because he has relatives who are farmers.
(d) Because he empathises with the farmers.
(C) Which poetic device is used in ‘The sadness that lurks near the open window there’?
(D) State True and False:
By saying that the farmers wait for customers in’open prayer’, the poet is saying that the farmers are
religious people.
(E) Complete the sentence using ONE word only:
The poet says that the farmers wait all day in ‘almost open prayer ‘ to indicate that the sad-------------------
of the farmers is visible to anyone who gives it a moment of observation.
(F) According to the poet, the farmers wait all day to hear the ‘squeal of brakes ‘. The emotion described
in this line is :
(a) Anticipation (b) Joy
(b) Sadness (d) Disappointment

OR
B.
What Iwant should not be confused
With total inactivity
Life is what it is about ;
I want no truck with death;
If we were not so single-minded
About keeping our lives moving-
And for once could do nothing
Perhaps a huge silence
Might interrupt this sadness
Of never understanding ourselves
And of threatening ourselves with death.

(A) The poet’s intention in the first line is to:

(a) Give a warning to the readers.
(b) Give right direction to the readers.
(c) Give choice to the readers.
(d) Give a clarification to the readers.
(B) Select the option that best explains the stand of the poet in the expression:
“I want no truck with death”.
(a) He advises people to escape death.
(b) He asserts that death is inevitable.
(c) He assures that he does not advocate death.
(d) He expresses his desire not to die.
(C) State True or False:
The poet is full of regret when he says ‘ If we were not so single -minded /about keeping our lives moving.’
(D) According to the poet who is to blame for the condition of threatening ourselves with death?
(a) Stressful life
(b) Keeping quiet
(c) Lack of understanding
(d) State of confusion
(E) What is the tone of the poet in the expression “perhaps a huge silence might interrupt this sadness”?
(F) Complete the following using ONE word only:
The poet suggests that the reason human beings do not understand themselves is because they are always
…………..

8. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. (4x1=4Marks)
A. Thus agreed, they lifted the man. He was very light, like a fowl that had been half-starved for a long
time until it is only feathers and Skeleton. So, his arms hanging, they carried him up the steps and into
the side door of the house this door opened into a passage, and down the passage they carried the man
towards an empty bedroom.
i. Who are ‘they’ in the above passage?
A. The servants
B. The General and soldiers
C. Sadao and Hana
D. The Japanese.
ii. Whom did the bedroom belong to, where the man was taken?
iii. Due to extreme weakness of the man, it was clear that the man .
A. Was on a recovery diet.
B. Was suffering from tuberculosis.
C. Had eaten almost nothing for a long time.
D. Was operated recently.
iv. Who is the ‘man’ mentioned in above passage?
OR
B. Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking
high school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational opportunities
which will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet. It's been in operation for six
years now, headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich,
 curiosity-seekers who could only 'give' back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he offers the future
generation of policy- makers a life-changing experience at an age when they're ready to absorb, learn,
and most importantly, act.

i. Students on Ice is _________ headed by Geoff Green. Select the option to fill in the blank correctly.
A. a travelogue
B. an expedition
C. a globetrotting
D. a tour

ii. Choose the option that marks the ODD ONE OUT based on your reading of the above extract.
A. Sumit donates 10% of his monthly income to the environment-friendly NGOs.
B. Manmeet and her twin plant a new plant on their birthday every year.
C. Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.
D. Afsana plans to decide a machine that recycles the biodegradable wastes from home.
iii. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract. The writer refers to the
educational opportunities as ‘inspiring’ because ____________.
iv. Why does the writer refer to ‘act’ as more important than ‘absorb’ or ‘learn’?

9. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. (6x1=6Marks)
A. This morning, Saheb is on his way to the milk booth. In his hand is a steel canister. I now work in a tea stall
down the road, he says, pointing in the distance. I am paid 800 rupees and all my meals. Does he like the
job? I ask. His face, I see, has lost the care free look. The steel canister seems heavier than the plastic bag
he would carry so lightly over his shoulder. The bag was his. The canister belongs to the man who owns the
tea shop. Saheb is no longer his own master!

i. His face, I see, has lost the carefree look. This means as per the assumption of the author, in his
looks, Saheb is…
A. Not burdened with responsibility
B. Burdened with responsibility
C. Burdened but without any responsibility
D. Not burdened but feels responsible
ii. Choose the appropriate statements for Saheb is no longer his own master!
A. Saheb has lost his freedom.
B. Saheb works in a tea stall.
C. Saheb is paid 800rupees.
D. Saheb carries canister.
iii. Read the statements given below. Choose the correct statement to analyse the mental condition of Saheb-
e-Alam.
A. He seems to be dignified working at the tea-stall.
B. He seems to be proud collecting milk from the milk booth.
C. He seems to be responsible carrying the steel canister.
D. He seems to been joying his free wheel at the tea-stall.
iv. Is Saheb happy working at the Tea Stall? Explain.
v. How does the Saheb’s story correlates with the title ‘Lost Spring’?
vi. What do you suggest, government should do for the children like Saheb.

OR
 B. Rajendra Prasad was out of town, but the servants knew Shukla as a poor yeo man who pestered their master
to help the indigo sharecroppers. So, they let him stay on the grounds with his companion, Gandhi, whom
they took to be another peasant. But Gandhi was not permitted to draw water from the well lest some drops
from his bucket pollute the entire source; how did they know that he was not a nun touchable?
i. Rajendra Prasad later went on to become the ......................... President of independent India
A. second
B. first
C. third
D. none of the above
ii. With what thought in mind did the servants make Gandhi sit on the grounds with his companion?
A. That he was also a poor peasant.
B. That he could not stand for long.
C. Guests were not allowed to sit on chairs.
D. All of these
iii. To meet Rajendra Prasad, both Gandhi and Shukla had boarded the train to which one of the cities of
Bihar.
A. Bhagalpur
B. Muzaffarpur
C. Patna
D. Gaya

iv. Why was Gandhi not allowed to draw water from the well?
v. When Gandhi first visited Patna, .................................... was out of town.
vi. In this passage, Rajendra Prasad is spoken as master of Shukla. (True/False)

10. Answer ANY FIVE of the following six questions, in about40-50 words. (5x2=10Marks)
i. Comment on the tone of the poem with reference to ‘My Mother at Sixty-Six.’
ii. WhatwasthecontractbetweenthesharecroppersofChamparanandtheirBritishlandlords?
iii. In the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’, how is grandeur connected with the mighty dead? Explain.
iv. What was the mood of M. Hamel in the classroom when he gave his last French lesson?
v. What were the contents of the package left by the peddler as a Christmas gift for Edla Willmanson?
vi. Describe the makeup room of the Gemini Studios as described by the author.
11. Answer ANY TWO of the following of three questions, in about40-50 words. (2x2=4Marks)
i. How do you know that Dr Sadao was conscientious as well as loyal? Elucidate
ii. What can be inferred to be the role of long hair in Zitkala -Sa’s community? What effect can cutting it
off have ? Rationalise . You may begin your answer like this :
Only cowards and mourners had short and shingled hair….
iii. What makes Antarctica an ideal subject of study? (Journey To the End of The Earth)

12. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about120-150 words. (1x5=5Marks)
A. Desire, determination, and diligence lead to success. Explain the value of these qualities in the light of
Douglas’ experience in “Deep Water”.
OR

B. After reading the poem, ‘My Mother at Sixty-six’ you feel sad after the thought of losing our dear ones on
account of old age, as a reader express your thoughts in a diary entry.
You may begin this way:
After reading this poem, I was really concerned about the duties and responsibilities that forces every
individual to hide their fear and pain as duty calls.

13. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about120-150 words. (1x5=5Marks)
A. The story ‘The Tiger King’ gives a strong message to preserve wildlife. It is the callous attitude of
those in power to plunder natural resources which have led to the miserable condition of Mother Earth. Write
an article on it.
OR
B. Both Derry and Lamb are victims of physical impairment, but much painful for then is the feeling
of loneliness. Comment.
………………………..
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2023-24
Max. Marks: 80
Subject: English Core (Code- 301) Time: 3 hours
SET 4

General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections- READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
4. Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A (READING) 22 Marks

1. Read the following text. 12
Memory is what defines our lives, our personalities, our existence. The dictionary defines
memory as the faculty by which things are recalled or kept in the mind; the recovery of
one’s knowledge by mental effort.
But for most of us memory is just the ability to recall facts and figures, the faces of people
we know and the recollection of things in the past. But memory is far more complex than
this. Without memory, as in the case of amnesia, the personality changes and is distorted
without any point of reference. Memory is of vital importance in defining our
personalities as it enriches our lives with complicated personal remembrances. Without
this we turn into walking zombies. As people grow older they suffer memory loss in
some form or other and diseases like Alzheimer can obliterate memory centres of the
brain , making the sufferer into a different , less coherent and less rational personality .
Science has discovered that there are many different types of memory and we can lose
one kind and still retain others.
Human beings have a long –term memory and a working memory. Working memory is
the ability to recall telephone numbers, address and relevant information such as those
needed in our daily lives. Many elderly people seem to lose this form of memory while still
retaining their long- term memory. Even normal people may have only one part of the
brain active under stress or illness. In addition to long-term memory and working
memory, there is also recent memory, semantic memory (the memory of facts) and
episodic memory (the memory of something which actually happened), explicit and
implicit memory and source memory which enables us to recall from where w learnt
certain facts. A loss of source memory seems it affect most people at time or other.
Without memory we become different people. It is what most elderly people fear, but it need
not be so. Unless illness is the cause for memory loss, participating fully in life canmake
a world of difference. Scientists, musicians, writers, doctors, architects, engineers and
artists, all use their brains and memory centres to maximum effect. In fact anyone who
is absorbed in some sort of work or project, or hobby whereby the mind is stimulatedand
used, can keep the memory in good working condition. Reading and paying attentionto
what you are reading, learning poetry by heart and taking a deep interest in the world
around you, stimulate memory. We must also learn to breathe deeply.
If the brain does not receive sufficient oxygen for the process of cerebration, hallucination
and negative psychic reactions occur. Yoga tells us that for good mental health and
emotional stability, we need to be good, deep breathers.
Without memory we are nothing. Our closest family members are nothing to us; we arealone,
drifting in a world of which we appear to know nothing. The preservation of dignity,
empathy, love, depends almost entirely on the preservation of memory.

Q.1 Memory is defined as 1

A. the faculty to recall things
B. the process to remember things
C. Recovery of Knowledge by mental effort
D. Only A and C

Q.2 Explain how memory is not just to recall facts and figures. 2

Q.3 write if the statement ‘Memory is important in defining ou personality’ is

TRUE or FALSE. r 1

Q4. Memory makes our lives rich . 1

(Fill in the blank by a phrase)
Q.5 Which option is not correct about memory. 1
A. Memory is important for our personality.
B. Without memory personality changes and distorted.
C. Memory hinders mental growth.
D. Without memory we turn into walking zombies.

Q.6 Pick out the word which does not mean the same as ‘zombie’. 1
A. Spectres
B. Phantoms
 C. Angels
D. Devils
Q.7 Distinguish between long-term memory and working memory. 2

Q.8 Preservation of memory is important because (Complete the sentence). 1

Q.9 Discuss the impact of deep breathe on brain. 2

2. II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. In the recent past, there has been a renewed discussion around nutrition in India. The
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare had released the National Health Policy in
2017. It highlighted the negative impact of malnutrition on the population’s
productivity, and its contribution to mortality rates in the country.
2. Malnutrition indicates that children are either too short for their age or too thin.
Children whose height is below the average for their age are considered to be stunted.
Similarly, children whose weight is below the average for their age are considered
thin for their height or wasted. Together, the stunted and wasted children are
considered to be underweight – indicating a lack of proper nutritional intake and
inadequate care post childbirth.
3. India’s performance on key malnutrition indicators is poor according to national and
international studies. According to UNICEF, India was at the 10th spot among
countries with the highest number of underweight children, and at the 17th spot for
the highest number of stunted children in the world.
Malnutrition affects chances of survival for children, increases their susceptibility to
illness, reduces their ability to learn, and makes them less productive in later life. It
is estimated that malnutrition is a contributing factor in about one-third of all deaths
of children under the age of 5. Figure 1 looks at the key statistics on malnutrition for
children in India.

4. Over the decade between 2005 and 2015, there has been an overall reduction in the
proportion of underweight children in India, mainly on account of an improvement
in stunting. While the percentage of stunted children under 5 reduced from 48% in
 2005-06 to 38.4% in 2015-16, there has been a rise in the percentage of children whoare
wasted from 19.8% to 21% during this period. A high increase in the incidence of
wasting was noted in Punjab, Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Sikkim.
5. The prevalence of underweight children was found to be higher in rural areas (38%)
than urban areas (29%). According to WHO, infants weighing less than 2.5 Kg are
20 times more likely to die than heavier babies. In India, the national average weight
at birth is less than 2.5 Kg for 19% of the children. The incidence of low birth-weight
babies varied across different states, with Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar
Pradesh witnessing the highest number of underweight childbirths at 23%.
6. Further, more than half of India’s children are anaemic (58%), indicating an
inadequate amount of hemoglobin in the blood. This is caused by a nutritional
deficiency of iron and other essential minerals, and vitamins in the body.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions
from given below.
Q.1 As per the indication of malnutrition children are 1
A. too short.
B. too thin.
C. too tall.
D. too fat.
Select the appropriate option.
a. A and C
b. A and B
c. B and C
d. A and D

Q.2. Pick out the option that is not true. 1

A. Stunted children are those whose height is below the average for their age.
B. Children whose weight is below the average for their age are considered wasted.
C. Children with decent height and low weight are considered normal children.
D. Together, the stunted and wasted children are considered to be underweight.

Q.3.How has malnutrition affected children under the age of 5? 2

Q.4. List out the options that are true about malnutrition. 1
A. Malnutrition affects chances of third survival for children.
B. It increases their susceptibility to illness.
C. It reduces their ability to learn.
D. It makes them less productivity in later life.
a.124
b.234
c.431
d.1234
 Q.5.A. Incidence of low birth-weight babies are highest in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan
and Uttar Pradesh. 1
R. The incidence of low birth-weight babies varied across different states.
Select the correct option.
a. A is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. R is true and is the result of A.
c. A is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are false.

Q.6. Infer two reasons how malnutrition affects children. 2

Q.7. The passage is about 1

A. Mortality in Children
B. Malnutrition in India
C. Stunted Children in India
D. Malnutrition in Children in India

Q.8.Which of the following does not mean the same as the word susceptibility in paragrap
3? 1
A. Vulnerability
B. Immunity
C. Sensitivity
D. Liability

3. SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS (18 Marks) 4x1

A. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words.
Aryan Public School will be conducting an online course on Creative Writing for the
students of class XI and XII which will be helpful for those who want to pursue a career
in it. As the Head Boy draft a notice urging students to register for the programme. Invent
all other necessary details required for the notice.
B. You are the Secretary of Jyoti Residency, a housing apartment, Hastinapur, Sector-5.
Draft a notice for the society notice board informing the residents about the change in
time about supply of drinking water and unavailability of the lift facility for a couple of
days due to repair work of the lift. Also include any other necessary information.
4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4X1
A. You are the Cultural Secretary of Moulana Abdul Kalam Azad Public School,
Uddampur. Your school is organizing the school fete to raise funds for the flood victims
of Uttarakhand. There will be stalls of eatables, gift items, books and exciting games.
Create an invitation for parents, students and teachers to attend. Mention any other
relevant details required for an invitation.
B. You and your parents have received an invitation from your maternal uncle for hs
daughter’s wedding. All of you would be delighted to attend. Draft a reply to your uncle
confirming your presence on the day of the wedding. Also add any other relevant details
required for the reply.
5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
A. You are Parul Sharma, a B. Tech graduate in automobile engineering. You came across
the following advertisement in The Times Classified Column for the post of a workshop
manager in Devi Automobiles, Rasul Nagar, Bengaluru. You want to apply for the post.
Draft a covering letter along with your bio-data applying for the post.
➢ Wanted a Workshop Manager
➢ Degree in Automobile engineering
➢ Five years experience in a reputed automobile workshop as a manager
➢ Salary package is the best in the industry
➢ Apply with confidence to:
The Manager, Devi Automobiles, Rasul Nagar, Bengaluru-22
B. You are Suman/Saloni of New Colony, Badambadi, Cuttack, Recently you visited the
Sun Temple at Konark. You were perturbed to see tourists have thrown plastic bottles,
wrappers and polythene bags inside the temple premise. Write a letter to the editor of a
national daily expressing your concern about it. Use the given cues along with your own
ideas to compose your letter.
➢ Eco-Friendly Travel creates less waste
➢ Garbage to be disposed properly
➢ Pollution increases alarmingly during tourist season
➢ Waste and pollution have far-reaching impact on environment, visitors and
communities
➢ Create-clean and healthy atmosphere in tourist destinations
6. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
A. You are Raman/Rameena. The residents of your city are troubled by the frequent power
cuts. You strongly feel that it’s time to explore for an alternative which you think is solar
power. Write an article on “Solar Power-The Only Solution for World Power Crisis.”
• Renewable energy
• Reduces energy bill
• No pollution, no carbon emission
• Low maintenance cost
B. Your school recently conducted an Inter-School Sports Quiz contest. Fifteen teams from
various local schools participated for the champion title. As the secretary of the Quiz
Club of your school, prepare a report on the event to be published in your school
magazine. You are Naren/Nooreen. Include all necessary details.
An Inter-School Quiz Contest
• Cricket
• Football
• Tennis
• Badminton
• Basketball
• All track and field events
• Attractive Cash Prizes for winners with audience question
• Monday, 25 Nov. 2023, St. Ann’s School
 SECTION C (LITERATURE) 40 Marks
7. Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. 6X1
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given below.
A. Aunt Jennifer’s finger fluttering through her wool,
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of uncle’s wedding band,
Sits heavily upon aunt Jennifer’s hand.
(Aunt Jennifer’s tigers)
(i) Which of the following theme is best represented in the given extract?
(a)The hopeful and positive bent of mind of Aunt Jennifer
(b)The oppressed and frightened bent of mind of Aunt Jennifer
(c)The intelligent bent mind of aunt Jennifer
(d)The Creative bent of mind of aunt Jennifer
(ii) State whether the given statement is TRUE or FALSE with reference to the
extract.
Aunt Jennifer is very happy with the wedding band.
(iii) Complete the sentence appropriately.
Aunt Jennifer is suffering at the .
(iv) The ivory needle used to embroider is difficulty in using it.
( v) Based on the poem’s rhyming scheme, evident in lines 2-4, of the given extract,
which word would rhyme with line 1?
tell; cool; tie
(vi) Select the option that is an example of alliteration.
(a) The massive weight of uncle’s wedding band
(b) The ivory needle hard to pull
(c) Finger fluttering through her wool
(d) Sits heavily upon aunt Jennifer’s hand
B. A. I looked again at her, wan, pale
as a late winter’s moon and felt that old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was see you soon , Amma,
all I did was smile, smile and smile....
(i) Based on the above extract, write about the tone of the poem.
(a) Delightful
(b) Optimistic
(c) Encouraging
(d) Doleful
(ii) What was the poet’s childhood fear?
(a) Fear of separation from her mother
(b) Fear of separation from her brother
(c) Fear of not doing well in academics
(d) Fear of separation from her father
(iii) What is the poetic device used in ‘As a late winter’s moon’?
 (a) Metaphor
(b) Alliteration
(c) Simile
(d) Paradox

(iv) Explain: ‘Late winter’s moon’.

(a) Shining Brilliantly
(b) Dull and obscure
(c) Vibrant
(d) Alive
(v) What does the expression, smile, smile and smile signify?
(a) Poet was going home and elated
(b) Poet was happy
(c) Poet was hopeless
(d) Poet’s desperate efforts to hide her fears
(vi) ‘See you soon, Amma’ means the poet’s to her mother. (Fill in the
blank with a single word)
8. A Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. 4x1
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given below.
Derry: You’re... peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions that I don’t
understand.
Mr Lamb: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t
have to stop here at all. The gate’s open.
Derry: Yes, but...
Mr Lamb: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees. Some hear bees and they say bees buzz.
But when you listen to bees for a long while, they hum. ... and hum means ‘sing . I hear
them singing, my bees.
Derry: But... I like it here. I came in because I liked it ... when I looked over the wall.
Mr Lamb: If you’d seen me, You’d have come in.
Derry: no.
(i) List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses( .. ) in this extract.
(ii) Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr Lamb in the context.
(a) Derry: Introvert; Mr Lamb: friendly
(b) Derry: Fearful; Mr Lamb; domineering
(c) Derry: Friendly; Mr Lamb: weird
(d) Derry: Open minded; Mr Lamb: charming
(iii) Which of the following best summarizes Mr Lamb’s
attitude towards the bees?
(a) Beauty is being true to yourself.
(b) There is a kind of beauty in imperfection.
(c) Beauty is the promise of happiness.
(d) The beauty of the world lies in the details.

iv) Derry says, “I came in here because I liked it .... “What was the one significant
 thing Derry might have liked about the place, as per the extract?

B. He said I was unhappy. That made my wife kind of mad, but he explained that he meant
the modern world is full of insecurity, fear, war, worry and all the rest of it, and that I
just want to escape. Well who doesn’t? Everybody I know wants to escape, but they
don’t wander down into any third level at Grand Central Station. But that’s the reason,
he said, and my friends all agree. Everything points to it, they claimed.
My stamp collecting, for example; that’s a temporary refuge from reality. Well, may be,
but my grandfather didn’t need any refuge from reality.
(i) Why did Sam’s verdict make Charley’s wife ‘mad’?
(a) It made it difficult for her to accept that Charley would consulta
psychiatrist.
(b) It seemed to suggest to her that she was the cause of
Charley’s unhappiness
(c) It made her aware of Charley’s delicate state of mind.
(d) It offended her that Charley and Sam collectively accused her
(ii) Sam’s explanation to the reaction of Charley’s wife was in nature.
(a) Critical
(b) Aggressive
(c) Clarifying
(d) Accusatory
(iii) Select the option that signifies the condition of people of the ‘modern world’
mentioned in the extract.
1. Unsure 2. Lazy 3. Offensive 4. Anxious 5. Afraid
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1, 4 and 5
(iv) What was Charley’s temporary relief from reality?
9.A Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 6X1
They had merely hard that a Mahatma who wanted to help them was in trouble with the
authorities. Their spontaneous demonstration, in thousands, around the courthouse was
the beginning of their liberation from fear of the British. The officials felt powerless
without Gandhi’s cooperation. He helped them regulate the crowd. He was polite and
friendly. He was giving them concrete proof that their might, hitherto dreaded and
unquestioned, could be challenged by Indians. The government was baffled. The
prosecutor requested the judge to postpone the trial. Apparently, the authorities wished
to consult their superiors.
(i) The officials felt powerless because
(a) Of Gandhi’s refusal to cooperate with them.
(b) Of Gandhi’s polite and friendly behaviour.
(c) The crowd was listening only to Gandhi.
(d) The crowd was getting violent.
 (ii) The demonstration proved that the
(a) Policies of the British had failed.
(b) Dread instilled in the hearts of Indians had begun to lessen.
(c) Dealings with the Indian citizens had been unsuccessful.
(d) Might of the British had not been understood by Indians.
(iii) Which style, from those given below, is being used by the author, when he says,
“Apparently, the authorities wished to consult their superiors”?
(a) Humorous
(b) Dramatic
(c) Sarcastic
(d) Persuasive
(iv) Gandhi’s behaviour towards the British prior to the proposal of postponement of
the trial was that of
(a) Indifference
(b) Calm acceptance
(c) Ignorance of consequences
(d) Polite helpfulness
(v) Give one reason, as per the extract, why the government was baffled?
(vi) What does the demonstration of the peasants indicate, as per the extract?
(use a phrase)
B. A girl from the countryside, she hadn’t gone through all the stages of worldly experience
that generally precede a position of importance and sophistication that she had found
herself catapulted into. She never quite recovered from the terror she felt that day. That
was the end of a brief and brilliant acting career- the legal advisor, who was also a
member of the Story Department, had unwittingly brought about that sad end. While
every other member of the Department wore a kind of uniform – khadi dhoti with a
slightly oversized and clumsily tailored white khadi shirt- the legal adviser wore pants
and a tie and sometimes a coat that looked like a coat of mail. Often, he looked alone
and helpless... (Poets and Pancakes)
(i) Select the option that completes the given sentence appropriately.
‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to
(a) Good education to gain knowledge
(b) Situations that require one to be street smart.
(c) Smaller, not so important roles in acting
(d) Training in soft skills.
(ii) Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy:
Sealed: closed::propelled:
(iii) Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
The harm done to the actress was a/an
(a) Well-planned act
(b) Unintentional act
(c) Act of jealousy
(d) Act of male dominance
(iv) Based on the above extract, choose the statement that is TRUE for the legal
 adviser.
(a) He disliked the actress from the countryside.
(b) He acted after thinking through things carefully.
(c) He didn’t get well with others in the Department.
(v) Identify the textual clue that follows the reader to infer that the writer is
sympathetic towards the professional fate of the actor. (clue: a phrase)
(vi) Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The writer uses the word ‘uniform’ to refer to the outfits of the Department
members because just like a uniform _
10. Answer any FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2X5
(i) ‘People value the importance of a thing only after they lose it’. Comment on this
statement on the light of the story, The Last Lesson.
(ii) State the fear of the poet losing her mother due to her growing age and how could
she suppress it. (My Mother at Sixty-six)
(iii) What changes do you notice in Saheb after he was employed at the tea stall?
(Lost Spring)
(iv) Give two reasons why is ‘keeping quiet’ essential to attaining a better, more
peaceful world? (Keeping Quiet)
(v) Describe how Edla Willmansson was instrumental in transforming the rattrap
peddler. (The Rattrap)
(vi) When do we turn to a thing of beauty and seek the much-needed solace and
peace? (A thing Of Beauty)
11. Answer any TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2X2
(i) Comment on Charley’s experience at the ticket counter. (The Third Level)
(ii) How did the king of Pratibandapuram receive the title ‘Tiger King’?
(iii) What was the only consideration for Dr Sadao to carry the American soldier to
his house?
12.A. Answer ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
Mukesh in ‘The Lost Spring’ and Sophie in ‘Going Places’ are daydreamers.
Daydreaming can affect our lives positively as well as negatively.
Imagine yourself as a motivational speaker who has to address high school students.
Write this address elaborating on occurrences from the two texts highlighting realistic
and unrealistic types of daydreaming.
B. The Lesson ‘Indigo’ records how Gandhi showed patriotism as not merely proclaiming
love for the nation in slogans and songs; it entails respect for the values and the laws of
a nation and above all love for its people in deeds. Express your views regarding the
need for inculcating patriotism in youth today and how it has changed in its essence.
13.A Answer ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
On returning home, Bama narrated the funny stories to her elder brother. Her brother
explained her that it is not funny in anything, instead this was an incident of class
discrimination. As she understood the events, she felt disgusted and sad.
Imagine yourself as Bama and discuss what the constitution of India has done for this.
B. Both Derry and Mr Lamb suffer from handicaps, yet their outlook towards life is totally
different. Instead of letting it pull them down, they both found a way to overcome it in
 their own way. You wish to include a cameo of both in your upcoming blog post.
(A cameo is a short description that neatly encapsulates someone or something)
As a part of the research, compare and contrast the experiences faced by the two and
their responses to these experiences, in about 120-150 words. (Clue: include similarities
and differences in the discrimination they faced- their feelings- determination to
overcome- success.)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2023-24

Max. Marks: 80
Subject: English Core (Code- 301) Time: 3 hours
SET 5

General Instructions:
5. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
6. The Question Paper contains THREE sections- READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
7. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
8. Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A (READING) 22 Marks

1. Read the following text. 12
Memory is what defines our lives, our personalities, our existence. The dictionary defines
memory as the faculty by which things are recalled or kept in the mind; the recovery of
one’s knowledge by mental effort.
But for most of us memory is just the ability to recall facts and figures, the faces of
peoplewe know and the recollection of things in the past. But memory is far more
complex thanthis. Without memory, as in the case of amnesia, the personality changes
and is distortedwithout any point of reference. Memory is of vital importance in
defining ourpersonalities as it enriches our lives with complicated personal
remembrances. Withoutthis we turn into walking zombies. As people grow older
they suffer memory loss insome form or other and diseases like Alzheimer can
obliterate memory centres of the brain, making the sufferer into a different , less
coherent and less rational personality . Science has discovered that there are many
different types of memory and we can loseone kind and still retain others. Human
beings have a long –term memory and a working memory. Working memory is the
ability to recall telephone numbers, address and relevant information such as those
needed in our daily lives. Many elderly people seem to lose this form of memory while
still retaining their long- term memory. Even normal people may have only one part of
the brain active under stress or illness. In addition to long-term memory and working
memory, there is also recent memory, semantic memory (the memory of facts) and
episodic memory (the memory of something which actually happened), explicit and
implicit memory and source memory which enables us to recall from where w learnt
certain facts. A loss of source memory seems it affect most people at time or other.
Without memory we become different people. It is what most elderly people fear, but it
need not be so. Unless illness is the cause for memory loss, participating fully in life can
make a world of difference. Scientists, musicians, writers, doctors, architects, engineers
and artists, all use their brains and memory centres to maximum effect. In fact anyone
who is absorbed in some sort of work or project, or hobby whereby the mind is stimulated
and used, can keep the memory in good working condition. Reading and paying attention
to what you are reading, learning poetry by heart and taking a deep interest in the world
around you, stimulate memory. We must also learn to breathe deeply.
If the brain does not receive sufficient oxygen for the process of cerebration,
hallucination and negative psychic reactions occur. Yoga tells us that for good mental
health and emotional stability, we need to be good, deep breathers.
Without memory we are nothing. Our closest family members are nothing to us; we are
alone, drifting in a world of which we appear to know nothing. The preservation of
dignity, empathy, love, depends almost entirely on the preservation of memory.

Q.1 Memory is defined as 1

E. the faculty to recall things
F. the process to remember things
G. Recovery of Knowledge by mental effort
H. Only A and C

Q.2 Explain how memory is not just to recall facts and figures. 2

Q.3 write if the statement ‘Memory is important in defining our personality’ is

TRUE or FALSE. 1

Q4. Memory makes our lives rich . 1

(Fill in the blank by a phrase)
Q.7 Which option is not correct about memory. 1
E. Memory is important for our personality.
F. Without memory personality changes and distorted.
G. Memory hinders mental growth.
H. Without memory we turn into walking zombies.

Q.8 Pick out the word which does not mean the same as ‘zombie’. 1
C. Spectres
D. Phantoms
 E. Angels
F. Devils
Q.10
Distinguish between long-term memory and working memory. 2

Q.11 Preser
vation of memory is important because (Complete the sentence). 1

Q.12 Discus
s the impact of deep breathe on brain. 2
2. III. Read the passage given below. 10
1. In the recent past, there has been a renewed discussion around nutrition in India. The
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare had released the National Health Policy in
2017. It highlighted the negative impact of malnutrition on the population’s
productivity, and its contribution to mortality rates in the country.
2. Malnutrition indicates that children are either too short for their age or too thin.
Children whose height is below the average for their age are considered to be stunted.
Similarly, children whose weight is below the average for their age are considered
thin for their height or wasted. Together, the stunted and wasted children are
considered to be underweight – indicating a lack of proper nutritional intake and
inadequate care post childbirth.
3. India’s performance on key malnutrition indicators is poor according to national and
international studies. According to UNICEF, India was at the 10th spot among
countries with the highest number of underweight children, and at the 17th spot for
the highest number of stunted children in the world.
Malnutrition affects chances of survival for children, increases their susceptibility to
illness, reduces their ability to learn, and makes them less productive in later life. It
is estimated that malnutrition is a contributing factor in about one-third of all deaths
of children under the age of 5. Figure 1 looks at the key statistics on malnutrition for
children in India.

4. Over the decade between 2005 and 2015, there has been an overall reduction in the
proportion of underweight children in India, mainly on account of an improvement
in stunting. While the percentage of stunted children under 5 reduced from 48% in
 2005-06 to 38.4% in 2015-16, there has been a rise in the percentage of children whoare
wasted from 19.8% to 21% during this period. A high increase in the incidence of
wasting was noted in Punjab, Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Sikkim.
7. The prevalence of underweight children was found to be higher in rural areas (38%)
than urban areas (29%). According to WHO, infants weighing less than 2.5 Kg are
20 times more likely to die than heavier babies. In India, the national average weight
at birth is less than 2.5 Kg for 19% of the children. The incidence of low birth-weight
babies varied across different states, with Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar
Pradesh witnessing the highest number of underweight childbirths at 23%.
8. Further, more than half of India’s children are anaemic (58%), indicating an
inadequate amount of hemoglobin in the blood. This is caused by a nutritional
deficiency of iron and other essential minerals, and vitamins in the body.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions
from given below.
Q.1 As per the indication of malnutrition children are 1
E. too short.
F. too thin.
G. too tall.
H. too fat.
Select the appropriate option.
a. A and C
b. A and B
c. B and C
d. A and D

Q.5. Pick out the option that is not true. 1

E. Stunted children are those whose height is below the average for their age.
F. Children whose weight is below the average for their age are considered wasted.
G. Children with decent height and low weight are considered normal children.
H. Together, the stunted and wasted children are considered to be underweight.

Q.6.How has malnutrition affected children under the age of 5? 2

Q.7. List out the options that are true about malnutrition. 1
E. Malnutrition affects chances of third survival for children.
F. It increases their susceptibility to illness.
G. It reduces their ability to learn.
H. It makes them less productivity in later life.
a.124
b.234
c.431
d.1234
 Q.5.A. Incidence of low birth-weight babies are highest in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan
and Uttar Pradesh. 1
R. The incidence of low birth-weight babies varied across different states.
Select the correct option.
e. A is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
f. R is true and is the result of A.
g. A is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
h. Both A and R are false.

Q.8. Infer two reasons how malnutrition affects children. 2

Q.9. The passage is about 1

E. Mortality in Children
F. Malnutrition in India
G. Stunted Children in India
H. Malnutrition in Children in India

Q.8.Which of the following does not mean the same as the word susceptibility in paragrap
3? 1
E. Vulnerability
F. Immunity
G. Sensitivity
H. Liability

3. SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS (18 Marks) 4x1

A. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words.
Aryan Public School will be conducting an online course on Creative Writing for the
students of class XI and XII which will be helpful for those who want to pursue a career
in it. As the Head Boy draft a notice urging students to register for the programme. Invent
all other necessary details required for the notice.
B. You are the Secretary of Jyoti Residency, a housing apartment, Hastinapur, Sector-5.
Draft a notice for the society notice board informing the residents about the change in
time about supply of drinking water and unavailability of the lift facility for a couple of
days due to repair work of the lift. Also include any other necessary information.
4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4X1
A. You are the Cultural Secretary of Moulana Abdul Kalam Azad Public School,
Uddampur. Your school is organizing the school fete to raise funds for the flood victims
of Uttarakhand. There will be stalls of eatables, gift items, books and exciting games.
Create an invitation for parents, students and teachers to attend. Mention any other
relevant details required for an invitation.
B. You and your parents have received an invitation from your maternal uncle for hs
daughter’s wedding. All of you would be delighted to attend. Draft a reply to your uncle
confirming your presence on the day of the wedding. Also add any other relevant details
required for the reply.
5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
A. You are Parul Sharma, a B. Tech graduate in automobile engineering. You came across
the following advertisement in The Times Classified Column for the post of a workshop
manager in Devi Automobiles, Rasul Nagar, Bengaluru. You want to apply for the post.
Draft a covering letter along with your bio-data applying for the post.
➢ Wanted a Workshop Manager
➢ Degree in Automobile engineering
➢ Five years experience in a reputed automobile workshop as a manager
➢ Salary package is the best in the industry
➢ Apply with confidence to:
The Manager, Devi Automobiles, Rasul Nagar, Bengaluru-22
B. You are Suman/Saloni of New Colony, Badambadi, Cuttack, Recently you visited the
Sun Temple at Konark. You were perturbed to see tourists have thrown plastic bottles,
wrappers and polythene bags inside the temple premise. Write a letter to the editor of a
national daily expressing your concern about it. Use the given cues along with your own
ideas to compose your letter.
➢ Eco-Friendly Travel creates less waste
➢ Garbage to be disposed properly
➢ Pollution increases alarmingly during tourist season
➢ Waste and pollution have far-reaching impact on environment, visitors and
communities
➢ Create-clean and healthy atmosphere in tourist destinations
6. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
A. You are Raman/Rameena. The residents of your city are troubled by the frequent power
cuts. You strongly feel that it’s time to explore for an alternative which you think is solar
power. Write an article on “Solar Power-The Only Solution for World Power Crisis.”
• Renewable energy
• Reduces energy bill
• No pollution, no carbon emission
• Low maintenance cost
B. Your school recently conducted an Inter-School Sports Quiz contest. Fifteen teams from
various local schools participated for the champion title. As the secretary of the Quiz
Club of your school, prepare a report on the event to be published in your school
magazine. You are Naren/Nooreen. Include all necessary details.
An Inter-School Quiz Contest
• Cricket
• Football
• Tennis
• Badminton
• Basketball
• All track and field events
• Attractive Cash Prizes for winners with audience question
• Monday, 25 Nov. 2023, St. Ann’s School
 SECTION C (LITERATURE) 40 Marks
7. Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. 6X1
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given below.
A. Aunt Jennifer’s finger fluttering through her wool,
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of uncle’s wedding band,
Sits heavily upon aunt Jennifer’s hand.
(Aunt Jennifer’s tigers)
(i) Which of the following theme is best represented in the given extract?
(a)The hopeful and positive bent of mind of Aunt Jennifer
(b)The oppressed and frightened bent of mind of Aunt Jennifer
(c)The intelligent bent mind of aunt Jennifer
(d)The Creative bent of mind of aunt Jennifer
(v) State whether the given statement is TRUE or FALSE with reference to the
extract.
Aunt Jennifer is very happy with the wedding band.
(vi) Complete the sentence appropriately.
Aunt Jennifer is suffering at the .
(vii) The ivory needle used to
embroider is difficulty in using it.
( v) Based on the poem’s rhyming scheme, evident in lines 2-4, of the given extract,
which word would rhyme with line 1?
tell; cool; tie
(vii) Select the option that is an example of alliteration.
(a) The massive weight of uncle’s wedding band
(b) The ivory needle hard to pull
(c) Finger fluttering through her wool
(d) Sits heavily upon aunt Jennifer’s hand
B. A. I looked again at her, wan, pale
as a late winter’s moon and felt that old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was see you soon , Amma,
all I did was smile, smile and smile....
(iv)Based on the above extract, write about the tone of the poem.
(a) Delightful
(b) Optimistic
(c) Encouraging
(d) Doleful
(v) What was the poet’s childhood fear?
(a) Fear of separation from her mother
(b) Fear of separation from her brother
(c) Fear of not doing well in academics
(d) Fear of separation from her father
(vi) What is the poetic device used in ‘As a late winter’s moon’?
 (e) Metaphor
(f) Alliteration
(g) Simile
(h) Paradox

(vii) Explain: ‘Late winter’s moon’.

(a) Shining Brilliantly
(b) Dull and obscure
(c) Vibrant
(d) Alive
(viii) What does the expression, smile, smile and smile signify?
(a) Poet was going home and elated
(b) Poet was happy
(c) Poet was hopeless
(d) Poet’s desperate efforts to hide her fears
(ix) ‘See you soon, Amma’ means the poet’s to her mother. (Fill in the
blank with a single word)
8. A Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. 4x1
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given below.
Derry: You’re... peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions that I don’t
understand.
Mr Lamb: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t
have to stop here at all. The gate’s open.
Derry: Yes, but...
Mr Lamb: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees. Some hear bees and they say bees buzz.
But when you listen to bees for a long while, they hum. ... and hum means ‘sing . I hear
them singing, my bees.
Derry: But... I like it here. I came in because I liked it ... when I looked over the wall.
Mr Lamb: If you’d seen me, You’d have come in.
Derry: no.
(iv) List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses( .. ) in this extract.
(v) Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr Lamb in the context.
(a) Derry: Introvert; Mr Lamb: friendly
(b) Derry: Fearful; Mr Lamb; domineering
(c) Derry: Friendly; Mr Lamb: weird
(d) Derry: Open minded; Mr Lamb: charming
(vi) Which of the following best summarizes Mr Lamb’s
attitude towards the bees?
(a) Beauty is being true to yourself.
(b) There is a kind of beauty in imperfection.
(c) Beauty is the promise of happiness.
(d) The beauty of the world lies in the details.

iv) Derry says, “I came in here because I liked it .... “What was the one significant
 thing Derry might have liked about the place, as per the extract?

B. He said I was unhappy. That made my wife kind of mad, but he explained that he meant
the modern world is full of insecurity, fear, war, worry and all the rest of it, and that I
just want to escape. Well who doesn’t? Everybody I know wants to escape, but they
don’t wander down into any third level at Grand Central Station. But that’s the reason,
he said, and my friends all agree. Everything points to it, they claimed.
My stamp collecting, for example; that’s a temporary refuge from reality. Well, may be,
but my grandfather didn’t need any refuge from reality.
(iv) Why did Sam’s verdict make Charley’s wife ‘mad’?
(a) It made it difficult for her to accept that Charley would consulta
psychiatrist.
(b) It seemed to suggest to her that she was the cause of
Charley’s unhappiness
(c) It made her aware of Charley’s delicate state of mind.
(d) It offended her that Charley and Sam collectively accused her
(v) Sam’s explanation to the reaction of Charley’s wife was in nature.
(a) Critical
(b) Aggressive
(c) Clarifying
(d) Accusatory
(vi) Select the option that signifies the condition of people of the ‘modern world’
mentioned in the extract.
1. Unsure 2. Lazy 3. Offensive 4. Anxious 5. Afraid
(e) 1 and 3
(f) 2 and 5
(g) 2,3 and 4
(h) 1, 4 and 5
(iv) What was Charley’s temporary relief from reality?
9.A Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 6X1
They had merely hard that a Mahatma who wanted to help them was in trouble with the
authorities. Their spontaneous demonstration, in thousands, around the courthouse was
the beginning of their liberation from fear of the British. The officials felt powerless
without Gandhi’s cooperation. He helped them regulate the crowd. He was polite and
friendly. He was giving them concrete proof that their might, hitherto dreaded and
unquestioned, could be challenged by Indians. The government was baffled. The
prosecutor requested the judge to postpone the trial. Apparently, the authorities wished
to consult their superiors.
(ii) The officials felt powerless because
(a) Of Gandhi’s refusal to cooperate with them.
(b) Of Gandhi’s polite and friendly behaviour.
(c) The crowd was listening only to Gandhi.
(d) The crowd was getting violent.
 (vii) The demonstration proved that the
(a) Policies of the British had failed.
(b) Dread instilled in the hearts of Indians had begun to lessen.
(c) Dealings with the Indian citizens had been unsuccessful.
(d) Might of the British had not been understood by Indians.
(viii) Which style, from those given below, is being used by the author, when
he says,“Apparently, the authorities wished to consult their superiors”?
(a) Humorous
(b) Dramatic
(c) Sarcastic
(d) Persuasive
(ix) Gandhi’s behaviour towards the British prior to the proposal of postponement of
the trial was that of
(a) Indifference
(b) Calm acceptance
(c) Ignorance of consequences
(d) Polite helpfulness
(x) Give one reason, as per the extract, why the government was baffled?
(xi) What does the demonstration of the peasants indicate, as per the extract?
(use a phrase)
B. A girl from the countryside, she hadn’t gone through all the stages of worldly experience
that generally precede a position of importance and sophistication that she had found
herself catapulted into. She never quite recovered from the terror she felt that day. That
was the end of a brief and brilliant acting career- the legal advisor, who was also a
member of the Story Department, had unwittingly brought about that sad end. While
every other member of the Department wore a kind of uniform – khadi dhoti with a
slightly oversized and clumsily tailored white khadi shirt- the legal adviser wore pants
and a tie and sometimes a coat that looked like a coat of mail. Often, he looked alone
and helpless... (Poets and Pancakes)
(v) Select the option that completes the given sentence appropriately.
‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to
(a) Good education to gain knowledge
(b) Situations that require one to be street smart.
(c) Smaller, not so important roles in acting
(d) Training in soft skills.
(vi) Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy:
Sealed: closed::propelled:
(vii) Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
The harm done to the actress was a/an
(a) Well-planned act
(b) Unintentional act
(c) Act of jealousy
(d) Act of male dominance
(viii) Based on the above extract, choose the statement that is TRUE for the
legal adviser.
 (d) He disliked the actress from the countryside.
(e) He acted after thinking through things carefully.
(f) He didn’t get well with others in the Department.
(vii) Identify the textual clue that follows the reader to infer that the writer is
sympathetic towards the professional fate of the actor. (clue: a phrase)
(viii) Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The writer uses the word ‘uniform’ to refer to the outfits of the Department
members because just like a uniform _
10. Answer any FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2X5
(vii) ‘People value the importance of a thing only after they lose it’. Comment on this
statement on the light of the story, The Last Lesson.
(viii) State the fear of the poet losing her mother due to her growing age and how
couldshe suppress it. (My Mother at Sixty-six)
(ix) What changes do you notice in Saheb after he was employed at the tea stall?
(Lost Spring)
(x) Give two reasons why is ‘keeping quiet’ essential to attaining a better, more
peaceful world? (Keeping Quiet)
(xi) Describe how Edla Willmansson was instrumental in transforming the rattrap
peddler. (The Rattrap)
(xii) When do we turn to a thing of beauty and seek the much-needed solace and
peace? (A thing Of Beauty)
11. Answer any TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2X2
(iv) Comment on Charley’s experience at the ticket counter. (The Third Level)
(v) How did the king of Pratibandapuram receive the title ‘Tiger King’?
(vi) What was the only consideration for Dr Sadao to carry the American soldier to
his house?
12.A. Answer ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
Mukesh in ‘The Lost Spring’ and Sophie in ‘Going Places’ are daydreamers.
Daydreaming can affect our lives positively as well as negatively.
Imagine yourself as a motivational speaker who has to address high school students.
Write this address elaborating on occurrences from the two texts highlighting realistic
and unrealistic types of daydreaming.
B. The Lesson ‘Indigo’ records how Gandhi showed patriotism as not merely proclaiming
love for the nation in slogans and songs; it entails respect for the values and the laws of
a nation and above all love for its people in deeds. Express your views regarding the
need for inculcating patriotism in youth today and how it has changed in its essence.
13.A Answer ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5X1
On returning home, Bama narrated the funny stories to her elder brother. Her brother
explained her that it is not funny in anything, instead this was an incident of class
discrimination. As she understood the events, she felt disgusted and sad.
Imagine yourself as Bama and discuss what the constitution of India has done for this.
B. Both Derry and Mr Lamb suffer from handicaps, yet their outlook towards life is totally
different. Instead of letting it pull them down, they both found a way to overcome it in
their own way. You wish to include a cameo of both in your upcoming blog post.
(A) cameo is a short description that neatly encapsulates someone or something)
As a part of the research, compare and contrast the experiences faced by the two and their
responses to these experiences, in about 120-150 words. (Clue: include similaritiesand
differences in the discrimination they faced- their feelings- determination to overcome-
success.)

****
 LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK
SAMPLE PAPER-1
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
(3) All the sections are compulsory.
(4) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark
each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of
three marks each, Section D contains two case study-based questions of 4 marks each and section E
contains three long questions of five marks each.
(5) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in section
B, one question in section C, one question in each CBQ in section D and all three questions in
section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(6) Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION – A
1. Critical angle of glass is θ2 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for water and glass surface would
be (μg = 3/2, μw = 4/3).
(a) less than θ2
(b) between θ1 and θ2
(c) greater than θ2
(d) less than θ1
2. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and other
to V2. Likely charged plates are then connected. Then the decrease in energy of the combined system
is
C (V12 − V22 )
1
(a) 4
C (V12 + V22 )
1
(b) 4
1
C (V1 − V2 )
2

(c) 4
1
C (V1 + V2 )
2

(d) 4
3. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled
and the number of turns/cm is halved, the new value of magnetic field is
(a) 2 B
(b) 4 B
(c) B/2
(d) B
4. A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length of 0.4m. The distance at which you hold the
mirror from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification of 5 is
(a)0.32m
(b)0.24m
(c)1.60m
(d)0.16m
5. Magnetic moment is of an electron in the first orbit is
Page 1 of 49
 (a) 2eh/4πme
(b) eh/4πme
(c) 2eh/2πme
(d)none of these

6. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to

(a) electrons only
(b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes
(d) neither electrons nor holes

7. In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is 92U238 and that the final nucleus is 82Pb206.
When uranium nucleus decays to lead, the number of α particles and β particles
emitted are
(a) 8α, 6β
(b) 6α, 7β
(c) 6α, 8β
(d) 4α, 3β
8. What is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero?
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Same as that of conductors at room temperature
(d) Same as that of insulators at room temperature
9. Wave front is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same
(a) phase
(b) amplitude
(c) frequency
(d) period
10. Spherical wave fronts, emanating from a point source, strike a plane reflecting surface. What will
happen to these wave fronts, immediately after reflection?
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature, both in magnitude and sign.
(b) They will become plane wave fronts.
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature, but sign of curvature reversed.
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different curvature, both in magnitude and sign.
11. The flux linked with a circuit is given by B = t 2 + 2 .The graph between time (X-axis) and induced
emf (Y axis) will be a
(a) Straight line through origin
(b) Straight line with positive intercept
(c) Straight line with negative intercept
(d) Parabola not through origin
12. The self inductance of a coil having 500 turns is 50 mH. The magnetic flux through the cross-
sectional area of the coil while the current through it is 8 mA, is found to be
(a) 4×10-4 Wb
(b) 0.04 Wb
(c) 4µ Wb
(d) 40 m Wb
For question number 13 to 16 two statements are given, one labelled Assertion(A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.
Page 2 of 49
 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Ais false and R is also false
13. Assertion(A): At resonance, LCR series circuit has a minimum current.
Reason (R): At resonance, in LCR series circuit, the current and emf are not in phase with each other.
14. Assertion(A): An electrical bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.
Reason (R): Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
15. Assertion(A):A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason (R): Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
16. Assertion(A): Nuclei having mass number about 60 are most stable.
Reason (R): When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then binding energy
per nucleon will increase.

SECTION - B

17. Name the important process that occurs during the formation of a p-n junction. Draw the suitable
diagram for the formation of PN junction. Define the term ‘barrier potential’.
18. A test charge ‘q’ is moved without acceleration from A to C
along the path from A to B and then from B to C in electric
field E as shown in the figure. (i) Calculate the potential
difference between A and C. (ii) At which point (of the two)
is the electric potential more and why?
OR
An electric dipole of length 10cm having charges 6 × 10-3C, placed at 300 with respect to a uniform
electric field, experience a torque of magnitude 6 3 Nm. Calculate
(i) magnitude of electric field and
(ii) potential energy of electric dipole.
19. Derive the expression for the magnetic moment when an electron revolves at a speed v around an orbit
of radius ‘r’ in hydrogen atom.
20. A jar of height h filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index µ. At the centre of the jar on the
bottom surface is a dot. Find the minimum diameter of a disc, such that when placed on the top surface
symmetrically about the centre, the dot is invisible.
21. The following graph shows the variation of stopping
potential Vs with the frequency (v) of the incident radiation
for two photosensitive metals X and Y.
(i) Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength?
Give reasons.
(ii) Explain giving reason which metal gives out electrons
having larger kinetic energy, for the same wavelength
of the incident radiation.
SECTION -C
22. Can the instantaneous power output of an AC source ever be negative? Can the average power output
be negative?
23. Find the position of the image formed of an object ‘O' by the lens combination given in the given
figure.

Page 3 of 49
 OR
A ray PQ incident on the face AB of a prism ABC, as shown in
the figure, emerges from the face AC such that AQ = AR.
Draw the ray diagram showing the passage of the ray through
the prism. If the angle of the prism is 600 and refractive index of
the material of the prism is 3 .Determine the values of angle of
incidence and angle of deviation.
24. Draw a circuit diagram showing balancing of Wheatstone bridge. Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain the
balance condition in terms of resistances of four arms of Wheatstone Bridge.
25. Draw a circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier. Explain the working principle. Draw the input and
output waveforms indicating clearly the functions of the two diodes used.
26. (a) An em wave is travelling in medium with a velocity v = viˆ . Draw a sketch showing the
propagation of the em wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(b)What is the phase difference between oscillating electric and magnetic field?
Which constituent radiation of the electromagnetic spectrum is used
(i) In RADAR
(ii) to photograph internal parts of a human body
27. State Gauss’s law in electrostatic. A cube with each side ‘a’ is kept in an electric field given by
E = 3  103 x iˆ N / C , (as shown in the figure) .
Take a=10 cm. Find out
(i) the electric flux through the cube, and
(ii) the net charge inside the cube.

28. The trajectories, traced by different  - particles, in Geiger -Marsden experiment were
observed as shown in the figure.
(a) What names are given to the symbols ‘b’ and ‘’
shown here?
(b) What can we say about the value of b for
(i)  = 00 (ii)  =  radians?

SECTION - D
29. EFFECT OF CAPACITOR IN AC AND DC CIRCUITS: -
Energy can be stored in the form of potential energy by compressing a spring, compressing a gas or
raised mass. Energy can also be stored as potential energy in an electric field. A capacitor is a device
for storing energy in the electric field. The capacitor is then said to be charged. Generally, a capacitor
is charged by connecting it to a battery. During the charging process, it accumulates charge slowly,
thus building up an electric field in which the energy is stored. Essentially, all capacitors consist of
two metal plates separated by a dielectric which is usually oil, paper, polystyrene or even air.
Capacitors are widely used in alternating current circuits, in radio and television circuits as tuners.
Microscopic capacitors form the memory banks of computers.

Page 4 of 49
 (i) When a capacitor is connected to a battery
(a) No current flows in the circuit at all
(b) A current flow in the circuit for some time and then decreases to zero
(c) The current keeps on increasing, reaching a maximum value when the capacitor is charged to
the voltage of the battery
(d) An alternating current flows in the circuit
(ii) When an alternating voltage is applied to a capacitor
(a) A direct current flows in the circuit for a short time and then becomes zero
(b) An alternating current flow in the circuit for a short time and then becomes zero
(c) No current flows in the circuit
(d) An alternating current flow in the circuit
(iii)The resistance offered by a capacitor to the flow of an alternating current (ac)
(a) depends on its capacitance only
(b) depends on frequency of the ac only
(c) depends on frequency and capacitance
(d) is infinity
(iv) When a parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting its plates to a battery, the energy stored
in it depends upon
(a) the voltage of the battery
(b) the area and separation of the plates
(c) the nature of dielectric between the plates
(d) all of the above
OR
The reactance of a capacitance C is X. If both the frequency and capacitance be doubled, then new
reactance will be
(a) X (b) 2X (c) 4 X (d) X/4
30. Matter waves:
We know that light has dual nature. The experimental observations of interference, diffraction and
polarization suggest that light is a wave. On the other hand, experimental observations of
photoelectric effect and Compton scattering experiments can be explained in terms of photon
(quantum) theory, suggesting that light has particle nature. If the particles photon exhibits wave
nature, do other particles such as electrons, neutrons etc., exhibit wave nature? The answer is ‘yes’.
In 1924, the French physicist Louis de Broglie proposed that moving particles (charged or
uncharged) exhibit wave like properties. He suggested that the wavelength λ associated with a
particle moving with linear momentum p is given by

h
=
p
Where h is the Planck’s constant. This equation is known as the de Broglie relation and λ is called
the de Broglie wave length.
(i) The momentum of a photon of frequency ν is
(a) hν/ c (b) hν c (c)h /νc (d) ν/ ch
(iii) A proton and an alpha particle have equal kinetic energies. The mass of an alpha particle is four
times the mass of a proton and its charge is twice that of a proton. If λαand λp are the de Broglie
wavelengths of alpha particle and proton then the ratio λα / λpis
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 1/2 (d) ¼
(iii) What is the ratio λα/ λp if alpha particle and proton have equal linear momenta?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 1/ 2 (d) ½
(iv) What is the ratio λα/ λp if alpha particle and proton have equal velocities?
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 4 (d) ¼
OR

Page 5 of 49
 What is the ratio λα/ λp if alpha particle and proton are accelerated through the same potential
difference?
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 2 (c) 1/ 2 (d) 2 2

SECTION - E
31. (a) When a parallel plate capacitor is connected across a dc battery, explain briefly how the capacitor
gets charged.
(b) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to V volt by a battery. After some time, the
battery is disconnected and the distance between the plates is doubled. Now a slab of dielectric
constant 1<K<2 is introduced to fill the space between the plates. How will the following be
affected?
i) The electric field between the plates of capacitor.
ii) The energy stored in the capacitor.
Justify your answer in each case.
(c) The electric potential as a function of distance ‘x’ is
shown in figure. Draw a graph of the electric field
E as a function of x.
OR

(a)Briefly explain the principle a capacitor. Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate
capacitor, whose plates are separated by a dielectric medium.
(b) Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor when a dielectric slab of
d
dielectric constant K and thickness t = and same area as that of the plates is inserted between the
2
capacitor plates.
(d = separation between the plates)
32. An ac source of voltage V = Vm sin t is connected, one by one, to three circuit elements, 1, 2 and 3.
It is observed that the current flowing in them
(a) is phase with applied voltage for element 1.

(b) lags the applied voltage, in phase by angle for element 2.
2

(c) leads the applied voltage, in phase, by angle for element 3.
2
Identify the three circuit elements.
Write down the expression for the net opposition to the current, when the same ac source of angular
frequency  is connected across a series combination of the elements 1, 2 and 3. Write the name of
physical quantity for this net opposition.
Hence write it’s unit.
If the frequency of the applied voltage is varied, set up the condition of the frequency when the current
amplitude in the circuit is maximum. Write expression for this current amplitude.
OR
. Draw a schematic diagram of a step - up transformer. Explain it’s working principle.
Deduce the expression for the secondary to primary voltage in terms of the number of turns in the
two coils. In an ideal transformer, how is this related to the currents in the two coils?
How is the transformer used in large scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy over long
distances?

