Test ID : 892

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.MOCK TEST – VI. SET - A

Std : Long Term Max. Marks : 720

Test Date : 28.04.2024 Time : 3.20 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1) This test is 3 hours 20 min duration and Maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 200 questions. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each part consists of 50 questions.
3) Each part consists of two sections, Section - A and Section - B.
4) Section - A of each subject consists of 35 questions and Section - B consists of 15
questions. Candidates have to answer for all the 35 questions from Section - A and only 10
questions out of 15 questions from Section - B.
5) Candidates are allowed to answer maximum of 180 questions only from all four parts.
6) There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deduced for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
7) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
9) Dark only one circle for each question. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
10) Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
11) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.
13) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
14) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

Stay Cool … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer …

Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 892 [A]

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
1. If | a + b |=| a − b | angle between the two 5. The work function of silver and sodium are
4.6 & 2.3 eV respectively, the ratio of slope of
vectors a, b is
stopping potential versus frequency plot for
1) 90o 2) 180o silver to that sodium is
3) 0o 4) 60o 1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1
2. A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 2
acceleration. Its angular velocity decreases
6. For given semiconductor contribution of
from 20 π rad/s to 40 π rad/s in 10 s. How current due to electron and hole is in the ratio
many rotation does it make in this period? of 3 : 1 and the ratio of drift velocity for
1) 150 2) 1500 5
electron and hole is . Then the ratio of
3) 75 4) 100 2
3. For a process, relation between temperature electron to hole concentration is
and volume is TV2 = const. If a monoatomic 5 6
1) 2)
gas follows this process, then the molar 6 5
specific heat for this process is 2 3
3) 4)
7R 2R 3 2
1) 2)
6 3 7. In the given circuit of half deflection, if
3) R 4)
11R E = 3V, R = 2 kΩ and G = 100 Ω, then the
6 current passing through shunt resistance when
4. For a cell the graph between potential deflection of the galvanometer is half of its
difference (V) across the terminals of the cell initial deflection
and current (I) drawn from the cell as shown.
the internal resistance and emf of the cell is
V (volt)
2

I(A)
0 3
1) 0.75 mA
3 1
1) Ω , 2V 2) Ω, 3V 2) 0.25 mA
2 3
3) 0.5 mA
2
3) 3 Ω, 2V 4) Ω, 2V 4) 2.5 mA
3
 2 Test ID : 892 [A]
8. The percentage error in a measurement the 12. The main reason of current flow in p-n
mass and speed are 3% and 2% respectively, junction in forward bias is
then maximum percentage error in measuring 1) Diffusion of charge carriers
kinetic energy is 2) Drifting of charge carriers
1) 8 % 2) 4 % 3) Minority charge carriers
3) 6 % 4) 7 % 4) Both (2) and (3)
9. The variation of the gravitational potential (V) 13. The instantaneous values of current and
for the uniform solid sphere of mass M and voltage in an AC circuit are given by
radius R, with distance (r) from the centre is
 π  π
best represented as I = 6 sin  100 πt +  , V = 5 sin  100 πt − 
 4  4
then
1) Current leads the voltage by 45o
1) 2)
2) Voltage leads the current by 90o
3) Current leads the voltage by 90o
4) Voltage leads the current by 45o
14. Assertion : Eddy currents heat up the core and
3) 4) dissipate electrical energy in the form of heat.
Reason : Eddy currents are always
10. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘Q’ is undesirable.
performing circular motion of radius ‘R’ in a 1) both assertion and reason are true and
uniform magnetic field of magnitude ‘B’. The reason is the correct explanation of the
magnetic moment due to the circular motion assertion
of this charged particle is 2) both assertion and reason are true but
2 2 2 2
QR B QR B reason is not the correct explanation of the
1) 2)
2m 4m assertion
Q 2 RB QR 2 B 3) assertion is true but the reason is false
3) 4)
2m 2m 4) assertion is false but the reason is true
11. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser 15. The minimum energy required by a hydrogen
does not depend on atom in ground state to emit radiation in
i) The distance between the plates Balmer series is nearly
ii) Area of plates 1) 1.5 eV
iii) Medium between plates 2) 13.6 eV
iv) Nature of metal plates 3) 1.9 eV
1) i 2) ii 4) 12.1 eV
3) iii 4) iv
 3 Test ID : 892 [A]
16. Variation of resistivity with temperature will 18. When a cyclist is taking a sharp turn on the
be as shown for different materials. Matching horizontal ground. The centripetal force to the
then cyclist is provided by
Column – I Column – II 1) Frictional force from the ground
(Material) (Graph) 2) Normal force from the ground

a) For copper P) 3) Both frictional force and normal force from

the ground
4) Neither frictional force nor normal force
from the ground
19. A stone is released from an elevator, going up
b) For nichrome Q)
with an acceleration (a). The acceleration of
the stone after release is
1) a - upward 2) (g – a) upward
3) (g – a) downward 4) g - downward
c) For R)
20. Two droplets merge with each other and forms
semiconductor
a large droplet. In this process
1) Energy is liberated
2) Energy absorbed
d) For good S)
3) Energy neither liberated nor absorbed
conductors
4) Energy released and then absorbed

