Mastering The UCAT 2024
Mastering The UCAT 2024
Table of Contents
CHAPTER 01
3 Introduction to the UCAT
CHAPTER 02
12 Verbal Reasoning
CHAPTER 03
34 Decision Making
CHAPTER 04
46 Abstract Reasoning
CHAPTER 05
65 Quantitative Reasoning
CHAPTER 06
79 Situational Judgement
CHAPTER 07
91 Revising for the UCAT
CHAPTER 08
94 UCAT Revision Checklist
Introduction
Welcome to The Medic Portal’s Mastering the UCAT course. We pride
ourselves on providing the most comprehensive and beneficial courses and in-
formation to support you with every step of your application.
Mastering the UCAT
INTRODUCTION
The UCAT exam is a major hurdle in the medical school application process, and many universities place a great
deal of emphasis on your score when shortlisting for interviews. Understandably there is a significant amount of
pressure to perform well. After all, there’s a lot riding on it!
We believe that there are three main stages in your journey of mastering the UCAT:
1 Theory
Before starting your revision, it is important that you know what you’re doing. The first step is to under-
stand how to approach the exam, and what specifically they are looking for. There are numerous ways
to achieve this, and by attending our course today you’ve taken the first step!
During the theory stage you will learn about the exam itself and how to approach each section. Whilst
there is no specific syllabus, there are many areas you still need to revise, along with techniques for how
to approach specific question types.
2 Application
Once you know what to do, it’s time to start putting it to practise. It is during this second phase where
you will begin practising questions, preferably using an online platform such as our question bank, which
will also help simulate the real test environment.
The key during this phase is to build your accuracy. Take your time to begin with, linking the questions
with the theory you’ve acquired, carefully learning how to apply the theory into practice questions.
3
Consolidation
Once you’ve successfully gained accuracy you’re ready to move onto the final phase – consolidation.
One of the main challenges of the UCAT is the timings. In this final phase you will begin to answer
questions to time. There is no point jumping to this final phase until you’ve successfully achieved a high
accuracy when answering practice questions. Only once you’ve mastered the application stage should
you begin working on your timing.
By following this approach you will build a strong foundation on which to successfully achieve a high
score in your UCAT exam. For the majority of candidates this process takes approximately six weeks.
The University Clinical Aptitude Test (UCAT) is required by the majority of UK medical and dental schools, and
replaced the United Kingdom Clinical Aptitude Test (UKCAT) in 2019, although materially the exam remained the
same. The main reason for this change was to make the exam more international, and it’s now also required by a
large number of universities in Australia and New Zealand (UCAT ANZ).
The UCAT season runs from the 8th July to 26th September 2024, and it is down to you when you wish to sit the
exam during this window. There is no difference in the difficulty level of the exam, but evidence shows those who
sit the exam earlier in the season tend to perform better than those who sit it later.
When deciding on the optimal time to sit the exam, consider:
• When you have a (relatively) free period of up to 6 weeks to carry out regular revision;
• What other commitments (e.g. work experience, volunteering) you will be undertaking.
The UCAT is a 2-hour computerised exam sat in formal test centres located throughout the UK, and in over 100
countries globally. During COVID-19, it was also possible to sit the exam online from home.
It is down to you as the student to register for the UCAT, and it can only be sat once per academic year. It is
therefore a high-stakes exam and preparation is essential!
The UCAT is a very time-pressured exam. In fact, if you ask most students who’ve sat the test, the one thing they
all have in common is their struggle to answer all the questions in the time allocated.
Overall, the UCAT is 120 minutes (2 hours) long. For those allowed extra time in exams, there are extended time
versions of the exam. The most common, the UCATSEN (UCAT Special Educational Needs), allows 25% more time,
or 150 minutes in total, including longer reading time.
Each section begins with one minute of reading time. During this time, the instructions for the section are displayed,
after which the section will begin.
There is a set amount of time per section, and this cannot be carried-forward should you finish early. Once the
time has lapsed for a section you will automatically be moved on to the next section and you cannot go back to a
previous section. You can however move freely between the questions within a section.
Once started, the clock cannot be stopped. Even if you need a loo break, your timer will keep going! It is therefore
essential to plan ahead.
UCATSEN
You may be entitled to extra time, breaks or accommodations. This is typically if you have specific learning disabilities
such as dyslexia, disabilities or medical conditions or injuries.
For the UCATSEN you must apply at least 10 working days before the test with proof of entitlement to 25% extra
time in public examinations.