Page 6 of 49
33. (a) Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by compound microscope. Hence, derive
an expression for its total magnification (or magnifying power), when the final image is formed at the
near point.
Why both objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope must have short focal lengths.
A compound microscope used an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eyepiece lens of focal length
10cm. An object is placed at 6cm from the objective lens.
Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope, when the final image is formed at near
point.
OR
A spherical surface of radius of curvature R and of refractive index μ2 is placed in a medium of
refractive index μ1, where μ1< μ2 .The surface produces a real image of an object kept in front of it.
Using appropriate assumptions and sign conventions, derive a relationship between the object distance,
image distance, R, μ1, μ2. Under what conditions a ray incident on the surface (i) diverges (ii) suffers
no deviation.
*************

Page 7 of 49
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE PAPER-1

QST VALUE POINTS MARKS PAGE NO. OF

N NO ALLOTTED NCERT/TEXT
BOOK

1 c 1 NCERT 230
2 c 1 NCERT 81
3 d 1 NCERT 151
4 a 1 NCERT 224
5 b 1 NCERT 162
6 c 1 NCERT-334
7 a 1 NCERT-
8 b 1 NCERT-336
9 a 1 NCERT-257
10 c 1 NCERT-261
11 a 1 NCERT 208
12 a 1 NCERT 219
13 d 1 NCERT-248
14 c 1 NCERT-97
15 a 1 NCERT-396
16 b 1 NCERT-444
17 Two processes NCERT-478
i. Diffusion ½
ii. Drift ½
Diagram ½
Barrier potential:- The potential
difference developed across the
junction which opposes the further ½
diffusion of electrons and holes is
called as Barrier potential.

18 (i) VA-Vc=Ed = 4E 1 NCERT-61

(ii) C has more potential ½
As electric potential decreases ½
along the direction of electric
field.
OR
(i) P= 2aq= 10x 10-2x 6x10-3=6x10- ½
4
C-m ½
= PE sin NCERT-66
Or,E=/P sin=6 3 /6x10- ½
4
xsin300
=2 3 x104V/m
(ii) U=-PE cos ½
-4 4 0
=-6x10 x2 3 x10 x cos30
Page 8 of 49
 = -18 J
19 I=q/t=e/T ½
But, T= 2r/v ½
So, I= e/T=ev/2r ½ NCERT-162
Magnetic moment,m= IA=evr/2 ½

20 r ½ N.EXE-59
Sin ic =
r +h
2 2

½
1 r
Or , =
 r 2 + h2

r 2 + h2
Or ,  = 2

r2 ½
h
Or , r =
 2 −1
2h ½
Or , d = 2r =
 2 −1
21 (i) X ½ NCERT-392
X has less threshold frequency than Y ½

(ii) X ½
X has less work function than Y 1/2

22 E = E0 sin t ½
And , I = I 0 sin(t +  )
Ins tan tan eous power P = EI = E0 sin t I 0 sin(t +  ) ½ N.EXE-43
= E0 I 0 sin t sin(t +  ) ½
E0 I 0
= [cos  − cos (2t +  )]
2
When cos   cos (2t +  ) ½
then P negative.
½
But average power Pavg = Erms I rms cos 
R
But ,cos  = is always positive ½
Z
So, Pavg can not be negative.
23 For 1st lens
½
NCERT-330
½

Page 9 of 49
 1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
Or , + = ½
v 30 10
1 1
Or , =
v 15 ½
Or , v = 15cm
For 2nd lens,
½
u = 15 − 5 = 10cm
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
Or , − =
v 10 −10 NCERT-331
1 1
Or , = 0
v
Or , v = 
½
For 3rd lens
u = − ½
1 1
−0 =
v 30
Or , v = 30 cm
½
OR
Ray diagram ½
A=r+r=2r
Or, r=A/2=300
µ=sin i/sin r
Or, 3 =sin i/sin300
Or, i= 600
And,i+e=A+
Or,i+i= A+m
Or,m=2i-A=600

24 Circuit diagram ½
Derivation for balanced condition of wheat 2 ½ NCERT-119
stone bridge.

25 Circuit diagram ½ NCERT-484

Principle ½
Input and output wave forms ½+1/2
working 1

Page 10 of 49
26 1½ NCERT-
275,281

(a)

(b) zero
(i) microwave ½
(ii)X-ray
½
½

27 (i) ∅1 = −𝐸𝑆 = −3 × 103 𝑎3 ½ NCERT-35

= −3 ×103 𝑎3
= −3 × 103 (10−1)3 = −3 𝑁 𝑚2𝐶−1

∅2 = 𝐸𝑆 = −2 × 3 × 103 𝑎3 = 6 × 103
½
𝑎3
= 6 × 103 (10−1)3 = 6 𝑁 𝑚2𝐶−1 ½

∅3 = ∅4 = ∅5 = ∅6 = 0 ½
⃗→ 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑡𝑜 𝑆→
as 𝐸
Net flux, ∅ = ∅1 + ∅2 = 3 𝑁 𝑚2𝐶−1

(iii) 𝑞 = 𝜀0 ∅ = 8.85 × 10−12 × 3

= 2.7 × 10−11𝐶 1
28 (a) b = impact parameter ½ NCERT-418
=Scattering angle ½
(b) (i) b is very large when =0 1
(ii) b is very zero when = 1

29 1. b 1 NCERT-241
2. d 1
3. c 1
4. d
OR 1
d

30 1. a 1 NCERT-398
2. c 1
3. a 1
4. c
Page 11 of 49
 OR 1
b

31 (a) When capacitor is connected across a

battery, the electrons will flow from one
plate to the other. The plate connected to NCERT-76
positive terminal of the battery will
acquire positive charge and the plate
connected to negative terminal of the 1
battery will acquire negative charge.
(b)
Q' = Q ½
C ' = KC / 2 ½
Q' Q 2V
V '= = =
C ' KC / 2 K ½
V' E
(i ) E ' = = ½
2d K
So,electric field decreases
2
1 1  2V 
(ii ) U ' =C 'V '2 = ( KC / 2 )   ½
2 2  K 
2U
= ½
K
So energy increases as 1 K  2

(c)

OR
When an earthed conductor is placed near a
charged conductor, the electric potential of ½
the system decreases and hence the
capacitances of the system increases. NCERT-75
Derivation of capacitance of parallel plate 2 ½
capacitor

Page 12 of 49
 0A ½
C' =
t
d −t +
K ½
0 A
=
d d
d− +
2 2K
0A
=
d d
+
2 2K
2K  0 A
=
K +1 d
32 (a) 1-Resistor ½
(b) 2-inductor ½
(c) 3-Capacitor ½ NCERT-245
Net opposition,
2
 1 
Z = R 2 +  L −  ½
 C 
½
Physical quantity,Z=impedance
Unit-Ω ½
Current amplitude,
V0 V0
I0 = =
Z 1 2
R 2 + (L −
)
C
I 0 is max imum When Z = min imum ½
1 2
R 2 + (L − ) = min imum
C
1
Or , L − =0
C
1 ½
Or , L =
C
1
Or ,  =
LC
1 ½
Or , f =
2 LC

V0 ½
I 0max =
R
OR
Diagram of Step-up transformer ½
Principle:-It is based on the principle of NCERT-261
mutual induction.The emf is induced in ½
a coil when changing current passes
through the neighbouring coil.
Working:- Induced emf in the primary
coil,

Page 13 of 49
 d ½
 p = −N p
dt
Induced emf in the secondary coil,
d
 s = −N s
dt
As the resistance of coils is zero,
V p=  p ½
And , V s=  s
Where Vp=voltage applied across
primary
½
And, Vs=voltage taken across
secondary
d
Vp = −N p ½
dt
d
And, Vs = − N s
dt

d
− Ns ½
V dt
 s =
Vp d
− Np
dt
N
= s
Np
For an ideal transformer,Pout=Pin
Or, VsIs=VpIp 1
Or, Vs/Vp=Ip/Is
The voltage output is stepped up at the
generating station by using step up
transformer,so that power loss I2R
decreases as output current decreases.It
is then transmitted to long distance to
area sub-station which uses step-down
transformer near to consumers.There
the voltage is stepped down.It is further
stepped down to 220 V at the
distributing sub-station before
supplying to consumers.

33 (a) Ray diagram 1

Derivation 2
Both objective and eyepiece NCERT-340
must have short focal lengths to have ½
greater magnification.
(b)For objective
Page 14 of 49
 1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
Or , + =
v 6 4
1 1
Or , =
v 12
Or , v = 12cm
magnif ying power ½
v D
m = − 0 (1 + )
u0 fe
12 25
= − (1 + )
6 10 ½
= −7 . 5

OR ½
Ray diagram
Derivation
Condition: 1   2 (For diverge)
1
1 =  2 (For no deviation) 3
½ NCERT-323

Page 15 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-2
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
SECTION A
1. A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2 directly above the centre of a square of side a. The electric
flux through the square is: [1]
(a) q/ԑ0 (b) q/4ԑ0 (c) q/6ԑ0 (d) q/πԑ0
2. An electron enters in an electric field with its velocity in the direction of the electric lines of force.
Then: [1]
(a) the path of the electron will be a circle (b) the path of the electron will be a parabola
(c) the velocity of the electron will decrease (d) the velocity of the electron will increase
3. A coil develops heat of 800 calories when a potential difference of 20 V is applied across its ends.
The resistance of coil is : [1]
(a)1.2 Ω (b)0.12 Ω (c)1.4 Ω (d) 0.14 Ω
4. The distance at which the magnetic field on axis as compared to the magnetic field at the centre of the coil
carrying current I and radius R is 1/8, would be [1]
(a) R (b) √2R (c) 2 R (d)√3 R
5. A bar magnet when placed at an angle of 300 to the direction of magnetic field induction of 5x10-2 T,
experiences a moment of couple 25x10-6 Nm. If the length of the magnet is 5 cm, its pole strength is [1]
(a) 2 x 10-2 Am (b) 5 x 10 -2Am (c) 2 Am (d)5 Am
6. A wheel with ten metallic spokes each 0.50 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane
normal to the earth’s magnetic field at the plane. If the magnitude of the field is 0.4 G, the induced emf
between the axle and the rim of the wheel is equal to: [1]
-3 -4 -4 -5
(a) 1.256 x 10 V (b) 6.28 x 10 V (c) 1.256 x 10 V (d) 6.28 x 10 V
7. An AC source is 120 V -60 Hz. The value of voltage after 1/720 seconds from start will be [1]
(a) 20.2 C (b) 42.4 V (c) 84.8 V (d)106.8 V
8. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used for LASIK eye surgery? [1]
(a) Radio waves (b)Micro waves (c)UV- rays (d)Infrared waves
9. A piece of plane glass is placed on a word with letters of different colours. The letters which appear
minimum raised are: [1]
(a) red (b) green (c) yellow (d) violet

10. In a Young’s double slit experiment the source is a white light. One of the holes is covered by red filter
and another by a blue filter. In this case [1]
(a) there will be alternate interference patterns of red and blue
(b) there will be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue
(c) there will be no interference fringes
(d) there will be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue
11. For a uniform electric field E along the x- axis, the equipotential surfaces are planes [1]
(a) normal to the y-axis (b) normal to the z-axis (c) normal to the x-axis (d) parallel to the xz-plane
12. Two positive point charges are 3 m apart and their combined charge is 20𝜇𝐶.If the force between them
is 0.075 N, then the charges are: [1]
(a) 10 𝜇𝐶, 10 𝜇𝐶 (b)15 𝜇𝐶, 5 𝜇𝐶 (c)12 𝜇𝐶, 8 𝜇𝐶 (d)14 𝜇𝐶, 6 𝜇𝐶
Two statements are given – one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A & R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Page 16 of 49
 (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
13. ASSERTION (A): A charge moving in a circular orbit can produce electromagnetic wave. [1]
REASON (R): The source of electromagnetic wave should be a charge in accelerated motion.
14. ASSERTION (A): A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it.
REASON (R): Rate of flow of electrons in one direction is equal to the rate of flow of protons in [1]
opposite direction.
15. ASSERTION (A): If the objective and eyepiece of a microscope are interchanged, then it can work [1]
as telescope.
REASON (R): The objective lens of a telescope has short focal length and large aperture.
16. Assertion(A): At resonance, LCR series circuit has a minimum current. [1]
Reason (R): At resonance, in LCR series circuit, the current and emf are not in phase with each other.

SECTION B
17. Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges [2]
placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm as
shown in figure, where q = 1.6 x 10-10 C
OR
A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and separation d is filled [2]
with dielectrics of dielectric constants k1 and k2 as shown in the
figure. Find the net capacitance of the capacitor.
18. Two wires X and Y have the same resistivity but their cross-
sectional areas are in the ratio 2:3 and lengths in the ratio 1:2. They are
connected in parallel to a d.c. source. Find out the ratio of the drift speeds of the electrons in the two wires for
this case. [2]
19. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 x 1010 HZ
and amplitude 48 V/m. [2]
(i) Calculate is the wavelength of the wave? (ii)Find the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field?
20. Figure shows two identical rectangular loops (1) and (2), placed on a table along with a straight long
current carrying conductor between them [2]
i) Mention the direction of induced currents in the loops when they
are pulled away from the conductor with the same velocity?
ii) Will the emf induced in the two loops be equal? Justify your
answer.
21. A lamp is connected in series with an inductor and an a.c. source. [ 2]
What happens to the brightness of the lamp when the key is plugged in
and an iron rod is inserted inside the inductor? Explain.

SECTION - C
22. Show that if we connect the inner sphere and the outer shell by a wire,
the charge q on the former will always flow to the latter, independent of how
large Q is. [3]

Page 17 of 49
23. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 and internal resistances r1 and r2 are
connected in parallel as shown in the figure.
Deduce an expression for the
i) equivalent emf of the combination
ii) equivalent internal resistance of the combination
iii) potential difference between the points
[3]
24. The figure shows three infinitely long straight parallel current
carrying conductors. Find the
(i) Magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at point A
lying on conductor 1
(ii) Magnetic force on conductor 2. [3]
OR
A square loop of side 20 cm carrying current of 1A is kept near an infinite long straight wire carrying a current
of 2A in the same plane as shown in the figure. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the net force exerted
on the loop due to the current carrying conductor. [3]

25. A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source having voltage V = V0sinωt. Using phasor diagram,
derive expressions for impedance, instantaneous current and its phase relationship to the applied voltage. Also
draw graphs of V and I versus ωt for the circuit. [3]

26. In a series LCR circuit connected to an a.c. source of variable frequency and voltage.
Draw a plot showing the variation of amplitude of circuit current with angular frequency of applied
voltage for two different values of resistance R1 and R2, R1>R2.
Answer the following using this graph:
i) In which case the resonance is sharper and why?
ii) In which case the power dissipation is more and why? [3]
27. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 800 nm and 600 nm, is used to obtain the interference
fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen is placed 1.4 m away. If two slits are separated by
0.28 mm. Calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two
wavelengths coincide. [3]
28. Can the instantaneous power output of an AC source ever be negative? Can the average power output be
negative?
SECTION - E
29. CASE STUDY:
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
An inductor is simply a coil or a solenoid that has a fixed
inductance. It is referred to as choke. The circuit symbol for an
inductor is shown in the figure.

Page 18 of 49
Let the current I flows through the inductor from A to B. Whenever electric current changes through it, a back
emf is generated. If the resistance of the inductor is assumed to be zero, then induced emf is given by
E = VB – VA = L(dI/dt)
Thus, as we move in the direction of current, the potential drops across an inductor. Potential also drops across
a pure resistor if we move in the direction of current.
The main difference between a resistor and an inductor is that while resistor opposes the current through it an
inductor opposes the change in current through it.
Answer the following questions.
i) If current through the solenoid decreases, what will be the direction of induced current? [1]
(a) from A to B
(b) from B to A
(c) same as before
(d) con not be determined
ii) If the length of a solenoid is increased then how does its self-inductance change? [1]
(a)increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d)first increase then decreases
iii) An electric bulb is connected in series with a solenoid and they are connected with an AC supply.
When a soft iron rod is inserted in solenoid then the intensity of electric bulb will be [1]
(a) unchanged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) fluctuate
iv) If a soft iron core is inserted in the solenoid which is connected to an ac source, then what will happen
to the magnetic energy stored in it? [1]
(a)increases
(b)decreases
(c)remains constant
(d)cannot be determined
OR
An average emf of 10V is induced in 100 turn solenoid as the result of change in flux which occurs
in 0.5sec. The total flux change is
(a)0.05 Wb
(b)0.5 Wb
(c) 5 Wb
(d) 50 Wb
30.CASE STUDY:

Page 19 of 49
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds
to create a sparking brilliance. Value of critical angle of diamond is
very small (24.40) due to its high refractive index (2.42). By polishing
the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted in such a manner that
most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident with an
angle of incidence more than critical angle. Hence, they suffer
multiple reflections and ultimately come out of diamond from the top.
This gives the diamond a sparking brilliance.
i) How is the critical angle of a medium related to its refractive
index?
(a) μ = 1/sin C [1]
(b) μ = 1/cos C
(c) μ = 1/tan C
(d) μ = 1/cot C

ii) What is the basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond? [1]
(a) reflection
(b) very small value of critical angle w.r.t air
(c) refraction
(d) dispersion
iii) The following diagram shows same diamond cut in two different shapes [1]
In which of the two cases (first or second one) the sparkling of
diamond will be more ?
(a) first
(b)second
(c)both the cases
(d) none of the cases
iv) A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water. Then how does the value
of the critical angle change? [1]
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) cannot be determined
OR
The refractive index for a glass slab is 1.62. the sine of the critical anglr for total internal reflection at
a glass- air interface is
(a)0.04
(b)0.62
(c)0.74
(d)1

Page 20 of 49
 SECTION - E
31. i) Using Gauss’s law, obtain the expression for electric field intensity at
a point due to an infinitely large, plane sheet of charge density σ C/m2.
ii) Given the components of an electric field as EX=xi, EY= 0 and EZ= 0,
where C is dimensional constant. Calculate the flux through the cube of side
‘a’ as shown in the figure and the effective charge inside the cube.
[5]
OR
i) A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius ‘a’. Obtain an expression for the electric field intensity
E at a point on the axis of the ring. Hence show that for point at large distances from the ring, it behaves like
a point charge.
ii) A point charge is placed in the vicinity of a conducting surface. Trace the field lines between the charge
and the conducting surface. [5]
32. Consider a long straight cylindrical wire of circular cross section of
radius ‘a’ as shown in the figure. The current I is uniformly distributed
across this cross section. Using Ampere’s circuital law calculate the
magnetic field B in the region r< a and r >a.
Plot a graph of B versus r from the centre of the wire. [5]
OR
Derive an expression for the torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop kept in a uniform magnetic
field B.
(i) Indicate the direction of torque acting on the loop.
(ii) If the loop is free to rotate, what would be its orientation in stable equilibrium? [5]
33. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation by a compound microscope when image is
formed at the least distance of distinct vision.
i) Define its magnifying power in this adjustment and derive the expression for its magnifying power in
this adjustment.
ii) You are given two converging lenses of focal lengths 1.25 cm and 5 cm to design a compound
microscope. If it is desired to have a magnification of 30, find out the separation between the objective
and the eyepiece. [5]
OR
i) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation by an astronomical telescope in normal
adjustment.
ii) Define magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment (i.e., when the final image
is formed at infinity) and derive the expression for its magnifying power.
iii) You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope. Which lenses should
you use as an objective and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope? Justify your answer. [5]

Page 21 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-3
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

SECTION A

1. Three equal charges q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. A charge Q is
placed such that its distance from each charge is r. The force experienced by Q will be [1]
qQ qQ qQ
(i) (b) (c) (d) zero
4 o r 4 o (r + a ) 4 o (r − a )
2 2 2

2. The expression for the capacity of the capacitor formed by compound dielectric placed between the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in figure, will be (area of plate = A) : [1]
o A o A
(a) (b)
 d1 d d   d1 + d 2 + d 3 
 + 2 + 3   
 K1 K 2 K 3   K1 + K 2 + K 3 
 o A(K 1 K 2 K 3 ) AK 1 AK 2 AK 3
(c) (d) + +
d1 d 2 d 3 d1 d2 d3

3. The current in 8 resistance in this figure is : [1]

(a) 0.92 A (b) 1.3 A

9
(c) A (d) 1.6 A
13
4. A wire PQRS formed by joining two semicircular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current I as
shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O is : [1]
o I  11  o I  1 1 
(a)  −  (b)  − 
4  R1 R2  4  R1 R2 

o I  1 1  o I  11 
(c)  −  (d)  + 
2  R1 R2  4  R1 R2 

5. If the back emf induced in a coil, when current changes from 1 A to zero in one millisecond is 5
volts, the self-inductance of the coil of the coil is: [1]
-3 3
(a) 5 H (b) 1 H (c) 5×10 H (d) 5×10 H
6. When frequency of applied alternating voltage is very high then: [1]
(a) A capacitor will tend to become short (b)An inductor will tend to become short
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)No one will become short
7. The refractive index of water is 4/3 and that of glass is 5/3. What will be the critical angle of ray of
light entering water from glass?` [1]

4 5 1 2
sin −1 sin −1 sin −1 sin −1
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

8. A double-slit interference experiment is carried out in air and the entire apparatus is kept inside
water, the fringe width: [1]
(a) increases (b) decreases
Page 22 of 49
 (c) remains unchanged (d) fringe pattern disappears.
9. For a plano-convex lens for which µ = 1.5 has radius of curvature of 10cm. It is silvered on its plane
surface. Find the focal length after silvering. [1]
(a)10cm (b) 20cm (c) 30cm (d) 25cm
10. An α- particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180 by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance
0

of closest approach is of the order of : [1]

0
(a) 1 A (b) 10-10 cm (c) 10-12 cm (d) 10-15 cm
11. The radius of Ge nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of 49𝐵𝑒 . The number of nucleons in Ge
are: [1]
(a)72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (d) 75
12. Which of the following is reverse biased? [1]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Two statements are given, one labelled Assertion(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. [1]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false

13. Assertion (A): The ozone layer present at the top of stratosphere is very crucial for human survival
Reason (R): Ozone layer prevents IR radiation. [1]

14. Assertion (A): Fuse wire has high resistance and low melting point.
Reason (R): Fuse wire is for small current flow only. [1]
15. Assertion (A): A step up transformer converts input low AC voltage to output AC high voltage
Reason (R): It violates the law of conservation of energy. [1]
16. Assertion(A): An electrical bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on. [1]
Reason (R): Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.

SECTION - B
17. Two electric bulbs have the following specifications [2]
(i) 100 W at 220 V (ii) 1000 W at 220 V.
Which bulb has higher resistance? What is the ratio of their resistance?
OR
A conductor of length ‘l’ is connected to a dc source of potential ‘V’. If the length of the conductor is
tripled by gradually stretching it, keeping ‘V’ constant, how will [2]
(i) drift speed of electrons and
(ii) resistance of the conductor be affected? Justify your answer.

18. A 600pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
Page 23 of 49
 process? [2]
19. Answer the following questions: [2]
(a) Name the em-waves which are produced during radioactive decay of a nucleus. Write their
frequency range.
(b)Welder wear special glass goggles while working. Why? Explain.
20. (a) The susceptibility of a magnetic materials is – 4.2 × 10-6. Name the type of magnetic materials it
represents.
(b)Write Curie’s law for paramagnetic substances [2]
21. Explain how Einstein’s photoelectric equation enables us to understand: [2]
(i) existence of a threshold frequency for a given photo emitter, and
(ii) the linear dependence of the maximum energy of the emitted electrons on the frequency of incident
radiation.
SECTION - C
22. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons gets doubled when the wavelength of the light
incident on the surface changes from λ1 to λ2. Derive the expressions for
(a) work function for the metal surface
(b) the threshold wavelength λ0 [3]
23. Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time of
electrons. [3]
24. You are given three lenses, L1, L2 and L3 each of focal length 20cm. An object is kept at 40 cm in
front of L1 as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus ‘I’ of L3. Find the separations
between L1, L2 and L3. [3]

OR
(a) The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of light in glass? (speed of light in
vacuum is 3.0 × 108 ms-1).
(b) Is the speed of light in glass independent of the color of light? If not, which of the two
colors red and violet, travels slower in the glass prism? [3]
25. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of p-n diode as a full wave rectifier. Draw a
sketch of the input and output waveforms. [3]

26. Draw the circuit arrangement for studying the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode (i) in
forward bias and (ii) in reverse bias. Draw the typical V-I characteristics of a silicon diode.
Describe briefly the following terms:
(i) “minority carrier injection” in forward bias
(ii)“breakdown voltage” in reverse bias. [3]
27. (a) 3 3
2𝐻𝑒 + 2𝐻𝑒 → 4 1 1
2𝐻𝑒 + 1𝐻 + 1𝐻 + 12.86 MeV
In the above nuclear reaction though the number of nucleons is conserved on both sides of the
reaction, yet the energy is released. How? Explain.
(b) Draw a plot of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.
Mark the regions where nuclear force is (i) attractive and (ii) repulsive [3]

Page 24 of 49
 28. The energy levels of a hypothetical atom are shown below. Which of these transitions correspond to
emission of radiation of
(i) maximum and
(ii) minimum wavelength? [3]

SECTION- D
29. FORCE ON A MOVING CHARGE IN A MAGNETIC FIELD:
Static charges do not experience any force in magnetic field. The
charges when moving in a magnetic field experience a force. This force
depends upon the magnetic field, charge and the velocity component
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. Fleming’s left-hand
rule can be used to determine the direction of force on a charged
particle.
(i) What is the work done by a magnetic field on a charged particle? [1]
(a)positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) cannot be determined
(ii) An electron is moving along +ve x-axis in the presence of uniform magnetic field along +ve y-axis.
What is the direction of the force acting on it? [1]
(a)along + x-axis
(b) along -x axis
(c)along +z axis
(d) along -z axis
OR
Which of the following radiation has least wavelength?
(a)𝛽 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
(b)𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
(𝑐)𝛼 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠
(d) X -rays

(iii) A proton and a deuteron having equal momenta enter in a region of a uniform magnetic field at
right angle to the direction of the field. Find the ratio of their radii? [1]
(a)1:1
(b)1:2
(c)1:4
(d)2:1

(iv)A proton and an 𝛼 particle having equal kinetic energy enter in a region of a uniform magnetic field at
right angle to the direction of the field. Find the ratio of their radii. [1]
(a) 2:1
(b)1:2
(c)1:1
(d)1:4

Page 25 of 49
 30. When light from a monochromatic source is incident on a
single narrow slit, it gets diffracted and a pattern of
alternate bright and dark fringes is obtained on screen,
called "Diffraction Pattern" of single slit. In diffraction
pattern of single slit, it is found that (a) Central bright
fringe is of maximum intensity and the intensity of any
secondary bright fringe decreases with increase in its order.
(b) Central bright fringe is twice as wide as any other
secondary bright or dark fringe

(i)A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What will happen, if the red light
is replaced by the blue light? [1]
(a) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded together.
(b) Diffraction pattern becomes wider and separated
(c) Diffraction pattern is not visible
(d) Diffraction pattern becomes more distinct
(ii) How does the angular separation between fringes in single slit diffraction experiment change when
the separation between the slit and screen will be doubled? [1]
(a) becomes twice than before
(b) Doesn’t change
(c)Becomes half of the initial value
(d) Increases four times
(iii)Determine the angular separation between central maximum and first order maximum of the
diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0.25 mm when light of wavelength 5890 A0 is incident
on it normally. [1]
(a)3.2 × 10−3 𝑟𝑎𝑑
(b) 3.534 × 10−3 𝑟𝑎𝑑
(c) 3.628 × 10−3 𝑟𝑎𝑑
(d) 4.2 × 10−3 𝑟𝑎𝑑
(iv) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen 1.2 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 3 mm
from the center of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit. [1]
(a)1 mm
(b)2 mm
(c) 0.24 mm
(d)0.54 mm
OR
Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on the slit of width 2mm. What will be the angular
width of central maxima at a distance of 1m from slit?
(a)0.034°
(b) 0.34°
(c) 0.24°
(d) none of the above

SECTION - E
31. Find an expression for the electric field strength at a distant point situated (i) on the axis and (ii)
along the equatorial line of an electric dipole. [5]
OR
(i) Use Gauss’s theorem to find the electric field due to a uniformly charged infinitely large plane
thin sheet with surface charge density .
Page 26 of 49
 (ii) An infinitely large thin plane sheet has a uniform surface charge density +.Obtain the
expression for the amount of work done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point,
distance r in front of the charged plane sheet. [5]
32.Explain the term inductive reactance. Show graphically the variation of inductive reactive with
frequency of the applied alternating voltage.
An ac voltage V = Vo sin ωt is applied across a pure inductor of inductance L. Find an expression
for the current i, flowing in the circuit and show mathematically that the current flowing through its

lags being the applied voltage by a phase angle of . And draw (i) phasor diagram (ii) graphs of V
2
and i versus ωt for the circuit. [5]
OR
Define the term capacitive reactance. Show graphically the variation of capacitive reactance with
frequency of applied alternating voltage.
An ac voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied across a pure capacitor of capacitance C. Find an
expression for current flowing through it. Show mathematically the current flowing through it leads

the applied voltage by angle . And draw (i) phasor diagram (ii) graphs of V and i versus ωt for the
2
circuit. [5]
33.(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an astronomical telescope in
normal adjustment position. Define its magnifying power. Derive an expression for it.
(b) You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope.
(i) Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece? Justify your answer.
(ii)Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large? [5]

OR
(a) Define power of lens. Write its units.
(b) Deduce the relation
1 1 1
= +
𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓2
(c) A converging and a diverging lens of equal focal lengths are placed co-axially in contact. Find
the power and the focal length of the combination.
(d) State the conditions for total internal reflection to occur. [5]

Page 27 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-4
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS CORE (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
SECTION A
1. An infinite non-conducting sheet has a surface charge density  = 0.10 C/m2 on one
side. How far apart are equipotential surfaces whose potentials differ by 50 V?
(a)8.85 m (b)8.85 cm (c)8.85 mm (d)88.5 mm
2. An arc of radius r carries charge. The linear density of charge is  and the arc

subtends a angle at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre
3
   
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 0 8 0 12  0 16  0

3. A potential divider is used to give outputs of 4 V and 8 V from a 12 V source. Which

combination of resistances, (R1, R2, R3) gives the correct voltages? R1 : R2 : R3

(a) 2:1:2 +12V R3

(b) 1:1:1 +8V
R2
(c) 2:2:1 +4V
(d) 1:1:2 R1
0 Volt
4. Which of the following has low value in Ferrites?
(a) Conductivity
(b) Magnetic Susceptibility
(c) Permeability
(d) All the above
5. Two conductors are made of the same material and have the same length. Conductor A is
a solid wire of diameter 1.0 mm. Conductor B is a hollow tube of outside diameter 2.0 mm
and inside diameter 1.0 mm. The resistance ratio RA/RB will be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d) 4
6. The square loop ABCD, carrying a current i, is placed in uniform magnetic field B, as
shown. The loop can rotate about the axis XX'. The plane of the loop makes and angle
 ( < 90°) with the direction of B. Through what angle will the loop rotate by itself
before the torque on it becomes zero
X C
B
(a)   Z
(b) 90°–  B

(c) 90° +  i

(d) 180°–  D
A
X

7. If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de-Broglie wavelength

associated with it changes by 0.50%. The initial momentum of the electron will be
p p
(a) (b) (c) 199 p (d)400 p
200 199

Page 28 of 49
8. If light of wavelength 1 is allowed to fall on a metal, then kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted is E1 . If wavelength of light changes to 2 then kinetic energy
of electrons changes to E2 . Then work function of the metal is
(a) E1 E2 (1 − 2 )
(b) E11 − E22 (c) E1 1 − E 2  2 (d) 12 E1 E2
12 (1 − 2 ) ( 2 − 1 ) (2 − 1 )

9. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the phase difference between the light waves
reaching the third bright fringe from the central fringe will be (λ=6000 Å)

(a) Zero S1
(b) 2π
(c) 4π S2
(d) 6π P
Screen
Slit
10. U 238 decays into Th 234 by the emission of an  − particle. There follows a chain of
further radioactive decays, either by  − decay or by  - decay. Eventually a stable nuclide is reached
and after that, no further radioactive decay is possible. Which of the following stable nuclides is the and
product of the U 238 radioactive decay chain
(a) Pb 206 (b) Pb 207 (c) Pb 208 (d) Pb 209
11. Three lenses L1, L2, L3 are placed co-axially as shown in figure. Focal length's of
lenses are given 30 cm, 10 cm and 5 cm respectively. If a parallel beam of light falling
on lens L1, emerging L3 as a convergent beam such that it converges at the focus of L3.
Distance between L1 and L2 will be
(a) 40 cm L1 L2 L3

(b) 30 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
d

12. When a silicon PN junction is in forward biased condition with series resistance,
it has knee voltage of 0.6 V. Current flow in it is 5 mA, when PN junction is
connected with 2.6V battery, the value of series resistance is
(a)100  (b)200  (c) 400  (d)500 
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are false.
13. Assertion (A): The drift velocity of charge carriers in a conductor is directly proportional to the
electric field applied to the conductor.
Reason (R): Drift velocity is the average velocity of charge carriers and depends on the strength of
the electric field.
14. Assertion (A):The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R

Page 29 of 49
 made of material of refractive index μ = 1.5, is R.
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
15. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is 3/4
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from higher energy to
ground state of hydrogen atom.
16. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less than the number of
electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
SECTION B
17. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the second excited state to the ground state, how
would the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify your answer.
18. Write two possible causes of energy loss in a transformer? How are these minimised?
OR
Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in an ideal inductor of self-
inductance L when a current I pass through it.
19. Plot the graphs of the energy of a capacitor varying with its capacitance when (a) charge is
constant, and (b) potential difference is constant
20. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12H ,C = 480nF & R = 23Ω is connected to a 230V variable
frequency supply
(i) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum? Obtain
this maximum value.
(ii) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is
maximum? Obtain the value of maximum power.
21. (i) Draw a graph to show the variation of intensity distribution of fringes with phase angle due to
the diffraction due to the single slit.
(ii) What should be the width of each slit to obtain n maxima of double slit pattern
within the central maxima of single slit pattern?

SECTION C

22. Derive the expression for force per unit length between two long straight parallel current carrying
conductors. Hence define one ampere.
23. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform external electric field𝐸⃗⃗ . Show that the torque
on the dipole is given by 𝜁⃗ = 𝑃⃗⃗ × 𝐸⃗⃗ , where 𝑃⃗⃗ is the dipole moment of the dipole.
What is the net force experienced by the dipole?
24. X and Y are two parallel plate capacitors having same plate area and same separation between the
plates are connected in series with a potential difference of 12V. X has air between the plates and Y
contains a dielectric medium of 𝜀𝑟 = 4.
(i) Calculate the capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is
4𝜇F.
(ii) What is the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y?
25. The figure shows an inductor L & a resistor R connected in parallel to a battery through a switch.
The resistance of R is same as that of the coil that makes L. Two identical bulbs are put in each arm
of the circuit
(i) Which of the two bulbs will light up bright when the switch is closed?
(ii) Will the two bulbs be equally bright after some time?
Page 30 of 49
 Give reason for your answer

OR
The figure given below shows an arrangement by which current flows through the
bulb X connected with coil B, when a.c is passed through coil A.

Explain the following observations

a) Bulb lights up
b) Bulb gets dimmer if coil ‘B’ is moved upwards
c) If a copper sheet is inserted in the gap between the coils, how the brightness of
the bulb will change?
26. (a) Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that the
circumference of the electron in the n th orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it.
(b)The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the
maximum number of spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground
state?
27. A proton & an 𝛼 particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio of (i) their
accelerating potentials (ii) their speeds
28. Trace the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. If the
refractive of glass is√3, find out the value of the angle of emergence from the prism.

SECTION D
29. GAUSSIAN SURFACE
The Gaussian surface is an arbitrarily closed surface in three-dimensional space that is used to
determine the flux of vector fields. A magnetic field, gravitational field, or electric field could be
referred to as their vector field. In the examples below, an electric field is typically treated as a vector
field.

Page 31 of 49
 𝑞
(i) The electric flux through a cubical Gaussian surface enclosing a net charge q is ,
∈0
what is the electric flux through one face of the cube?
𝑞 4𝑞 𝑞 𝑞
𝑎) 6∈ b) 6∈ c) ∈ 𝑑) 2∈
0 0 0 0
(ii) Write the dimensional formula for electric flux.
𝑎) [M𝐿3 𝑇 −3 𝐴1 ] b) [M𝐿3 𝑇 3 𝐴−1 ]

c) [M𝐿3 𝑇 −3 𝐴−1 ] 𝑑) [M𝐿−3 𝑇 −3 𝐴−1 ]

OR
SI unit of electric flux is _______.
𝑉
𝑎) 𝑚 b)Vm c) 𝑁𝑚 𝑑) 𝑁𝐶/𝑚
(iii) What is the electric flux of a flat square having an area of 10m2 placed in a
uniform electric field of 8000N/C passing perpendicular to it?
𝑁𝑚2
a) 4 × 104 𝐶
2
4 𝑁𝑚
b) 6× 10 𝐶
𝑁𝑚2
c) 1 × 104 𝐶
4 2
d) 8 × 10 𝑁𝑚 /𝐶
(iv) If the electric flux entering & leaving an enclosed surface respectively is respectively is 𝜑1 &𝜑2 .
What will be the electric charge inside the surface?
𝜑
a. 𝜖0 (𝜑1 + 𝜑2 ) b. 𝜖0 (𝜑1 . 𝜑2 ) 𝑐. 𝜖0 (𝜑1) 𝑑. 𝜖0 (𝜑1 − 𝜑2 )
2

30. ASTRONOMICAL TELESCOPE

An astronomical telescope is an instrument that works on
the principle of optics used to view the enlarged image of
heavenly bodies like stars and galaxies. The end image formed
by an astronomical telescope is always virtual, inverted, and
magnified. It was used for both terrestrial applications &
astronomy. We are able to see the object ‘bigger using a
telescope because the image of the object formed by the
telescope subtends a larger visual angle at our eye.

(i) What is the length of the telescope in normal adjustment?

a) Fo/fe b) fe/fo c) fe+fo d) 1+ D/fo
OR
You are provided with four lenses of focal length 3 cm,10 cm , 20cm & 100 cm,
Which two would you prefer for a telescope?
a) 3 cm,100 cm
Page 32 of 49
 b) 3cm, 10 cm
c) 20 cm,100 cm
d) 10cm , 20 cm
(ii) If an astronomical telescope having magnifying power of 5 in normal adjustment consist of two
lenses 24 cm apart, what is the focal length of eye lens?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 c) 2
(iii) Which type of mirror/lens is used in objective of reflecting type telescope?
a) convex mirror b) concave mirror c) convex lens d) concave lens
(iv) The radius of curvature of a reflecting telescope is 100cm, & focal length of
eyepiece is 1cm, what is its magnifying power?
a)100 b) 50 c)25 d) 5

SECTION E
31. a) A plane wavefront in a medium of refractive index n1 is incident on a plane surface making an
angle of incidence ‘i’ as shown. It enters into a medium of refractive index n2 (n2 >n1). Use
Huygens construction of secondary wavelets to trace the propagation of refracted wavefront. Hence
verify Snell’s law of refraction.

b) What is the shape of wavefront on earth for sunlight?

OR
a) What is diffraction of light? Draw a graph showing the variation of intensity with
angle in a single slit diffraction experiment. Write one feature which distinguishes
the observed pattern from the double slit interference pattern.
b) How would the diffraction of a single slit be affected when
(i) The width of the slit is decreased.
(ii) The monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light.
32. a) Explain with a suitable diagram the two processes which occur during the formation
of a p-n junction diode. Hence define the terms (i) depletion region & (ii) potential
barrier.
Draw a circuit diagram of a p-n junction diode under forward bias & explain the
working.
OR
a) Distinguish between conductors, insulators & in terms of energy band diagrams.
Draw the diagrams.
Why do we get a small currents (𝜇𝐴) through a p-n junction diode under reverse biased condition?
In which direction does this current flow through this direction?
33. (a) Obtain the expression for the average power dissipated in a series LCR circuit driven by an a.c
source of voltage 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 sin (𝜔𝑡) supplying a current
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 sin ( 𝜔𝑡-𝜑)
(b) The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = 10 sin 314 t
A and v = 50 sin 314 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
OR
a. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source. Using the phasor diagram, derive the expression
for the impedance of the circuit and phase difference between current and voltage.
b. Plot a graph to show the variation of current with frequency of the ac source, explaining the nature
of its variation for two different resistances R1 and R2 (R1< R2) at resonance

Page 33 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-5
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
SECTION A
1. If the de-Broglie wavelengths for a proton and for a 𝛼-particle are equal, then the ratio of their velocities
will be:
(i) 4 : 1 (ii) 2 : 1 (iii) 1 : 2 (iv)1 : 4
2. In the absence of other conductors, the surface charge density
(i)is proportional to the charge on the conductor and its surface area
(ii)inversely proportional to the charge and directly proportional to the surface area
(iii)directly proportional to the charge and inversely proportional to the surface area
(iv)inversely proportional to the charge and the surface area
3. By a cell a current of 0.9 A flows through 2-ohm resistor and 0.3 A through 7-ohm resistor. The internal
resistance of the cell is:
(i)0.5Ω (ii)1.0Ω (iii)1.2Ω (iv)2.0Ω
4. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C. What is the
temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver in 0C-1?
(i)0.0059 (ii)0.0039 (iii)0.0129 (iv)0.0159
5. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in the figure. It carries a current of i
ampere and the radius of the circular loop is r metre. Then the magnetic induction at its centre will be

𝜇0 2𝑖
(i) (𝜋 + 1)
4𝜋 𝑟 r
𝜇0 2𝑖
(ii) (𝜋 − 1)
4𝜋 𝑟 O
i
(iii) Zero
(iv)Infinite
6. When green light is incident on the surface of metal, it emits photo-electrons but there is no such
emission with yellow colour light. Which one of the colour can produce emission of photo-electrons?

(i)Orange (ii)Red (iii)Indigo (iv)None of the above

7. Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a target of an element containing 30 neutrons. The ratio of
radii of nucleus to that of Helium nucleus is 141/3. The atomic number of nucleus will be:

(i)25 (ii)26 (iii)56 (iv)30

8. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at :
(i) 00C (ii) -1000C (iii) 300K (iv) 0K
9. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is
found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops almost to
zero. The device may be:
(i)A P-type semiconductor (ii) An N-type semiconductor
(iii)A PN-junction (iv) An intrinsic semiconductor
10. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given as
By = (8 × 10-6) sin [2 × 1011t+ 300πx] T, wavelength of the em wave is:
(i) 0.80 cm (ii) 1 × 103m (iii) 2 × 10-2cm (iv) 0.67 cm

Page 34 of 49
11. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid, whose R.I. is equal to that of R.I. of material of the lens. Then its
focal length will: (i) become zero (ii)
become infinite (iii) reduce (iv) increase
12. How can the fringe width increase in Young’s double-slit experiment?
(i)By decreasing the width of the slit
(ii)By reducing the separation of slits
(iii)By reducing the wavelength of the slits
(iv)By decreasing the distance between slits and the screen
Given two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Select the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
13. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in uniform electric field, it returns
back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
14. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
Reason : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperature there by
increasing it's resistivity.
15. Assertion: In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.
16. Assertion: When cells are connected in parallel to the external load, the effective emf increases.
Reason: All the cells will be sending the current to the external load in the same direction.

SECTION-B

17. Plot the graphs of the energy of a capacitor varying with its capacitance when
(a) charge is constant, and
(b) potential difference is constant.
OR
Three-point charges, +Q, + 2Q and –3Q are placed at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l. If these charges
are displaced to the mid-points A1, B1 and C1 respectively,
find the amount of the work done in shifting the charges to the new
locations.

18. The relative magnetic permeability of a magnetic material is 800. Identify the nature of magnetic
material and state its two properties.
19. Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balance condition in a Wheatstone bridge.
20. An electric lamp having coil of negligible inductance connected in series
with a capacitor and an a.c. source. The lamp is glowing with certain
brightness. How does the brightness of the lamp will change on reducing
the
(i)capacitance, and
(ii) the frequency? Justify your Answer
21. (i)Draw a ray diagram of a reflecting type telescope.
(ii)State two advantages of this telescope over a refracting telescope.
SECTION-C
22. Use the mirror equation to show that:
(a) An object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2f.
(b) A convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the object.

Page 35 of 49
(c) An object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual and enlarged image.
23. Light of wavelength 2000 Å falls on a metal surface of work function 4.2 eV.
(a) What is the kinetic energy (in eV) of the fastest electrons emitted from the surface?
(b) What will be the change in the energy of the emitted electrons if the intensity of light with same
wavelength is doubled?
(c) If the same light falls on another surface of work function 6.5 eV, what will be the energy of emitted
electrons?
24. Write the distinguishing features between a diffraction pattern due to a single slit and the interference
fringes produced in Young’s double slit experiment.
25. Explain the term ‘drift velocity’ of electrons in a conductor. Hence obtain the expression for the current
through a conductor in terms of ‘drift velocity’.
26. An electron of mass m and charge q is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V. Obtain
the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it. If electrons and protons are moving with
the same kinetic energy, which one of them will have a larger de-Broglie wavelength associated with it?
Give reason.
27. Derive the expression for force per unit length between two long straight parallel current carrying
conductors. Hence define SI unit of current.
28. Write three possible causes of energy loss in a transformer. How are these minimized?
OR
Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in an ideal inductor of self- inductance L when a
current I pass through it. Hence obtain the expression for the energy density of magnetic field B produced in
the inductor.
29. READ THE FOLLOWING PARAGRAPH AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS
SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICE
Before the development of silicon semiconductor rectifiers, vacuum
tube thermionic diodes and copper oxide- or selenium-based metal
rectifier stacks were used. With the introduction of semiconductor
electronics, vacuum tube rectifiers became obsolete, except for some
enthusiasts of vacuum tube audio equipment. For power rectification from
very low to very high current, semiconductor diodes of various types
(junction diodes, Schottky diodes, etc.) are widely used. Other devices that
have control electrodes as well as acting as unidirectional current valves are used where more than simple
rectification is required—e.g., where variable output voltage is needed. High-power rectifiers, such as those
used in high-voltage direct current power transmission, employ silicon semiconductor devices of various
types. These are thyristors or other controlled switching solid-state switches, which effectively function as
diodes to pass current in only one direction.
(i) When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then
(a) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(c) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(d) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased.
(ii)In the circuit given below, find the value of the current. PN 30 + 1V
+ 4V
(a) 0.1 A (b) 1 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 3 A

(iii) If no external voltage is applied across p-n junction, there would be

(a) no electric field across the junction
(b) an electric field pointing from n-type to p-type side across the junction
(c) an electric field pointing from p-type to n-type side across the junction
(d) a temporary electric field during formation of p-n junction that would subsequently disappear.
Page 36 of 49
 (iv) In semiconductors at a room temperature
(a) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(b) the valence band is completed filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled
(d) the conduction band is completely empty
30. READ THE FOLLOWING PARAGRAPH AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

RAINBOW COLOURS ON SOAP BUBBLE:

An optical medium is called a thin film when its

thickness is about the order of one wavelength of light
in visible region (0.5 𝜇𝑚 to 10 𝜇𝑚). A thin film may be
a thin sheet of transparent material such as glass, mica,
an air film enclosed between two transparent plates or a
soap bubbles. When light is incident on such a film, a
smaller part of it gets reflected from the top surface
and a major part is transmitted into the film. Again, a
small part of the transmitted component is reflected
back into the film by the bottom surface and the rest of it emerges out of the film. The reflected ray
(Ray -1) and the refracted ray (Ray -2) overlap and produce interference. Hence, we see soap
bubbles exhibiting different colours in different directions.
(i) Ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 1. If these waves are superimposed, the ratio of maximum
and minimum intensities is
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 5 : 3
(ii) In Young’s double slit experiment the intensity at centre of screen is I . If one of the slits will be
closed , the intensity at the centre now will be
(a) I (b) I/2 (c) I/3 (d) I/4
(iii) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity at a
point on the screen where path difference is λ is K units. What is the intensity of light at a point
where path difference is 𝜆/3.?
(a) K (b) K/4 (c) K/2 (d) 0
(iv) To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources, which emit radiation of
(a) nearly the same frequency (b) the same frequency
(c) different wavelength
(d) the same frequency and having definite phase relationship.

SECTION- E

31. (a)Write two properties of equipotential surfaces. Depict equipotential surfaces due to an isolated point
charge. Why do the equipotential surfaces get closer as the distance between the equipotential surface
and the source charge decreases?
(b)An electric dipole of dipole moment p⃗, is placed in a uniform electric field E⃗, Deduce the expression
for the potential energy with the dipole.
OR
(a)Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having two identical plates each
of area A and separated by a distance d, when the space between the plates is filled by a dielectric
medium?
(b)X and Y are two parallel plate capacitors having same plate area and same separation between the
plates are connected in series with a potential difference of 12V. X has air between the plates and Y
contains a dielectric medium of 𝜀𝑟 = 4.
Page 37 of 49
 (i)Calculate the capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is 4𝜇F.
(ii)What is the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y?
32. (a) Using Biot- Savart Law, deduce an expression for the magnetic field
on the axis of a circular current loop.
(b) Draw the magnetic field lines due to a current carrying loop.
(c) A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a
semi-circular arc of radius 2.0 cm as shown.
What is the magnetic field B at O due to
(i) straight segments (ii) the semi-circular arc?

OR
Explain, using a labelled diagram, the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(a) What is the function of
(i) uniform radial magnetic field,
(ii) Cylindrical soft iron core?
(b) Define the terms
(i) current sensitivity and
(ii) voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer.
Why does increasing the current sensitivity not necessarily increase voltage sensitivity?
33. Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Define and derive
the expression for its magnifying power when the image is formed at infinity. Explain why both the
objective and the eye piece of a compound microscope must have short focal lengths.
OR
(a)Trace the rays of light showing the formation of an image due to a point object placed on the axis of a
spherical surface separating the two media of refractive indices n1 and n2. Establish the relation between
the distances of the object, the image and the radius of curvature from the central point of the spherical
surface.
(b)An unsymmetrical double convex lens forms the image of a point object on its axis. Will the position
of the image change if the lens is reversed? Explain.

Page 38 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-6
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
SECTION A
1. A thin glass (RI = 3/2) lens has optical power of – 5D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium
with RI = 1.6 will be:
(i) -2.5 D (ii) 25 D (iii) –ID (iv) 0.625 D
2. Figure shows the tracks of three charged particles in a uniform electric field moving with same
speed. Which particle has the largest charge to mass ratio?
(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 1 & 3 both

3. An electric dipole kept in a non-uniform electric field making angle θ (not 00 or not 1800) may
experience: - (i) Only a torque
(ii) Only a force
(iii) A force and a torque (iv) None of the above
4. How would the angular separation of interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment changes
when the distance between the slits and screen is doubled?
(i) Remain same (ii) Becoming half
(iii) Become double (iv)Cannot be determined
5. A diamagnetic substance under influence of an external magnetic field has:
(i) + ve and small susceptibility (ii) +ve and large susceptibility
(iii) -ve and small susceptibility (iv) Zero susceptibility
6. Which of following radiation are used detect forged documents?
(i) X –ray (ii) Infra-Red (iii)Visible (iv) Ultra violet.
7. What is the frequency of output signal of full wave rectifier if the frequency input signal is 50 Hz?

(i) 50 Hz (ii) 25 Hz (iii) 100 Hz (iv) 0 Hz

8. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is π
/4. If instead, C is removed from the circuit the phase difference is again become π/4. The impedance
of the circuit when all elements are present is :
(i) √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑙 − 𝑋𝑐)2 (ii) R (iii) √(𝑋𝑙 − 𝑋𝑐)2 (iv) 0

9. The energy level diagram of an element is given

below. Identify, by doing necessary calculations,
which transition corresponds to the emission
of a spectral line of wavelength 102.7 nm?
(i) A (ii) B (iii)C (iv) D

10. The given graph shows the variation of

Photo-electric current (I) versus applied voltage (V)
for two different photosensitive materials and for
two different intensities of the incident radiation.
Identify the pairs of curves that correspond to
different materials but same intensity radiation.
(i) (1,2) (3,4) (ii) (1,3) (2,4)
(iii) (1,4) (2,3) (iv)None of them.

Page 39 of 49
 11. A network of four capacitors of capacity C each are connected to a battery
as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on C1 and C4 is :–

(i) 1/4 (ii) 1/3 (iii) 3/1 (iv) 4/1

12. In reverse biased connection of a P-N junction which of the following is correct?
(i) Diffusion current is greater than drift current
(ii) Diffusion current is less than drift current
(iii) Diffusion current is equal to drift current
(iv)None of these

Two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason( R).
Select the correct answer to these questions from code (a) ,(b) , (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both the A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
13. Assertion (A) : When a bar magnet is dropped into a vertical long hollow metallic tube, the magnet
ultimately moves with an acceleration less than acceleration due to gravity.
Reason (R) : The magnet falling into metallic tube causes the induced currents in the metal tube, so
the motion of the magnet is of decreasing acceleration.
14. Assertion (A): Electric field lines are not perpendicular to surface of charged conductor.
Reason (R): The surface of charged conductor is surface of variable potential.
15. Assertion (A): Two independent sources cannot be coherent sources.
Reason (R): The phase difference of the two independent sources at a particular point remain
constant with respect to time.
16. Assertion(A). A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason(R). Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.

SECTION-B

17. In the circuit shown, an ideal voltmeter is used to

measure the reading of the potential difference between A and B
. What is the reading of the voltmeter?
18. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave
is given by
By= (8×10-6) sin (2 ×1011t + 300 π x )T
(i) Calculate the frequency of the electromagnetic wave
(ii) Write the expression of the oscillating electric field.
OR
Can two lamps of sodium light act as coherent sources? Give your reason?
19. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of V. Find out the expression for de-Broglie
wavelength associated with an electron.
20. An electron does not suffer any deflection while passing along + ve x axis through a region of
mutually perpendicular uniform magnetic field (B) and electric field (E) with a velocity ‘v’.
(a) What is the direction of the magnetic field if Electric field is along y axis?
(b) What is the relation between E and B?
21. A star converts its hydrogen to helium in fusion reaction. It converts to helium via the
reaction: 1H2 + 1H2 →1H3 + 1H1 + Q
Mass of 1H2 = 2.014102 u , 1
1H = 1.007825 u ,
3 2
1H =3.0160 u , where 1u = 931.5 Mev /c

SECTION-C
Page 40 of 49
22. Figure shows variation of stopping potential (V0) with the
frequency (ν) for two photosensitive materials M1 and M2 .
(i) Why is the slope same for both lines?
(ii) For which material will the emitted electrons have greater
kinetic energy for same frequency of the incident radiations?
(iii) Which metal has higher work function? Justify your answer
in above cases.
OR
Show that the total energy (E) of the electron in the stationary states can be expressed as negative of
kinetic energy (K) .
23. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a half wave
rectifier.
24. A long straight wire carrying current of 25A rests on a table as shown in
Fig. Another wire PQ of length 1m, mass 2.5 g carries the same current
but in the opposite direction. The wire PQ is free to slide up and down.
To what height will PQ rise?

25. First a set of ‘ n’ equal resistors of resistance R each are connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance ‘R’. A current I is observed to flow. Than ‘n’ resistor are connected in parallel to
the same battery . It is observed that the current is increased by 10 times .What is n?

26. In the given circuit with a steady current, calculate the potential drop
across the capacitor in terms of V.

27. What do you mean by energy bands? In a pure semiconductor crystal of Si, if antimony is added then
what type of extrinsic semiconductor is obtained. Draw the energy band diagram of this extrinsic
semiconductor so formed.
28. (a) Obtain an expression for focal length of a combination of thin lenses in contact.
(b) A converging lens of focal length 50 cm is placed coaxially in contact with another lens of
unknown focal length. If the combination behaves like a diverging lens of focal length 50 cm, find the
power and nature of the second

SECTION-D
29. CASE STUDY
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of tiny
objects. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended
at the eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the final
image and the objects are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can be given
that: m = me x mo, where me is the magnification produced by the eye lens and mo is the
magnification produced by the objective lens.
Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an
eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm.
(i) What is the object distance for eye-piece, so that final image is formed at infinity?
(a) 6.25 cm from the eyepiece
(b) 6.25 cm from the objective
(c) 2 cm from the objective
(d) 2 cm from the eyepiece
(ii) What is the nature of intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope?