T(k) 21. A transverse wave is represented by the

2π
equation y = y0 sin (vt – x). For what
1) a – R, b – S, c- P, d - Q λ
2) a – Q, b – S, c- P, d - Q value of λ, the maximum particle velocity is
3) a – R, b – Q, c- Q, d - P equal to two times the wave velocity ?
4) a – P, b – Q, c- S, d - R πy0 πy0
1) λ = 2) λ =
2 3
17. Internal energy of n1 moles of hydrogen at
temperature T is equal to the internal energy 3) λ = 2πy0 4) λ = πy0
of n2 moles of helium at temperature 2T. Then 22. The coericivity of small magnet where the
n ferromagnetized is 3 x 103A/m, the current
the ratio 1 is
n2 required to be passed in solenoid of length
10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the
3 2
1) 2) magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
5 3
solenoid is
6 3
3) 4)
5 7
 4 Test ID : 892 [A]
1) 3 A 2) 6 A 1) 10 µF 2) 20 µF
3) 30 mA 4) 60 mA 3) 30 µF 4) 40 µF
23. Assertion : When light travels from a rarer to 27. Three rods of the same dimension have
a denser medium, the speed decreases and thermal conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are
energy carried by the light wave also arranged as shown in figure. Given below,
decreases. with their ends at 100oC, 50oC and 20oC. The
Reason : Energy carried by a wave depends temperature of their junction is
on the speed of wave propagation.
1) both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion 1) 60oC 2) 70oC
3) assertion is true but reason is false 3) 50oC 4) 35oC
4) both assertion and reason are false 28. The work done in pushing a block of mass 10
24. Which of following is not correct statement? kg from bottom to the top of a frictionless
1) Nuclear forces are charge independent inclined plane 5m long and 3m high is (take
2) Nuclear forces are spin dependent g = 9.8 m/s2)
3) Nuclear forces are long range forces 1) 392 J 2) 294 J
4) Nuclear forces are non-central forces 3) 98 J 4) 324 J

25. A particle of charge -2C moves in a magnetic 29. The upper end of a wire one meter long and
2 mm radius is clamped. The lower end is
field of magnitude 4T acting in x-direction
twisted through an angle of 45o. The shearing
with a velocity (2iˆ + 3j)ˆ m/s. Find the
strain in wire is
magnetic force acting on the particle 1) 0.03o 2) 0.06o
1) 24 N in +ve z-direction 3) 0.09o 4) 0.01o
2) 24 N in -ve z-direction 30. Figure shows electric field lines in which an
3) 12 N in +ve z-direction electric dipole P is placed as shown. Which of
4) 12 N in –ve z-direction the following statements is correct?
26. A parallel plate capacitor with air core has a
capacitance 10 µF. Two dielectric slabs with
k1 = 2 and k2 = 4 having same thickness but
half the area of plates are introduced to
completely fill the gap between plates. The
new capacity of the system will be
 5 Test ID : 892 [A]
1) The dipole will not experience any force negligible current flow till the applied voltage
2) The dipole will experience a force towards crosses a certain value, that is called
right 1) Cut-in voltage
3) The dipole will experience a force towards 2) Threshold voltage
left 3) Cut-off voltage
4) The dipole will experience a force upwards 4) Both (1) and (2)
31. If PR , PL, PC denotes the average power 34. In a plane EM wave the electric field oscillates
dissipated per cycle in resistor, inductor and sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 x 1010 Hz and
capacitance of series LCR circuit respectively, amplitude of 48 V/m. The frequency of
then oscillation of magnetic field will be
1) PL + PC = 0 2) PL ≠ 0 1) 2 x 108 Hz
3) PC ≠ 0 4) PR = 0 2) 16 x 1010 Hz
32. A ray of light AO in vacuum is incident on a 3) 2 x 1010 Hz
glass slab at 53o and refracted at angle 37o 4) 16 x 108 Hz
along OB as shown in figure. The optical path 35. A mass is suspended separately by two
length of light ray from A to B is different springs in successive order, then time
periods are t1 and t2 respectively. If it is
connected by both the springs as shown in
figure, then time period is t0. Then the correct
relation is

5 5 5
1) a+ b 2) (a + b)
3 4 3
4 4 5
3) (a + b) 4) a+ b 1) t 02 = t12 + t 22
3 3 3
33. In study of forward characteristics of PN 2) t 0−2 = t1−2 + t 2−2
junction diode. The p-side of a diode is
3) t 0−1 = t1−1 + t 2−1
connected to the positive terminal and n-side
is connected to negative terminal of the battery 4) t0 = t1 + t2
and then voltage is increased, initially a
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
 6 Test ID : 892 [A]

36. The value of acceleration due to gravity at 1) Clockwise

depth ‘d’ below the earth’s surface is (symbols 2) Anti-clockwise
have their usual meanings) 3) zero
 2d   d 4) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
1) g 1 −  2) g 1 + 
 R  R 40. An object 1 cm tall is placed 4 cm infront of a
 d 2gd mirror. In order to produce an upright image
3) g 1 −  4)
 R R of 3 cm height one needs a
37. Two point charges placed at a certain distance 1) convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
‘r’ in air exerts a force F on each other. Then 2) concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
the distance r′ at which these charges will 3) concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm
exert the same force in a medium of dielectric 4) plane mirror of height 4 cm
constant ‘k’ is given by 41. A capacitor is given a charge 1µC, when
r connected to a battery of 200 V. The energy
1) r 2)
k spent by battery in storing change on capacitor
r is
3) 4) r k
k 1) 6 x 10-4 J 2) 3 x 10-4 J
38. A resistor of 6Ω in the right gap and an 3) 2 x 10-4 J 4) 1 x 10-4 J
unknown resistance in left gap of meter bridge 42. A bomb is thrown at a speed 20 m/s at an
are connected, the balancing length is 52 cm. angle 45o. At the highest point, it explodes
To shift the balancing length to 40 cm, the into two parts of equal mass, if one part
resistance to be connected in series in the right coming to rest. Find the distance from the
gap is origin to the point where the other part strikes
1) 16 Ω 2) 9.75 Ω the ground. (g = 10 m/s2)
3) 3.75 Ω 4) 6 Ω 1) 20 m 2) 40 m
39. A square loop of side l is placed at a 3) 60 m 4) 80 m
separation a with a very long wire AB, in 43. An ammeter of range 10 A is obtained by
same plane. If the current through BA is connecting a shunt of resistance 1Ω to a
increasing in the direction shown, the induced galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω. Find the
current produced in the loop is range of galvanometer.
1 10
1) A 2) A
101 101
100 10
3) A 4) A
101 11
 7 Test ID : 892 [A]

44. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and

each of its two wings has an area of 40 m2. If 1) 100 rad/s 2) 115 rad/s
the speed of air is 180 km/hr over the lower 3) 125 rad/s 4) 150 rad/s
surface of wing and 252 km/hr over the upper 48. Two different wires having lengths L1 and L2
surface of wing, the mass of the plane is and respective temperature coefficient of
(density of air ρ = 1 kg/m3, g = 10 m/sec2) linear expansion α1 and α2 are joined end to
1) 4800 kg end. Then the effective temperature coefficient
2) 9600 kg of linear expansion is
3) 2400 kg α1L1 + α 2 L 2
1) 2) 2 α1α 2
4) 1000 kg L1 + L 2

