COM and NAV AIDS questions

1-About definitions.

2- Mobile radio navigation service between:

a- Specific fixed points.

b- Aeronautical stations and aircraft stations.

c- None of the above.

3- Stations on the international telecommunications service shall extend their service hours for:

a- 10 hours a day.

b- From sunrise to sunset.

c- As required.

4- Broadcasting telecommunications service shall:

a- Notify its intention before closing down.

b- Notify its Operational hours.

c- Notify its intention before closing down and its reopening time if other than normal time.

5- Acceptance of a message shall rest with:

a- The station where the message is filed for transmission.

b- Who filed for transmission.

c- The sender station.

6- The ATS message shall be transmitted when it is:

a- Ready.

b- There is a possibility.

c- Deemed accepted.

7-The telecommunication log shall be:

a- Verified in each station.

b- Maintained in each station.

c- Rechecked now and then.

8-Any superfluous mark or notation in the record of communication shall:

a- Be made in the log.

b- Not be made in the log.

c- None of the above.

9-Telecommunication logs shall be retained for a period of:

a- At least 30 days.

b- At least 40 days.

c- At least 50 days.

10-Telecommunication logs regarding investigation shall be retained for a period until:

a- 6 months.

b- One year.

c- They will be no longer required.

11-Universal coordinated time means:

a- UCT.

b- UTC.

c- UKT.

12-A date time shall consist of:

a- Four figures.

b- Six figures.

c- Eight figures.

13-Regarding ATS messages (( 8 messages )).

Distress messages SS

Urgency messages DD

Flight safety messages FF

Meteorological messages GG

Flight regularity messages GG

AIS messages GG

Aeronautical administrative KK
Service messages (as appropriate)

14-Radio electromagnetic energy speed is:

a- Sound speed.

b- Light speed.

c- None of the above.

14-Light speed is:

a- 300 000 000 m/s.

b- 300 000 km/s.

c- All of the above.

15-The number of cycles produced per second is called:

a- Waves.

b- Frequency.

c- Wave length.

16-The complete wave is:

a- Cycle.

b- Wave length.

c- Frequency.

17-Speed of wave per second equal:

a- Frequency * cycle.

b- Frequency per minute

c- Frequency * wavelength.

18 - Cycle per second is a:

a- hertz.

b- KHZ.

c- MHZ.

19- Wave length is:

a- peak to peak.
b- peak to trough.

c-none of the above.

20- What is the meaning of the following?

VLF= – LF= – MF= – HF= –

VHF= – UHF= – SHF= – EHF= .

21- LF - MF and HF band can be:

a- reflected from ionized layers.

b- called sky waves.

c- both of the above.

22- VHF , UHF and SHF:

a- transmission is limited to line of sight.

b- interferes with radio energy.

c- range varies according to level and distance from the station.

d- All of the above.

23- The skip distance is:

a- the distance between point of TX and RX.

b- the distance between point of refraction and RX point.

c- All of the above.

24- Skip distance depends on many factories:

a- frequency and Ionosphere conditions.

b- angle of radiation.

c- all of the above.

25- You may decrease a skip zone by:

a- decreasing the frequency.

b- increasing the frequency.

c-using deferent frequency.

 COM and NAV AIDS questions

1-About definitions.

2- Mobile radio navigation service between:

a- Specific fixed points.

b- Aeronautical stations and aircraft stations.

c- None of the above.

3- Stations on the international telecommunications service shall extend their service hours for:

a- 10 hours a day.

b- From sunrise to sunset.

c- As required.

4- Broadcasting telecommunications service shall:

a- Notify its intention before closing down.

b- Notify its Operational hours.

c- Notify its intention before closing down and its reopening time if other than normal time.

5- Acceptance of a message shall rest with:

a- The station where the message is filed for transmission.

b- Who filed for transmission.

c- The sender station.

6- The ATS message shall be transmitted when it is:

a- Ready.

b- There is a possibility.
26- A transmitter is an electronic device to:

a- produce radio waves.

b- receive radio waves.

c- none of the above.

27- A receiver is a device to:

a- produce signals.

b- receive signals.

c- all of the above.

28- The ATS messages format consist of:

a- heading and address.

b- origin and ending.

c- all of the above.

