chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
451. Nitrogen can be obtained from air by removing
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Both (a) and (c)
452. Which of the following carbide is a methanide?
(a) Be2C (b) CaC2 (c) Al2C6 (d) Mg2C3
453. Caro's acid is
(a) H 2 SO 3 (b) H 3 S 2 O5 (c) H 2 SO 5 (d) H 2 S 2 O8
454. Inorganic benzene is
(a) B3 H 3 N 3 (b) BH 3 NH 3 (c) B3 H 6 N 3 (d) H 3 B3 N 6
455. For the reaction, P(White) ¾® P(Red) ; DH = -18.4 kJ. It follows that
(a) Red P is readily formed from white P
(b) White P is readily formed from red P
(c) White P can not be converted to red P
(d) White P can be converted into red P and red P is more stable
456. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating
(a) KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2 (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3
457. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene because:
(a) Borazole is a non-polar compound
(b) Borazole is a polar compound
(c) Borazole is an electron deficient compound
(d) Of localized electrons in it
458. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600 o C, the product formed is
(a) Phosphine, PH 3 (b) Phosphorus pentoxide, P2 O 5
(c) Phosphorus acid, H 3 PO 3 (d) Metaphosphoric acid, HPO 3
459. P4 + 3 NaOH + 3 H 2 O ® A + 3 NaH 2 PO 2 here, 'A' is
(a) NH 3 (b) PH 3 (c) H 3 PO4 (d) H 3 PO3
460. SO3 in the solid phase exists as
(a) linear chain or cyclic trimer (b) planar triangular unit
(c) square planar unit (d) none of these
461. Sulphur does not exist as S2 molecule because
(a) It is less electronegative (b) Does not form pp-pp bond
(c) It has ability to exhibiting catenation (d) Has tendency to show variable oxidation
state
462. Which of the following has S-S BOND?
(a) H2S2O6 (b) H2S2O7 (c) H2S2O8 (d) Mustard gas
463. Which of the following is correct order of stability order?
(a) Pb2+>Pb4+ (b) Pb4+>Pb2+ (c) Si2+>Si4+ (d) Sn4+>Sn2+
464. Quartz is a crystalline variety of
(a) Si (b) SiO2 (c) Na2SiO3 (d) SiC

465. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid in the reaction

NaOH + H3PO4 ¾ ¾® NaH2PO4 + H2O
(a) 25 (b) 49 (c) 59 (d) 98

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

466. PCl3 and PCl5 both exist but only PH3 exists while PH5 does not exist. This is because
(a) H is less electronegative than P
(b) the activation energy for the formation of PH5 is very high
(c) PH5 immediately decomposes to PH3 and H2 because its equilibrium constant for the
decomposition is very high
(d) Cl is more electronegative than P while it is not so for H and P
467. The standard heat of formation values of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are: -1100, 275 and 80 kJ mol-
1
respectively. Then the average S - F bond energy in SF6
(a) 301 kJ mol-1 (b) 320 kJ mol-1 (c) 309 kJ mol-1 (d) 280 kJ mol-1
468. The complex ion, [FeII (O 2 )(CN) 4 Cl]4 - is named as
(a) Chlorotetracyanodioxoferrate(II) ion (b) Chlorotetracyanoperoxoferrate(II) ion
(c) Chlorotetracyanosuperoxoferrate(II) ion (d) none is correct
469. Basicity of Pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O7) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
470. Ge(II) compounds are powerful reducing agents, whereas Pb(IV) compounds are strong
oxidants. It can be due to
(a) lead is more electropositive than germanium.
(b) the ionization potential of lead is less than that of germanium.
(c) the ionic radii of Pb2+ and Pb4+ are larger than those of Ge2+ and Ge4+.
(d) in lead the inert pair effect in more pronounced than in germanium.
471. Unlike other halogens, fluorines does not show higher oxidation states because
(a) it is highly electronegative (b) it has no d-orbitals
(c) its atomic radius is very small (d) the F- ion is stable and isoelectronic with
neon
472. NO2 can not be prepared by heating
(a) KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2 (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3
473. The ONO angle is maximum in
(a) NO 3- (b) NO 2- (c) NO 2 (d) NO 2+
474. When ammonia is passed over heated CuO , it is oxidised to
(a) N 2 (b) NO 2 (c) N 2 O (d) HNO 2
475. Which one is true about nascent hydrogen?
(a) more reactive than molecular hydrogen
(b) can be produced in situ
(c) shows similarity exactly with hydrogen in reduction reactions
(d) (a) and (b) both
476. The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to
obtained (Y). Excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of (Y), (Z) is formed. (Z) on
gentle heating gives back (X). The compound (X) is:
(a) CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3 (c) CaSO4.2H2O (d) K2CO3
477. When CO 2 is bubbled through a solution of barium peroxide in water
(a) O2 is released (b) Carbonic acid is formed
(c) H 2 O2 is formed (d) No reaction occurs