There are other special access options (which require prior approval) including:
• 50% extra time (UCATSEN50)
• 5-minute breaks between sections (UCATSA or UCATSENSA)
• Access to medical Items not on the ‘comfort aid’ list
• Special access arrangements (e.g. wheelchair or desk adjustments)
The UCAT is used by all UK medical and dental schools, as well as Australia, New Zealand and several other inter-
national destinations. Example universities:
UCAT Scoring
The four cognitive sections are each scored out of 900 points:
Verbal Reasoning
Decision Making 300 to 900 points per section
Quantitative Reasoning
Abstract Reasoning
The lowest score possible in each section is 300. In addition to the above, you will also receive:
• A total score (all four sections added together) ranging between 1200 and 3600 points
• An average score (your total score divided by 4)
The Situational Judgement section is scored differently. Here you will not receive a numerical score, but instead a
band score ranging from Band 1 (highest) to Band 4 (lowest).
You are issued with your score as soon as the exam is finished and you leave, meaning your results are almost
instantaneous.
The UCAT scores for the last few years were:
We can see that although there are some variations, the overall UCAT score (total and average) remains relatively
constant from year to year.
Whilst most students perform relatively well at the more logical and mathematical sections, verbal reasoning is
always the lowest scoring section. Gaining a good score here will be a major advantage, allowing you to leap-frog
ahead of the competition.
High emphasis
Ranked by UCAT score
Points allocation for groups
Minimum cut-off
Only used in borderline cases
Not at all
Low emphasis
Universities all have different shortlisting processes. Generally speaking, they use varying combinations of:
• Academic results (e.g. GCSEs)
• Aptitude test scores (UCAT, BMAT or GAMSAT)
• Personal statement
For some universities, a high UCAT score is therefore essential, as their short-listing process is heavily reliant on
this score. For others, however, the UCAT plays a smaller part. As such, you can still apply with a lower UCAT score.
As a general rule, the higher your UCAT score, the greater your chance of being shortlisted!
UCAT ‘Screenshot’
It is important that you’re familiar with the screen layout and functionalities ahead of the exam. This can be done
by practising on the official UCAT website, as well as through our online question bank.
Calculator Flag
Information
area Question area
Navigation
buttons
This occupies approximately 2/3 of the screen and contains all information required
Information Area
for the question. For example, a passage of text in verbal reasoning.
Here you will see the question along with the possible answer options. Depending on
Question Area
the section, there will be between 3 and 5 answers.
Navigation Buttons Use these buttons to navigate back and forward between questions within the section.
See how much time you have left in that specific section. It is important to keep a
Timer
close eye on this to prevent you running out of time.
Question Number See how far through the section you are.
Click this button to ‘flag’ the question. This places a marker on the question, making it
Flag
easier to return later if you have time.
There is no negative marking in the UCAT. If your time is about to run out, make sure you quickly scroll
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through the remaining questions and guess – you might pick up some marks!
This allows you to quickly see which questions are flagged or unanswered. From the review screen, you can review
your questions in four different ways:
1. Click on a question directly
2. Review all of your questions and answers
3. Review questions that are incomplete / unanswered
4. Review questions that are flagged for review
These navigation options can be found at the bottom of the review screen:
In addition to using the navigation buttons, you can also navigate using your computer keyboard:
• Alt + n for the next question
• Alt + p for the previous question
• Alt + f to flag the question
• Alt + c to open the calculator
As speed is of the essence, it’s important when practising that you familiarise yourself with which option suits you
best.
Summary: Introduction
If you dedicate enough time and revision, you will get a good score. For most candidates, this is
around 6 weeks of preparation time, spending an hour or two a day revising.
There are a few key points to remember:
• When practicing questions, use online question banks rather than textbooks. This will help simulate
the real exam environment.
• Practise using the flag button, but do so sparingly. You will likely only have a very short amount of
time left at the end of a section, so save the flag buttons for those questions you genuinely want to
revisit and think you can answer.
• Do not get bogged down on a single question. If in doubt, make an educated guess, flag and move
on.
• There is no negative marking in the exam. Do not leave any questions unanswered. If running out
of time, quickly scroll through the remaining questions and guess. You never know, you might just
pick up a few extra marks.
• Practise is key to success. Once you’ve acquired the theory, spend time learning to apply the
information by working through practice questions. Only once you can confidently answer
questions with high accuracy should you move to the final phase of consolidating to time.
Verbal Reasoning
The Verbal Reasoning section “assesses your ability to read and think carefully
about information presented in passages and to determine whether specific
conclusions can be drawn from information presented. You are not expected to
use prior knowledge to answer the questions”.
In total, you’ll be presented with 11 ‘question sets’, each containing 4 ‘Items’. This
makes a total of 44 questions.