(a) Real, inverted & magnified

Page 41 of 49
 (b) Real, inverted & diminished
(c) Virtual, erect & magnified
(d) Virtual, inverted & magnified.
(iii) Where should the object be placed, so that final image is formed at the least distance of distinct
vision.
(a) 6.25 cm from the eyepiece
(b) 6.25 cm from the objective
(c) 2.5 cm from the objective
(d) 2 cm from the eyepiece
(iv) What is the magnifying power of the microscope when final image is formed at the least distance
of distinct vision?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 12

30. CASE STUDY

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
The moving coil galvanometer (MCG) is a device which based on the
principle that , torque experienced by current carrying coil placed in
a uniform magnetic field. The galvanometer consists of a coil with
many turns, free to rotate about a fixed axis in a uniform radial
magnetic field. There is a cylindrical soft iron core which not only
makes the field radial but also increases the strength of the magnetic
field. When a current flows through the coil, a torque acts on it. This
torque is given by = NI AB where the symbols have their usual
meaning. Since the field is radial by design, we have taken sin θ = 1 .The magnetic torque NIAB
tends to rotate the coil. A spring Sp provides a counter torque kϕ that balances the magnetic torque
NIAB; resulting in a steady angular deflection ϕ .In equilibrium kϕ = NI AB where k is the tensional
constant of the spring; i.e. the restoring torque per unit twist.
Φ = (NBA/K)I
(i) A galvanometer with resistance 1000 Ω gives full scale deflection at 0.1 mA. What value of
resistance should be added to 1000 Ω to increase its current range 10 A.
(a) 0.01 Ω in series (b) 0.01 Ω in parallel
(c ) 0.1 Ω in series (d) 0.1 Ω in parallel
(ii) A resistance of 980 Ω is connected in series with a voltmeter, after which the scale division
becomes 50 times larger. The resistance of voltmeter is
(a) 10 Ω (b) 20 Ω (c) 100 Ω (d) 200 Ω
(iii) How is the magnetic field is made radial in a moving coil galvanometer?
(a) By using a strong magnet
(b) By using a soft iron core
(c) By using a circular coil
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(iv) The voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased
(a) By increasing area of the coil
(b) By decreasing the number of turns
(c) By increasing current
(d) By connecting a helical spring
SECTION E

31. Use Gauss theorem to find electric field due to thin sheet of charge.
(a) A point charge (+Q) is kept in the vicinity of uncharged
conducting plate. Sketch electric field lines between the
charge and the plate.
Page 42 of 49
 (b)Two infinitely large plane thin parallel sheets having
surface charge densities ϭ1 and ϭ2 as shown in the figure.
Write the magnitudes and directions of the net fields
in the regions marked II .
OR
(a) Prove that energy stored per unit volume in a capacitor is given by (1/2) ε0 E2, where E is the electric
field inside the capacitor?
(b) An air capacitor is given a charge of 2µC raising its potential to 200 V. If on inserting a dielectric
medium, its potential falls to 50 V, what is the dielectric constant of the medium?
32. A coil of number of turns N, area A, is rotated at a constant angular speed ω, in a uniform magnetic
field B, and resistance R. Deduce expression for;
(i) Maximum emf induced in the coil
(ii) Power dissipation in the coil.
(iii) Plot a graph emf E~ t (time) for a complete cycle.
.
OR
(a)Derive an expression for the average power consumed in a series LCR circuit connected to an a.c.
source in which the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is Ф.
(b) What is power factor in an a.c. circuit? Why should the power factor should have high value in
high power transmission?

33. (i) Analytically find the condition of maxima and minima when two wave from coherent sources
overlap with each other.
(ii) Find the ratio of intensities at two points on a screen in young’s double slit experiment when
waves from the two slits have a path difference wave (a) 0 and (b) λ/4.

OR
1 1 1
(a) Derive the lens formula = − for a concave lens using the necessary ray diagram.
f v u
(b .An illuminated object and a screen are placed 90 cm apart. Determine the focal length and nature
of the lens required to produce a clear image on the screen, twice the size of the object.

Page 43 of 49
 SAMPLE PAPER-7
CLASS- XII
SUB: PHYSICS (042)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
SECTION A

1. What is the angle between electric field and equipotential surface? (i)900 always
(ii) 00 always (iii) 00 𝑡𝑜 900 (iv) 00 𝑡𝑜 1800
2. Two point charges A and B having charges +𝒒 and −𝒒 respectively, are placed at certain distance apart
and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges
becomes: [1]
𝟗𝑭 𝟏𝟔𝑭 𝟒𝑭
(i) F (ii) 𝟏𝟔 (iii) (iv)
𝟑 𝟑
3. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across an external resistor R. The graph showing
variation of P.D. across R versus R is:

a b c d
(i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
7
4. The capacitance of a capacitor becomes 6 times its original value if a dielectric slab of thickness 𝑡 =
2
𝑑 is introduced in between plates, where d is the separation between the plates. The dielectric
3
14 11
constant of the slab is : (i) (ii) 14
11
7 11
(iii)11 (iv) 7
5. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have (i)High relative
permeability & High susceptibility
(ii)High relative permeability & Low susceptibility
(iii)Low relative permeability & High susceptibility
(iv)Low relative permeability & Low susceptibility
6. An ammeter reads up to 1A. Its internal resistance is 0.81Ω. To increase the range to 10A, the value of
the required shunt is :
(i) 0.03Ω (ii)0.3Ω (iii) 0.9Ω (iv) 0.09Ω
7. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10V each. If the
capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be:
(i)10V (ii)10√2 (iii) 10⁄ (iv) 20V
√2
8. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. Electric field is
induced: [1]
(i) in AB, but not in BD
(ii) in BD, but not in AB
(iii) neither in AC nor in BD
(iv) in both AC and CD

Page 44 of 49
 9. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free space along x-
direction. The electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and
time is 𝐸 = 6 𝑉𝑚−1 along y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at this point
would be:
(i) 2 × 10−8 𝑇 along z-direction (ii) 6 × 10−8 𝑇 along x-direction
(iii) 2 × 10−8 𝑇 along y-direction (iv) 6 × 10−8 𝑇 along z-direction

10. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is:

(i) virtual, erect and magnified (ii) real, erect and magnified
(iii) real, inverted and magnified (iv) virtual, erect and reduced
11. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is
replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal:
(i) that the central maximum is narrower. (ii) more number of fringes.
(iii) less number of fringes (iv) no diffraction pattern
12. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance ‘u’ from the
lens and measuring the distance ‘v’ of the image pin. The graph between ‘u’ and ‘v’ plotted by the
student should look like:

(i)
(ii)

(iii) (iv)

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
13. Assertion (A):An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.
Reason(R) :Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
14. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason (R) : The number of photoelectron is proportional to the frequency of light.
15. Assertion (A):The displacement current satisfies the property of continuity.
Reason (R): The sum of displacement and conduction currents remains constant along a closed path.
16. Assertion: Energy is released in nuclear fission as well as nuclear fusion.
Reason : In both processes the total binding energy of daughter nuclei is larger than the total binding
energy of parent nucleus.

Page 45 of 49
 SECTION B
17. Derive the expression for the torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform magnetic field.

OR
What is Curies law of magnetism? Why diamagnetic materials do not affected by temperature?
18. A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Find the
maximum current in the coil?
19. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to angle
𝟑
emergence and each of these angles is equal to 𝟒 of angle of prism. What is the value of angle of
deviation?
20. The energy levels of an atom are given below in the diagram. Which of the transitions belongs to
Lyman and Balmer series ? Calculate the ratio of shortest wavelengths of the Lyman and the
Balmer series of the spectra.
[2]

21. Explain how the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode changes when the junction is
(i) forward biased (ii) reverse biased.

SECTION C
22. Two capacitors of capacitance 10 𝜇𝐹 and 20𝜇𝐹 are connected in series with a 6V battery. After the
capacitors are fully charged, a slab of dielectric constant(K) is inserted between the plates of the two
capacitors. How will the following be affected after the slab is introduced?
(a) the charges on the two capacitors
(b) the electric filed energy stored in the capacitors
(c) the potential difference between the plates of the capacitors
Justify your answer.
23. Derive the expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of its material parameters.
OR
Using Kirchhoff's laws obtain the relation between the resistances of a balanced Wheatstone bridge.
24. (i)A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a single slit of width 0.2 mm
to produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of the central maximum obtained on the screen.
(ii)Estimate the number of fringes obtained in Young's double slit experiment with slit separation
0.5mm, which can be accommodated within the region of total angular spread of the central maximum
due to single slit.
25. Define the terms (i) cut-off voltage (ii) threshold frequency in relation to the phenomenon of
photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show how the cut-off voltage and
threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material can be determined with the help of a suitable
graph.
OR
(a) Define the term intensity of radiation in photon picture.

Page 46 of 49
 (b)Plot a graph showing the variation of photo current vs collector potential for three different intensities
𝑰𝟏 > 𝑰𝟐 > 𝑰𝟑 , two of which (I1 and I2) have the same frequency 1 = 2 = ν and the third has frequency 1>v.
(c) Explain the nature of the curves on the basis of Einstein's equation.
26. Obtain the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus ( 147𝑁) from the following data in MeV.
Given 𝑚𝐻 = 1.00783 𝑢 , 𝑚𝑛 = 1.00867 𝑢 , 𝑚𝑁 = 14.00307 𝑢
27. (a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15m. If an
eyepiece of focal length 1.0cm is used, what is the angular magnification of the telescope?
(b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon formed by
the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106m, and the radius of lunar orbit is 3.8 ×
108m.
28. (a) What is the wavelength of light waves if their frequency is 5.0×1014 Hz?
(b) How does oscillating charge produce electromagnetic waves?
(c) Sketch a schematic diagram depicting oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an em wave
propagating along + z. direction.

SECTION D

29. Case Study: Total Internal Reflection

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
If light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, then at the interface, the light is partly
reflected back into the denser medium and partly refracted to the rarer medium. This reflection is called
internal reflection. As the angle of incidence i increases, the angle of refraction r also increases. At a certain
value of i, the angle of refraction becomes 90°. This angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the
angle of refraction in the rarer medium is 90° is called the critical angle of the denser medium (ic). If i is
increased beyond ic, no refraction is possible, and the incident ray is totally reflected. This phenomenon is
known as total internal reflection. Multiple internal reflections in diamond (ic =24.4°), totally reflecting
prisms and mirage, are some examples of total internal reflection. Optical fibres consist of glass fibres
coated with a thin layer of material of lower refractive index. Light incident at an angle at one end comes out
at the other, after multiple internal reflections, even if the fibre is bent.
(i) If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30, the velocity of
light in the medium is
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 1.5 × 108 m/s (c) 0.5 × 108 m/s (d) 0.2 × 108 m/s
(ii) The phenomena involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to
(a) reflection of light by plane mirror
(b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
(c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
(d) scattering of light by the particles of air
(iii) The bending of light in U-shape and the formation of Mirage is due to the phenomenon of
(a) refraction of light only (b) total internal reflection of light only
(c) refraction and total internal reflection of light (d) dispersion of light only
(iv) A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water ( µ = 4/3 ) .
A light beam incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected
to reach on the face BC if
8
(a) Sin 𝜃 ≥ 9
2 8
(b) 3 < sin θ < 9
8
(c) sin θ ≤ 9
2
(d) sin θ ≤ 3
Page 47 of 49
 30. Magnet in a wire loop A wire in the form of a loop in connected to a sensitive current meter or
galvanometer as shown in above figure. When a bar magnet is pushed through the loop , the needle in
the galvanometer will move , indicating an induced current . However we stop the motion of the bar
magnet, the current returns to zero. The field from the magnet will only induce a current when it is
increasing or decreasing.

(i) Due to which phenomenon, the current is induced in the wire loop , when a bar magnet is
pushed through the loop.
a. Electromagnetic induction b. Magnetic effect of current c.
Electrostatic shielding d. Biot savart’s law
(ii) The total no. of magnetic lines of force crossing the surface of wire loop normally is called
a. Magnetic field b. Magnetic flux c. Induced
current d. Magnetic lines
(iii) If we pull the bar magnet back out from the wire loop , the needle of galvanometer deflects in
a. Same direction b. Opposite direction c. Remains
constant d. Needle points at zero
(iv) If the bar magnet remains stationary inside the wire loop, then
a. Current flows through galvanometer
b. No current flows through galvanometer
c. Galvanometer shows out of deflection
d. Bar magnet will be charged
31. (a) State Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics. Using this theorem, derive an expression for the electric field
intensity due to an infinitely long, straight wire of linear charge density λ C/m.
(b) Two parallel uniformly charged infinite plane sheets, ‘1’ and ‘2’, have
charge densities +𝜎 and −2𝜎 respectively. Give the magnitude and direction of the net electric field at a
point (i) in between the two sheets and (ii) outside and near the sheet ‘1’.
OR
(a)Deduce an expression for the electric field at a point on the equatorial
plane of an electric dipole of length 2a.
(b)Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole
moment ‘p’ are kept at an angle of 1200 as shown in the figure. What is the
resultant dipole moment of this combination? If this system is subjected to
electric field ( 𝐸⃗⃗ ) directed along +𝑋 direction, what will be the magnitude
and direction of the torque acting on this?
32. (a) Use Biot-Savart law to derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil of radius R
having N turns at a point on the axis at a distance 'x' from its centre.
(b) Two identical coils P and Q each of radius ‘R’ are lying in perpendicular planes such that they have a
common centre. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at the common centre of the two
coils, if they carry currents equals to 𝐼 and √3 𝐼 respectively.
Page 48 of 49
 OR
(a)With the help of a diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(b) A voltmeter of a certain range is constructed by connecting a resistance of 𝟗𝟖𝟎 𝛀 in series with a galvanometer.
When the resistance of 𝟒𝟕𝟎 𝛀 is connected in series after removing 980 Ω , the range get halved. Find the
resistance of the galvanometer.
33. (a) Draw the energy band diagrams for the conductor and intrinsic semiconductor. Write any two
distinguishing features between them on the basis of energy band diagrams.
(b)The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5×1028. This is doped simultaneously with 5×1022 atoms
per m3 of arsenic and 5×1020 per m3 atoms of indium. Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given
that ni=1.5×1016 /m3.
OR
(a)State and explain the processes involved in the formation
of p-n junction mentioning how the depletion layer is formed.
(b) If each diode in figure has a forward bias resistance of 25Ω
and infinite resistance in reverse bias, what will be the values
of current I1, I2, I3 and I4 ?

Page 49 of 49
 SUPPORT MATERIAL
FOR
ANNUAL EXAMINATION: 2023-24
CLASS-XII SCIENCE
SUBJECT- CHEMISTRY

FEATURES

MODEL SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER WISE QUESTIONS
SOLUTION TO THE QUESTONS

REGIONAL TRAINING CENTRE

DAV INSTITUTIONS
ODISHA ZONE

Page | 1
Page | 2
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-1 (2023-24)
SECTION-A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. An unknown alcohol is treated with “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the
alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what
mechanism?
(a) Tertiary alcohol by SN2 (b) Secondary alcohol by SN1
(c) Tertiary alcohol by SN1 (d) Secondary alcohol by SN2
2. An organic compound X with molecular formula C 4H8 on reaction with HBr gives Y
as major product, which on reaction with sodium ethoxide again forms X. Identify X
and Y:
(a) X= But-1-ene, Y= 2-Bromobutane
(b) X= But-2-ene, Y= 1-Bromobutane
(c) X= 2-Methylpropene, Y = 2-Bromo-2-Methyl propane
(d) X= 2-Methylpropene, Y= 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane
3. HCl is not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO 4 in an
acidic medium. Because
(a) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agents.
(b) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also an oxidising agent.
(c) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent than HCl.
(d) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.
4. The half life period of 1st order reaction is 1386 sec. The specific rate constant of the
reaction is
(a)0.5 x 10 -2 s -1 (b) 0.5 x 10 -3 s -1 (c) 5.0 x 10 -2 s -1 (d) 5.0 x 10 -3 s -
5. While charging the lead storage battery
(a) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb (b) PbSO4 cathode is reduced to Pb
(c) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb (d) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2
6. If conc. of reactant ‘A’ is increased 10 times & rate of reaction becomes 100 times.
What is order with respect to ‘A’ ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
7. Which one of the following can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?
(a) Aniline (b) O- Toluidine (c) Benzylamine (d) N- Methyl ethanamine
+2
8. The complex ion [Cu(NH3)4] is
(a) tetrahedral and paramagnetic (b) tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(c) square planar and paramagnetic (d) square planar and diamagnetic
9. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following

(a) (V) > (IV) > (II)> (I) > (III) (b) II)> (IV) > ( (I) > (III) > (V)
(c) (IV) > (V) > (III) > (II)>(I) (d) (V) > (IV) > (III)> (II) > (I)
10. The best reagent for converting 2-Phenyl propanamide into 2-phenyl
propanamine is
(a) Br2/NaOH (b) excess of H2 (c) I2/P4 (d) LiAlH4 in ether
Page | 3
11. If Δo < P, then the correct electronic configuration for d4 system will be
(a) t2g4 eg0 (b) t2g3 eg1 (c) t2g0 eg4 (d) t2g2 eg2
12.

13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Assertion(A): With HI, anisole gives Iodobenzene and methyl alcohol.
Reason(R): Iodide ion combines with smaller group to avoid steric hindrance.
Select the most appropriate answer from option given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is true.
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Assertion(A): β-glycosidic linkage is present in maltose.
Reason(R): Maltose is composed of two glucose units in which C–1 of one
glucose unit is linked to C–4 of another glucose unit.
Select the most appropriate answer from option given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false .
(d) A is false and R is true.
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Assertion (A): Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason (R): Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.
Select the most appropriate answer from option given below

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 (a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false .
(d) A is false and R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Assertion (A): Aniline does not undergo Fridel-Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): –NH2 group of aniline reacts with AlCl3 (Lewis acid) to give acid-base
reaction.
Select the most appropriate answer from option given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is true but R is false .
(d) A is false and R is true.
SECTION- B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. For a general reaction A B, a plot of conc. of A vs time is given in figure. Answer
the following question on the basis of graph.
(i) What is the order of reaction?
(ii) What is the slope of curve? conc. of A

Time
18. Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with
OH- and why?
(i) CH3Br or CH3I (ii) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl
OR
A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single
monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon &Write
chemical equation involved .
19. (i) Arrange the following complexes in the increasing order of conductivity of their
solution:
[Co(NH3)3Cl3], [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(ii) Write the IUPAC name of [Co(H2O)4 (NH3)2 SO4]Br .
20. A solution of Ni(NO3 )2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of
5 Ampere for 20 minutes .What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode.(At,Wt of Ni
=58.9) .

21. Write the structures of products of the following reactions.

(i)
(ii)

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 SECTION-C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22.Write equations of the following reactions:
(a) Friedel-Crafts reaction – alkylation of anisole.
(b) Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
(c) Heating ethanol with Conc.H2SO4 at 443K.
23. Write the shape, Hybridisation and magnetic nature of following complex ions on basis
of Valence Bond theory.
(i) [ Ni (CN)4] 2- (ii) [ Ni Cl4] 2-
24.Boiling point of water at 750 mm Hg is 99.63°C. How much sucrose is to be added to
500g of water such that it boils at 100°C.
25. Give reason (Any three)
(a) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
(b) Alkyl though polar, are immiscible with water?
(c) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
(d) Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main product while AgCN
forms isocyanides as the chief product.
26. (a) How can you convert an amide into an amine having one carbon less than
the starting compound? Name the reaction.
(b) Arrange the following in decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N & NH3
OR
(a) A compound ‘Z’ with molecular formula C 3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to
give a solid, insoluble in alkali, identify Z & Write the chemical equation
involved in it.
(b) What is the role of pyridine in the acylation reaction of amines.
27.a)What are essential & non-essential amino acids? Give one example of each type.
b) Classify the following into monosaccharides and
disaccharides. Ribose, maltose, fructose and lactose.
28.(a) For which type of reactions, order and molecularity have the same value?
(b)For a certain reaction, large fraction of molecules has energy more than the
threshold energy, yet the rate of reaction is very slow. Why?
(c) A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 50% completion. Calculate the
time required for 90% completion of this reaction.
(log 2 = 0.3010)
SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
29. Boiling point or freezing point of liquid solution would be affected by the dissolved
solids in the liquid phase. A soluble solid in solution has the effect of raising its boiling
point and depressing its freezing point. The addition of non-volatile substances to a

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solvent decreases the vapour pressure and the added solute particles affect the
formation of pure solvent crystals. According to many researches the decrease in
freezing point directly correlated to the concentration of solutes dissolved in the

Page | 7
 solvent. This phenomenon is expressed as freezing point depression and it is useful for
several applications such as freeze concentration of liquid food and to find the molar
mass of an unknown solute in the solution. Freeze concentration is a high quality liquid
food concentration method where water is removed by forming ice crystals. This is
done by cooling the liquid food below the freezing point of the solution. The freezing
point depression is referred as a colligative property and it is proportional to the molar
concentration of the solution (m), along with vapour pressure lowering, boiling point
elevation, and osmotic pressure. These are physical characteristics of solutions that
depend only on the identity of the solvent and the concentration of the solute. The
characters are not depending on the solute’s identity.
(a) Will Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality-prepared in different
solvents have the same depression in freezing point ? Justify your answer.
(b) Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as the only sugar present
in them. The concentration of sample A, B and C are 0.1M, 0.5M and 0.2 M
respectively. Among these samples of juices which will have highest Freezing
point & Why ?
(c) To lower the melting point of 75 g of acetic acid by 1.5 0C, How much mass of
ascorbic acid is needed to be dissolved in the solution where Kt = 3.9 K kg
mol-1?
OR
Calculate the mass of compound (molar mass=256 gmol-1) to be dissolved in 75 gm
of Benzene to lower its freezing point by 0.48 K.
30. The sequence of bases along the DNA and RNA chain establishes its primary structure
which controls the specific properties of the nucleic acid. An RNA molecule is usually
a single chain of ribose-containing nucleotide. On the basis of X-ray analysis of DNA,
J.D., Watson and F.H.C. crick (shared noble prize in 1962) proposed a three
dimensional secondary structure for DNA. DNA molecule is a long and highly
complex, spirally twisted, double helix, ladder like structure. The two polynucleotide
chains or strands are linked up by hydrogen bonding between the nitrogeneous base
molecules of their nucleotide monomers. Adenine (purine) always links with thymine
(pyrimidine) with the help of two hydrogen bonds and guanine (purine) with cytosine
(pyrimidine) with the help of three hydrogen bonds. Hence, the two strands extend in
opposite directions, i.e., are antiparallel and complimentary.
(a) State any two properties 3d structure of DNA.
(b) How are the polynucleotide chains in the DNA strands link together?
(c) DNA is different from RNA in its structure and composition. Justify
OR
(c)Two strands of DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two
questions have internal choice.
31. (a) Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) , takes place. Further write
(a) Which of the electrode is negatively charged?
(b) the carriers of the current in the cell.
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 (b) Theresistanceofaconductivitycellwhenfilledwith0.05Msolutionofan electrolyte
X is100 ohms at 40°C. The same conductivity cell filled with 0.01 M solution
of electrolyte hasresistanceof50ohms. The conductivity of 0.05 M solution of
electrolyte X is 1.0×10 −4Scm−1 Calculate.
(i) Cell constant
(ii) Conductivity of 0.01 MY solution
(iii) Molar conductivity of 0.01 MY solution.
OR
(a) What is electro chemical equivalent?
(b) (i) Write any one difference between electrolytic cell & Galvanic cell.
(ii) The cell in which the following reactions occurs:
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I- (aq) 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 (s) has = 0.236 V at 298 K.
Calculate the standard Gibbs energy and the equilibrium constant of the cell
reaction.
32. Account for the following :
(a) Zn, Cd and Hg are normally not regarded as transition elements.
(b) Sc forms no coloured ions yet it is regarded as transition elements,
(c) Transition elements show variable oxidation states.
(d) Eu2+, Yb2+ are good reductants whereas Tb4+ is an oxidant.
(e) AgCl dissolves in ammonia solution.
33. (i) An organic compound ‘A’ (C 3 H6O) is resistant to oxidation but forms
compound ‘B’ (C 3 H8O) on reduction. ‘B’ reacts with HBr to form the
compound ‘C’. ‘C’ with Mg forms Grignard’s reagent ‘D’ which reacts with
‘A’ to form a product which on hydrolysis gives ‘E’. Identify ‘A’ to ‘E’.
(ii) Give reason
(a) carboxylic acids more acidic than alcohols or phenols although all of them
have hydrogen atom attached to an oxygen atom (-O-H).
(b) Carboxylic acids contain carbonyl group but do not show the nucleophilic
addition reaction like aldehydes or ketones.
OR
(e) An organic compound ‘X’ has molecular formula C5H10O. It does not reduce
Fehling solution but forms a bisulphite compound. It also gives positive
Iodoform test. Write the possible structure of ‘X’ & write equation involved
in Iodoform test of any one structure of ‘X’.
(ii) Give a chemic test to distinguish between Phenol & Benzoic acid.
(iii) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction. Give reason.

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 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-2 (2023-24)
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following alcohols will give the most stable carbocation during
dehydration?
(a) 2-methyl-1-propanol (b) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(c) 1-Butanol (d) 2-Butanol
2. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
(a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RBr > RCl > RI > RF
(c) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (d) RCl > RF > RI > RBr
3+ 2+
3. Fe ion is more stable than Fe ion because
(a) more the charge on the atom, more is its stability
(b) configuration of Fe2+ is 3d5 while Fe3+ is 3d5
(c) Fe2+ has a larger size than Fe3+
(d) Fe3+ ions are coloured hence more stable
4. In a reaction, 2X → Y, the concentration of X decreases from 0.50 M to 0.38 M in 10
min. What is the rate of reaction in Ms-1 during this interval?
(a) 2 × 10-4 (b) 4 × 10-2 (c) 2 × 10-2 (d) 1 × 10-2
5. The reaction, 3ClO– (aq) → ClO3 (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) is an example of
(a) Oxidation reaction (b) Reduction reaction
(c) Disproportionation reaction (d) Decomposition reaction
6. For a reaction x + y → z the rate of reaction becomes twenty seven times when the
concentration of X is increased three times. What is the order of the reaction?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 0
7. Identify the correct IUPAC name
(a) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 = N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
(b) (CH3)3CNH2 = 2-methylpropan-2-amine
(c) CH3NHCH (CH3)2 = N-Methylpropan-2-amine
(d) (CH3)2CHNH2 = 2, 2-Dimethyl-N-propanamine
8. The CFSE of [CoCl6] 3- is 18000 cm-1 the CFSE for [CoCl4] - will be:
(a) 18000 cm-1 (b) 8000cm-1 (c) 2000 cm-1 (d) 16000 cm-1
10. Conversion of phenol to salicyclic acid and to salicyaldehyde are known as
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Williamson’s synthesis and Hydrobration-oxidation
(c) Kolbe’s reaction and Williamson’s synthesis
(d) Kolbe’s reaction and Reimer-Tiemann reaction
11. Which of the following statements is not correct for amines?
(a) Most alkyl amines are more basic than ammonia solution.
(b) pKb value of ethylamine is lower than benzylamine.
(c) CH3NH2 on reaction with nitrous acid releases NO2 gas.
(d) Hinsberg’s reagent reacts with secondary amines to form sulphonamides.
11. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl, chloride is called
(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(b)
12. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
Page | 10
 (a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3 (c) C6H5CHO (d) C6H5CH2CHO
13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution
reaction.
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance
stabilized.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: At isoelectric point, the amino group does not migrate under the influence
of electric field.
Reason: At isoelectric point, amino acid exists as a zwitterion.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: Transition metals show variable valency.
Reason: Transition metals have a large energy difference between the ns 2 and
(n – 1) d electrons.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Tertiary amines are more basic than corresponding secondary and
primary amines in gaseous state.
Reason (R): Tertiary amines have three alkyl groups which cause +I effect.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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 SECTION-B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L-1 s-1. How long
will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?
18. Explain what is meant by
(i) a peptide linkage (ii) a glycosidic linkage.
OR
Name two water soluble vitamins, their sources and the diseases caused due to their
deficiency in diet.
19. Explain why [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an
outer orbital complex. (At. no. Co = 27, Ni = 28)
20. Write the reactions taking place at cathode and anode in lead storage battery when
the battery is in use. What happens on charging the battery ?
21. For a chemical reaction R → P, the variation in the f concentration (R) vs. time (f)
plot is given as

(i) Predict the order of the reaction.

(ii) What is the slope of the curve?
SECTION-C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. Explain the mechanism of acid catalysed hydration of an alkene to form
corresponding alcohol.
23. For the complex [NiCl4]2-, write
(i) the IUPAC name
(ii) the hybridization type
(iii) the shape of the complex. (Atomic no. of Ni = 28)
24. 100 mg of a protein is dissolved in just enough water to make 10.0 mL of solution. If
this solution has an osmotic pressure of 13.3 mm Hg at 25°C, what is the molar mass
of the protein?
(R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1 and 760 mm Hg = 1 atm.)

Page | 12
25. (a) Describe Hofmann’s bromamide reaction with chemical equation .
(b) Complete the following reaction equations:
(i) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →
(ii) C6H5NH2 + Br2 (aq) →
26. Answer the following:
(i) Haloalkanes easily dissolve in organic solvents, why?
(ii) What is known as a racemic mixture? Give an example.
(iii) Of the two bromoderivatives, C6H5CH (CH3)Br and C6H5CH(C6H5)Br, which
one is more reactive in SN1 substitution reaction and why?
OR
Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-, para-directing in
electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. Explain why it is so?
27. (a) Why does p-dichlorobenzene have a higher m.p. than its o- and m- isomers?
(b)Why is (±)-Butan-2-ol optically inactive?

(c) Chlorobenzene is extremely less reactive towards a nucleophilic

substitutionreaction. Explain.
28. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated :
(i) CH3COCH3, C6H5COCH3, CH3CHO
(reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction)
(ii) Cl—CH2—COOH, F—CH2—COOH, CH3—COOH (acidic character)
(iii) CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3 (basic character in aqueous solution)

SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
29. When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical changes like change in
temperature or chemical changes like change in pH, the hydrogenbonds are disturbed.
Due to this, globules unfold and helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological
activity. This is called denaturation of protein.The denaturation causes change in
secondary and tertiary structures but primary structures remains intact. Examples of
denaturation of protein are coagulation of egg white on boiling, curdlingof milk,
formation of cheese when an acid is added to milk.
Answer the following questions:
a. During denaturation the primary structures remains intact why?
b. Give an example of denaturation of protein.
c. What is denaturation. By rising temperature how the physical changes takesplace
in egg, Explain
OR
when an acid is added to milk. How the denaturation takesplace. Explain .
30. All chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules. A large number
of atoms/molecules are present in a few grams of any chemical compound varying
with their atomic/molecular masses. To handle such large number conveniently, the
mole concept was introduced. All electrochemical cell reactions are also based on mole
Page | 13
concept. For example, a 4.0 molar aqueous solution of NaCI is prepared and 500 mL
of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the
electrode. The amount of products formed can be calculated by using mole concept.
a. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is
b. If cathode is a Hg electrode, then the maximum weight of amalgam formed from
this solution is
c. What is electrolysis. In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution when Pt electrode
is taken, then which gas is liberated at cathode?
OR
What do you mean by electro chemical cell? In the electrolysis, the number of
moles of electrons involved are

Page | 14
 SECTION- E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two
questions have an internal choice.
31. (a) What type of battery is the lead storage battery? Write the anode and the cathode
reactions and the overall reaction occuring in a lead storage battery when current
is drawn from it.
(b) In the button cell, widely used in watches, the following reaction takes place:
Zn(s) + Ag20(s) + H20 (l) ——-> Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) + 20H– (aq)
Determine E° and AG° for the reaction.
(Given: E0Ag+/Ag= + 0.80 V, E0Zn+2/Zn = – 0.76 V)
OR
(a) Define molar conductivity of a substance and describe how for weak and strong
electrolytes, molar conductivity changes with concentration of solute. How is
such change explained?
(b) A voltaic cell is set up at 25 °C with the following half-cells:
Ag+ (0.001 M) | Ag and Cu+2 (0.10 M) | Cu What would be the voltage of this
cell? (E0cell= O.46V)
32. (a) How will you bring about the following conversions:
(i) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal
(ii) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(b) An organic compound A has the molecular formula C8H16O2. It gets hydrolysed
with dilute sulphuric acid and gives a carboxylic acid B and an alcohol C.
Oxidation of C with chromic acid also produced B. C on dehydration reaction
gives but-l-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
OR
(a) Give a plausible explanation for each one of the following :
(i) There are two – NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However, only one such group
is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.
(ii) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2, 4, 6
trimethylcyclohexanone does not.
(b) An organic compound with molecular formula C9H10O forms 2, 4, – DNP
derivative, reduces Tollens’ reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction. On
vigorous oxidation it gives 1, 2-benzene-di- carboxylic acid. Identify the
compound.
33. (a) What is meant by the term lanthanoid contraction? What is it due to and what
consequences does it have on the chemistry of elements following lanthanoids
in the periodic table?
(b) Explain the following observations:
(i) Cu+ ion is unstable in aqueous solutions.
(ii) Although Co2+ ion appears to be stable, it is easily oxidised to Co 3+ ion in
the presence of a strong ligand.
(iii) The E° Mn2+/Mn value for manganese is much more than expected from the
trend for other elements in the series.

******

Page | 15
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-3 (2023-24)
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following 0.1 m aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point:
(a) Potassium sulphate (b) sodium chloride (c) urea (d) glucose
2. From the colligative properties of solutions which one is the best method for the
determination of molecular weight of proteins and polymers:
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Lowering in freezing point
(c) Lowering in vapour pressure (d) Elevation in boiling point
3. The potential of hydrogen electrode at PH = 10 is
(a) 0.59 V (b) 0.00V (c) -0.59V (d) -0.059V
4. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by
(a) changing concentration of reactants
(b) evaluating rate constant at standard temperature
(c) evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures
(d) evaluating velocities of reaction at two different temperatures
5. The geometrical and magnetic behavior of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are:
(a) Square planer geometry and paramagnetic
(b) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(c) Square planr geometry and diamagnetic
(d) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
6. Which among the following compounds is most reactive towards  elimination
reaction:
(a) 2-bromopentane (b) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
(c) 1-bromopentane (d) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
7. Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism?
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(c) trans[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
8. Ozonolysis of C7H14 gave 2-methyl pentan-3-one. The alkene is:
(a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene (b) 2-methyl-3-ethyl but-3-ene
(c) 2,5-dimethyl-3,4-diethyl hex-3-ene (d) 2-methyl-3-ethyl but-1-ene
9. Which of the following reacts with NaOH to produce an acid and an alcohol
(a) HCHO (b) CH3COOH (c) CH3CH2COOH (d) C6H5COOH
10. Which one among the following bases is usually not present in RNA?
(a) Uracil (b) Thymine (c)Adenine (d)Guanine
11. Glucose on reaction with acetic anhydride forms glucose pentaacetate, which
confirms the presence of:
(a) –CHO group (b) –COOH group (c) Five –OH group (d) A straight chain
12.Which of the following is not a correct statement:
(a) Primary alcohol is more acidic than secondary alcohol
(b) Primary alcohol is least reactive towards Lucas reagent
(c) Primary alcohol is oxidized by KMnO4 to form aldehyde
(d) Primary alcohol has higher solubility than secondary alcohol

Page | 16
13. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Lucas reagent can be used to distinguish between methanol and
ethanol.
Reason(R): Alcohols are soluble in Lucas reagent while their halides are
immiscible.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
14.Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A) : tert-Butyl methyl ether on treatment with HI at 373K gives a mixture
of methyl alcohol and tert butyl iodide .
Reason(R): The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(e) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(f) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(g) A is true but R is false.
(h) A is false but R is true
15. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: Carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol.
Reason: Phenoxide has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
16. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Assertion: The E0 for Mn3+ is more positive than for Cr3+/Cr2+.
Reason: The 3rd ionization energy of Mn is larger than that of Cr.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Accounts for the followings:
(a) Why are aquatic species more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm
water.
(b) Abnormal molecular mass is observed in electrolytic solution.
OR

Page | 17
 Two liquids A and B form non ideal solution which shows a minimum boiling point.
Can the two liquids be completely separated by fractional distillation? What will be
the change in temperature on mixing A and B?
18. Consider the reaction: R k
P

The change in conc. of A with time is

shown in the following plot:

(i) Predict the order of the reaction.

(ii) What is the relation between half life period
and K of this reaction
(iii) What is the slope of the curve?
(iv) What is the unit of K for this reaction
19. (i) Write the IUPAC name of the following complex: [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4]
(ii) Write the formula of the following complex:
Diamminedichlorido (ethane 1,2-diammie)chromium(III) chloride
20. Name the reagent used in the following conversions:
(i) A primary alcohol to an aldehyde
(ii) Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol
(iii) Phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
(iv) Phenol to salicylaldehyde
21. Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Why phenol is stronger acid
than ethanol?

SECTION-C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. The boiling point elevation of 0.30 g acetic acid in 100 g benzene is 0.633 K.
Calculate the molar mass of acetic acid from this data. What conclusion can you
draw about the molecular state of the solute in the solution. (Kb for benzene is 2. 53
K. Kg. mol-1)
OR
0.6 ml of acetic acid having density 1.06 g/ml, is dissolved in 1 lit of water. The
depression in freezing point observed for this strength of acid was 0.0205 0C.
Calculate the van’t Hoff factor and degree of dissociation ( Kf = 1.86 k.kg.mol-1)

Page | 18
23. The emf of a cell corresponding to the reaction
Zn (s) + 2H+   Zn2+ (0.01M) + H2(g) is 0.28V at 250C. Write the half cell
reactions and calculate the PH of the solution at the hydrogen electrode.
(E0 Zn2+ / Zn = - 0.76V , Log 5 = 0.699, log2=0.301)
24. Give reason of any 3 of the following questions:
(i) Tertiary amines doesn’t undergo acylation reaction.
(ii) Aniline can’t be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(iii) Aniline doesn’t undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction.
(iv) Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of the aliphatic
amines
25. (i) Define
(a) peptide linkage (b) oligosaccharides
(ii) Draw the structure of  -D-glucopyranose
26. (i) Write the IUPAC name of the linkage isomer for the complex [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
(ii) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic but [NiCN4]2- is diamagnetic . Explain why?
(iii) Name the platinum complex that is used in chemotherapy.
OR
(i) Define Chelating ligand with one example.
(ii) On the basis of CFT, write the electronic configuration of d4 ion if Δ0<P.
(iii) Write the hybridization & magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4].
27. a) Which vitamin deficiency cause ?
(i) Night blindness (ii) Impaired clotting of blood.
b) Differentiate between.
(i) Globular and fibrous proteins.
(ii) Nucleoside and nucleotide.

28. Account for the following observations:

(i) Aniline readily reacts with bromine to give 2,4,6 tri bromo aniline
(ii) Pkb of aniline is more than that of methyl amine.
(iii) Aniline does not undergo Fridle-Craft’s alkylation.

SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4(1 +1+2) marks each. Read the passages carefully and answer
the questions that follow:
29. According to the molecularity, which defines the number of molecules that are altered
in a reaction: a reaction A → P is unimolecular (sometimes called monomolecular),
and a reaction A + B → P is bimolecular. One-step reactions of higher molecularity
are extremely rare, if they occur at all, but a reaction A + B + C → P would be
trimolecular (or termolecular). Alternatively one can classify a reaction according to
its order, a description of its kinetics that defines how many concentration terms must
be multiplied together to get an expression for the rate of reaction. Hence, in a first-
order reaction the rate is proportional to one concentration; in a second-order reaction
it is proportional to the product of two concentrations or to the square of one
concentration; and so on.
For a simple reaction that consists of a single step, or for each step in a complex
reaction, the order is usually the same as the molecularity (though this may not be
Page | 19
apparent if one concentration, for example that of the solvent if it is also a reactant, is
so large that it is effectively constant). However, many reactions consist of sequences
of unimolecular and bimolecular steps, and the molecularity of the complete reaction
need not be the same as its order. Indeed, a complex reaction often has no meaningful
order, as the overall rate often cannot be expressed as a product of concentration terms.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Define order of reaction
(b) Why molecularity of more than 3 is not possible.
(c) A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 50% completion. Calculate the time
required for 90% completion of this reaction. (log 2 = 0.3010)

Page | 20
 OR
The rate constant of a first order reaction is 60 s-1. How much time will it take to reduce
the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th value?
30. Many SN reactions are carried out using the solvent as the nucleophilic agent. They
are called solvolysis reactions and involve solvents such as water, ethanol, ethanoic
acid, and methanoic acid. Two examples are

In these examples, solvolysis is necessarily a first-order reaction, because normally the

solvent is in such great excess that its concentration does not change appreciably
during reaction, and hence its contribution to the rate does not change. However, that
the overall rate is first order does not mean the reaction necessarily proceeds by an SN1
mechanism, particularly in solvents such as water, alcohols, or anilines, which are
reasonably good nucleophilic agents. The solvent can act as the displacing agent in an
S,2 reaction.
If the reaction is strictly SN1, the rate at which RX disappears should remain
essentially unchanged because it reacts only as fast as R+forms, and the rate of this step
is not changed by addition of the nucleophile, even if the nucleophile reacts with R +
However, if the reaction is S N2, the rate of disappearance of RX should increase
because RX reacts with the nucleophile in an SN2 reaction and now the rate depends
on both the nature and the concentration of the nucleophile.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Which would undergo SN2 reaction faster in the following and why?
CH3
|
CH3-CH2-Br and CH3  C  CH3
|
Br

(b) What is racemic mixture. Give one example

(c) Explain why haloarenes are much less reactive than haloalkanes towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction?
OR
Rearrange the compounds of each of the following sets in order of reactivity towards
SN2 displacement:
(i) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-Methyl Butane, 2-Bromo-2-Methylbutane, 3-Bromo-2-Methylbutane
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two
questions have an internal choice.
31. (a) A violet compound of Mn (A) decomposes on heating to liberate oxygen and
compounds B and C. Compound C reacts with KOH in the presence of O 2 to give
compound B. Identify compounds A to C and also the reactions involved.

Page | 21
 (b) Complete and balance the following equations in aqueous medium:
(i) Cr2O72- + H+ + Fe 2+  
(ii) MnO4 + I + H 
- - +

OR
Accounts for the followings:
(a) Silver atom has completely filled d- orbital in its ground state. How can you say
that it is a transition element?
(b) The E0 value of copper is +ve.
(c) Transition metals and their compounds are generally found to be good catalysts.
(d) Zr and Hf have similar size or similar properties.
(e) Mn2O7 is acidic whereas MnO is basic.
32. (a) State Faraday's 1st law.
(b) Predict the product of electrolysis of aq. CuCl2 solution using Cu electrode.
(c) Write the Nernst equation and calculate the e.m.f. of the following cell.
Mg(s) | Mg2+ (aq) (0.001M)||Cu2+ (aq) (0.0001m)/ Cu(s)
Given 𝐸𝐶𝑢 0
2+/𝐶𝑢 = 0.34 𝑉

0
𝐸𝑀𝑔2+ /𝑀𝑔 = −2.37 𝑉

Determine the value of free energy change (∆𝐺) for the cell. (1F = 96500 C mol–1)

OR
(a) Write any one advantage of fuel cell.
(b) Why does conductivity decreases on dilution ?
(c) A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed between Pt electrodes using a
current of 5.0 ampere for 20 minutes.What mass of copper will be deposited at the
cathode ?[Given atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 g/mol. 1F= 96500 C]
33. (a) Explain the mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group of an
aldehyde or a ketone.
(b) An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with
sulphuricacid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C)
with chromic acid also produced (B) on dehydration, (C) gives but-1-ene. Write the
equations for the reactions involved.
OR
(a) Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i) Ethanal and Propanal.
(ii) Phenol and Benzoic acid.
(b) How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Benzoic acid to benzaldehyde.
(ii) Ethanal to but-2-enal.
(iii) Propanone to propene.

*****

Page | 22
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-4 (2023-24)
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following complexes will have four isomers?
(a) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2] Cl (b) [Co (PPh3)2(NH3)2Cl2] Cl
(c) [Co(en)3] Cl3 (d) [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl
2. A student set up the following apparatus to determine the hydrogen ion concentration
of solution X. The cell M|H2(g) |2H+ (aq)
||Cu2+ |Cu(aq). The(s)best material for electrode Mwould
be

(a) polished copper metal.

(b) platinum metal coated with platinum oxide.
(c) copper metal coated with oxide.
(d) platinum metal coated with finely divided platinum.
3. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH
= 10 and by passing. hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The
oxidation potential of electrode would be.
(a) 0.118V (b) 1.18V (c) 0.059V (d) 0.59V
4. Consider the following statements: Acetophenone can be prepared by
(i) Oxidation of 1-phenyl ethanol.
(ii) Reaction of benzaldehyde with methyl magnesium bromide.
(iii)Friedel-Crafts reaction of benzene with acetyl chloride.
(iv) distillation of calcium benzoate.
(a) II and III (b) I and IV (c) I and III (d) III and IV
5. In the accompanied diagram the ideal behavior of a solution is shown by the line(s)

(a) D
(b) CB
(c) CD
(d) AD, CB, and CD

6. Most of the transition metals exhibit

(i)Paramagnetic behavior. (ii)Diamagnetic behaviour.
(iii)variable oxidation states. (iv)formation of coloured ions.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i),(ii) and (iv)

Page | 23
 7. For the first order decomposition reaction of N2O5, it is observed that

Which of the following is true?

(a) k = k' (b)k =2k' (c)k = k'/2 (d)k = k'2
8. If 50%of the reactant is converted into a product in a first order reaction in 25 minutes,
how much of it would react in 100 minutes.
(a) 93.75% (b) 87.5% (c) 75% (d) 100%
9. Which of the following is the major species in a solution of lysine at pH=3.5?

10. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of hydrocarbons of comparable
masses due to
(a) Hydrogen bonding. (b) Ion-dipole interaction
(c) Dipole-dipole interaction (d) Vander waals’ forces.
11. Which is correct statement?
(a) Starch is a polymer of α-glucose.
(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose.
(c) Proteins are compounds of only one type of amino acids.
(d) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are five carbons and one oxygen atom.
12. In a set of reaction, acetic acid yielded a product S. The structure of S would be.

Page | 24
13. Give below are two statements label led as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Reduction potential of Mn (+3 to +2) is more positive than
Fe (+3 to +2)
Reason(R): Ionisation potential of Mn is more than that of Fe.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Give below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A): 2-Chloro-3-methylbutane on treatment with alcoholic potash gives 2-
methylbut-2-ene as major product.
Reason(R): The reaction occurs according to Saytzeff rule.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15. Give below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion(A):
In high spin situation, configuration of d5 ions will be t32ge2g.
Reason(R): In high spin situation, pairing energy is less than crystal field energy.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Give below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A): The [Ni(en)3]Cl2(en=ethylenediamine) has lower stability than [Ni
(NH3)6] Cl2.
Reason(R): In [Ni (en)3] Cl2 the geometry of Ni is octahedral.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Sliver is uniformly electrodeposited on a metallic vessel of surface area of 900 cm2 by
passing a current of 0.5 ampere for 2 hours, Calculate the thickness of sliver deposited.
Given: The density of sliver is 10.5 g cm-3 and atomic mass of Ag =108 amu.
18. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated (any 2):
(a) Benzoic acid, Phenol, Picric acid, Salicylic acid (pKa values).
(b) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Methyl, tert-butyl ketone (reactivity towards NH2OH).
(c) Ethanol, Ethanoic acid, Benzoic acid (boiling point).
OR
Two moles of organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with a strong base gives two
compound ‘B’ and ‘C’ compound ‘B’ on dehydrogenation with Cu gives ‘A’ while
Page | 25
 acidification of ‘C’ yields carboxylic acid ‘D’ with molecular formula of
CH2O2.Identify the compounds A, B, C and D and write all chemical reactions
involved.
19. (a) Define rate of reaction.
(b) Write two factors that affect the rate of reaction.
20. Enumerate any four reaction of glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain
structures.
21. Give reasons:
(i) C- Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than C-Cl bond length in CH3-Cl.
(ii) SN1 reaction are accompanied by racemization in optically active alkyl halides.
OR
Write the structure of the major product in each of the following reaction:

SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
followingquestions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. (a) Give two differences between globular and fibrous proteins.
(b) What change occurs in the nature of egg protein on boiling?
23. Explain any three:
(a) A solution of KOH hydrolyses CH3CHClCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl.
Which one of these is more easily hydrolysed?
(b) Identify the major product(X)

(c) Define Finkelstein reaction.

(d) RCl is hydrolysed slowly to ROH but the reaction is rapid if a catalytic amount
of KI is added to the reaction mixture. Explain
24. (i) calculate the standard potential of Ni2+ /Ni electrode if emf of the cell.
Ni(s)|Ni2+(0.01M) ||Cu2+(0.1M) |Cu(s) is 0.059 V. [Given: E°Cu2+/Cu = +0.34V]
(ii) Define specific conductance.
OR
Calculate the emf of the following cells at 298K:
(i) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.001M) || Cu2+(0.0001M) | Cu(s)
(ii) Fe(s) | Fe2+(0.001M) || H+ (1 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
[Given: E°Mg2+/Mg = -2.37 V, E° 2+/Cu = 0.34V, E° 2+/Fe = -0.44v]
Cu Fe
25. (a) Write the chemical reaction involved in wolff-Kishner reduction.
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards
nucleophilic addition reaction. C6H5COCH3, CH3-CHO, CH3COCH3
(d)(c)A and B are two functional isomers of compound C3H6O. On heating with
NaOH and I2, isomer B forms yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas isomer

Page | 26
 A does not any precipitate. Write the formulae of A and B.
26. Rate constant ‘K’ of a reaction varies with temperature T according to the
equation:
1
Log = log A- 𝐸𝑎 ( )
2.303𝑅 𝑇

Where Ea is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for log K vs 1 , a straight
𝑇
line with a slope of -4250 K is obtained. Calculate ‘Ea’ for the reaction. (R=8.314J
mol-1).
27. (a) Write the reaction takes place in lead storage battery.
(b) Write two advantages of H2-O2fuel cell over ordinary cell.
28. Illustrate the following reactions :
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Coupling reaction
(c)Gabriel-Phthalimide reaction

SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
thequestions that follow.
29. The amines are basic in nature due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on
N-atom of the -NH2 group, which it can donate to electron deficient compounds.
Aliphatic amines are stronger bases than NH3 because of the +I effect of the alkyl
groups. Greater the number of alkyl groups attached to N-atom, higher is the electron
density on it and more will be the basicity. Aniline is a weaker base compared to
ammonia. This is because the lone pair of electrons on N-atom of aniline is less
available for protonation due to ammonia. This is because the lone pair of electrons
on N-atom of available for protonation due to its involvement in conjugation with the
π-electrons of the benzene ring. Further the presence of electron withdrawing groups
decreases the basicity while, the presence of electron donating groups activates the
benzene ring and also increases the basicity.
Answer the following questions:
(a) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3 N in an aqueous solution. Give reason
(b) Arrange the following increasing order of basic strength:
C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5N(CH3)2
(i) Arrange the following compounds in a decreasing order of pKb values:
(ii) C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2 .
OR
Arrange the following increasing order of basic strength: Aniline, p-nitroaniline
and p-toluidine.
30. The unique behavior of Cu, having a positive E°, accounts for its inability to
liberate H2 from acids. Only oxidising acids (nitric and hot concentrated sulphuric)
react with Cu, the acids being reduced. The high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+ (aq)
is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy. The general trend towards less negative E°
values across the series is related to the general increase in the sum of the first and
second ionization enthalpies, it is interesting to note that the value of E° for Mn, Ni
and Zn are more negative than expected from the trend. The stability of the half-filled
d sub-shell in Mn2+ and completely filled d10 configuration in Zn2+ are related to their
Page | 27
E values whereas E° for Ni is related to the highest negative ∆hyd H. An examination
of the E° 3+ 2+ values shows the varying trends. The highest value for Zn is due to
(M /M )
the removal of an electron from the stable d10 configuration of Zn2+. The
comparatively high value stability of Fe3+(d5). The comparatively low value for V is
related to the stability of V2+ (half-filled t2g level).
(a) Cobalt (II) is very stable in aqueous solutions but gets easily oxidised in the
presence of strong ligands.
(b) Why are E°M3+/M values of Mn and Zn more negative than expected?

Page | 28
 (c) Use the date to answer the following and also justify giving reasons:
(i) Which is a stronger reducing agent in aqueous medium, Cr2+, or Fe2+ and why?
(ii) Which is the most stable ion in +2 oxidation state and why?
OR
E°M2+/M Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu
-0.91 -1.18 -0.44 -0.28 -0.25 +0.34

From the give of E° values, answer the following questions:

(a) Why is E° (Mn2+/Mn) value highly negative as compared to other elements?

(b) Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+? Give reason.

SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two
questionshave an internal choice.
31. (a) Out of t-butyl alcohol and n-butanol, which one will undergo acid catalysed
dehydration faster and why?
(b) How do you convert the following?
(i) Phenol to anisole
(ii) Propan-2-ol to 2-methylpropan-2-o1
(iii)Aniline to phenol
OR
(a) Give the structures of final products expected from the following reaction:
(i) Hydroboration of propene followed by oxidation with H2O2 in alkaline
medium.
(ii) Dehydration of (CH3)3C-OH by heating it 20%H3PO4 at 358K.
(iii) with HI.

(b)(i)Write the IUPAC name of the following:

(ii)Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.Give reason

32. Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate
the oxidation state,electronic configuration and coordination number.
(a) K[Cr(C2O4)2 (H2O)2] .3H2O (b) [CrCl3(Py)3]
(c) K4[Mn(CN)6] (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(e) Cs[FeCl4]
OR
(i) Write the main assumptions of valence bond theory.
(ii) What do you mean by inner orbital complexes and outer orbital complexes?
Give examples of each.
(iii)Find the geometry of [CrCl3(py)3] and Cs[FeCl4].
33. (a) (i) What happens when acetone is added to pure ethanol?
(ii) Differentiate between molarity and molarity of a solution.How can we
change molality value of a solution into molarity value?
(b) Assuming complete dissociation ,calculate the expected freezing point of a
solution prepared by dissolving 6.00g of Glauber’ssalt ,Na2SO4.10H2O in
0.100 kg of water.
Page | 29
(Kf for water =1.86 K kg mol-1,atomic masses :Na=23,S=32,O=16,H=1)

Page | 30
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-5 (2023-24)
SECTION -A
The following questions are multiple –choice questions wth one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark.There is no internal choice in this section.
1. In comparison to 0.01M glucose solution ,the depression in freezing point of 0.01M
Magnesium chloride solution is
(a) two times (b) three times (c) same (d) six times.
2. The I.U.P.A.C. name of Cl- CH2- CH2-C(CH3) =CH2 is
(a)4-Chloro-2-methylbutene. (b)1-Bromo-2-methylpropene.
(c)1-Bromo-2-methylprop-2-ene. (d)1-Bromo-3-methylprop-2-ene.
3. When 1 mol CrCl3.6H2O is treated with excess of AgNO3, 3 mol of AgCl are obtained.
The formula of the complex is:
(a) [CrCl3(H2O)3].3H2O (b) [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl.2H2O
(c) [CrCl (H2O)5]Cl2.H2O (d) [Cr (H2O)6] Cl3
4. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is:
(a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid <Acetic acid
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol< Ethanol
5. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

(I) (II) (III)

(a) II < III<I (b) III< I <II (c) III<II<I (d) II <I <III
6. Which of the following is present in DNA but not in RNA?
(a) Cytosine (b) Thymine (c) Adenine (d) Guanine
7. I.U.P.A.C. name of Terephthalic acid is known as:
(a) Benzene 1,4-dicarboxylic acid (b) Benzene 1,2-dicarboxylic acid
(c) Benzene 1,3-dicarboxylic acid (d) Ethane 1,2-dicarboxylic acid
8. Which one is more acidic than phenol?
(a) Ethanol (b) o-nitro phenol (c) o-methyl phenol (d) o-methoxy phenol
9. Zwitter ion is represented as:

10. What kind of compounds undergo Cannizaro reactions:

Page | 31
 (a) Ketones with no α-hydrogen (b) Aldehydes with α-hydrogen
(c) Carboxylic acids with α-hydrogen (d) Aldehydes with no α-hydrogen
11. The amount of electricity required to produce four mole of Zn from ZnSO 4 solution
will be:
(a) 3F (b) 8F (c) 2F (d)4F
12. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH
yields:
(a) o-cresol (b) m-cresol (c) 2,4-Dihydroxy toluene (d)Benzyl alcohol
13. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): Ecell should have a positive value for the electrochemical cell to
function.
Reason (R): In terms of reduction potential, Ecathode < Eanode
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason (R) .
ASSERTION(A) : Molarity of 0.1(N) HCl solution is 0.1(M).
REASON(R) : normality and molarity of a solution are always equal.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true, but R is false.
(d)A is false, but R is true.
15. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason (R) .
ASSERTION(A): C2H5OH is a weaker base than phenol but is a stronger nucleophile
than phenol.
REASON(R) : In phenol,the lone pair of electrons on oxygen is withdrawn
towards the ring due to resonance.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true, but R is false.
(d)A is false,but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason (R) .
ASSERTION(A): Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine to form an oxime and also
adds a molecule of hydrogen cyanide to give cyanohydrin.
REASON(R) : The carbonyl group is present in the open chain structure of
glucose.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true, but R is false.
(d)A is false,but R is true.

Page | 32
 SECTON-B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500Ω.
what is the cell constant if the conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146×10-
3
S cm-1 ?
18. Write the equations involved in the following reactions:
(a) Wolf-kishner reduction
(b) Etard reaction
OR
Write the reactions involved in the following
(a) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction (b) Decarboxylation reaction
19. (a) Identify ‘A’ & ‘B’ :

(b) Give reason for the following:

Aniline does not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction.
20. At 300K, 36g glucose present in one litre solution has osmotic pressure of 4.98 bar.
If the osmotic pressure of another glucose solution at the same temperature is 1.52
bar, find out its concentration.
21. (a) Give reason: Anisole on reaction with HI gives phenol & CH3-I as main products
& not iodobenzene and CH3OH?
(b) Draw the structure of anisole.
SECTION-C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
followingquestions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. Account for the following:
(a)Transition metals show variable oxidation states.
(b) Zn,Cd and Hg are soft metals.
(c) Transition metals form complexes.
OR

Page | 33
 Account for the following:
(a) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of transition metals.
(b) HCl is not used to acidify KMnO4 solution.
(c) Transition metals have high enthalpy of atomization.
23. Write the structures of A,B and C in the following :

24. (a) Which product is obtained when acetophenone reacts with conc. HNO3 and conc.
H2SO4?
(b) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:
(i) CH3COCH3, C6H5COCH3, CH3CHO (reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
reaction)
(ii) Cl-CH2-COOH, F-CH2-COOH, CH3-COOH (acidic character)
25. write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions:
(i) (a)CH3CH2Br + KCN −−−−aq.Ethanol→
(b)C6H5ONa + C2H5Cl →
(ii) Arrange CH3F, CH3Br, CH3I, CH3Cl in increasing order of nucleophilic substitution
reactions.
26. Give reasons for any three of the following:
(a) Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of
molar masses of macromolecules.
(b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
(c) Elevation of boiling point of 1M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1M
sugar solution.
(d) Red blood cells shrink when placed in saline water.
27. (a)State a condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically first
order reaction.
(b)Mention the order where rate= K [A] [B]1/2
(c) Write the equation for rate constant of first order reaction.
28. Write the structures of the products when butan-2-ol reacts with the following .
(a) CrO3 (b)SOCl2 (c) conc. H2SO4

SECTION-D
The following questions No. 31, 32 are case-based questions. Each question has
an internal choice and carries 4 marks ((1+1+2) each. Read the passage and write
answers from Question no. a, b, c.
Page | 34
29.The two monosaccharides are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by the loss of
a water molecule. Such a linkage between two monosaccharides.units through oxygen
atoms is called glycosidic linkage.In disaccharides if the reducing groups of monosachrides
i.e., aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these are non-reducing sugars,e.g., sucrose.
On the other hand , sugars in which these functional groups are free, are called reducing
sugars, for e.g., maltose & lactose.
A non-reducing disaccharide ‘A’ on hydrolysis with dilute acid gives an equimolar
mixture of D-(+) glucose & D-(-) fructose .