478. Which of the following will not undergo hydrolysis in water

(a) Ammonium sulphate (b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Calcium sulphate (d) All the salts will hydrolyse
479. The number of hydroxide ions produced by one molecule of sodium carbonate ( Na 2 CO 3 ) on
hydrolysis is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

480. Lead is soluble in

(a) CH 3 COOH (b) H 2 SO 4 (c) HCl (d) HNO 3
481. When sodium metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a blue solution is formed. The blue colour
is due to
(a) Solvated Na+ ions (b) Solvated electrons
(c) Solvated NH -2 ions (d) Solvated protons
482. Consider the cations; Li , Be , Mg , K and Al3+. The largest and the smallest ions from this
+ 2+ 2+ +

list are respectively

(a) K+ and Li+ (b) Al3+ and Be2+ (c) Mg2+ and Li+ (d) K+ and Be2+
483. Halides of alkaline earth metals form hydrates such as MgCl2.6H2O, CaCl2.6H2O, BaCl2.2H2O.
This shows that halides of group 2 elements
(a) are hygroscopic in nature. (b) act as dehydrating agents
(c) can absorb moisture from air (d) all of the above
484. The difference of water molecules in gypsum and plaster of paris is
5 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 1 1
2 2 2
485. Which of the following compounds transform baking soda into baking powder
(a) KCl (b) KHCO 3 (c) NaHCO 3 (d) KHC 4 H 4 O 6
486. The hydroxides which sublime on heating are
(a) LiOH (b) KOH (c) RbOH (d) Mg(OH )2
487. Electrolysis of KCl .MgCl 2 .6 H 2 O gives
(a) Mg Only (b) Potassium only (c) Mg and Cl 2 (d) P and Mg

488. When zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate) is treated with hard water, the sodium ions
are exchanged with
(a) H+ ions (b) Ca2+ ions (c) Mg2+ ions (d) Ca2+ and Mg2+
ions
489. Al 2 O 3 formation involves evolution of a large quantity of heat, which makes its use in

(a) Deoxidiser (b) Indoor photography

(c) Confectionary (d) Thermite welding
490. The density of Neon will be highest at
(a) STP (b) 0 o C, 2 atmosphere
(c) 273 o C,1 atmosphere (d) 273 o C, 2 atmosphere
491. When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight the colour change that occurs is
(a) Colourless to brown (b) Brown to colourless
(c) Light blue to colourless (d) Colourless to greenish yellow
492. N2 forms NCl 3 , whereas P can form both PCl5 and PCl5 . Why
(a) P has low lying 3d orbitals, which can be used for bonding but N 2 does not have low lying
3d orbital
(b) N 2 atom is larger than P in size
(c) P is more reactive towards Cl than N 2
(d) None of these
493. P4O10 has short and long P-O bonds. The number of short P-O bonds present in P4O10 are

