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IBPS PO 18-Oct-2014
General Awareness
1. What is the currency of Spain?

A France

B Pound

C Euro

D Lira

E Mark

Answer: C

IBPS PO Free Mock Test

2. Which of the following benefits is available under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan
Yojana? - •

A Overdraft facility

B Accident cover up to Rs. 5 , lakh

C Life Insurance up to Rs. 2 lakh

D Both 2 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: A

3. What is the full form of FII?

A Foreign Investment Interest

B Foreign Institutional Investor

C Foreign Interest Investment

D Foreign Institutional Interest

E None of these

Answer: B

4. Who has authored The Mother I Never Knew’?

A Jhumpa Lahiri

B Sudha Murty

C Amaresh Mishra

D Jean Dreze

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E Imtiaz Gul

Answer: B

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5. What does I,’ stand for in SLR?

A Liquidity

B ’ Leverage

C Laffer

D Liberalization

E Labour

Answer: A

6. Money laundering is done to

A To disguise the proceeds of criminal conduct

B To evade taxation

C To legitimatize smuggled goods

D Both 1 and 2

E All of the above

Answer: D

7. Who among the following won two bronze medals at the 17th Asian Games before announcing his/her retirement?

A Sushil Kumar

B Abhinav Bindra

C Mary Kom

D Jeetu Rai

E Heena Siddhu

Answer: B

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8. On which recent data did Indian Mars Orbital MissionMangalyaan reach Mars?

A 18 August 2014

B 9 September 2014

C 16 September 2014

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 24 September 2014
D

E 3 October 2014
Answer: D

9. Under the KYC rules, the financial assets or economic resources of the nature of immovable properties have to be verified
within

A 3 days

B 5 days

C A week

D 15 days

E 1 month

Answer: B

10. Nukualofa is the capital of

A Burkina Faso

B Tonga

C Ghana

D Senegal

E Guatemala

Answer: B

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11. To which of the following ministries is Nitin Gadkari related?

A Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation

B Water Resources, River Development and Ganga

C Information & Broadcasting

D Road Transport and Highways

E Both 2 and 3

Answer: D

12. Which of the following movies has been selected as India’s entry at the 2015 Oscar Awards?

A Liar’s Dice

B The Road

C Haider

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 Queen
D

E Yellow
Answer: A

13. The Government recently increased deposit money under Public Provident Fund (PPF) from Rs. 1 lakh to

A Rs. 1.25 laid’

B Rs. 1.5 lakh

C Rs. 1.75 lalth

D Rs. 2 lakh

E Rs. 2.5 lakh

Answer: B

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14. Which of the following is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India?

A Koyna Project

B Tehri Project

C Srisailam Project

D Nathpa Jhakri Project

E Sardar Sarovar Project

Answer: A

15. 18 countries recently signed the Minamata Convention on ……………….at the 69th session of the United Nations General
Assembly.

A Mercury

B Carbon emissions

C Nuclear Fusion

D CFCs

E Both 2 and 4

Answer: A

16. What does ‘M’ stands for in MIFF?

A Indian

B Interest

C International

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 Indirect
D

E None of these

Answer: C

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17. Who recently resigned as the CEO of Heidelberg Cement India?

A Chanda Kochar

B Avinash Goyal

C Pankaj Mehta

D Ashish Guha

E None of these

Answer: D

18. Mogadishu is the capital of

A Maldives

B Somalia

C Mauritius

D Liberia

E Nigeria

Answer: B

19. Total credits in Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account should not exceed…in a year.

A Rs. 50,000

B Rs. 1 lakh

C Rs. 1.5 lakh

D Rs. 2 lakh

E Rs. 2.5 lakh

Answer: B

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20. What is the full form of NIM?

A Net Interest Margin

B National Interest Margin

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 Net Inflation Margin
C

D National Inflation Manual

E None of these

Answer: A

21. What does MTSS stand for?

A Money Transfer Service Scheme

B Mobile Trade Service Scheme

C Marginal Trade Sale Scheme

D Macro Taxation Service Scheme

E None of these

Answer: A

22. The Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme was stopped by the government to

A Control the number of NPAs

B Check money laundering

C Control the violation of KYC norms

D Both 1 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: B

23. Vishal Sikka is CMD of which company?

A TCS

B Infosys

C Pepsi India

D Tata Sons

E Dabur India

Answer: B

24. A Negotiable Instrument means a…………… payable either to order or to bearer.

A Promissory note

B Bill of exchange

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 Cheque
C

D Both 1 and 2

E All of the above

Answer: E

25. The RBI recently permitted Muthoot finance to set up

A White label ATM

B NBFCs

C Brown label ATM

D Pink label ATM

E None of these

Answer: A

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26. SBI Life Insurance is a joint venture between State Bank of India and

A AEGON Religare

B Shriram Life Insurance

C BNP Paribas Cardif

D Bharti AXA

E None of these

Answer: C

27. Merchant payments in India is controlled by

A FICCI

B RBI

C SEBI

D CII

E CIBIL

Answer: C

28. For Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)-Small Account, the total of debits by way of cash withdrawals and transfers
should not exceed

A Rs. 1,000

B Rs. 5,000

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 Rs. 10,000
C

D Rs. 25,000

E Rs. 50,000

Answer: C

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29. What is the full form of PKI?

A Public Key Infrastructure

B Potential Key Investment

C Public Key Interest

D Public Key Information

E None of these

Answer: A

30. Which of the following committees was set up to update the Banking Ombudsman
Scheme?

A Suma Varma Committee

B Bimal Jalan Committee

C Vijaya Bhaskar Committee

D Damodaran Committee

E Anuradha Verma Committee

Answer: A

31. Why is RTGS used?

A For the verification of identity of customers

B For the settlement of funds transfers

C For the verification of address proof of customers

D For checking money laundering

E Both 1 and 3

Answer: B

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32. Maximum money that can remitted to Nepal from any of the NEFT -enabled branches in India is

A Rs. 10,000

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 Rs. 25,000
B

C Rs. 50,000

D Rs. 1 lakh

E Rs. 2 lakh

Answer: C

33. What does the letter ‘S’ stand for in the acronym NSDL?

A Securities

B Science

C Service

D Sales

E None of these

Answer: A

34. The tag line of State Bank of India (SBI) is

A Together we Prosper

B Relationships beyond Banking

C A Tradition of Trust

D Pure banking nothing else

E With YOU in focus

Answer: D

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35. Who was awarded the Santi Swaroop Bhatnagar award 2014 for Mathematical Sciences?

A Dr. Soumen Chakrabarti

B Dr. Kaushal Kumar Verma

C Dr. Anurag Agarwal

D Dr. Pratap Raychaudhuri

E Dr. Roop Mallik

Answer: B

36. Which bank recently celebrated 150 years of its operations in Sri Lanka?

A Punjab National Bank

B State Bank of India

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 Bank of Baroda
C

D Canara Bank

E United Bank of India

Answer: B

37. With which of the following is the feature of crossing not available?

A Cheque

B Bill of Exchange

C Promissory notes

D Both 1 and 2

E Both 2 and 3

Answer: E

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38. What is the rate at which the scheduled banks can borrow funds overnight from RBI against government securities?

A Cash Reserve Ratio

B Statutory Liquidity Ratio

C Repo Rate

D Marginal Standing Facility

E Prime Lending Rate

Answer: D

39. Who, at present, is the Union Minister for Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation?

A Suresh Prabhu

B Najma Heptulla

C Arun Jaitley

D Nitin Gadkari

E Venkaiah Naidu

Answer: E

40. What is the full form of CPI?

A Central Price Index

B Consumer Price Index

C Collateral Price Index

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 Central Purchasing Index
D

E None of these

Answer: B

100 Free IBPS PO Computer Awareness Tests

English
Instructions [41 - 45 ]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions. The wisdom of learning from failure is incontrovertible. Yet organisations that
do it well are extraordinarily rare. This gap is not due to a lack of commitment to learning. Managers in the vast majority of enterprises
that I have studied over the past 20 years
—pharmaceutical. financial services, product design, telecommunications, and construction companies: hospitals; and NASA’s space
shuttle program, among others— genuinely wanted to help their organisations learn from failures to improve future performance. In
some cases they and their teams had devoted many hours to afteraction reviews, postmortems, and the like. But time after time I saw
that these painstaking efforts led to no real change. The reason: Those managers were thinking about failure the wrong way. Most
executives I’ve talked to believe that failure is bad (of course!). They also believe that learning from it is pretty straightforward: Ask
people to reflect on what they did wrong and exhort them to avoid similar mistakes in the future—or, better yet, assign a team to review
and write a report on what happened and then distribute it throughout the organisation. These widely held beliefs are misguided. First,
failure is not always bad. In organisational life it is sometimes bad, sometimes inevitable, and sometimes even good. Second, learning
from organisational failures is anything but straightforward. The attitudes and activities required to effectively detect and analyze
failures are in short supply in most companies, and the need for context-specific learning strategies is underappreciated. Or –
ganisations need new and better ways to go beyond lessons that are superficial (“Procedures weren’t followed”) or self-serving (“The
market just wasn’t ready for our great new product”). That means jettisoning old cultural beliefs and stereotypical notions of success
and embracing failure’s lessons. Leaders can begin by
understanding how the blame game gets in the way. The Blame Game Failure and fault are virtually inseparable in most households.
organisations, and cultures. Every child learns at some point that admitting failure means taking the blame. That is why so few
organisations have shifted to a culture of psychological safety in
which the rewards of learning from failure can be fully realised. Executives I’ve interviewed in organisations as different as hospitals
and investment banks admit to being torn: How can they respond constructively to failures without giving rise to an anything-goes
attitude? If people aren’t blamed for failures, what will
ensure that they try as hard as possible to do their best work? This concern is based on a false dichotomy. In actuality, a culture that
makes it safe to admit and report on failure can—and in some organisational contexts must–coexist with high standards for
performance. To understand why, look at the exhibit “A Spectrum of
Reasons for Failure,” which lists causes ranging from deliberate deviation to thoughtful
experimentation. Which of these causes involve blameworthy actions? Deliberate deviance, first on the
list, obviously warrants blame. But inattention might not. If it results from a lack of effort, perhaps it’s blameworthy. But if it results from
fatigue near the end of an overly long shift, the manager who assigned the shift is more at fault than the employee. As we go down the
list, it gets more and more difficult to find blameworthy acts. In fact, a failure resulting from thoughtful experimentation that generates
valuable information
may actually be praiseworthy. When I ask executives to consider this spectrum and then to estimate how many of the failures in their
organisations are truly blameworthy, their answers are usually in single digits—perhaps 2% to 5%. But when I ask how many are treated
as blameworthy, they say (after a pause or a laugh) 70% to 90%. The unfortunate consequence is that many failures go unreported and
their lessons are lost. Question : sophisticated understanding of failure’s causes and contexts will help to avoid the blame game and
institute an effective strategy for learning from failure. Although an infinite number of things can go wrong in organisations, mistakes
fall into three broad categories: preventable, complexity-related, and intelligent.

41. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true in the context of the given passage
?
I. Most executives believe that failure is bad and learning from it is pretty
straightforward.
II. The wisdom of learning from failure is disputable.
III. Deliberate deviance, first on the list of the exhibit, “A Spectrum of Reasons for
Failure” obviously warrants blame.

A Only I

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 Both I and III
B

C Both II and III

D Both I and II

E All three I, II and III

Answer: B

Download IBPS PO Current Affairs Quiz PDF

42. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the given passage ?

A Organistions need new and better ways to go beyond lessons that are superficial or self serving.

B Leaders can begin by understanding how the blame game gets in the way.

C The writer of this article has studies managers in the vast majority of enterprises over the past 30 years.

D Failure and fault are truly inseparable in most house’ holds, organisations and cultures.

E None of these

Answer: C

43. As opined by the writer of this article, although an infinite number of things can go
wrong in organisations, mistakes fall into three broad categories. What are these categories ?

A Forgetable, preventable and intelligent

B Superficial, preventable and complex

C Precaution related, complexity related and intelligent

D Preventive, complexity-related and intelligent

E None of these

Answer: D

44. Why have so few organisations shifted to a culture of psychological safety in which
the rewards of learning from failure can be fully realised ?

A Because every child does not learn at some point that admitting failure means taking the blame.

Because failure and fault are virtually inseparable in most cultures and every child learns at some point that
B
admitting failure means taking the blame.

C Because culture is an important aspect of our life.

D It is easy for executives to blame others and save their heads.

E None of these

Answer: B

IBPS PO Exam Date & Pattern Details

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 45. What in your opinion should be the most appropriate title of this passage ?

A Learning from Failures

B Failures discourage an executive

C Success is nothing but working hard

D The Blame game

E None of these

Answer: A

Instructions [46 - 48 ]

Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word /group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Exhort

A urge

B discourage

C exclaim

D exhume

E expect

Answer: A

47. Jettison

A regard

B discard

C forgive

D collect

E jumble

Answer: B

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48. Dichotomy

A separation

B diagram

C harmony

D uniformity

E diaeresis

Answer: A

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Instructions [49 - 50 ]

Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.

49. Incontrovertible

A indisputable

B disputable

C separable

D convertible

E dynamic

Answer: B

50. Overly

A excessively

B abundantly

C overriding

D meagrely

E substantially

Answer: D

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Instructions [51 - 55 ]

Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer
the questions given below them.
(A) Speculations , on future events in the epidemiology, evolution, and biological expression of dengue are presented.
(B) At the root of the emergence of dengue as a major health problem are changes in human demography and behavior, leading to
unchecked populations of and increased exposure to the principal domestic mosquito vector, Aedes aegypti. Virus-specified factors
also influence the epidemiology of dengue.
(C) The risk of sequential infections, and consequently the incidence of DHF, has risen dramatically, first in Asia and now in the
Americas.
(D) A severe form, dengue hemorrhagic fever (DI-IF), is an immunopathologic disease occurring in persons who experience sequential
dengue infections.
(E) In the last 20 years the incidence of dengue fever epidemics has increased and hyper-endemic transmission has been established
over a geographically expanding area.
(F) Dengue viruses are members of the Flaviviridae, transmitted principally in a cycle involving humans and mosquito vectors.

51. Which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement ?

A A

B B

C C

D E

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 F
E

Answer: E

52. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement ?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

Answer: D

53. Which of the following should be the Last sentence after rearrangement ?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

Answer: A

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54. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement ?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

Answer: C

55. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement ?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

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 Answer: E

Instructions [56 - 60 ]

Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

56. Manufacturing growth across Asia, Europe and the Americas eased in current month as heavy price cutting failed to revive ,
providing more evidence that a feeble global economic recovery may be to a halt.

A supply, grind

B demand, grinding

C supply, grounding

D demanding, grind

E demanded, going

Answer: B

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57. Crude oil markets rose after a five year low rebounding after data suggested that tumbling prices may have started to affect
activjty in the fast growing US shale oil industry

A hit, drill

B hitting, drilled

C hitting, drilling

D going, drilled

E touching, exhuming

Answer: C

58. In fact, there is a strong case to promote liquor in high quality factories under regulation so that the of illicit liquor and hooch
goes down.

A produced, consumption

B manufacturing, supply

C production, consuming

D generation, supply

E generated, demand

Answer: A

59. The government ease foreign direct norms for the construction development sector , which is expected to provide a boost to
the sector in terms of greater foreign capital inflows.

A investment, substance

B invention, substantial

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 investment, substantial
C

D divestment, meagre

E investment, superficial

Answer: C

Daily Current Affairs for Banking exams PDF

60. The banks were nationalised in to take banking to the country and all its citizens.

A aim, whole

B order, backward

C orderly, entirely

D order, entire

E view, wholly

Answer: D

Instructions [61 - 66 ]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions. The past quarter of a century has seen several bursts of selling by the world’s
governments, mostly but not always in benign market conditions. Those in the OECD, a rich-country club, divested plenty of stuff in the
20 years before the global financial crisis. The first privatisation wave, which built up from the mid-1980s and peaked in 2000, was
largely European. The drive to cut state intervention under Margaret Thatcher in Britain soon spread to the continent. The movement
gathered pace after 1991, when eastern Europe put thousands of rusting state-owned enterprises (SOEs) on the block. A second wave
came in the mid-2000s, as European economies sought to cash in on buoyant markets. But activity in OECD countries slowed sharply
as the financial crisis began. In fact, it reversed. Bailouts of failing banks and companies have contributed to a dramatic increase in
government purchases of corporate equity during the past five years. A more lasting fea ture is the expansion of the state capitalism
practised by China and other emerging economic powers. Governments have actually bought more equity than they have sold in most
years since 2007, though sales far exceeded purchases in 2013. Today privatisation is once again “alive and well”, says William
Megginson of the Michael Price College of Business at the University of Oklahoma. According to a global tally he recently completed,
2012 was the third-best year ever, and preliminary evidence suggests that 2013 may have been better. However, the geography of sell-
offs has changed, with emerging markets now to the fore. China, for instance, has been selling minority stakes in banking, energy,
engineering and broadcasting; Brazil is selling airports to help finance a $20 billion investment programme. Eleven of the 20 largest
IPOs between 2005 and 2013 were sales of minority stakes by SOEs, mostly in developing countries. By contrast, state-owned assets
are now “the forgotten side of the balance-sheet” in many advanced economies, says Dag Detter, managing partner of Whetstone
Solutions, an adviser to governments on asset restructuring. They shouldn’t be. Governments of OECD countries still oversee vast piles
of assets, from banks and utilities to buildings, land and the riches beneath (see table). Selling some of these holdings could work
wonders: reduce debt, finance infrastructure, boost economic efficiency. But governments often barely grasp the value locked up in
them. The picture is clearest for companies or company-like entities held by central governments. According to data compiled by the
OECD and published on its website, its 34 member countries had 2,111 fully or majority-owned SOEs, with 5.9m employees, at the end
of 2012. Their combined value (allowing for some but not all pension-fund liabilities) is estimated at $2.2 trillion, roughly the same size
as the global hedge-fund industry. Most are in network industries such as telecoms, electricity and transport. In addition, many
countries have large minority stakes in listed firms. Those in which they hold a stake of between 10% and 50% have a combined market
value of $890 billion and employ 2.9m people.
The data are far from perfect. The quality of reporting varies widely, as do definitions of what counts as a state-owned company: most
include only centralgovernment holdings. If all assets held at sub-national level, such as local water companies, were included, the total
value could be more than $4 trillion. Reckons Hans Christiansen, an OECD economist. Moreover, his team has had to extrapolate
because some QECD members, including America and Japan, provide patchy data. America is apparently so queasy about discussions
of public ownership of -commercial assets that the Treasury takes no part in the OECD’s working group on the issue, even though it has
vast holdings, from Amtrak and the 520,000-employee Postal Service to power generators and airports. The club’s efforts to calculate
the value that SOEs add to, or subtract from, economies were abandoned after several countries, including America, refused to co-
operate.
Privatisation has begun picking up again recently in the OECD for a variety of reasons. Britain’s Conservative-led coalition is fbcused on

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(some would say obsessed with) reducing the public debt-to-GDP ratio. Having recently sold the Royal Mail through a public offering, it
is hoping to offload other assets, including its stake in URENCO, a uranium enricher, and its student-loan portfolio. From January 8th,
under a new Treasury scheme, members of the public and businesses will be allowed to buy government land and buildings on the
open market. A website will shortly be set up to help potential buyers see which bits of the government’s /..337 billion-worth of holdings
($527 billion at today’s rate, accounting for 40% of developable sites round Britain) might be surplus. The government, said the chief
treasury secretary, Danny Alexander, “should not act as some kind of compulsive hoarder”. Japan has different reasons to revive sell-
offs, such as to finance reconstruction after its devastating earthquake and tsunami in 2011. Eyes are once again turning to Japan
Post, a giant postal-to-financial-services conglomerate whose oftpostponed partial sale could at last happen in 2015 and raise (Yen) 4
trillion ($40 billion) or more. Australia wants to sell financial, postal and aviation assets to offset the fall in revenues caused by the
commodities slowdown. In almost all the countries of Europe, privatisation is likely “to surprise on the upside” as long as markets
continue to mend, reckons Mr Megginson. Mr Christiansen expects to see three main areas of activity in coming years. First will
be the resumption of partial sell-offs in industries such as telecoms, transport and utilities. Many residual stakes in partly privatised
firms could be sold down further. France, for instance, still has hefty stakes in GDF SUEZ, Renault, Thales and Orange. The government
of Francois Hollande may be ideologically opposed to privatisation, but it is hoping to reduce industrial stakes to raise funds for livelier
sectors, such as broadband and health.
The second area of growth should be in eastern Europe, where hundreds of large firms, including manufacturers, remain in state hands.
Poland will sell down its stakes in listed firms to make up for an expected reduction in EU structural funds. And the third area is the
reprivatisation of financial institutions rescued during the crisis. This process is under way: the largest privatisation in 2012 was the
$18 billion offering of America’s residual stake in AIG, an insurance company.

61. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the given passage ?

A The first privatisation way which built up from the mid-1980s was largely European.