Page | 35
 (a) In the above reaction, identify reactant ‘A’ .
(b) What is the mixture of D-(+) glucose & D-(-) fructose known as?
(c) (i) Name the linkage that holds the two units in the disaccharide?
(ii) Glucose on reaction with acetic acid gives glucose pentaacetate. What does it
suggest about the structure of glucose?
OR
Classify different types of secondary structure of proteins. Name the force by which
α-helix structure of protein is stabilised?

30.The transition metals when exposed to oxygen at low and intermediate temperatures
form thin, protective oxide films of up to some thousands of Angstroms in thickness.
Transition metal oxides lie between the extremes of ionic and covalent binary
compounds formed by elements from the left or right side of the periodic table. They
range from metallic to semiconducting and deviate by both large and small degrees from
stoichiometry. Since d-electron bonding levels are involved, the cations-exist invarious
valence states and hence give rise to a large number of oxides. The crystal structures are
often classified by considering a cubic or hexagonal close-packed latticeof one set of ions
filling the octahedral or tetrahedral interstices. The actual oxide structures, however,
generally show departures from such regular arrays due in part todistortions caused by
packing of ions of different size and to ligand field effects. Thesedistortions depend not
only on the number of d-electrons but also on the valence and the position of the
transition metal in a period or group.

(d) Transition elements show high melting points. Why?

(e) Reactivity of transition elements decreases almost regularly from Sc to Cu.
Explain.
(f) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic. Why?
OR
Crystal structure of oxides of transition metals often show defects. Give reasons.
SECTION-E

31.(a) For decomposition of ammonia, the rate of reaction = K.

Mention the order of this reaction and unit of rate constant K .
(b) With the help of a diagram, explain the physical significance of energy of
activation (Ea) in chemical reaction.
(c) A first order reaction takes 100 min. for completion of 60% of the reaction. Find
the time when 90% of the reaction will be completed.
32.Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes. Also, mention
magnetic moment of the complex:
(a) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2].3H2O (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(c) [CrCl3(py)3] (d) Cs[FeCl4]
(e) K4[Mn(CN)6]
OR
(a)(i) Write the formula of the following co-ordination compound:

Page | 36
 Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II)
(ii) What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 ?
(i) Write the hybridization and number of unpaired electrons in the complex
[CoF6]3-. (Atomic No. of Co=27)
(b)(i) Write down the IUPAC name of the following complex: [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(ii) Write the formula for the following complex:
Potassium tetrachloridonickelate (II)
33.(a) The conductivity of 0.001 mol L-1 acetic acid is 4.95 x 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate the
dissociation constant if ˄om for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol-1.
(b) Write the Nernst equation for the reaction at 25 oC :
2Al (s) + 3Cu2+(aq.) → 2Al3+(aq.) + 3Cu(s)
(c) What are secondary batteries ? Give an example.
OR
(a) What do you mean by electrolysis ? Mention the product at cathode and anode
during electrolysis of
(i) aqueous solution of silver nitrate using silver electrode.
(ii) aqueous solution of sodium chloride using platinum electrode.
(b) Calculate the standard cell potential of galvanic cell in which the following
reaction takes place:
2Cr(s) + 3 Cd2+(aq) ---2Cr3+(aq) +3Cd(s)
Calculate ∆G0 and equilibrium constant K of the above reaction at 250C
[Given, E0Cr3+/Cr= -0.74V
E0Cd2+/Cd= -0.40V, 1F=96500C/mol]

********

Page | 37
 DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHA ZONE
SAMPLE QUESTIONS (2023-24)
CHAPTER: SOLUTIONS
Multiple choice questions:
1. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
(a) 1.0 M NaOH
(b) 1.0 M Na2SO4
(c) 1.0 M NH4NO3
(d) 1.0 M KNO3
2. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different
solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.
(b) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation Π = CRT
(Where C is the molarity of the solution).
(c) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of
barium chloride, potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is
BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
(d) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile
component of a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in
the solution.
3. A 5% solution of cane-sugar (molecular weight = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution
of substance A. The molecular weight of X is
(a) 342 (b) 171.2 (c) 68.4 (d) 136.8
4. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option. Information:
(I) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions
of A–A and B–B type are nearly same as A–B type interactions.
(II) In ethanol and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular
interactions are stronger than A–B type interactions.
(III) In chloroform and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular
interactions are weaker than A–B type interactions.
(a) Solution (II) and (III) will follow Raoult’s law.
(b) Solution (I) will follow Raoult’s law.
(c) Solution (II) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
5. H2S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If solubility of H2S in water at STP is
0.195 m. what is the value of KH?
(a) 0.0263 bar (b) 69.16 bar (c) 192 bar (d) 282 bar
6. What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1 M Mg(NO 3)2 solution if van’t Hoff
factor is 2.74?
(a) 75% (b) 87% (c) 100% (d) 92%
7. If, at 298 K water is the solvent, and Henry’s law constant for CO 2 is 1.67 kbar and
the constant of argon is 40.3 kbar, which of the following statements is true?
(a) Argon is more soluble than CO2
(b) Argon is less soluble than CO2
(c) Argon is insoluble in water
(d) Argon and CO2 are equally soluble

Page | 38
8. At NTP, the solubility of natural gas in water is 0.8 mole of gas/kg of water.
What is the Henry’s law constant for natural gas?
(a) 8 kN/m2 (b) 7.90 x 10-3 Pa (c) 71.36 bar (d) 105 mmHg
9. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point
of a 0.01 M MgCl2 solution is .
(a) the same (b) about twice
(c) about three times (d) about six times
10. A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
(a) hypotonic solution (b) hypertonic solution
(c) isotonic solution (d) pure water
Assertion-Reasoning Questions:

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of

reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion and reason both are incorrect statements.
11. Assertion: When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is
observed.
Reason: The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the
freezing point.
12. Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
13. Assertion: When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semi-
permeable membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent
side to the solution side
Reason: Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution
to a region of low concentration solution.
14. Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they
may have boiling points either greater than both the components or less than both
the components.
Reason: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase
of an azeotropic mixture.
15. Assertion: 1 M solution of KCl has greater osmotic pressure than 1 M solution of
glucose at the same temperature.
Reason: In solution, KCl dissociates to produce a greater number of particles.
Source/ Case based Questions:
16. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The properties of the solutions which depend only on the number of solute particles
but not on the nature of the solute are called colligative properties. Relative
lowering in vapour pressure is also an example of colligative properties.
For an experiment, sugar solution is prepared for which lowering in vapour pressure
was found to be 0.061 mm of Hg. (Vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17.5 mm of
Hg.)

Page | 39
 Answer the following questions: (1+1+2)
(i) Calculate the relative lowering in vapour pressure for the given solution.
(ii) Find out the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution.
(iii) Calculate the mole fraction of sugar in the solution.
OR
Find out the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of water at 293 K when 25 g of glucose
is dissolved in 450 g of water.
17. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
An ideal solution may be defined as the solution which obeys Raoult's law exactly
over the entire range of concentration. The solutions for which vapour pressure is
either higher or lower than that predicted by Raoult's law are called non-ideal
solutions.
Non-ideal solutions can show either positive or negative deviations from Raoult's
law depending on whether the A-B interactions in solution are stronger or weaker
than A - A and B - B interactions.
Answer the following questions: (1+1+2)
(i) Give an example of a set of solutions which is ideal?
(ii) Write the conditions for positive deviation?
(iii) Draw the graph of partial pressure vs mole-fraction for water and nitric acid
mixture.
OR
What do you mean by azeotropic mixture? Give two examples.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2023-24)

CHAPTER: SOLUTIONS
Q. Key words/ Value Points Bit Total
N Marks mark
o.
1 (b) 1.0 M Na2SO4 1 1
2 (a)Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality 1 1
prepared in different solvents will have the same depression
in freezing point.
3 (c) 68.4 1 1
4 (b) Solution (I) will follow Raoult’s law. 1 1
5 (d) 282 bar 1 1
6 (b) 87% 1 1

7 (b) Argon is less soluble than CO2 1 1

8 (b) 7.90 x 10-3 Pa 1 1
9 (c) about three times 1 1
10 (b) hypertonic solution 1 1
11 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
12 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Page | 40
13 (b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but 1 1
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
14 (b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but 1 1
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
15 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
16 (i) 0.00348 1 4
(ii) 17.439 1
(iii) 0.00348 2
OR
17.4
1
17 (i) Toluene and Benzene 1
(ii) If the A-B interactions in solutions are weaker than the A-
A and B-B interactions in the two liquids that make up the
solution, then A and B kinds of molecules have a higher
tendency to escape from the solution than from pure liquids.

(iii)(iii)

2
OR

It is basically a mixture that contains two or more liquids. A

zeotropic mixture basically has constant or the same boiling
points and the mixtures' vapour will also have the same
composition as the liquid.

Examples-

The mixture of water and hydrogen chloride.

The mixture of water and ethanol.

The mixture of chloroform and water.

Page | 41
 TOPIC: ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Multiple choice questions:
1. If 96500 coulomb electricity is passed through CuSO4 solution, it will liberate
(a) 63.5 gm of Cu (b) 31.76 gm of Cu
(c) 96500 gm of Cu (d) 100 gm of Cu
2. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in which the following
reaction takes place. Fe2+ (aq) + Ag+ (aq) → Fe3+ (aq) + Ag(s)
Given that E°Ag+/Ag = x V; E°Fe2+ /Fe = y V; E°Fe3+ /Fe = z V
(a) x – z (b) x – y
(c) x + 2y – 3z (d) x + y – z
3. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell
is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25°C
will be
(a) 1 × 10–10 (b) 29.5 × 10–2 (c) 10 (d) 1 × 1010
4. A solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) is electrolyzed for 10 minutes with a
current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode (at. mass of
Cu = 63u) is
(a) 0.2938g (b) 0.3928g (c) 0.3892g (d) 0.2398g
5. Which of the following batteries cannot be reused?
(a) Mercury cell (b) Ni-Cd cell
(c) Lead storage battery (d) None of these

6.

(i) Figure 1 represents electrochemical and Figure 3 represents electrolytic cell.

(ii) Figure 2 represents electrolytic and Figure 3 represents electrochemical cell.
(iii) Figure 2 represents a cell which is not working i.e. no current flows through the
cell.
(iv) Energy conversion shown in Figure 1 is chemical to electrical whereas energy
conversion shown in Figure 2 is electrical to chemical.
Which of the following is the correct coding for the statements above.
Page | 42
 (T-TRUE, F-FALSE)
(a) TFTT (b) TTTT (c) FTFF (d) TFFT
7. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO 4 by using
platinum electrodes ?
(i) Copper will deposit at cathode.
(ii) Copper will deposit at anode.
(iii) Oxygen will be released at anode.
(iv) Copper will dissolve at anode.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
8. One Faraday of electricity is passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of
CuSO4 and molten NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells connected in
series. The mole ratio of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the respective cathode is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 6 : 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3: 6 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
9. The conductivity of electrolytic solutions depends upon which of the following?
(i) Size of ions produced
(ii) Viscosity of the solvent
(iii) Concentration of electrolyte
(iv) Solvation of ions produced
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) All of these
10. If salt bridge is removed from two half-cells the voltage
(a) does not change (b) increases gradually
(c) drops to zero (d) increases rapidly
ASSERTION RESON QUESTIONS
11. Assertion: On increasing dilution, the specific conductance keep on increasing.
Reason: On increasing dilution, degree of ionisation of weak electrolyte increases
and molality of ions also increases.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for
assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
12. Assertion: Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O2.
Reason: Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
a) Assertion & reason are correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

Page | 43
13. Assertion: Emf and potential difference are not same for cells.
Reason: Both give the difference in electrode potential under any condition.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for
assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

14. Assertion: Ni/Ni2+ (1.0M)||Au3+ (1.0M)|Au , for this cell emf is 1.75 V if
Eo Au3+ |Au = 1.50, EoNi/Ni2+ = – 0.25 .
Reason: Emf of the cell = Eo cathode – Eo anode.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for
assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

15. Assertion: Copper sulphate solution can be stored in zinc vessel.

Reason: Zinc is more reactive than copper.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for
assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

16. Read the passage given below & answer the following question. (1+1+2)

Molar conductivity of ions are given as product of charge on ions to their ionic
mobility & Faraday constant.

(i) What is the variation of molar conductance on dilution? Give reason.

(ii) Write the following in correct increasing order of molar conductivity at

infinite dilution . NaCl ,KCl and LiCl

Page | 44
 (iii) The limiting molar conductivities 0 for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and
150 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. Calculate the limiting molar conductivity
for (0 NaBr) .
OR

The conductivity of 0.01M KCl solution is 1.41x10-3Scm-1. What is the molar

conductivity of the solution (Scm2mol-1) ?
17. Read the passage given below & answer the following question
Standard electrode potentials are used for various processes:

 It is used to measure relative strengths of various oxidants and reductants.

 It is used to calculate standard cell potential.
 It is used to predict possible reactions.
A set of half-reactions (in acidic medium) along with their standard reduction
potential, Eº (in volt) given below:

Answer the following

(i) Arrange following in increasing order oxidizing power.
I2, O2 Cl2, Mn3+, Fe3+,
(ii) Which of following has maximum potential for the half cell reaction:
2H+ + 2e →H2? And why?
1M HCl, 1M NaOH, Pure water
(iii) Calculate the E0cell for reaction given below and state reaction spontaneous or
nonsponateous.
Mn3+ + Fe2+ Mn2+ + Fe3+
OR
By using the datas from above paragraph, prove that given reaction is not
feasible.
I2 + 2KCl 2KI +Cl2
*****

Page | 45
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS ANSWERS (2023-24)
TOPIC: ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Q.N Solution Fracti Full
o on of mar
marks ks
1 (b) 31.76 gm of Cu 1 1
2 (c) x + 2y – 3z 1 1
3 (d) 1 × 1010 1 1
4 (a) 0.2938g 1 1
5 (a) Mercury cell 1 1
6 (a) TFTT 1 1
7. (d) (i) and (iii) 1 1
8. (c) 2 : 3: 6 1 1
9. (d) All of these 1 1
10 (c) drops to zero 1 1
11 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 1 1
12 (a) Assertion & reason are correct, reason is a correct 1 1
explanation for assertion
13 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 1 1
14 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1 1
explanation for assertion.
15 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 1 1
16 (i) molar conductance on dilution decreases with ½+½ 4
decrease in no. of ions per unit volume.
(ii) LiCl < NaCl < KCl 1

1+1
(iii)(iii)

OR 1+1

17 (i) I2 < Fe3+< Mn3+< Cl2, < O2 1 4

(ii) 1MHCl, more concentration of H+ ions 1
(iii) E0cell = E0cathode - E0anode = 1.50v -0.77v=0.73v 1+1
As E0cell = +ve, reaction is spontaneous
OR
E cell = E cathode - E0anode = 0.54v -1.36v=-0.82v
0 0

As E0cell = -ve, reaction is not feasible. 1+1

Page | 46
 CHAPTER: CHEMICAL KINETICS
Choose the correct answer for the following:
1. In the rate equation, when the conc. of reactants is unity then rate is equal to
(a) specific rate constant (b) average rate constant
(c) instantaneous rate constant (d) None of above
2. For the following reaction: NO2(g) + CO(g) → NO(g) + CO2(g), the rate law is:
Rate = k [NO2]2. If 0.1 mole of gaseous carbon monoxide is added at constant
temperature to the reaction mixture which of the following statements is true?
(a) Both k and the reaction rate remain the same
(b) Both k and the reaction rate increase
(c) Both k and the reaction rate decrease
(d) Only k increases, the reaction rate remain the same
3. The rate law for a reaction between A and B is given by Rate = k [A] n [B]m. On
doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of
the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as
(a) (m + n) (b) (n – m) (c) 2 (n – m) (d) 2 (m + n)
4. The rate constant of a reaction is 3.00 × 10 3 L mol–1 sec–1. The order of this
reaction will be:
(a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) three
5. Half life of a first order reaction is 4s and the initial concentration of the reactant
is 0.12 M. The concentration of the reactant left after 16 s is
(a) 0.0075 M (b) 0.06 M (c) 0.03 M (d) 0.015 M
6. The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A
to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9
mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B?
(a) 2 hours (b) 1 hour (c) 0.5 hour (d) 0.25 hou
–2 –1 –1
7. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 × 10 mol L min at 0.5 M concentration
of the reactant. The half life of the reaction is
(a) 0.383 min (b) 23.1 min (c) 8.73 min (d) 7.53 min
8. A reaction proceeds by first order, 75% of this reaction was completed in 32 min.
The time required for 50% completion is
(a) 8 min (b) 16 min (c) 20 min (d) 24 min
9. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the
temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
(a) 269 kJ mol–1 (b) 34.7 kJ mol–1
(c) 15.1 kJ mol–1 (d) 342 kJ mol–1
10. The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. The increase in
reaction rate as a result of temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is
(a) 112 (b) 512 (c) 400 (d) 614

Page | 47
11. If the activation energy for the forward reaction is 150 kJ mol–1 and that of the
reverse reaction is 260 kJ mol–1, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction?
(a) 410 kJ mol–1 (b) –110 kJ mol–1
(c) 110 kJ mol–1 (d) – 410 kJ mol–1
12. The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 kcal/mol. The increase in the rate
constant when its temperature is increased from 298K to 308K is
(a) 63% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 10%
13. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constants were
found to be k1 and k2 respectively. then
(a) k1 = 4k1 (b) k2 = 2k1 (c) k2 = 0.25 k1 (d) k2 = 0.5 k1
14. A substance 'A' decomposes by a first order reaction starting initially with [A] =
2.00 M and after 200 min, [A] becomes 0.15 M. For this reaction t1/2 is
(a) 53.72 min (b) 50.49 min (c) 48.45 min (d) 46.45 min
15. If half-life of a substance is 5 yrs, then the total amount of substance left after 15
years, when initial amount is 64 grams is
(a) 16 grams (b) 2 grams (c) 32 grams (d) 8 grams.

ASSERTION – REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

16. Assertion: Hydrolysis of esters in acidic medium is of pseudo first order reaction.
Reason: Rate constant is same at different time intervals.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
17. Assertion: In acidic hydrolysis of ester, the rate of reaction increases with the
progress of reaction.
Reason: Acetic acid (CH3COOH) acts as auto catalyst.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
18. Assertion: The rate of reaction is not expressed in terms of change of conc. of
water.
Reason: The change in concentration of water will be very negligible.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
19. Assertion: The unit of rate constant of pseudo unimolecular reaction is same as
that of 2nd order reaction.
Reason: The expected order is two but in fact it is a first order reaction because
H2O is present in large excess, its concentration remains constant.

Page | 48
 a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
20. Assertion: Rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature.
Reason: Number of collisions increases with increase in temperature.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion.
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
21. Assertion: Order and molecularity of a reaction are always equal.
Reason: In the mechanism, the slowest step is known as rate determining step.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
22. Assertion: Rate of zero order reaction remains constant till end.
Reason: Rate is independent of conc. of reactants for zero order reaction.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
22. Assertion: Order of a reaction can be a whole number, zero or fractional.
Reason: Order of reaction can be taken from balanced chemical equation.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
23. Assertion: Acidic hydrolysis of ester is a first order reaction whereas base
hydrolysis is a second order reaction.
Reason: Acid acts as a catalyst whereas base acts as a reactant.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
24. Assertion: All collisions of reactants molecules do not lead to product formation.
Reason: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and
sufficient kinetic energy lead to compound formation.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
Page | 49
 d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

25. Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the following:
Chemical kinetics, also known as reaction kinetics, is the branch of physical
chemistry that is concerned with understanding the rates of chemical reactions. It
is to be contrasted with chemical thermodynamics, which deals with the direction
in which a reaction occurs but in itself tells nothing about its rate. Chemical kinetics
includes investigations of how experimental conditions influence the speed of
a chemical reaction and yield information about the reaction's mechanism
and transition states, as well as the construction of mathematical models that also
can describe the characteristics of a chemical reaction. After van 't Hoff, chemical
kinetics deals with the experimental determination of reaction rates from which rate
laws and rate constants are derived.
Questions:
(i) For which order reaction, rate of reaction and rate constant have same units?
(ii) For a certain reaction, large fraction of molecules has energy more than the
threshold energy, yet the rate of reaction is very slow. Why?
(iii) A reaction is first order in A and second order in B. then (a) How is rate
affected on increasing the concentration of B three times? (b) How is rate
affected when conc of both A and B is doubled?
OR
The decomposition of ammonia on Pt-surface, is zero order with k = 2.5 x 10–4
mol L–1s–1. What are the rates of production of N2 and H2?
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
26. Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the following:
In some reactions, one of the products acts as catalyst, such reactions are called
Auto catalytic reactions. The rate of homogeneous auto catalytic reactions is
directly proportional to the concentration of auto catalyst. Hydrolysis of esters is
an example for such reactions.


CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l) H  CH 3COOH (l) + C2H5OH(l)

In the above reaction, Acetic acid acts as auto catalyst and the rate of reaction will
increase with the progress of reaction. Here the expected order of reaction is two
but in fact it is a first order reaction because H2O is present in large excess, its
concentration remains constant.
Answer the following:
(i) Define pseudo first order reaction.
(ii) What is the effect of a catalyst on activation energy and rate of reaction?
(iii)For the reaction: C12 H 22 O11 + H2O → C6 H12 O6 + C6H12O6;
Write the (a) Rate law equation
(b) Order of reaction
OR
In acidic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate, the rate of reaction increases with the
progress of reaction. Give reason and write the equation involved.
*******

Page | 50
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
TOPIC: CHEMICAL KINECTICS
Q. Key words/ Value Points Bit
No. Mark
s
1 (a) specific rate constant 1
2 (a) Both k and the reaction rate remain the same 1
3 (c) 2 (n – m) 1
4 (c) two 1
5 (a) 0.0075 M 1
6 (b) 1 hour 1
7 (b) 23.1 min 1
8 (b) 16 min 1
9 (b) 34.7 kJ mol–1 1
10 (b) 512 1
11 (b) –110 kJ mol–1 1
12 (a) 63% 1
13 (c) k2 = 0.25 k1 1
14 (a) 53.72 min 1
15 (d) 8 grams. 1
16 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1
explanation for assertion.
17 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1
explanation for assertion.
18 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1
explanation for assertion.
19 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 1
20 (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct 1
explanation for
assertion.
21 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 1
22 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1
explanation for assertion.
23 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. 1
24 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 1
explanation for assertion.
25 (i) Zero order
(ii) Because colliding molecule do not have proper orientation.
(iii) (a) 9 times (b) 8 times
OR
Rate of production of N2 = 2.5 x 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
Rate of production of H2 = 3 (2.5 x 10–4) = 7.5 x 10–4 mol L–1
s–1
26 (i) A bimolecular reaction in which one of the reactants is
present in large excess, then it is termed as pseudo first order
reaction.
Page | 51
 (ii) A catalyst increases the rate of reaction and decreases the
activation energy.
(iii) (a) rate = k [C12 H 22 O11]
(b) order = 1
OR
Acetic acid acts as an auto-catalyst.


CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)  H
 CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH(l)

*********

TOPIC: d & f - BLOCK ELEMENTS

Multiple choice questions:
1. A transition metal which does not exhibit variation in oxidation state in its
compounds is:
(a) Sc (b) Mn (c) Ti (d) Cu
2. Which among the following is most stable in aq. solution?
(a) Mn3+ (b) Cr3+ (c) V3+ (d) Ti3+
3. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
(a) The chemistry of various lanthanides are very similar
(b) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
(c) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded
(d) Most of the d block elements show variable oxidation states
4. When pyrolusite ore MnO2 is fused with KOH in presence of air, a green colour
compound A is obtained which undergoes disproportionation reaction in acidic
medium to give a purple colour compound B.
The compound A and B respectively are:
(a) KMnO4 and K2MnO4 (b) KMnO4 and MnO2
(c) K2MnO4 and KMnO4 (d) K2MnO4 and K2Mn2O4
5. Which among the following elements have highest enthalpy of atomization?
(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Cu (d) Zn
6. Most of transition elements and their compounds are used as catalysts due to:
(a) Presence of vacant d-orbitals (b) Presence of unpaired electrons
(c) Presence of voids (d) Presence of variable oxidation states
7. When SO2 is passed through an acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the oxidation state of
sulphur is changed from:
(a) +4 to +6 (b) +6 to +4 (c) +4 to 0 (d) +4 to +2
8. The product of oxidation of iodide ion with permanganate ion in alkaline medium
is: 
a. IO b. I 
c. IO 
d.IO 
3 2 4

9. Which among the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

(a) Gd (b) At (c) U (d) Th
10. Zr and Hf have similar size due to:
(a) Present in same group
(b) Lanthanide contraction
(c) Both are d-block elements
(d) Both have same no of valence electrons
Page | 52
 ASSERTION/REASON QUESTIONS:
11. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason: Because Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the P.T.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
12. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: E0 for Mn3+ is more positive than for Cr3+/Cr2+.
Reason: The 3rd ionization energy of Mn is larger than that of Cr.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
13. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: MnO is basic but Mn2O7 is acidic.
Reason: Higher the oxidation state of a transition metal in its oxide, greater is the
acidic character.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

14. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: The metal of 4d and 5d transition series have greater enthalpy of
atomization than the corresponding elements of the 3d series.
Reason: The metal metal bonding in 4d and 5d series are stronger than those in 3d
series.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
15. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion: Lanthanides show a limited number of oxidation states whereas
actinoids show a larger no of oxidation states.
Reason: Energy gap between 4f, 5d and 6s sub shells is small whereas that
between 5f, 6d and 7s sub shells is large.
Page | 53
 Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

CASE BASED QUESTIONS:

The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4(1 +1+2) marks each. Read the passages carefully and answer
the questions that follow:
16. The Lanthanide Contraction applies to all 14 elements included
in theLanthanide series. This series includes Cerium(Ce), Praseodymium(Pr),
Neodymium(Nd), Promethium(Pm), Samarium(Sm), Europium(Eu),
Gadolinium(Gd), Terbium(Tb), Dysprosium(Dy), Holmium(Ho), Erbium(Er),
Thulium(Tm), Ytterbium(Yb), and Lutetium(Lu). The atomic radius, as according
to the Lanthanide Contraction, of these elements decreases as the atomic number
increases. The Lanthanide Contraction is the result of a poor shielding effect of the
4f electrons. The shielding effect is described as the phenomenon by which the
inner-shell electrons shield the outer-shell electrons so they are not effected by
nuclear charge. So when the shielding is not as good, this would mean that the
positively charged nucleus has a greater attraction to the electrons, thus decreasing
the atomic radius as the atomic number increases. The s orbital has the greatest
shielding while f has the least and p and d in between the two with p being greater
than d.The Lanthanide Contraction can be seen by comparing the elements with f
electrons and those without f electrons in the d block orbital. Pd and Pt are such
elements. Pd has 4d electrons while Pt has 5d and 4f electrons. These 2 elements
have roughly the same atomic radius. This is due to Lanthanide Contraction and
shielding.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Why actinide contraction is more than lanthanide contraction?
(ii) What is the common oxidation state of lanthanides?
(iii) Define lanthanide contraction. Give two of its consequences
OR
Compare the chemistry of lanthanides with that of actinides with reference to
(a) Reactivity (b) Oxidation states
17. Oxidation state is a hypothetical state, where the atom appears to release or gain
electrons more than the usual valency state. It is still useful in explaining the
properties of the atom/ion. Transition elements/ions may have electrons in both s
and d-orbitals. Since the energy difference between s and d-orbital are small, both
the electrons can involve in ionic and covalent bond formation and hence exhibit
multiple(variable) valency states (oxidation states).Each transition element can
hence exhibit a minimum oxidation state corresponding to the number of s-
electrons and maximum oxidation state equivalent to the total number of electrons
Page | 54
available in both s and d-orbitals. In between oxidation states also become possible.
Relative stabilities of the oxidation states depend on many factors, like, the stability
of the resulting orbital, IE, electronegativity, enthalpy of atomization, enthalpy of
hydration, etc. Lower oxidation states in these metals are stabilised by ligands like
CO, which are pi-electron donors, whereas the higher oxidation states are stabilised
by electronegative elements like Fluorine(F) and Oxygen(O). The minimum
Oxidation state of 1 is shown by Cr, Cu, Ag, Au and Hg. Maximum oxidation state
equal to the s and d-electrons is exhibited by middle-order elements in each series.
Elements may show all the Oxidation states in between the minimum and maximum

Answer the following questions:

(i) Name the element in 3d series which exhibit highest oxidation state
(ii) Name two 3d series metals which don’t show variable oxidation states
(iii) Account the followings:
(a) Most of the transition elements show variable oxidation states
(b) The highest oxidation states are shown in oxides and fluorides by the
transition metals.
OR
Account the followings:
(a) Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution.
(b) The highest oxidation states are usually exhibited by the members in the middle
of a series of transition elements.

Page | 55
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER : d & f- Block Elements
Q. Key words/ Value Points Bit Total
No. Marks mark

1 (a) Sc 1 1
2 (b) Cr+3 1 1
3 (c) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded 1 1
4 (c) K2MnO4 and KMnO4 1 1
5 (a) Cr 1 1
6 (d) Presence of variable oxidation states 1 1
7 (a) +4 to +6 1 1
8 (a) IO3- 1 1
9 (a) Gd 1 1
10 (b) Lanthanide contraction 1 1
11 (b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but 1 1
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
12 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
13 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
14 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
15 (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1
16 (i) Due to more poor screening effect of 5f orbital than 4f 1 4
orbital
(ii) +3 1
(iii) The decrease in atomic and ionic size of lathanides
across the period is called Lanthanide contraction.
Consequences: 2
(a) Corresponding 4d and 5d series metals have similar size
(b) Lanthanides are difficult to separate
OR
(a) Actinides are more reactive than lanthanides as they are
radioactive in nature
(b) Actinides show wide range of oxidation states
17 (i) Mn 1
(ii) Sc, Zn 1
(iii)
(a) Due to less energy gap between ns and (n-1) orbitals
(b) As F2 and O2 are higher EN elements and stronger 2
oxidizing agents
OR
(a) As Cu+ have less –ve hydration enthalpy, it undergoes
disproportionation reaction 2
(b) As at the middle of series, elements have higher no of
unpaired electrons.

Page | 56
 CHAPTER: COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
Multiple Choice questions:
1. Which of these statements about [Co (CN)6]3- is true?
(a) It has 4 unpaired electron, high spin
(b) No unpaired electron, high spin
(c) No unpaired electron, low spin
(d) 4 unpaired electron, low spin
2. In which one of the following species does the transition metal ion have d 3
electronic configuration?
(a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (c) [CoF6]3- (d) [Fe(CN)6]3-
3. Which of the following complex will give white precipitate with barium chloride
solution?
(a) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4 (b) [Cr(NH3)SO4]Cl
(c) [Co(NH3)6]Br3 (d) Noneofthese
4. Exchange of co-ordination group by a water molecule in complex molecule
results in
(a) Ionisation isomerism (b) Ligand isomerism
(c)Hydration isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
5. Which one of the following complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (squareplanar) (b) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral)
2+
(c) [Cu(NH3)4] (squareplanar) (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral)
6. Which of the following pairs of coordination compounds or complex ions are
examples of linkage isomers?
(a) [Cu(NH3)5Br]Cl and [Cu(NH3)5Cl]Br
(b)[Fe(NH3)2(H2O)4]Cl2 and [Fe(NH3)4(H2O)2] Cl2
(c) [Fe(CO)5 NO2]- and [Fe(CO)5 (ONO)]-
(d) None of these
7. A complex with the composition [MA2B2]X2is found to have no geometrical
isomers. Both A and B are monodentate ligands. The structure of the complex is
(a) linear. (b) square planar. (c) tetrahedral. (d) octahedral.
8. Excess of silver nitrate solution is added to100ml of 0.01M Pentaaquachlorido
chromium(III) chloride solution. The mass of silver chloride obtained in grams is
[Atomicmass of silver is 108].
(a) 2 .87×10–3 (b) 143.5×103 (c)143.5×102 (d) 287×10–2
9. Which of the following compound will furnish Fe3+ ions in solution?
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3- (b) Fe2(SO4)3 (c)[Fe(CN)6]4- (d)None of these
10. Correct increasing order of wavelength of absorption in visible region for
complex of Co3+ is

Page | 57
 ASSERTION AND TREASON QUESTIONS:
The question number 15to 18 are of assertion and reasoning type questions
that consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion (A)and Reason (R).
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is false.
(d) A is false and R is true.
11. Assertion: Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic whereas Potassium ferricyanide
is paramagnetic.
Reason: Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is greater than that of
ferricyanideion.
12. Assertion: Coordination entities with d4 to d7 ions are more stable for high spin
state.
Reason: If ∆0< P, high spin state is more stable.
13. Assertion: The crystal field splitting caused by CO is larger than I- .
Reason: CO is a strong field ligand and I- is a weak field ligand.
14. Assertion: [Fe(CN)6]3-is weakly paramagnetic where as [Fe(CN)4]4- is
diamagnetic.
Reason: [Fe(CN)6]3- is an inner orbital complex where as [Fe(CN)6]4- is an
outer orbital complex.
15. Assertion: [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4is paramagnetic.
Reason: The Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.

CASE BASED QUESTION

16. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×2+2=4)
Valence bond theory considers the bonding between the metal ion and the ligands
as purely covalent. On the other hand, crystal field theory considers the metal-
ligand bond to be ionic arising from electrostatic interaction between the metal
ion and the ligands. In coordination compounds, the interaction between the
ligand and the metal ion causes the five d-orbitals to split-up. This is called crystal
field splitting and the energy difference between the two sets of energy level is
called crystal field splitting energy. The crystal field splitting energy (Δ o) depends
upon the nature of the ligand. The actual configuration of complexes is divided by
the relative values of Δo and P (pairing energy)
If Δo < P, then complex will be high spin.
If Δo > P, then complex will be low spin.
(i). If CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4− is 18,000 cm−1. Then what will be CFSE for
tetrahedral [CoCl4]2−
(ii) Using crystal field theory, calculate magnetic moment of central metal ion of
[FeF6]4-.
(iii) On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of d 4 in
two situations: (i) Δo > P and (ii) Δo< P
OR
Discuss the crystal field splitting in an octahedral field.
Page | 58
17. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×2+2=4)
To explain bonding in coordination compounds various theories were proposed.
One of the important theory was valence bond theory. According to that, the
central metal ion in the complex makes available a number of empty orbitals for
the formation of coordination bonds with suitable ligands. The appropriate atomic
orbitals of the metal hybridise to give a set of equivalent orbitals of definite
geometry. The d-orbitals involved in the hybridisation may be either inner d-
orbitals i.e., (n - 1) d or outer d-orbitals i.e., nd. For example, C O3+ forms both
inner orbital and outer orbital complexes, with ammonia it forms
[Co(NH3)6]3+ and with fluorine it forms [CoF6]3- complex ion.
(i) Co2+ is easily oxidized to Co3+ in presence of a strong ligand. Give reason
(ii) CO is a stronger complexing reagent than NH3. Give reason
(iii) Compare the following complexes with respect to structural shapes of units,
magnetic behaviour and hybrid orbitals involved in units : [Co(NH3)6]+3,
[Cr(NH3)6]3+
OR
Compare the following complexes’ with respect to structural shapes of units,
magnetic behaviour and hybrid orbitals involved in units :
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2- (b) [NiCl4]2-

Page | 59
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER: COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
Q. Key words/ Value Points Bit Total
No. Marks mark
1 (c) No unpaired electron, low spin 1 1
2 (a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ 1 1
3 (a) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4 1 1
4 (c) Hydration isomerism 1 1
5 (a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (squareplanar) 1 1
6 (c) [Fe(CO)5 NO2]- and [Fe(CO)5 (ONO)]- 1 1
7 (c) tetrahedral. 1 1
8 (a) 2 .87×10–3 1 1
9 (b) Fe2(SO4)3 1 1
10 (d) 1 1
11 (c) A is true and R is false. 1 1
12 (d) A is false and R is true. 1 1
13 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A
14 (c) A is true and R is false. 1 1
15 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A
16 (i) The relationship between the crystal field stabilization 1 4
energies for octahedral and tetrahedral field is Δt =
4/9 Δo. = 4/9 x 18000 = 8000cm-1. 1
(ii) For [FeF6]4−, Magnetic moment (µ) = {n(n+2)}1/2
= {4(4+2)}1/2 = 4.90BM
(iii) When Δo < P, it is weak field and high spin situation. 2
As a result one electron entered in eg orbital and 3
electrons in t2g.
If Δo>P, then the fourth electron will go
to t2g orbital, the electronic configuration will be t 2g4
eg0.
OR
Crystal field splitting: It is the splitting of the
degenerate energy levels due to the presence of
ligands. When ligand approaches a transition metal
ion, the degenerate d-orbitals split into two sets, one
with lower energy and the other with higher energy.
This is known as crystal field splitting and the
difference between the lower energy set and higher
energy set is known as crystal field splitting energy

Page | 60
 (CFSE)

17 (i) Because in the presence of strong ligands, the crystal 1

field splitting energy is more than the energy required to 1
oxidise Co2+.
(ii) This is due to the formation of π – bond by back
donation of electrons from metal to carbon of CO or due 2
to synergic bonding.
(iii)[Co(NH3)6]+3 → Octahedral shape,
d2sp3 hybridisation, diamagnetic
Formation of [Co(NH3)6]+3 → oxidation state of Co is +3.

OR

(i) [Ni(CN)4]2-

Page | 61
 CHAPTER: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
1. Which of the following compounds would be hydrolyzed most easily?
(a) C2H5Br (b) CH3Br (c) CH2=CH-Br (d) CH2=CH-CH2Br.

2. The reaction is
(a)Nucleophilic addition (b) Electrophilic additionwh
(c)Electrophilic substitution (d) Free radical addition.
3. The reaction described below is

(a) E2 (b) SN1 (c) S0N (d) SN2.

4. In bimolecular nucleophilic substitution, alkyl halides undergo hydrolysis through
the formation of a transition state. The reactivity of the alkyl halides is in the order:
(a) 10 > 20 > 30 (b) 30 > 20 > 10 (c) 20 > 10 > 30 (d) 30 = 10 > 20
5. The relative order of reactivity of F-, C1-, Br- and I- is:
(a) F- > C1- > Br > I- in non-polar solvent (b) F- < C1- < Br < I- in polar solvent
- - -
(c) F < C1 < Br < I in non-polar solvent (d) F- > C1- > Br > I- in polar solvent
6. n-Propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces
(a). Propane (b). Propene (c). Propyne (d).Propanol
7. SN1 reaction on optically active substrates mainly gives
(a) Racemic mixture (b) No product
(c) Retention of configuration (d) Inversion in configuration
8. Anti-Markownikoff addition of HBr is not observed in
(a) Propene (b) 1-Butene (c) 2-Butene (d) 2-Pentene.
9. Toulene reacts with chlorine in the presence of light to give
(a)Benzoyal chloride (b) Benzyl chloride
(c) p-chloro toluene (d) Mixture of o and p- chlorotoluene
10. In order to prepare fluorbenzene from benzene diazonium chloride which of the
following diazonium is used?
(a) Fluorine (b) HF (c) Hydrofluorosilicic acid (d) Fluroboric acid
11. When halo alkanes with 𝛽 −hydrogen atoms are boiled with an alcoholic solution of
KOH , they undergo the elimination of hydrogen halide resulting in the formation of
alkenes. These reactions are called 𝛽 −elimination reactions or dehydrohalogenation
reactions. These reactions follow saytzeff’s rule. Substitution and elimination
reactions often compete with each. Other mostly bases behave as nucleophiles and
therefore can engage in substitution or elimination reactions depending upon the
alkyl halide and the reaction conditions.

Page | 62
 Answer the following questions:
(a) Which of the following is the correct method for synthesising methyl?
tert-butyl ether and why?
(i)(CH3)3CBr+NaOCH3→
(ii)CH3Br +NaO-tert-butyl→

(b) What will be the major product in the following reaction?

(c) Consider the following reaction:

Identify(X) and (Y)

OR
Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of 2,2,3-
trimethyl-3-bromopentane with sodium ethoxide in ethanol?

CASE-BASED QUESTION:
12. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes. The low reactivity of haloarenes can
be attributed to
-resonance effect
-sp2 hybridisation of C-X bond
-polarity of C-X bond -
instability of phenyl cation (formed by self-ionisatself-ionizatione)
-repulsion between the electron-rich attacking nucleophiles and electron ricelectron-
rich Reactivity of haloarenes can be increased or decreased by the presence of
certain groups at certain positions, for example, nitro (-NO2) group at o/p positions
increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
The following questions are multiple-choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer:
(a) Why halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction as
compared to alkyl halides?
(b) Arrange the following aryl halides in the order of their reactive towards
nucleophilic substitutions?
(c) Aryl halide has less dipole moment than cyclohexyl chloride.
(d) Out of chlorobenzene and fluoro benzene which is more reactive towards ARSN
reaction.
OR
What happens when chloro benzene reacts with NaOH solution at 623K and 300atm
pressure?
In these questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given, Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Page | 63
 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but the reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is a correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

13. Assertion: Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1,4-dibromobenzene as

the major product.
Reason: In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more
dominant than the mesomeric effect in directing the incoming
electrophile.

14. Assertion: P-Dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than o-dichlorobenzene.

Reason: Stronger the van der waal’s forces of attraction, higher is the melting
point.

15. Assertion: SN1 mechanism is facilitated by polar protic solvents like water, alcohol,
ect.
Reason: C6H5CH(C6H5) Br is less reactive than C6H5CH(CH3) Br in SN1 reaction.

16. Assertion: Benzyl chloride is more reactive than p-chlorotoluene towards aqueous
NaOH.
Reason: The C-Cl bond in benzyl chloride is more polar than C-Cl bond in p-
Chlorotoluene.

17. Assertion: Lower members of alkyl halides are colourless gases.

Reason: Alkyl iodides in general turn black on exposure to air and light.

Page | 64
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Q. Key words/ Value Points Bit Total
No. Marks mark
1 (d) CH2=CH-CH2Br. 1 1
2 (b) Electrophilic additionwh 1 1
1
3 (d) SN 1 1
0 0 0
4 (b) 3 > 2 > 1 1 1
5 (a, b) 1 1
6 (b) Propene 1 1
7 (a) Racemic mixture 1 1
8 (c) 2-Butene 1 1
9 (a) Benzoyal chloride 1 1
10 (a) Fluorine 1 1
11 (a)(i) As tert halide prefers elimination 1 4
(ii) primary gives substitution i.e ether as product.2 1
(b) 2- Methyl but-2-ene. 1
(c) But-2-ene as major 1
But-1-ene as minor.
OR
2,3,3- Trimethyl but-1-ene due to the absence of B-
hydrogen single product.
2
12 a. due to partial double bond character/resonance. 1 1
b. D>C>B>A
c. in aryl halide halogen attached to sp2 hybridsed
carbon.
d. fluro benzene more reactive bcoz more acidic
character in ortho hydrogen which prefers benzyne
mechanism.
OR
i.e DOWS PROCESS / PHENOL.

13 (c) Assertion is a correct statement but reason is wrong 1 1

statement.
14 (b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but 1 1
the reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
15 (c) Assertion is a correct statement but reason is wrong 1 1
statement.
16 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and 1 1
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
17 (c) Assertion is a correct statement but reason is wrong 1 1
statement.

Page | 65
 ALCOHOL, PHENOL &ETHER
SECTION-A
1 The major product obtained on interaction of phenol with NaOH and CO2 is 1
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Phthalic acid
2 Oxidation of alcohol to aldehyde can be done by 1
(a) Treatment with LiAlH4 (b) Treatment with NaBH4
(c) Treatment with LiBH4 (d) Treatment with PCC
3 Benzene to biphenyl can be prepared by following step 1
(a) first chlorination then Fittig reaction
(b) first Wurtz reaction then chlorination
(c) first chlorination then nitration
(d) Wurtz reaction only
* Competency based questions of Reasoning type
4 Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide 1
solution in water?
(a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) (CH3)3COH (d) C2H5OH
* Competency based questions of analysis type
5 Which one is less acidic than phenol? 1
(a) ethanol (b) o-nitrophenol
(c) o-methylphenol (d) o-methoxyphenol
6 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point. 1
Propan-l-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1 –ol, pentan-l-ol
(a) Propan-1 -ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1 -ol, pentan-l-ol
(b) Propan-1 -ol, butan-1 -ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1 -ol
(c) Pentan-1 -ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1 -ol, propan-1 -ol
(d) Pentan-1 -ol, butan-1 -ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1 –ol
*Competency based questions of analysis type
7 Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reactions with which one 1
among the followings?
(a) Cl2/water (b) Na (c) Neutral FeCl3 (d) All of these
8 What happens when benzene diazonium chloride is heated with water? 1
(a)Phenol (b)Chloro benzene
(c)Aniline (d)benzyl alcohol
9 The correct order of dehydration of alcohol is 1
(a) 10>20>30
(b) 20>10>30
(c) 20>30>10
(d) 30>20>10
10 The major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-methylcyclohexanol 1
is:
(a) 1-methylcyclohexane
(b) 1-methylcyclohexene
(c) 1-cyclohexylmethanol
(d)1-methylenecyclohexane

Page | 66
 SECTION-B
11 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion (A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable
molecular mass.
Reason (R): Ethers are polar in nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
12 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion (A): Ethanol is a weaker acid than phenol.
Reason (R): Sodium ethoxide may be prepared by the reaction of
ethanol with aqueous NaOH..
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion (A): Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 – tribromophenol on treatment with
Br2 in water .
Reason (R): Bromine polarises in carbon disulphide.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion (A): Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetrahedral
angle.
Reason (R): There is a repulsion between the two bulky (—R) groups.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion (A): tert-butyl methyl ether on treatment with HI at 373K gives a
mixture of methanol and tert-butyl iodide.
Reason (R): The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Page | 67
 SECTION-C
16 An efficient, aerobic catalytic system for the transformation of alcohols into 4
carbonyl compounds under mild conditions, copper-based catalyst has been
discovered. This copper-based catalytic system utilizes oxygen or air as the
ultimate, stoichiometric oxidant, producing water as the only by-product

A wide range of primary, secondary, allylic, and benzylic alcohols can be

smoothly oxidized to the corresponding aldehydes or ketones in good to
excellent yields. Air can be conveniently used instead of oxygen without
affecting the efficiency of the process. However, the use of air requires
slightly longer reaction times.
This process is not only economically viable and applicable to large-scale
reactions, but it is also environmentally friendly.
Answer the following questions:

a. What is the role of Copper catalyst in the above study? Justify it with any
examples.
b. Comparing But-3-en-2-ol and But-2-en-2-ol which one is secondary
allylic alcohol
c. X the carbonyl compound formed when ethanol gets oxidised using this
copper based catalyst which can also be prepared by ozonolysis of Y, Find
out X and Y. Write it’s respective reaction.
Or
An organic compound X with molecular formula C3H8O on reaction with
copper based catalyst gives ‘Y’, which reduces tollen’s reagent. Find out X
and Y .Write it’s respective reaction.

SECTION-D
17 An alcohol A(C4H10O) on oxidation with acidified potassium dichromate gives 5
carboxylic acid B (C4H8O2). Compound A when dehydrated with conc. H2SO4
gives compound D(C4H10O) which is an isomer of A. Compound D is resistant to
oxidation but compound A can be easily oxidised.
(a) Identify A and B.
(b) How to distinguish A and B by any chemical test?
(c) what will be the product if C will undergo ozonolysis reaction
(d) Which type of isomerism exhibited by A and D?
(e) Write down the reactions involved from A to D?

Page | 68
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
MARKING SCHEME 1
SECTION-A
1 (c) Salicylic acid 1
2 d) Treatment with PCC 1
3 (a) first chlorination then Fittig reaction 1
4 (a) Phenol being more acidic reacts with sodium hydroxide solution in water 1
to give sodium phenoxide which is resonance stabilized.
Alcohols are very weak acids.
C6H5OH + NaOH -> C6H5ONa + H2O
5 (b) In o-nitrophenol, nitro group is present at ortho position. Presence of 1
electron withdrawing group at ortho position increases the acidic strength.
On the other hand, in o-methylphenol and in o-methoxyphenol and in o-
methoxyphenol, electron releasing group (-CH3-OCH3)
6 (a) Boiling point increases with increase in molecular ma ss of the alcohols. 1
Among isomeric alcohols 1° alcohols have higher boiling points than 2°
alcohols. Thus, correct order is:
Propan-l-ol < butan-2-ol < butan-l-ol < pentan-l-ol.
7 (c) Phenol gives a violet coloured complex with FeCl3. Ethanol does not 1
give these reactions.
8 (a)Phenol 1
9 (d) 30>20>10
10 (b)1-methylcyclohexene According to Saytzeff rule i.e highly substituted 1
alkene is major product. Here dehydration reaction takes place, alkene is
formed due to the removal of a water molecule.
SECTION-B
11 b Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. A and R 1
are two different statements about ethers The correct reason is that
hydrogen bonding does not exist amongst ether molecules
12 c. A is true but R is false.Phenol is stronger acid than ethanol as phenoxide 1
ion is stabilised by resonance where as no stabilisation occurs in ethoxide
ion.sodium ethoxide can be prepared by reaction of ethanol with sodium

13 c. A is true but R is false 1

14 d. A is false but R is true,bond angle in ether is slightly greater than 1
tetrahedral angle
15 c. A is true but R is false. 1

SECTION-C
16 a. Oxidation,Any relevant example. ½,
b. But-3-en-2-ol ½
c. X-acetaldehyde and Y-but-2-ene 1
1+
1
Or
Page | 69
 X-Propanol ,Y-propanal

SECTION-D
17 1+
1+
1+
a. 1+
b. Carboxylic acid produces a brisk effervesce when reacted with it, whereas 1
Alcohols do not produce anything when reacted with Sodium bicarbonate.
c.Acetone and formaldehyde
d.Position isomerism
e.

Page | 70
 CHAPTER: ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACID
(I)MCQ TYPE
1. Heating a mixture of sodium benzoate and soda lime gives
(a) calcium benzoate (b) benzene
(c) sodium benzoate (d) methane
2 Formaldehyde on heating with conc. KOH, gives:
(a) Methyl alcohol (b) Ethylformate (c) Methane (d) Acetylene
3 Reduction of benzoyl chloride with Pd and BaSO4 produces:
(a) Benzoyl cyanide (b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Benzoic acid (d) None of these
4 Which of the following does not give red ppt with Fehling solution:
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formalin (c) D glucose (d) Acetone
5 In Etard’s reaction, toluene is oxidized to benzaldehyde using:
(a) H2O2 (b) Cl2 (c) CrO2Cl2 (d) KMnO4
6 Methyl ketones are usually characterized by:
(a) Silver mirror test (b) Schiff test (c) Iodoform test (d) Benedict test
7 Which will not give acetamide on reaction with ammonia:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Acetic anhydride (d) Methyl propionate
8. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by

(c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO

9. Identify the compound ‘C’ in the following reaction.

(a) Methyl ethanoate (b) methyl propanoate

(c) methyl formate (d) methyl methanoate
10.

Structure of ‘A’ and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.
(a) Prop–1–en–2–ol, metamerism
(b) Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism
(c) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism
(d) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism
(II) ASSERTION-REASON TYPE
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) .
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Page | 71
1. Assertion (A): Compounds containing -CHO group are easily oxidized to
corresponding carboxylic acids.
Reason(R): Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment
with LiAlH4.
2. Assertion (A): Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
Reason (R): It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
3. Assertion (A): C6H5MgBr reacts with CO2 and forms benzoic acid.
Reason(R): CO2 acts as an electrophile in the reaction.
4. Assertion (A): the pka value of acetic acid is lower than that of phenol.
Reason(R): phenoxide is more resonance stabilized than carboxylate ion.
5. Assertion (A): acetic acid does not undergo haloform reaction
Reason(R): acetic acid has no α-hydrogen atom.
(III) SOURCE BASED QUESTION
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:(1+1+2)
An organic compound (A) has molecular formula C 5 H 10 O  . It doesn’t reduce
Tollen’s reagent but forms an orange precipitate with 2, 4–DNP reagent. It forms a
carboxylic acid (B) with molecular formula C3 H 6 O 2  when treated with alkaline
KMnO 4 . Compound ‘A’ also give yellow precipitate on treatment with NaOH and
I2 under vigorous conditions. On oxidation ‘A’ gives ethanoic acid and propanoic
acid. Sodium salt of (B) gave a hydrocarbon (C) in Kolbe’s Electrolytic reduction.
Answer the following questions:
i. What is Tollen’s reagent?
ii. Identify the yellow precipitate formed when compound ‘A’reacts with NaOH
and I2.
iii. Identify A, B and C and write the reaction involved when A converted into
B.
OR
Name the product formed when compound ‘A’ reacts with 2, 4–DNP reagent
and identify the functional isomer of ‘A’ which can reduce Tollen’s reagent.
(IV) CASE BASED QUESTION
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:(1+1+2)
Aldehydes and ketones are highly reactive compounds. Since both these classes of
organic compounds have the same functional group. i.e., polarized carbonyl group,
they show a number of common reactions. However, the presence of a H-atom on
the carbonyl group of aldehydes make them much more reactive than ketones. At
the same time, this H-atom is responsible for many reactions in which aldehydes
differ from ketones. The carbonyl group undergoes nucleophilic addition reactions
due to electronegativity difference between carbon and oxygen atoms. Aldehydes
and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide(HCN) to yield cyanohydrins. Further
aldehydes and ketons having atleast on α-H atom in the presence of dilute alkali as
a catalyst form β-hydroxy aldehyde (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketones (ketol). This
reaction is known as aldol condensation. Aldehydes which do not have an
α-hydrogen undergo disproportionation reaction in the presence of concentrated
alkali giving a mixture of alcohol and salt of carboxylic acid. This reaction is called
Cannizzaro’s reaction. Cannizzaro’s reaction involves a hydride ion shift from the
carbonyl carbon that is attacked by the base to another carbonyl carbon. Since, there

Page | 72
 is no hydrogen attached to the carbonyl carbon in a ketone therefore therefore it
does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Answer the following questions:
i. Aldehydes are more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions than
ketones. Why?
ii. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of the property given
in the bracket.
Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert-butyl ketone, tert-butyl methyl ketone
(reactivity towards HCN)
iii. Write the products formed when propanal reacts with 2-methylpropanal in
presence of NaOH.
OR
a) Complete the reaction:
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
HCHO ∆
b) Alkenes (>C=C<) and carbonyl compounds (>C=0), both contain a π bond but
alkenes show electrophilic reactions whereas carbonyl compounds show
nucleophilic addition reactions. Explain.

****

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 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER: ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACID
Qn. Answers
No.
MCQ TYPE
1 b) benzene
2 a)Methyl alcohol
3 b) Benzaldehyde
4 b) Formalin
5 c) CrO2Cl2
6 c) Iodoform test
7 d) Methyl propionate
8 d) CH3CHO
9 a)Methyl ethanoate
10 d) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE
1 b)
2 a)
3 a)
4 c)
5 c)
SOURCE BASED QUESTION
i. Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
ii. CHI3
iii. A= CH3(CO)CH2CH2CH3
B= CH3CH2COOH
C= CH3CH2CH2CH3

OR

Page | 74
 Any isomer of CH3(CO)CH2CH2CH3 containing –CHO group.
CASE BASED QUESTION

i. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic

addition reactions due to steric and electronic reasons. Sterically, the
presence of two relatively large substituents in ketones hinders the
approach of nucleophile to carbonyl carbon than in aldehydes having only
one such substituent.
ii. Di-tert-butyl ketone < Methyl tert-butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde

iii.

OR
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
a) HCHO CH3OH + HCOONa
∆

b) In alkenes the double bond joins two carbon atoms and there is no resultant
polarity while in carbonyl compounds
reactions due to the polarity in the carbonyl bond that makes them vulnerable to a nucle
ophile, an atom that donates electrons.

Page | 75
 CHAPTER : AMINES
Multiple choice questions:
1. Methylamine reacts with HNO2 to form .
(a) CH3—O—N==O (b) CH3—O—CH3
(c) CH3OH (d) CH3CHO
2. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation:
C6H5CH2NH2 + R—X → C6H5CH2NHR
Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this reaction through S N1
mechanism?
(a) CH3Br (b) C6H5Br (c) C6H5CH2Br (d) C2H5 Br
3. Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl
nitro compound to an amine?
(a) H2(excess)/Pt (b) LiAlH4 in ether
(c) Fe and HCl (d) Sn and HCl
0
4. In order to prepare a 1 amine from an alkyl halide with simultaneous addition of
one CH2 group in the carbon chain, the reagent used as source of nitrogen is
.
(a) Sodium amide, NaNH2 (b) Sodium azide, NaN3
(c) Potassium cyanide, KCN (d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4 (CO)2 N – K+
5. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is .
(a) Sodium azide, NaN3 (b) Sodium nitrite, NaNO2
(c) Potassium cyanide, KCN (d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4 (CO)2 N – K+
6. Amongst the given set of reactants, the most appropriate for preparing 2° amine is
(a) 20 R—Br + NH3
(b) 20 R—Br + NaCN followed by H2 /Pt
(c) 10 R—NH2 + RCHO followed by H2 /Pt
(d) 10 R—Br (2 mol) + potassium phthalimide followed by H3O+/heat
7. The best reagent for converting 2–phenylpropanamide into 2-phenylpropanamine is
.
(a) Excess H2 (b) Br2 in aqueous NaOH
(c) Iodine in the presence of red phosphorus (d) LiAlH4 in ether
8. Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is shown by .
(a) ArNH2 (b) ArCONH2
(c) ArNO2 (d) ArCH2NH2
9. Best method for preparing primary amines from alkyl halides without changing the
number of carbon atoms in the chain is
(a) Hoffmann Bromamide reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Sandmeyer reaction (d) Reaction with NH3
10. Which of the following compound will not undergo azo coupling reaction with
benzene diazonium chloride.
(a) Aniline (b) Phenol
(c) Anisole (d) Nitrobenzene

ASSERTION-REASONING BASED QUESTIONS.