45. The wave function for a light wave is given as α1 + α 2 α1α 2 L 2 L1

3) 4)
2 6 14
y(x, t) = 10 sinπ (2(10 x) – 8 x 10 t). The 2 α1 + α 2 (L1 + L 2 ) 2
frequency of the wave is equal to (all 49. In a third orbit of hydrogen atom de-Broglie
parameters are given in SI units) wavelength of electron λ, then radius of third
14
1) 4 x 10 Hz orbit is
2)1 x 1014 Hz 1) 3 λ 2) λ
3) 8π x 10 Hz
14
3λ λ
3) 4)
4) 4π x 10 Hz
14 2π 2π
46. In a screw gauge, main scale has mm divisions 50. A body of mass 0.1 kg moving with a velocity
and head scale has 50 divisions. It can of 10 m/s hits a spring (fixed at the other end)
measure a least value of force constant 1000 N/m and comes to rest
1) 50 µm 2) 5 µm after compressing the spring. The maximum
compression of the spring is
3) 20 µm 4) 2 µm
1) 0.01 m 2) 0.1 m
47. The resonant frequency (ωr) of a series LCR
3) 0.2 m 4) 0.5 m
circuit with L = 4H, C = 16 µF and R = 5Ω is
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
51. Assertion (A) : The number of significant 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
figures for 0.200 g is 3 whereas for 200 g is 1. correct explanation for (A)
Reason (R) : Zero at the end or right of a 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
number are significant, provided they are not correct explanation for (A)
on the right side of the decimal point. 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
 8 Test ID : 892 [A]
52. Identify the incorrect statement among the 55. Equivalent mass of N2 in N2 → NH3 reaction is
following 14 14
1) 2)
1) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation 6 3
of successive shrinkage 17
3) Both (1) and (2) 4)
2) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the 3
properties of 4d series of transition 56. Assertion (A) : Redox couple is the
elements have no similarities with the 5d- combination of oxidized and reduced form of
series of transition elements substances involved in oxidation and reduction
3) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak half cell.
Reason (A) : In the representation of
4) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms
individual half cell of Fe+3/Fe+2 and Cu+2/Cu
(or) ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
each one separately act as redox couple.
53. Which of the following statements are correct
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
as per VSEPR theory?
correct explanation of the (A)
a) It is applicable to all possible resonating
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
structures of a molecule
correct explanation of the (A)
b) Two (or) three electron pairs of a multiple
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
bond are treated as a single super pair.
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
c) Electron pairs occupy such positions in
space that maximize repulsion hence 57. What is the IUPAC name of the following
minimize distance between them compound?

d) Pair of electrons in the valence shell repel

one another since their electron clouds are
negatively charged
1) a, b, c and d
2) b and d only 1) 3-Bromo-1,2-dimethylbut-1-ene
3) a, b and d only 2) 3-Bromo-3-methyl-1,2-dimethylprop-1-ene
4) b, c and d only 3) 2-Bromo-3-methyl pent-3-ene
54. Statement I : Formal charge helps in the 4) 4-Bromo-3-methyl pent-2-ene
selection of lowest energy structure from 58. Match column I with column II
possible lewis structures. Column – I Column – II
Statement II : Smaller is the formal charge on i) Dumas method a) AgNO3
atom, higher is the energy of structure.
ii) Kjeldahl’s method b) Silica gel
1) Both statements I and II are correct
iii) Carius c) N2(g)
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
iv) Chromatography d) Free radicals
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct v) Homolysis e) (NH4)2SO4
 9 Test ID : 892 [A]
1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e 63. Match the column – I with column – II and
2) i-c, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b, v-d mark the correct option from the codes given
3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a, v-e below.
4) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b, v-a Column – I Column – II
59. Statement – I : Iodination of alkanes is very A) Actinide that has p) Neptunium
7
slow and a reversible reaction. f in +3 state
Statement – II : Iodination of alkanes can be B) Element that has q) Curium
14
carried out in the presence of HIO3 (or) HNO3. f in +3 state
1) Both Statement-I and II are true C) Ion that is colourless r) Actinium
2) Both Statement-I and II are false in +3 state
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false D) Element that shows s) Lawrencium
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true +7 oxidation state
60. More charge is required for which of the 1) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
following reduction? 2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
+3
1) 1 mole of Al to Al 3) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p
+2
2) 1 mole of Cu to Cu 4) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r
3) 1 mole of MnO −4 to Mn+2 64. Assertion (A) : During crystal field splitting
4) 1 mole of H2O to O2 in octahedral coordination entities, d x 2 − y2 and
61. Activation energy for the reaction, d z 2 orbitals energy will be raised.
A + B → C + D –38kcal is 70 k.cal. Reason (R) : d x 2 − y2 and d z2 orbitals
Activation energy of C + D → A + B is
experience less repulsion by ligand charges.
1) 20 k.cal
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
2) –32 k.cal
correct explanation of the (A)
3) 32 k.cal
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
4) 58 k.cal
correct explanation of the (A)
62. Statement I : In photosynthesis process
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
oxygen is liberated from green plants by
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
converting atmospheric CO2 into carbohydrates
65. A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with
such as glucose.
chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro
Statement II : In photosynthesis process CO2
compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. The
is oxidised by H2O to give oxygen gas.
hydrocarbon is?
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 1) Neopentane 2) Pentene
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 3) Isopentane 4) Cyclopentane
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
 10 Test ID : 892 [A]
66. Assertion (A) : The boiling point of alcohols NH2 4-Bromo
are in the order of tert-butyl alcohol > sec- benzenamine
butyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol. II)
Reason (R) : Boiling point of alcohols
decreases with increase of branching. Br

1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 2-Methyl
correct explanation of the (A) aniline
III)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
IV) C2 H 5 − CH − NH 2 Pentan-2-
3) (A) is true but (R) is false | amine
4) (A) is false and (R) is true C2H5

67. Match the following 1) I, II only 2) I, II, IV only

Column - I Column - II 3) I, II, III only 4) I, II, III & IV
(Basic radical) (Flame colouration) 70. According to Einstein’s photoelectric
equation, graph between kinetic energy of
a) Na+ p) Violet
photo electrons ejected and the frequency of
+
b) K q) Golden yellow incident radiation is
c) Ca2+ r) Crimson red
d) Sr2+ s) Brick red
1) 2)
1) a - q, b - p, c - s, d - r
2) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q
3) a - p, b - q, c - r, d - s
4) a - r, b - p, c - s, d - q 3) 4)
68. The number of possible functional isomers of
C3H6O having aldehyde or ketone groups.
1) 4 2) 5 71. Assertion (A) : Atomic radius of neon is more
3) 2 4) 3 than fluorine.