Governments have actually bought more equity than they have sold in most years since 2007, though sales far
B
exceeded purchases in 2013.

C Today privatisation is once again ‘alive and well’, says Dag Detter.

D Brazil is selling airports to help finance a .$ 20 billion investment programme.

E None of these

Answer: C

62. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true in regard to the data compiled by
the OECD ?
I. The 34 member countries of OECD had 2111 fully or majority owned stateowned enterprises (SOEs)
II. In these SOEs there were 5.9 million employees at the end of 2012.
III. The combined value of these SOEs is estimated at $ 2.2 trillion, roughly the same size as the global hedge-fund industry.

A Only II

B Both II and III

C Both I and II

D Both I and III

E All three I, II and III

Answer: E

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63. Privatisation has begun picking up again recently in the OECD for a variety of
reasons. Which of the following statements does not support the above mentioned
view ?

A Britain’s conservative-led coalition is focused on reducing the public debt to GDP ratio.

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 Britain is to off-load other assets such as its stake in URENCO, uranium enricher and its student-loan portfolio.
B

C A website will shortly be set to help potential buyers.

Under a - new Treasury scheme, members of the public and businesses will be allowed to buy government land
D
and buildings on the open market.

E None of these.

Answer: E

64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in the context of the given article ?

A Japan has to revive sell-offs such as to finance reconstruction after tsunami in 2011.

B China has been selling minority stakes in banking, energy, engineering and broadcasting.

A second-wave of privatisation came in the mid- 2000s in OECD, as European economies sought to cash on
C
buoyant markets.

Australia is to sell financial postal and aviation assets to off set the fall in revenues caused by the commodities
D
slow down

E All are correct.

Answer: E

65. What should be the most appropriate title of the passage ?

A Dawn of Re-privatisation in OECD

B Gloomy Face of World Economy

C Growing Economy of China

D Global Economic slowdown

E None of these

Answer: A

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66. In almost all the countries of- Europe, privatisation is to surprise. As expected by
Mr. Christiansen, Which of the following is/are to be the main areas of activity ?
I. Resumption of partial sell-offs in industries such as telecoms. transport and
utilities.
II. The other area of growth should be in eastern Europe
III. The other area is the reprivatisation of financial institutions rescued during the
crisis.

A Both I and II

B Both II and III

C Only I

D Only III

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 All three I, II and III
E

Answer: E

Instructions [67 - 68 ]

Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word /group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

67. Buoyant

A increasing

B floating

C sinking

D buzzing

E erratic

Answer: A

68. Revive

A review

B make

C start again

D revile

E rewind

Answer: C

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Instructions [69 - 70 ]

Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.

69. Benign

A kind

B gentle

C malevolent

D makeover

E bequeathed

Answer: C

70. Offload

A get rid of

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 online
B

C offering

D conserve

E deserve
Answer: D

Instructions [71 - 80 ]

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case. There is already an extensive empirical literature – often using growth accounts – that (31)
these and other aspects of India’s economic growth. Many of the studies (32) one or more of the following topics. First, a number of
analysts (33) focused on characterizing India’s economic performance at the most aggregate level. While there is agreement that
growth did indeed improve during the past quarter
century, researchers have reached vary ing conclusions on some issues such as the timing and precise magnitude of this acceleration,
and the relative importance of changes in domestic policy.. There are on-going discussions over the extent to which the current growth
can be maintained and various means by (34) it might be increased.
Second, analysts have examined the behavior of particular output sectors. A number of authors have studied productivity in
manufacturing – reaching a wide range of conflicting conclusions. However, as explained in detail by Goldar and Mitra (2002),
differences in the findings can be (35) to a variety of measurement issues, such as the use of singe versus double deflation to
construct estimates of real growth in manufacturing value added. Goldar (2004) provides a careful recent update showing that TFP
growth in manufacturing (36) to have slowed in the post reform period – raising additional puzzles discussed below. However, (37,)
difficulties in measuring employment within individual industries, our analysis focuses (38) on the broader industrial sector. The 3
studies that focus on India’s services sector (many of which discuss the issue of sustain-ability), and
those that discuss agriculture, are discussed in the body of the paper. Given the large body of prior research, many of the results to be
discussed below (39) already well-known to those in the field. Nonethe-less, this paper seeks to make a contribution to that literature in
a variety of ways. In particular, the growth accounting framework, com- bined with our emphasis on data issues, pulls together
concerns that have typically been treated separately, and in some cases, raise implications that do not appear to have been (40)
recognized. Our updated
growth accounts incorporate recent data revisions, some of which are quite large. They also provide new estimates for the
contributions to overall growth of labor productivity growth within the major economic sectors
versus the gains from reallocation of labor and capital among the factors. Furthermore, we have examined a variety of additional data
in our analysis of the role of capital accumulation – providing estimates of the returns to schooling for human capital, and reporting on
trends in sectoral saving and investment, for phystcal capital. Thus, this paper is comprised of four remaining sections. The next
section details the construction of growth accounts for India, with considerable attention paid to the quality of the underlying data.

71.

A examine

B examines

C forecast

D forecasts

E augur

Answer: B

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72.

A address

B denote

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 addresses
C

D facilitate

E evolve

Answer: A

73.

A has

B will

C should have

D have

E had

Answer: D

74.

A which

B that

C if

D whether

E whose

Answer: A

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75.

A devote

B attributes

C attributed

D decided

E developed

Answer: C

76.

A appeared

B appears

C looked

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 seemed
D

E forecast

Answer: B

77.

A due to r

B because

C for want of

D than

E that

Answer: A

78.

A primary

B primarily

C chief

D prime

E elementary

Answer: B

79.

A is

B was

C shall

D will

E are

Answer: E

80.

A consistent

B consistently

C haphazardly

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 irregular
D

E turbulently

Answer: B

75 IBPS PO Mocks for just Rs. 199

Quant
81. In the following figure, ABCD is a square whose each side is 10cm long. Mangles AEC and AEFC are congruent. Point B’ is the
mid-point of side EC. Find the area of AEFC (in sq. cm).

A 100

B 80

C 60

D 120

E None of these

Answer: E

Explanation:
BC=10cm and AC=10cm
∴ EC=20cm
Area of △ AEC will be equal to Area of △ AEC.
1 1
Area of △ AEC = 2 × EC × AB = 2 × 20 × 10 = 100
Area of AEFC= 2× Area of △ AEC = 2× 100 = 200
Hence Option E is the correct answer.

IBPS Po Important Questions PDF

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 82. In the following figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle and BCDE is a square whose each side is 8 cm long. Find the area of
pentagon ABDEC in square cm.

A 18(4 + √3 )

B 16 (4 +√3)

C 8 (4 + √3 )

D 16 (2 + √3 )

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
side of square = 8 cm

As the side of square is coinciding with side of equilateral triangle so side of equilateral teiangle = 8 cm

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4 ) side^2

Area of square = side ^2

Total area = area of square + area of traingle

= ((√3/4) x64) + 64

=16(√3+4) sqr cm

83. If 36 persons are engaged on a piece of work, the work can be completed in 40 days. After 32 days, only 3/4 th of the work was
completed. How many more persons are required to complete the work on time?

A 10

B 8

C 9

D 12

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
1
Remaining work = 4
Remaining time = 8 days
1
Work done by 36 persons in 1 day = 40
1
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 1
Work done by 1 person in 1 day = 36×40
Let the number of persons required to finish the remaining work be 'x'
1 1
8×x× 36×40 = 4
x = 45
Number of additional persons = 45 - 36 = 9

84. A shopkeeper bought 84 identical shirts priced at Rs. 240 each. He spent a total of Rs. 3200 on transportation and packaging.
He put the label of marked price of Rs.420 on each shirt. He offered a discount of 15% on each shirt at the marked price. What
is the total profit of the shopkeeper in the whole transaction ?

A Rs. 6258

B Rs. 6528

C Rs. 6268

D Rs. 6628

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
total cost of buying 84 shirts at Rs 240 each = Rs(84x240) = Rs 20160

Transportation cost = Rs 3200

Total cost = 3200 + 20160 = Rs 23360

As 15 % discount is given on marked price of 420 so selling price = 0.85 x 420 = Rs 357

total selling price of 84 shirts = 84 x 357 = Rs 29988

Total profit = 29988 - 23360 = Rs 6628

IBPS PO Free Preparation App

85. There is a rectangular plot whose length is 36 metre and breadth is 28 metre. There are two paths parallel to length and breadth
of plot as is shown shaded in the following figure. The remaining part is lawn whose area is 825 square metre. What is the area
of paths ?

A 183 sq. metre

B 185 sq. metre

C 190 sq. metre

D 163 sq. metre

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Length of rectangle = 36 m

breadth of rectangle = 28 m

area of rectangle = length x breadth = 36 x 28 = 1008 sqr mtr

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area of unshaded region = 825 sqr mtr

area of paths = 1008 - 825 = 183 sqr mtr

Instructions [86 - 90 ]

In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and
Give answer If
a:x > y
b: x ≥ y
c: x < y
d: x ≤ y
e: x = y or the relationship cannot be established

86. I.8x2 + 26x + 15 = 0

II.4y2 + 24y + 35 = 0

A x>y

B x≥y

C x<y

D x≤y

E x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: A

Explanation:
I. 8x2 +26x+15=0

8x2 +20x+6x+15=0

4x(2x+5)+3(2x+5)=0

(4x+3)(2x+5)=0

x=(-3/4) or (-5/4)

II . 4y2 +24y+35=0

4y2 +10y+14y+35=0

2y(2y+5)+7(2y+5)=0

(2y+7)(2y+5)=0

y=(-7/2) or (-5/2)

Clearly x>y

87. I.x2 − 5x − 24 = 0
II.y2 − 7y − 18 = 0

A x>y

B x≥y

C x<y

D x≤y

E x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: E

Explanation:

2
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I. x2 -5x-24=0

x2 -8x+3x-24=0
x(x-8)+3(x-8)=0

(x+3)(x-8)=0

x=-3 or 8

II. y2 -7y-18=0

y2 -9y+2y-18=0
y(y-9)+2(y-9)=0

y=-2 or 9

Comparing x and y values,

-3 < -2
-3 < 9
8 > -2
8<9
Hence, The relation between x and y cannot be established.