3
 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

494. In the nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hybrides (MH3) gradually becomes closer
to 90° on going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually
(a) the basic strength of hydrides increases.
(b) almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding.
(c) the bond energies of M-H bond increases.
(d) the bond pair of electrons become nearer to the central atom.
495. When a gas (a) is passed through dry KOH at low temperature, a deep red coloured compound,
(b) and O2 are obtained. The gas (a), on reaction with but–2–ene followed by treatment with
Zn/H2O yields acetaldehyde. The compound (b) is
(a) KO3 (b) O3 (c) K2CO3 (d) K2SO4
496. Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) decomposes above ~ 800 o C to give
(a) N 2 (b) O 2 (c) NO 2 (d) Na 2 O
497. Sodium bismuthate is
(a) a powerful reducing agent.
(b) used in the electrolysis of Mn 2 + ions.
(c) a non-stoichiometric compound.
(d) obtained by treating Bi2O3 with conc. NaOH.
498. The correct structural representation of diborane is
H H
H H H
+
(a) [BH2] [BH4] -
(b) H• B - B• H (c) B B (d)
H H H H H
H H
H2 B=B
H H
499. Sodium nitrate decomposes above ~800°C to give
(a) N2 (b) NO2 (c) NO2 (d) Na2O
500. Which of the following statement is not correct with reference to the ferrous and ferric ions?
(a) Fe3+ ions gives brown colour with potassium ferricyanide.
(b) Fe2+ ions gives dark blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide.
(c) Fe3+ ions gives deep red colour with potassium thiocyanate.
(c) Fe2+ ions gives brown colour with ammonium thiocyanate.
501. Which of the following species contains only three electrons in valence shell?
Li, B, N, F, Al
(a) Li, B (b) B, N (c) B, Al (d) N
502. Which of the following oxide is most acidic?
(a) SiO2 (b) Cl2O7 (c) SO3 (d) P2O5
503. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is
(a) K > Na > Li (b) Be > Mg > Ca (c) B > C > N (d) Ge > Si > C
-1
504. Five ionization energy values in kJ mol are listed below:
834, 869, 1008, 1170, 376
(a) Successive ionization energies for the element with atomic number 5.
(b) The first ionization energies for successive elements in groups 5, 6, 7, 0 and 1.
(c) The first ionization energies for elements with atomic number 1-5.
(d) Successive ionization energies for transition element with 4 electrons in the d-subshell.
505. The precipitate obtained in the IV group is dissolved in aqua regia, treated with an
excess of KHCO3 and then bromine water is added. The solution develops an apple green colour
unchanged on heating. The colour is of
(a) potassium cobaltocarbonate (b) potassium cobalticarbonate
(c) potassium cobaltibromide (d) potassium cobaltobromide

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

506. (I.E)1 and (I.E)2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal/mole. The energy required for the reaction,
Mg ¾® Mg2+ + 2e-
would be
(a) +170 kcal (b) +526 kcal (c) -170 kcal (d) -526 kcal
507. Which of the following element has the highest second ionisation potential?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Fluorine
508. The process requiring the absorption of energy is
(a) F ® F- (b) Cl ® Cl- (c) O ® O2- (d) H ® H-
509. The correct order of acidic strength of the following is
(a) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10 (b) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(c) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 (d) K2O > CaO > MgO
510. Which is not true about fluorine and chlorine?
(a) Electronegativity of fluorine is more than chlorine.
(b) Ionization potential of fluorine is more than chlorine.
(c) Atomic radii of fluorine is less than chlorine.
(d) Electron affinity of fluorine is more than chlorine
511. If the difference in electronegativities of two elements is very large, then
(a) The bond is 50% ionic (b) The bond is 100% covalent
(c) The bond is more covalent than ionic (d) The bond is more ionic than covalent
512. Which of the following elements will have the lowest electron affinity
(a) Nitrogen (b) Flourine (c) Chlorine (d) Phosphorus
513. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(a) C > N > O > F (b) O > N > F > C (c) O > F > N > C (d) F > O > N > C
514. Which of the following element shows unchangeable valency?
(a) Cu (b) Na (c) Fe (d) Pb