69. Identify the correct match Reason (R) : Generally vander Waal’s radius
is more than covalent radius.
Compound IUPAC
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
name
correct explanation of the (A)
But-3-en-1-
I) H 2 N − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
amine
correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
 11 Test ID : 892 [A]
72. Assertion (A) : Even though in SO2 76. Find out Λm (S cm2 mol–1) at 10–2 M from
hybridisation is sp2, it has bent / angular given graph
shape.
Reason (R) : Lone pair-lone pair repulsion is
much more as compared to the lone pair –
bond pair repulsion.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1) 141.254 2) 158.746
correct explanation of (A)
3) 150.875 4) 149.125
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
77. Statement – I : The rate of a reaction may not
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
depend on the concentration of every reactant.
73. In a system A(s) ⇌ B(g) + 2C(g). If the
Statement – II : Powers of concentration
concentration of B at equilibrium is doubled, terms in the rate law are always equal to
then the equilibrium conc. of C is changed as stoichiometric co-efficients of reactants.
follows
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
1) Increased by 2 times
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
2) Decreased by 2 times
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
3) Increased by 2 times
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
4) Decreased by 2 times
HO HO HO
74. Ethyl acetate and methyl methanoate are 78. XeF6 
1mole→ A 
2
1mole→ B 
2
1mole→ C .
2

1) Metamers The correct information about A, B, C

2) Functional isomers 1) Compound ‘C’ has pyramidal shape due to
3) Position isomers sp2 hybridization
4) They are not isomers 2) In compound ‘B’ the lone pair occupies
75. Which of the following reaction is incorrect? equatorial position
Ni
1) CH4 + H2O 
∆→ CO + 3H2 3) ‘B’ has folded square structure
Anhyd.AlCl 4) Both (2) and (3)
2) CH3(CH2)4CH3 
HCl →
3

79. Choose the correct statements regarding

d-block elements
A) E oM+2 / M values of Mn, Zn are more –ve than
(CH COO) Mn expected is due to stable electronic
3) 2CH3CH3 + 3O2 
3
∆
2 →
configurations 3d5 and 3d10 respectively.
2CH3COOH
B) Manganese shows the highest oxidation
Zn,H+
4) CH3Cl + H2 → CH3CH3 + HCl state in 3d-series.
 12 Test ID : 892 [A]
C) Ti+2, V+2 and Cr+2 are strong oxidizing Cl
agents
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 2)
3) A and B only 4) A, B and C
80. Match the following C CCl3
Column – I Column – II O
(Ligand) (Behaviour)
A) H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 i) Neutral 3)
B) Glycinato ii) Negative
C) Chlorido iii) Ambidenate
D) Nitrito iv) Didentate
1) A-i, iv; B-ii, iv; C-ii; D-ii, iii
4)
2) A-ii; B-ii; C-ii, iv; D-ii, iii
3) A-i, iv; B-ii, iii; C-ii, iii; D-ii
83. Assertion (A) : Synthesis of ethyl phenyl
4) A-iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i, iii
ether may be achieved by Williamson
81. Which of the following pair has sp3 and dsp2
synthesis.
hybridizations respectively?
Reason (R) : Reaction of bromobenzene with
1) [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(CO)4]
sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.
2) [Ni(CO)4] and [Cu(NH3)4]2+
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
3) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]2–
correct explanation of the (A)
4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ and [PtCl4]2–
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
82. Find the structure of ‘A’ in the given reaction correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
84. An insulated container is divided into two
equal portions, one portion contains an ideal
gas at pressure ‘P’ and temperature ‘T’, while
O the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole
C CCl3 opened between the two portions, then which
of the following is correct?
1) 1) ∆U = 0, q = 0, ∆T = 0
2) ∆U ≠ 0, q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0
3) ∆U = 0, q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0
4) ∆U ≠ 0, q ≠ 0, ∆T ≠ 0
 13 Test ID : 892 [A]
85. Matching 1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
Column – I Column – II 2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
Hydrolysis 3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
A) RCN → P) R – CHO
O 4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
||
Hydrolysis
B) RNC → Q) R − C − CH 3
CH MgBr
C) RCN →
3
HO R) HCOOH
2

DIBAL − H
D) RCN 
HO  → S) RCOOH
2

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
86. A compound of hydrogen with another 90. pH of 100ml buffer solution is changed from
element was found to contain 1.25% (by mass) 4 to 6 by addition of 0.01 mole of NaOH.
hydrogen. Calculate the equivalent weight of Then buffer capacity is
the element. 1) 0.1
1) 41 2) 52 2) 0.05
3) 79.63 4) 85 3) 0.2
87. If the velocity of electron in Bohr’s first orbit 4) 0.15
is 5 x 106 ms–1, de-Broglie wave length 91. Most stable resonating structure of given
associated with it is cation is
1) 332 pm 2) 145 pm
3) 168 pm 4) 182 pm
88. In the equilibrium 3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g), if initial
O
pressure is 50 mmHg and total pressure at
equilibrium is 40 mmHg then Kp (in mm−1) is
1) 0.05 2) 0.4 1) 2)
3) 2.5 4) 1.25 O