You have 21 minutes to complete the section, of which the first minute is reading
time. In reality, this gives you approximately 2 minutes per question set, or 28.6
seconds per question.
As such, verbal reasoning is very time pressured!
Fundamental Terms
VERBAL REASONING
Definition of Terms
Before we look at the theory, we need to ensure an accurate understanding and definition of the key terms:
True:
On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is true, or it logically follows from the
passage that it must be true.
False:
On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is false, or it logically follows from
the passage that it must be false.
Can’t tell:
You cannot tell from the information in the passage whether the statement is true or false.
It is important to remember that true and false are both definitive terms. By selecting these you are saying, with
absolute certainty, that a statement either can or cannot be concluded. There is no ambiguity.
If there is any element of doubt or ambiguity, however small, then the answer will be can’t tell.
Comprehension Style
These are ‘newer’ style questions, and much harder than the true, false or can’t tell type questions!
They consist of a passage of text, followed by four questions or incomplete statements. You then have four free-
text answer options to choose from for each.
As such, there is much more information to process but with no additional time.
The passage of text is typically between 200 and 400 words long. It is likely you will have heard of many of the
topics discussed, and some examples include:
Common Topics Examples
A Measure Taxation; Vaccination
A Thing The planet Mercury; Facebook
A Concept Relative Poverty
A Location Wallsend; Piercefield
A Phenomenon Melting Ice Caps; Financial Crisis
A Historic Event The Civil War
A Combination Taxation in the Reign of Charles II
Key Concepts
Targeted Reading: Reading only what is necessary to answer the question without wasting time.
Key Words: Words in a given Item that stand out and are as specific as possible to that Item.
Top Tips
Regardless of the question format, always base your answer solely on the information in the passage. There is no
set syllabus, so if it’s not mentioned in the passage, you don’t know!
You therefore need to restrict yourself to what is either explicitly stated or logically follows from the passage.
Logically Follows: Logically follows means you can’t help but reach a conclusion without making any assumptions.
Take the following example: In my kitchen, there are two apples in the fridge and three in the fruit bowl.
Does it therefore logically follow that there are five apples in my kitchen?
The answer is no. To reach this conclusion we would need to have made an assumption – in this case that there are
no apples anywhere else. How do we know there aren’t any apples in a cupboard, or on the floor?
Quick Test
During his 1960 jump, Joe Kittinger was in freefall for more than 4 minutes and 20 seconds’
What are the key words in this sentence?
Answer Explanation
‘Also convicted of the murder was Knox’s then boyfriend, Raffaele Sollecito, who was given a 25-year sentence –
one year less than Knox.’
Was Knox given a sentence of at least 26 years?
Answer Explanation
This is the fundamental approach to successfully answering verbal reasoning questions to time:
• Scan the remainder of the passage for other instances of the keyword(s)
STEP 4
Once the law banning drinking was repealed in 1961, most Welsh pubs opened on Sundays.
The six-step strategy will give you a great foundation to approach Verbal Reasoning, allowing you to answer the
questions in the limited time.
In addition, there are two further techniques to gain an edge:
• Using clue words
• Understanding and watching out for the common tricks
Clue Words
Paying close attention to the type of words will help you decide between definitive (true or false) and mitigating
(can’t tell) answers.
Mitigating Definitive
Might Impossible
Could Cannot
Can Never
Sometimes Only
Often Solely
Frequently Certainly
Likely Exclusively
Rarely Must
Maybe Always
Mitigating can be defined as “lessening in force or intensity”. In the context of Verbal Reasoning, mitigating words
make a conclusion less certain.
Common Tricks
There are a number of ‘tricks’ question writers can introduce to increase the chance of you going wrong.
Knowing what these tricks are, and how to spot them, will allow you to improve the accuracy of your answers. This
is especially important during the intense time pressure.
We will explore the common tricks, along with the application of the theory acquired so far, in the coming questions.
Eddie Chapman was an English criminal, who became a spy for the Nazis during the Second World War.
He was known to the Germans by the codename Fritz. His efforts were recognised by Adolf Hitler, before
he defected back to his home country and worked for many years as a double-agent for the British.
Chapman had been imprisoned on the Channel Islands when they fell into German hands. From there he
was transferred to a French jail, where he became acquainted with Captain Stephan von Gröning, head of
the Abwehr in Paris. Chapman offered von Gröning his services as turncoat agent.