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Page | 76
 (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: Acylation of amines gives a monosubstituted product whereas alkylation
of amines gives polysubstituted product.
Reason: Acyl group sterically hinders the approach of further acyl groups
2. Assertion: Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction is given by primary amines.
Reason: Primary amines are more basic than secondary amines.
3. Assertion: N, N-Diethylbenzene sulphonamide is insoluble in alkali.
Reason: Sulphonyl group attached to nitrogen atom is strong electron
withdrawing group.
4. Assertion: Only a small amount of HCl is required in the reduction of nitro
compounds with iron scrap and HCl in the presence of steam.
Reason: FeCl2 formed gets hydrolysed to release HCl during the reaction.
5. Assertion: Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.
Reason: Acetylation of aniline results in decrease of electron density on nitrogen.
SOURCE BASED & CASE BASED QUESTION.
PASSAGE: (SOURCE BASED)
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
1. The lower aliphatic amines are gases with fishy odour. Primary amines with three
or more carbon atoms are liquid and still higher ones are solid. Aniline and other aryl
amines are usually colourless but get coloured on storage due to atmospheric
oxidation. Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water because they can form
hydrogen bonds with water molecules. However, solubility decreases with increase
in molar mass of amines due to increase in size of the hydrophobic alkyl part. Higher
amines are essentially insoluble in water. Considering the electronegativity of
nitrogen of amine and oxygen of alcohol as 3.0 and 3.5 respectively, you can predict
the pattern of solubility of amines and alcohols in water. Amines are soluble in
organic solvents like alcohol, ether and benzene. You may remember that alcohols
are more polar than amines and form stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonds than
amines.
(a) Out of butan-1-ol and butan-1-amine, which will be more soluble in water and
why?
(b) Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling point.
(Ethanoic acid, ethanamine, ethanol)
(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of solubility in water.
(Aniline, ethanamine, N-ethylethanamine)
(d) Why do primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines?
PASSAGE: (CASE BASED)
2. Amines are usually formed from nitro compounds, halides, amides, imides, etc. They
exhibit hydrogen bonding which influence their physical properties. In alkylamines,
a combination of electron releasing, steric and H-bonding factors influence the
stability of the substituted ammonium cations in protic polar solvents and thus affect
the basic nature of amines. Alkyl amines are found to be stronger bases thanammonia.
In aromatic amines, electron releasing and withdrawing groups, respectively increase
and decrease their basic character. Aniline is a weaker base thanammonia. Reactions
of amines are governed by availability of the unshared pair of
Page | 77
electrons on nitrogen. Influence of the number of hydrogen atoms at nitrogen atom on
the type of reactions and nature of products is responsible for identification and
distinction between primary, secondary and tertiary amines. p-Toluenesulphonyl
chloride is used for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Presence of amino group in aromatic ring enhances reactivity of the aromatic amines.
Reactivity of aromatic amines can be controlled by acylation process, i.e.,by treating
with acetyl chloride or acetic anhydride. Tertiary amines like trimethylamine are used
as insect attractants.
(a) Arrange the following in decreasing order of the pKb values:
C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2
(b) Arrange the following In increasing order of basic strength:
Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine
(c) Arrange the following in the decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase:
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N and NH3
(d) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strength in aqueous
solution.
C2H5NH2, NH3, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C6H5NH2.
CH3NH2, NH3, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, C6H5NH2.

Page | 78
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER: AMINES.
TYPES
(R),
Value Points
QSTN (U),(A),
NO (H),(E)
1 (c) CH3OH A
2 (c) C6H5CH2Br A
3 (b) LiAlH4 in ether A
4 (c) Potassium cyanide, KCN A
– +
5 (d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4 (CO)2 N K E
0
6 (c) 1 R—NH2 + RCHO followed by H2 /Pt E
7 (d) LiAlH4 in ether A
8 (b) ArCONH2 E
9 (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis E
10 (d) Nitrobenzene E
ASSERTION-REASONING BASED QUESTIONS.
1 (c)A is true but R is false. A
2 (c)A is true but R is false. A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
3 of A. A
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
4 A. A
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
5 A. A
1 SOURCE BASED
Butan-1-ol, Alcohol forms stronger hydrogen bonds with
water than formed by amine due to higher electronegativity of
1 O in alcohol than N in amine A
2 Ethanamine < ethanol< ethanoic acid A
3 Aniline< N-ethylethanamine< Etanamine A
Primary amines are associated with intermolecular H-bonding
4 whereas tertiary amines are not. A
2 CASE BASED QUESTION
1 C6H5NH2> C6H5NHCH3> C2H5NH2>(C2H5)2NH A
2 p-nitroaniline< Aniline < p-toluidine A
3 (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 >NH3 A
(i)C6H5NH2<NH3<C2H5NH2<(C2H5)3N< (C2H5)2NH
4 (ii)C6H5NH2<NH3<(CH3)3N <CH3NH2<(CH3)2NH A

Page | 79
 CHAPTER: BIOMOLECULES
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct
answer.
1. In cellulose, D-glucose units are joined by
(a) α-1, 4 glycosidic linkage (b) β-1, 6 glycosidic linkage
(c) β-1, 4 glycosidic linkage (d) peptide linkage
2. Amino acids generally exist in the form of Zwitter ions. This means they contain
(a) Basic – NH2 group and acidic – COOH group
(b) The basic – NH3 group and acidic – COO– group
(c) Basic -NH2 and acidic – H+ group
(d) Basic – COO– group and acidic – (NH3) + group
3. Denaturation of protein leads to loss of its biological activity by
(a) formation of amino acids
(b) loss of primary structure
(c) loss of both primary and secondary structure
(d) loss of both secondary and tertiary structures

4. Secondary structure of protein refers to

(a) sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chain
(b) bonds between alternate polypeptide chains
(c) folding patterns of polypeptide chain
(d) bonding between NH3+ and COO– of two peptides

5. Sucrose (cane sugar) is a disaccharide. One molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis

gives .
(a) 2 molecules of glucose
(b)2 molecules of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
(c) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
(d) 2 molecules of fructose
6. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(a) It is an aldohexose. (b) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane.
(c) It is present in furanose form. (d) It does not give 2,4-DNP test.
7.α-D-(+)Glucose and β-D-(+) Glucose are
(a) Anomers (b) Epimers
(c) Enantiomers (d) Geometrical Isomers
8. The main structural feature of protein is:
(a) the easter linkage (b) the ether linkage
(c) the peptide linkage (d) the glycosidic linkage
9. A vitamin which plays vital role in coagulating property of blood is
(a) vitamin A (b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B (d) vitamin K

Page | 80
10.Which of the following statements about Enzymes is incorrect?
(a) The catalytic action of enzymes is not specific.
(b) The enzymetic reaction is highly sensitive to temperature
(c) The catalytic action of enzymes is due to its capacity to lower the energy
of activation of a particular reaction.
(d) None of the above.
Assertion and Reasoning Type
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion(A): DNA is responsible for transmission of inherent characters from one

generation to next.
Reason (R): Nucleic acid is responsible for protein synthesis in a cell.
2. Assertion(A): Fibrous protein is a fibre-liked structure formed by polypeptide
chain.
Reason (R): It is usually soluble in water.
3. Assertion (A): The two strands of DNA are complementary to each other
Reason (R): Adenine specifically forms hydrogen bonds with Guanine whereas
Cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with Thymine
4. Assertion (A): α- amino acids exist as dipolar ions or zwitter ions
Reason (R): α- amino acids are the building blocks of protein
5. Assertion(A): In presence of enzyme, substrate molecule can be attacked
by the reagent effectively.
Reason(R): Active sites of enzymes hold the substrate molecule in a suitable
position.

SOURCE/CASE BASED QUESTIONS:

1. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy-carrying molecule found in the cells of
all living things. ATP captures chemical energy obtained from the breakdown of food
molecules and releases it to fuel other cellular processes. ATP is a nucleotide that
consists of three main structures: the nitrogenous base, adenine; the sugar, ribose;
and a chain of three phosphate groups bound to ribose. The phosphate tail of ATP is
the actual power source which the cell taps. Available energy is contained in the
bonds between the phosphates and is released when they are broken, which occurs
through the addition of a water molecule (a process called hydrolysis). Usually only
the outer phosphate is removed from ATP to yield energy; when this occurs ATP is
converted to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), the form of the nucleotide having only
Page | 81
 two phosphates. The importance of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) as the main source
of chemical energy in living matter and its involvement in cellular processes has long
been recognized. The primary mechanism whereby higher organisms, including
humans, generate ATP is through mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation. For the
majority of organs, the main metabolic fuel is glucose, which in the presence of
oxygen undergoes complete combustion to CO2 and H2O:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 -6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
The free energy (ΔG) liberated in this exergonic (ΔG is negative) reaction is partially
trapped as ATP in two consecutive processes: glycolysis (cytosol) and oxidative
phosphorylation (mitochondria). The first produces 2 mol of ATP per mol of glucose,
and the second 36 mol of ATP per mol of glucose. Thus, oxidative phosphorylation
yields 17-18 times as much useful energy in the form of ATP as can be obtained from
the same amount of glucose by glycolysis alone. The efficiency of glucose
metabolism is the ratio of amount of energy produced when 1 mol of glucose oxidised
in cell to the enthalpy of combustion of glucose. The energy lost in the process is in
the form of heat. This heat is responsible for keeping us warm.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What type of process is cellular oxidation?
(b) What does ATP molecule consist of ?
(c) What is the efficiency of glucose metabolism if 1 mole of glucose gives 38ATP
energy?(Given: The enthalpy of combustion of glucose is 686 kcal, 1ATP= 7.3kcal)
OR
Explain the term “Energy Currency”. Which substance acts as energy currency in
plants and animals?
2. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones and in addition to that, those
compounds which on hydrolysis give such compounds are also carbohydrates. The
carbohydrates which are not hydrolysed are called monosaccharides.
Monosaccharides with aldehyde group are called aldose and those with free ketonic
group are called ketose. Carbohydrates are optically active. The number of optical
isomers = 2n, where n= number of asymmetric carbons or chiral carbons.
Carbohydrates are mainly synthesized by plants during photosynthesis. The
monosaccharides give the characteristic reactions of alcohols and carbonyl group
(Aldehyde and Ketones). It has been found that these monosaccharides exist in the
form of cyclic structures. In cyclization, the –OH group (generally C-5 or C-4 in
aldohexoses and C-5 or C-6 in ketohexoses) combine with the aldehyde or keto
group. As a result, cyclic structures of five of six membered rings containing one
oxygen atom are formed, e.g, glucose forms a ring structure. Glucose contains one
aldehyde group, one primary alcoholic group and four secondary alcoholic groups in
its open structure.
(a) Name the first member of Ketose sugar?
(b) What are monosaccharides?
(c) Predict the number of optical isomers in
CH2(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CHO ?
OR
Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain
structure?
Page | 82
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
CHAPTER: BIOMOLECULES
Q.No. Value Points Marks
Alloted
MULTIPLE CHOCE QUESTIONS:
1. (c) β-1, 4 glycosidic linkage 1
2. (d) Basic – COO– group and acidic – NH3 group 1
3. (d) loss of both secondary and tertiary structures 1
4. (c) folding patterns of polypeptide chain 1
5. (c) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose 1
6. (c) It is present in furanose form. 1
7. (a) Anomers 1
8. (c) the peptide linkage 1
9. (d) vitamin K 1
10. (a) The catalytic action of enzymes is not specific 1
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation 1
of A.
2. (c) A is true but R is false. 1
3. (c) A is true but R is false. 1
4. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation 1
of A.
5. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
SOURCE/CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
1. (a) spontaneous and exothermic process 1
(b) ATP is a nucleotide which contains a chain of three 1
phosphate groups bound to ribose sugar.
(c) Glucose catabolism yields a TOTAL of 38 ATP. 2
38 ATP x 7.3 kcal/mol ATP = 262 kcal.
Glucose has 686 kcal.
Thus the efficiency of glucose metabolism is 262/686 x 100 =
38%.)
OR
The term energy currency refers to that molecule which
provide energy for cellular activities. ATP is termed as energy
currency because energy is present in the form of high energy
bonds of ATP.
2. (a) Ketotriose 1
(b)Carbohydrates which cannot be further hydrolysed 1
(c) 24 =16 2
OR
(i) Despite having an aldehyde group, glucose doesnot give
Schiff’s Test and it doesnot react with sodium bisulphite and
ammonia.
(ii) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with with
hydroxylamine

Page | 83
SUPPORT MATERIAL
CLASS-XII
BIOLOGY
MODEL SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS

SESSION
2023-24
BIOLOGY

LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL,

CUTTACK

Page 1 of 49
 L.R. D.A.V PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK
(2023-2024)
 Check that this question paper contains 6printed pages only.
 Write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.
 15 minutes cooling time has been allotted to read this question paper only and do
not write any answer on the answer book during this period.

CLASS - XII
BIOLOGY(THEORY)
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks
each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based
questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION –A
1. Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD?
(a) Lippes loop (b) Cu7 (c) LNG-20 (d) Multiload 375
2. Infertility due to low sperm count in ejaculates could be corrected by
(a) ZIFT (b) AI (c) GIFT (d) IUT
3.The most evolved among the following is
(a)Homo erectus (b)Homo habilis (c)Ramapithecus (d)Australopithecines
4.Which of the following organisms belong to cretaceous period?
(a) Ferns (b) Ginkgos (c) cycads (d) Bryophytes
5. Addiction to alcohol leads to
(a) Emphysema (b) Cancer (c) Cirrhosis (d) Jaundice
6. If a quick immune response is needed as in tetanus infection, preformed antibodies or
antitoxin is injected into the patient body. This type of immunization is
A) Active immunization B)Passive immunization
C) Innate immunization D)Humoral immunity
7. Which of the following microbe is used for ripening of Swiss cheese?
(A) Penicillium roquefortii (B) P. camembertii
(C) Propionibacterium sharmanii (D) Streptomyces griseus
8. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not used?
(a) Lysozyme (b) Ribonuclease
(c) Deoxyribonuclease (d) Protease
Page 2 of 49
9.Amensalism is an association between two species where [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) both the species are harmed.

10. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be
the status of the population after some years?
(a) It will decline (b) It will stabilise
(c) It will increase (d) It will first decline and then stabilise

11. Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a
given habitat?

(a) Natality > mortality (b) Immigration > emigration

(c) Mortality and emigration (d) Natality and immigration
12. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks and sanctuaries?
(a) Pug marks only (b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only (d) Actual head counts

In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
13.Assertion: Rawolfia vomitoria do not possess genetic variation
Reason: It contains same concentration of reserpine in different habitats.
14.Assertion: Law of dominance can be explained in hybrid condition.
Reason: It contains both dominant and recessive alleles.
15. Assertion: ‘Cry’ proteins are named so because they are crystal proteins.
Reason: In acidic environment of insect midgut ‘Cry’ proteins are solubilized and
then release toxic core fragments after proteolytic action.
16. Assertion: Mother’s milk provides protection to new borns.
Reason: Colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has IgD
type antibodies.

SECTION-B
Page 3 of 49
17. Hormone releasing IUDs act as contraceptives? Explain.
OR
What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives?
18. The parasites have evolved special adaptations to survive in the body of host
organisms. List any four such adaptations.
19.Enlist the causes and mention the karyotypes of the individuals suffering from the following
genetic disorders
(i) Downs syndrome
(ii) Turners syndrome
20.Bring out two points of difference between standing state and standing crop.
21. (i) List the responsibilities assigned to GEAC.
(ii) Mention any two benefits derived from transgenic animals.
SECTION-C
22. (a) What is “Evil Quartet” ?
(b) Differentiate between the two important approaches to conserve biodiversity.
OR
Put forward the three hypotheses that account for greater biodiversity in tropical regions than
temperate regions.

23. Explain the steps for artificial hybridization in case of

(i) female parent with bisexual flowers
(ii) female parent with unisexual flowers
24. (i)While creation and presence of variation is directionless natural selection
is directional as it is in the context of adaptation. Comment.
(ii) Name any two mammals that lived in south America before continental drift.
25.Define BOD. How do the level of BOD is reduced significantly during biological treatment
of sewage? Mention the function of anaerobic sludge digestors during secondary treatment.
26. (i) Mention the objective of Hershey and Chase experiment
(ii) Explain the first two steps of this experiment.
27. Put together the steps involved in gene therapy .
28. Observe the diagram of sectional view of seminiferous tubule (enlarged) and answer the
question that follow.
Page 4 of 49
Diagram

(a)Mention the ploidy level ofprimary and secondary spermatocytes.

(b)Explain the two processes spermiogenesis and spermiation.
SECTION-D
29. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is the ribosome.With reference to
the diagram given below answer the following questions.
Diagram

Page 5 of 49
 (a) Explain the structural feature in ribosome that brings the amino acids close enough to
form peptide bonds.
(b) Define translational unit in mRNA.
(c) Write the meaning of UTRs. Mention their significance.
OR
Mention the role of mRNA during initiation and elongation steps of translation.
30.Answer the following questions based on the diagram of life cycle of AIDS virus.

(a)Write the chemical nature of the coat A.

(b) Mention the name of the host cell D the HIV attacks first, when it enters into the human
body
(c)Name the enzyme B acting on X to produce molecule C. Name C.

OR
(c)Name the two different cells the new viruses E subsequently attack.

SECTION-E
31. (i) From where the parturition signals arise, mother or foetus? Explain the
neuroendocrine mechanism involved in parturition.
(ii) During reproduction chromosome number(2n) reduces to half (n) in the
gametes and again the original number(2n) is restored in the offspring.
What are the processes through which these events take place? Explain.
(iii) What is the difference between a primary oocyte and a secondary
oocyte?
OR
(a) Fill in the following labels with the type of cell function.

Page 6 of 49
(b) (i) Identify the figure given below

(ii) Name the initial cell from which this structure has developed.
(iii) Draw the next mature stage and label the parts.
32.(a)population studies are required for understanding ABO blood grouping. Comment.
(b) Blood group AB is an example of codominance. Justify.
(c)What is thallssemia?α- Thalassemia is different from β- Thalassemia. Justify
OR
Analyse the three types of members in honey bee population and explain the sex determination
mechanism in them.
33.Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow.

(a)Why have the DNA fragments in band ‘D’ moved farther away in comparison to those in
band ‘C’ ?
(ii) Identify the anode end in the diagram.
(iii) How are these DNA fragments visualised.
(b)Why do the” CRY” proteins kill the insect and not the bacteria itself? (c)How does dsRNA
gain entry into eukaryotic cell to cause RNA
interference?
OR
Eli Lilly, an American company, produced insulin by recombinant DNA technology.Explain.

ANNEXURE-C
DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHAZONE
SUBJECT- BIOLOGY, CLASS-XII
MARKING SCHEME,2022-23
Q NO Value Point Marks page no of
Allotted NCERT
book
1 SECTION-A 1
(c) LNG 20
2 b. AI 1

Page 7 of 49
3 ( a)Homo erectus 1

4 ( b) Ginkos 1

5 (c) cirrhosis 1
6 b. passive immunisation 1
7 c. Propiniobacterium sharmanii 1
8 a.lysozyme 1
9 b.one is harmed other is unaffected 1
10 c. it will increase 1
11 c. mortality and emigration 1
12 b. pug mark and faecal pellets 1
13 D 1
14 A 1
15 C 1
16 A 1
17 SECTION- B

Hormone releasing IUDs (progestasert, LNG-(a) inhibit 1x2

ovulation.
(b) make the cervix unreceptive to sperms.
(c) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation. (ANY
TWO) 1x2

OR:
Oral contraceptives or pills contain either progestogens or
progesterone-oestrogen combinations. They function as
contraceptives by

 inhibiting ovulation.
 inhibiting implantation.
 altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent the
motility of sperms in female reproductive tract.(ANY
TWO)

18 -loss of unnecessary sense organs 0.5x4

-presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling
onto the host
-loss of digestive system
- high reproductive capacity
19 (I ) cause-trisomy of chromosome no. 21, 45+xx 0.5 x4
or 45+xy = 47

(ii) cause- additional copy of X chromosome

45+xxy = 47

20 1x2=2
Standing state Standing crop
Page 8 of 49
 a. It refers to the a.It refers to the
amount of amount of living
nutrients such material in a trophic
as carbon, level at a particular
nitrogen, time.
phosphorus,
calcium, etc b.It is in the biotic
present in the components
soil at any
given time.
b. It is in the
abiotic
components
21 (I) -To make decisions regarding the validity of GM 0.5x4
research.
-To check the safety of introducing GM
organisms for public services.
(ii) Medicines are prepared from transgenic animals.
- transgenic animals are used to test vaccine safety
before use in humans.

Page 9 of 49
 SECTION-C
It is the sobriquet used to describe the four major causes of 1
biodiversity losses
22 (b)
In situ conservation Ex situ conservation 1x2
1.protection of 1.hreatened animals
endangered species and plants are taken
in their natural from their natural
habitat habitat and placed in
special setting for
protection and
special care
2. National parks, 2.Botanical gardens,
biosphere reserves, zoological parks,
wild life sanctuaries wildlife safari parks
etc. serve this serve this purpose.
purpose

OR 1x3
c)- Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively
more constant and predictable that promote niche
specialization and greater species diversity
23 -Availability of more solar energy in tropics contributes to
higher productivity
-Tropical latitudes remain undisturbed for millions of 0.5x6=3
years leading to species diversification whereas
temperate regions are subjected to frequent glaciations
in the past
24 (i)
- Emasculation and bagging 2
- pollination
- rebagging 0.5x2
(ii)
- Bagging
1x3
25
- pollination
- rebagging

(i) Directionless- they occur randomly and spontaneously

Natural selection is directional—as it leads to only
one path that is natural selection and perpatuation
of better adapted individuals 1
26
(ii) horse ,hippopotamus,rabbit, bear (any two)
1x2

0.5x2=1

Page 10 of 49
27 Definition of BOD:The amount of oxygen that would be 1x3
consumed if all the organic matter in 1 liter of water were
oxidized by bacteria
Flocs growing in aeration tank consume major part of
organic matter in the effluent reducing BOD significantly.
28
- Digestion of aerobic bacteria and fungi 0.5x2
- Production of biogas (any one)
(i)To prove that DNA is the genetic material. 1x2
(ii)1.Infection – Radioactive phages were allowed to
attach to E.coli bacteria
2. Blending – The viral coats were removed from the
bacteria by agitating them in a blender
-Lymphocytes from blood of the patient are grown in a
29 culture
-introduction of functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral 1
vector) into lymphocytes collected from patient’s blood.
-introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes back
1
into patient’s blood
(i) primary spermatocytes- 2n 2
Secondary spermatocytes- n
(ii) spermiogenesis- The process in which spermatids are
transformed into spermatozoa
Spermiation- The process in which sperm heads
becameembedded in the sertoli cells and are finally
released from seminiferous tubule. It occurs after 2
spermiogenesis.
30
1+1+2

Section D
29.(a) The presence of two sites (P-site and A-site) in the
large ribosomal subunit, for subsequent amino acids to
bind to and thus be close enough to each other for the
2
31
formation of peptide bond.
(b) It is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start
codon and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
(c) These are the untranslated regions which are present at 1+2+2
both 5’-end (before start codon) and at 3’ – end(after stop
codon)
-They are required for efficient translation process.
OR
(C)Iitiation - Ribosome binds to them RNA at the start
codon 0.5x5
Elongation- Ribosome moves from codon to codon along
the mRNA 1
0.5

1
Page 11 of 49
 (a) A – Protein coat
(b) D – Macrophages (animal or human cell)
(c) B – Reverse transcriptase, A-viral RNA, C –
Viral DNA

OR
32
(c) E – Macrophages and helper T
1

SECTION-E
(i)From both 1
Explanation-Stimulatory reflex between uterine
contraction and oxytocin secretion. (1+2)
(ii)Meiosis-explanation
fertilization-explanation

OR
(a) X-Meiosis (reduction division); A – Mitosis; B-
Mitosis; C –Mitosis; D- Cell recognized as polar nuclei,
antipodals and egg apparatus.

(b.)(i) It is globular embryo of a dicot plant.

(ii) Zygote
(iii) Diagram of heart shaped embryo

1+2+2
33

1x5

.(a)Since diploid individual has 2 alleles

and blood group is controlled by 3 alleles,
hence population studies are required.
(b)AB Blood group- both dominant alleles are equally
. expressed.
(c)It is an autosome – linked recessive blood disease 1x5
transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the
partners are unaffected carrier for the gene or
Page 12 of 49
heterozygous. It results in the reduced rate of synthesis of
one of the globing change that from hemoglobin.
α- Thalassemia Β- Thalassemia
-It is under the -It is controlled by a
control of two single gene HBB on
genes HBA1 and chromosome 11.
HbA2 on -The synthesis of β
chromosome 16. chain is impaired. 0.5x2
-The synthesis of α
chain is impaired. 1x2

1
OR
-Haplodiploid sex determination mechanism 1
-Male drone(haploid) – developes from unfertilized egg by
parthenogenesis
-Female worker and queen bee(diploid) – developes from
0.5x4
union of sperm and egg.
(a) DNA fragments in band ‘D’ are smaller than those of
band ‘C’.
The DNA fragments separate according to their size
through the sieving effect provided by the gel. Hence 1x2
small fragments move farther away from the larger ones.
1
(b)End towards B
(c) The gel containing DNA fragments are stained with
ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiations, orange
coloured bands of DNA became visible. 1
(d) “CRY” protein exists as inactive protoxin in bacteria
However,in insects it becomes active toxin due to presence
of alkaline(pH) medium in the gut, causes lysis ,pores and 0.5x4=2
kills insect.
( e) through transposons or infection by viruses with RNA 1x3=3
genome
OR
Steps involved in insulin production by Eli Lilly company
are as follows

 DNA sequences corresponding to the two

polypeptide, A and B-chains of insulin were 1x5
synthesised in vitro.
 They were introduced into plasmid DNA of E. coli.
 This bacterium was cloned under suitable conditions.
 The transgene was expressed in the form of
polypeptides A and B, secreted into the medium.
 They were extracted and combined by creating
disulphide bridge to form human insulin.

Page 13 of 49
Page 14 of 49
 LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK
(2023-24)

 Check that this question paper contains 8printed pages .

 Set number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page
of the answer book by the candidate .
 Check that this question paper contains 33 questions
 Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before attempting
it.
 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be
distributed 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the examination. The students will read
the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer script during this period.
CLASS -XII

SUB: BIOLOGY(THEORY)
Time Allowed: 3Hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has
7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E
has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student
has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn

SECTION A

1. The couple could be assisted to have children through special techniques called ARTs. IVF is one of the
techniques and is useful under which condition(s)?
(a) Woman's fallopian tubes are blocked.
(b) Man produces very few sperms.
(c) Woman produces very few ova.
(d) Both a and b.
2. Match column I with column II.
Column-I Column-II
P-Copper T (i) Permanent method
Q-Vasectomy (ii) Temporary method
R-Pills (iii) Intrauterine method
S-Condom (iv) Hormone method.

Page 15 of 49
(a) (P - iii) (Q - ii) (R - iv) (S - i)
(b) (P - iii) (Q - i) (R - iv) (S - ii)
(c) (P - iii) (Q - ii) (R - iv) (S - i)
(d) (P - ii) (Q - iii) (R - iv) (S - i)

3.The negatively charged DNA coils around the positively charged histone proteins to form the following
structure.

How many nucleosomes are likely to be present in a human cell?

(a)6.6 x 109

(b)3.3 x 109

(c)6.6 x 107

(d)3.3 x 107

4. Select the correct statement from the theories of evolution.

(a) Lamarck theory – Struggle for existence
(b) Darwin theory – Use and disuse of organ
(c) Biogenetic law – Recapitulation theory
(d) Lamarck theory – Theory of continuity of germplasm
5. Rohan has suffered from Chicken pox in the early childhood. The type of immunity developed in his body is
(a) Active acquired immunity
(b) Passive acquired immunity
(c) a& b both
(d) None
6.

The source plant for the drug given in the figure is

(a)Atropabelladona
(b) Erythroxylum coca
(c)Cannabis sativa
(d)Papaversomniferum
Page 16 of 49
7. Sewage treatment plant includes many specific tanks for physical and biological treatment of Sewage in a
sequence. Mention in which tank flocs are sedimented and formed respectively?
(a) Settling tank, Aeration tank

(b) Aeration tank, Effluent tank

(c) Aeration tank, settling tank
(d) Effluent tank, anaerobic tank

8. Recombinant DNA technology processes have made immense impact in the area of healthcare by producing
safe and effective drugs. Thefirst biochemical to be produced in 1983 commercially by microbial cloning
and genetic engineering is

(a) Interferon
(b) Penicillin
(c) Human insulin
(d) Fertility factors
9. Match column I with column II
Column – I Column – II
1. Mutualism (p) Barnacles
2. Competition (q) Tiger
3. Predation (r) Mites
4. Parasitism (s) Sea anemone

(a) (1-s), (2-r), (3-p) (4-q)

(b) (1-r), (2-s), (3-q) (4-p)

(c) (1-s), (2-p), (3-q) (4-r)

(d) (1-q), (2-r), (3-s) (4-p)

10. “Spiny lizard” absorbs water from the atmosphere. Choose the statement from below which has
appropriate similar functional aspect.
(a) Tongue of Human
(b) Hygroscopic roots of orchid
(c) Roots of plants
(d) None of these
11. Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety
of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants.Which of the
following eco-system has highest annual primary productivity?
(a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Tropical Rain forest
(c) Temperate deciduous forest
(d) Temperate Ever green forest

12. In our biosphere immense diversity exists not only at the species level but at levels of biological
organization ranging from macromolecules within the cells to biomes. Select the type of biodiversity with
respect to different ecosystems in a geographical area.
(a) diversity
(b) diversity
Page 17 of 49
 (c) diversity
(d) diversity
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
13.Assertion: Pollen grains can act as fossils.
Reason: The exine is made up of sporopollenin which is highly resistant.
14.Assertion: There is parallelism between the behavior of chromosome and Mendelian factors.
Reason: Genes are located on chromosomes.
15.Assertion: Transgenic animals are produced by incorporation of foreign gene into the nucleus of fertilized
egg.
Reason: Transgenic animals don’t produce desirable characters.
16.

Assertion: The type and shape of age pyramid is not related to the Pre-reproductive and reproductive
group.
Reason: Population pyramid is expanding when it has maximum pre-reproductive individuals.
SECTION B
17. a. Mention A,B,C,D from the following diagram.

18. Draw the structure of tRNA for initiator amino acid and mention its anticodon.
OR
Calculate the length of DNA if it contains 300 Adenine and 200 Guanine residues.

Page 18 of 49
19.

(a) Label the parts A, B and C.

(b) Which cells produce these chemicals?
20. Name the first transgenic cow. Why the milk produced by it is preferred for human babies in
comparison to normal cow’s milk?
21. Explain why the flow of energy at different levels in an ecosystem is unidirectional and non-
cyclic.
SECTION C
22. Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions:

a. Write the location of P.

b. Name and write the function of Q.
c. Write the name of the fluid secreted by T and mention its role.
23. Draw a labeled diagram of mature embryo sac & label the following:
i) Egg cell ii) Antipodal cells iii) Synergids iv) Polar nuclei

24. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

a. According to A V Humboldt what does the above graph

represent? Mention any 2 points.
b. What is the range of ‘z’ value regardless of the taxonomic group or the region?
c. what is the z value for frugivorous birds and mammals?
Page 19 of 49
 d. When would be the slope of the line become steeper?
25. Which law states that the sum of allelic frequencies in a population is constant? List the five factors
that influence the law.
26. A heavily bleeding bruised road accident victim was brought to a nursing home. The doctor immediately
gave him an injection to protect him against a deadly disease.
(a)What did the doctor inject into the patient’s body?
(b)How do you think this injection would protect the patient against the disease?
(c)Name the kind of immunity provided by the injection.
OR

Mention any three causes of drug abuse. Suggest some measures for the prevention and control of
drug abuse.

27. (a) A mixture of fragmented DNA was electrophorised in an Agarose gel stained with Ethidium bromide,
no DNA bands were observed after completion of electrophoresis under UV transilluminator. What
could be the reasons?

(b) A plasmid DNA and linear DNA (both of the same size) have one site for restriction endonuclease.
When cut and then separated on Agarose gel electrophoresis, plasmid shows one band whereas linear
DNA shows two DNA fragments. Explain.
28. a.A tall pea plant with yellow seeds (heterozygous for both the traits) is crossed with a dwarf pea plant
with green seeds. Using a Punnett square work out the cross to show the phenotypes and the
genotypes of F1 generation.
b.Mention the type of cross and write its significance
SECTION D

Q.no. 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29.

a. Write the genotype and mention the causes of klinefelter’s syndrome.

b. Diagrammatically represent the point mutation resulting in sickle cell anemia.

c. Mention the alternate name of Down’s syndrome.

Page 20 of 49
 OR

Write the genotype of an individual who is not suffering from Haemophilia but can transmit the
disease to their progeny.

30.

a.Mention the name of the Pathogen and the vector causing the disease.

b.Write the stages of the parasite ,which are infecting human host and Mosquito host.

c.Write the name of organ and cells infected by the parasite. Mention the reason of chilling fever in
intervals during the disease.

OR

Briefly write the sexual cycle of the pathogen.

SECTION E

31. a.Draw the diagram of T.S of anther and label it .

b.Write two functions of Tapetum.

c. What is Microsporogenesis? Mention the no. of PMC present in one microsporangium, if the anther
produces 1200 pollengrains.

OR

a. Write the reason for the absence of menstrual cycles during conception or pregnancy?
Page 21 of 49
 b. Mention the names and functions of ovarian hormones.
c. Briefly mention the role of uterine hormone under the influence of which ovulation occurs.
d. Write about the formation and function of corpus luteum.
32. a. Diagrammatically represent the steps of Transcription in prokaryotes.
b.Mention the role of Promoter in transcription.
c.What is spicing?Does it occur in prokaryotes?
OR
a. Can replication initiate randomly? Why?

b. Write two roles of dNTPs in replication.

c. Mention the function of Ligase enzyme during replication of DNA.

d. Draw the replication fork and label leading, lagging strand and show the direction of Fork
progression.

33. a. Diagrammatically represent pBR322 and show the two antibiotic resistance genes, ori site and pstI
restriction site.
b. Explain with a suitable example the naming of a restriction endonuclease.
OR
a.Diagrammatically represent the steps of PCR.
b.What is insertional inactivation in RDT? Write it’s application for
screening of transformed recombinants.

LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK

(2023-24)

 Please check that this question paper contains 08 printed pages.

 Set number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer book by the candidate.
 Check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
 Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before
attempting it.
 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the examination.
The students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer script during this period.

CLASS – XII
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY (044)
Page 22 of 49
Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions : (as per the subjects)
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. The question paper consists of five questions A, B, C, D and E. Section – A contains 16 questions
(Four Assertion and reasoning type and 12 MCQ type), Section –B contains 5 questions of 2 marks
each, Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each, Section D contains 2 case based questions of 4
marks each Section E has 3 questions 5 mark each.
iii. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two
marks, one question of 3marks, in one bit of case based question 29 and 30, and all the three
question of 5 marks weight age. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
iv. Wherever necessary, the diagrams drawn should be neat and properly labeled.

SECTION-A
1 In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in 1
a. antipodal, zygote and endosperm
b. zygote, nucellus and endosperm
c. endosperm, nucellus and zygote.
d. antipodals, synergids and integusments
2 Histones are basic in nature because it is rich in ________. 1
a. lysine
b. arginine
c. methinine
d. a and b
3 Origin of replication of DNA in E. coli is shown below, Identify the labelled parts (i), 1
(ii),(iii) and (iv)

a. (i)- discontinuous synthesis , (ii)- continuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
b. (i)- continuous synthesis , (ii)- discontinuous synthesis (iii) 5’ end (iv) 3’end
c. (i)- discontinuous synthesis, (ii)- continuous synthesis (iii) 5’ end (iv) 3’end
d. (i)- continuous synthesis , (ii)- discontinuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
4 Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such 1
tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such
rejections?
a. Auto-immune response
b. Humoral immune response
c. Physiological immune response
d. Cell-mediated immune response
5 Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from 1
the statements given below.
(i) They are introduced into the uterus.
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.

Page 23 of 49
 (iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents.
a. (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iii) d. (iii) and (iv)

6 The microbes commonly used in kitchens are 1

a. Lactobacillus and yeast
b. Penicillium and yeast
c. Microspora and E.coli
d. Rhizopus and Lactobacillus
7 It is necessary to make a bacterial cell competent so as to introduce an alien DNA into it? 1
Why?
a. No, became DNA is hydrophilic
b. Yes, because DNA is hydrophobic
c. Yes, because DNA is hydrophilic
d. No, because DNA is hydrophobic
8 Introduction of an alien DNA into a plant host cell is achieved by 1
a. Competent with divalent ions
b. Using microinjections
c. Using gene gun
d. Using lysozymes and chitinase
9 ADA deficiency can permanently cured by – 1
a. Introducing bone marrow cell producing ADA at an early embryonic stage.
b. Administering adenosine deaminase activators.
c. Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA
cDNA
d. Enzyme replacement therapy.
10 Nematode specific gene were introduced into tobacco host plant using a vector 1
a. pBR322
b. plasmid
c. Bacteriophage
d. Agrobacterium
11 Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which of the following mechanisms, the 1
competing species might have evolved for co-existence and survival?
(a)Competitive exclusion
(b) Competitive release
(c) Resource partitioning
(d) Co-evolution

12 Name the following growth curve (model) and find the correct match. 1

(a) Logistic growth curve, A- exponential growth phase, B-lag phase, C- equilibrium phase
(b) Exponential growth curve, A- exponential growth phase, B-lag phase, C- equilibrium
phase
(c) Exponential growth curve A- lag phase, B- exponential growth phase, C- equilibrium
phase
Page 24 of 49
 (d) Logistic growth curve A- lag phase, B- exponential growth phase, C- equilibrium phase
13 Assertion: Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine meachanism. 1
Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases prolactin which
causes uterine contractions.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
14 Assertion: The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription located at 5’ end and 1
3’ end of transcription unit
Reason: The promoter site and the terminator site are located randomly in the genes.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
15 Assertion (A): Population pyramid (graphically) depicts the rate at which population will 1
grow in future.
Reason (R): A triangular population pyramid depicts population size is stable.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
16 Assertion (A): Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because it 1
spontaneously transfers tumour inducing gene to dicot plants.
Reason (R): A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets
autonomically transferred to be crop with which the bacterium is associated.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
SECTION-B
17 An infertile couple is advised to adopt test-tube baby programme. Describe two principal 2
procedures adopted for such technologies.
18 How are alleles of a particular gene different from each other? Explain its significance. 2
19 Differentiate between innate immunity and acquired immunity. 2
20 a) In pBR322, foreign DNA has to be introduced in tetR region from the restriction enzymes 2
given below. Which one should be used and why?
Pvu I, EcoRI, Bam HI
Give reasons, why the other two enzymes cannot be used.
21 (a) In a pond, there were 200 frogs. 40 more were born in the year. Calculate the birth rate 2
of the population.
(b) Population in terms of number is not always a necessary parameter to measure
population density. Justify with two examples.
OR
In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008
died during the year. Find the number of people present in 2015 iby using exponential
equation.
SECTION-C
22 What is apomixes? Comment on its significance. How can it be commercially used? 3
23 a. Study the table given below and identify (i) , (ii) , (iii) and (iv) 3
Amino acid Phe Val
DNA code in Gene AAA CAC
Codon in mRNA (i) (ii)
Anticodon in tRNA (iii) (iv)

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 b. A polypeptide consists of 14 different aminoacids.
i). How many base pairs must be there in the processed mRNA that codes for this
polypeptide?
ii) How many different types of tRNA are needed for the synthesis of this polypeptide?
24 How can Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium be affected? Explain, any three reasons. 3
25 Name the type of lymphoid organs, lymph nodes and thymus. Explain the role played by 3
them in causing immune response.
26 a. List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how 3
they were used.
b. Expand ‘YAC’ and mention what it was used for.
27 Highlight the structural importance of an antibody molecule with a diagram. Name the four 3
types of antibodies found to give a humoral immune response, mentioning the functions of
two of them you have studied.
28 a. Differentiate between Ex-situ and In-situ conservation. 3
b. What is the impact of alien species invasion?
OR
In a botanical garden of a city there is a huge banyan tree growing on which hundreds of
birds and thousands of insects live. Draw the pyramids of numbers and also biomass
represented by this community. Comment giving reasons on the two different pyramids
drawn.
SECTION-D
29 Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: 4
If in a population of size 'N', the birth rate is represented as 'b' and the death rate as 'd', the
increase or decrease in 'N' during a unit time period 't' will be:
dN/dt = (b-d) x N.
The equation given above can also be represented as
dN/dt = rx N, where r = (b -d).
(a) In a pond there are 100 frogs. 20 more were born in a year. Calculate the birth rate of
this population.
(b) What type of growth is described by the equation given above? Mention when such a
growth pattern occurs in a population.
(c) Is this growth pattern realistic? Justify your answer.

OR
What does 'r' represent in the above? Write any one significance of calculating 'r' for any
population
30 Read the following and answer any four questions from 15(i) to 15(iii) given below. 4
Turner’s syndrome is an example of monosomy. It is formed by the union of an allosome
free egg and a normal ‘X’ containing sperm or a normal egg and an allosome free sperm.
The individual has 2n = 45 chromosomes (44+XO) instead of 46. Such individuals are
sterile female who have rudimentary ovaries, underdeveloped breasts, small uterus, short
stature, webbed neck and abnormal intelligence. They may not menstruate or ovulate
.Individuals with Turner’s syndrome have deficiency of FSH and Oestrogen secretion. This
disorder can be treated by giving female sex hormone to the women from age of puberty to
make them develop breasts and have menstruation. This makes them feel more normal.
(i) How many Barr bodies are there in a person having the Karyotype 44+XXYY?
(ii) Name a human genetic disorder due to the followings:
(a) An additional X-chromosome in a male

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 (a) An additional 21 st-chromosome in a female
(iii) What is aneuploidy and polyploidy? Give at least one of each.
OR
What are the mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused? Expain briefly.
SECTION-E
31 a. Explain the following phases in the menstrual cycle of a human female: 5
i. Menstrual cycle
ii. Follicular phase
iii. Luteal phase
b. A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. Do
you agree with the statement? Provide reason for your answer.

OR
a. When does the process of spermatogenesis begin in human males? Describe the process
of spermatogenesis.
b. Explain the role of gonadotropin in this process.
32 a. State the cause and symptoms of Down’s syndrome. Name and explain the event 5
responsible for causing this syndrome.
b. Haemophilia and thalassemia are both examples of Mendelian disorders, but show
differences in their inheritance pattern. Explain how.
OR
a. Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and terminator on the basis of the
hypothetical template strand given below:

b. Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with its
polarity.
c. Mention two events in which DNA is unzipped.
d. Predict the consequences when both the template and the coding strands of a DNA
segment participate in transcription process?
33 a) How do DNA fragments migrate and resolve in Gel electrophoresis? 5
b) How is lane one different from lane 2, 3 and 4 in the Gel electrophoresis set up?

c) How are pure DNA fragments made observable in the visible light?

OR
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to form multiple copies of a specific DNA
fragment. Study the following figure and answer the questions that follow it.

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 (a) Name the steps A, B and C. Give the purpose of these steps.

(b) Why Taq polymerase is used in PCR? What is the source of this enzyme?

(c) What is a primer? Why primers needed in this process?

SETNO-

RollNo. Candidates must write the Set No.on

the title page of the answer book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 10 printed pages.

 Set number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be written on the title
page of the answer book by the candidate.
 Check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
 Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before
attempting it.
 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper.The question paper will be
distributed 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the examination.The students will read the
question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer script during this period.

(2023-24)

CLASS-XII

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 SUB:BIOLOGY(044)
TimeAllowed:3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
GeneralInstructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section-C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section-D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice.However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions.A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION-A
1. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal
menstrual cycle? (1)
(a) Release of egg: 5th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates: 5 – 10 days
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11 – 18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level: 1 – 15 days(1)
2.Match the contraceptive methods given under column I with their examples given under
column II and select the correct option from given codes. (1)

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Hormone (i) Tubectomy and vasectomy
administration
B IUDS (ii) Implants
C Barrier (iii) Multiload 375
D Surgical techniques (iv) Spermicidal jelly and foam
(v) Coitus interrupts and
calendar method

(a) A-(iv) ,B-(ii) , C-(iii) , D-(i)

(b) A-(iv), B-(v) , C-(ii) , D-(iii)

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 (c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv) , D – (i)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv) , D-(v)(1)

3. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(1)
(b) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5′ (upstream) end of the transcription unit
(d) the 3′ (downstream) end of the transcription unit

4. Disruption selection favours (1)

a) Only one extreme form of a trait
b) Intermediate form of a trait
c) Half of only one trait
d) Both the extreme forms of a trait
5. The rate of formation of new organic matter by Rabbit in a grass land, is called
(1)

a. Net productivity
b. Secondary productivity
c. Net primaryproductivity
d. Gross productivity

6. Use of Drugs has a negative impact over the youth, it affects to various parts of the
body.Identify the part of the body that gets affected by the use of cannabinoids.
(1)
Name of the drug Part of the body
a) Smack GI track
b) Cocaine CNS
c) Morphine CNS
d) Charas cardio vascular system
7. Innate immunity is non-specific and present at the time of birth. Interferon belongs to which
type of barrier? (1)
a) Cytokine barrier
b) Cellular barrier
c) Physiological barrier
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d) Physical barrier
8. Select the microbe which is the source of ‘clot buster’ enzyme. (1)
a. Bacterium: Lactobacillus
b. Fungi:Aspergillus niger
c. Fungi:Penicillium notatum
d. Bacterium: Streptococcus.

9. The site of production of ADA in the body is (1)

a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c Blood plasma
d Osteocytes.

10. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of Bio diversity. (1)
a) Destruction of habitat.
b) Invasion by alien species.
c) Keeping animals in zoological parks.
d) Over-exploitation of natural resources.
11. Pyramid of number is (1)
(a) Always upright
(b) Always inverted
(c) Either upright or inverted
(d) Neither upright nor inverted
12.Which of the following group exhibit more species diversity (1)
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
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B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
13. Assertion: In plants, apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual
reproduction.
Reason: Apomixis involves the production of seeds without fusion of gametes.
(1)

14. Assertion: The genetic complement of an organism is called genotype.

Reason: Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of an organism. (1)

15. Assertion: The transgenic cow, Rosie could produce human alpha- lactalbumin.
Reason: This milk is nutritionally more balanced product for babies than human milk.
(1)
16. Assertion: Predators are organisms which feed on other individuals.
Reason: Prey species have evolved various defence mechanisms to lessen the impact of
predation. (1)
SECTION-B
17.The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during
various phases of menstrual cycle: (2)

(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.

(b) Specify the source of the hormone marked in the diagram.
18.A man with blood group ‘A’ married a woman with ‘B’ group. They have a son with ‘AB’
blood group and a daughter with blood group ‘O’. Work out the cross and show the possibility
of such inheritance. (2)
19. Refer to the diagram that shows the part of the life cycle of malarial parasite given below
and answer the question that follow. (2)

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(a) Mention the cells released from the mosquito body during event ‘A’ in the life cycle of the
malarial parasite.

(b) Name the site where the event ‘C’ occurs.

(c)Identify the organ ‘B’ and name the cells being released from it.

20. (2)

(a) What is the above technique known as? Identify the negative electrode.
(b) How the DNA fragments can be visualised?
21.What are the short comings of ecological pyramids in the study of ecosystem. (2)
OR

Construct a grazing food chain and detritus food chain using the following with 5 links
each: Earthworm, bird, snake, vulture, grass, grasshopper, frog and decaying plant
matter.

SECTION –C
22 . State what is apomixis. Write its significance. How can it be used commercially? (3)

23. Describe the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in human male. (3)

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24.(a)Write the specific features of genetic code AUG.
(b)Genetic code can be universal and degenerate. Write about them, giving one example each.
(c) Explain aminoacylation of tRNA. (3)
25.(a) Explain adaptive radiation with the help of a suitable example.
(b) Cite an example where more than one adaptive radiations have occurred in an isolated
geographical area. Name the type of evolution your example depicts and state why is it
named so. (3)

26.Give the diagrammatic representation of HIV infection inside the human cell.
Why HIV patients are more prone to infections? (3)
OR
(a) Explain the function of bone marrow and thymus.
(b) Mention the contents and functions of Spleen.
27. A schematic representation of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) up to the extension
stage is given below.Answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the step ‘a’.

(b)Write the role of primers in PCR.
(c) Give the characteristic feature and source organism of the DNA polymerase used in
PCR. (3)

28. The following graph shows the species-area relationship. Answer the following
questions as directed. (3)
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 (a) Name the naturalist who studied the kind of relationship shown in the graph. Write
the observations made by him.
(b) Write the situations as discovered by the ecologists when the value of 'Z' (slope of the
line) lies between (i) 0.1 and 0.2 (ii) 0.6 and 1.2.
(iii) What does 'Z' stands for?
(c) When would the slope of the line 'b' become steeper?

SECTION-D

29.Answer the questions based on the polynucleotide shown below. (4)

(a) Name the type of sugar guanine base is attached to.

(b) Name the linkage connecting the two nucleotides.

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(c) Explain how the 5’- end and 3’- end of the polynucleotide is formed.
OR
(c) (i)Where do you find glycosidic bond in a polynucleotide?
(ii)Where do you find phospho-ester bond in a polynucleotide?

30 . Study the chemical structure and answer the following questions: (4)

(a) Identify the drug from its chemical structure & mention the category to which does it
belongs.
(b) Where are the receptors of the drug present in the body?
(c) Mention it’s source and how is this drug useful in medical field?

OR
(c) Name the drug which is abused by the sports person. Mention it source. Why do they take
these drugs?

SECTION-E
31. How does the megaspore mother cell develop into 7celled8 nucleated embryo sac in an
angiosperm? Explain with the help of diagrams. (5)
OR
Given below is the diagram of a human ovum surrounded by a few sperms.Observe the
diagram and answer the following questions.

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(a)Mention the fate of sperms shown in the above diagram?
(b)What is the role of zonapellucida in the above process?
(c)Analyze the changes that occur in the ovum during the above process.
(d)Mention what helps the entry of sperm into the ovum.

(e)Specify the region of female reproductive system where the events represented in the
diagram takes place.
32. Study the diagram showing the process of translation and answer the
questions that follow: (5)

a) How many additional amino acids will be added to the growing polypeptide chain and
what would be the total number of amino acids present in that polypeptide chain after
the completion of translation?
b) Find out the codon for serine. Draw the clover-leaf model of t-RNA with the anti-codon
carrying serine.
c) Identify the stop codon from the above diagram and mention its role.
d) What is translation unit in m-RNA?

OR

Study the diagram which is a step of transcription and answer the following questions
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 a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the above diagram. Mention the role of ‘B’ in the above process.
b) What is the immediate consequence on RNAas‘x’comes out from template DNA. ‘A’ is
also associated with another molecule to initiate the process of transcription. If such
molecules are not there what will happen to the process of transcription.
(c) Transcription and translation are coupled in bacteria. Justify.
33.GMO especially Bt. Crops are known to have higher resistance to pest attacks. To
substantiate this, an experimental study was conducted in 4 different farmlands growing Bt.and
non-Bt cotton crops. The farm lands had the same dimensions,fertility and were under similar
climatic conditions. The histogram below shows the usage of pesticides on Bt crops and non-Bt
crops in these farm lands.
(5)

i) Which of the above 4 farm lands has successfully applied the concepts of
Biotechnology to show better management practices and use of agrochemicals? If
you had to cultivate,which crop would you prefer(Bt or non-Bt) and why?
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 ii) Cotton Bollworms were introduced in other experimental study on the above farm
lands where in no pesticide was used.Explain what effect would a Bt and non-Bt
crop have on the pest.

OR
Gene of interest is introduced by a cloning vector into a host cell to bring about a desired
phenotypic expression in a host cell. The cloning vectors used are plasmid and bacteriophages.
Biotechnologists are usingengineered specialised cloning vectors in their labs for desired results.
One such vector is pBR322. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.

i) What do Eco RI, Bam HI and Hind III represent ? State their functions.
ii) Identify the gene you would select for the role of a selectable marker in
pBR322. Explain why.
iii) Write the property of plasmid and bacteriophage that makes them efficient
cloning vectors.
iv) Biotechnologists always insert “ori” gene in their engineered cloning vector.
Justify the statement.
v) Will the experiment be successful if the alien DNA is ligated at Hind III
restriction site ?Give reason in support of your answer.

Page 39 of 49
 LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK
2023-24
 Check that this question paper contains 11printed pages.

 Set number given on the right hand side of the questions paper should be

written on the answer sheet by the candidate.

 Check that this question paper contain 33questions.

CLASS – XII

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY(044)
Time: 3Hours Maximum Marks:70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i)All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.All questions are
compulsory.
(iii) Section –A has 16 questions of one mark each;section-B has 5 questions two
marks each.;Section-C has 7 questions three marks each; Section-D has 2 Case-
based questions of 4 marks each;and Section-E has 3 questions Five marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice.However,internal choiceshave been provided in
some questions.A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
(v) Wherever necessary,neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION-A
Q.NO Question Marks
1 A couple came to the doctor with some complaints.The doctor advised to go 1
for MTP,because continuing of pregnancy may be harmful for mother and
child.Which period from the following is suitable to carryout MTP
(a) First trimester
(b) Second trimester
(c) Any period
(d) First trimester and with the assistance of qualified medical
personnel.
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2 Match the four categories of methods with correct processes. 1
Column-I Column-II
(i) ZIFT (p) Early embryos are
transferred tofallopian tube
(ii) ART (q) ovum collected from a
donor is transferred to
fallopian tube.
(iii) GIFT (r) embryo upto 8blastomere
is transferred to fallopian
tube
(iv) ET (s) special technique that
helps the infertile couple.
(a) (i)-(r) ,(ii)-(s),(iii)-(q),(iv)-(p)
(b) (i)-(q),(ii)-(p),(iii)-(r),(iv)-(s)
(c) (i)-(p),(ii)-(q),(iii)-(r),(iv)-(s)
(d) (i)-(q),(ii)-(r),(iii)-(s),(iv)-(p)
3 Which of the following statement is correct about the role of regulatory 1
proteins in transcription in prokaryotes?
(a) They only increase expression
(b) They only decrease expression
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the
expression.
(d) They can act both as activators and repressors.
4 Disruptive selection favours 1
(a) Only one extreme form of a trait.
(b) Both the extreme forms of a trait.
(c) Intermediate forms of a trait.
(d) None of the above.
5 Which of the following is the reason for rheumatoid arthritis.Choose the 1
correct option.
(i)The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from
self cells.
(ii) Body attacks self-cells.
(iii) More antibodies are produced in the body.
(iv)The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self
cells is lost.
(a) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
6 Which of the following drugs causes hallucinations 1
(a) Caffeine
(b) opium
(c) LSD
(d) Amphetamines.

7 Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can;
(a) Be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank. 1
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 (b) Absorb pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking to
the bottom of the settling tank.
(c) Be discarded and anaerobically digested.
(d) Absorb colloidal organic matter.
8 Loss of water in desert animals is minimized by producing nearly 1
solid urine and faeces.As the animals face acute water scarcity, they
develop two types of adaptations, reducing water loss and ability to
tolerate desert condition.
(a) Are regulators
(b) Are behavioural regulators.
(c) Possess specific adaptations suitable for their habitat.
(d) All of these.

9 At which point of the given graph shown here there bezero growth rate. 1

(a) a (b) c (c) d (d) b

10 The growth of penicillium decreases the growth of bacteria in a 1

given culture medium.What is this relationship called
(a) Amensalism
(b) Commensalism
(c) Predation
(d) Parasitism
11 Which of the following type of ecosystem is expected in an area 1
where evaporation exceeds precipitation and mean annual
rainfallis below 100mm?
(a) grassland
(b) shrubby forest
(c) desert
(d) mangrove
12 Study the given pie chart and identify the organisms that comes under a and
b. 1

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 (a) whale and chameleon
(b) cyclostomata and frog
(c) shark and snake
(d) rohu and frog.
Question no-13 to 16 consists of two statements-Assertion(A) and reason(R).Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A)is false and (R) are true.
13 Assertion-Entomophilous plants produce less pollen when compared to 1
anemophilous plants.
Reason-The wastage of pollen is reduced to the minimum in entomophilous
plants because of the directional pollination.
14 Assertion-The maximum frequency of recombination that results from 1
crossing over of linked gene is 50%.
Reason-if distance between linked genes is longer, they show higher
frequency of crossing over.
15 Assertion-: in a food chain the members of successive trophic levels are 1
fewer. Reason: number of organisms at any trophic level is independent of
the availability of organisms which serve as food at the lower level.

16 Ecology not only deals with the study of the relationship of individual 1
organisms with their environment,but also with the study of
populations, ecosystems, biomes and biosphere as a whole. Study the
figure and answer the questions.

Assertion-Prolonged intraspecific competition causes an increase in size of

the niche of a population.

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 Reason-In such a population use of the new type of resource will increase
through the generations.

SECTION-B
17 Study the graph given below and answer the questions. 2

(a) In which phase egg travels to fallopian tube?