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88. I.6x2 + 19x + 15 = 0
II.24y2 + 11y + 1 = 0

A x>y

B x≥y

C x<y

D x≤y

E x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: C

Explanation:
I. 6x2 +19x+15=0

6x2 +10x+9x+15=0

2x(3x+5)+3(3x+5)=0

(2x+3)(3x+5)=0

x=(-3/2) or (-5/3)

II. 24y2 +11y+1=0

24y2 ++8y+3y+1=0

8y(3y+1)+1(3y+1)=0

y=(-1/8) or (-1/3)

clearly, x<y

89. I.9x2 − 27x + 20 = 0

II.6y2 − 5y + 1 = 0

A x>y

B x≥y

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C x<y

D x≤y

E x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: A

Explanation:
I. 9x2 -27x+20=0

9x2 -15x-12x+20=0

3x(3x-5)-4(3x-5)=0

(3x-4)(3x-5)=0
4 5
x=( 3 ) or 3

II .6y2 -5y+1=0

6y2 -3y-2y+1=0

3y(2y-1)-1(2y-1)=0

(3y-1)(2y-1)=0
1 1
y= ( 3 ) or 2

Clearly x>y

90. I.x2 − 6x + 9 = 0
II.y2 − 11y + 24 = 0

A x>y

B x≥y

C x<y

D x≤y

E x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: D

Explanation:
I. x2 -6x+9=0

(x − 3)2 = 0
x-3=0

x=3

II. y2 -11y+24=0

y2 -8y-3y+24=0
y(y-8) - 3(y-8)=0

(y-3)(y-8)=0

y=3 or 8

Hence , x ≤ y

Download IBPS PO General Knowledge PDF

Instructions [91 - 95 ]

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In the following graph, production of rice per hectare (in quintal) during last six years in three states of West Bengal, Odisha and Andhra
Pardesh has been shown, Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

91. What was the average production of rice per hectare by the state of Odisha taking all the years together (in quintals) ?

A 2550

B 2450

C 2380

D 2680

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Total production of rice by Odisha in all the years together

=> 2400+3300+1600+2200+3400+2400 = 15300

Average production = 15300/6 = 2550

92. What is the ratio between average production of rice per hectare by all three states in the years 2004 and 2007 respectively ?

A 33 : 31

B 37 : 33

C 37 : 31

D 37 : 35

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Total production in the three states together in

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2004 = 3200+2400+1800 = 7400

2007 = 1800+2200+2600 = 6600

Average prod. in 2004 = 7400/3

Average prod. in 2007 = 6600/3

7400/3 7400
Required ratio = 6600/3 = 6600

= 37:33

93. In which year was the production of rice per hectare by all three states highest ?

A 2009

B 2004

C 2008

D 2006

E 2007

Answer: C

Explanation:
Production of rice in West Bengal, Odisha , Andhra Pradesh resp in each year :

2004 - 3200+2400+1800 = 7400

2005 - 2300+3300+2000 = 7600

2006 - 1900+1600+1200 = 4700

2007 - 1800+2200+2600 = 6600

2008 - 2500+3400+2900 = 8800 (MAXIMUM)

2009 - 2300+2400+3200 = 7900

Thus, total production in all the states is highest in 2008.

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94. What was the percentage increase in production of rice per hectare in Andhra Pradesh in the year 2009 with respect to the year
2005 ?

A 45%

B 55%

C 50%

D 60%

E 75%

Answer: D

Explanation:
Rice produced in A.P in 2005 = 2000

Rice produced in A.P in 2009 = 3200

Difference = 3200-2000 = 1200

% increase = (1200/2000)*100 = 60%

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 95. In how many years was the production of rice per hectare more than the average production of rice per hectare in the given
years in West Bengal ?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Rice produced in West Bengal in :

2004 - 3200

2005 - 2300

2006 - 1900

2007 - 1800

2008 - 2500

2009 - 2300

Total sum of rice produced in all years = 3200+2300+1900+1800+2500+2300 = 14000

Average production = 14000/6 = 2333.34

No. of years in which rice production is greater than 2333.34 = 2 (2004 & 2008)

Instructions [96 - 100 ]

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Annual salary (in Rs lakh) of each employee working in
different departments of a certain company ‘X’ during the given years

96. What is the average annual salary of an employee in finance department in the given years ?

A 3.6

B 3.8

C 2.99

D 4

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E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sum of annual salary of employees in finance department = 2.96+3.20+3.44+3.69+4+4.24 = 21.53

Average annual salary = 21.53/6 = 3.59 = ~3.6

Download IBPS PO Current Affairs Quiz PDF

97. An employee who had worked in marketing department from 2010 to 2013, earned a total sum of Rs. (in lakh)

A 13.75

B 14.75

C 14.57

D 15.57

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Salary of employee in marketing department in :

2010 = 3.5

2011 = 3.65

2012 = 3.75

2013 = 3.85

Total = 3.5+3.65+3.75+3.85 = 14.75

98. If there were 50 employees in 2008 and 100 employees in 2010 in procurement department, what amount was spent on their
annual salaries in these years by the company ? (In Rs. lakh)

A 430

B 420

C 450

D 350

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
Average salary in procurement department in 2008 = 2.8

No. of employees = 50

Total salary in 2008 = 50*2.8 = 140

Average salary in procurement department in 2010 = 3.10

No. of employees = 100

Total salary in 2010 = 100*3.10 = 310

Total spent in salaries in both years = 140+310 = 450

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 99. In the given years, there were an average of 190 employees in production department. What amount did the company spend on
an average per year on the payment of their salaries ? (In Rs. lakh)

A 470

B 485

C 670

D 570

E 575

Answer: D

Explanation:
Total annual salary in the production department = 2.25+2.95+3.0+3.15+3.25+3.40 = 18 lakhs

Average annual salary in the production department = 18/6 = 3 lakhs

Average no. of employees in the production department = 190

Total amount spend in salaries (in lakhs) = 190*3 = 570

IBPS PO Exam Date & Pattern Details

100. By what percent approximately was the increase in the annual salary of an employee in the Human Resources department from
year 2010 to the year 2012 ?

A 16

B 12

C 14

D 18

E 23

Answer: A

Explanation:
Annual salary of an employee in HRD in 2010 = 3.1

Annual salary of an employee in HRD in 2012 = 3.6

Increase in salary = 3.6-3.1 = 0.5

% increase = (0.5/3.1)*100 = 16.12% = ~16%

Instructions [101 - 103 ]

In the following table, the number of officers and clerks working in five different departments of an office is given. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Department Officer Clerk

101. What is the difference between the total number of officers and clerks taking all the departments together ?

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A 120

B 130

C 135

D 85

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Total no. of officers in all the departments together = 145+152+136+164+148 = 745

Total no. of clerks in all the departments together = 125+128+124+126+122 = 625

Required difference = 745-625 = 120

102. The respective ratio betWeen the number of officers in department C and that of clerks in department B is

A 17 : 19

B 17 : 16

C 16 : 15

D 19 : 17

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
No. of officers in department C = 136

No. of clerks in department B = 128

Required ratio = 136/128 = 17:16

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103. By what percent is the number of officers more than that of clerks taking all the departments together ?

A 16.8%

B 17.2%

C 19.2%

D 15.8%

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
No. of officers in all departments = 145+12+136+164+148 = 745

No. of clerks in all departments = 125+128+124+126+122 = 625

Difference = 745-625 = 120

% by which no. of officers are greater than those of clerks = (120/625)*100 = 19.2%

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104. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4
hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?

A 4 kmph

B 6 kmph

C 8 kmph

D 3.5 kmph

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Let the speed of boat in still water and speed of river be B km/hr and R km/hr respectively

speed of boat in downstream = (B+R) km/hr

speed of boat in upstream = (B-R) km/hr

Distance covered = 16 km

it is given that tie taken ti move 16 km downstream is 2 hours and for upstream it is 4 hours

16 = (B+R) 2 .............(1)

16 = (B-R) 4...............(2)

from equation 1 and 2

B = 6 km/hr

105. Two persons A and B start a business with investments of Rs. 24000 and Rs.28000 respectively. After 4 months C also joined
them with certain investment. Total profit at the end of the year was Rs. 19950. C’s share in profit was Rs. 7600. What was the
C’s investment in the business ?

A Rs. 48000

B Rs. ‘45000

C Rs. 50000

D Rs. 40000

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
let the investment of C in business be Rs Y

As it is mentioned that A and B remain invested for whole year and have contributions Rs 24000 and Rs 28000 respectively. and C
joined them only for 8 months in a years so the Profit will divide in ratio = A:B:C = (24000x12) : (28000x12) : (Yx8)

profit at year end = Rs 19950

Y
and C's share = 78000+Y x19950 = 7600
Y = 29718 + 0.381 Y

Y = 48009 ~ Rs 48000

IBPS PO Salary Details

106. A car starts at 11 am from point A towards point B at 36 kmph while another car starts at 1 pm from point B towards A at 44
kmph. They cover a distance of 592 km till meeting. At what time will they meet each other ?

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A 8 pm

B 6 : 30 pm

C 7 : 30 pm

D 5 : 30 pm

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
distance travelled by car which started from point A from 11 am to 1 pm is = 36 ×2 = 72 km

Now it is given that total distance is 592 km

Distance left to be covered = 592 - 72 = 520 km

Speed of car started from B = 44 km/hr

Soeed of car started from A = 36km/hr

Relative speed = 80 km/hr

Time taken = 520/80 = 6.5 hours

So the two cars will meet at 7.30 pm

107. The ratio of present ages of P and Q is 8 : 5. After 4 years their ages will be in the ratio 4 : 3 respectively. What will be the ratio
of P’s age after 7 years from now and Q’s age now?

A 3:2

B 1:2

C 2:1

D 3:1

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
Let the present age of P be 8x and Q be 5x
After 4 years, P's age = 8x + 4 and Q's age = 5x + 4
8x+4 4
5x+4 =3
24x + 12 = 20x + 16
x=1
Present age of P = 8 years
Present age of Q = 5 years
Required ratio = 15 : 5 = 3 : 1

108. A vessel contains 64 litres of mixture of milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3 respectively. 8 litres of mixture is replaced by 8 litres
of milk. What is the ratio of milk and water in the resulting mixture ?

A 59 : 21

B 35 : 22

C 64 : 23

D 65 : 21

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E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Solution of milk and water in vessel = 64 litres

ration of Milk:Water = 7:3

using
waterconcentrationfinal initialwaterconc. removedvolume
total = total (1 − total )n
waterconcentrationfinal 3 8
total = 10 (1 − 64 )1
waterconcentrationfinal 3 1
total = 10 (1 − 8 )n
waterconcentrationfinal 21
total = 80

water : milk in new solution after replacement = 21: 59

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109. The average weight of boys in a class is 45 kg while that of girls is 36 kg. The average weight of the whole class is 42.25 kg.
What is the respective ratio between the number of boys and girls in the class ?