515. Which of the following elements are analogous to the lanthanides

(a) Actinides (b) Borides (c) Carbides (d) Hydrides
516. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number of the elements. The experiment which
proved the significance of the atomic number was
(a) Millikan's oil drop experiment (b) Moseley's work on X -ray spectra
(c) Bragg's work on X -ray diffraction (d) Discovery of X -rays by Rontgen
517. For a p - block element, its 3d, 3s, 3p and 4s orbitals are completely filled and the differentiating
electron goes to the 4p orbital. The element should have its atomic number in the range
(a) 13 - 18 (b) 21 - 26 (c) 31 - 36 (d) 49 - 54
-1
518. Five ionization energy values in kJ mol are listed below:
834, 869, 1008, 1170, 376
(a) Successive ionization energies for the element with atomic number 5.
(b) The first ionization energies for successive elements in groups 5, 6, 7, 0 and 1.
(c) The first ionization energies for elements with atomic number 1-5.
(d) Successive ionization energies for transition element with 4 electrons in the d-subshell.
519. Which is the correct statement of the following?
(a) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å, while that of Cl+ ion is 1.54 Å.
(b) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å, while that of Na atom is 1.54 Å.
(c) The radius of Cl atom is 0.95 Å while that of Cl- ion is 0.811 Å.
(d) Radius of Na atom is 0.95 Å while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å.
520. In the transition of Cu to Cu2+, there is a decrease in
(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic mass

5
 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

(c) Equivalent weight (d) Number of valency electrons.

521. The most basic oxide among MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2 and Mn2O7 is
(a) MnO (b) MnO2 (c) Mn2O3 (d) Mn2O7
522. Metallic oxides are
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) None of these
523. Which set has all the coloured ions?
(a) Cu+, Cu2+, Ni2+ (b) Cu2+, Fe2+, Co2+ (c) Cu2+, Co2+, Se3+ (d) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+
524. Diagonal relationship is for
(a) Li - Na (b) Be - Al (c) K - Mg (d) Cs - Rb
525. Which of the following cations has maximum polarizing power?
(a) Li+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Al3+ (d) O2-
526. The element with the highest value of ionization potential is
(a) potassium (b) helium (c) hydrogen (d) xenon
527. Consider the cations; Li+, Be2+, Mg2+, K+ and Al3+. The largest and the smallest ions from this
list are respectively
(a) K+ and Li+ (b) Al3+ and Be2+ (c) Mg2+ and Li+ (d) K+ and Be2+
528. Match the following column (a) and (b).
(a) (b)
1. KO2 (I) Diamagnetic
2. Na2O2 (II) Conduction of Electricity
3. Na/NH3 (III) Paramagnetic
(a) 1–(I), 2–(II), 3–(III) (b) 1–(III), 2–(I), 3–(II)
(c) 1–(II), 2–(I), 3–(III) (d) 1–(III), 2–(II), 3–(I)

529. When copper(II) sulphate solution is added to an excess of sodium carbonate, we get a green
precipitate of
(a) Cu2CO3 (b) CuCO3
(c) [Cu(OH)(H2O)5]2CO3 (d) CuCO3.5H2O
3-
530. While testing BO3 , there is green-edged flame on heating the salt with conc. H2SO4 and
CH3OH. Green colour is of
(a) (CH3)3B (b) (CH3O)3B (c) B2O3 (d) H3BO3
531. Some of the polar crystal when heated produce electric current. This phenomena is termed as
(a) Ferroelectric effect (b) Phyroelectric effect
(c) Antiferroelectric effect (d) Piezoelectric effect
532. Which of the following pairs has elements containing same number of electrons in the
outermost orbit
(a) N - O (b) Na - Cl (c) Ca - Cl (d) Cl - Br
533. Coinage metals are present in
(a) s-block (b) d-block (c) p-block (d) f-block
534. In which of the following metal carbonate which metal carbonate is decomposed on heating
(a) MgCO 3 (b) Na 2 CO 3 (c) K 2 CO 3 (d) Pb 2 CO 3
535. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of boiling point
(a) H 2 O > H 2 S > H 2 Se > H 2 Te (b) H 2 Te > H 2 Se > H 2 S > H 2 O
(c) H 2 O > H 2 Te > H 2 Se > H 2 S (d) H 2 Te > H 2 O > H 2 Se > H 2 O
536. The metallurgical process in which metal is obtained in a fused state is called:
(a) smelting (b) roasting (c) calcination (d) froth floatation
537. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called
(a) roasting (b) smelting (c) dressing (d) calcination
538. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts is
(a) Ag (b) Mg (c) Cu (d) Cr