29- ATM responded to the pressure of globalization and competition by:

a- increasing the importance of aeronautical information.

b- increasing the use of technology.

c- none of the above.

30- AIS supports flight operators by:

a- AIP and NOTAM.

b- PIB .

c- all of the above.

31- The future of AIS needs to consider:

a- timeliness , accuracy and quality.

b- computerized dispatch system and auto ATM.

c- information and customization.

d- all of the above.

32- The role of AIM is:

a- providing accredited , timely information.

b- providing quality and assured information.

c- All of the above.

33- ATS messages via AFTN shall contain:

a- priority indicator.

b- address.

c- both of the above.

d- none of the above.

34- What do these designators relevant to:

a- ZQZ. IFR Flight

b- ZFZ. VFR Flight

c- ZTZ. A/D Control Tower

d- ZPZ. Reporting Office

35- SITA means:

a- social information technology administration.

b- air transport communications and information technology.

c- none of the above.

36- Many air service providers started joining SITA as members in:

a- 1998.

b- 1989.

c- 1889.

37- SITA provides communication service in more than:

a- 200 countries and 32000 customers.

b- 200 countries and 3200 customers.

c- 2000 countries and 32000 customers.

38- SITA,s aircraft communication service carryout:

a- 100 million messages/day and 4,6 million FPL /year.

b- 10 million messages/day and 4,8 million FPL /year.

c- 200 million messages/day and 4,6 million FPL /year.

39-Types of radios are:

a- simplex operations.

b- multiplex operations.

c- all of the above.

40- In the multiplex system the TX and RX frequencies are:

a- the same.

b- deferent.

c- separate.

41: The radio microphone performs:

a- two important functions.

b- three important functions.

c- four important functions.

42- When the microphone is depressed:

a- the voice decoded as electrical waves.

b- the voice encoded as electrical waves.

c- all of the above.

43- Aviation radio communications include VHF rang between:

a- 118,00 KHZ and 135,975 MHZ.

b- 118,00 MHZ and 135,975 MHZ.

c- 118,00 KHZ and 135,975 KHZ.

44- Aviation radio communications could be:

a- 360 radio channels.

b- 720 radio channels.

c- both are correct.

45- Radio telephony requires:

a- standard procedures and phraseology.

b- English language texts.

c- both of the above.

46- Some of transmission techniques are:

a- familiarity with operation technique.

b- listen out before transmission.

c- speak clearly and distinctive.

d- avoid using hesitation sounds.

e- all of the above.

47- Rate of speaking when transmitting is:

a- 100 words /min.

b- sometimes even less.

c- both are correct.

48- A period of time should elapse to make the second call:

a- 5 seconds.

b- 7 seconds.

c- 10 seconds.

49- ICAO adapted alphabet and numbers to:

a- expedite communication.

b- avoid any miss understand.

c- all of the above.

50- When transmission of time:

a- normally only minutes transmitted.

b- hours should be included to avoid confusion.

c- both are correct.

51- radio test procedure includes:

a- identification of the station being calling.

b- aircraft call sign and the word ( radio check ).

c- all of the above.

52- Readability check scale is:

a- unreadable and readable now and then.

b- readable with difficulty and readable.

c- perfectly readable.

d- all of the above.

53- When using light signals in RCF situations:

a- steady green in flight means cleared to land.

b- ,, ,, on ground means cleared for take-off.

c- flashing red in flight means airport un safe do not land.

d- flashing white on ground means return to start point.

e- steady red on ground means stop.

f- all of the above.

Q54- Concerning radio phraseology page 32.

Q55- Call sign of flight consists of:

a- 5 up to 7 figures.

b- 4 up to 6 figures. c- 4 up to 7 figures.

Q56- Flight call sign is made up of:

a- Company name and flight number.

b- Aircraft registration mark.

c- All of the above.

Q57- Concerning abbreviations page 34.

Q58- In case of emergency the aircraft :

a- may land without authorization.

b- requires authorization to land.

c- None of the above.

Q59- An aircraft in an emergency has priority than:

a- hospital aircraft .

b- passenger aircraft carrying sick person.

c- All of the above.

Q60- An aircraft that encountered an emergency shall be handled according to:

a- ICAO emergency procedures.

b- local emergency procedures.

c- None of the above.