89. Degree of ionization ratio α1 : α2 is 2 : 1 for

two weak acids, then their relative acidic
3) 4)
strength ratio is
O
1) 4 : 1 2) 2 : 1
3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4
 14 Test ID : 892 [A]
92. Hydrocarbon with molecular formula (C6H12) 1) –18.69 K cal mol–1
is optical active but on reaction with Ni/H2 2) +18.69 K cal mol–1
gives optically inactive product. Identify the 3) –28.96 K cal mol–1
structure of hydrocarbon. 4) 28.96 K cal mol–1
97. Calculate heat (q) for the isothermal reversible
1) 2)
expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from an
initial pressure 0.1 bar to a final pressure
3) 4) 0.01 bar at constant temperature of 300K
1) 11.42 k.cal 2) 1.38 k.cal
93. The vapour pressure of water is 12.5 k.Pa at
3) 10.8 k.cal 4) 2.34 k.cal
310K. The vapour pressure of 2 molal solution
98. What is the decreasing order of reactivity of
of a non volatile solute in it is
following amides towards hydroxide ion
1) 12.80 k.Pa 2) 1.208 k.Pa
catalysed hydrolysis?
3) 12.05 k.Pa 4) 1.205 k.Pa
94. What is equilibrium constant (Kc) of Daniel
cell at 298 K? [Antilog (0.288) ~ 2] I)

1) 37.288 2) 1.1 x 2
3) 2 x 1037 4) zero
95. Consider the following structures II)

III)

IV)
Which of the pairs represent L and D-fructose
1) I > II > III > IV 2) III > II > I > IV
respectively?
3) II > I > III > IV 4) III > II > IV > I
1) II and I 2) I and III
99. Identify the compound (A) and (B) from the
3) III and IV 4) II and IV
given below equation
96. The enthalpies of solution for copper sulphate
pentahydrate and anhydrous copper sulpahte
+2.80 K cal mol–1 and –15.89 k cal mol–1
respectively. The hydration enthalpy of
anhydrous copper sulphate is
 15 Test ID : 892 [A]
100. The major product in the following reaction is

1)

1)

NH3HSO4 NH3
2)
2) &

SO3 3)

3) 4)

NH3 NH3

4) &

SO3
BOTANY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
(A) : Adventitious roots develop
101. Assertion 102. In Glycolysis, each PGAL / G3P yields
from any part of the plant other than radicle. 1) 4 molecules ATP and 2 molecules NADH2
Reason (R) : Fibrous roots are develops from 2) 4 molecules ATP and 4 molecules NADH2
radicle. 3) 2 molecules ATP and 1 molecule NADH2
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
4) 2 molecules ATP and 2 molecules NADH2
correct explanation of (A)
103. Statement I : Probe is a single stranded DNA
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not or RNA tagged with radioactive elements.
the correct explanation of (A) Statement II : Probe is used to detect the
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false presence of complimentary strands
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct
 16 Test ID : 892 [A]
1) Both statements I and II are correct 1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
104. Read the given statements and select the
108. Identifythe correct statements from the
correct option for viruses.
following.
1) These are simple and unicellular organisms
i) Right end of a polysaccharide chain is
2) They contain DNA and enclosed by nuclear
membrane called reducing end while left end is called
non-reducing end
3) They possess own metabolic machinery
ii) Starch can hold iodine molecules in its
4) They are not placed in R.H. Whittaker’s 5
kingdom classification secondary helical structures

105. Cellwall of diatoms is indestructible due to iii) Starch and glycogen are the reserve food
the presence of materials of plants and animals
1) Sodium 2) Calcium respectively

3) Silica 4) Carbon iv) Starch and glycogen are

homopolysaccharides
106. Which of the following events of meiosis does
not occur in the same stage? 1) Statements i and ii are correct
1) DNA replication and centriole duplication 2) Statements ii and iii are correct
2) Shortening of spindle fibres and segregation 3) Only statement iv is correct
of chromosomes 4) All statements are correct
3) Crossing over and recombination 109. Identify
the features found in members of
4) Separation of homologous chromosomes kingdom Plantae.
and centromere splitting I) Multicellular II) Eukaryotic
107. Study the following lists: III) Cellulosic walls IV) Autotrophs
List-I List-II 1) I - II - III 2) II - III - IV
(Contribution) (Scientist) 3) I - II - IV 4) I - II - III - IV
A. Chromosomal I. T.H. 110. Assertion(A) : Growth is measurable.
theory of inheritance Morgan Reason (R) : Growth can be expressed in
number, length and size.
B. Rediscovery of II. Alfred
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Mendel laws Sturtevant
correct explanation of (A)
C. The term Linkage III. Sutton and
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Boveri
the correct explanation of (A)
D. Gene mapping IV. Von
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
Tschermak
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct
 17 Test ID : 892 [A]
111. Identify simple, thalloid, autotropic, aquatic 3) Na+/K+ can be transported actively
plants from the following. 4) Solutes are transported in and out of the
1) Algae membrane through diffusion but not by
2) Fungi active transport
3) Bryophytes 116. Match column I with column II and choose the
4) Pteridophytes correct option.
112. Which of the following characters cannot be Column I Column II
expressed in floral formula? Discovered the
A Robert Brown I
1) Sexuality living cell
2) Symmetry Omnis cellula-
B G.N. Ramachandran II
3) Adhesion of floral parts e-cellula
4) Aestivation Triple helical
113. Cartwheel organisation is found in C R. Virchow III structure of
1) Centriole collagen
2) Ribosome Discovered the
D Leeuwenhoek IV
3) Mesosome nucleus
4) Cytoskeleton A B C D
114. Assertion (A) : The pairing and separation of 1) IV III II I
a pair of chromosomes would lead to the 2) IV II I III
segregation of a pair of factors they carried.
3) III I II IV
Reason (R) : All the factors of a chromosome
4) I II III IV
show independent assortment
117. Assertion (A) : Binomial nomenclature is
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
system of providing a name with two words.
correct explanation of (A)
Reason (R) : Each name consist of first
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
specific name and later generic name.
correct explanation of (A)
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
correct explanation of (A)
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
115. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma
correct explanation of (A)
membrane.
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
1) Neutral solutes are transported passively
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
along their concentration gradient
2) Polar molecules can be transported against
their concentration gradient
 18 Test ID : 892 [A]
118. Match the following correctly. 121. Meiosis results in genetic variation due to
Column I Column II 1) Condensation of chromatin