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

539. To an acidified dichromate solution, a pinch of Na2O2 is added and shaken. What is observed?
(a) Blue colour (b) Red colour changing to green
(c) Copious evolution of oxygen (d) Bluish-green precipitate
540. The compound does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is
(a) Aniline (b) Glycine (c) Hydrazine (d) Urea
541. The equivalent weight of MnSO 4 is half of its molecular weight when it is converted to
(a) Mn 2 O 3 (b) MnO 2 (c) MnO 4- (d) MnO 42 -
542. When an acidified solution of ferrous ammonium sulphate it treated with potassium
permanganate solution, the ion which is oxidised is
(a) MnO 4 (b) NH 4+ (c) Fe + + (d) SO 42 -
543. Hydroxide soluble in ammonia is
(a) Al(OH )3 (b) Fe(OH )3 (c) Cr (OH )3 (d) Cu (OH ) 2
544. One mole of potassium dichromate completely oxidises the following number of moles of
ferrous sulphate in acidic medium
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
545. Oxidation number of Mn in K 2 MnO 4 and in KMnO 4 are respectively
(a) + 6 and + 7 (b) + 6 and + 6 (c) + 7 and + 7 (d) + 7 and + 6
546. Four colourless salt solutions are placed in separate test tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in
each. Which solution finally turns blue?
(a) Pb(NO3)2 (b) AgNO3 (c) Zn(NO3)2 (d) Cd(NO3)2
547. Which set has all the coloured ions?
(a) Cu+, Cu2+, Ni2+ (b) Cu2+, Fe2+, Co2+ (c) Cu2+, Co2+, Se3+ (d) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+
548. The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to
obtained (Y). Excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of (Y), (Z) is formed. (Z) on
gentle heating gives back (X). The compound (X) is:
(a) CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3 (c) CaSO4.2H2O (d) K2CO3
549. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B atoms where A atoms are at the corner of the
unit cell and B atoms at the face centers. One of the A atom is missing from one corner in the
unit cell. Simplest formula of the compound would be
(a) A7B3 (b) AB3 (c) A7B24 (d) A7/8B2
550. Au is insoluble in nitric acid but dissolves in aqua regia. The enhanced solubility of Au arises
from
(a) oxidizing strength of HNO3 (b) oxidizing strength of NO3
+
(c) oxidizing strength of H (d) ability of Cl to form complexes
551. In order to refine blister copper it is melted in a furnace and is stirred with green logs of
wood. The purpose is
(a) to expel the dissolved gases in blister copper
(b) to bring the impurities to surface and oxidise them
(c) to increase carbon content of copper
(d) to reduce the metallic oxide impurities with hydrocarbon gases liberated from the wood
552. Philosopher’s wool when heated with BaO at 1100oC gives a compound. Identify the
compound
(a) BaZnO2 (b) Ba + ZnO2 (c) BaCdO2 (d) BaO2 + Zn
553. Which one of the following elements constituents a major impurity in pig iron?
(a) Silicon (b) Oxygen (c) Sulphur (d) Graphite
554. Cassiterite is an ore of
(a) Mn (b) Ni (c) Sb (d) Sn
555. Lead sulphate is soluble in
(a) conc. nitric acid (b) conc. hydrochloric acid
(c) solution of ammonium acetate (d) water
556. In the extraction of copper, the reaction which takes place in Bessemer converter is