Q61- Distress phase means:

a- an aircraft is in an emergency.

b- an aircraft is in an emergency and requires immediate assist.

c- All of the above.

Q62- Urgency phase means:

a- an aircraft is in an emergency.

b- an aircraft is in an emergency and does not require immediate assist.

c- All of the above.

Q63- In a distress message the pilot says:

a- MAY DAY preferably three times.

b- PAN PAN preferably three times.

c- one of the above.

Q64- In an urgency message the pilot says:

a- MAY DAY preferably three times.

b- PAN PAN preferably three times.

c- one of the above.

Q65- Pilots making distress or urgency calls should attempt to:

a- speak quickly before it becomes RCF.

b- speak slowly and clearly to avoid any repetition.

c- All of the above.

Q66- Distress and urgency calls :

a- should be made on the frequency in use.

b- should be made on the frequency in use unless better assistance on other FREQ.

c- All of the above.

Q67- The international emergency frequency is:

a- 125,1 MHZ.

b- 121,5 MHZ.

c- 121,5 KHZ.

Q68- Distress message contains:

a- aircraft identification and nature of the distress.

b- position and level of the aircraft.

c- All of the above.

Q69- In a distress case the tower response MAY DAY should be:

a- 2 times.

b- 3 times.

c- None of the above.

Q70-In case of distress the air controller:

a- may impose silence.

b- shall impose silence.

c- can not impose silence.

Q71- Transmission of a message cancelling the distress condition:

a- shall be.

b- should be.

c- may be.

Q72- RCF means:

a- rescue control frequency.

b- radio communication failure.

c- rectification control facility.

Q73- The message preceded by transmitting ( transmitting blind ) shall be made:

a- once.

b- twice.

c- three times.

Q74- If aeronautical station is unable to contact aircraft it shall:

a- request other aeronautical station to contact the aircraft.

b- request other aircraft on the route to contact the aircraft.

c- transmit message on the frequency that the aircraft believed on.

Q75- Emergency radar codes are:

a- unlawful interference code is A7500.

b- RCF code is A7600.

c- emergency code is A7700.

d- All of the above.

Q76- ELT means:

a- elapsed time.

b- estimated landing time.

c- emergency locator transmitter.

Q77- The ELT audio tone operates on:

a- 121,5 MHZ (UHF) and 406 KHZ (UHF).

b- 121,5 MHZ (VHF) and 406 KHZ (UHF).

c- 121,5 MHZ (VHF) and 406 MHZ (UHF).

Q78- ELT operates continuously for at least:

a- 24 hours.

b- 48 hours.

c- 72 hours.

Q79- ELT must be maintained according to:

a- ICAO instructions.

b- manufacture instructions.

c- CAA instructions.

Q80- ELT test can be done in the aircraft only:

a- the first 7 minutes after the hour.

b- the first 5 minutes after the hour.

c- the first 3 minutes after the hour.

Q81- ELT testing is not allowed:

a- in flight.

b- on ground.

c- during airborne.

Q83- VOR means:

a- VOLMET and radio communication.

b- very high frequency Omni-directional range.

c- None of the above.

Q84- VOR may be installed in combination with:

a- TACAN.

b- DME.

c-All of the above.

d- None of the above.

Q85- VOR radials give:

a- aircraft position relative to VOR.

b- the heading relative to the aircraft.

c- None of the above.

Q86- Zero radial in the VOR points to:

a- aircraft path measured to the nearest VOR.

b- magnetic north.
c- All of the above.

Q87- VOR,s classified according to:

a- terrain of the VOR ground installation.

b- usable cylindrical.

c- intended operational use.

Q88- The classes of the VOR are:

a- main VOR , low VOR , high VOR.

b- terminal VOR , low VOR , high VOR.

c- VOR & DME , VORTAC , D.VOR.

Q89- Terminal VOR normally used for:

a- APP navigational aids at aerodromes.

b- en-route structure.

c- All of the above.

Q90- T.VOR operation is limited to:

a- 25 NM and below 10000ft MSL.

b- 30 NM and below 12000ft MSL.

c- 25 NM and below 12000ft MSL.