Enzymes catalyse 2) Crossing over

A removal of groups from I Isomerases 3) Reduction of chromosomal number
substrates 4) Equal distribution of genetic material
Enzymes catalyse inter 122. Homologous chromosomes move towards
Oxido opposite poles at
B conversion of optical II
reductases
(or) positional isomers 1) Anaphase
Enzyme which 2) Anaphase - I
C catalyses oxido III Ligases 3) Anaphase - II
reduction reactions 4) All of the above
Enzymes which 123. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA does not
catalyzing by linking involves
D IV Lyases
together of ‘2’ 1) Releasing of CO2
compounds 2) Addition of CoA
A B C D 3) Formation of NADPH
1) IV I II III 4) Reduction of NAD+
2) IV II I III 124. During aerobic respiration, CO2 is liberated
3) III I II IV during
4) I II III IV 1) Reduction of Acetyl CoA
119. If egg of an organism has 60 Pg of DNA in its 2) Oxidation of α-K.G.A
nucleus, how much DNA would a diploid cell 3) Oxidation of Acetyl CoA
of same organism has in G1 phase? 4) Reduction of Pyruvate
1) 30 Pg 2) 180 Pg 125. Choose the correct statement regarding
3) 120 Pg 4) 90 Pg photosynthesis.
120. Which of the following events does not takes 1) CO2 saturation point for C3 plants is 360
place during prophase – I of meiosis? µlL−1
1) Formation of recombination nodules 2) CO2 saturation point for C4 plants is at 450
2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex µlL−1
3) Exchange of genetic material between non- 3) At low light conditions, C4 plants do not
sister chromatids of homologous respond to high CO2 concentration
chromosomes 4) At low light conditions, C3 plants respond
4) Formation of equatorial plate by to high CO2 concentration
congression of bivalents
 19 Test ID : 892 [A]
126. Sequence annotation is one of the methods in 131. Which of the following is the substrate for
the sequence of human genome. It refers to anaerobic sludge digestion?
1) Sequencing of whole genome and later 1) Heterotrophic anaerobic bacteria
assigning different regions in sequence with 2) Secondary effluent
functions 3) Activated sludge
2) Sequencing of only non-coding regions 4) Primary effluent
3) Sequencing only protein coding regions and 132. Which of the following enzymes helps the
later assigning regions in the sequence with bacteria to protect the genetic material from
functions their own restriction endonucleases?
4) Sequencing of SNPs only 1) DNA polymerase 2) Methylase
127. Pollen-pistil interaction does not involves 3) RNA polymerase 4) DNA ligase
1) Recognition of pollen by the stigma 133. Identifythe correct option w.r.t the figure
2) Germination of pollen given below.
3) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
4) Degeneration of antipodals
128. Which of the following is the predominant site
for control of gene expression in prokaryotes?
1) Transcriptional initiation
2) Translational initiation
3) Processing of hnRNA
4) Removal of introns
129. DNA finger printing involves blotting of DNA 1) a – Fully mature cotton boll
fragments from gel to 2) b – Cotton boll destroyed by bollworms
1) Chromatography paper 3) a – Cotton boll destroyed by bollworms
2) Nylon membrane 4) b – Cotton boll infected by beetles
3) Nitrocellulose membrane 134. Inthe convention of naming of restriction
4) (2) or (3) endonucleases, the first letter represents
130. The activity of RNA polymerase at promoter 1) Strain 2) Species
site is regulated by which of the following 3) Genus 4) Family
proteins? 135. A linear dsDNA has five recognition
1) Activators sequences for EcoRI. On restriction enzyme
2) Repressors digestion, how many fragments have sticky
ends on both sides?
3) Operators
1) Six 2) Five
4) Both (1) and (2)
3) Four 4) Three
 20 Test ID : 892 [A]