After extensive training in explosives, radio communications and parachute jumping, Chapman was
dropped into Cambridgeshire by the Germans on December 16th, 1942. His mission was to sabotage the
de Havilland aircraft factory in Hatfield. Instead, he surrendered to MI5, and the sabotage was faked with
their help, in order to deceive the Germans. MI5 gave Eddie Chapman the codename Zigzag – a reference
to the way he appeared to jump from one side to the other during the course of World War II.
By 1944, Chapman was sent back to Britain by the Germans. The German’s much vaunted V1 weapon was
being used frequently – but it rarely hit its intended targets. That’s probably because Chapman repeatedly
reported back to the Germans that the bombs fired by the weapon were hitting Central London, when in
fact they were falling well short. This misinformation, the ensured that the wrong coordinates continued
to be used and that bombs from the V1 fell in the countryside, rather than their target in heart of the
capital.
At the end of the war, Chapman received a £6,000 payment from MI5 and was allowed to keep £1,000
he had received from the Germans. He received no other money. He was granted a pardon for his pre-war
activities. During the war, Chapman was also awarded the Iron Cross by the Germans for sabotaging the de
Havilland aircraft factory.
Question 1
Eddie Chapman, Fritz and Zigzag are the same person.
A. True
B. False
C. Can’t tell
Answer Explanation
I know you won’t read the passage… you will just scan for key words!
So, there are two things I like to do:
1. Use the same key word in different places
2. Ensure different key words from the same Item are scattered throughout the passage
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. There might be multiple key words in a single Item
2. The same key word might be used multiple times in the passage
DO DON’T
Keep scanning for repetition of key words if the Assume that the first instance of the key word
answer is unclear is always enough
Take mental note of all key words in the Item Assume that a single word that stands out will lead
- you may need more than one you straight to the right answer
Piece together information from different Fixate on a single part of the passage with
parts of the passage if needed insufficient information
Question 2
The V1 was not an accurate weapon.
A. True
B False
C. Can’t tell
Answer Explanation
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. Context around key words is important
2. Additional information included in the passage but not in the statement, or vice-versa, is a type of mitigation
and often leads us to ‘can’t tell’ or ‘false’
DO DON’T
Scan the sentences just before and after those Read the key word sentence only and ignore
containing key words context
Make yourself aware of the context of your Think that targeted reading precludes you from
targeted reading getting context
Read around key words just enough to spot Get paranoid that everything will be contradicted
obvious mitigation or contradiction and waste time
Question 3
Chapman received parachute jump training for his drop into Cambridgeshire in 1942.
A. True
B. False
C. Can’t tell
Answer Explanation
I like putting two things next to each other so that you assume a link between them – even
though it’s not stated!
I find that if I use things that seem like they should be linked, and put them side-by-side,
people fall into the trap.
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. Just because two things sound linked, it doesn’t mean they are
2. You need to look out for bridging phrases (e.g. because of, due to, as a result of etc.)
3. Just because two things happened, it does not necessarily mean there is a causal relationship
DO DON’T
Look for bridging phrases that explicitly link pieces Assume a link between two things unless it is
of information explicitly stated
Make sure that causality or consequence is clearly Be fooled by close proximity of two things with
established no bridging phrase
Question 4
The leader of the Nazi party was aware of Chapman’s efforts.
A. True
B. False
C. Can’t tell
Answer Explanation
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. This is not a test of knowledge!
2. It is important to base your answer only on the information in the passage and not on any other knowledge
you may have.
DO DON’T
Stick solely to what is stated in, or logically inferred Step beyond what the passage states or logically
from, the passage infers
PASSAGE 2
The online social network, Facebook, was founded in February 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg, who still owns
the majority of Facebook’s shares. He co-founded the company with his colleagues at Harvard University:
Eduardo Saverin, Andrew McCollum, Dustin Moskovitz and Chris Hughes. In May 2005, Accel Partners
were the first to invest in Facebook, with $12.7 million. Jim Breyer added a further $1 million out of his
own pocket. Facebook eventually filed for an Initial Public Offering (IPO) on February 1, 2012. Facebook
Inc. began selling stock to the public and trading on the NASDAQ stock market on May 18, 2012. This is
known as a ‘flotation’.
Many people suggested that Facebook’s flotation on May 18 was a disaster. The deriders were all financiers
or Public Relations professionals. By the close of trading on May 23, its shares had fallen to $32, or 16%
below their issue price of $38. A week later, they had fallen even further, to $31. The company’s value
effectively fell from $105bn to $85bn in this time. Mark Zuckerberg and the underwriters who supported
Facebook’s IPO were sued by disgruntled shareholders. They claim that less optimistic growth forecasts
were given to favoured investors just ahead of the flotation, rather than to the market as a whole. A
regulator in Massachusetts investigated whether the investment bank, Morgan Stanley, had selectively
distributed revised forecasts for Facebook.