(b) What are the uterine events that follow below 29 days if the ovum
is not fertilised?
18 (a) What is the working principle of CT scan and MRI used to 2
diagnose cancer?
(b) Why cancer patient administered α-interferon as a part of
treatment?
19 Study the figure given below and answer the questions. 2

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 (a)Identify a and b in this given diagram?
(b)Name the cells that produce this molecule.
20 (a)Identify the homologous structures from the combination given below 2
(i) Forelimb of whales and bats.
(ii) Tuber of potato and sweet potato.
(iii) Eyes of octopus and mammal.
(iv) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita.
(b)State the kind of evolution they represent.Justify.
OR
Write the Oparin and Haldane’s hypothesis about the origin of life on
earth. How does meteorite analysis favour this hypothesis?
21 Study the given figure and answer the following. 2

The given figure is the life cycle of a pathogen.

(a) Identify step-2.Write its importance here.
(b) What will happen if the enzyme for step -2 will not be available?
SECTION-C

22 Draw a longitudinal section of an anatropous ovule. label the following 3

(a) The tissue that stores nutrient.
(b) The Stalk
(c) The pathway Pollen tube reaching the ovule
(d) The cell that forms the embryo

23 Given below is the diagram of human female reproductive structure.Study 3

the diagram and answer the following questions.

(a)Define the role of B.

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 (b)Why is C important in the female reproductive system?
(c)What do E represents? What is corona radiate of an ovum?
OR
Draw a well labelled diagram of the structure of human spermatozoon.
Write the role of acrosome.
24 A red-eyed heterozygous female fruit fly is crossed with a red-eyed male. 3
Workout all possible genotypes and phenotypes of the progeny. Comment
on the pattern of inheritance of eye colour.
25 Darwin found the varieties of finches in travelling to Galapagos island and 3
observed variation in them.

(i) What role does an individual organism play as per Darwin’s

theory of natural selection.
(ii) How did Darwin explain the existence of different varieties of
finches on Galapagos islands?
(iii) What is “fitness of an individual” according to Darwin?

26 Study the figure given below and answer the followings 3

(i) Name the group of organisms which constitute “flocs”.

(ii) Write their influence in the level of BOD during biological treatment of
sewage.
(iii) What is the role of activated sludge in the aeration tank?
27 (a)”Stability of a community depends on its species richness” Write how 3
David Tillman showed it experimentally.
(b) Biodiversity decreases as one moves from equator towards poles.
Justify with an example.
28 3

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 (a) Identify A and B. Illustrations in the following.
(b) Write the term given to A and C and Why?
(c) Expand PCR.Mention its importance in biotechnology
SECTION-D
29 Based on the figure below answer the following questions 4

(i) What are stem cells?

(ii)What is the source of these cells?
(iii) How are these cells used for therapy?
OR
(iii)Explain gene therapy?
30 4

The above image shows the process of protein synthesis.Study the figure
and answer the following questions.
(a)Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and terminator on
the basis of hypothetical template strand given below.
3’ ATGCATGCATAC 5’
(b)Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along
with its polarity.
(c) Mention two events in which DNA is unzipped.
OR
Predict the consequence when both the template and the coding strands of a
DNA segment participate in transcription process?
SECTION-E
31 (a)Draw the sectional view of seminiferous tubule of human.label any six 5
parts.
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 (b) Name the pituitary hormones involved in the process of
spermatogenesis.
OR
Trace the developmental changes in the development of female gametophyte
to form a complete mature embryo sac.
Draw a diagram of mature dicot embryo and label any four parts
32 Study the given figure and answer the question 5

(a) Step wise represent sequence annotation used as a methodology in

HGP.
(b) What is SNPs? Mention any one information they provide.
(c) Mention any two non-human model organism whose genome have
been sequenced.
(i) Fungi
(ii) Free living non-pathogenic nematode.
OR

(a) Identify principle shown in the above graph.

(b) How the genetic equilibrium is maintained? Express with the help
of a equation.
(c) “Large number of individuals acquire peripheral character value at
both theends” Draw a curve and identify it.
(d) Name any two factors that affect the equilibrium.

33 Study the figure of PBR322 and answer the followings 5

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 (i) Identify a,b,c,d in the given figure.
(ii) Write the role of rop in the given figure.
(iii) Name and explain the role of a selectable marker in the vector
shown.
(iv) What are the disadvantage of presence of more number of
cloning site in a cloning vector?
OR

Study the figure and answer the following.

(a) What is the vector used for introducing nematode specific genes
into the host?
(b) Name the nematode that reduces the production of tobacco.
(c) How can be the process of translation prevented as shown in the
above figure.
(d) What is silencing of m-RNA?

END ********

Page 49 of 49
LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL
CUTTACK

SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS-XII
MATHEMATICS(041)
SESSION-(2023-2024)
 SAMPLE PAPER-1
CLASS: XII
SUB: MATHEMATICS (041)
Time Allowed: 3Hours Maximum Marks: 80
SECTION-A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each question carries 1 mark
1. If Matrix A= [ ] is defined by

{ , then the number of elements in A which are greater than 5 is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

2. If A = * + and is the identity matrix,then is equal to

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2

3. If | ⃗ ⃗⃗| | ⃗ ⃗⃗| and | ⃗| , then | ⃗⃗| is equal to

(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 12

4. If ( ) { is continuous at , then the value of k is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) e

5. ∫ is equal to
(a) log( ) (b) elog( )
(c) log( ) (d) None of these
⁄
6. Order of the differential equation ( ) is
(a) (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) not defined
7. The graph of the inequality 2x+3y > 6 is
(a) half plane that contains the origin
(b) half plane that neither contains the origin nor the points of the line 2x+3y =6
(c) whole XY-plane excluding the points on the line 2x+3y = 6
(d) entire XOY plane
8. If ⃗ is a non zero vector, then the value of |⃗⃗ ̂| |⃗⃗ ̂| |⃗⃗ ̂ | is
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0

9. ∫ ( ) is equal to
 ( )∫ ( ) (b) ∫ ( ) (c)∫ ( ) (d) ∫ ( )
𝑝
10. If [ ] and | | , Then the value of p is
𝑝
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d) 5
11. The corner points of the shaded unbounded feasible region of an LPP are (0, 4), (0.6, 1.6)
and (3, 0) as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the objectivefunction
Z = 4x + 6y occurs at

(a) (0.6, 1.6) 𝑜𝑛𝑙𝑦 (b) (3, 0) only (c) (0.6, 1.6) and (3, 0) only
(d) at every point of the line-segment joining the points (0.6, 1.6) and (3, 0)
12. If A and B are square matrices of same order 3, | |=2 and AB=2I,find | |
(a) 1 (b)2 (c)4 (d)8

13. If the matrix A=[ ] is singular, then the value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

14. If A and B are two independent events with P(A)= ( ) 𝑝 and P(A B)= ,then the
value of ‘p’ is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. The general solution of the differential equation, is
(a) y= (b) y = c (c) = c𝑦 (d) y = c
16. If y= ,Then in terms of y alone is
(a) cosy (b) secy (c) – (d) tany
17. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is
(a)√ (b) √ (c)1 (d) 0
18. The vector equation for the line passing through the points (–1, 0, 2) and (3, 4, 6) is:
(a) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ( ̂ ̂ ̂)
 (b) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ( ̂ ̂ ̂)

(c) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ( ̂ ̂ ̂)

(d) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ( ̂ ̂ ̂)
ASSERTION – REASON BASED QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
19. Assertion (A):Maximum value of ( 𝑜 ) is
Reason (R): Range of principal value branch of * +
20. Assertion (A): The straight lines and are parallel.
Reason (R): Skew lines are lines in different planes which are neither parallel nor
intersecting.
SECTION-B
(This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each)
21. Find the domain of the function ( )?
OR
Let the mapping , where the set of natural numbers be defined by

( ) { for . Then state whether is injective, surjective or both.

22. A balloon which always remains spherical on inflation is being inflated by pumping in 900
cubic centimeters of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon
increases, when the radius is 15cm.
23. Find the area of the parallelogram if the two diagonal vectors are ( iˆ  ˆj  kˆ ) and ( iˆ  ˆj  kˆ )
OR
Find the distance of the point ( 2,4, 5) from the line = =
1 1 dy y
24. If x  a sin t , y  a cos t
, then show that 
dx x
25. Find λ, when projection of ⃗ = ̂ + ̂ + ̂ on ⃗⃗ = 2 ̂ + 6 ̂ + ̂ is 4 units
SECTION-C
(This section comprises of short answer type-questions (SA) of 3 marks each)
26. ∫
√
27. A coach is training 3 players. He observes that the player A can hit a target 4 times in 5
shots, player B can hit 3 times in 4 shots and the player C can hit 2 times in 3 shots. If hitting
the target by A, B, C are independent. Find the probability that
 (i) at least one can hit the target (ii) none of them can hit the target.
OR
Three numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from first six
positive integers. If X denotes the largest of the three numbers obtained, find the
probability distribution of X .

28. Evaluate: ∫
OR
Evaluate ∫ | |

29. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ( 𝑦 ) 𝑦

Solve the differential equation ( 𝑛 𝑦) ( ) 𝑦

30. Solve the following linear programming problem (L.P.P) graphically.
Maximize: Z=40 𝑦
Subject to the constraints
3 𝑦 , 𝑦 8, 𝑦
31. ∫(√ 𝑜 √ 𝑛 )

( ( ) )
32. Find the area of the triangle bounded by the lines y = 3 +1, y = 2 +1 and =4 using
integration.
33. Prove that the relation R on the set Z – {0}, defined as R = {( , ) ∶ is ‘a power of 5’} is an
equivalence relation
Or
Consider [ ) 𝑛 𝑦 ( ) Show that f is both one-one and
onto

34. Show that the lines = = and = = intersect, find their point of
intersection.
OR
Find the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P(1, 6, 3) to the line .
Also find the image of P in the given line.

35. If A= [ ] find and hence solve the system of linear equations

2y =10, 2 y z = 8, 2y+z = 7
36. Case – Study 1:

The relation between the height of the plant (y in cm) with respect to exposure to sunlight is
governed by the following equation 𝑦 , where x is the number of days exposed
to the sunlight.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i) Find the rate of growth of plant with respect to sunlight.
(ii) Find the number of days it will take for the plant to grow to the maximum height.
(iii) If the height of the plant is cm, then find the number of days it has been taken to
exposed to the sunlight.
OR
Find the maximum height of the plant.
37.Case – Study 2:

A cycle racer in the morning is cycling in a free cycling track and sometimes moving zig-
zag. It is found that the path traced by the cyclist is given by the curve
( ) ( )( ) . If at any part of time cyclist is at point ( ).
 Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i) Find the value of at which the function attains it’s maximum or minimum value?
(ii)Find the local maximum value of ( )?
(iii) Find the interval(s) for which ( ) is increasing?
OR
Find the interval(s) for which ( ) is decreasing?
38.Case – Study 3:
Mahindra Tractors is the India’s leading farm equipment manufacturer. It is the largest
tractor selling factory in the world.
Mahindra factory has two machines A and B. Past record shows that machine A produced
60% and machine B produced 40% of the output (tractors). Further 2% of the tractors
produced by machine A and 1% produced by machine B were defective. All the tractors are
put into one big godown and one tractor is chosen at random.

Based on the above information answer the following questions:

(i) Find the total probability of chosen tractor at random is defective.
(ii) If in random choosing, chosen tractor is defective, then find the probability that the
chosen tractor is produced by machine A.
 SAMPLE PAPER-2
CLASS- XII
SUB: MATHEMATICS (041)
Time Allowed – 3 Hours Maximum Marks – 80
General instructions:
1. This question paper contains five sections – A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory. However, there are
internal choices in some questions.
2. Section - A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion - Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section - B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA) – type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section - C has 6 Short Answer (SA) – type questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section - D has 4 Long Answer (LA) – type questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section - E has 3 Source Based/ Case Based/ Passage Based/Integrated Units of Assessment
(4 marks each) with sub parts.
SECTION – A
(Each Question carries 1 mark)
1. If A, B are symmetric matrices of same order, then (AB – BA) is a
(a) skew-symmetric matrix
(b) symmetric matrix
(c) zero matrix
(d) identity matrix
2, If A is a square matrix of order 3, such that A(adj A) = 5I, then |adj(adjA)| is equal to
(a) 125 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 625
3. If a  10 , b  2 and a . b =12, then the value of a  b is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 16
 2 cos x  1 
 , if x 
4. The value of ‘k’ for which the function f  x    cot x  1 4 is continuous at x   is
k  4
, if x 
 4
1
(a) 0 (b) (c) 1 (d) 1
2
1
5. If f   x   x 2  2 , then f  x  is
x
2
x x2 1
(a)  log | x 2 |  c (b)   c
2 3 x
x3 1 x2
(c)  c (d)  log | x 2 |  c
3 x 3
dy
6. The integrating factor of differential equation: cos x  y sin x  1 is
dx
(a)  x (b) tan x (c) sec x (d) sin x
7. Based on the given shaded region as the feasible region in the graph, at which point(s) is the objective
function Z = 3x+9y maximum.
 (a) Point B
(b) Point C
(c) Point D
(d)Every point on the line segment CD
8. The scalar projection of the vector iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ on the vector 2iˆ  6 ˆj  3kˆ is 4 units, then value of ‘  ’
is (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 8
2
| x|
9. The value of 
1
x
dx is

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c)1 (d) 1

10. If A and B are invertible matrices, then which of the following is not correct?
(a) adj A = |A| . A-1 (b) det (A)-1 = [det (A)]-1
(c) (AB)-1 = B-1A-1 (d) (A+B)-1 = B-1 + A-1
11. A Linear Programming Problem is as follows:
Minimise = Z = 2x+y, subject to the constraints
x  3 , x  9 , y  0 , x  y  0 , x  y  14
The feasible region has
(a) 5 corner points including (0, 0) and (9, 5)
(b) 5 corner points including (7, 7) and (3, 3).
(c) 5 corner points including (14, 0) and (9, 0)
(d) 5 corner points including (3, 6) and (9, 5).
2  3
12. If A  0 2 5 , then A1 exists, if
1 1 3
(a)   2 (b)   2 (c)   2 (d) None of these
13. If A and B are matrices of order 3 and |A| = 5, |B| = 3, then the value of |3AB| is
(a) 45 (b)135 (c)15 (d) 405
3 4
14, If A and B are two independent events with P  A  and P  B   , then P  A  B  equals to
5 9
4 8 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15 45 3 9
dy
 2 x e x  y is
2
15,The general solution of
dx
y
C (b) e  y  e x  C
2 2
(a) e x
y
(c) e y  e x  C C
2 2
(d) e x
16. If y   tan 1 x  , then the value of  x 2  1 y2  2 x  x 2  1 y1 IS
2

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these

1
17. Let a and b are two unit vectors such that a . b   . Then, a  b is
2
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c)1 (d) None of these
18. The two lines x  ay  b , z  cy  d and x  ay  b , z  cy  d  are perpendicular to each other, if
a c a c
(a)  1 (b)   1
a  c a  c
(c) aa  cc  1 (d) aa  cc  1
 ASSERTION – REASON BASED QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.
2
19. Assertion (A): The principal value of sec1  2   .
3

Reason (R): For y  sec1 x , we always have y   0,     .
2
20. Assertion (A): The side BC of a parallelogram ABCD, whose one of the side AB and a diagonal
AC are respectively given by the vectors 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and 4iˆ  3kˆ is, 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ .
Reason (R): For a parallelogram ABCD, its area is given by AB  AD .
SECTION – B
(Each Question carries 2 marks)
 1  1  1  1    
21. Find the value of tan 1    cot    tan sin   2   .
 3  3   
OR
x
Show that the function f : R  R , defined by f  x   2 ,  x  R is neither one-one nor onto.
x 1
22. The radius r of a right circular cone is decreasing at the rate of 3 cm/min and the height h is
increasing at the rate of 2 cm/min. When r = 9 cm and h = 6 cm, find the rate of change of its
volume.
23. If a  iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ , b  2iˆ  ˆj and c  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ , then find a unit vector perpendicular to both of the

 
vectors a  b and c  b .  
OR
Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point A (1, 2, -1) and parallel to the line
5x  25  14  7 y  35z .
d2y
24. If x  a  cos    sin   and y  a  sin    cos   , then find .
dx 2
25. The scalar product of the vector a  iˆ  ˆj  kˆ with a unit vector along the sum of vectors
b  2iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ and c  iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ is equal to one. Find the value of  and hence, find the unit
vector along ( b  c )
SECTION – C
(This section comprise of short answer type question (SA) of 3 marks each)
26. Evaluate: ∫ ( )(
.
)
27. A speaks truth in 75% of the cases, while B in 90% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they
likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact? Do you think that statement of B is true?
OR
There are 4 cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7, one number on one card. Two cards are drawn at random
without replacement. Let X denotes the sum of the numbers on the two cards drawn. Find the mean.
  /2
x sin x cos x
28. Evaluate:  sin
0
4
x  cos 4 x
dx

OR
4
Evaluate:  | x  1|  | x  2 |  | x  3 | dx
1

29. Find the particular solution of the differential equation:  tan 1 y  x  dy  1  y 2  dx , given that x=1
when y=0.
OR
Solve the following differentia equation:  x3  x 2  x  1
dy
 2 x2  x
dx
30. Solve the following LPP graphically:
Minimise Z = 5x+10y
subject to the constraints
x  2 y  120
x  y  60
x  2 y  0 and x, y  0 .
√ ( )
31. Evaluate: ∫
SECTION – D
(This section comprises of long answer type questions (LA) of 5 marks each)
32. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3 and the line 2y = 3 .
33. Let A = {1, 2, 3, ......, 9} and R be the relation in A x A defined by (a, b) R (c, d), if
a+d = b + c for (a, b), (c, d) in A x A. Prove that R is an equivalence relation and also obtain the
equivalence class [(2, 5)].
34. The Cartesian equation of a line is 6 x  2  3 y  1  2 z  2 . Find the direction cosines of the line.
Write down the Cartesian and vector equations of a line passing through (2, 1, 1) which are
parallel to the given line.
OR
x y 2 z 3
Find the equation of the perpendicular from point (3, 1, 11) to line   . Also, find the
2 3 4
coordinates of foot of the perpendicular and the length of perpendicular.

 2 3 10 
35. If A   4 6 5  , find A1 . Using A1 solve the system of equations
 
6 9 20 
2 3 10 4 6 5 6 9 20
   2 ;    5 and    4 .
x y z x y z x y z
SECTION – E
36. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
 Mr Shashi, who is an architect, designs a building for a small company.
The design of window on the ground floor is proposed to be different than other floors.
The window is in the shape of a rectangle which is surmounted by a semi-circular opening.
This window is having a perimeter of 10 m.
(i) If 2x and 2y represents the length and breadth of the rectangular portion of the windows then, find
the value of y, in terms of x.
(ii) Express the combined area (A) of the rectangular region and semi-circular region of the window,
as a function of x.
(iii) Find the maximum value of area A. of the whole window using derivatives.
OR
(iii) The owner of this small company is interested in maximizing the area of the whole window so that
maximum light input is possible.
For this to happen, find the length and breadth of rectangular portion of the window. Also find the
radius of semi-circular opening of the window by using derivatives.
37. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Shyam and Radha wanted to play a game with balls of two different colors - red and black. Shyam
has two boxes I and II. Box I contains 3 red and 6 black balls. Box II contains 5 red and 'n' black
balls.One of the two boxes, box I and box II is selected by Radha at random, and then Radha draws a
ball at random.
(i) Find P(E1), P(E2) and, P(A|E1).where E1 : box I is selected, E2: box II is selected and, A: getting a
red ball.
3
(ii) If the probability of the red ball taken out from the box II is , then what is the value of ‘n’?
5
(iii) What is the probability that the ball drawn is found to be red?
OR
(iii)What is the probability of the red ball taken out from the box I?
38. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Governing council of a local public development authority of Mussoorie decided to build an

adventurous playground on the top of a hill, which will have plain area and a dedicated space
for parking.
After survey, it was decided to build rectangular playground, with a semi-circular area allotted for
parking at one end of the playground.
The total perimeter of the field is measured as 1000 m.
(i) Obtain an expression in terms of x. for the area (A) of playground alone.
(ii) Using second derivative test, find the maximum area (A) of the playground alone.
*****
 SAMPLE PAPER-3
CLASS- XII
SUB : MATHEMATICS(041)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks:80
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each question carries 1 mark
1. If * + * + * + * +, then which of

the following is defined?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. The value of for which the matrix * + is singular

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) (d)

3. The minor and cofactors of all the elements of the determinant | | are

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
4. The linear inequality in the graph is shown below .

Y
B(0,6)

C(0,3 ( )
)
E(9,0) X
0 D

The feasible region is

(a) OCAD (b) ADE (c) ABC (d) none of these

5. If ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ for which
√ ⃗ ⃗ to be a unit vector is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. For every square matrix A, there exist an identity matrix of same order such that

(a) only (b) only

(c) (d) None of these

7. Integrating factor of

(b) (c) (d)

8. If * + is symmetric, then is equal to

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) (d) 5

9. If | | then

(a) is everywhere differentiable

(b) is everywhere continuous but not differentiable

(c) is everywhere continuous but not differentiable at

(d) none of these.

10. ∫ is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

11. The two vectors ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ represent the two sides AB and

AC, respectively of a triangle ABC . The length of the median through A is
√ √
(a) (b) (c) √ (d) None of these

12. The derivative of with respect to is

(a) (b) – (c) (d) none of these

13. The area bounded by, x-axis and the lines is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

14. Corner points of the feasible region for a LPP are (0,2), (3,0), (6,0), (6,8) and
(0,5). Let be the objective function. The minimum value of
occurs at
(a) Only (0,2)
(b) only (3,0)
 (c) the mid point of the line segment joining the points (0,2) and (3,0)
(d) any point on the line segment joining the points (0,2) and (3,0).
15.
The degree of the differential equation [ ( ) ] is

(a)4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) not defined

16. The distance of a point P(a, b, c) from x-axis is

√ (b) √ (c) √ (d)

17. The value of for which the two vectors ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ are
perpendicular is
(a)2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
18. Let A and B be two events. If then
|

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): If a line makes angle of with each of y and z axis, then the

angle which it makes with x-axis is .

Reason (R):If a line makes angles with the positive direction of the
coordinate axes, then the value of .
20. Assertion (A):The principal value of ( ) is

Reason (R): The principal value branch of the function

SECTION B
This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each
21. Find the principal value of * (
√
) +
 OR
Show that the function f: N N given by f ( ) = is one-one but not onto.

22. Find the interval in which the function y = decreases.

23. The scalar product of the vector ̂ ̂ ̂ with a unit vector along the sum of

the vectors ̂ ̂ ̂ and ̂ ̂ ̂ is equal to one. Find the value of

24. Find the angle between the lines = = and = = .

OR
If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, show that the magnitude of their
difference is √ .
25. √
If the function {

is continuous at ,then find the value of k.

SECTION C
(This section comprises of short answer type questions (SA) of 3 marks each)
26. Find the value of ∫ ( )

OR

Evaluate ∫

27. Evaluate ∫

28. Find the particular solution of the differential equation:

log( ) = 3x + 4y. given that y = 0,when x = 0 .
OR

Solve the differential equation; ( )

29. Solve graphically, the maximum value of Z=2x+5y, subject to constraints

OR
Solve the following equation graphically:
Minimum Z = 5x + 10y
Subject to the constraints
x + 2y 120
x + y 60
x 2y 0, x, y 0
 30. Evaluate ∫
√

31. Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck
of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of the number of aces.
SECTION D
(This section comprises of long answer-type questions (LA) of 5 marks each)
32. Using matrix method, solve the following system of equations

, , ; x, y, z
OR

Determine the product of [ ] and [ ] then use to solve

the system of equations x y + z = 4, x – 2y 2z = 9 and 2x + y + 3z = 1.

33. Show that the relation R in the set A = {x 0 x 12} given by R = {(a,b) :
| |is divisible by 4} is an equivalence relation .Find the set of all elements
related to 1.
34. Find the area bounded by curves {( : and y =| |
OR
If the area between and = 4 is divided into two equal parts by the line
= a, find the value of a.
35. A bird is flying along the line (̂ ̂ ̂) ̂ ̂ ̂ and another
bird is flying along the line ( ̂ ̂ ̂) ̂ ̂ ̂ .At what
points on the lines they reach so that the distance between them is the least?Find
the shortest possible distance between them.
SECTION E
(This section comprises of with two sub-parts. First two case study questions have three
sub -parts of marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of
2 marks each.)
36.

(i) Is the function differentiable in the interval (0, 10)? Justify your answer?
(ii)Find the critical point(s) of the P(x)?
(iii)Using double derivative test find the maximum profit?
OR
 (iii)Find the interval(s) in which the profit is strictly increasing?
37.

A rectangular cake dish is made by cutting out squares from the corners of a 25
cm by 40 cm rectangle of tin plate, and then folding the metal to form the
container.
Based on the given information, answer the following questions.
(i)If x cm from each corner is cut out ,then find length ,breadth and height of the
dish .
(ii) Express the volume(x), in terms of x.
(iii) Find the value of x for which the capacity of dish is maximum also find
maximum volume.
OR
Find the interval in which the volume function V(x) is strictly
increasing or strictly decreasing.
38. In an office four employees Ram, Rahim, John, Sital process incoming copies of
a certain form. Ram processes 30% of the form. Rahim processes 20%, John
Processes 10% and Sital the remaining 40% of the form. Ram has an error rate
of 0.06, Rahim has an error rate of 0.03, John has an error rate of 0.02 and Sital
has an error rate of 0.01.

Based on the above situation, answer the following:

(i)Find the total probability of committing an error in processing the form
(ii)The manager of the company wants to do a quality check. During inspection
he selects a form at random from the days output of processed forms. If the
form selected at random has an error, find the probability that the form is not
processed by Ram.
 SAMPLE PAPER-4
Class XII
MATHEMATICS (Code-041)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each question carries 1 mark
1. If A is a square matrix such that | | 0 and A2 A+2I=0 then A-1=
(a)(I-A) (b) (I+A) (c) (I-A) (d) (I+A)
2. If the value of third order determinant is 11, then the value of the determinant of its
cofactors will be:
(a) 11 (b) 121 (c) 1331 (d) 14641
3. If |a |= √ , | ⃗ |= 7 and |a × b | = 35, then a .b
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12
4. If f(x) =| |, then ( ) is
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) None of these
√ √
dx
5. The value of e x
1
is

(a) log e x  c (b) log(1  e  x )  c (c) log(e x  1)  c (d) log e  x  c

6. If a and b are order and degree of the differential equation:
y + x3 ( ) + xy = cosx, then
(a) a < b (b) a = b (c) a > b (d) none of these
7. A set of values of decision variables which satisfies the linear constraints and non-
negativity conditions of a L.P.P. is called its
(a) Unbounded solution (b) Optimum solution
(c) Feasible solution (d) None of these
8. If |a + b |=|a – b |,then
(a) a || b (b) a ⊥ b (c) |a | = |b | (d) None of these
9. If∫ ( ) =4 and ∫ ( ( )) =7 , then ∫ ( )d is
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2
10. The value of ‘k’ such that matrix * +is symmetric is:
(a) 0 (b)1 (c) -1 (d) 2
11. The feasible region for a LPP is shown in the figure. Let Z = 3 – 4y be the
objective function. Minimum of Z occurs at
 (a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 8) (c) (5, 0) (d) (4, 10)
12. If A= * + then A + AT = I if the value of x is:
(a) π/6 (b) π/3 (c) π (d) 0
13. AB=A and BA=B then
(a) B = I (b)A = I (c) A² = A (d) B² = I
14. If P(A)= 3/8, P(B)= 5/8, P(A∪B)= 3/4 then P( ) is:
(a) 3/47 (b) 5/49 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/4
15.The number of solutions of = , y(1)=2 is
(a) None (b) one (c) two (d) infinite
m n m+n
16. If x y = (x + y) , then dy/dx is equal to
(a) (x+y)/xy (b) xy (c) x/y (d) y/x

17. |a × b | = |a .b | then the angle between a and b

(a) 0 (b) π/2 (c) π/4 (d) π
18. The number of lines passing through the origin which make equal angles with the
co-ordinate axes is
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 2
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion: The angle between the lines = = and = = is 900
Reason(R): Skew lines are lines in different planes which are parallel and intersecting.
20.Assertion (A) : ( ( )) =

Reason (R) : ( )= , if * +
 SECTION-B
This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each.
21. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then prove that the magnitude of their
difference is √ .
22. If y = f( ) and f x =sin√ , find
23. A particle moves along the curve 6y = +2 .Find the points on the curve at which the
y coordinate is changing 8 times as fast as the x-coordinate.
24. If ⃗ =⃗ ⃗ , then show that = m ⃗ , where m is any scalar.
OR
Find the direction cosines of the line = = .Also reduce it to vector form.

25. Let f: N N be defined by f(n) {

Show that f is one-one.
OR
{ ( )}
SECTION C
This section comprises of short answer type questions (SA) of 3 marks each.
26. The probabilities of A, B and C solving a problem independently are , , and
respectively. If all the three try to solve the problem independently, Find the probability
that the problem is solved.
OR
Let X the random variable which count the number of hours a student of class XII
studies. X has a probability distribution P(X) in the following form:

P(X) ={ (i) Find k (ii) Find P(X )

27. Find the particular solution of the differential equation: = 1+ +y+ y, given
that y = 0 when =1
OR
2 2
Solve: (1+ ) + 2 y – 4 =0
28. Solve the following linear programming problem graphically:
Minimize: Z = 200 x + 500 y
subject to the constraints x + 2y ≥ 10 ,3x + 4y ≤ 24 ,x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
29. Evaluate: ∫ d
√

30. Evaluate: ∫ ( )( )
d

31. Evaluate:∫ (1+tan )d

 OR
Evaluate: ∫ , -d

SECTION D
This section comprises of long answer-type questions (LA) of 5 marks each.

32. Use the product [ ][ ] to solve the system of equations

+3z= 9, +2y 2z=4, 2 3y+4z = 3

33. Find the equation of a straight line through the point (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the
straight line joining the points (–4, 7, 2) and (5, –3, –2).
OR
Show that the two lines = = and = = z intersect. Also find
their point of intersection.
34. Prove that the relation R on the set N N defined by (a ,b)R(c ,d) iff
ad(b+c) = bc(a +d) for all (a, b),(c ,d) N N is an equivalence relation.
OR
Show that the relation R defined by R={(a ,b): (a–b) is divisible by 3; a ,b Z} is an
equivalence relation.
35. Find the area of the region*( ) +
SECTION E
36. Case-Study 1:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
In answering a question on a multiple-choice test, a student either knows the answer or
guesses. Let be the probability that he knows the answer and be the probability that he
guesses. Assuming that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with
probability .

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i)Find the probability that the answer is correct ,if he knows the answer.
(ii)Find the probability that the answer is correct.
(iii)Find the probability that the student knows the answer given that he answered it
correctly.
OR
Find the probability that the student knows the answer given that he guesses it.
37. Case-Study 2:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
Nitin wants to construct a rectangular plastic tank for his house that can hold 80 cubic
feet of water. The top of the tank is open. The width of tank will be 5 ft but the length
and heights are variables. Building the tank cost Rs.20 per sq. foot for the base and
Rs.10 per sq. foot for the side.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) If the length and height of the tank be x and h respectively, then find the total
cost function in terms of h.
(ii) Find the range of ‘h’.
(iii) Using the second order derivative test, find the value of ‘h’ at which c (h) is
minimum.
OR
(iii) Find the cost of least expensive tank.
38. Two men A and B start with velocities V at the same time from the junction of two
roads inclined at an angle at 45 to each other.

Based on the above information, answer the following question.

(i) If they travel by different roads such that y=√ √ x, then find rate at which
they are separated , if velocity V is 5unit/sec.
(ii) If f(x) =x2+ax+1, then find the least value of a such that f is strictly increasing on
(1,2).
*****
 SAMPLE PAPER-5
CLASS: XII
SUB: MATHEMATICS (041)
Time Allowed: 3Hours Maximum Marks: 80
SECTION-A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each question carries 1 mark
1. Which of the given values of and y make the following pair of matrices are
equal.
[ ] 0 1

(a) (b)

(c) (d) Not possible to determine

2. The area of the triangle with vertices (-1,2),(4,0) and (3,9) is

(a) square units (b) square units

(c) 21 square units (d) 42square units

3. A line makes equal angles with axes ,direction cosines of line are
(a) 1, 1,1 (b) (c) , (d) ,
√ √ √ √ √ √
4. ( )
(a) (b) ( ) (c) ( ) (d)
√
5. ∫ is equal to
√
(a) √ (b) √ (c) ( √ ) (d) ( √ )
6. is a solution of differential equation
(a) (b) (c) ( ) (d) ( )
7. The optimal value of the objective function is attained at the point is
(a) given by intersection of inequations with axes only.
(b) given by intersection of inequations with X-axis only.
(c) given by corner points of the feasible region.
(d) None of the above.

8. For the vectors ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ . If the projection of ⃗⃗ on ⃗ is ,then the value

of is
(a) 7 (b) 7 (c)1 (d) 8
9. ∫ is equal to
( ) (b) 0 (c) (d)

10. If 0 1 is not an invertible matrix , Then the value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

11. The maximum value of the function Z =5x+3y subject to the constraints
x and is
(a) 15 (b) 9 (c)24 (d) does not exist
12. The inverse of the matrix 0 1 is

(a) 0 1 (b) 0 1 ( )0 1 (d) 0 1

13. Given a matrix a of order 3 if | | = 3,then | | is

(a) 3 (b) 27 (c) 9 (d)81

14. let A and B be two events with P(A)= ( ) and P(A B)= .Then P(A/ B). P( / B) is

equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)

15. The value of „ n‟ for which the differential equation is homogeneous is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d)4

16. If ( ) { is continuous at , then the value of k is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

17. If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ is a vector such that ⃗ ⃗⃗ | ⃗⃗| and | ⃗ ⃗⃗| √ then | ⃗⃗|
(a)√ (b) √ (c)7 (d) 3

18. If the lines and are perpendicular, then the value of k is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION – REASON BASED QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The principal value of . /
Reason (R) :The principal value of ( )is ( ) if , -

20. Assertion(A):The vectors ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ are perpendicular to each

other.
Reason (R) : ( ⃗ ⃗⃗) is a vector perpendicular to both ⃗ ⃗⃗.
SECTION-B
(This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each)

21. Find the value of ( ) ( )

OR
Find the range of the function ( )
22. The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 2 cm/sec.At what rate is it‟sarea
increasing, when the side of the triangle is 20cm.
23. Writea unit vector in the direction of the vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ , where P and Q are the points (1,3,0) and (4,5,6)
respectively.
OR
 Find the cartesian equation of the line passing through the point A (1,2, 1) and
parallel to the line
24. Check the differentiability of the function ( ) | | at

25. Find the area of the parallelogram whose one side and one diagonal are along the vectors ̂ + ̂ ̂
and 2 ̂ + ̂ respectively.

SECTION-C
(This section comprises of short answer type-questions (SA) of 3 marks each)
26. Evaluate:- ∫ . /
27. A coin is biased so that the head is three times as likely to occur as tail .If the coin is tossed twice,
Find the probability distribution of number of tails. Hence find the mean of the number of tails.
OR
Given A and B are two independent events. Prove that A and ̅ are independent and probability of
occurrence of at least one of A and B is given by
1 P( ̅)P(̅), where ̅ and ̅ are the complements of A and B respectively.
28. Evaluate:-∫
OR
Evaluate:-∫
29. Find the particular solution of the differential equation: ( )
OR
Solve the differential equation: . /
30. Solve the following linear programming problem graphically:
Minimise Z = 50x + 70y
Subject to the constraints:
2x +y
x +2y 10
x ,y 0
31. Evaluate: ∫
√ ( )

( ( ) )
32. Make a rough sketch of the region *( ) , +and find the area of the
region using integration.
33. Check whether the relation R in the set Z of integers defined as R={(a,b):a+b is “divisible by 2”}is reflexive,
symmetric or transitive.Write the equivalence class containing 0 i,e [0]
OR
Show that the function f : R * R: + defined by f( ) | |
, R is an one-one and onto

function.
34. A line passes through (2, ) and is perpendicular to the lines ⃗ (̂ ̂ ̂ )+ ( ̂ ̂ ̂ ) and ⃗

( ̂ ̂ ̂ )+ (̂ ̂ ̂ ).obtain the equation in vector and cartesian form.

OR
Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are given by
⃗ ( )̂ ( )̂ ( ) ̂ and ⃗ ( )̂ ( )̂ ( )̂
and also state whether the lines are intersecting or not.
35. If A = [ ] and I is the identity matrix of order 2,show that

I + A = (I A)0 1

SECTION E
(This section comprises of 3 case/passage based questions of 4 marks each with sub parts.First
two case study questions have three sub parts (i),(ii) and (iii) of marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The
third case study question has two sub parts (i) and (ii) of 2 marks each.)

36. CASE STUDY-1

A student Arun is running on a playground along the curve given by y = x2 + 7 . Another student Manita
standing at a point (3,7) on the playground wants to hit Arun by paper ball when Arun is nearest to
Manita.

(i). Find the distance (say D) between Arun and Manita in terms of x
(ii). For which real value(s) of x , first derivative of D2w,r,t, x will vanish ?.
(iii). Find the position of Arun when Manita will hit the paper hall.
OR
(III). What is the minimum value of D ?
37. CASE STUDY-2
An architect designs a building for a multi-national company. The floor consists of a rectangular
region with semicircular ends having a perimeter of 200m as shown below:

(i)If x and y represent the length and breadth of the rectangular region ,then find relation between
the variables
(ii)Find the area of the rectangular region A expressed as a function of .
 (iii)What is the maximum area of the region A ?
OR
The CEO of the multi-nationalcompany is interested in maximizing the area of the whole floor
including the semi-circular ends. For this purpose find the value of x .
38. CASE STUDY-3
A manufacturing company manufactures laptops at two plants located at different locations. The
laptops manufactured are of two types, one is touchscreen, other is normal laptop. Number of laptops
available in two locations as shown below.

If one of the two location is selected at random and a laptop is chosen

(i) Find the probability of choosing a normal laptop from location I?
(ii)Find the probability of choosing a touch screen laptop from location II?
***
 LR DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL, CUTTACK
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-1, 2023-24
COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS-XII
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION A
1 Find the invalid identifier from the following: 1
a. none b. address c. Name d. pass

2 D={1:"One", 2:"Two", 3: "Three"} 1

L=[]
for K,V in D.items():
if V[0]=="T":
L.append(K)
print(L)

(a) [1,2,3]
(b) ["One", "Two", "Three"]
(c) [2,3]
(d) ["Two", "Three"]

3 Identify the output of the following Python statements 1

L1, L2 = [10, 15, 20, 25], []
for i in range(len(L1)) :
L2. insert( i,L1.pop())
print (L1, L2,sep="&")

(a) []&[25, 20, 15, 10]

(b) [10, 15, 20, 25]&[25, 20, 15, 10]
(c) [10, 15, 20, 25]&[10, 15, 20, 25]
(d) [25, 20, 15, 10]&[]

4 What will be the output of the following code? 1

import random

Page 1 of 52
 List=["Delhi","Mumbai","Chennai","Kolkata"]
for y in range(4):
x = random.randint(1,3)
print(List[x],end="#")

a. Delhi#Mumbai#Chennai#Kolkata#
b. Mumbai#Chennai#Kolkata#Mumbai#
c. Mumbai# Mumbai #Mumbai # Delhi#
d. Mumbai# Mumbai #Chennai # Mumbai

5 Identify the output of the following Python statements. 1

lst1 = [10, 15, 20, 25, 30]
lst1.insert( 3, 4)
lst1.insert( 2, 3)
print (lst1[-5])
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 20

6 Which of the following statement is not correct? 1

(a) We can write content into a text file opened using 'w' mode
(b) We can write content into a text file opened using 'w+' mode
(c) We can write content into a text file opened using 'r' mode
(d) We can write content into a text file opened using 'r+' mode

7 Which of the following types of table constraints will prevent the entry of 1
duplicate rows?
a) Foreign Key
b) Distinct
c) Primary Key
d) NULL

8 Which of the following commands will delete the database from MYSQL 1
database?
a) DELETE
b) DROP
c) REMOVE
d) ALTER

9 What will be the output of the following Python code? 1

S="UVW"; L=[10,20,30]; D={}
N=len(S)
for I in range(N):
D[L[I]] = S[I]
for K,V in D.items():
print (K,V, sep="*" ,end=",")

(a) U*10,V*20,W*30,
(b) 10*U,20*V,30*W,
(c) 10,20,30,U*V*W*
(d) Error

10 Which of the following is not an aggregate function: 1

a) MAX()
b) AVG()
c) SUM()

Page 2 of 52
 d) WITH()

11 Which of the following option is the correct usage for the tell( ) of a file object? 1
a) It places the file pointer at a desired offset in a file
b) It returns the entire content of a file
c) It returns the byte position of the file pointer as an integer
d) It tells the details about the file

12 ____________ clause is used to specify filtering condition for groups. 1

a) where
b) having
c) group by
d) none of the above

13 Which out of the following does not come under Cyber Crime? 1
a) Copying data from the social networking account of a person without his/her
information & consent.
b) Deleting some files, images, videos, etc. from a friend’s computer with his
consent.
c) Viewing & transferring funds digitally from a person’s bank account without
his/her knowledge.
d) Intentionally making a false account on the name of a celebrity on a social
networking site.

14 What will be the output of the following Python code? 1

L = [10, 20]
L1=[30, 40]
L2=[50, 60]
L.append(L1)
L.extend(L2)
print(L)

(a) [60, 50, 40, 30, 20, 10]

(b) [10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60]
(c) [10, 20, 30, 40, [50, 60]]
(d) [10, 20, [30, 40], 50, 60]

15 Which command is used to update the size of column in a table. 1

a) add
b) update
c) alter
d) none of the above

16 To establish a connection between Python and SQL database, connect() is used. 1

Which of the following argument will make the connection with a specific
database.
a) host
b) database
c) user
d) password

Q17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the
correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A

Page 3 of 52
 (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True

17 Assertion (A):- If the arguments in function call statement match the number 1
and order of arguments as defined in the function definition, such arguments are
called positional arguments.
Reason (R):- During a function call, the argument list first contains default
argument(s) followed by positional argument(s).

18 Assertion (A): CSV (Comma Separated Values) is a file format for data storage 1
which looks like a text file.
Reason (R): The information is organized with one record on each line and each
field is separated by comma.

SECTION B
19 Rewrite the following Python function after removing all the syntactical errors 2
(if any), underlining each correction:

def checkval:
x = int(input("Enter a number"))
if x % 2 = 0 :
print (x, "is even")
else if x<0 :
print (x, "should be positive")
else;
print (x, "is odd")

20 Discuss two advantages and two disadvantages of optical fiber over other guided 2
media.
OR
Differentiate message from packet switching. Write any four differences.

21 a) Find the output of the following Python statements: 1

S = "GOOD MORNING" 1
print(S.capitalize(), S.title(), end="!")

b) Find the output of the following Python statements

L = []
for i in range (4):
L.append(2*i + 1)
print(L[::-1])

22 What do you understand by Alternate Keys in a table? Give a suitable example 2

of Alternate Keys from a table containing some meaningful data.

23 a) Expand the terms: GSM, HTTPS 2

b) Name the protocol:
i) That is used to send email
ii) That is used to extract email from the mailbox.

24 What will be the output of the following Python code? 2

Page 4 of 52
 def Findoutput():
L="Program"
X=""
L1=[]
count = 1
for i in L:
if i in ['a', 'e', 'i', 'o', 'u']:
X=X+i.swapcase()
else:
if count%2 != 0:
X=X+str(len(L[:count]))
else:
X=X+i
count=count+1
print(X)
Findoutput()

OR
What will be the output of the following Python code?

def Display(str):
m=""
for i in range(0,len(str)):
if(str[i].isupper()):
m=m+str[i].lower()
elif str[i].islower():
m=m+str[i].upper()
else:
if i%2!=0:
m=m+str[i-1]
else:
m=m+"$"
print(m)
Display('Fun@Python3.10')

25 Differentiate between where and having clause of select command of SQL with 2
appropriate example.

OR

Differentiate Data definition language (DDL) and Data manipulation language

(DML) commands. Give example of each.
SECTION C
26 a) Consider the following two tables: 1+2
EMPLOYEE DEPARTMENT
ENO ENAME DOJ DNO DNO DNAME
E1 RASMI 2005-05-12 D1 D1 ACCOUNTS
E2 ANUP 2006-07-10 NULL D2 HR
E3 RITESH 2005-07-28 D3 D3 ADMIN

What will be the output of the following commands:

Select * from employee natural join department

Page 5 of 52
 b) Write the output of the queries (a) to (d) based on the table Crockery given
below:

Table: CROCKERY
FID NAME DATEOFPURCHASE COST DISCOUNT
B001 CUP 03-Jan-2018 4500 10
T010 PLATE 10-Mar-2020 5100 5
B004 SPOON 19-Jul-2021 2200 0
C003 GLASS 30-Dec-2016 1200 3
T006 KNIFE 17-Nov-2019 1500 12
B006 TRAY 01-Jan-2021 2800 14
a) SELECT SUM(DISCOUNT) FROM CROCKERY WHERE COST>1500;
b) SELECT MAX(DATEOFPURCHASE) FROM CROCKERY;
c) SELECT * FROM CROCKERY WHERE DISCOUNT>5 AND FID LIKE
"T%";
d) SELECT DATEOFPURCHASE FROM CROCKERY WHERE NAME IN
("GLASS", "PLATE");

27 Write a function LONGLINE() that accepts a filename and reports the file’s 3
longest line.
OR
Write a program to display all the lines of a file along with line number.

28 a) Consider the following relation MobileMaster & MobileStock:- 2+1

MobileMaster
M_Id M_Company M_Name M_Price M_Mf_Date
MB001 Samsung Galaxy 4500 2013-02-12
MB003 Nokia N1100 2250 2011-04-15
MB004 Micromax Unite3 4500 2016-10-17
MB005 Sony XperiaM 7500 2017-11-20
MB006 Oppo SelfieEx 8500 2013-08-21

MobileStock
S_Id M_Id M_Qty M_Supplier
S001 MB004 450 New Vision
S002 MB003 250 Praveen Gallery
S003 MB001 300 Classic Mobile Store
S004 MB006 150 A-one Mobiles
S005 MB003 150 The Mobile
S006 MB006 50 Mobile Centre

Write the output of SQL command for questions from (i) to (iv) given below:
a) SELECT M_Id, sum(M_Qty) FROM MobileStock GROUP BY M_Id
having count(*)>1;
b) SELECT MAX(M_Mf_Date), MIN(M_Mf_Date) FROM
MobileMaster;
c) SELECT M1.M_Company, M2.M_Supplier FROM MobileMaster M1,
MobileStock M2 WHERE M1.M_Id=M2.M_Id AND
M2.M_Qty>=300;
d) Select M_Company, M_Name from MobileMaster where M_Mf_Date
like '2013%';

Page 6 of 52
 b) Write SQL command to
i) display the list of tables of the active database
ii) display the structure of the table CUSTOMER

29 Write a user defined function ArrangeElements(X), that accepts a list X of 3

integers and sets all the negative elements to the left and all positive elements to
the right of the list.
Eg: if L =[1,-2,3,4,-5,7] , the output should be: [-2,-5,1,3,4,7]

30 Nandu has created a dictionary containing countries and continent as key value 3
pairs of 6 countries. Write a program, with separate user defined functions to
perform the following operations:
● Push the keys (name of the country) of the dictionary into a stack, where
country belongs to continent “ASIA”.
● Pop and display the content of the stack.
For example: If the sample content of the dictionary is as follows:
R={"UK":”EUROPE, "INDIA":”ASIA”, "CHINA":”ASIA”,
"EGYPT":”AFRICA”, "CUBA":”AMERICA”, "JAPAN":”ASIA”}

The output from the program should be: JAPAN CHINA INDIA

OR

Vaishnav has a list containing names of 10 cities. You need to help him create a
program with separate user defined functions to perform the following
operations based on this list.
● Traverse the content of the list and push those names which are having more
than 5 characters in it.
● Pop and display the content of the stack.
For Example: If the sample Content of the list is as follows: N=[“Paris”,
“England”, “Mumbai”, “Delhi”, “London”]
Sample Output of the code should be:
London Mumbai England

SECTION D
31 An educational institute ABC is planning for complete computerisation. 4
Consider the following data of FACULTY and COURSES of the institute
and answer the questions (a) to (d) based on the data:

FACULTY
F_ID Fname Lname Hire_date MobileNum Salary
101 Sagar Bedi 15-05-1995 8786592377 15000
102 Amit Mishra 12-10-1996 9898992627 12000
103 Nitin Vyas 24-12-1998 7364892541 8000
104 Rakshit Soni 18-05-2001 9564792135 14000
105 Rashmi Malhotra 11-09-2004 9923456879 11000
106 Sulekha Srivastava 05-06-2006 3257648924 10000

COURSES
C_ID F_ID Cname Fees
C21 102 Grid Computing 40000
C22 106 System Design

Page 7 of 52
 C23 104 Computer Security 8000
C24 106 Human Biology 15000
C25 102 Computer Network 20000
C26 105 Visual Basic 6000

Write SQL command to:

a) To insert second record in the table COURSES.
b) To increase the fees of all courses by 1000.
c) To add a column DateOfBirth in the table Faculty.
d) To delete all the rows of the table Faculty who joined before the year 1995

32 Rama is trying to complete her assignment on Update function of a binary file 4

STUD.DAT, containing records of type: [BookID, BookName, Auhor, Price]

Rama is asked to update/increase the price of books by 10% of it’s original

price for the Author passed as a parameter in the function call.

Help her to complete her assignment.

def update_rec(AUTHOR):
try:
f=open(____________________________) #statement 1
except:
print("File not found")
return
pos=0
flag=False
try:
while True:
_________________________ #statement 2
if R[2]==A:
flag=True
________________________ #statement 3
________________________ #statement 4
pickle.dump(R, f)
else:
pos=pickle.tell()
except:
pass
f.close()
if flag:
print('Records update')
else:
print('Records not found')

a) Write statement 1 to open the required data file

b) Write statement 2 to read one record from data file.
c) Write statement 3 to place the file pointer in front of the record to be updated.
d) Write statement 4 to update the price of the book.

SECTION E

Page 8 of 52
33 BeHappy Corporation has set up its new centre at Noida, Uttar Pradesh for its 1x5=5
office and web-based activities. It has 4 blocks of buildings A, B, C and D.
Distance between the various blocks is as follows:
A to B 40 m
B to C 120m
C to D 100m
A to D 170m
B to D 150m
A to C 70m
Numbers of computers in each block
Block A - 25
Block B - 50
Block C - 125
Block D - 10
a) Suggest and draw the cable layout to efficiently connect various blocks of
buildings within the Noida centre for connecting the digital devices.
b) Suggest the most suitable block out of the four to install the main server
to get efficient connectivity.
c) Suggest the placement of repeater in the network with justification
d) Which device will you suggest to be placed/installed in each of these
blocks/centers to efficiently connect all the computers within these
blocks/centers
e) Which fast and very effective wireless transmission medium should
preferably be used to connect the head office at Mumbai with the centre at
Noida?

34 a) What will be the output of the following Python code? 5

def ChangeList():
L=[]
L1=[]
L2=[]
for i in range(1,10):
L.append(i)
for i in range(10, 1, -2):
L1.append(i)
for i in range(len(L1)):
L2.append(L1[i]+L[i])
L2.append(len(L)-len(L1))
print(L2)
ChangeList()

b) The code given below inserts the following record in the table Student:

RollNo – integer
Name – string
Class – integer
Stream – string

Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MYSQL:

 Username is root
 Password is 12345
 The table exists in a MYSQL database named school.

Page 9 of 52
 The details (RollNo, Name, Class and Stream) are to be accepted from the
user.

Write the following missing statements to complete the code:

Statement 1 – to form the cursor object
Statement 2 – to execute the command that inserts the record in the table
Student.
Statement 3- to add the record permanently in the database

import mysql.connector as mysql

def sql_data():
con1=mysql.connect(host="localhost",user="root",
password="12345"\
database="school")
mycursor=_________________ #Statement 1
rno=int(input("Enter Roll Number :: "))
name=input("Enter name :: ")
clas=int(input("Enter class :: "))
stream=input("Enter Marks :: ")
querry="insert into student
values({},'{}',{},{})".format(rno,name,clas,stream)
_____________________ #Statement 2 _
_____________________ # Statement 3
print("Data Added successfully")

OR

a) What will be the output of the following Python code?

def ChangeValue(M, N):
for i in range(N):
if M[i]%5 == 0:
M[i] //= 5
if M[i]%3 == 0:
M[i] //= 3
L=[25, 8, 75, 12]
ChangeValue(L, 4)
for a in L:
print(a, end='#')

b) The code given below reads the following record from the table named
student and displays only those records who have marks greater than 75:
RollNo – integer
Name – string
Class – integer
Stream - Science

Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MYSQL:

 Username is root
 Password is tiger
 The table exists in a MYSQL database named school.

Write the following missing statements to complete the code:

Statement 1 – to form the cursor object

Page 10 of 52
 Statement 2 – to execute the query that extracts the records of those students
whose stream is SCIENCE.
Statement 3- to read the complete result of the query into the object named data,
from the table student in the database.

import mysql.connector as mysql

def sql_data():
con1=mysql.connect(host="localhost",user="root", password="12345",
database="school")
mycursor=_______________ #Statement 1
print("Students with marks greater than 75 are : ")
_________________________ #Statement 2
data=__________________ #Statement 3
for i in data:
print(i)
print()

35 What is the advantage of using a csv file for permanent storage? 5

Write a Program in Python that defines and calls the following user defined
functions:
(i) ADD() – To accept and add data of a student to a CSV file 'STUDENT.csv'.
Each record consists of a list with field elements as [studID, NAME, STREAM]
to store student ID, student Name and stream of student, respectively.
(ii) SEARCH() – To display the details of all the SCIENCE students present in
the CSV file 'STUDENT.csv'.

OR

Give any one point of difference between a binary file and a csv file.
Write a Program in Python that defines and calls the following user defined
functions:
(i) ADD() – To accept and add data of a book to a CSV file 'BOOK.csv'. Each
record consists of a list with field elements as bookNO, Name, Author, Price to
store Book number, name, author and price of a book.
(ii) SEARCH()- To display the records of the books whose price is more than
1000.

Page 11 of 52
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-2, 2023-24
COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS-XII
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION-A
1 Find the invalid identifier from the following 1
a) sub%marksb)age c)_subname_ d)subject1
2 Which of the following is not a DDL command? 1
a) UPDATE b)ALTER TABLE c)CREATE TABLE d)DROP TABLE
3 Evaluate the following expressions: 1
16 // 3 + 3 ** 3 + 15 / 4 – 9
a) 26.75 b) 26.00 c)26 d) None of these
4 Select the correct output of the code: 1
S=”Python is fun”
L=S.title()
print(L)
a. Python Is Fun b. [ Python Is Fun] c.{ “Python”,”is”,”fun”} d. none of these
5 Fill in the blank: Keyword is used to set foreign key in SQL. 1
(a) foreign key (b)unique (c) references (d)primary
6 What kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a computer network 1
that is exposed to electrical interferences?
a. Unshielded twisted pair b. Optical fiber c. Coaxial cable d.
Microwave
7 Which of the following will delete key-value pair for key = “Green” from a dictionary D1? 1
a. delete D1("Green") b. del D1["Green"] c. del.D1["Green"] d. D1.del["Green"]
8 Consider the statements given below and then choose the correct output from the given 1
options: pride="Hello Python"
print(pride[-2:2:-1])
Options
a. ohtyP ol b. otPo c. otPol d. Python

Page 12 of 52
9 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error during execution of the following 1
code?
tup = [10,20,30,40,50,60]
print(tup) #Statement 1
print(tup[3]+50) #Statement 2
print(max(tup))#Statement 3
tup[4]=80 #Statement 4
Options:
a. Statement 1 b. Statement 2 c. Statement 3 d. no error
10 To use randint(a,b) which of the following module should be imported ? 1
a)math b)random c)CSV d)randinteger()
11 Central computer which is powerful than other computers in the network is called 1
a) Hub b) Sender c) Switch d) Server
12 Carefully observe the code and give the answer :- 1
def functions1(a) :
a= a+ 1
a=a*2
function1 (“hello”)
(a) Indentation Error (b) hello2
(c) cannot perform mathematical operation on strings (d) hello2hello2
13 The operator ___________ when used with a string and an integer gives an error. 1
14 To include integrity constraint in an existing relation, we should use 1
______________ statement.
(A) UPDATE TABLE
(B) ALTER TABLE
(C) MODIFY TABLE
(D) EDIT TABLE
15 The physical address assigned by NIC manufacturer is called-------------- address. 1
(a)IP (b) MAC (c) TCP (d) URL
16 What is the significance of the seek method ? 1
(A) It seeks the absolute path of the file.
(B) It tells the current byte position of the file pointer within the file.
(C) It places the file pointer at a desired offset within the file
(D) It seeks the entire content of the file.
Q17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the correct choice
as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b)Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d)A is false but R is True
17 Assertion (A) :A function is a block of organized and reusable code that is used 1
to perform a single related action.
Reason (R) :Function provides better modularity for your application and a
high degree of code reusability.
18 Assertion (A) :Text file stores information in ASCII or Unicode characters. 1
Reason (R) :CSV stands for comma separated value. These files are common file format for
transferring and storing data.
SECTION-B
19 (i) Expand the following terms: www ,smtp 2
(ii) Give one difference between html and dhtml.
OR
Write two points of difference between Circuit Switching and Packet Switching.