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

(a) 2CuFeS2 + O2 —® Cu2S + FeS + SO2 (b) 2Cu2O + Cu2S —® 6Cu + SO2
(c) 2Cu2S + 3O2 —® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 (d) 2FeS + 3O2 —® 2FeO + 2SO2
557. Which of the following metals will not react with solution of CuSO 4
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Mg (d) Ag
558. Which metal among following has strongest tendency to undergo oxidation
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Al
559. Which of the following is expected to form colourless complex
(a) Ni 2 + (b) Cu + (c) Ti 3 + (d) Fe 3 +
560. The correct order of ionic radii of Y 3- , La 3+ , Eu 3+ and Lu 3 + is
(a) La 3 + < Eu 3 + < Lu 3 + < Y 3 + (b) Y 3 - < La 3 + < Eu 3 + < Lu 3 +
(c) Lu 3 + < Y 3 + < Eu 3 + < La 3 + (d) Lu 3 + < Eu 3 + < La 3 + < Y 3 +
(Atomic No. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)

561. An, example for a double salt is

(a) Potassium ferricyanide (b) Cobalt hexamine chloride
(c) Cuprous sulphate (d) Mohr’s salt
562. How many isomers are possible in [Co (en )2 Cl 2 ]
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 1
563. p-bonding is not present in
(a) Grignard reagent (b) Dibenzene chromium
(c) Zeise’s salt (d) Ferrocene
564. Which one of the following complexes is paramagnetic
(a) [Co (F)6 ]3 + (b) [Co (H 2O)6 ]3 + (c) [CoF3 (H 2 O)3 ] (d) All of these
565. Which of the following is non-ionizable
(a) [Co ( NH 3 )3 Cl3 ] (b) [Co ( NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl (c) [Co ( NH 3 )5 Cl ]Cl 2 (d) [Co ( NH 3 )6 ]Cl 2
3-
566. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6] is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 2
567. Identify the complexes, which is expected to be coloured?
(a) [Ti(NO3)4] (b) [Cu(NCCH3)4]+ BF4-
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2- (d) K3[VF6]
568. Mixture of (X) = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was
prepared in 2 litre of solution
1 litre of mixture [X] + excess AgNO3 ¾® [Y]
1 litre of mixture [X] + excess BaCl2 ¾® [Z]
Number of moles of [Y] and [Z] are
(a) 0.01, 0.01 (b) 0.02, 0.01 (c) 0.01, 0.02 (d) 0.02, 0.02
2- 2-
569. Among Ni(CO)4, Ni(CN ) 4 and NiCl 4 :
(a) Ni(CO)4 and NiCl 24- are diamagnetic and Ni(CN ) 24- is paramagnetic
(b) NiCl 24- and Ni(CN ) 24- are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic.
(c) Ni(CO)4 and Ni(CN ) 24- are diamagnetic and NiCl 24- is paramagnetic

(d) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic, NiCl 24- and Ni(CN ) 24- are paramagnetic
570. Among Ni(CO)4, Ni(CN ) 24- and NiCl 24- :

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

(a) Ni(CO)4 and NiCl 24- are diamagnetic and Ni(CN ) 24- is paramagnetic
(b) NiCl 24- and Ni(CN ) 24- are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic.
(c) Ni(CO)4 and Ni(CN ) 24- are diamagnetic and NiCl 24- is paramagnetic