There were more possible reasons why Facebook’s flotation was widely derided – even though it did
ultimately raise $16 billion for Facebook, ensuring profit for all its earliest backers. For example, there
were a number of technical glitches on NASDAQ during the flotation on May 18, which disrupted early
trading of Facebook’s stock. And a few days before trading began, Facebook increased the number of
shares on offer by 25%, settling on an issue price well above the $28-35 range it had initially set. It seems
that this came from business hubris, as the hunger for shares in Facebook was overestimated.
Facebook issued shares at $3 more than the top of its initial range.
A. True
B. False
C. Can’t tell
Answer Explanation
Trick: Numbers
Some people don’t realise that basic calculations are a form of logical inference!
For example: ‘In the kitchen, there are two apples in the fruit bowl and two apples in the
fridge, and no apples anywhere else.’
Based on this information, it would be ‘true’ to say that there are four apples in the kitchen.
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. Basic calculations do count as logical inference
2. A common form of this involves questions about averages
DO DON’T
Be prepared to do some quick maths in your head Assume something is ‘false’ because the number in
to check answers the item isn’t in the passage
Look for numbers in the passage as soon as you see Forget to read the context around the numbers
a numbers question before doing the sums
Answer Explanation
Trick: Synonyms
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. Occasionally, key words from the Item aren’t in the passage
2. Synonymous words or phrases can be used instead
DO DON’T
Look for matching key words first – you’ll usually Worry too much about all possible synonyms until
find them you’ve done this
Try to think of commons synonyms to include Panic if you can’t find key word matches – just look
before you do your first search for synonyms
The absence of key words can make an Item seem like an obvious ‘can’t tell’. But if there’s a strong
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synonym this often isn’t the case.
Answer Explanation
THINGS TO REMEMBER:
1. An Item is never ‘true’ if it uses flawed reasoning
2. X is Y doesn’t mean that Y is X
DO DON’T
Make sure that reasoning is perfectly sound before Rush into selecting ‘true’ because the Item looks the
choosing a ‘true’ answer same as the passage
Be wary when you see words like ‘all’ in an Item – is Confuse cause and effect when it comes to logical
this clearly backed up? inference
We have now explored seven of the common tricks used in Verbal Reasoning, particularly in true, false, can’t tell
style questions.
These are:
• Dispersion of key words
• Mitigation and contradiction
• Juxtaposition
• Outside knowledge
• Numbers
• Synonyms
• Faulty logic
We will now explore how the comprehension style of questions differ, and how the above techniques and tricks
can be used in these questions too.
What’s Different?
There are several differences between the two question styles:
Only ‘true’, ‘false’ or ‘can’t tell’ answers Free text answers and value judgements
Although there are differences between the two question styles, in reality, the approach and techniques required
are very similar.
With a few nuances, the key skills and tricks learnt for the true, false, can’t tell questions can be adapted and used
for comprehension style questions.
There are four main types of question which feature in comprehension style questions:
Value
Judgements
• Read the top line of the Item, noting keywords and any value judgements
STEP 1
• Cross reference each answer option against the relevant part of passage, using
keywords from both the top line and the given answer option
STEP 2
Generally speaking, where possible treat each answer option as a mini ‘True, False or Can’t Tell’
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exercise.
Value Judgements
Value judgements feature in some comprehension style questions. These questions introduce an element of
subjectivity, and as such more than one answer can technically be correct.
They can be applied to any of the other Item types to add a further degree of difficulty and judgement.
Common terms suggesting value judgements include:
• Main
• Most / least
• Best
As value judgements introduce an element of uncertainty, it’s vital not to settle for an answer until you’ve assessed
each answer option. You therefore need to adapt your technique slightly:
PASSAGE 3
The richest man in history is J.D. Rockefeller. When he died in 1937, his estimated wealth, adjusted for
the late 2000s, was between 392 and 664 billion US dollars. He was also the first person to accumulate
personal wealth of $1billion, passing that landmark in 1916. The source of Rockefeller’s wealth was oil. His
company, Standard Oil, which was established in Ohio in 1870, effectively came to hold a monopoly over
oil supply in the USA. In fact, it was ruled an illegal monopoly by the Supreme Court in 1911. Standard
Oil’s dominant position in the market was the result of Rockefeller’s innovative strategies, which increased
efficiency, combined with a ruthless approach to competing companies. After the Supreme Court ruling it
was broken up into 33 subsidiaries, including ExxonMobil.
A good example of Standard Oil’s ruthless strategy at work was the deals it made with the railroad companies.