A 11 :25

B 25 : 11

C 25.: 12

D 12 : 25

E Notie of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
here the average weight of boys is given as = 45 kg

and average weight of girls is given as = 36 kg

Overall average weight of class = 42.25 kg

Now using concept of allegations :

boys 25
we can say that girls = 11

110. A person invested equal amounts in two schemes A and B at the same rate of interest. Scheme A offers simple interest while
scheme B offers compound interest. After two years he got Rs. 1920 from scheme A as interest and Rs. 2112 from scheme B.
If the rate of interest is increased by 4%, what will be the total interest after two years from both schemes?

A Rs. 4884.48

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B Rs. 4888.48

C Rs. 4884.84

D Rs. 4384.48

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
1920
Simple Interest for 1 year = 2 = Rs. 960
Compound Interest - Simple Interest = 2112 - 1920 = Rs. 912
Interest on Rs. 960 for 1 year = Rs. 912
192×10
∴ Rate = 960×1
= 20% per annum
960×100
Principal = 20×1
= Rs. 4800
New rate = 24% per annum
4800×2×24
S.I. = 100
= Rs. 2304
24
Compound Interest = 4800[(1 + 100 )2 − 1]
= 4800[(1.24)2 − 1]
= Rs. 2580.48
Total interest = Rs. 4884.48

Instructions [111 - 115 ]

In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find the wrong number.

111. 130 129 154 203 284 405

A 130

B 129

C 154

D 203

E 405

Answer: A

Explanation:
In this question we can see that

154 - 129 = 25 = (5)2

203 - 154 = 49 = (7)2
284 - 203 = 81 = (9)2
405 - 284 = 121 = (11)2

but when we see the first two terms from left side

129 -130 = 1 and hence we can say that the odd term is 130 as it should be 120

hence correct answer is A

IBPS PO Free Mock Test

112. 11 14 22 37 68 96 144

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A 37

B 68

C 96

D 22

E 144

Answer: B

Explanation:
when we properly analyze the series 11 14 22 37 68 96 144 we realized that

14 -11 = 3 = (2)2 - 1
22 - 14 = 8 = (3)2 - 1
37 - 22 = 15 = (4)2 - 1
68 - 37 = 31 , this is not equal to (5)2 - 1
96 - 68 = 28 , this is not equal to (6)2 - 1
144 - 96 = 48 = (7)2 - 1
Hence the wrong number in series is 68 and correct answer is option B

113. 20 10 12 15 30 75 225

A 30

B 15

C 12

D 75

E 225

Answer: C

Explanation:
The series progresses as follows:
20*0.5 = 10
10*1 = 10
10*1.5=15
15*2 = 30
30*2.5 = 75 and so on.
12 is the wrong term in the series.
Hence, option C is the right answer.

114. 39 43 51 60 87 110 167

A 167

B 87

C 60

D 110

E 43

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 Answer: D

Explanation:
This question has a very interesting pattern ,

43 - 39 = 4 = (2)2
51- 43 =8 = (2)3
60 - 51 = 9 = (3)2
87 - 60 = 27 = (3)3
As we can see that differences between consecutive terms are of the for (n)2 and then (n)3
So after 87 a number should come so that

y - 87 = 16 = (4)2 which implies y = 103

But the number given is 110 and hence 110 is the odd one out .

Daily Current Affairs for Banking exams PDF

115. 3 4 12 45 198 1005 6066

A 4

B 6066

C 45

D 1005

E 198

Answer: E

Explanation:
3*1 + 1 = 4
4*2 + 4 = 12
12*3 + 9 = 36 + 9 = 45
45*4 +16 = 196.
Hence, 198 is the wrong term. Option E is the right answer.

Instructions [116 - 120 ]

Study the following bar-diagram carefully and answer the questions given below it. Number of students attending Maths and Science
classes in four different schools

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116. What is the average number of students who attend the Maths . classes taking all
the schools together ?

A 90

B 80

C 85

D 75

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Total no. of students taking Maths classes in all the schools together = 80+60+120+100 = 360

Required Average = 360/4 = 90

117. What is the average number of students- who attend the Science classes taking all
the schools together ?

A 90

B 110

C 100

D 120

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Total no. of students taking Science classes in all the schools together = 140+80+100+120 = 440

Required Average = 440/4 = 110

Daily Free Banking Online Tests

118. The respective ratio between the total number of students of Maths and Science in schools W and X is respectively

A 12 : 5

B 11 : 7

C 7 : 11

D 5 : 12

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
Students attending maths classes in school W = 60

Students attending science classes in school W = 80

=>Total students attending both classes in school W = 60+80 = 140

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Students attending maths classes in school X = 120

Students attending science classes in school X = 100

=>Total students atending both classes in school X = 120+100 = 220

Required ratio = 140/220 = 7:11

119. By what per cent is the total number of students of school Y more than that of school W ?

A 63.5%

B 64%

C 45%

D 57%

E 48%

Answer: D

Explanation:
Total no. of students in school Y = 100+120 = 220

Total no. of students in school W = 60+80 = 140

Difference = 220-140 = 80

% by which total student of school Y are greater than that of school W = (80/140)*100 = 57.14% = ~57%

120. What is the respective ratio between the total number of students of Maths and Science taking all the schools together ?

A 9 : 11

B 9 : 13

C 11 : 8

D 8 : 11

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Total no. of students taking maths in all schools together = 80+60+120+100 = 360

Total no. of students taking science in all schools together = 140+80+100+120 = 440

Required ratio = 360/440 = 9:11

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Instructions [121 - 124 ]

A city X has six villages around it. The population of village A is 25% of the population of city X while that of village B is 20% of that of
city X. The population of village C is 2/5th of that of city X. The population of village D is 60% of that of village ‘C. The population of
village E is 85% of that of village B. The population of village F is 21000 which is 35% of that of city X.

121. What is the population of city X?

A 60000

B 80000

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C 65000

D 64000

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Population of city F = 21000
100
Population of city X = 21000 × 35 = 60000
122. The respecive ratio of between the population of village A and village D is

A 24 : 23

B 25 : 24

C 25 : 23

D 11 : 12

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
Let the populations of villages X,A,B,C,D,E,F be x,a,b,c,d,e,f respectively

Given that

a = 0.25x

b=0.2x

c=0.4x

d=0.6*0.4x=0.24x

e=0.85*0.2x=0.17x

f=0.35x=21000

Hece x = 60000

The respecive ratio of between the population of village A and village D = a:d = 0.25x:0.24x = 25:24

123. The difference between the population of village C and village D is

A 9000

B 9500

C 9600

D 8800

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
Let the populations of villages X,A,B,C,D,E,F be x,a,b,c,d,e,f respectively

Given that

a = 0.25x

b=0.2x

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c=0.4x

d=0.6*0.4x=0.24x

e=0.85*0.2x=0.17x

f=0.35x=21000

Hece x = 60000

The difference between the population of village C and village D = c-d

=0.4x-0.24x =0.16x= 0.16 × 60000 = 9600

Free Banking Study Material (15,000 Solved Questions)

124. By what per cent is the population of village E less than that of village A ?

A 40%

B 35%

C 30%

D 32%

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
Let the populations of villages X,A,B,C,D,E,F be x,a,b,c,d,e,f respectively

Given that

a = 0.25x

b=0.2x

c=0.4x

d=0.6*0.4x=0.24x

e=0.85*0.2x=0.17x

f=0.35x=21000

Hece x = 60000

per cent by which the population of village Eis less than that of village A

= (0.25x − 0.17x)/0.25x × 100

=0.08/0.25 × 100

=32

Instructions [125 - 130 ]

The following questions are based on a pie-chart and a table. The pie chart deals with percentagewise distribution of sales of mobile
phones of three brands by a store X in the year 2013 where as the table deals with the ratio of respective sales. You are required to
study the pie-chart and the table carefully to answer the questions.

Percentage wise distribution of sales of mobile phones by 6 stores A B C D E and F

Total number of mobile phones sold =66000

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Ratio of mobiles phones sold by all stores

125. The difference between the number of HTC brand mobile phones sold by store A and that of Samsung brand mobile phones
sold by store C is

A 5280

B 4880

C 5220

D 5260

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
Total mobile phones sold by store A = (14/100)*66000 = 9240

No. of htc brand mobile phones sold by store A = (2/7)*9240 = 2640

Total mobile phones sold by store C = (32/100)*66000 = 21120

No. of samsung brand phones sold by store C = (3/8)*21120 = 7920

=> Required difference = 7920-2640 = 5280

126. What was the total number of Nokia brand mobile phones sold by sotres A, C and D ?

A 17260

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B 17160

C 16160

D 18160

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
14
Total mobile phones sold by A = 100 *66000 = 9240
2
=> No. of nokia brand phones sold by A = 7 *9240 = 2640
32
Total mobile phones sold by C = 100 *66000 = 21120
3
=> No. of nokia brand phones sold by C = 8 *21120 = 7920
18
Total mobile phones sold by D = 100 *66000 = 11880
5
=> No. of nokia brand phones sold by D = 9 *11880 = 6600

Total no. of nokia brand mobile phones sold by A,C & D together = 2640+7920+6600 = 17160

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127. How many mobile phones (including all three brands) were sold by stores D, E and F?

A 29360

B 30630

C 30360

D 31360

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
% of phones sold by D,E and F together = 18+11+17 = 46%
46
No. of mobile phones sold these three together = 100 *66000

= 30360

128. What will be the corresponding central angle in circular representation for the total number of mobile phones sold by the store
D?

A 76.8°

B 72.8°

C 68.4°

D 64.8°

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:

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Total mobile phones sold by store D = (18/100)*66000 = 11880

Central angle in circular representation = (11880/66000)*360 = 64.8

(shortcut)

% of mobile phones sold by store D = 18%

Central angle = (18/100)*360 = 64.8

129. The respective ratio between the number of Samsung brand mobile phones sold by stores E and F is

A 187: 110

B 291 : 117

C 117: 291

D 110: 187

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
No. of phones sold by E = (11/100)*66000 = 7260

=> Samsung brand phones sold by E = (3/11)*7260 = 1980

No. of phones sold by F = (17/100)*66000 = 11220

=> Samsung brand phones sold by F = (6/20)*11220 = 3366

Required ratio = 1980/3366 = 110:187

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130. By what per cent is the number of all mobile phones sold by store D more than that sold by sotre B ?

