AT.04 - Planning An Audit of Financial Statements
AT.04 - Planning An Audit of Financial Statements
Learning Objectives:
References:
PSA 200 - Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in
Accordance with International Standards on Auditing
Notes:
Perform procedures for assessing the continuation of client relationship and audit
engagement.
Evaluate compliance with ethical standards, including independence.
Establish clear terms of the audit engagement.
Planning Activities
1. Overall audit strategy – sets the scope, timing, and direction of the audit and guides the
development of the more detailed audit plan.
Identify engagement characteristics to define its scope.
Ascertain reporting objectives to plan audit timing and required communications.
Consider significant factors for directing team efforts.
Consider results of preliminary activities and relevance of knowledge from other
engagements.
Ascertain resources needed for the engagement.
2. Detailed audit plan – description of the nature, timing and extent of:
Risk assessment procedures
Further audit procedures (test of controls, substantive procedures, dual-purpose tests)
Other planned audit procedures
Documentation
Plan the direction, supervision, and review of engagement team members' work.
Document the overall audit strategy, audit plan, and any significant changes and reasons
for such changes.
Update and modify the audit strategy and plan as needed throughout the audit.
Key Terms
Significant Risks
Fraud risk
Recent economic, accounting, or other developments
Transaction complexity
Significant related party transactions
Subjectivity in financial measurement
Significant non-routine transactions
Risks for Which Substantive Procedures Alone Do Not Provide Sufficient Appropriate Evidence
Documentation
Materiality
2. Which of the following statements is not true concerning audit planning activities?
a. Planning is a discrete phase of an audit.
b. Planning is a continual and iterative process.
c. In a recurring audit, planning often begins shortly after (or in connection with) the
completion of the previous audit and continues until the completion of the current
engagement.
d. In planning an audit, the auditor considers the timing of certain planning activities
and procedures that are to be completed before the performance of further audit
procedures.
3. Which of the following is the main reason for an auditor why an auditor should obtain an
understanding of a client’s business and industry?
a. Make constructive suggestions concerning improvements to the client’s business
processes and controls.
b. To assist the auditor in auditing the financial statements of entities in similar
industries.
c. To understand the events and transactions that may have an effect on the client’s
financial statements.
d. To evaluate whether the client’s internal controls are operating effectively.
4. The establishment of an overall audit strategy involves identifying all of the following
except:
a. Characteristics and scope of the engagement.
b. Reporting objectives and nature of communications.
c. Important factors that will determine the focus of the engagement team’s efforts
and resources.
d. All of the above should be included in the overall audit strategy.
6. During the planning stage of an audit, the auditor is required to perform audit procedures
to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, as well as its internal control.
These procedures are called
a. Risk assessment procedures
b. Test of controls
c. Substantive procedures
d. Dual-purpose tests
8. An audit program should be designed for each individual audit and should incorporate
steps and procedures to
a. Detect and eliminate fraud of any type.
b. Provide assurances that the objectives of the audit are satisfied.
c. Ensure that only material accounts are audit.
d. Gather sufficient amount of management information available.
9. In designing written audit programs, an auditor should establish specific audit objectives
that relate primarily to the
a. Financial statement assertions
b. Cost-benefit of gathering audit evidence
c. Effectiveness and efficiency of operations
d. Compliance with laws and regulations
10. Which of the following appropriately relates to the auditor's objective in planning the
audit?
a. The auditor plans the audit to ensure that only Certified Public Accountants will
carry-out the audit procedures.
b. The auditor plans the audit to determine the planned audit opinion to be issued
on the financial statements.
c. The auditor plans the audit so that it will be performed in an effective manner.
d. The auditor plans the audit so that it will be performed in an effective and efficient
manner.
11. Which of the following statements inappropriately relates on how adequate planning
benefits the audit of financial statements?
a. Helps the auditor to devote appropriate attention to important areas of the audit.
b. Helps the auditor plan the level of risks of material misstatements present in the
audit.
c. Helps the auditor identify and resolve potential problems on a timely basis.
d. Helps the auditor properly organize and manage the audit engagement so that it
is performed in an effective and efficient manner.