Q91- L VOR may be used at:

a- 30 NM and 16000ft.

b- 40 NM and 18000ft.

c- 40 NM and 20000

Q92- H VOR is protected to:

a- 40 NM below 18000ft.

b- 130 NM above 18000ft.

c- All of the above.

Q93- VOR,S frequencies are:

a- 108 - 118 MHZ and 60 KHZ spacing.

b-108 - 118 MHZ and 50 KHZ spacing.

c-110 - 118 MHZ and 60 KHZ spacing.

Q94- OBS means:

a- Omni bearing space.

b- Omni bearing selector.

c- None of the above.

Q95- The To / from indicator shows that the course is:

a- To or from the airport.

b- To or from the runway.

c- To or from the station.

Q96- The off or red NAV flag shows that:

a- the aircraft is out of the station range.

b-the aircraft is directly over or abeam the station.

c- All of the above.

d- None of the above.

Q97- CDI means:

a- climb and descent indicator.

b- course direction indicator.

c- None of the above.

Q98- When the CDI is fully deflected to one side of VOR indicator so:

a- the aircraft is on the selected course.

b-the aircraft is 10 degrees or more away from the selected course.

c- the aircraft is on the reciprocal course.

Q99- DME operates on the:

a- VHF band.

b- UHF band.

c- SHF band.
Q100- DME operates on frequencies between:

a- 960 MHZ and 1213 MHZ.

b- 962 KHZ and 1213 KHZ.

c-962 MHZ and 1213 MHZ.

Q102-NMI means and equal:

a- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately 7000ft.

b- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately 6000ft.

c- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately

Q103- DME should stop decreasing at about 2 NM when directly over a station located at:

a- International aerodrome.

b- sea level.

c- the desert.

Q104- ADF means:

a- advanced direction finder.

b- automatic direction finder.

c- apron direction finder.

Q105- ADF receives signals between:

a- 190 KHZ to 1790 KHZ.

b- on LF and MF frequencies.

c- All of the above.

Q106- ILS enables pilots to conduct instrument approach to landing if:

a- the weather is VMC.

b- they are unable to see the runway.

c- the runway length is less than 3000m.

Q107- Instrument approach procedure includes:

a- radio frequencies used by the ILS.

b- the minimum visibility required.

c- All of the above.

Q108- The ILS consists of:

a- localizer and glide slope.

b- VOR and DME.

c- ADF and NDB.

Q109- The ILS glide slope ensures the aircraft to:

a- be on the glide path of 3 degrees above the horizontal.

b- be above obstructions.

c- reach the runway at the proper touchdown point.

d- All of the above.

e- None of the above.

Q110- Pilots using ILS back course shall:

a- follow glide slope indicator.

b- disregard glide slope indicator.

c- follow both glide slope and localizer indicators.

Q111- Hearing the tone of the marker beacon means that the aircraft is:

a- at a distance from the runway.

b- on a height on the glide path.

c- on a distance and height where it should be.

Q112- The decision altitude/height position where is the pilot must:

a- have visual reference to the runway.

b- decide to continue for landing or to go around.

c- execute a missed approach procedure.

e- All of the above.

Q113- ILS categories are:

a- one category.

b- two categories.
c- three categories.

Q114- VOLMET means:

a- French word means volume and METAR.

b- French word means flight and weather report.

c- None of the above.

Q115- VOLMET is:

a- worldwide network of radio stations.

b- station for North Atlantic traffic.

c-None of the above.

Q116- The VOLMET stations help pilots to:

a- avoid storms and turbulence on their routes.

b- determine which procedure to use for approach and landing.

c- All of the above.

Q117- VOLMET network operationally:

a- made the world one region.

b- divided the world into specific regions.

c- divided the world according to the countries number.

Q118- The VOLMET transmission schedules determined in intervals of:

a- 3 minutes.

b- 5 minutes.

c- 2 minutes.

Q119- ATIS means:

a- Automatic tactical information service.

b- Automatic telecommunication service.

c- Automatic terminal information service.

Q120- ATIS could be provide via:

a- DATA link.
b- voice broadcast.

c- Both of the above.

Q121- ATIS :

a- may be provided on the VOR frequency.

b- may be made for ARR and DEP traffic.

c- should be at control tower or at APP control unit.

d- All of the above.