A 75%

B 125%

C 90%

D 150%

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
No. of mobile phones sold by D = (18/100)*66000 = 11880

No. of mobile phones sold by B = (8/100)*66000 = 5280

Difference = 11880-5280 = 6600

% by which phones sold by D greater than that by B = (6600/5280)*100 = 125%

Reasoning
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 Reasoning
Instructions [131 - 135 ]

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
There are seven friends – J, K, L, M. N, 0 and P. Each one of them has different profession viz., Accountant, Actor, Athlete,
Choreographer, Doctor, Engineer and Lawyer, but not necessarily in the same order. They were born in the years 1983, 1984, 1986,
1987. 1990, 1992 and 1994, but not necessarily in the same order. The Lawyer
was born in 1986 while the Athlete was born in 1984. K is a doctor and he was riot born in the year 1983. P was born in the year 1992. P
is neither Choreographer nor Actor. N was not born in the year 1994. Nis not an Athlete. L was born in the year 1990. L is neither
Accountant nor Choreographer. Doctor was not born in the year 1994. J is an Engineer. J was not born in the year 1994. O is not a
Choreographer.

131. In which year 0 was born ?

A 1983

B 1984

C 1990

D 1987

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
O was born in 1984.

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132. Which of the, following statements is NOT true on the basis of, information given above ?

A Accountant was born in the year 1992

B Engineer was born in the year 1983

C Doctor war was born in the year 1987

D Choreographer was born in the year 1990

E All are true

Answer: D

Explanation: Hence D.

133. Who among the following is a Choreographer ?

A J

B K

C M

D N

E Cannot be determined

Answer: C

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Explanation: M is the choreographer.

134. Which of the following combinations of FriendProfession-Year of Birth is correct ?

A O - Athlete - 1984

B J - Engineer - 1987

C P - Lawyer - 1994

D L - Choreographer - 1990

E M - Actor - 1992

Answer: A

Explanation: As apparent from the table above, (A) is the correct order.

IBPS Po Important Questions PDF

135. Who among the following is the eldest ?

A Accountant

B Choreographer

C Doctor

D Actor

E Engineer

Answer: E

Explanation: Engineer is the oldest.

Instructions [136 - 141 ]

In these question relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by four
Conclusions numbered I, II, III and N. Study the statements and Conclusions carefully and select the correct answer :

136. Statement :
Y> R ≥ S = T < M ≤ N < J
Conclusions :
I. T < Y
II. N > S
III. J < S
IV. S ≥ Y

A Only Conclusions I, II and III are true.

B Only Conclusions I and II are true.

C Only Conclusions II and III are true.

D Only Conclusions I, III and IV are true.

E All the Conclusions I, II, III and IV are true.

Answer: B

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137. Statements :
S > H ≥ T ≤ C;
Y>T≥N
Conclusions :
I. H > Y
II. S > C
III. C = Y
IV. C ≥ N

A Only Conclusions I and IV are true.

B Only Conclusion III is true.

C Only Conclusions II and N are true.

D Only Conclusion IV is true.

E Only Conclusions I and II are true.

Answer: D

IBPS PO Free Preparation App

138. Statement
K>H<Y≤Z<A>R≥L
Conclusions :
I. A > Y
II. L < A
III. H < A
IV. K > R

A Only Conclusions I, II and III are true.

B Only Conclusions II and IV are true.

C None of the Conclusion is true

D Only Conclusions II and III are true.

E Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true.

Answer: A

139. Statements:
D > M > U ≥ E;
N<U≥J
Conclusions :
I. D > E
II. E ≤ J
III. M > N
IV. D > J

A Only Conclusions I, II and III are true.

B Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true.

C Only Conclusions I, III and IV are true.

D None of the Conclusions is true.

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E All the Conclusions I, II, III and IV are true.

Answer: C

140. Statement
P>L=U≥C≤K>S
Conclusions :
I. P > C
II. K ≤ L
III. S ≤ U
IV. C ≤ L

A Only Conclusions I and II are true.

B Only Conclusions III and IV are true.

C Only Conclusions I and IV are true.

D Only Conclusions I, II and IV are true.

E Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true.

Answer: C

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141. Statements :
K > G = M ≤ T;
U<S<M
Conclusions :
I. T ≥ K
II. S < K
III. T > U
IV. G ≤ U

A Only Conclusions I and III are true.

B Only Conclusions III and IV are true.

C Only Conclusions I, III and IV are true.

D Only Conclusions III and I are true.

E Only Conclusions II and III are true.

Answer: E

Instructions [142 - 143 ]

Study the following information carefully and answer the

questions given below :
Point J is 6 metres to the west of Point P.
Point P is 5 metres to the north of Point L.
Point W is 4 metres to the west of point L.
Point S is 3 metres to the south of Point W.
Point S is 7 metres to the west of Point B.
Point X is 8 metres to the north of point B.

142. Which of the three points lie in a straight line ?

A J, S, W

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B B, S, W

C B, L, X

D J, P, X

E L, S, W

Answer: D

Explanation:
Based on the above conditions, the points when plotted on a graph are :

where the numbers in brackets is the distance between the two points.

Clearly, J, P and X lie on a straight line.

Thus, Ans - (D)

143. Point J is in which direction with respect to point L ?

A North-West

B North

C South-East

D North-East

E East

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the above conditions, the points when plotted on a graph are :

where the numbers in brackets is the distance between the two points.

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J is north-west to point L.

Thus, Ans - (A)

Download IBPS PO General Knowledge PDF

Instructions [144 - 150 ]

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are sitting around a square table in such Question : way that four of them sit at four corners of
the square while other four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. P, Q, R and S are facing towards the centre of table while T, U, V
and W are facing outside. The ones who sit at the four corners face towards the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides
face outside. Each one of them has different legislative post viz, Defence Secretary, Finance Minister, Home Minister, Foreign Minister,
HRD Minister, Education Minister, Prime Minister and Leader of Opposition but not necessarily in the same order. W is the second to
the right of the Leader of Opposition. The Leader of Opposition is facing outside. T is the third to the left of Finance Minister. Finance
Minister is not the immediate neighbour of W or Defence Secretary. R is not the Prime Minister and he is not the immediate neighbour
of HRD Minister. U is to the immediate left of Prime Minister. Prime Minister is not the immediate neighbour of Defence Secretary.
Home Minister and Foreign Minister are immediate neighbours of each other. Foreign Minister is not the immediate neighbour of the
Leader of Opposition. There is only one person between Home Minister and S. V is Education Minister and he is not the immediate
neighbour of P. S is not the Prime Minister.

144. Who among the following is the Prime Minister ?

A P

B Q

C U

D T

E W

Answer: A

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.
T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center

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and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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P is the Prime Minister.

145. What is the position of the Leader of Opposition with respect to the Prime Minister ?

A Second to the right

B Third to the left

C Third to the right

D Second to the left

E The Leader of Opposition and the Prime Minister sit diagonally opposite to each other.

Answer: C

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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The Leader of Opposition is sitting third to the right of the Prime Minister.

146. Which of the following statements is/are true on the basis of given arrangement ?

A Home Minister and Finance Minister sit diagonally opposite to each other.

B S is the Defence Secretary.

C R is an immediate neighbour of the Leader of Opposition

D W is the Foreign Minister

E All are true.

Answer: E

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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As apparent from the above diagram, all of the given statements are true.

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147. Who among the following sits exactly between the Prime Minister and Q ?

A Home Minister

B HRD Minister

C Defence Secretary

D Foreign Minister

E Leader of Opposition

Answer: B

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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The HRD Minister sits between Prime Minister and Q.

148. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Education Minister ?

A HRD Minister and Finance Minister

B Defence Secretary and Leader of Opposition

C Home Minister and Defence Secretary

D Defence Secretary and Finance Minister

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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Defense Secretory and Finance Minister are the immediate neighbors of Education Minister.

149. Who among the following sit(s) between Q and Home Minister when counted in
clockwise direction from Q ?

A Education Minister, HRD Minister and Finance Minister

B Education Minister, Defence Secretary and Leader of Opposition

C Leader of Opposition, Foreign Minister and Prime Minister

D Foreign Minister, HRD Minister and Defence Secretary

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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When counted Clockwise, Education Minister, Defense Secretory and the Leader of Opposition sit between Q and Home Minister.

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150. If W is made to face the opposite direction, who would sit to his immediate right ?

A Prime Minister

B Leader of Opposition

C HRD Minister

D Home Minister

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
P, Q, R and S are facing towards the center.

T, U, V and W are facing away from the center.

Note that in this question, any 2 adjacent persons are going to be facing in opposite directions.

W is sitting second to the right of The leader of Opposition. This means the leader of opposition must be facing away from the center
(as W is facing away from the center).
T is third to the left of Finance Minister, which Means Finance Minister is facing towards the center (as T is facing away from the center
and Finance minister is sitting third to the right of him).
Now Finance Minister is not an immediate neighbor of T, hence the arrangement becomes :-

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Since U is sitting to the immediate left of Prime Minister, Prime Minister must be facing towards the center (As U is facing away from
the center).

(This is the only possible place for U to be facing outwards with Prime Minister being on his left)

V is the Education minister.

Now Home Minister and Foreign Ministers are immediate neighbors. Also Foreign Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Leader of
Opposition.

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Only one person is sitting between Home Minister and S.
Now, since Prime Minister is not an immediate neighbor of Defense Secretory, S has to be the Defense Secretory. Thus, U is the HRD
minister.

Now, neither R, nor S is the Prime Minister. So R has to be the Home Minister. Since P is not the neighbor of V, P has to be Prime
Minister and Q has to be Finance Minister.
Hence R is the Home Minister.
Hence the Final Arrangement is :-

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Currently, Home Minister is to the left of W and hence if the direction is changed, Home Minister would be to his right.

Instructions [151 - 156 ]

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and H are given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and –

151. Six friends- A, B, C, D, E and F- are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing outside while some others are
facing towards the centre. What is theposition of C with respect to F ?
I. C is sitting second to the left of D. D is facing towards the centre. F is an immediate neighbour of both A and D. E is sitting
second to the right of B. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. F faces just opposite to that of B.
II. Two persons are sitting between D and E. D and E are facing towards the centre. E is an immediate neighbour of both C and
A. F faces the same direction asthat of D. D is an immediate neighbour of both B and F. F is not an immediate neighbour of C.

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Arranging according to statement 1,we get the following arrangement.

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B is facing outward ( Denoted in red) and D and F are facing inward ( denoted by green). The direction others are facing is unknown. We
can see that the position of C with respect to F is third to the left or right.

Thus, statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Using statement 2, we can arrive at the following diagram.

D,E and F are facing the centre. Again, we can see that C is third to the left/right of F.

Thus, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, using the data from any one of the statements, the question can be solved.

Hence, option C is the right answer.

152. Seven people- P, Q, R, S, T, W and X- are sitting in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order. How many
people sit to the right of P?
I. R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. T has as many people sitting on his right, as to his left.
II. S sits third to the left of X. Q sits to the immediate left of W. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: E

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Explanation:
Clearly, I alone and II alone are insufficient as there is no data about P.