(d) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic, NiCl 24- and Ni(CN ) 24- are paramagnetic
571. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour
(Atomic number : Zn = 30), Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
(a) [ Zn( NH 3 )6 ]2 + (b) [Cr ( NH 3 )6 ]3 + (c) [Co (NH 3 )6 ]3 + (d) [ Ni( NH 3 )6 ]2 +
572. The oxidation state of Fe in K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] is
(a) +2 (b) –2 (c) +3 (d) +4
573. An anion solution gives a white ppt. With AgNO 3 solution. The ppt. dissolves in dil. ammonia
due to the formation of
(a) AgNO 3 (b) NH 4 NO 3 (c) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (d) [Ag(NH3)2]Br
574. The diamagnetic specie is
(a) [ Ni(CN )4 ]2 - (b) [NiCl 4 ]2 - (c) [CoCl 4 ]2 - (d) [CoF6 ]2 -
575. Diazo compounds some times donot respond Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen because
(a) there are quite stable compounds and do not decompose to elemental nitrogen.
(b) these contain very little carbon.
(c) these form organometallic compound with sodium.
(d) their nitrogen contents is removed during heating in the form of nitrogen gas.
576. Carius method is not reliable for the estimation of
(a) Cl (b) Br (c) I (d) S
577. The formula of the compound which gives violet colour in Lassaigne’s test for sulphur with
sodium nitroprusside in
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (b) Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(c) Na2[Fe(CN)5S] (d) Na4[Fe(CN)4S]
578. A gaseous hydrocarbon has 85% carbon and vapour density = 28. The possible formula of the
hydrocarbon will be
(a) C3H6 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H2 (d) C4H8
579. The compound that does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is
(a) Aniline (b) Glycine (c) Hydrazine (d) Urea
580. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
(a) Sublimation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Fractional distillation (d) Simple distillation
581. The function of sodium during preparation of Lassaigne’s extract is to
(a) decrease the melting point of the compound.
(b) increase the ionisation of the compound.
(c) convert the covalent compound into ionic compound.
(d) increase the reactivity of the compound.
582. In the process of extraction of gold,
[X] + [Z] ¾® [Y] + Au
Identify [X] and [Y] are:
(a) [X] = [Au(CN)2]-, [Y] = [Zn(CN)4]- (b) [X] = [Au(CN)2]3-, [Y] = [Zn(CN)6]4-
-
(c) [X] = [Au(CN)2] , [Y] = [Zn(CN)6] 4-
(d) [X] = [Au(CN)4]-, [Y] = [Zn(CN)6]2-
583. The impurities present in the mineral are called
(a) flux (b) gangue (c) alloy (d) slag
584. Electrolytic reduction process is used for the extraction of
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals
(c) aluminium (d) all of the above

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 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

585. The following equation represents a method of purification of nickel by,

320 K 420 K
Ni + 4CO [Ni(CO)4] Ni + 4CO
Impure Pure
(a) Cupellation (b) Mond’s process (c) Van Arkel method (d) Zone refining
586. In Goldschmidt aluminothermic process, thermite mixture contains
(a) 3 parts Fe2O3 and 2 parts Al (b) 3 parts Al2O3 and 4 parts Al
(c) 1 part Fe2O3 and 12 parts Al (d) 3 parts Fe2O3 and 1 part Al