Page 13 of 52
20 Anshika has written a code to calculate the factorial value of a number, but her code is 2
having some errors. Rewrite the correct code and underline the corrections made.
defFactorial(Num)
1=fact
While num=>0:
fact=fact*num
num=-1
print(“Factorial value is =”,fact)
21 Assume that a text file named TEXT1.TXT already contains some text written into it, write a 2
program with a function named vowelwords(), that reads the file TEXT1.TXT and create a
new file named TEXT2.TXT , which shall contain only those words from the file
TEXT1.TXT which don’t start with an uppercase vowel(i.e. with ‘A’,’E’,’I’,’O’,’U’) for
example if the file TEXT1.TXT contains Carry Umbrella and Overcoat When it Rains then
the file TEXT2.TXT shall contain Carry and when it Rains.
OR
Write a Python program to count all the line having 'a' as last character.
22 Predict the output of the Python code given below: 2
def ChangeString(s):
m="" #empty string
for i in range(0,len(s)):
if(s[i].isupper()):
m=m+s[i].lower()
elif s[i].islower():
m=s[i].upper()+m
else:
if i%2==0:
m=m+s[i-1]
else:
m="%"+m
print(m)
ChangeString('Try2Solve@')
23 Write the Python statement for each of the following tasks using BUILT-IN 2
functions/methods only:
(i) To insert an element 500 at the second position, in the list L1.
(ii) To check whether a string named, message ends with a full stop / period or not.
OR
A list named studentAge stores age of students of a class. Write the Python to display the
most age value like 14,15 & 16 from the given list.
24 2

Page 14 of 52
 (a) Find the Degree and Cardinality of the Cartesian product of the Supplier and Product
relations.
(b) Identify the foreign key in the given tables, also mention in which table it is appearing as
a foreign key?
OR
Find output:
(a) select *from product p, supplier s where p.supcode=s.supcode;
(b) select *from product natural join supplier;
25 Predict the output of the Python code given below: 2
p=4
def CheckData(y):
global p
print(p+2)
r=y
p=r+8
print(p)
CheckData(12)
print(p)
SECTION-C
26 Consider the following code: 3
Inp = input("Please enter a string : ")
while len(Inp) <= 4:
if Inp[-1] == 'z':
Inp = Inp[0: 3] + 'c'
elif 'a' in Inp :
Inp = Inp[0] + 'bb'
elif not int(Inp[0]):
Inp ='1' + Inp[1:] + 'z'
else:
Inp = Inp + '*'
print (Inp)
What will be the output produced if the input is “cbse24”
27 Consider the following tables CABHUB 3
CABHUB

Write the output of the queries (i) to (iii) based on the table CABHUB
i) select count(VCode),Color from CABHUB group by Color;
ii) select distinct capacity from Cabhub;
iii) select VehicleName,Make from CABHUB order by VehicleName
28 Write a function CountYouMe( ) in python which reads the content of a text file 3
“BIOGRAPHY.TXT” and counts the words ‘You’ and ‘Me’ separately. (Not case sensitive).
Example:
If the contents in “BIOGRAPHY.TXT” are as follows:
You are a hero for me
you gifted a book to me which helped me
a lot to learn the programming

Page 15 of 52
 It gave me a chance to develop business software
The output of the function should be: Count of You in file: 2 Count of Me in file: 4
OR
Write a function CountDigits( ) in python which reads the content of a text file
“MyData.TXT” and counts number of digits present in the text file. Example: If the contents
in “MyData.TXT” are as follows:
In 2023 we 22 students will appear in exam for 5 subjects
The output of the function should be: No. of digits are: 7
29 Consider the table Personal given below: Table: Personal 3
CID CNAME AGE GENDER SPORTS PAY DOAPP
5246 AMRITA 35 FEMALE CHESS 900 2006-03-
27
4687 SHYAM 37 MALE CRICKET 1300 2004-04-
15
1245 MEENA 23 FEMALE VOLLEYBALL 1000 2007-06-
18
1622 AMRIT 28 MALE KARATE 1000 2007-09-
05
1256 AMINA 36 FEMALE CHESS 1100 2003-08-
15
1720 MANJU 33 FEMALE KARATE 1250 2004-04-
10
2321 VIRAT 35 MALE CRICKET 1050 2005-04-
30
Based on the given table, write SQL queries for the following:
(i) Increase the salary by 5% of personals whose Pay is more than 1000.
(ii) Display Name whose salary is more than 1200.
(iii) Delete the record of VIRAT.
30 Rajiv has created a dictionary containing employee names and their salaries as key value 3
pairs of 6 employees. Write a program, with separate user defined functions to perform the
following operations:
● Push the keys (employee name) of the dictionary into a stack, where the corresponding
value (salary) is less than 85000.
● Pop and display the content of the stack. For example: If the sample content of the
dictionary is as follows:
Emp={"Ajay":76000, "Jyothi":150000, "David":89000, "Remya":65000, "Karthika":90000,
"Vijay":82000}
The output from the program should be: Vijay Remya Ajay
OR
Aruna has a list containing temperatures of 10 cities. You need to help her create a program
with separate user defined functions to perform the following operations based on this list
● Traverse the content of the list and push the negative temperatures into a stack.
● Pop and display the content of the stack.

Page 16 of 52
 For Example: If the sample Content of the list is as follows: T=[-9, 3, 31, -6, 12, 19, -2, 15, -
5, 38] Sample Output of the code should be: -5 -2 -6 -9

SECTION-D
31 Write the SQL commands for the following questions (i) to (v) based on the relations Car 4
and Customer given below:
Ccode Cname Make Colour Capacity Charges
201 Triber Renault Yellow 7 1000
203 Altroz Tata Black 5 1500
208 Innova Toyata Silver 8 3000
209 Harrier Tata White 6 2000
212 Duster Renault Red 6 2500
217 Ertiga Suzuki Grey 7 2300

(i) To display the Names and Charges of all the Silver coloured cars.
(ii) To display the non duplicate car codes in the customer table.
(iii) To display the Minimum and Maximum car charges.
(iv) To give a discount of 10% in the car charges for existing customers (who are in
the customer table).
32 What is the difference between CSV file and Text File? Write a program in Python that 4
defines and calls the following functions:
Insert() – To accept details of clock from the user and stores it in a csv file ‘watch.csv’. Each
record of clock contains following fields – ClockID, ClockName, YearofManf, Price.
Function takes details of all clocks and stores them in file in one go.
Delete() – To accept a ClockID and removes the record with given ClockID from the file
‘watch.csv’. If ClockID not found then it should show a relevant message. Before removing
the record it should print the record getting removed.

Page 17 of 52
 SECTION-E
33 MakeInIndia Corporation, an Uttarakhand based IT training company, is planning to set up 5
training centres in various cities in next 2 years. Their first campus is coming up in Kashipur
district. At Kashipur campus, they are planning to have 3 different blocks for App
development, Web designing and Movie editing. Each block has number of computers, which
are required to be connected in a network for communication, data and resource sharing. As a
network consultant of this company, you have to suggest the best network related solutions
for them for issues/problems raised in question nos. (i) to (v), keeping in mind the distances
between various blocks/locations and other given parameters.

(i) Suggest the most appropriate block/location to house the SERVER in the Kashipur
campus (out of the 3
blocks) to get the best and effective connectivity. Justify your answer.
(ii) Suggest a device/software to be installed in the Kashipur Campus to take care of data
security.
(iii) Suggest the best wired medium and draw the cable layout (Block to Block) to
economically connect various
blocks within the Kashipur Campus.
(iv) Suggest the placement of the following devices with appropriate reasons:
a. Switch / Hub
b. Repeater
(v) Suggest a protocol that shall be needed to provide Video Conferencing solution between
Kashipur Campus
and Mussoorie Campus.
34 A binary file “employees.dat” has structure [empid, empname, age, department] 5
a. Write a user defined function CreateEmployee() to input the data to a record and add to
employee.dat
b. Write a function CountRec(department) in Python which accepts the Department of the
employee as the parameter and count and return the number of employees in that department.
OR
A binary file “STUDENT.DAT” has structure [admission_number, Name, Percentage].

Page 18 of 52
 Write a function countrec() in Python that would read contents of the file “STUDENT.DAT”
and display the details of those students whose percentage is above 75. Also display number
of students scoring above 75%.
35 i) Define the term attribute with respect to RDBMS. 5
ii) Consider the following SQL, table MEMBER in a SQL,Database CLUB:
TABLE:MEMBER
M_ID NAME ACTIVITY
M1001 Amina GYM
M1002 Pratik GYM
M1003 Simon SWIMMING
M1004 Rakesh GYM
M1005 Avneet SWIMMING
Write python code to display the M_ID and NAME of members whose activity is “GYM”
Use the following information for connection
Host:-localhost
Database:-club
Userid:-Admin
Password:Admin@123
Table name:-Member
OR
i) Which method of cursor class is used to insert or update multiple rows using a
single query?
ii) Write python code to insert following records into the OrderDetails table.
Host:-localhost
Database:-sales
Userid:-Admin
Password:Admin@123
Table name:-OrderDetails
ORDNUM PARTNUMB NUMBORD QUOTPRIC
12489 AX12 11 14.95
124901 BT04 1 402.99
12492 BZ66 1 311.95
12498 CX11 2 57.95

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-3, 2023-24

COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS-XII
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

Page 19 of 52
 SECTION-A
Q. NO. QUESTION MARKS
01. State True or False. 1
print(3 = = 3.0)
02. Which of the following is an invalid identifier in Python? 1
(a) 2ndclass (b) NONE (c)FLOAT (d)Income_Tax
03. Given the following dictionaries: 1
D1={‘Name’:’John’,’Salary’:50000,’age’:35}
D2={‘Name’:’Rahul’,’Salary’:60000,’Dept’:’Sales’}
D1.update(D2)
print(D1)
Choose the correct option:
a.{‘Name’:’John’,’Salary’:50000,’age’:25}
b.{‘Name’:’Rahul’,’Salary’:60000,’Dept’:’Sales’}
c.{‘Name’:’Rahul’,’Salary’:60000,’Dept’:’Sales’,’age’:35}
d. None of these
04. Consider the given expression: 1
not True and False or True
Which of the following will be correct output if the given expression is
evaluated?
(a) True
(b) False
(c) NONE
(d) NULL
05. Select the correct output of the code: 1
STR=”He is a great man”.split()
print(STR[3])
a. man
b. great
c. error
d. None of these
06. Which of the following mode is the default mode of an existing text file? 1
(a) a (b) r (c) w (d) None of the above
07. Fill in the blank: 1
______ command is used to remove a column from a table in SQL.
(a) update (b) remove (c) alter (d) drop
08. Which of the following commands will delete the table from MYSQL 1
database?

Page 20 of 52
 (a) DELETE TABLE
(b) DROP TABLE
(c) REMOVE TABLE
(d) ALTER TABLE
09. What is the output of the following statement? 1
S=”WELCOME”
S[0]=’B’
a) BELCOME
b) WELCOME
c) Error
d) None of the above
10. Fill in the blank: 1
_________ is a non-key attribute, whose values are derived from the
primary key of some other table.
(a) Primary Key
(b) Foreign Key
(c) Candidate Key
(d) Alternate Key
11. The ________ function returns the current position of the file pointer in the file? 1
(a) seek()
(b) tell()
(c) find()
(d) search()
12. Degree means __________ 1
(a) Column
(b) Row
(c) Total no. of rows
(d) Total no. of columns
13. NIC in networking stands for___________ 1
(a)National Information Card
(b)Network Interface Card
(c)Network Information Card
(d)None of the above
14. What is the value of X? 1
X=int(13.25+4/2)
(a)17 (b)14 (c)15 (d)15.0
15. Which function is used to display the total number of records from 1
table in a database?

Page 21 of 52
 (a) sum(*)
(b) total(*)
(c) count(*)
(d) return(*)
16. To establish a connection between Python and MySQL database, which function 1
checks the connectivity?
(a) connect()
(b) is_connected()
(c) connected()
(d) None of these
Q17 and Q18 are ASSERTION and REASONING based questions. Mark the
correct choice as:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
17. Assertion (A):- If the arguments in function call statement match the 1
number and order of arguments as defined in the function definition,
such arguments are called positional arguments.
Reasoning (R):- During a function call, the argument list first contains
default argument(s) followed by positional argument(s).
18. Assertion (A): CSV (Comma Separated Values) is a file format for data 1
storage which looks like a text file.
Reason (R): The information is organized with one record on each line
and each field is separated by comma.

SECTION-B
19. Ravi has written a code to input a number and check whether it is a 2
Perfect number or not. His code is having some errors. Rewrite it after removing
all syntactical errors and logical errors. Underline all the correction made.
def Perfect( ):
n=input(“Enter a number: “))
Sof=0
for a in range(1, n):
if n%a = = 0
Sof=Sof+1
if Sof==n:

Page 22 of 52
 print(“It is a Perfect number”)
else
print(“It is not a Perfect number”)
20. i)Write is the difference between Circuit Switching and Message Switching. 2
ii)Write is the difference between STAR and BUS Topology.

OR

i)Define the term Bandwidth with respect to network.

ii)How LAN is different from WAN.

21. (a) Given is a Python string declaration: 2

Exam=”CBSE Examination 2022-23”
Write the output of: print(Exam[: : 2])

(b) Write the output of the code given below:

D = {"Name": "Raja", "Age": 30}
D['Age'] = 32
D['Address'] = "Cuttack"
print(D.items())
OR
Given a list L [] of 5 names. Now create another list M[] to store all the names of
L where first character removed.
Example:
If L is, [“Akash”,”Deepak”,”Rahul”,”Rakesh”,”Dipesh”]
Then M should be, [“Kash”,”eepak”,”ahul”,”akesh”,”ipesh”]

22. Explain the use of ‘Primary Key’ and ‘Alternate Key’ in a Relational Database 2
Management System. Give example to support your answer.
23. (a) Write the full forms of the following: 2
i) VoIP ii) FTP
(b) What is the use of Repeater?
OR
(a)Write the full forms of the following:
i)HTTP ii)HTTPS
(b)What is the use of Hub in a network?
24. Predict the output of the following Python Code: 2
def CHECK(s):

Page 23 of 52
 k=len(s)
m=" "
for i in range(0,k):
if(s[i].isupper()):
m=m+s[i].lower()
elif(s[i].isalpha()):
m=m+s[i].upper()
else:
m=m+"bb"
print(m)
CHECK("CBSESchoolXII@com")
OR
Predict the output of the following Python Code:
def CHANGE (P, Q=30):
P=P+Q
Q=P-Q
print(P,'#',Q)
return(P)
R=150
S=100
R=CHANGE(R, S)
print(R,'#', S)
S=CHANGE(S)
print(R,'#', S)

25. Write the flow of execution of the following program: 2

1.def power(b, p):
2. Y=b**p
3. return y

4.def calcsquare(x):
5. a=power(x,2)
6. return a

7.n=5
8.result=calcsquare(n)
10.print(result)

SECTION-C

Page 24 of 52
26. Predict the output of the following code snippets. 1+1+1

a) Predict the output:

y=str(123)
x="hello"*3
x="hello"+"world"
y=len(x)
print(y,x)

b) Predict the output:

str="Welcome To BJEM School"
for x in str:
print(x.upper(),end=" ")

c) Predict the output:

x=10
y=0
while x>y:
print(x,y)
x=x-1
y=y+1

27. Write the outputs of the SQL queries (i) to (iv) based on the 3
relations MENTOR and DEPARTMENT given below:

Table: MENTOR
MID MNAME AGE DEPT DOJ SALARY SEX
1 Ravi 34 COMPUTER 2019-01-10 12000 M
2 Arun 36 MATHS 2017-03-24 20000 M
3 Sarita 35 HISTORY 2020-12-12 30000 F
4 Dhiren 32 PHYSICS 2018-07-01 40000 M
5 Subash 41 COMPUTER 2021-09-05 25000 M
6 Neelam 29 HISTORY 2019-06-27 30000 F
7 Sunil 45 MATHS 2019-02-25 21000 M
8 Arpita 33 MATHS 2018-07-31 20000 F

Table: DEPARTMENT
D_ID DEPT PLACE
1 HISTORY BALASORE
2 MATHS BHADRAK
3 COMPUTER CUTTACK

(i) SELECT DEPT, SUM(SALARY) FROM MENTOR

Page 25 of 52
 GROUP BY DEPT;
(ii) SELECT MAX(DOJ), MIN(DOJ) FROM MENTOR;
(iii) SELECT MNAME FROM MENTOR ORDER BY MNAME DESC;

28. Write a method COUNTLINES() in Python to read lines from text file 3
‘LINES.TXT’ and display the lines which are starting with any
vowel.
Example:
If the file content is as follows:
Akash is really a very good boy.
He reads in class XII.
Our students like him very much.

The COUNTLINES() function should display the output as:

The number of lines starting with any vowel: 2
OR
Write a function COUNTWORDS() in Python, which should read each
word of a text file “TEXTFILE.TXT” and then count and display
how many words contains vowel ‘E’ or ‘e’.
Example:
If the file content is as follows:
Cat is a pet animal.
It likes to eat fish and milk.
It is very loving and caring.

The VOWELCOUNT() function should display the output as:

Total number of words contain vowel ‘E’ or ‘e’ is: 4

29. Write SQL queries (a) to (e) based on the tables STUDENT and SUBJECT 3
given below:
Table: STUDENT
ROLLNO NAME DOA SUBID MARKS FEES
01 RITESH 23-01-2012 S001 95 4500
02 SAROJ 15-07-2014 S002 85 3200
03 DEEPAK 21-04-2010 S003 62 6000
04 SWAGAT 25-12-2015 S002 99 5500

Page 26 of 52
 05 AKARSH 13-06-2011 S001 55 4000

Table: SUBJECT
SUBID SUBNAME FLOORNO
S001 PHYS 2
S002 CHEM 6
S003 MATHS 1
S004 BIO 5

a) To display NAME and SUBJECT NAME of each student as per their

matching SUBJECT ID.
b) To display the details of all the students in alphabetical order of NAME.
c) To display SUBID from the table STUDENT table without repetition.

30. Dipesh has created a list containing 10 integers. You need to help him to create a 3
STACK using separate user-defined functions to perform the following
operations based on a list.

● Define a function PUSH(stack, n) to copy all the prime numbers into the
stack and then display the content of the stack after push.

● Define a function POP(stack) to pop an element from the stack then display
the deleted element after pop.
For example, If the list contains:

L=[5,8,13,15,17,21,19,3,11,18]
After PUSH the stack must contain: [11,3,19,17,13,5]
After POP an element the stack must contain: [,3,19,17,13,5]

OR

A dictionary contains data like dress item and its price:

D={‘Pant’:2200, ’Shirt’:1500, ’Trouser’:800, ’T-shirt’:600,’Jacket’:3000}

Write the following user-defined functions to perform the following operations

on the stack:

i) PUSH(DICT)-To push only those dress item into the stack whose price is more
than 1000. Here stack is a list.

Page 27 of 52
 ii) POP(L)-To pop an element from the stack.

After PUSH the stack must contain: [ ’Jacket’,’Shirt’,’Pant’]

After POP an element the stack must contain: [’Shirt’,’Pant’]

SECTION-D

31. Write the output of the queries (a) to (d) based on the table, TEACHER and POSTING 4
given below:

Table: TEACHER
T_ID NAME AGE DEPT DOJ SALARY GENDER
1 Jugal 34 Comp Sc 01/01/2017 12000 M
2 Sharmila 31 History 24/03/2008 20000 F
3 Sandeep 32 Maths 12/12/2016 30000 M
4 Sangeeta 35 History 01/07/2015 40000 F
5 Rakesh 42 Maths 05/09/2007 25000 M
6 Shyam 50 History 27/06/2008 30000 M
7 Shyam 44 Comp Sc 25/02/2017 21000 M
8 Shiv 33 Maths 31/07/2018 20000 F

Table: POSTING
P_ID DEPARTMENT PLACE
1 History Agra
2 Mathematics Raipur
3 Computer Science Delhi

a) To show all information about the teacher of History department.

b) To list the names of female teachers who are in Mathematics department.
c) To list the name of all the teachers with their date of joining in ascending order.
d) To display teacher’s name, salary, age for male teachers only.
e) To display name, bonus for each teacher where bonus in 10% of salary.

32. Rakesh is a python programmer working in a school. For the Annual Function, he 4
has created a csv file “REPORT.CSV” to store the details of annual function.
The structure of the “REPORT.CSV” is as follows.
[ENO, ENAME, DURATION]
Where ENO is the Serial number of the event ENAME is the name of the event
and DURATION is the time consumed by the event on stage. For efficiently
managing the events, Rakesh wants to write the following user defined functions.

i) CREATE() – To accept 10 records from user and store in the csv file.
ii) DISPLAY() – To display all the records present in the CSV File.

Page 28 of 52
 SECTION-E
33. “Sikshya for All” is an educational NGO. It is setting up its new campus at Jaipur 5
for its web-based activities. The campus has four buildings as shown in the diagram
below:

Main Resource
Building Building

Training Accounts
Building Building

Centre to Centre distances between various buildings as per architectural

drawings (in meters) is as follows:
Main Building to Resource Building 120 m
Main Building to Training Building 40 m
Main Building to Accounts Building 135 m
Resource Building to Training Building 125 m
Resource Building to Accounts Building 45 m
Training Building to Accounts Building 45 m
Expected number of Computers in each building:
Main Building 15
Resource Building 25
Training Building 250
Accounts Building 10
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING BASED ON THE ABOVE:
a) Suggest a cable layout of connections between the buildings.
b) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. building) to house the server of this NGO.
Also, provide a suitable reason for your answer.
c) Suggest the placement of the following devices with specification:
i) Repeater ii) Hub/Switch
d) The NGO is planning to connect its international office situated in Delhi.
Which out of the following wired communication links, will you suggest for a
very high-speed connectivity?

Page 29 of 52
 i) Telephone Analog line ii) Optic Fibre iii) Ethernet cable
e) Which of the following should be used to protect unauthorize access in the
network.
i) Telnet ii) Firewall iii) Router
34. a) Differentiate between r+ and w+ mode. 2+3=5
b) Define a user defined function UPDATELIST() then increase the mark of
those students with 5 who have scored less than 33 and then display all the
records after updating the binary file “Student1.dat” whose records are already
maintained with the help of a List as [Roll, Name, Marks].
OR
a) How text files are different from binary files?
b) Define a function SEARCHLIST(R) which accepts a roll number as an
argument then search and display the details of that student from a binary file
“Student1.dat” whose records are already maintained with the help of a List
[Roll, Name, Marks].
35. a) Define the term Degree and Cardinality with respect to RDBMS. 1+4=5
b) Rahul wants to write a program in python to insert a record in the table
“student” in MySql database “XII”.
Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MySql.
Username - root
Password - schooltime12
Database -XII
Host -localhost
Now write the Python and MySql connectivity program to insert the following
row in the table.
ROLL NAME MARKS
10 Akarsh 92
OR
a) Give the difference between Primary key and Alternate key.
b) Ramesh wants to write a program in python to insert a record in the table
“student” in MySql database “XI”.
Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MySql.
Username - root
Password - schooltime12
Database -XI
Host -localhost

Page 30 of 52
 Now write the Python and MySql connectivity program to delete the rows of
those students who have scored less than 33 from the table “student” which
contains information like Roll, Name and Marks.

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-4, 2023-24

COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS-XII
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION-A

Q. NO. QUESTION MARKS

1 State True or False : 1

“ Identifiers are names used to identify a variable , function in a program . “

2 In a table in MYSQL database, an attribute A of datatype varchar(15) has the 1
value “Rahul”. The attribute B of datatype char(15) has value “Sharukh”. How
many characters are occupied by attribute A and attribute B?
(a) 15,15 (b) 5,15 (c) 15,7 (d) 15,5
3 What will be the output of the following statement: 1

10*1*2**4-4//4

(a) 2 (b) 159 (c) 150 (d) 30

4 Select the correct output of the code: 1

st = "rose is red"
w = st.split()
st_new = "*".join([w[0].upper(),w[1].upper(),w[2].title()])
print(st_new)

(a) rose*IS*Red (b) rose*is*Red

(c) ROSE*is*Red (d) ROSE*IS*Red

Page 31 of 52
5 In MYSQL database, if a table, Student has degree 4 and cardinality 6, and 1
another table, Sports has degree 5 and cardinality 4, what will be the degree and
cardinality of the Cartesian product of Student and Sports ?
(a) 10,9 (b) 20,10 (c) 9,24 (d) 30,8
6 Sabina wants to transfer pictures from her mobile phone to her laptop . She uses 1
Bluetooth technology to connect two devices . Which type of network will be
formed in this case ?
(a) PAN (b) LAN (c) MAN (d) WAN
7 Predict the output of the following : 1

D = {1 : "One" , 2 : "Two", 3 : "Three"}

L = []
for K , V in D.items() :
if V[0] == 'T' :
L.append(K)
print(L)

(a) [1, 2, 3] (b) [2, 3]

(c) [“One”, “Two”, “Three”] (d) [“Two”, “Three”]
8 Consider the statements given below and then choose the correct output from 1
the given options:

st = "Computer"
st = st[-4:]
print(st*2)

(a) uter (b) uterretu (c) uteruter (d) Error

9 Consider a tuple t = (2 , 4, 5) , which of the following will give error ? 1

(a) list(t)[-1] = 2 (b) print(t[-1])

(c) list(t).append(6) (d) t[-1] = 7
10 What possible outputs(s) will be obtained when the following code is executed? 1

import random
AR = [20,30,40,50,60,70]
FROM = random.randint(1,3)
TO = random.randint(2,4)
for K in range(FROM, TO + 1 ):
print(AR[K] , end = '#')

(a) 10#40#70# (b) 30#40#50# (c) 50#60#70# (d) 40#50#70#

11 Fill in the blank: 1

__________ is a communication methodology designed to deliver both voice

and multimedia communications over Internet protocol.
(a)PPP (b)SMTP (c)VoIP (d)HTTP
12 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the 1
following code?

def prod (int a): #Statement 1

d=a*a #Statement 2
print(d) #Statement 3
return prod #Statement 4

Page 32 of 52
 (a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 (b) Statement 1 and Statement 4
(c) Statement 1 and Statement 3 (d) Statement 2 and Statement 4
13 State whether the following statement is True or False: 1
“ Exceptions are caught using try block .”
14 Fill in the blank: 1
_________ command is used to view the structure of the table.
(a) VIEW (b) DESC (c) SELECT (d) SHOW
15 Which unguided transmission media is required to be in line-of-sight distance? 1
(a) Radio Wave (b) Satellite
(c) Micro Wave (d) All of these
16 Which of the following statement is correct to position the file pointer at the 1
beginning of the file?
(a) FileObject.seek(0,0) (b) FileObject.seek(0,1)
(c) FileObject.seek(1,0) (d) FileObject.seek(0,2)
Q17 and Q18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions .
Mark the correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is False but R is True
17 Assertion (A) :- Raju is working on a list of numbers . He wants to print the list 1
values using traversing method . He insists that list can be traversed both in
forward direction and backward direction .
Reasoning (R) :- List can be traversed from first element to last element only .
18 Assertion (A) :- If the arguments in function call statement match the number 1
and order of arguments as defined in the function definition , such arguments
are called positional arguments .
Reasoning (R) :- During a function call , the argument list first contains default
argument(s) followed by positional argument(s) .
SECTION - B
19 (i) Expand the following terms: 2
WLL , GPRS

(ii) Give one difference between URL and domain name.

20 Rewrite the following code in Python after removing all syntax error(s). 2
Underline each correction done in the code.

DEF execmain():
x = int(input("Enter a number:"))
if (abs(x)= x)
print("You entered a positive number")
else:
x=*-1

21 Write a function DISPLAY(R) in Python, that takes the dictionary, R as an 2

argument and displays the names (in uppercase) , whose names begins with 'G'
character.

For example, Consider the following dictionary

Page 33 of 52
 R ={"Rohini" : 24,"Govind" :12 ,"Sheetal":36,"Gyan":10}

The output should be:

GOVIND
GYAN
OR

Write a function INDEXLIST(L), where L is the list of elements passed as

argument to the function. The function returns another list named ‘indexList’
that stores the indices of all Non-Zero Elements of L.

For example:
If L contains [12,4,0,11,0,56]

The indexList will have - [0,1,3,5]

22 Predict the output of the following code: 2
Fruits = {}
f1=['Apple', 'Grapes', 'Orange', 'apple' ,'banana', 'Grapes']
for index in f1:
if index in Fruits:
Fruits[index]+=1
else:
Fruits[index]=1
for i , j in Fruits.items() :
print(i,j , sep = '@')
23 Write the Python statement for each of the following tasks using BUILT-IN 2
functions/methods only:
(i) To insert an element 100 at the last position, in the list L1.
(ii) To check whether a string named, message starts with a character ‘t’ or not.
24 Mr. Rohan has just created a table named “Student” containing columns Sname, 2
Stream and Address.
After creating the table, he realized that he has forgotten to add a primary key
column in the table. Help him in writing an SQL command to add a primary key
column Rno of integer type to the table Student.

Thereafter, write the command to insert the following record in the table:

Rno- 5
Sname- Shweta
Stream: Science
Address: New Delhi
25 Predict the output of the following code: 2

def Change(P, Q = 30):

P=P+Q
Q=P-Q
print(P , "#",Q)
return (P)
R = 150
S = 100
R = Change(R,S)
S = Change(S)

Page 34 of 52
 SECTION – C
26 Predict the output of the Python code given below: 3

s = '3&Four'
n = len(s)
m = ''
for i in range(0,n):
if s[i] >= 'A' and s[i] <= 'Z':
m = m + s[i].upper()
elif s[i] >= 'a' and s[i] <= 'z' :
m = m + s[i-1]
elif s[i].isdigit():
m = m + s[i].lower()
else :
m = m + '-'
print(m)

27 Consider the table EMPLOYEE given below and write the output of the SQL 1+1+1
queries that follow. =3

Table : EMPLOYEE

Ecode Name Salary Job City

E1 Ritu Jain 50000 Manager Delhi
E2 Vikas Verma 45000 Executive Jaipur
E3 Rajat Chaudhary 30000 Clerk Delhi
E4 Leena Arora 45000 Manager Bangalore
E5 Shikha Sharma 50000 Accountant Kanpur

(i) Select Name, job from Employee Where Salary Between 40000 and 50000
;
(ii) Select AVG(Salary) from Employee Where Job In (‘Manager’, ‘Executive’,
’Clerk’);
(iii) Select Sum(Salary) from Employee Where Name Like ‘%a’;

28 Write a function ETCount() in Python, which should read each character of a 3

text file “TESTFILE.txt” and then count and display the occurrence of alphabets
E and T individually (including small cases e and t too).
Example:
If the file content is as follows:
Today is a pleasant day.
It might rain today.
It is mentioned on weather sites
The ETCount() function should display the output as:
E or e: 6
T or t : 9

OR

Page 35 of 52
 Write a function CountVC() in Python to read a text file “Versions.txt” and then
count and display the total number of vowels and consonants (including small
cases and uppercases).
Example :
If the file content is as follows :
Updated information
As simplified by official websites.
The CountVC() function should display the output as :
The total number of Vowels : 20
The total number of Consonants : 28
29 Consider the table Trainer given below: 1+1+1
=3
Table : Trainer
TID TNAME CITY HIREDATE SALARY
101 SUNAINA MUMBAI 1998-10-15 90000
102 ANAMIKA DELHI 1994-12-24 80000
103 DEEPTI CHANDIGARG 2001-12-21 82000
104 MEENAKSHI DELHI 2002-12-25 78000
105 RICHA MUMBAI 1996-01-12 95000
106 MANIPRABHA CHENNAI 2001-12-12 69000
Based on the given table, write SQL queries for the following:
(i) Display the Trainer Name, City & Salary in descending order of their
Hiredate.
(ii) To display the TNAME and CITY of Trainer who joined the Institute in the
month of December 2001.
(iii) To display number of Trainers from each city.
30 Rohit has created a dictionary containing names and marks as key value pairs 3
of 5 students. Write a program, with separate user defined functions to perform
the following operations:
● Push the values (marks of the student) of the dictionary into a stack, where
the corresponding key (name) starts with the letter ‘G’ .
● Pop and display the content of the stack , if the stack is empty , display
the message as “UNDERFLOW” .
For example:
If the sample content of the dictionary is as follows:
R={"GEETA":78,"SEETA":92,"GARIMA":60,"MANISHA":85,"GIRIJA":77
}
The output from the program should be:
77
60
78
UNDERFLOW
SECTION - D
31 MakeInIndia Corporation, an Uttarakhand based IT training company, is 1 * 5 = 5
planning to set up training centres in various cities in next 2 years. Their first
campus is coming up in Kashipur district. At Kashipur campus, they are
planning to have 3 different blocks for App development, Web designing and

Page 36 of 52
Movie editing. Each block has number of computers, which are required to be
connected in a network for communication, data and resource sharing. As a
network consultant of this company, you have to suggest the best network
related solutions for them for issues/problems raised in question nos. (i) to (v),
keeping in mind the distances between various blocks/locations and other given
parameters.

APP MOVIE EDITING

MUSSOORIE DEVELOPMENT
CAMPUS

KASHIPUR
CAMPUS
WEB
DESIGNING

Distance between various blocks/locations:

Block Distance
App development to Web designing 28 m
App development to Movie editing 55 m
Web designing to Movie editing 32 m

Kashipur Campus to Mussoorie Campus 232 Km

Number of Computers are as follows :
Block Number of computers
App development 75
Web designing 50
Movie editing 80

(i) Suggest the most appropriate block/location to house the SERVER in the
Kashipur campus (out of the 3 blocks) to get the best and effective connectivity.
Justify your answer.
(ii) Suggest a device/software to be installed in the Kashipur Campus to take
care of data security.
(iii) Suggest the best wired medium and draw the cable layout (Block to Block)
to economically connect various blocks within the Kashipur Campus.
(iv) Suggest the placement of the following devices with appropriate reasons:
a. Switch / Hub
b. Repeater

Page 37 of 52
 (v) Suggest a protocol that shall be needed to provide Video Conferencing
solution between Kashipur Campus and Mussoorie Campus.
32 (i) Give any two points of difference between a binary file and a csv file. 2+3=5
(ii) Consider a file, record.csv , where each record consists of a list with field
elements as empid, name and salary to store employee id, employee name and
employee salary respectively.
Write a function COUNTR() , to count the number of records present in the
CSV file named ‘record.csv’.
OR
(Option for part (ii) only)

In a csv file furdata.csv , each record consists of a list with field elements as
fid, fname and fprice to store furniture id, furniture name and furniture price
respectively.
Write a function search() to display the records of the furniture whose price is
more than 10000.
33 (i) Define the term Cardinality and Degree with respect to RDBMS. 1+4=5
(ii) Rohan wants to write a program in Python to update some records in the
table named Student in MYSQL database, SCHOOL:

rno (Roll number )- integer

name (Name) - string
Stream (Date of birth) – string
Marks – integer
Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MySQL:
Username - root
Password - password
Host - localhost
The values of name field need to be changed whose rno is provided . Note that
the values for the fields rno and name, has to be accepted from the user. Help
Rohan to write the program in Python.
SECTION - E
34 Consider the tables WORKERS and DESIGN given below: 1*4=4

TABLE : WORKERS

W_ID FIRSTNA LASTNAME ADDRESS CITY

ME

102 SAM TONES 33 ELM ST. PARIS

105 SARAH ACKERMAN 440 U.S. 110 NEW YORK

144 MANILA SENGUPTA 24FRIENDS NEW

STREET DELHI

210 GEORGE SMITH 83 FIRST HOWARD

STREET

Page 38 of 52
 255 MARY JONES 842 VINE LOS
AVE. ANGLE

300 ROBERT SAMUEL 9 FIFTH WASHING

CROSS TON

335 HENRY WILLIAMS 12MOORE BOSTON

STREET

403 RONNY LEE 121 NEW YORK

HARRISON
ST.

451 PAT THOMPSON 11 RED PARIS

ROAD

TABLE : DESIGN

W_ID SALARY BENEFITS DESIGNATION

102 75000 15000 MANAGER

105 85000 25000 DIRECTOR

144 70000 15000 MANAGER

210 75000 125000 MANAGER

255 50000 12000 CLERK

300 45000 10000 CLERK

335 40000 10000 CLERK

403 32000 7500 SALESMAN

451 28000 7500 SALESMAN

Write SQL queries for the following:

(i) To display the FIRSTNAME , CITY and TOTAL SALARY of all clerks
from the tables workers and design , where TOTAL SALARY = SALARY +
BENEFITS .
(ii) To display the minimum salary of employees of each designation .
(iii) Increase the BENEFITS of all Salesmen by 10% in table DESIGN .

Page 39 of 52
 (iv) To display the W_ID and SALARY of all employees between 50000 to
70000 .

35 Soham is a Python programmer working in an Organization . To maintain the 2+2=4

records of the employees , he has created a binary file named EMP.dat, to store
the details about the employees . The structure of EMP.dat is :

[EmpNo, Name, Salary, Gender, Designation]

Where
EmpNo is Employee Number (integer)
Name is Employee Name (string)
Salary is Employee Salary (integer)
Gender is Employee Gender (string)
Designation is Employee Designation (string)

For efficiently maintaining data for the Organization , Soham wants to write the
following user defined functions:

CREATE() - to add records to the binary file “EMP.dat” .

SEARCH() - to search and display the details of all those employees whose
salary is in the range of 50,000 to 80,000.
As a Python expert, help him complete the task.

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-5, 2023-24

COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS-XII
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION-A
Q. NO. QUESTION MARKS
1 State True or False. 1
“The # symbol used for inserting comments in Python is a token”.
2 Find the datatype of ‘A’ in the following statement. 1
A=100-10,100,10,10+100,10*100

Page 40 of 52
 (a) list (b) tuple (c) integer (d) Error
3 Given the following dictionary: 1
D={'B':'Black','R':'Red','B':'Blue'}
Find the value of D1:
D1=dict.fromkeys(D)
(a) {'B': None, 'R': None, 'B': None}
(b) {'Black': None, 'Red': None, 'Blue': None}
(c) {'B': ' ', 'R': ' '}
(d) {'B': None, 'R': None}
4 Consider the given expression: 1
not True and not False or not not False and not True
Which of the following will be correct output if the given expression is evaluated?
(a) True (b) False (c) None (d)Error in the code
5 Select the correct output of the code: 1
a='AISSCE 2023'
b=len(a.split('S')+list(a.partition(' ')))
print(b)
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
6 Which of the following is not a correct Python statement to open a binary file 1
Notes.dat to write content into it?
(a) F=open('Notes.dat', 'wb') (c) F=open('Notes.dat', 'rb')
(b) F=open('Notes.dat', 'wb+') (d) F=open('Notes.dat', 'rb+')
7 Fill in the blank: 1
______ command is used to change the price of a product.
(a) UPDATE (b) ALTER (c) CREATE (d) RENAME
8 Which SQL command is used to remove row(s) from the table Student? 1
(a) Drop Table Student
(b) Drop From Student
(c) Delete * From Student
(d) Delete From Student
9 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the following 1
code?
def prod (int a): #Statement 1
d=a*a #Statement 2
print(d) #Statement 3
return prod #Statement 4

Page 41 of 52
 (a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 (c) Statement 1 and Statement 4
(b) Statement 1 and Statement 3 (d) Statement 2 and Statement 4
10 Fill in the blank: 1
In DBMS, ________ is a candidate key in a relation.
(a) Foreign Key
(b) Alternate Key
(c) Primary Key
(d) All of the above
11 Which of the following statement is correct to position the file pointer at the beginning 1
of the file?
(a) FileObject.seek(0,0)
(b) FileObject.seek(0,1)
(c) FileObject.seek(1,0)
(d) FileObject.seek(0,2)
12 Fill in the blank: 1
_________ command is used to view the structure of the table.
(a) VIEW (b) DESC (c) SELECT (d) SHOW
13 Which unguided transmission media is required to be in line-of-sight distance? 1
(a) Radio Wave
(b) Satellite
(c) Micro Wave
(d) All of the above
14 What will the following expression be evaluated to in Python? 1
print((15//2*3+4)+10%3)
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 2 (d) 26
15 Which of the following operator is used for pattern matching? 1
(a) BETWEEN (c) IS LIKE
(b) HAVING (d) LIKE
16 A resultset is extracted from the database using the cursor object (that has been 1
already created) by giving the following statement.
Mydata=cursor.fetchone()
What will be the datatype of Mydata object after the given command is executed?
(a) tuple (b) list
(c) nested tuple (d) hexadecimal address
Q17 and Q18 are ASSERTION and REASONING based questions. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.

Page 42 of 52
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is True but R is False.
(d) A is False but R is True.
17 Assertion (A): The local and global variables declared with the same name in the 1
function are treated same by the Python interpreter.
Reason (R): The variable declared within the function block is treated to be local
variable whereas, the variable declared outside the function block will be referred to
as global variable.
18 Assertion (A): Python provides a built-in module called csv module to enable reading 1
and writing operation in csv file.
Reason (R): It used mainly the classes csv.writer and csv.reader. The csv.writer class
creates a writer object, whereas the csv.reader class returns a reader object.
SECTION-B
19 Rishi has written a code and his code is having errors. Rewrite the correct code and 2
underline the corrections made.
x=input("Enter a no:-")
if x%2=0:
for i range(2*x):
Print(i)
loop else:
print("#")
20 Write two points of differences between Switch and Hub. 2
(OR)
Write any two pints of differences between Star Topology and Bus topology.
21 (a) Given is a Python string declaration: 1
S="Cyber World @@ 2022"
Write the output of: print(S.replace('2','2+1')[::-2])
(b) Write the output of the code given below: 1
D={'India':'New Delhi', 'China':'Beijing', 'USA':'Washington DC',
'UK':'London'}
for i in D:
if 'U' in i:
D[i]+='Ok'
for i in D.values():
print(i,end=' ')
22 What is a primary key? What is its significance in a relation? 2

Page 43 of 52
23 (a) Write the full forms of the following: 2
(i) GPRS (ii) XML
(b) What is the use of SMTP?
24 Predict the output of the Python code given below: 2
def div5(n):
if n%5==0:
return n*5
else:
return n+5
def output(m=5):
for i in range(0,m):
print(div5(i),'@',end='')
print()
output(7)
output()
(OR)
Predict the output of the Python code given below:
L='Alexander'
x=''
l1=[]
count=1
for i in L:
if i in ['a','e','i','o','u']:
x=x+i.upper()
else:
if count%2!=0:
x=x+str(len(L[:count]))
else:
x=x+i
count+=1
print(x)
25 Differentiate between CHAR and VARCHAR datatype in MySQL with appropriate 2
example.
(OR)
Categorize the following commands as DDL or DML:
CREATE, DELETE, INSERT, DROP

Page 44 of 52
 SECTION-C
26 a) Consider the following table Student and Record: 1+2
Table: Student
Id Name Class City
3 Hina 3 Delhi
4 Megha 2 Delhi
6 Gouri 2 Delhi

Table: Record
Id Class City
9 3 Delhi
10 2 Delhi
12 2 Delhi

What will be the output of the following statement:

SELECT student.name, student.id, record.class, record.city
FROM student JOIN record
ON student.city = record.city;
b) Write output of the queries (i) to (iv) based on the table, ORDERS given below:
Table: ORDERS
OrderId CustomerId DateOfOrder Price Qty
BT001 80 03-Jan-2018 45000 10
TRP010 78 10-Mar-2020 51000 5
BQS004 34 19-Jul-2021 22000 2
CM003 23 30-Dec-2016 12000 3
TQ006 81 17-Nov-2019 15000 12
BT006 78 01-Jan-2021 28000 14
(i) SELECT SUM(Qty) FROM ORDERS WHERE Price>15000;
(ii) SELECT MAX(DateOfOrder) FROM ORDERS;
(iii) SELECT * FROM ORDERS
WHERE Qty>5 AND OrderId LIKE "T%";
(iv) SELECT DateOfOrder FROM ORDERS
WHERE CustomerId IN (70, 80) ;
27 Write a function COUNT() to count total occurrences of “He” and “She” separately 3
present in a text file “Story.txt”.
For example, if the content of Story.txt is: -

Page 45 of 52
 He has a camera. The camera belongs to him.
She has a diamond ring. She likes her ring.
Then the output should be:-
Total number of He=1
Total number of She=2
(OR)
Write a function CountVowelConso() which will calculate the total number of
occurrence of vowels and consonants in a text file ‘Text.txt’.
For example, if the content of Text.txt is: -
I like Python Programming.

Then the output should be: -

Total vowels=7
Total consonant=15
28 (a) Write the outputs of the SQL queries (i) to (iv) based on the relations WORKERS 2+1
and DESIG given below:
Table: WORKERS
W_ID FIRSTNAME LAST GENDER ADDRESS CITY
NAME
102 Sam Tones M 33 Elm St Paris
105 Sarah Ackerman F U.S. 110 New York
144 Manila Sengupta F 24 Friends New Delhi
Street
210 George Smith M 83 First Howard
Street
255 Mary Jones F 842,Vine Losantiville
Ave.
300 Robert Samuel M 9 Fifth Cross Washington
335 Henry Williams M 12 Moore Boston
Street
403 Ronny Lee M 121 Harrison New York
St.
451 Pat Thompson M 11 Red Road Paris
(i) To display W_ID, FIRSTNAME, ADDRESS and CITY of all employees
living in New York from the table WORKERS.
(ii) To display the contents of WORKERS table in ascending order of
LASTNAME.
(iii) To display the Minimum SALARY among Managers and Clerks separately
from the table DESIG.
(iv) To display FIRSTNAME and SALARY from WORKERS and DESIG Table
for each worker.

(b) Write the command to view all the databases present in the system.

Page 46 of 52
29 Write a function FIND() that takes a nested list L (containing integers only) as its 3
argument. The function returns another list named ‘MaxList’ that stores the largest
element of each sub list L.
For example:
If L contains [[8,11,10,12],[5,14,6,7],[2,4,5,19],[3,12,5,12]]
The MaxList will have - [12,14,19,12]
30 A list contains following record of a ‘Computer’: [MACAddress, Brand, Price, RAM] 3
Write separate user defined functions to perform given operations on the stack named
‘System’:
(i) Push_element() - To Push an object containing Brand and Price of computers
whose RAM capacity is more than 4GB.
(ii) Pop_element() - To Pop the objects from the stack and display them. Also, display
“Stack Empty” when there are no elements in the stack.

For example:
If the lists of computer details are:
[“M001”, “Lenovo”, 75000, 16]
[“M002”, “HP”, 72000, 8]
[“M003”,”Apple”, 110000, 16]
[“M004”, “Compaq”, 50000, 4]

The stack should contain

[“Lenovo”, 75000]
[”Apple”, 110000]
The output should be:
[“Lenovo”, 75000]
[”Apple”, 110000]
Stack Empty
OR
BCCI has created a dictionary containing top players and their runs as key value pairs
of cricket team. Write a program, with separate user defined functions to perform the
following operations:
● Push the keys (name of the players) of the dictionary into a stack, where the
corresponding value (runs) is greater than 49.
● Pop and display the content of the stack.
For example:
If the sample content of the dictionary is as follows:

Page 47 of 52
 SCORE={"KAPIL":40, "SACHIN":55, "SAURAV":80, "RAHUL":35,
"YUVRAJ":110}
The output from the program should be:
YUVRAJ SAURAV SACHIN
SECTION-D
31 Mr. Asmit is the class teacher of Class- XII-C. He created a table named ‘Student’ to 1+1+2
store records like StuID, Name, Gender, Age and AvgMark of his section students.
StuID Name Gender Age AvgMark
CB01 Abhijeet Boy 19 87
CB02 Monal Girl 18 91
CB03 Divya Girl 17 89
CB04 Sujata Girl 18 78
CB05 Chirag Boy 18 77

Based on the data given above answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the most appropriate column which can become a Foreign Key. Justify
your answer.
(ii) Find the degree and cardinality of the above relation if 5 new students record is
added to the existing records.
(iii) Write the statements to:
a. Insert the following record into the table
CB06, Navneeth, Boy, 18, 80.
b. Increase the AvgMark of all Girls by 3.
OR (Option for part iii only)
(iii) Write the statements to:
a. Delete the record of students whose age is 17.
b. Add a column REMARKS in the table with datatype as varchar with 50 characters.
32 Robin, a software programmer is writing a program to create a CSV file which will
contain ItemID and ItemName for some entries. He has written the following code.
As a good friend of Robin, help him to execute the following code successfully:
import csv
def AddItem(ItemID, ItemName):
fin=open(“Item.csv”,__________) #Line 1
csvw=csv.writer(fin)
csvw.writerow([ItemID,ItemName])
fin.close()

Page 48 of 52
 def readcontents():
fout=open(“Item.csv”,”r”)
csvr=csv.__________(fout) #Line 2
for rec in csvr:
print(rec[0],rec[1])
fout._____________() #Line 3
i) In which mode he should open the file in function AddItem() in Line 1. 1
ii) Which function is required to be used in Line 2 and Line 3. 1
iii) How to perform the following operation? 2
• to call the function AddItem() to add an item detail 101, “Sofa” .
• to display the entire content of the CSV file by calling the function
readcontents().
SECTION-E
33 TPU University is setting up its academic blocks at Udaipur and is planning to set up
a network. The University has 3 academic blocks and one Human Resource Centre as
shown in the diagram below:

Center to Center distances between various blocks/center is as follows:

1
(i) Suggest an ideal layout for connecting these blocks/centers for wired connectivity.
1
(ii) Which device will you suggest to be placed/installed in each of these
blocks/centers to efficiently connect all the computers within these blocks/centers.
1
(iii) Suggest the placement of Server in the network with justification.
1
(iv) The university is planning to connect its admission office in Delhi, which is more
than 780 km from the university. Which type of network out of LAN, MAN, or WAN
will be formed? Justify your answer.
1

Page 49 of 52
 (v) Suggest the device/ software to be installed in Udaipur campus to take care of data
security.
34 (a) Write the output of the code given below: 2+3
def Change(p,q=30):
global s
s=p*q
q=p//q
print(p,'@',q)
return p
p=150
s=100
r=Change(p,s)
print(p,'@',s)
(b) A table ‘Student’ is created in the database ‘Performance’. The fields of ‘Student’
table are: [StuID, Name, Class, Total, Grade]. Thereafter, the table is to be interfaced
with Python IDLE to perform certain tasks. The incomplete code is given below:

import mysql.connector as mycon

mydb=mycon.connect(host='localhost', '________', user='root', passwd='twelve')
#Line 1
mycursor=mydb.cursor()
mycursor.execute("Select * from Student") #Line 2
________________________ #Line 3
for i in record:
print(i)

Now, with reference to the above code, answer the following questions:
(i) What will you fill in Line 1 to complete the statement.
(ii) What will you fill in Line 3 to fetch all the records from the table?
(iii) What necessary change you will perform in Line 2 to display all such names from
the table ‘Student’ who have secured Grade A?
OR

(a) Predict the output of the code given below:

def change():
Text1="CBSE 2021"

Page 50 of 52
 Text2="#"
I=0
while I<len(Text1) :
if Text1[I]>="0" and Text1[I]<="9":
Val = int(Text1[I])
Val = Val + 1
Text2=Text2 + str(Val)
elif Text1[I]>="A" and Text1[I] <="Z":
Text2=Text2 + (Text1[I+1])
else :
Text2=Text2 + "*"
I=I+1
print(Text2)
change()
(b) A table is given below with following details:
Database: Certification
Table: Professional
Fields are: Code, Course, Duration, Eligibility, Fee
Based on the above information, the following code is given with some empty lines.
The incomplete code is given below:

import mysql.connector as mycon

mydb=mycon.connect(host='localhost', '________', user='root', passwd='twelve')
#Line 1
mycursor=mydb.cursor()
mycursor.execute("Select * from Professional")
record=________________________ #Line 2
rc=____________________________ #Line 3
print(“First three records of the table are:”,record)
print(“Number of rows in the table”, rc)
for i in record:
print(i)
Write appropriate argument/ statement to be filled in the above blank spaces.
(i) What will you fill in Line 1 to complete the statement.
(ii) Write approprate statement in Line 2 to read first 3 records from the file.
(iii) Write approprate statement in Line 3 to find total number of rows in the table.

Page 51 of 52
35 What is the use of writer object in a csv file. 5
Write a Program in Python that defines and calls the following user defined functions:
ADD(): To add data into the csv file named ‘Newspaper.csv’ containing records like
Name, NumberOfPages and Press of all Indian English Newpaper.

SEARCH(): Search a specific newspaper from the file on the basis of its Name. If
found, then display the details of the newspaper, otherwise display the message ‘No
such newspaper found’
OR
Give any one point of difference between a binary file and a csv file.

Write a Program in Python that defines and calls the following user defined functions:
ADD(): To add English mark of a student into the csv file named ‘English.csv’
containing records like Class, Section and Marks of a student.

COUNT(): Read all the records from English.csv. Count and display the number of
students who have secured 90 or above mark in English subject.

Page 52 of 52
 SAMPLE PAPERS

CBSE EXAM 2024

Class 12th
Sub : Physical Education
Marking Scheme links for all papers
is given at the end of these papers.

20 Sets

Disclaimer: These papers are based on the SQP released by CBSE and pro-
vided by a private organization just for the practice of the students.
CBSE has not released these papers and CBSE is not related to these
papers in any manner. Provider of these papers clearly state that these
are only for practice of students and question may not be come in main
exam.
Page 1 Sample Paper 1 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 1
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the human movement below :

(a) Push Ups (b) Modified Push Ups

(c) Sit and Reach (d) Partial Curl Up

2. The meso cycle represents a specific block of training that is typically made up of ______ micro cycles.
(a) 1 (b) 6-9
(c) 3-4 (d) more than 5

3. Sprain is an injury of the ______.

(a) Joint (b) Bone
(c) Muscle (d) Ligament
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Page 2 Sample Paper 1 Physical Education Class 12

4. Newton’s first law of motion is applicable in all these sports except _______.
(a) Dance (b) Baseball
(c) Softball (d) Soccer

5. The Summer Paralympics consist of ______ sports while Winter Paralympics consist of ______ sports.
(a) 20, 8 (b) 22, 6
(c) 17, 11 (d) 14, 14

6. All the following are macro nutrients, except

(a) Vitamins (b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Fats

7. Match the following.

A. Chromium 1. Dental problems
B. Cobalt 2. Anemia
C. Fluorine 3. Skin rashes
D. Zinc 4. Diabetes
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

8. Being cautious, reserved in nature and suppressing own emotions are features of which personality type?
(a) Type C (b) Type D
(c) Type B (d) Type A

9. Unintentional physical harm is known as ______.

(a) Instrumental aggression
(b) Negative aggression
(c) Hostile aggression
(d) None of the above

10. Soft tissue injuries may be categorised as _____and _______.

(a) Mile, acute (b) Underuse, overuse
(c) Hard, special (d) Acute, overuse

11. If 17 teams are participating then how many byes are needed to be given in a single knockout tournament?
(a) 14 (b) 17
(c) 16 (d) 15

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Page 3 Sample Paper 1 Physical Education Class 12

12. Fast twitch fibers are known as ______ fibers and slow twitch fibers are known as _____ fibers.
(a) White, red (b) Red, yellow
(c) Yellow, white (d) None of the above

13. Which of the following is not a cause of flat foot deformity?

(a) Faulty posture
(b) Body heaviness
(c) Standing for a long time
(d) Lack of Vitamin D and calcium

14. Vitamin B3 is commonly known as _______.

(a) Riboflavin (b) Niacin
(c) Pyridoxine (d) Thiamin

15. Important features of aggression are

(a) Unsportsman like behaviour.
(b) Use of abusive words.
(c) Physical attacking another participant due to anger.
(d) All of the above

16. Match the following.

A. Short term endurance 1. Marathon
B. Speed Endurance 2. 400 m Sprint race
C. Medium-term endurance 3. 800 m race
D. Long-term endurance 4. 1500 m race
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

17. The method which uses the momentum of a moving body or a limb in an attempt to force it beyond its
normal range of motion is known as _______.
(a) Dynamic stretching method
(b) Static active stretching method
(c) Ballistic stretching method
(d) PNF stretching method

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Page 4 Sample Paper 1 Physical Education Class 12

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Push ups help in building muscular strength.
Reason (R) Push ups are isokinetic muscular movements that provide strength to the joints.
In context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

SECTION-B

19. List down any four benefits of self talk by athletes in sports.

20. What should be the basic nutrient in a weightlifter’s diet and why?

21. Explain any two types of soft tissue injuries with help of examples.

22. List down any four effects of exercise on the muscular system.

23. Why are children most prone to greenstick fracture? Which are the most common sites of this fracture?

24. List down any four advantages of fartlek training method.

SECTION-C

25. Make a table explaining any three personalities from Big five theory and their characteristics.

26. Create a mind map including any six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs.

27. Explain any three physiological factors determining strength.

28. What are carbohydrates? Differentiate between its types.

29. What is the meaning of female athletes Triad? Explain any two in brief.

30. Define bye. Explain the rules of giving bye with help of an example.

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SECTION-D

31. In relation to the pictures, answer the following questions.

(a) What is the Motto of the first organization?

(b) What is the mission of the first organization?
(c) Second picture games are conducted after every _______ years.
(d) Until 1965 the games in the second picture were known as_______.
32. See the following figure :

On the basis of above given fixture answer the following questions:

(a) The fourth round in this case can also be called as _______.
(b) What is the formula for calculating the number of byes?
(c) Total number of matches in 2nd round are _______.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 1 Physical Education Class 12

(d) What is the formula for calculating the total number of matches?
O
The formula for calculating number of rounds is _______.

33. The teachers as well as coaches always make their best efforts to improve the performance of their
students in various competitive games and sports. They can help to improve the performance of students
if they have adequate knowledge of biomechanics.

(a) Newton’s second law is also known as________.

(b) The study of human body and various forces acting on it is________.
(c) The more force one exerts on the downward bounce, the higher the ball bounces into the air. Which
law is this statement being referred to?
(d) Among the above given pictures, Newton’s 3rd law is depicted in_______.
O
A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his or her body with as much force
as he or she is able to generate. This example refers to which law of motion?

SECTION-E

34. Define flexibility along with its types. Explain any two methods used to develop flexibility.

35. List down any four asanas used for prevention of asthma. Explain the procedure for administration of
any one of them with help of a stick diagram.