I & II : R sits at one of the extreme ends while Q does not.

T sits in the middle while QW are adjacent in that order.

S sits third to the left of X, => S __ __ X

The only possible pattern is : R S P T X Q W

=> There are 4 people to the right of P.

Thus, I & II together are sufficient.

IBPS PO Exam Date & Pattern Details

153. Point M is towards which direction from point H ?
I. If a person walks 6 metres towards west from point M, takes a left turn and walks 6 metres again, he would be 5 metres away
from point H.
II. Point M is towards the North of point N; point N is towards the East of point T and point H is towards the East of point T.

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Since, there is no specific data about position of point H, therefore, I alone and II alone are insufficient.

I & II : Even after taking both statements together, we get, N is to the south of M and to the east of T. Now, H is also to the east of T

But still, no specific position of H is determined. M can be towards North, north-east , north-west from point H.

Thus, I & II together are not sufficient.

154. How ‘party’ is written in a certain code language ?

I. In that code language ‘going to a party’ is written as ‘la fa gi ne’ and ‘for a party’
is written as ‘fa di ne’.
II. In that code language ‘start the party’ is written as ‘ne bs am’ and ‘going to
start is written as ‘gi bs la’.

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: E

Explanation:

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I : The common words are 'a' and 'party'.

∴ party can be coded as 'fa' or 'ne'.

Thus, I alone is not sufficient.

II : The common word is only 'start' coded as 'bs'.

Thus, II alone is not sufficient.

I & II : The common word in first part of each statement is party coded as 'ne'

Thus, I & II together are sufficient.

155. How is Ranjay related Parvati ?

I. Ranjay is son of Parvati’s grandfather’s only daughter.
II. Ranjay has no siblings. Parvati has only one brother.

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: E

IBPS PO Syllabus PDF

156. Among M, R, H, D and S who scored the highest marks in an Examination ?
I. R scored more than D but less than S.
II. M scored less than H and D. H has not scored the highest marks,

if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
A
sufficient to answer the question.

if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are’ not
B
sufficient to answer the question.

C if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: E

Explanation:
I : It is given that R scored more than D but less than S, => S> R> D

We do not know about the marks of H and M.

Thus, I alone is not sufficient.

II : Similarly, we do not know about the marks scored by R and S.

Thus, II alone is not sufficient.

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I & II : S > R > D and H, D > M

Combining the above 2, we get : S > R > D > M

And, we also know that H did not score the highest.

=> S scored the highest marks.

Thus, I & II together are sufficient.

Instructions [157 - 162 ]

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement :
(All the numbers are two digit numbers).
Input : bike 51 ride 37 11 duke 58 damp line 75 tent 84
Step I : 84 51 ride 37 11 duke 58 damp line 75 tent bike
Step II : 75 84 51 ride 37 11 duke 58 line tent bike damp
Step III : 58 75 84 51 ride 37 11 line tent bike damp duke
Step IV : 51 58 75 84 ride 37 11 tent bike damp duke line
Step V : 37 51 58 75 84 11 tent bike damp duke line ride
Step VI : 11 37 51 58 75 84 bike damp duke line ride tent
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

157. Which of the following would be the Step III ?

A 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

B 69 95 64 28 58 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

C 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

D 54 64 69 95 28 give lamp 17 real flat find belt

E None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

=> Clearly step III = 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Ans - (C)

158. What will be the position of the ‘lamp’ in the Step IV ?

A Sixth from the left end

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B Seventh from the left end

C Fifth from the right end

D Sixth from the right end

E Fifth from the left end

Answer: A

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

=> In step IV, 'lamp' is at 6th position from left end.

Ans - (A)

IBPS PO Salary Details

159. How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between “28” and “69” as they
appear in the Step I ?

A Six

B Seven

C Four

D Five

E Three

Answer: D

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

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Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

=> There are 5 elements between '28' & '69' in step I.

Ans - (D)

160. At which of the following position “real” would appear from the right in the Step V
?

A Seventh

B Sixth

C Fifth

D Fourth

E None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

=> In step V, real is at 6th position from right end.

Ans - (B)

161. Which word/number would be the second to the left of the fifth element from the
right in the Step III ?

A 54

B 17

C give

D 28

E lamp

Answer: E

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

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Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

=> In step III, fifth element from the right = give

=> 2nd to the left of give = lamp

Ans - (E)

IBPS PO Free Online Coaching

162. Which Step number would be the following output ?
28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

A Step V

B Step IV

C Step III

D Step II

E Step VI

Answer: A

Explanation:
The pattern here followed is that the largest number is placed first and the word with smallest first letter in the alphabetical order is
placed last.

This series is continued till the numbers are all in ascending order and the words based on the first letter are also in ascending order.

INPUT : find 64 belt 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real 95

Step I : 95 find 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat 69 real belt

Step II : 69 95 64 28 54 lamp 17 give flat real belt find

Step III : 64 69 95 28 54 lamp 17 give real belt find flat

Step IV : 54 64 69 95 28 lamp 17 real belt find flat give

Step V : 28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp

Step VI : 17 28 54 64 69 95 belt find flat give lamp real

Step VI is the output.

28 54 64 69 95 17 real belt find flat give lamp - This output is observed in step V.

Ans - (A)

Instructions [163 - 167 ]

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Eight persons – J, K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z – are standing in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing
north while some others are facing south. J is standing at the fourth position to the right of X. X is standing at one of the extreme ends
of the line. Both the immediate neighbours of J face north. M is standing at the third position to the right of J. M is facing the same
direction as that of J. There is only one person between M and L. L is standing at the third position to the right of Y. Z is standing to the
immediate left of L. K is not facing north. Z is facing the same direction as that of W. K is not standing at any of the extreme ends of the
line.

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163. Who among the following are facing South ?

A M, J, Y

B J, K, M, X

C J. K, M, X, Y

D J, M, X, Y

E K, M, X, Y

Answer: C

Explanation:
X is at one of the ends. J is fourth to the right of X.
Now this presents 2 scenarios, one where X is facing north and the other where X is facing south.

Considering the scenario where X is facing North :-

Each of the neighbors of J are facing North.

Now J can be facing either north or south. Lets first consider the case when J is facing north.
Now M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y, thus :-

Now Z has to stand to the immediate left of L, hence this case is rejected.

Now lets consider the case where J is facing south :-

Again M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y. Also Z is standing to the immediate left of L. Thus :-

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Now since K is neither facing north, nor standing at the end, this case too is rejected.

Considering the case where X is facing south :-

Again J can either face North or South.

Considering the case when J is facing North :-
M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M.

In this case, Z can't stand to the left of L. Hence, this case is rejected.

The only remaining possibility is that J is facing South.

Following all the conditions, the final arrangement looks like :-

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For this question, M,J,Y,K and X are facing south.

164. How many persons are standing exactly between Y and Z ?

A Three

B Four

C Two

D Five

E None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
X is at one of the ends. J is fourth to the right of X.

Now this presents 2 scenarios, one where X is facing north and the other where X is facing south.

Considering the scenario where X is facing North :-

Each of the neighbors of J are facing North.

Now J can be facing either north or south. Lets first consider the case when J is facing north.
Now M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y, thus :-

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Now Z has to stand to the immediate left of L, hence this case is rejected.

Now lets consider the case where J is facing south :-

Again M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y. Also Z is standing to the immediate left of L. Thus :-

Now since K is neither facing north, nor standing at the end, this case too is rejected.

Considering the case where X is facing south :-

Again J can either face North or South.

Considering the case when J is facing North :-
M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M.

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In this case, Z can't stand to the left of L. Hence, this case is rejected.

The only remaining possibility is that J is facing South.

Following all the conditions, the final arrangement looks like :-

3 people are standing between Y and Z.

IBPS PO Free Mock Test

165. Who among the following is to the immediate left of W ?

A K

B Y

C L

D J

E None of these

Answer: D

Explanation:
X is at one of the ends. J is fourth to the right of X.

Now this presents 2 scenarios, one where X is facing north and the other where X is facing south.

Considering the scenario where X is facing North :-

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Each of the neighbors of J are facing North.
Now J can be facing either north or south. Lets first consider the case when J is facing north.
Now M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y, thus :-

Now Z has to stand to the immediate left of L, hence this case is rejected.

Now lets consider the case where J is facing south :-

Again M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y. Also Z is standing to the immediate left of L. Thus :-

Now since K is neither facing north, nor standing at the end, this case too is rejected.

Considering the case where X is facing south :-

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Again J can either face North or South.
Considering the case when J is facing North :-
M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M.

In this case, Z can't stand to the left of L. Hence, this case is rejected.

The only remaining possibility is that J is facing South.

Following all the conditions, the final arrangement looks like :-

J is standing to the immediate left of W.

166. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group ?

A M

B J

C L

D Y

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E X

Answer: C

Explanation:
X is at one of the ends. J is fourth to the right of X.

Now this presents 2 scenarios, one where X is facing north and the other where X is facing south.

Considering the scenario where X is facing North :-

Each of the neighbors of J are facing North.

Now J can be facing either north or south. Lets first consider the case when J is facing north.
Now M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y, thus :-

Now Z has to stand to the immediate left of L, hence this case is rejected.

Now lets consider the case where J is facing south :-

Again M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y. Also Z is standing to the immediate left of L. Thus :-

Now since K is neither facing north, nor standing at the end, this case too is rejected.

Considering the case where X is facing south :-

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Again J can either face North or South.
Considering the case when J is facing North :-
M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M.

In this case, Z can't stand to the left of L. Hence, this case is rejected.

The only remaining possibility is that J is facing South.

Following all the conditions, the final arrangement looks like :-

M, J, Y and X face South. L is the only one among the given options facing North.

167. Who among the following is standing at one of the ends excluding X ?

A Z

B M

C W

D Y

E L

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 Answer: B

Explanation:
X is at one of the ends. J is fourth to the right of X.

Now this presents 2 scenarios, one where X is facing north and the other where X is facing south.

Considering the scenario where X is facing North :-

Each of the neighbors of J are facing North.

Now J can be facing either north or south. Lets first consider the case when J is facing north.
Now M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y, thus :-

Now Z has to stand to the immediate left of L, hence this case is rejected.

Now lets consider the case where J is facing south :-

Again M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M. L is also at the third
position from the right of Y. Also Z is standing to the immediate left of L. Thus :-

Now since K is neither facing north, nor standing at the end, this case too is rejected.

Considering the case where X is facing south :-

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Again J can either face North or South.
Considering the case when J is facing North :-
M is facing in the same direction as J and is standing third to the right of J. L is one place away from M.