587. Froth floatation process is used for the benefication of

(a) Oxide ore (b) Sulphide ore (c) Carbonate ore (d) Sulphate ore
588. In Goldschmidt aluminothermic process, thermite mixture contains
(a) Fe2O3 and Al (b) Al2O3 and Al (c) Fe3O4 and Al (d) Al2O3 and Fe
589. Which one of the following ore is not concentrated by froth flotation process?
(a) Copper pyrites (b) Galena (c) Pyrolusite (d) Zinc blende
590. Which method of purification is represented by the following equations?
875 K
Zr + 2I2 ¾¾¾® ZrI4
2075 K
ZrI4 ¾¾ ¾® Zr + 2I2
Tungsten filament
(a) Zone refining (b) Van Arkel (c) Poling (d) Cupellation
591. Which one of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?
(a) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
592. The type of isomerism present in nitropentaaminechromium(III) chloride is
(a) Optical (b) Linkage (c) Ionization (d) Polymerization
593. The hybridization of cental metal ion and shape of Wilkinson’s catalyst is
(a) dsp2, square planar (b) sp3, tetrahedral
3
(c) sp d, trigonal bipyramidal (d) d2sp3, octahedral
594. In a mixture of PbS, ZnS and FeS2 each component is separated from other by using the reagents
in the following sequence in froth floatation process
(a) Potassium ethyl xanthate, KCN
(b) Potassium ethyl xanthate, KCN, NaOH, copper sulphate, acid
(c) KCN, CuSO4, acid
(d) None of the above
595. A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an element
would be associated with the electronic configuration
(a) 1s22s22p63s1 (b) 1s22s22p63p1 (c) 1s22s22p63s23p3 (d) 1s22s22p63s2
596. Which one of the following statements is correct for alkaline earth metals?
(a) They are diatomic and form ions of the type M2+
(b) They are highly electronegative elements
(c) They are monoatomic and form ions of the type M2+
(d) They are diatomic and form ions of the type M 22+
597. Chemical A is used for water softening to remove temporary hardness. A reacts with sodium
carbonate to give caustic soda and when CO2 is bubbled through A, it turns cloudy. What is the
chemical formula of A
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ca(HCO3)2
598. Epsom salt is
(a) MgSO4 (b) MgSO4.2H2O (c) MgSO4.7H2O (d) MgSO4. ½ H2O
599. The hydride ion H- is stronger base than its hydroxide ion OH-. Which of the following
reactions will occur if sodium hydride (NaH) is dissolved in water?
- - - -
(a) H (aq) + H2O(l) ¾¾® H3O(aq) (b) H (aq) + H2O(l) ¾¾® OH(aq) + H2(g)
-
(c) H (aq) + H2O(l) ¾ ¾® no reaction (d) none of these
600. The property of hydrogen which distinguishes it from other alkali metals is
(a) its electropositive character (b) its affinity for non metal

10
 chemistry MCQ questions with answer key

(c) its reducing character (d) its non-metallic character

451. (d) 452. (a) 453. (c) 454. (c) 455. (d)
456. (a) 457. (b) 458. (d) 459. (b) 460. (a)
461. (b) 462. (a) 463. (a) 464. (d) 465. (b)
466. (d) 467. (c) 468. (c) 469. (d) 470. (d)
471. (c) 472. (c) 473. (d) 474. (a) 475. (d)
476. (c) 477. (c) 478. (b) 479. (b) 480. (d)
481. (b) 482. (d) 483. (d) 484. (d) 485. (d)
486. (d) 487. (c) 488. (d) 489. (a) 490. (b)
491. (e) 492. (a) 493. (d) 494. (b) 495. (a)
496. (a) 497. (c) 498. (c) 499. (b) 500. (d)
501. (c) 502. (b) 503. (b) 504. (b) 505. (b)
506. (b) 507. (c) 508. (c) 509. (a) 510. (d)
511. (d) 512. (d) 513. (c) 514. (b) 515. (a)
516. (b) 517. (c) 518. (b) 519. (b) 520. (d)
521. (a) 522. (b) 523. (b) 524. (b) 525. (c)
526. (b) 527. (d) 528. (b) 529. (c) 530. (b)
531. (d) 532. (d) 533. (b) 534. (a) 535. (c)
536. (a) 537. (d) 538. (b) 539. (a) 540. (c)
541. (b) 542. (c) 543. (d) 544. (d) 545. (a)
546. (b) 547. (b) 548. (c) 549. (c) 550. (d)
551. (d) 552. (a) 553. (d) 554. (d) 555. (c)
556. (b) 557. (d) 558. (c) 559. (b) 560. (c)
561. (d) 562. (b) 563. (a) 564. (d) 565. (a)
566. (b) 567. (d) 568. (a) 569. (c) 570. (c)
571. (c) 572. (a) 573. (c) 574. (a) 575. (d)
576. (c) 577. (a) 578. (d) 579. (c) 580. (b)
581. (c) 582. (a) 583. (b) 584. (d) 585. (b)
586. (d) 587. (b) 588. (a) 589. (c) 590. (b)
591. (c) 592. (b) 593. (a) 594. (b) 595. (d)
596. (c) 597. (c) 598. (c) 599. (c) 600. (d)

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