In 1868, the Lake Shore Railroad gave Rockefeller’s firm a going rate of one cent a gallon or forty-two cents
a barrel. This represented a 71% discount from its listed rates in return for a promise to ship at least 60
carloads of oil daily. The deal therefore dramatically increased Standard Oil’s efficiency overnight. Then, in
1872, Rockefeller joined the South Improvement Company – a deal which paved the way for him to increase
Standard Oil’s efficiency once again by receiving rebates for shipping and drawbacks on oil his competitors
shipped. When this deal became known, competitors convinced the Pennsylvania Legislature to revoke
South Improvement’s charter, however, and no oil was shipped under this arrangement.
The second richest man in history, Andrew Carnegie, also dealt in resources. He controlled the most extensive
integrated iron and steel operations ever owned by an individual in the United States. Carnegie was the first
person to use the Bessemer process on an industrial scale. This process removes impurities from iron by
oxidation. The Carnegie Steel Company was sold to J.P. Morgan in 1901, leading to the creation of the US
Steel Corporation. Carnegie’s adjusted net worth was around $300billion at the time of his death.
In this question type you’re presented with a partial statement and you need to select which answer option
completes the statement.
It’s not simply a comprehension exercise, but requires interpretation.
Examples:
Treat each answer option as a mini
‘Mercury has not been extensively studied because:’
‘True’, ‘False’ or ‘Can’t Tell’.
‘Poverty is a relative measure because:’
Question 1
Standard Oil’s deal with the Lake Shore Railroad in 1868:
A. Made Standard Oil gradually more efficient
B. Was illegal
C. Led to rebates for shipping and drawbacks on oil its competitors shipped
D. Ensured large discounts if agreed carloads of oil were shipped
Answer Explanation
Answer Explanation
Examples:
Which of the following is / is not a cause /
consequence of X? Remember to look for bridging
Which of the following is most likely to cause X phrases
What is the main cause / consequence of X?
What does X achieve / aim to achieve?
X is / causes Y because…
What was the main reason for Standard Oil’s market domination?
A. The fact it held a monopoly over oil production in the USA
B. The strategies of JD Rockefeller
C. The high efficiency of the company
D. The deals it made with the rail roads
Answer Explanation
PASSAGE 4
The London 2012 Games were centred around the Olympic Park in east London, which is the site of a
number of new sports venues. The Olympic Park held nine venues and was 2.5sq km in size – equivalent
to 357 football pitches. Up to 180,000 spectators a day entered the Park to enjoy the Games, making it
the principal focus of Olympic activity.
The main venues in the Olympic Park – the Olympic Stadium, Aquatics Centre, Velodrome and BMX
Circuit, as well as the hockey, handball and basketball arenas – were easily accessible, as there was there
was a network of footbridges and walkways within the Park, and guides helped spectators. 8.8 million
tickets were available for the London 2012 Olympic Games.
The Olympic Village was within walking distance of all the venues in the Park, enhancing the experience
for athletes and officials. The use of other prestigious venues – such as Wembley Stadium for football, the
All-England Club in Wimbledon for tennis, Lord’s Cricket Ground for archery and Horse Guards Parade
for beach volleyball – was also a feature of the London 2012 Olympic and Paralympic Games, which were
both completely sold out.
The London 2012 Games included a four-year Cultural Olympiad. It reached a climax with the Olympic
Games Opening Ceremony on 27 July 2012, starting a 60-day festival of sport and culture across the UK,
as the Olympic and Paralympic spirit crossed the world once again.
A valid conclusion must ‘logically follow’ from the passage. So, it is just the same as a ‘True’ answer.
Examples:
Basically asking: ‘Which of the
What conclusion on X can be drawn from the passage? following is ‘True’?’
Which of the following can be deduced / inferred from Treat each option like a ‘mini’ ‘True’,
the passage? ‘False’, ‘Can’t Tell’ exercise
Which statement best supports / is supported by the Stop when you find a ‘True’ answer
passage?
Question 1
Which conclusion on the 2012 London Olympics can be drawn from the passage?
A. The capacity of the 9 venues in the Olympic Park is at least 180,000
B. Walking to venues from the Olympic Village improved athletes’ experiences
C. The main venues in the Olympic Park were accessible only by foot
D. 8.8 million London Olympics tickets were sold
Answer Explanation
Value judgements can be applied to any question type. They add a layer of uncertainty, and require you to assess
all answer options before committing.
Examples:
Use the same technique as per
Which of the following is most likely to be true? specific question types.
What is the main conclusion regarding…? Assess all answer options before
What would the author state is the least likely reason settling on one.
for…?