In this case, Z can't stand to the left of L. Hence, this case is rejected.

The only remaining possibility is that J is facing South.

Following all the conditions, the final arrangement looks like :-

M is standing at one of the ends.

Daily Current Affairs for Banking exams PDF

Instructions [168 - 176 ]

In each of the following questions are given four statements followed by five conclusions given as five alternative choices. You have to
assume every thing in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions does not logically follows from the information given in the statements disregarding commonly known
facts. The conclusion which does not follow is your answer.

168. Statements
All rivers are oceans. All oceans are ponds. No pond is stream. All streams are canals.

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A At least some rivers are not streams.

B Some canals are not rivers.

C All rivers are ponds.

D No ocean is stream.

E All canal being river is a possibility.

Answer: E

Explanation:
The venn diagram for above statements is :

The conclusion which does not follow is that all canal being river is a possibility.

=> Ans - (E)

169. Statements
All colours are brushes. All paints are brushes. All colours are inks. All inks are dyes.

A At least some brushes are paints.

B All colours are dyes.

C Some paints are not brushes.

D At least some inks are brushes.

E At least some dyes are inks.

Answer: C

170. Statements
No talk is speech. All lectures are talks. All addresses are speeches. All classes are addresses.

A All speeches being talks is a possibility.

B No address is lecture.

C At least some speeches are classes

D No lecture is speech.

E Some addresses are not talks.

Answer: A

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 Daily Free Banking Online Tests
171. Statements
All shelters are dens. Some dens are houses. All houses are buildings. No building is nest.

A Some buildings are not nests.

B At least some building are houses.

C At least some dens are buildings.

D All shelters are houses.

E At least some houses are not nests.

Answer: D

172. Statements
Some ends are terminals. All terminals are stops. All stops are posts. All posts are locations.

A All terminals being locations is a possibility.

B No terminal is end.

C At least some ends are stops.

D Some ends are locations.

E At least some posts are terminals.

Answer: B

173. Statements
All cities are towns. All towns are villages. All villages are districts. All lanes are cities.

A All towns are districts.

B All lanes are towns.

C All cities being villages is a possibility.

D All lanes can never be towns.

E All cities are districts.

Answer: D

Daily Free Online GK tests

174. Statement :
Company G terminates contract with company S. Company G starts buying raw material from Company L. Which of the
following may be the most plausible reason for the termination of the contract ?

A Company S was not providing the raw material of good quality.

B Company G is offered raw material at better discount from Company L.

C Company L even being a new entrant used an extensive marketing strategy to sell its goods to Company G.

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D Company G wanted to shift to new variant of finished products which can be provided by only Company L.

E Company S was not looking after the problems of Company G.

Answer: C

175. Statements :
The outbreak of the food-borne illness is causing serious problem in day-to-day lifestyle. Many doctors advise people to
reduce the consumption of fast food. It will lower down the health problem to a certain extent.

(A). According to a survey about the health issues, people should improve the quality of food. Busy lifestyle and increase in the
consumption of fast food is causing mouthful of diseases.
(B). Synthetic fertilizers and pesticides used in vegetables and fruits are equally harmful for consumption.

Which of the two statements mentioned above would weaken the argument given in the paragraph ?

A Only (A)

B Only (B)

C Either (A) or (B)

D Neither (A) nor (B)

E Both (A) and (B)

Answer: B

176. Statement :
Doctors found that Company M is selling drugs without testing the
important aspects of the drugs. Such practice tends the doctor to negate the use of
drug. Which of the following arguments would strengthen the stance of the
Company M ?

A The commercial production of any drug is permitted after its repeated trial and verification of result.

B Some other companies are also selling the drugs which are sold by the Company M.

C Some people do not agree with the view put forward by the doctors.

D Any drug is put on test by the pharmacist. Doctors are not competent to approve or disapprove any drug.

E Doctors promote those drugs which are very costly as they have some share in the profit.

Answer: A

Free Banking Study Material (15,000 Solved Questions)

Instructions [177 - 180 ]

Study the following information and five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which follow : Advertisements
play an important role in the sell of a product. Advertisements help consumer to decide which product he/she should buy. In the
absence of
advertisements consumer has very little choices to buy the products of his/her needs.

(A) Advertisements highlight only the bright side of the product. They do not reveal the weak features of the product.
(B) Most of the people wish that companies should stop issuing advertisements as these attract people and they start using the
glamorous articles.
(C) The increased frequency of advertisements attracts more different classes of people to buy the products.
(D) The products which are heavily advertised attract a large number of people and they start buying the products. For example, a large
number of people buy potato chips.
(E) Consumers lose faith in the advertisement when they do not find the products upto mark.

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177. Which of the statements numbered (A). (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents an effect of the given information
most appropriately ?

A Only (A)

B Only (B)

C Only (C)

D Only (C) and (D)

E Only (D) and (E)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The paragraph says that Advertisements facilitate decision making and help increase the sales of a product.

(A) shows the weakness of advertisements in general, not an effect of the given information, hence (A) can't be the answer.
(B) presents a view, that most people don't want advertisements. this can't be the effect of the given information as the given
information promotes advertising and (B) inhibits it, Hence (B) can't be the answer.
(C) after finding the information present in the paragraph, one might increase the frequency of advertisements which would lead to (C).
Hence (C) can be an effect of the information provided in the paragraph.
(D) after finding the information present in the paragraph, a product might get heavily advertised, which in turn might increase its sales.
Hence (D) can be an effect of the information provided in the paragraph.
(E) says consumers lose faith in advertisements if they find the products are not up to the mark. This means that sooner or later, the
sales of the products advertised would go down and also since people have lost faith in advertisements, advertisements won't help
them in making decisions. This contradicts with the paragraph.

Hence option (C) only (C) and (D)

178. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above
would weaken/contradict the facts presented in the paragraph ?

A Only (A) and (B)

B Only (B) and (C)

C Only (C) and (D)

D Only (D)

E Only (E)

Answer: E

Explanation:
The paragraph says that Advertisements facilitate decision making and help increase the sales of a product.

(A) shows the weakness of advertisements in general, but doesn't say anything about the decision making and the sales, hence (A)
can't be the answer.
(B) presents a view, that most people don't want advertisements. This doesn't contradicts all the facts presented, as even though
people might not like that, but advertisements can still help the sales of a product. Hence (B) can't be the answer.
(C) presents the pros of advertisements and supports the arguments.
(D) supports the arguments presented in the paragraph.
(E) says consumers lose faith in advertisements if they find the products are not up to the mark. This means that sooner or later, the
sales of the products advertised would go down and also since people have lost faith in advertisements, advertisements won't help
them in making decisions. This contradicts with the paragraph.

Hence (E).

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179. Which of the statements numbered (A),(B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above
represents a cause for issuing advertisements ?

A Only (A)

B Only (C) and (D)

C Only (B)

D Only (B) and (E)

E Only (A) and (E)

Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) gives a possible reason to inhibit advertising, hence (A) can't be the solution.
(B) again gives reasons for not advertising, thus can't be the solution.
(C) shows the pros of advertising. C has to be one of the reasons behind issuing advertisements.
(D) again says that more advertised products attract larger audiences and is thus one of the reasons behind issuing advertisements.
(E) shows the cons of advertising and hence can't be the answer.

only (C) and (D)

hence B.

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180. Which of the statements numbered (A) ,(B), (C) , (D) and (E) mentioned above
highlights the limitation of an advertisement ?

A Only (D)

B Only (E)

C Only (A)

D Only (B) and (E)

E Only (C) and (E)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The primary purpose of Advertisements is to attract more customers. To fulfill this purpose, only the brighter side of the products is
portrayed in the advertisements. If we were to look at the consumer's perspective, the only limitation of an advertisement is that it
doesn't show the weaknesses or flaws of a product.
Point (A) captures this limitation.
Hence option (c)

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Computer Knowledge
181. The result after applying an encryption key and algorithm to a message is

A Cybertext

B Decryption

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C Plain text

D Ciphertext

E None of these

Answer: D

182. Which of the following is graphics solution for Word Processors?

A Clipart

B WordArt

C Drop Cap

D All of the above

E None of these

Answer: A

183. The process of copying Software program from secondary storage media to hard disk is called

A Configuration

B Download

C Storage

D Upload

E Installation

Answer: D

184. Which network security features prevent users on a network from using program and information that are unauthorized?

A Firewall

B Anti Virus

C Jammer

D Plotter

E Defender

Answer: A

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185. Accidental click on undo button in Excel 2007 is reversed by clicking

A Revert

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B Step to the Back

C Redo

D Step Backward

E Undo

Answer: C

186. First generation programming language used

A Translator

B Machine level language

C Compiler

D Assembler

E All of the above

Answer: B

187. When a computer is turned on, where does it get the first instructions that it loads into RAM?

A From RAM

B From ROM

C From the Hard Disk

D From a CD

E None of these

Answer: B

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188. What is the name for a thin credit card size device used principally on laptop to expand capabilities?

A Expansion card

B Flash card

C PC card

D Smart card

E None of the above

Answer: C

189. When you save a file, it is permanently saved on the

A CPU

B Monitor

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C Hard Drive

D RAM

E None of these

Answer: C

190. Good password helps organization

A In securing information

B From spyware

C From hackers

D Both 2 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: E

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191. Which of the following refers to an upside down mouse?

A Trackpad

B Joystick

C Trackball

D Track point

E None of these

Answer: C

192. If you change Windows 98 to Windows XP, you are actually performing

A Upstart

B Upload

C Upgrade

D Update

E Patch

Answer: C

193. Change from command line interface to GUI has made personal computer

A Communicative

B Representational

C Simulative

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D Only 1 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: D

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194. Which of the following is not a malware?

A Adware

B Viruses

C Spyware

D Worms

E None of these

Answer: E

195. Which option is for print preview in MS Office?

A Print Menu

B Print Tab in Microsoft Office Backstage view

C Ctrl + F2

D Both 2 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: D

196. ……………uses Palm Operating system.

A Laptops

B PDAs

C Smartphones

D Both 2 and 3

E All of the above

Answer: D

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197. Java is referred to as

A Programming language

B Operating system

C Cascading Style sheet

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D Both2 and 4

E None of these

Answer: A

198. ……………………..are printed lines on most products.

A Stripes

B Scanners

C Barcodes

D GUIs

E None of these

Answer: C

199. The first part of a complete URL is the…………………….. needed to access the web resource.

A Name

B Location

C Address

D Protocol

E None of these

Answer: D

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200. Windows Explorer is a

A Drive

B BroWser

C Network

D Database

E File Manger

Answer: E

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