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
136. Assertion (A) : In vertical section of a A B C D
monocot leaf, vascular bundles in lateral veins 1) I III II IV
are similar in size. 2) I II III IV
Reason (R) : Monocot leaves show parallel 3) II I IV III
venation.
4) II III I IV
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
139. Identify
the incorrect statement w.r.t. law of
correct explanation of (A)
dominance.
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
1) Characters are controlled by discrete units
correct explanation of (A)
called factors
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
2) Factors occur in pairs
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member
137. Which of the following statements is correct?
of the pair dominates the other
1) The downstream processing and quality
control testing vary from product to product 4) One pair segregates independently of
2) In bioreactors, raw materials are another pair
abiologically converted into specific 140. Statement I : The C4 plants have a much
product lower temperature optimum.
3) Bioreactors are having only pH control Statement II : Tropical plants have a higher
system temperature optimum.
4) DNA being hydrophilic molecule it can 1) Both statements I and II are correct
pass through lipid portion of cell membrane 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
138. Match the column I with column II 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
Column I Column II
141. Identify the organisms that belong to the same
Indole family
A Auxins I
compounds
1) Cat, Dog, Rat 2) Tiger, Leopard, Cat
Derivatives of 3) Tiger, Dog, Cat 4) Cat, Dog, Leopard
B Gibberellins II
purines
142. What type of inflorescence is common in the
C Cytokinins III Terpenes family of Gramineae?
Derivatives of 1) Head 2) Cymose
D ABA IV
carotenoids 3) Spike 4) Corymb
 21 Test ID : 892 [A]
143. Identify the incorrect match 2) ATAT…TATA…ATAT…TATA
1) Cylindrical meristem – Cork cambium 3) TATA…TATA…TATA…TATA
2) Bulliform cells – Motor cells 4) GAGA…ATAT…TATA…AGAG
3) Isobilateral leaf – Monocot leaf 148. The type of gas produced depends upon the
4) Pericycle – Root hairs type of
144. Female sex organ in Funaria is 1) Microorganism
2) Organic substrate they used
1) Ascogonium 2) Oogonium
3) Fermenters
3) Carpogonium 4) Archegonium
4) Both (1) and (2)
145. Whichof the following plants do not require
149. Whichof the following is the five carbon
emasculation during artificial hybridisation?
compound formed in Krebs cycle?
1) Tomato 2) Onion
1) Succinic acid 2) Citric acid
3) Datura 4) Maize
3) α-Ketoglutaric acid 4) Oxalo acetic acid
146. Continued self pollination results in
150. Which of the following statements is correct
1) Formation of hybrid
for G0 phase of cell cycle?
2) Inbreeding depression 1) Cells proliferate excessively
3) Increases genetic variability 2) Cells metabolically active and DNA
4) Both (1) and (3) replication occurs
147. Whichof the following is tandemly repeated 3) Cells remain metabolically active but
DNA sequence? metabolism for cell division is inactive
4) Duplication of cell organelles occur
1) TATA…ATAT…TATA…GAGA
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
151. Cerebral aqueduct passes through a part of 1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
brain that is located in between incorrect
1) thalamus and hypothalamus 2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
2) hypothalamus and pons
3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) pons and cerebellum
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) cerebellum and medulla 153. Connective tissue that serves as a support
152. Statement-I: In urochordates notochord is framework for epithelium contains
present only in their larval tail. 1) fibres secreting cells
Statement-II: In cephalochordates, notochord 2) phagocytic cells
extends from head to tail region. 3) chemical like serotonin secreting cells
4) all of these
 22 Test ID : 892 [A]
154. Match the following columns w.r.t cockroach. iii) Normal activities of the heart are regulated
Column - I Column - II intrinsically and are independent of neural and
endocrine systems.
Reproductive organs Their location in
abdominal segments 1) i and ii are incorrect
2) ii and iii are incorrect
A) Testis i) 6th
3) i and iii are incorrect
B) Spermathecae ii) 2nd - 6th
4) i, ii and iii are correct
C) Ovaries iii) 6th - 7th
(A): The cardiac output of an
158. Assertion
D) Mushroom shaped ordinary man and of an athlete is same.
iv) 4th - 6th
gland Reason (R): Cardiac output gets altered with
1) A- iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii change in stroke volume and heart rate.
2) A- ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) A- i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii explanation of A
4) A- iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
155. What are the functions of conducting part of correct explanation of A
the respiratory system w.r.t humans? 3) A is true but R is false
i) Transports the inhaled air to the alveoli 4) A is false but R is true
ii) Clears inhaled air from foreign particles 159. Matchthe correct answer from the option
iii)Humidifies inhaled air given below.
iv) Brings the inhaled air to body temperature List - I List - II
v) Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and i) A special sensitive
A) Collecting duct
alveolar air region
1) i, ii, iii and v 2) i, ii, iii and iv B) Ascending limb of
ii) 180 litres /day
3) ii, iii, iv and v 4) i, ii, iii, iv and v LOH
156. Which enzyme complex is responsible for the iii) Large amounts of
conversion of inactive prothrombin into C) JGA
water reabsorbed
thrombin?
iv) Reabsorption is
1) Carbonic anhydrase D) GFR
minimum
2) Renin
1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
3) Angiotensinogen
2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
4) Thrombokinase
3) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
157. i)
Mammalian heart can contract throughout
4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D – iv
the life without fatigue
ii) Mammalian heart relax for about 0.4 sec in
every cardiac cycle
 23 Test ID : 892 [A]
160. Which is the store house of calcium in a 164. The part of the fallopian tube closer to the
muscle cell? ovary is
1) Sarcoplasm 1) infundibulum 2) ampulla
2) Sarcolemma 3) isthmus 4) cervix
3) Sarcosome 165. In
secondary oocyte the completion of second
4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum meiotic division is induced by
161. Match the following columns and choose the 1) LH surge
correct option. 2) entry of sperm
Column - I Column - II 3) fusion of male and female pronuclei

A) Cervical vertebrae i) 1 4) formation of zygote

166. When there is problem in ovulation but can
B) Thoracic vertebrae ii) 12
provide suitable environment for fertilization
C) Lumbar vertebrae iii) 5 and further development, which one of the
D) Sacrum iv) 7 following techniques is suitable?
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv 1) ZIFT 2) GIFT
2) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i 3) ICSI 4) AI
3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv 167. The technique in which the sperm is directly
4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv injected into the ovum is
162. Totalnumber of metacarpals and metatarsals 1) ZIFT 2) GIFT
in human body respectively are 3) ICSI 4) AI
1) 5 and 5 2) 5 and 10 168. Study the following statements and indentify
3) 10 and 10 4) 10 and 20 the incorrect ones.
163. Statement-I: Adenohypophysis consists of i) In vasectomised men there is no
two portions, pars distalis (anterior pituitary) spermatogenesis
and pars intermedia. ii) In tubectomised women there is no
Statement-II: Neurohypophysis synthesize ovulation
and release two hormones called oxytocin and iii) In tubectomised women there is no
vasopressin into blood circulation. menstruation
1) Both Statements I and II are correct iv) Emergency contraceptives can prevent
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is pregnancy if used within 72 hours after
incorrect implantation
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 1) i and ii are incorrect
correct 2) ii and iii are incorrect
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 3) all are incorrect except iv
4) all are incorrect
 24 Test ID : 892 [A]
169. Whichof the following are very effective as 174. Statement-I: First cellular forms of life
emergency contraceptives as they could be appeared on earth at about 2 billion years ago
used to avoid pregnancy due to rape or casual and some of these cells had the ability to
unprotected intercourse? perform photosynthesis.
1) Progestogens Statement-II: When reptiles came down birds
2) Progestogen - estrogen combinations took over this earth.
3) IUDs 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) all of these 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
170. Which of the following can induce mutations? incorrect
1) Chemical and physical factors only 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
2) Chemical factors only correct