Question 2
Which of the following is least likely to be true?
A. The opening ceremony signalled the start of the Cultural Olympiad
B. Venues like Wembley Stadium added prestige to the London Olympics
C. Archery was an event at the London Olympics
D. The Olympic Park was the main hub of Olympic activity
Answer Explanation
Decision Making
“The Decision Making subtest assesses your ability to apply logic to reach a
decision or conclusion, evaluate arguments and analyse statistical information.
Doctors and dentists are often required to make decisions in situations that
may be complex. This requires high-level problem solving skills and the ability to
assess and manage risk and deal with uncertainty.”
Decision Making: Format
DECISION MAKING
Question Layout
In Decision Making, the question appears underneath the information stem, not on the right-hand side of the
screen:
Decision Making contains a different question type – drag and drop. These are used in ‘conclusion’ based questions,
where you are presented with a stem of information, then five possible answers. You need to decide whether or not
an answer logically follows from the stem, and drop a ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ into the box next to the statement.
Should all medical schools provide Problem Based Learning (PBL), which includes regular group tutorials based on
a patient case, as a way to improve the student learning experience?
Select the strongest argument from the statements below:
A. Yes, some students benefit from PBL because of the group interaction it promotes, improving their learning
experience
B. Yes, PBL is cost-effective to run, the only expense being the tutor that facilitates it
C. No, it depends on the medical school and its history of teaching
D. No, the learning experience from PBL is dependent on whether the students themselves prefer learning in a
group environment or through self-study
Answer Explanation
Logical Puzzles
Multiple steps of deductive inference to reach a con-
clusion.
Can present information as:
• Single parameter puzzles
• Multiple parameter puzzles
• Patterns and relationships
• Spatial relationships
Only one correct answer. Deductive Reasoning
Question 2
Six orders came through at a restaurant at different times.
• The fries were not the first order, and were immediately followed by an order for a hot dog.
• An order for a burger with fries was immediately preceded by an order for a milkshake.
• The order for a hot dog was placed immediately before an order for a veggie burger, which was not the last order
to arrive.
• An order for fries was earlier than the order for the milkshake, which came later than the chicken wings.
Which order was placed third?
A. Chicken wings
B. Milkshake
C. Hot dog
D. Fries
Answer Explanation
Mary, Michelle, Aditi and Nicola each have one handbag. Their handbags are either red, blue, silver or black. No-
one has the same coloured handbag. The cost of their handbags were £40, £50, £95 and £105 (not in any order).
In addition:
• Mary’s handbag was £10 more expensive than Nicola’s, but she did not own the most expensive handbag
• Michelle owns a silver handbag
• Aditi’s handbag is more expensive than Michelle’s
• The most expensive handbag was red
Answer Explanation
You can then draw and connect all associations making it easier to visualise the information. Once completed, you
simply need to read each statement in turn, crossing off the incorrect ones.
+ =
- = +
+ = + - +
?
A. Circle
B. Rectangle
C. Square
D. Triangle
Answer Explanation
Precious walks around the town where she lives. Each line represents the route she takes with the time taken for
each journey shown beside it. The path between supermarket A and the hospital is one-way in the direction of the
arrow.
18 20
Precious’
Cinema School
House
?
7
15
4 Supermarket B 2
Supermarket A 8
Gym
5
Hospital 12
If the longest journey time between two destinations is 20 minutes, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The maximum possible journey time (without revisiting destinations) from the hospital to the cinema is 78
minutes
B. Walking from supermarket A to the school via supermarket B takes a minimum of 22 minutes
C. The maximum number of different destinations it is possible to visit in a 30-minute walk is three
D. It is faster to get to the gym from the cinema by going via the hospital than supermarket B
Answer Explanation
A form of reasoning where a conclusion is reached from two or more given premises. A common term will be
present in the premises but not the conclusion.
All humans are mammals. All mammals are warm blooded. Therefore, all humans are warm blooded.
All A = B
All B = C
Therefore, A = C
The common term in the premises is mammals.
Syllogism Questions
The syllogism questions typically feature as ‘drag and drop’ questions. There will be a number of short statements,
followed by five statements. For each statement you need to say whether or not, based on the information, the
statement does or does not follow.
Scoring 3 or less of the five correct scores 0 points overall. Scoring 4 will yield one point, and scoring all 5 correct
yields two points.
Question 6
In 2020, the London Underground tube service had the highest amount of signal failures for the past 10 years.
Signal failures are notoriously hard to predict.