13. An audit approach that allocates proportionately more audit resources to areas of high
audit risk is referred to as a ______________audit.
a. Risk-based approach
b. Substantive approach
c. Controls based approach
d. Data driven approach
14. Which component of the audit risk model may be expressed in qualitative terms?
I. Inherent Risk
II. Control Risk
III. Detection Risk
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III
15. Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk in that inherent risk and control
risk are:
a. Elements of audit risk while detection risk is not
b. Considered at the individual account-balance level while detection risk is not
c. Functions of the client and its environment while detection risk is not
d. Changed at the auditor's discretion while detection risk is not
16. Assertions are representations by management, explicit or otherwise, that are embodied
in the financial statements. Management's assertions in the financial statements are of
relevance to the audit process because:
a. they are the procedures that will be performed by the audit team.
b. they are direct evidence that management has prepared financial statements in
accordance with generally accepted audit standards.
c. they relate more to the audit while the financial statements belong to the auditor.
d. they are utilized by auditors in developing proper tests and procedures.
17. Which of the following is not an inherent risk factors in ISA 315R?
a. Change
b. Complexity
c. Susceptibility to bias and other fraud risk factors
d. Objectivity
19. Inquiries directed towards those charged with governance may most likely
a. Relate to their activities concerning the design and effectiveness of the entity's
internal control and whether management has satisfactorily responded to any
findings from these activities
b. Help the auditor understand the environment in which the financial statements
are prepared
c. Relate to changes in the entity's marketing strategies, sales trends, or contractual
arrangements with its customers
d. Help the auditor in evaluating the appropriateness of the selection and application
of certain accounting policies.
20. These are audit procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its
environment, including the entity's internal control, to identify and assess the risks of
material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, at the financial statement and
assertion levels.
a. Risk assessment procedures
b. Further audit procedures
c. Test of operating effectiveness of controls
d. Preliminary analytical procedures
22. The element of the audit planning process most likely to be agreed upon with the client
before implementation of the audit strategy is the determination of the
a. Evidence to be gathered to provide a sufficient basis for the auditor's opinion.
b. Timing of inventory observation procedures to be performed.
c. Procedures to be undertaken to discover litigation, claims, and assessments.
d. Pending legal matters to be included in the inquiry of the client's attorney.
23. After evaluating the risks of material misstatements, the auditor determines detection
risk
a. As the complement of overall audit risk.
b. By performing substantive audit tests.
c. At a level that equates the joint probability of inherent risk, control risk, and
detection risk with overall audit risk.
d. As a product of further study of the business and industry and application of
analytical procedures as part of performing risk assessment procedures to
properly plan the audit in an effective manner.
25. The auditor is required to determine three different levels of materiality: (1) materiality for
the financial statements as a whole, (2) performance materiality, and (3)
a. Overall materiality
b. Scoping materiality
c. Specific materiality
d. General materiality
26. In a financial statements audit, what term refers to the level of materiality set to assess
the significance of misstatements in the financial statements?
a. Overall materiality
b. Performance materiality
c. Specific materiality
d. Scoping materiality
27. Accounts which do not exceed the scoping materiality threshold set by the auditor may
still be included in testing based on qualitative risk factors. Which of the following is not
among those qualitative risk factors considered by the auditor?
a. Accounting and reporting complexities
b. Risk of fraud and history of fraud or error
c. Level of judgment and estimates
d. Whether the audit client is a listed entity
28. What materiality level would be considered by the auditor to determine which line items
in the financial statements are to be tested?
a. Overall materiality
b. Performance materiality
c. Specific materiality
d. Individual materiality
29. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining a preliminary
judgment about materiality?
a. The contents of the engagement letter.
b. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive procedures.
c. The entity’s annualized interim financial statements.
d. The results of internal control questionnaire.
30. Which of the following factors are normally considered by the auditor in determining the
appropriate benchmark for the purpose of calculating the overall materiality?
a. Focus of the users of the financial statements
b. Nature of the entity
c. Volatility of the benchmark identified
d. All of the above.