3) Physical factors only 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

175. Statement-I: P.vivax is multiplied asexually in
4) Chemical, physical and biological factors
the liver cells and RBCs of infected person.
171. Whichone of the following is controlled by
two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2? Statement-II: Plasmodium produces
sporozoites by sexual multiplication in female
1) Phenylketonuria
Anopheles.
2) β-Thalassemia
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
3) α-Thalassemia
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
4) Sickle- cell anaemia
incorrect
172. Whichcan be easily studied by analysis of
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
karyotypes?
correct
1) Turner’s Syndrome
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
176. Inthese days ____ are being abused by some
3) Down’s Syndrome sports persons.
4) all the above 1) opioids
173. The
change in gene frequency / allele 2) barbiturates
frequency occurs by chance is ___
3) cannabinoids
1) gene flow
4) both 1 and 2
2) genetic drift
177. Withdrawal syndrome is characterized by
3) genetic recombination
1) anxiety
4) natural selection
2) shakiness
3) nausea, sweating
4) all of these
 25 Test ID : 892 [A]
178. Match the following and choose the correct 2) variety of environmental factors
option. 3) availability of nutrients and photosynthetic
Column - I Column - II capacity of plants

i) Copepods on many 4) all of these

A) Brood parasitism 182. Assertion(A): The pyramid of biomass in sea is
marine fish
generally inverted.
ii) More complex life
B) Ectoparasites cycle because of their Reason (R): Biomass of fishes far exceeds
extreme specializations that of phytoplankton.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
iii) Parasitic bird lays its
explanation of A
C) Parasitic plant eggs in the nest of its
host 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
iv) It derives its nutrition
D) Endoparasites 3) A is true but R is false
from its host plant
4) A is false but R is true
1) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
183. Nearly half of the vertebrates are
2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
1) fishes 2) reptiles
3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
3) birds 4) mammals
4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
184. Statement-I: Speciation is generally a function
179. Whatis the integral and general equation of
of time.
exponential growth respectively?
Statement-II: Tropics contribute to lesser
1) Nt = Noert and dN/dt = (b - d) x N
productivity with the availability of more solar
2) Nt = Noert and dN/dt = rN energy, than temperate region.
3) N = Noert and dN/dt = rN 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) both 1 and 2 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
180. The most spectacular and evolutionarily incorrect
fascinating examples of mutualism are found 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
in correct
1) plant - animal relationships 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) fig tree and wasp 185. Existence
of some commercially important
3) Ophrys and a species of bee marine species are in danger due to
4) all of the above 1) habitat loss
181. Inan ecosystem the primary productivity 2) over exploitation
depends on 3) alien species invasions
1) plant species inhabiting in that area 4) co-extinction
 26 Test ID : 892 [A]
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
186. Choosea pair of animals with same kind of iii)The diffusion membrane total thickness is
body plan w.r.t symmetry. much less than a millimetre
1) a) Adult starfish 2) a) Fasciola iv)Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of
b) Snail b) Physalia gases
3) a) Aurelia 4) a) Spongilla 1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only
b) Pleurobrachia b) Hirudinaria 3) i, iii and iv only 4) i, ii, iii and iv
187. Read
the following statements and choose the 190. i) least toxic
correct one w.r.t Cyclostomata. ii) can be removed by minimal loss of water
1) Ectoparasites on some fishes and have iii) requires large amount of water
6 - 15 pairs of gill slits iv) readily soluble in water for its removal
2) Circular and sucking mouth with jaws Select the correct statements in regard to the
3) Cranium and vertebral column are made uric acid excretion by uricotelic animals.
with bone in Myxine (hag fish) 1) i and ii 2) i, ii and iv
4) Petromyzon (lamprey) migrate to marine 3) i, ii and iii 4) i and iii
water for spawning 191. Assertion(A): Neural system and endocrine
188. Assertion(A): Cockroach vision is known as system function in a synchronised fashion.
mosaic vision. Reason (R): Nervous system and endocrine
Reason (R): Several ommatidia of compound system jointly co-ordinate and integrate
eye receive several images of an object. activities of the organs.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false 4) A is false but R is true
189. Read
the following statements and choose the 192. Which of the following conditions can lead to
correct options. tetany?
i) The solubility of CO2 is 20 - 25 times higher 1) Hypoparathyroidism
than that of O2 2) Hyperparathyroidism
ii) Partial pressure of CO2 in tissues is lower 3) Excess aldosterone
than the oxygenated blood 4) Excess thyroxine
 27 Test ID : 892 [A]
193. Match the following column-I with column-II. 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
Column - I Column - II 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
A) Immature male
i) Primary spermatocyte 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
germ cell
correct
B) First meiotic ii) Secondary
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
division spermatocyte
196. Assertion(A): Ready made antibodies are
C) First haploid
iii) Spermatogonium directly given to protect the body against foreign
cell
agents.
iv) Matured male Reason (R): If a person is infected with some
D) Spermatozoa
gametes deadly microbes to which quick immune
1) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii response is required.
2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii explanation of A
4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
194. Select
the correct statements with respect to correct explanation of A
mechanism of sex determination in grasshopper. 3) A is true but R is false
A) It is an example of male heterogamety 4) A is false but R is true
B) Female produces same type of gametes 197. TheAbingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands
C)Total number of autosomes are same in both became extinct within a decade after goats
males and females were introduced on the Island, due to
D) All eggs bear an X chromosome without 1) competition
autosomes 2) resource partitioning
1) B and D only 3) greater browsing efficiency of the goats
2) A, C and D only 4) both 1 and 3
3) A, B and C only 198. Ifmenstrual cycle duration is 38 days, on
4) A and C only which day of menstrual cycle ovulation is
195. Statement-I: Evolution by natural selection expected?
would have started when cellular form of life 1) 19th day 2) 24th day
with differences in metabolic capability 3) 14th day 4) 28th day
originated on earth. 199. Graph that represents the relation between
Statement-II: The rate of appearance of new species richness and area for a wide variety of
forms (rate of evolution) is linked to the life taxa is a
cycle or the life span. 1) sigmoid curve 2) rectangular hyperbola
3) rectangular curve 4) J shaped curve
 28 Test ID : 892 [A]
200. Match the following. 1) A - v, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv, E - i
Column - I Column - II 2) A - iii, B - v, C - iv, D - i, E - iv

A) Comb plates i) Buccal cavity 3) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv

4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i, E – v
ii) Help in
B) Radula
locomotion
C) Operculum iii) Line the canals
iv) Paired in
D) Choanocytes
chordates
E) Gill slits v) Gill cover

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