36. Define Projectile and explain any two factors affecting projectile with help of examples from sports.

37. Make a table of test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 yrs ) along with the objectives
of conducting them. Explain the administration of any one of them.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 2 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 2
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the yoga asana below:

(a) Urdhva Hastasana (b) Supta Vajrasana

(c) Tadasana (d) Uttana Mandukasana

2. ‘Extroversion’ is a personality type given by

(a) Big Five Theory (b) Carl Jung
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

3. Deficiency of which one of the following causes weakening of the muscles?

(a) Iodine (b) Sodium
(c) Fluorine (d) Potassium

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Page 2 Sample Paper 2 Physical Education Class 12

4. ______ in our knees connects our thigh bone with our shinbone, enabling us to walk.
(a) Ligaments (b) Bones
(c) Nerves (d) Tissues

5. Seeding is a procedure by which good teams are placed in fixtures in such a way that stronger teams do
not meet each other at the ______ of a tournament.
(a) middle (b) end
(c) start (d) None of the above

6. Which of the following trait is not included in the Modern-Day Types of Personality?
(a) Lazy (b) Competitive
(c) Extroverts (d) Pessimists

7. Jung classified most of the people as

(a) Classified equally (b) Ambiverts
(c) Extroverts (d) Introverts

8. The disadvantage of Fartlek training is ______.

(a) it requires specialised equipment
(b) it can lead to heart disease
(c) it keeps the body rigid
(d) it is difficult to judge the amount of effort made by the athlete.

9. Which of the following is not a yoga pose for treatment of diabetes?

(a) Tadasana
(b) Bhujangasana
(c) Pavan Muktasana
(d) Ardha Matsyendrasana

10. The components of physical fitness related to muscle do not include ______ of the muscle.
(a) Endurance (b) Speed
(c) Size (d) Strength

11. ______ is a leadership quality and includes letting staff know what needs to be done and also by when.
(a) Directing (b) Controlling
(c) Organising (d) Staffing

12. Which of the following coordinative abilities coordinates body part movements with one another?
(a) Rhythm (b) Balance
(c) Orientation (d) Coupling

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Page 3 Sample Paper 2 Physical Education Class 12

13. Which one of the following is not a part of Newton’s Second Law of Motion?
(a) Acceleration (b) Laceration
(c) Force (d) Mass

14. The first Special Olympics were held in _____ in July, 1968.
(a) Rome (b) London
(c) Chicago (d) Paris

15. Match the following :

A. Arm Curl Test 1. Aerobic endurance
B. Chair Stand Test 2. Agility
C. Eight Foot Up and Go Test 3. Lower body strength
D. Six-minutes Walk Test 4. Upper body strength
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

16. Which of the following is not a micro nutrient?

(a) Iron (b) Zinc
(c) Flavour compounds (d) Vitamins

17. Match the following :

A. Static friction 1. Ice Skating
B. Rolling friction 2. Swimming
C. Sliding friction 3. Tennis ball
D. Fluid friction 4. Basketball
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Friction is a necessary evil in sports.
Reason (R) Friction brings in efficiency in any sport whether cycling or playing football.
In context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

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SECTION-B

19. What do you understand by Bulimia?

20. Explain any four benefits of Ardha Matsyendrasana.

21. List down any three strategies to make physical activities accessible for CWSN.

22. Create a flowchart to explain classification of sports injuries.

23. Define explosive strength with the help of an example.

24. Write he steps of Treatment of laceration ?

SECTION-C

25. List any four changes happening in the muscular system due to exercising.

26. List down any two asanas used for preventing Asthma and write the method, benefits and contraindications
of any one of them.

27. What are the salient features of the Fartlek training method?

28. Write any three objectives of planning in Sports.

29. What is Posture? Give its importance.

30. Give the sources and functions of important minerals in our body.

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SECTION-D

31. In relation to the picture, answer the following questions:

(a) A machine that controls the speed of _______ within the range of motion is used.
(b) Which kind of machines provide these exercises?
(c) What type of exercise is shown in the picture given above?
(d) _______ exercise is similar isokinetic exercise in sports.

32. See the following figure :

On the basis of above given fixture answer the following questions:

(a) What type of fixture is given above?
(b) ______ will be total number of byes will be there?
(c) A ________ is a scheduled match for any competition or any tournament.
(d) How many matches will be played in the above fixture?
O
A league fixture may be represented by a ________method.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 2 Physical Education Class 12

33. Physical education teacher of ABC school was teaching the students about Newton’s Laws of Motion.

(a) “A body at rest will remain in rest and a body in motion will remain in motion at the same speed
and in the same direction unless acted on by some_______”.
(b) “A change in velocity (acceleration) of an object is directly proportional to the force producing it
and ________ proportional to its mass”.
(c) While explaining he showed the students this picture and tried to explain how there is a difference
in the speed of an object due to their weight. Can you name the Law?
(d) Every reaction has equal and opposite ________.
O
Everything that moves is governed by laws of motion formulated by whom?

SECTION-E

34. Explain the purpose, procedure, advantages and disadvantages of the Continuous method of training.
35. Briefly explain the administration of Pawanmuktasana along with its contraindications and draw stick
diagram.
36. Define ectomorphs and give their basic traits.

37. “Involvement in physical activities for longer period of time with moderate intensity can improve the
quality of life.” Justify your answer.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 3
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the yoga asana given below.

(a) Mandukasana (b) Yoga Mudrasana

(c) Gomukhasana (d) Tadasana

2. According to whom “Personality is the quality which permits a prediction of what a person will do in a
given situation”.
(a) RB Cattel
(b) JP Guildford
(c) NL Munn
(d) Ogburn and Nimkoff

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Page 2 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

3. Sodium is needed for the proper functioning of the _______

(a) Nervous system (b) Digestive system
(c) Metabolism system (d) Thyroid function

4. Which of the following is not a cause of sports injuries?

(a) Related to poor technique
(b) Age related causes
(c) Equipment selection related
(d) None of the above

5. Which of the following is not a contraindication in Matsyasana?

(a) Pregnancy
(b) Obesity
(c) High or low blood pressure
(d) Injury in lower or middle back

6. _______ is a method in which the players or teams directly participate in the quarter final or semi-final
matches thus avoiding their participation in the initial rounds.
(a) Special seeding (b) Bye method
(c) Staircase method (d) Fixed seeding

7. Which organ of the alimentary canal is known as ‘Graveyard of Red Blood Cells’?
(a) Spleen (b) Liver
(c) Duodenum (d) Pancreas

8. The Six Minute Walk test for senior citizens measures _______.
(a) Lower Body fitness
(b) Overall physical fitness
(c) Walking fitness
(d) None of the above

9. The duration of arm curl test is

(a) 15 seconds (b) 20 seconds
(c) 25 seconds (d) 30 seconds

10. What does BMI measure?

(a) The range of weight required to remain healthy.
(b) The amount of weight to reduce to remain healthy.
(c) Body fat calculated on the basis of height and weight.
(d) None of the above

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Page 3 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

11. White-muscle fibres are better adopted to perform _______.

(a) Medium contraction (b) No contraction
(c) Slow contraction (d) Fast contraction

12. In bow-legs, there is

(a) Knees colliding with each other
(b) Wide gap between the knees
(c) Plain foot sole
(d) Both legs curving inwards

13. Match the following.

A. Diabetes 1. Sarala Matsyasana
B. Asthma 2. Halasana
C. Hypertension 3. Supta Vajrasana
D. Obesity 4. Uttana Mandukasana
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

14. Match the following :

A. Copper 1. Seafood
B. Phosphorus 2. Beans
C. Fluorine 3. Almonds
D. Magnesium 4. Unpolished rice
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

15. For a well-trained athlete, the Pulmonary Ventilation may be around _______.
(a) 80 l/min. (b) 50 l/min.
(c) 120 l/min. (d) 100 l/min.

16. A vertical velocity of ______ represents the apex of the trajectory.

(a) Value of gravity (b) Zero
(c) Hundred (d) None of these

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Page 4 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

17. The sportsperson to be eligible to participate in Deaflympics Games must have a hearing loss of minimum
_______.
(a) 55 decibels
(b) 25 decibels
(c) 15 decibels
(d) 15 decibels to 45 decibels

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Lordosis is treatable by doing Tadasana and Bhujangasana.
Reason (R) These asanas strengthen the muscles and help in maintaining the balance of the body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

SECTION-B

19. Give the four main causes of the Knock knees.

20. What do you mean by soft tissue injuries?

21. What is the main physiological cause of Asthma?

22. What kind of sports injury can be termed as “Abrasion”?

23. How physical activities can be made accessible for the CWSN? Write any three strategies ?

24. What is the role of spectators in creating a positive sports environment? Explain.

SECTION-C

25. Explain how Mental Imagery can be used in Sports.

26. Discuss the preventive measure of sports injuries.

27. Explain the method, benefits and contraindictions of the Gomukhasana.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

28. Explain any three principles of training in brief.

29. What is the role of Yoga in preventing lifestyle diseases?

30. Give the sources of proteins and fats in our diet in brief.

SECTION-D

31. In relation to the picture, answer the following questions:

(a) In the diet provide about ______ of the total energy required by our body.
(b) Name two simple sugars.
(c) The given image is the source of ______ component of the food.
(d) They provide quick energy to the body and are not ______ in the body for long.
O
What is the main difference between the types of the diet component given in the figure above?

32. See the following figure :

On the basis of above given image answer the following questions:

(a) The gap between ankles goes on _______ in this deformity.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 3 Physical Education Class 12

(b) _______ should not be forced to walk at very early age.

(c) Which exercise should be done to cure this deformity?
(d) What kind of treatment is required for such deformity?
O
_________ disease process results in such deformity?

33. Mr. RK Sharma, aged 65 years worked as a civil engineer in a construction company. He had to walk
and climb a lot as part of his job. After retirement, he settled with his son and spent time with his
grandchildren. Nowadays he is experiencing difficulty in doing certain chores which involve physical
movement.

(a) The best time of the two trials to the nearest ______ of a second is taken.
(b) For mens age 60-64 years the average score will be ______ .
(c) The test shown in the picture is performed to assess which component?
(d) Give one coordination and agility test for the senior citizens.

SECTION-E

34. What is flexibility? Explain its types in brief.

35. What are the responsibilities of the finance committee in the sports events?

36. Explain the steps involved in the talent identification?

37. Explain the general principles for the prevention of disability.

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Page 1 Sample Paper 4 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 4
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the bone fracture below :

(a) Stress fracture (b) Transverse fracture

(c) Greenstick fracture (d) Comminuted fracture

2. Light and infrequent menstruation occurs when a woman has _______.

(a) Amenorrhea (b) Oligomenorrhea
(c) Fibroids (d) Abnormal Uterine Bleeding

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Page 2 Sample Paper 4 Physical Education Class 12

3. If a male senior citizen of 65 years completes two trials in the Eight Foot Up and Go Test in 5.3 and 4.2
seconds respectively, his agility will be classified as ________.
(a) Above average (b) Extremely poor
(c) Below average (d) Average

4. The source of phosphorus is _______.

(a) Meat (b) Eggs
(c) Fish (d) All of these

5. Which of the following is a cause of kyphosis?

(a) Hearing light and shapeless clothes (b) Disease effecting vertebrae
(c) Habitual overeating (d) None of the above

6. In a single tournament, a total of how many matches are to be played if 11 teams participate?
(a) 5 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 10

7. _______ training method was given by Woldemar and Greshler in 1939.

(a) Interval (b) Fartlek
(c) Continuous (d) All of these

8. In case of diabetes, which organ experiences inability to function properly?

(a) Kidneys (b) Pancreas
(c) Liver (d) Intestines

9. Which of the following statements is correct about fats?

(a) Fats improve external organs. (b) Fats increases blood pressure.
(c) Fats provides cooked material. (d) Fats improve the proper functioning of glands.

10. What is the normal adult heart rate?

(a) 75 beats/min (b) 92 beats/min
(c) 82 beats/min (d) None of these

11. ______ is helpful in the clotting of blood, prevention of haemorrhage and excessive bleeding in wounds.
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K

12. According to ______, personality is the totality of sentiments, attitudes, ideas, habits, skills and behaviors
of an individual.
(a) RB Cattel (b) Warren
(c) NL Munn (d) Ogburn and Nimkoff

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Page 3 Sample Paper 4 Physical Education Class 12

13. Match the following :

A. Plate Tapping Test 1. Flexibility
B. Eight foot up and go 2. Single leg balance
C. Flamingo Balance 3. Limb movements
D. Sit and Reach Test 4. Agility
(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

14. Which asana is also known as Cobra Pose?

(a) Bhujangasana (b) Chakrasana
(c) Gomukhasana (d) Paschimottasana

15. In a single knock-out tournament, how many byes need to be given if 17 teams are participating?
(a) 15 (b) 14
(c) 17 (d) 16

16. Match the following :

A. Oblique 1. Ends of cracked bones are driven into each other.
B. Comminuted 2. Curved or diagonal angle break to the bone.
C. Greenstick 3. Break or splinter into more than two fragments.
D. Impacted Fracture 4. Bone bends and cracks.
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

17. Isokinetic exercises have been developed by ______ in 1968.

(a) Hettinger (b) Muller
(c) Perrine (d) De Loone

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Vitamins are compounds of carbon which are essential for the normal growth and working
of the body.
Reason (R) Vitamin D is essential for normal growth of the body. Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to night
blindness and also effects kidneys, nervous system and digestive systems.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is false, but R is true.
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 4 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-B

19. List down any four benefits of self-talk by athletes in sports.

20. Enlist the four methods of reducing friction.

21. Your grandmother feels she has reduced her upper body flexibility and therefore she wants to test herself.
Which test would you suggest her?

22. Suggest exercises as a corrective measure for curing Lordosis.

23. List any four advantages of physical activities of CWSN.

24. What do you understand by Goal setting? Enlist its types.

SECTION-C

25. Explain briefly important types of dynamic friction.

26. State any two laws by Newton which are applied in sports?

27. Explain the physiological factors determining speed.

28. Write a short note on postural deformities.

29. Name any three important minerals. Also explain why these are important for proper growth and
functioning of human body?

30. Draw a fixture of 6 teams for a league tournament by cyclic method.

O
Fixture of 6 Teams.

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SECTION-D

31. On the basis of picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) ______ is the scientific name for bow legs

(b) List any two causes for the same.
(c) Identify the deformity portrayed in the figure.
(d) List any two corrective measures and precautions to be taken for this deformity.

32. On the basis of pictures given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Until 1965, the games in this organisation were known as______
(b) Second picture games are conducted after every______years
(c) Identify the logo.
(d) What is the motto of this organisation?
O
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Page 6 Sample Paper 4 Physical Education Class 12

The originator of these games is_______.

33. On the basis of picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the test shown in the picture above?

(b) What are the required equipments for this test?
(c) What is the purpose of this test?
(d) The time period for this test is_______.
O
What is the average range for men between ages 60 to 64 years in this test?

SECTION-E

34. Describe the type of personalities.

35. Briefly explain any five types of coordinative abilities.

36. Manav works in a warehouse. He lifts heavy loads on his back and shoulders for many hours every
day. Due to this he has developed an increase of his backward curve in his spine. Identify his postural
deformity write the causes and corrective measures.

37. What are the different types of vitamins B complex? Discuss any five of these.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 5
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the yoga asana given below.

(a) Mandukasana (b) Yoga Mudrasana

(c) Gomukhasana (d) Tadasana

2. Which of the following common postural deformities caused due to bad posture?
(a) Bow Legs (b) Scoliosis
(c) Flat foot (d) Round Shoulders

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Page 2 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

3. Which of the following is not a form of carbohydrate?

(a) Simple (b) Complex
(c) Multiple (d) All of these

4. Which of the following are two forms of isotonic exercises?

(a) Continuous and With Intervals (b) Concentric and Eccentric
(c) Static and Dynamic (d) Speed and Strength

5. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin A (d) All of these

6. Which of the following is a personality trait not included in the ‘Big Five Theory’?
(a) Agreeableness (b) Neuroticism
(c) Introversion (d) Conscientiousness

7. Hadavi and Burns defined _______ as a means of harnessing sporting talents to bring about future
success in international arena.
(a) Playing tournaments (b) Talent identification
(c) Training (d) None of the above

8. Match the following :

A. Energy yielding 1. Carbohydrate
B. Body-building 2. Vitamin
C. Protective 3. Cellulose
D. Fiber 4. Protein
(a) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

9. What is the height of the chair’s seat above the ground in the Senior Citizen Chair Stand Test?
(a) 44 cm (b) 17 cm
(c) Not specified (d) None of these

10. Match the following :

A. Polishing 1. Makes surface slippery
B. Lubrication 2. Makes surface smooth
C. Shoes and spikes 3. Replaces sliding friction with rolling friction
D. Use of ball bearings 4. Designed to increase friction such that better speed is generated
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
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Page 3 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

11. For a knock-out tournament, the procedure to draw fixtures is through ________.
(a) Seeding method (b) Bye method
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

12. Continuous training was developed by ______.

(a) Gosta Holmer (b) Greshler
(c) Dr Van Aaken (d) O Astrand

13. What is said about the ideal body weight at which person leads a healthy life?
(a) Mass weight (b) Balanced weight
(c) Foody weight (d) Healthy weight

14. If a person has a BMI of 23.2, the person is _______.

(a) Overweight (b) Obese
(c) Underweight (d) Normal weight

15. Which of the following is not a type of endurance?

(a) Power (b) Strength
(c) Speed (d) Aerobic

16. _______ is the ability to perform smooth and accurate movements involving different parts of the body.
(a) Subjugation (b) Coordination
(c) Differentiation (d) Adaptation

17. In which vitamin is water soluble?

(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin B

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Micro nutrients constitute the majority of individual’s diet.
Reason (R) Minerals and vitamins are included in micro nutrients.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is false, but R is true
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-B

19. Differentiate between fat soluble and water soluble vitamins.

20. What is the purpose of the abdominal partial curl up?

21. Suggest physical exercise or corrective measures for kyphosis.

22. Differentiate between micro and macro nutrients.

23. Explain the causes, and precautions for bow legs.

24. List down any two strategies to make physical activities accessible for CWSN.

SECTION-C

25. Is obesity a disease or not? Explain in brief.

26. Compare the injuries caused by abrasion and incision.

27. Write corrective measures for any three types of postural deformity.

28. What are the three personality types as formulated by Carl Jung? Describe each type in brief.

29. Define Friction. Draw a flow chart listing different types of friction. Discuss sliding rolling friction in
detail.

30. Explain the term ‘Balanced Diet’ by giving the roles played by its components.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the pictures given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the test and state its purpose.

(b) What are the equipments required for the test to be conducted successfully?
(c) This test is suitable for which age-group of children?
(d) Name any other two tests relevant for the same age group.
O
When the given test is terminated?

32. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Who developed these exercises?

(b) This is the example of which kind of exercises?
(c) These exercises were introduced by _____ and _____ in 1953.
(d) How many types of isotonic exercises are there? Name them.
O
Two types of these exercises are _____ and _____.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 5 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the pictures given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Women should take ______ supplements and eat food rich in proteins and _______.
(b) It is part of a syndrome with related conditions of amenorrhea and eating disorders. Name the
syndrome.
(c) Identify the disease and what are its causes?
(d) Imbalance of which hormone may also cause bone loss?

SECTION-E

34. Explain the procedure and benefits of any one asana used to cure diabetes.

35. Define flexibility and explain the methods of flexibility development.

36. Justify the statement, “Participation in games and sports results in all-round development of personality.”

37. Raghav is a five-year-old child. His mother noticed that he has a wide gap between his ankles and knees
overlap each other. Which deformity is Karan suffering from? Explain the deformity.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 6
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the test given below.

(a) Sit and Reach (b) Partial Pull-Up

(c) Back Scratch (d) Pushup

2. A_______is an injury that results in an irregular break in the skin, more commonly referred to as a cut.
(a) Abrasion (b) Fracture
(c) Laceration (d) Contusions

3. For Deaflympics gun shots are replaced by_______as signals for athletes.
(a) Flags (b) Visual signals
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

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Page 2 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

4. The______test is also known as Fullerton Functional Test for senior citizens.

(a) 50 mt. Speed (b) Rikli and Jones
(c) Sit and Reach Flexibility (d) Abdominal Partial Curl Up

5. Second Newton’s Law of Motion deals with_______.

(a) Acceleration (b) Extension
(c) Law of Inertia (d) Opposite reaction

6. Jung classified most of the people as______

(a) Ambiverts (b) Introverts
(c) Extroverts (d) None of these

7. Which among the following is not water-soluble vitamins?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin B12

8. _______is the ability to perform smooth and accurate movements involving different parts of the body.
(a) Subjugation (b) Adaptation
(c) Differentiation (d) Coordination

9. Which of the following procedure is not used for drawing up fixtures for a knock-out tournament?
(a) Seeding (b) Bye
(c) Staircase (d) Special Seeding

10. Match the following.

A. Sprain 1. Muscle injury
B. Greenstick 2. Skin damage
C. Contusion 3. Fracture
D. Abrasion 4. Ligament tear
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

11. Match the following.

A. Continuous Training 1. Perrine
B. Isotonic Exercises 2. O Astrand
C. Isokinetic Exercises 3. Van Aaken
D. Fartlek 4. De Loone
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

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Page 3 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

12. What is the beneficial effect of physiotherapy?

(a) Preventing further damage to the injured area.
(b) Relieving pain caused by the injury.
(c) Returning the normal function to the injured area.
(d) All of the above

13. Which one of the following is the Harris Benedict formula for Women?
(a) BMR = 66 + [9.6 # wt(kg)) + (1.8 # ht(cm)) – (6.8 # age(yrs)]
(b) BMR = 655 + [13.7 # wt(kg)) + (5 # ht(cm)) – (4.7 # age(yrs)]
(c) BMR = 655 + [9.6 # wt(kg)) + (1.8 # ht(cm)) – (4.7 # age(yrs)]
(d) BMR = 66 + [13.7 # wt(kg)) + (5 # ht(cm)) – (6.8 # age (yrs)]

14. The social qualities like character, morality, manners, etc. are developed through the process of________
(a) Aggression (b) team work
(c) socialisation (d) personality development

15. Pre-Menstrual Dysphonic Disorder (PMDD) includes_______discomfort prior to menstruation.

(a) Mental (b) Physical
(c) Emotional (d) Both (b) and (c)

16. Which of the asanas is not performed to help cure or manage asthama?
(a) Anuloma Vilom (b) Tadasana
(c) Yoga Mudrasana (d) Urdhva

17. Which among the following minerals are essential for proper thyroid function?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Calcium (d) Iodine

18. Assertion (A) People who fall in underweight category have BMI less than 18.5.
Reason (R) If the BMI is 30 or greater, the person is considered to be obese.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-B

19. Differentiate between instrumental aggression and hostile aggression.

20. What do you understand by vital air capacity?

21. What is a balanced diet? Elaborate any four nutrients/elements of a balanced diet.

22. What happens in the case of absence of menstrual cycle?

23. Differentiate between extroverts and introverts.

24. List any two uses of proteins in our diet. What are the deficiencies children can develop if they do not
have proper protein intake?

SECTION-C

25. ‘Doing asana is a healthy way of life.’ Justify the statement by giving any three importance of it.

26. Compare the basis on which different types of sports injuries are classified.

27. How can Newton’s Third Law of Motion be applied in swimming sport?

28. Define strain and its types in brief.

29. List any three pre-meet responsibilities taken by sports committees.

30. What are nutritive and non-nutritive components of a diet? List down the types of nutritive and non-
nutritive components and their benefits.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) The circle in the middle represents _______.

(b) What is the motto of these games?
(c) Identify the logo and where were they first held?
(d) Instead of gunshots, what is used to guide athletes in these games?
O
What do the colours used in the flag represent?

32. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) It is known to help which disease?

(b) Identify the yoga asana
(c) Another asana which can be helpful in curing the disease is ______.
(d) It stretches the ______ muscles of the body.
O
This asana is also known as _______.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 6 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Name the factors which determine flexibility.

(b) Name any two other types of methods to improve flexibility.
(c) Identify the method of improving flexibility.
(d) How many types of flexibility are there? Name them.

SECTION-E

34. Write any five effects of exercise on the muscular system.

35. What is a fixture? What are the different methods of to draw fixtures for tournaments? Draw a single
knock-out fixture of 17 teams?

36. Describe the types of joint injuries.

37. Describe what do you understand by Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness. Enlist the types of tests and
their purposes.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 7
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the asana:

(a) Halasana (b) Paschimottanasana

(c) Dhanurasana (d) Vajrasana

2. Select the incorrect option that does not describe strength.

(a) Knock-out strength (b) Explosive strength
(c) Strength endurance (d) Maximum strength

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Page 2 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

3. _______is the total storage of Alkali reserve in the body to fight against the effect of lactic acid.
(a) Lactic Acid Tolerance (b) Oxygen Uptake
(c) Phosphagen Store (d) Buffer Capacity

4. Which asana is also known as ‘Mountain Pose’?

(a) Tadasana (b) Trikonasana
(c) Gomukhasana (d) Vajrasana

5. Match the following.

A. Energy yielding 1. Carbohydrate
B. Body building 2. Vitamin
C. Protective 3. Cellulose
D. Fiber 4. Protein
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

6. Which of the following abilities of the athlete is tested by the Modified Push-ups Test?
(a) Upper body strength (b) Endurance
(c) speed and agility (d) Power

7. Which of the following is a personality trait included in the ‘Big Five’?

(a) Motivator (b) Openness
(c) Extroverts (d) Introverts

8. What are the parameters in which women are different from men?
(a) Lean body shape (b) Shorter in height
(c) Lesser in body mass and low fat (d) All of the Above

9. Gomukhasana should be avoided by those suffering from.

(a) Pregnancy (b) Shoulder pain
(c) Knee or back pain (d) All of the above

10. Which test is suitable for senior citizens to assess their upper body flexibility?
(a) Sit and Reach (b) Partial Curl Up
(c) Push Ups (d) Back Scratch Test

11. ______is a form of road running or cross-country running in which the runner usually changes the pace
significantly during the run.
(a) Interval training (b) Fartlek training
(c) Continuous training (d) None of the above

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Page 3 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

12. Match the following.

A. Knock-knee 1. Halasana
B. Bow Legs 2. Chakrasana
C. Lordosis 3. Padmasana
D. Round shoulders 4. Ardha Chakrasana
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

13. How much blood is pumped by heart in one beat?

(a) 70 ml (b) 90 ml
(c) 50 ml (d) 60 ml

14. _______is also known as channelled aggression.

(a) Assertive Aggression (b) Instrumental Aggression
(c) Hostile Aggression (d) None of the above

15. Where were the first Special Olympics games held in 1968?
(a) Chicago (b) New Haven
(c) Shanghai (d) Los Angeles

16. The objectives of specific sports programmes include________.

(a) Raising funds for charitable organisations (b) Improving the standard of sports
(c) Broadening the base of sports (d) All of the above

17. Who formulated the personality types on the basis of physical attributes?
(a) William Herbert Sheldon (b) Ogburn and Nimkoff
(c) Carl Jung (d) Maciionis

18. Assertion (A) Everyone should do yoga daily.

Reason (R) Yoga helps in avoiding various lifestyle diseases such as diabetes, obesity, and cardiovascular
disease.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-B

19. What are the various phases in a macro cycle?

20. Describe an incision wound with examples.

21. What do you understand by goal setting?

22. What is the purpose of a 600 m run/walk?

23. What are fat soluble vitamins? List the four types?

24. Design an exercises program for curing knock knees.

SECTION-C

25. Why do players show hostile aggression on the field? Enlist its types.

26. Discuss the functions and sources of fats.

27. Briefly explain any three common soft tissue injuries.

28. Briefly explain interval training method. State its advantages and disadvantages.

29. Explain the redistribution of blood flow in our body during exercise and rest.

30. What is the usefulness of Back Scratch Test for Senior Citizens? Describe how it is quantitatively
measured? Give two more example of senior citizen tests.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) A hard tissue injury is also known as _______.

(b) What are the causes of fracture ‘A’?
(c) Identify the type of fractures.
(d) Which of the two is more prone to angulation in the plane of the fracture?
O
Why the fracture ‘B’ is challenging?

32. On the basis of picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the postural deformity in the given figure.

(b) Mention any two causes for the same.
(c) Yoga asanas such as _____ are useful for treating this deformity.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 7 Physical Education Class 12

(d) It is a ______ curvature of the spine.

O
Mention any two precautions of this deformity.

33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) ______ are the basic constituents of our cells.

(b) Carbohydrates, Proteins and Fats together make up _______ nutrients.
(c) Fats contain 76 per cent of _____, 12 per cent of _______, and 12 per cent of _______.
(d) List any two sources of simple and complex carbohydrate each.

SECTION-E

34. Rajesh wants to assess the physical fitness of all the elderly people of his family. Suggest which test
should be conducted by him? Explain the test.

35. Explain any five different types of coordinative abilities.

36. Define and explain personality. Discuss the role of sports in personality development.

37. Suggest the formation of various committees for systematic and smooth conduct of the Annual Sports
Day in your school.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 8 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 8
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the type of movement:

(a) Adduction (b) Abduction

(c) Extension (d) Flexion

2. Slow twitch fibres are______in colour.

(a) Transparent (b) Brown
(c) White (d) Red

3. Which amongst these is not a micro mineral?

(a) Iron (b) Iodine
(c) Copper (d) Magnesium

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Page 2 Sample Paper 8 Physical Education Class 12

4. The amount of oxygen which can be absorbed and consumed by the working muscles from the blood is
called_________
(a) Oxygen Intake (b) Vital capacity
(c) Oxygen Uptake (d) Oxygen Transport

5. Watching others play and enjoy which in turn motivates the Child with special need to participate is a
part of which kind of strategy?
(a) Psychological (b) Social
(c) Mental (d) Physical

6. Jumping on the spot is an example of________.

(a) Iso-kinetic (b) Iso-metric
(c) Iso-kinesthetic (d) Iso-tonic

7. Select the carbohydrates which are soluble in water and crystalline in structure.
(a) Compound (b) Simple
(c) Complicated (d) Complex

8. Match the following:

I. Chair stand test. 1. Lower Body strength
II Arm curl test. 2. Aerobic Endurance
III. Back scratch test. 3. Upper body strength
IV. Six minute walk test. 4. Upper body flexibility
(a) I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4 (b) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1
(c) I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2 (d) I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4

9. In Law of Acceleration, acceleration of an object is inversely proportionate to its________.

(a) Speed (b) Force
(c) Size (d) Mass

10. Cartwheel in gymnastics is an example of_______.

(a) Dynamic Equilibrium (b) Passive Equilibrium
(c) Static Equilibrium (d) Active Equilibrium

11. Which asana is helpful in increasing height?

(a) Bhujangasana (b) Vajrasana
(c) Sukhasana (d) Tadasana

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Page 3 Sample Paper 8 Physical Education Class 12

12. Take-off in Long jump is an example of______strength.

(a) Maximum strength (b) Static strength
(c) Explosive strength (d) Strength endurance

13. How many byes will be given if there are 17 teams?

(a) 15 (b) 1
(c) 12 (d) 8

14. A person who likes to learn new things, new concepts and new experiences are categorized as_______.
(a) Extroversion (b) Openness
(c) Agreeableness (d) Conscientiousness

15. How many matches will be played in the knockout tournaments first round if there are 15 teams?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8

16. Match the following:

I. Garudasana 1. Round shoulder
II. Gomukhasana 2. Lordosis
III. Chakrasana 3. Bow legs
IV. Naukasana 4. Knock knees
(a) I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2 (b) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1
(c) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2 (d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3

17. Weakening of bones due to loss of bone density and improper bone formation is known as:______.
(a) Anorexia Nervosa (b) Lordosis
(c) Amenorrhea (d) Osteoporosis

18. Assertion (A): Intrinsic motivation has long term benefits.

Reason (R): As factors behind it are naturally pursuing actions that provide fun, pleasure, fulfillment or
challenge
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

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Page 4 Sample Paper 8 Physical Education Class 12

SECTION-B

19. Why are children most prone to greenstick fracture? Which are the most common sites of this fracture?

20. Briefly explain the importance of roughage in our diet.

21. What do you understand by Bulimia?

22. “Practicing yoga-asanas regularly can prevent many diseases.” Mention the asanas.

23. Discuss the functions and sources of fats.

24. Explain the purpose and procedure of 50 m Speed Test.

SECTION-C

25. Briefly discuss the importance and function of International Paralympic Committee.

26. To prevent the deformity of scoliosis, what precautions should be taken?

27. Compare the responsibility of Announcement Committee and Publicity Committee?

28. Isometric exercises are a very popular method for developing physical fitness. Describe what do you
understand about them.

29. State the Third Law of Motion given by Sir Issac Newton.

30. What do you understand by hypertension? Describe the procedure for performing any one yogic asana
which reduces hypertension.

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SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) List any four games included in these games.

(b) Identify the logo of these games.
(c) The ______ declared 1986 as the year of ‘Special Olympics.’
(d) The pioneer of the Special Olympics was _____.
O
The logo of these games is based on the sculpture _______.

32. On the basis of the pictures given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Yoga asanas to cure this deformity are ____ and _______.
(b) Other name of this deformity is ______.
(c) Identify the deformity.
(d) List any two causes for this deformity.
O
Mention two precautions of this deformity.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 8 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the test conducted in the figure.

(b) Name another test for the same category of people.
(c) It is a part of ______ test protocol.
(d) The test measures _____, _____, and _____, while moving.

SECTION-E

34. What do you understand by centre of gravity? Discuss its application in sports?

35. Name the methods used for drawing up fixtures in league tournaments. Draw a fixture of 9 teams with
4 teams being selected.

36. What do you understand by non-nutritive component? Elucidate any four non-nutritive components of
diet?

37. Define endurance. Explain the uses of endurance and its types.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 9
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Which of the following is an example of Lordosis?

(a) B (b) C
(c) A (d) None of these

2. Which postural deformity has Convexities right or left?

(a) Kyphosis (b) Scoliosis
(c) Knock knees (d) Flat foot

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Page 2 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

3. What is the test duration for the Arm curl test?

(a) 30 sec (b) 2 min
(c) 1 min (d) Number of repetitions

4. _______ discovered Vitamin A?

(a) Dr. Harvard (b) Dr. J.B.Nash
(c) Dr. Mc Collum (d) Dr. Coubertin

5. ______ test is developed to test fitness in senior citizens.

(a) AAHPER (b) Harvard step
(c) Rockport (d) Rikli and Jones

6. Formula for determining the number of bye in the lower half of a knockout fixture when number of byes
are odd?
(a) nb/2 (b) nb + 1
(c) nb + 1/2 (d) nb – 1/2

7. Gliding movement occurs at ______ joint.

(a) Wrist (b) Elbow
(c) Hip (d) Knee

8. Which motor skill is involved in Smashing volleyball?

(a) Fine motor skills (b) Open skills
(c) Gross motor skills (d) Cross motor skills

9. _______ is the other name for Vitamin B2.

(a) Folic Acid (b) Riboflavin
(c) Niacin (d) Thiamin

10. ________ is the formula to divide an odd number of teams in the upper half for a knockout fixture.
(a) N(N-1)/2 (b) N(N+1)/2
(c) N+1/2 (d) N-1/2

11. Harvard step is performed to check ______ kind of fitness.

(a) Explosive strength (b) Reaction ability
(c) Cardiovascular (d) Muscular strength

12. Which test is used to test the functional ability amongst senior citizens?
(a) Rockport one mile test (b) Rikli and Jones test
(c) Fitness Index score (d) Harvard step test

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Page 3 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

13. Consolation tournaments are a part of _____ type of fixture.

(a) League (b) Combination
(c) Knockout (d) None of these

14. ______ amongst these is not a macro mineral.

(a) Phosphorus (b) Iodine
(c) Calcium (d) Potassium

15. What is the name of the postural deformity caused due to increase in the curve at the lumbar region?
(a) Knock knees (b) Bow legs
(c) Kyphosis (d) Lordosis

16. Match the following:

1. Vitamin B12 A. Thiamin
2. Vitamin B3 B. Biotin
3. Vitamin B7 C. Cobalamin
4. Vitamin B1 D. Niacin
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1

17. Match the following:

1. A. lower body strength

2. B. lower body flexibility

3. C. upper body strength

4. D. abdominal strength

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Page 4 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 1 3 2

18. Assertion (A) : UNICEF says that water is not included in macro nutrients but USDA includes it as part
of macronutrients.
Reason (R): Water must be taken in large quantities therefore it can be considered a macronutrient.
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

SECTION-B

19. List any four applications of mental imagery.

20. What is the purpose of Plate Tapping Test? What are the equipments needed?

21. In Equestrian sport, when the horse comes to rest, then the rider bends forward to avoid failing. Rider’s
bending forward can be related to which Law of Newton? State the law.

22. Explain any two essential elements of diet.

23. Differentiate between Ardha Matsyendrasana and Matsyasana.

24. What is stroke volume?

SECTION-C

25. What are the characteristics of introvert personality group?

26. Draw a comparison between ‘passive flexibility’ and ‘active flexibility’.

27. State the effects of exercise on the respiratory system.

28. Explain the procedure of partial curl-ups exercise.

29. Which benefits make the Pavanamuktasana important to reduce obesity? List two of its contraindications.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

30. Draw a fixture of 11 football teams participating in a tournament using knock-out.

SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) This nutrient was discovered by ______.

(b) Its deficiency can lead to __________.
(c) This fruit is rich source of __________.
(d) The nutrient is also known as ________.
O
List any two major functions of this nutrient.

32. On the basis of the figure below, answer the following questions.

(a) This is a part of ______ Test Protocol.

(b) What is the average result for men in the age group 60-64 years old?
(c) These field measurements are particular to which test?
(d) What is the purpose of conducting this test?
O
Between male and female scores, the average score of ______ is almost always less than that of _____
in these tests.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 9 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the pictures below, answer the following questions.

(a) This injury most commonly affects the ______ of the four fingers.
(b) Identify the type of injury.
(c) Name two more injuries of this type.
(d) Mention the cause of this injury.

SECTION-E

34. A trainer can improve cardiorespiratory system with the help of exercise. Justify.

35. What do you understand by eating disorders? Discuss three disorders caused due to this.

36. What do you understand by Chair Sit and Reach Test? Explain the equipment required and procedure
for conducting it.

37. Eric is having a spinal deformity. There is an increased a forward curve in his lumbar region. Identify
the postural deformity. What are its causes and corrective measures?


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Page 1 Sample Paper 10 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 10
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A

1. Identify the asana in the figure given below.

(a) Urdhva Hastasana (b) Vakrasana

(c) Paschimottanasana (d) Halasana

2. Rikli Jones test is conducted on _______.

(a) Adolescent (b) Senior Citizens
(c) Children (d) Adults

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Page 2 Sample Paper 10 Physical Education Class 12

3. What is Bye?
(a) Placing of teams according to previous performance.
(b) Advantage given to a team to not play in initial round.
(c) It’s a method of drawing fixture.
(d) Point system for team games.

4. Partial curl up is to test:

(a) agility and speed (b) abdominal strength and endurance
(c) upper body strength and endurance (d) leg strength and endurance

5. _______ Vitamin is a group of 8 water soluble vitamins which are important for cellular metabolism.
(a) C (b) D
(c) E (d) B Complex

6. _______ represents the smooth running of the event.

(a) Organizing (b) Planning
(c) Managing (d) Feedback

7. A tournament where every team plays with every other team once and the number of matches is
determined with the help of N(N-1) is called as:
(a) Knock-out tournament (b) Single league tournament
(c) Double league tournament (d) None of these

8. A ______ diet contains all the essential food constituents necessary for growth and maintenance of our
body.
(a) Prescribed (b) consistent
(c) Strict (d) balanced

9. _______ methods helps best in maintaining a healthy body weight?

(a) Eating snacks frequently but no meals
(b) Reducing calories drastically in food eaten
(c) Leading an active lifestyle
(d) Missing at least one meal every day

10. Vitamin E deficiency causes:

(a) Weakness in heart and muscle (b) Anaemia
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

11. Allotment of bye is on the basis of _______.

(a) random draws (b) pre-decided sequence
(c) performance (d) first come first serve

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12. _______ is the last function during an event organisation.

(a) Managing (b) Organizing
(c) Feedback (d) Planning

13. Which of the following food helps in sustaining prolonged routine of exercise?
(a) Vitamins (b) Carbohydrates
(c) Fats (d) Proteins

14. Match the following :

LIST-I LIST-II
1. Abrasion A. Joint Injuries
2. Green stick fractures B. Soft tissue injuries
3. Shoulder Dislocation C. Cause of sport injuries
4. Lack of fitness D. Bone injuries
Choose the correct option from the following :
(a) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D (b) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
(c) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – C (d) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

15. Schedules fixed for the matches to be played their time, place, date and court, etc. known as ______.
(a) advantage (b) bye
(c) seeding (d) fixture

16. Match the following:

LIST-I LIST-II
1. Technical committee A. to provide shifting facility

2. Finance committee B. to resolve dispute

3. Transport committee C. to deals with money and expenditure
4. First and committee D. to provide medical facility
(a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
(b) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D
(c) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
(d) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D

17. Vitamin E contributes to the production of _______, making our ______ system strong.
(a) Antibodies, immunity
(b) Strength, digestive
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Hormones, muscular

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Page 4 Sample Paper 10 Physical Education Class 12

18. Assertion (A): “A change in the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force producing
it and inversely proportional to its mass”.
Reason (R): lighter mass will travel at a faster speed.
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

SECTION-B

19. Discuss the responsibilities of Award Committee and Press and Media Committee.

20. 10-year-old Swati eats lots of candies and dislikes eating vegetables. Swati is likely to suffer from which
deficiency? Give two sources to avoid said deficiency.

21. Write the details about the benefits of Katichakrasana.

22. Explain the method of doing isokinetic exercises.

23. Explain flat foot and also suggest corrective measures for this postural deformity.

24. What are fat soluble vitamins? Explain any two of them.

SECTION-C

25. What do you understand by Female Athlete Triad? List any four symptoms.

26. Compare two methods of speed development.

27. Explain the stair case method of a league tournament of 17 teams.

28. What do you understand by BMI? How is it calculated?

29. Explain the rules of competition for Paralympic Games.

30. Enlist the benefits and contraindications of Ardha Matsyendrasana.

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SECTION-D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) What are the required equipments for this test?

(b) What is the purpose of this test?
(c) Identify the test shown in the picture above.
(d) Who described these tests?
32. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) The ratio between inhalation and exhalation is _______.

(b) Identify the yoga asana.
(c) What is another term used for the same asana?
(d) What is the purpose of this asana?
O
_______ means produced in the reverse order.

33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the ‘X’.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 10 Physical Education Class 12

(b) This disorder comes under the umbrella of _______.

(c) ______ is a condition which causes low red blood cells.
(d) _______ is condition where a person refuses to eat well and maintain normal body weight according
to the height.
O
Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of _______nutrient.

SECTION-E

34. State any five minerals in brief.

35. Akhil is a hockey coach. He stresses on the need to develop coordinative abilities to hist students specially
needed in hockey. Do you agree with it? Also explain five types of coordinative abilities.

36. Explain the purpose of Arm Curl Test for senior citizens. Describe its procedure.

37. Explain the role of exercise or physical activities in improving the quality of life.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 11
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section A

1. Identify the yoga asana below.

(a) Yoga Mudrasana (b) Supta Vajrasana

(c) Mandukasana (d) Uttana Mandukasana

2. Cardiac output can be calculated with the help of which of the following formulas?
(a) Heart rate/Stroke volume
(b) Stroke volume/Heart rate
(c) Heart rate x Stroke volume
(d) (Stroke volume - Heart rate)/Heart rate

3. The first Paralympic games were organised in which country in 1960?

(a) Rome (b) USA
(c) Germany (d) France
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Page 2 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

4. Which is not a training method to develop endurance?

(a) Post Isometric Stretch method
(b) Fartlek method
(c) Continuous method
(d) Interval method

5. Which test is conducted to measure speed and coordination of limb movement?

(a) 50 mt Speed test
(b) Flamingo Balance test
(c) Sit and Reach Flexibility test
(d) Plate Tapping test

6. Newton’s Second Law of motion finds its application in all the given games except.
(a) Football (b) Sprints
(c) Softball (d) Baseball

7. ______ is the fracture which occurs when a bone bends and cracks, instead of breaking completely into
separate pieces.
(a) Impacted (b) Transverse
(c) Greenstick (d) Comminuted

8. Six Minute Walk Test is designed for senior citizens to test their ________ .
(a) Mental Fitness (b) Functional Fitness
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

9. Consolation tournaments are a part of which type of fixtures?

(a) Combination (b) Knock-out
(c) League (d) None of these

10. _______ is the procedure by which good teams are placed in fixtures in such a way that stringer teams
do not meet each other at the very start of the tournament.
(a) Bye method (b) Staircase method
(c) Cyclic method (d) Seeding method

11. Which of the following is the objective of forming sports committee?

(a) Defining tasks (b) Execution of plans
(c) Establish goals (d) All of the above

12. Thrust against the water in swimming is an example of Newton’s ______ law of Motion.
(a) Third (b) Second
(c) Inertia (d) First

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Page 3 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

13. The deficiency of which of the following nutrient is known as Pellagra?

(a) Vitamin B9 (b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin B2

14. A person who likes to learn new things, new concepts and new experiences are categorised as _________.
(a) Conscientiousness (b) Openness
(c) Agreeableness (d) Extroversion

15. Retarded growth, rickets and osteoporosis are caused by the deficiency of _______ while deficiency of
_______ weakens body muscles.
(a) Calcium, Copper
(b) Calcium, Potassium
(c) Potassium, Copper
(d) Vitamin A, Vitamin B12

16. Match the following

A. Law of Inertia 1. Baseball
B. Law of Acceleration 2. High Jump
C. Dynamic Equilibrium 3. Equestrian
D. Action and Reaction force 4. Gymnastics
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

17. Match the following

A. (Nb-1)/2 1. Number of teams in upper half (Seeding Method)
B. (N-1)/2 2. Number of byes in upper half (Bye Method)
C. (Nb+1)/2 3. Number of teams in lower half (Seeding Method)
D. (N+1)/2 4. Number of byes in lower half (Bye Method)

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

18. Given below are the two statements, labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) The deficiency of Vitamin C causes Scurvy
Reason (R) Unlike most plants and animals, humans cannot produce their own Vitamin C.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is false, but R is true
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

Section B

19. What do you understand by Reaction Speed?

20. What do you understand by controlling?

21. Differentiate between lung volume and tidal volume.

22. Ameebh is a student of class X and is suffering from back pain. What other posture deformity he might
experience? Suggest a yoga asana for the back pain.

23. Differentiate between fast twitch and low twitch fibers.

24. What is the effect of exercise on muscles? List any four. Discuss why does involvement in regular
exercise delay the onset of fatigue.

Section C

25. State the importance and sources of sodium, iodine and fluorine.

26. Compare the different kinds of strain that take place after an injury.

27. Give examples of non-nutritive compounds. Describe food additives and plant compounds in detail and
state its effects.

28. Explain about the procedure and advantages of Bhujangasana in the context of diabetes.

29. What is kyphosis and its causes? List any three precautions.

30. Describe in brief the methods of deciding winners in cyclic method.

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Page 5 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

Section D

31. On the basis of the picture below, answer the following questions.

(a) List any two benefits of the asana.

(b) Identify the yoga pose.
(c) It is a helpful asana to cure or manage______.
(d) It should be avoided by people with_______.
O
This asana helps to improve the_______system.

32. On the basis of the pictures given below, answer the following questions.

(a) It is an______curvature of the spine or a deformity of spinal curvature.

(b) Identify the spinal deformity.
(c) Suggest any two yoga asanas to cure the problem.
(d) List any two causes of the same.
O
What problems does this deformity creates?

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Page 6 Sample Paper 11 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the picture below, answer the following questions.

(a) List any two methods of reducing friction on the Basketball court.
(b) List any two factors affecting a basketball’s trajectory.
(c) Newton’s which law is applicable in this sport?
(d) List any two other sports which apply the above law.

Section E

34. Describe the benefits of performing Gomukhasana (cow face pose) and its contraindications.

35. Draw a knock-out fixture of 21 teams mentioning all the steps involved.

36. Discuss the short-term effects of exercise on muscles.

37. Differentiate between Aerobic and Anaerobic endurance.

Also, identify the types of training methods for endurance. Discuss any one in detail.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 12 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 12
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section A

1. Identify the yoga asana below.

(a) Surya Bhedana Pranayama (b) Shalabhasana

(c) Supta Vajrasana (d) Gomukhasana

2. Who of the following described personality as “Personality is the entire organisation of a human being
at any stage of development?”
(a) Warren (b) JP Guildford
(c) NL Munn (d) RB Cattel

3. Buffer capacity is the total storage of ______ reserve in the body to fight against the effect of lactic acid.
(a) Alkali (b) Acidic
(c) Phosphocreatine (d) Adenosine Triphosphate

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Page 2 Sample Paper 12 Physical Education Class 12

4. Thrust against the water in swimming is an example of the Newton’s _______ Law of Motion.
(a) Third (b) First
(c) Inertia (d) Second

5. Which mineral is required for the developing strong bones and teeth?
(a) Phosphorus (b) Copper
(c) Potassium (d) Sodium

6. Which one of the following is not a component of physical fitness?

(a) Flexibility (b) Muscle Composition
(c) Agility (d) Anaerobic capacity

7. ________ is essential for proper thyroid function and its deficiency causes goitre.
(a) Iodine (b) Phosphorus
(c) Calcium (d) Minerals

8. On the basis of duration of activity, which of the following is not a type of endurance?
(a) Short-term endurance (b) Long-term
(c) Specific endurance (d) Speed endurance

9. In which year, women started participating in Modern Olympics?

(a) 1914 (b) 1928
(c) 1900 (d) 1896

10. How many rounds will be played if the number of teams are 29 in the knock out fixture?
(a) 7 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 6

11. The torch that is carried to and lit at Special Olympic Games is called as the _______.
(a) Joy and Happiness of the world (b) Flame of Hope
(c) Hope of the World (d) Eternal Flame of Hope

12. The balance and stability of an individual depends upon the ______.
(a) Dynamic Equilibrium (b) Law of Inertia
(c) Centre of Gravity (d) Static Equilibrium

13. Which of the following is not a type of menstrual dysfunction among women?
(a) Menarche
(b) Amenorrhea
(c) Fibroids
(d) Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
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Page 3 Sample Paper 12 Physical Education Class 12

14. A sportsperson can become more stable by _____ his/her centre of gravity.
(a) increasing (b) neglecting
(c) lowering (d) None of these

15. Match the following :

A. Tadasana 1. helps in functioning of liver and kidneys
B. Ardh Matsyendrasana 2. increase insulin
C. Dhanurasana 3. helps alleviate sciatica
D. Mandukasana 4. expands thoracic region of the chest
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

16. Match the following :

A. Vitamin B2 1. Thiamin
B. Vitamin B1 2. Pyridoxine
C. Vitamin B6 3. Cobalamin
D. Vitamin B12 4. Riboflavin
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

17. Which of the following methods is used to improve hand-foot-eye synchronisation?

(a) Target Exercises
(b) Jump Roe
(c) Ball Toss
(d) Balance Exercises

18. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Katichakrasana is also called as fish pose.
Reason (R) Katichakrasana is always done in standing position with feet together.
In the context above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 12 Physical Education Class 12

Section B

19. Mahesh is a student of class VII and is suffering from Asthama. She is advised to perform Yoga asana.
Name two asanas would you suggest. Mention their contraindications as well.

20. What is the seeding method? Why is it done?

21. What are the essential features of a balanced diet?

22. Explain what do you understand by ‘dynamic friction’.

23. Explain the Arm Curl Test for upper body strength for senior citizens.

24. Differentiate between Gomukhasana and Bhujangasana.

Section C

25. What is the purpose of the Push-ups test? Describe procedure of the push-up for boys.

26. Compare the features of hostile and instrumental aggression.

27. There are various symptoms of diabetes through which a person can identify whether he has diabetes or
not. State the symptoms and prevention of diabetes.

28. With the help of suitable examples, discuss the applications of Newton’s Laws of Motion in sports.

29. Explain briefly the physiological differences between male and female athlete in muscle performance.

30. Elucidate the effects of exercise on the circulatory system.

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Section D

31. On the basis of the figure given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the type of exercise.

(b) How many types of isotonic exercises are there? Name them.
(c) Isometric exercises were introduced by_____in 1953.
(d) This type of exercises was developed by_____in 1968.
O
Name any two isometric exercises which can be done without equipment.

32. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) This mineral is required in production of_____.

(b) Identify the main micro mineral chick peas offers.
(c) Name other two sources which offer this mineral.
(d) List any two deficiencies related to the above micro mineral.
O
Name two other micro minerals.

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33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) It is also known as________.

(b) When a bone breaks at a right angle to the long axis of the bone, it is known as a______.
(c) Mention any one cause of this fracture.
(d) Identify the type of fracture.

Section E

34. Briefly explain the various dimensions of personality.

35. What are the methods of drawing up fixtures in league tournaments? Draw a fixture of 9 items in a single
league using staircase method.

36. Anubhav takes yoga classes. Mrs. Sharma with a BMI of 33.2 asked to show him yogic asanas to reduce
obesity. Is Mrs. Sharma obese? What are the reasons for obesity?
Which asanas help in reducing obesity? Explain the procedure of any one of the asanas.

37. Briefly explain any three physiological factors which determine speed.


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Page 1 Sample Paper 13 Physical Education Class 12

Sample Paper 13
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions
are compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal
choice available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not
exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section A

1. Identify the yoga asana below.

(a) Tadasana (b) Halasana

(c) Katichakrasana (d) Pavanamuktasana

2. Which of the following Laws of Motion given by Sir Issac Newton is also known as ‘Law of Inertia’?
(a) Third Law (b) Second Law
(c) First Law (d) None of these
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Page 2 Sample Paper 13 Physical Education Class 12

3. A person who is characterised by sociability, assertiveness and high amount of emotional expressiveness
is said to have _____ personality traits.
(a) Agreeableness (b) Conscientiousness
(c) Openness (d) Extroversion

4. BMR can be calculated by using the ______ formula.

(a) Harris Benedict (b) Fullerton Function
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

5. Which of the following is defined as the ability of a muscle or muscle group to rests fatigue?
(a) Muscular endurance (b) Muscular strength
(c) Agility (d) Flexibility

6. Which of the following equipments is not required for six-minute walk test?
(a) Chair (b) Ruler
(c) Measuring tape (d) Stopwatch

7. Match the following :

A. Vitamin A 1. Weakness in muscles
B. Vitamin D 2. Anemia
C. Vitamin E 3. Night blindness
D. Vitamin K 4. Rickets
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

8. What is the movement of blood pumped into one ventricle beat?

(a) 70 to 90 ml/beat (b) 50 to 60 ml/beat
(c) 60 to 90 ml/beat (d) 80 to 90 ml/beat

9. In all carbohydrates, the ratio of hydrogen atoms to oxygen atoms is _______.

(a) 3:2 (b) 1:1
(c) 2:1 (d) 3:1

10. Match the following:

A. explosive strength 1. Cycling
B. Strength endurance 2. Weightlifting
C. maximum strength 3. Long jump
D. static strength 4. Cymnastics
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
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Page 3 Sample Paper 13 Physical Education Class 12

11. What is coupling ability in relation to coordinative abilities?

(a) Sports movement
(b) Different sports
(c) Movement of body parts
(d) Aggression response

12. ______ is the ability of the body to release maximum muscle contraction in the shortest possible time.
(a) Agility (b) Flexibility
(c) Speed (d) Power

13. Which of the following is not the reason for obesity?

(a) Extra exercise
(b) Familiar tendency
(c) Poor eating habits
(d) Psychological factors

14. A large lateral curve is known as _______.

(a) Polishing (b) Scoliosis
(c) Hydroline (d) Friction

15. 50 M run/walk aims to measure an athlete’s ________.

(a) Power (b) Endurance
(c) Speed (d) Abdominal strength

16. The United Nations declared _____ as the year of special Olympics.
(a) 1984 (b) 1987
(c) 1986 (d) 1988

17. The Continouous training method was developed by whom?

(a) Gosta Holmer (b) Dr. Van Aaken
(c) Woldemar (d) Greshler

18. Given below are the statements labelled

Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Explosive strength refers to the ability to apply strength along with high speed.
Reason (R) This is why it is used in swimming and pole vault.
In context of above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) A is false, but R is true
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

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Page 4 Sample Paper 13 Physical Education Class 12

Section B

19. How can mental imagery be useful for athletes?

20. Aarav is a student of class 4 and is suffering from knock knee. He was advised to practice yoga and
participate in sports activities as cure. Suggest two yoga asanas he can perform? Which lifestyle habits
can cause development of knock knee?

21. List any two advantages and disadvantages of interval training.

22. Write briefly about proteins as an essential component of the diet.

23. Differentiate between pre-meet and post-meet responsibilities of committees.

24. Create a mind map of any four strategies to make physical activities accessible for children with special
needs.

Section C

25. Name three different groups of fats. Also, mention the different sources of fats.

26. Create a flow chart for the procedure of Tadasana.

27. Define the term strength. Discuss any two types of strength.

28. State any three ways which help to prevent sports injuries during training and competition.

29. What are the different causes of diabetes? Enlist the symptoms.

30. What is the purpose of conducting the Standing Broad Jump Test? Write the procedure for conducting
this test.

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Section D

31. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Is this a water-soluble nutrient?

(b) Deficiency of_______causes Pellagra.
(c) The given sources are rich in_______
(d) Vitamin B5 is also known as_______
O
Deficiency of________causes Beri-Beri.

32. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) When does this type of fracture occur?

(b) Identify the fracture in the above figure.
(c) This fracture occurs mostly is children younger than______of age.
(d) ______is a break or splinter of the bone into more than two fragments.
O
Mention the causes of this fracture.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 13 Physical Education Class 12

33. On the basis of the picture given below, answer the following questions.

(a) Define pace run.

(b) Identify the method to improve flexibility.
(c) Active flexibility can be further divided into two types,______and______.
(d) It uses the______of a moving body or a limb in an attempt to force it beyond its normal range of
motion.

Section E

34. Amit noticed that his grandfather is facing difficulty in putting on overhead garments.
He decided to conduct a Back Scratch Test for senior citizens. What is the purpose of this test? Explain
its procedure.

35. Aerobic capacity is influenced by Oxygen O2 – its intake, transport, uptake, and energy reserves’ Justify.

36. Explain the method of deciding the winner in a league tournament.

37. Briefly explain the Newton’s First and Second Law of Motion


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