Below are five statements:
A. Track infrastructure is in need of updating
B. There were more signal failures than expected
C. There were more signal failures than the previous year
D. There are usually not many signal failures
E. The London Underground tube service is poor
Answer Explanation
Question 7
Danny is organising the catering for his wedding. His guests had to fill out a form to indicate their food choices. All
102 guests requested at least one of the three courses.
• 90.2% of guests requested the main
• 56 guests requested the starter
• 53 guests requested both the starter and the main
• 7 guests requested neither the starter, nor the main
• 1 in 3 guests requested all three courses
• 15 guests requested just the main and dessert
• 3 more guests ordered a dessert than a starter
How many guests requested just a starter with a dessert?
Answer Explanation
Question 8
A survey was given to students asking them what subjects they were studying. Laura is studying German,
Mathematics and Biology.
Based on the diagram, how many others are studying this subject combination?
Mathematics
9 6
12 Biology
4 Chemistry
7 12 8
15 Physics
14
11
6 German
13 24
French
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer Explanation
Requires knowledge!
The probability that a certain outcome, A, will happen is given by:
Question 9
Jason and Dina have a standard 54 card deck. They remove the two Jokers, so they are left with a deck formed of
13 cards from each of the four suits.
Game 1: Shuffle the deck. Player 1 chooses two cards and wins if they are both hearts. Player 2 wins if they are
from different suits.
Game 2: Shuffle the deck. Player 1 chooses a card and Player 2 guesses the suit. Player 2 wins if they guess the suit
correctly.
If Jason is Player 2, the most likely result from the two games is Jason beating Dina and winning both games.
A. Yes, there is almost a 95% chance of Player 2 winning Game 1
B. Yes, there is only a 4% chance of Player 1 winning both games
C. No, Player 1 is more likely to win both games
D. No, there is only a 23.5% chance of Player 2 winning both games
Answer Explanation
Conditional Probability
Conditional probability applies when one outcome is dependent on another outcome. Usually it helps to answer
questions by drawing out a ‘tree diagram’.
I have a bag containing 4 green and 6 red balls. What is the probability of removing a green followed by a red ball?
Abstract Reasoning
The Abstract Reasoning section “assesses your ability to identify patterns amongst
abstract shapes where irrelevant and distracting material may lead to incorrect
conclusions. The test therefore measures your ability to change track, critically
evaluate and generate hypotheses and requires you to query judgements as you
go along”.
• Tests your ability to identify patterns amongst two sets of shapes, then link
‘test shapes’ into these sets
• Tested through four possible different question styles
• Similar to ‘spatial reasoning’ components of IQ tests
You will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be given a test
Type 1
shape and asked to decide whether the test shape belongs in Set A, Set B, or Neither.
You will be presented with a series of shapes. You will be asked to select the next shape in the
Type 2
series.
You will be presented with a statement, involving a group of shapes. You will be asked to
Type 3
determine which shape completes the statement.
You will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be asked to
Type 4
select which of the four response options belongs to Set A or Set B.
Types 1 and 4 are both ‘static’ questions, whereas types 3 and 4 can be considered ‘dynamic’.
For Type 1 and 4 questions you will be presented with two sets of shapes: Set A and Set B:
Set A Set B
Each set consists of six boxes, within which items are contained. There are one or more patterns within these boxes.
For a pattern to be valid, all boxes within a set must contain that pattern.
You will then be presented, one by one, with five ‘test shapes’. For each test shape you need to state whether it fits
into Set A, Set B or neither Set A nor Set B:
1 2 3 4 5
Definition
In this course we will teach two techniques: one basic and one advanced.
The basic technique will let you tackle any Type 1 or 4 abstract reasoning question with a structured framework,
but is less efficient than the advanced technique studied later.
TITANS PADS
Mnemonic to help you get started finding patterns:
T Type of shape
I Intersections
T Touching sides
N Number
S Shading
P Position
A Angels
D Directions
S Sides
Although finding the pattern is important, you must also be able to quantify what’s going on. There are three main
ways to do this:
Answer Explanation
The advanced technique for identifying patterns is called the Impression Technique.
When you first look at a question, there are a number of different ‘impressions’ you might get. For each impression
there are a number of commonly occurring patterns to look for. If you know what you’re looking for, the ‘hunt’ be-
comes easier and much more efficient.
The common ‘impressions’ are:
• ‘Lots of shapes’
• ‘Abstract patterns’
• ‘Everything looks the same?!’
• ‘Familiar objects’
• ‘Letters and Words’
• ‘Arrows, arrows and more arrows!’
• ‘Something’s changing…’
The technique works on the principle that for each of the above impressions there are only a few, limited patterns
to look for.
If you remember which patterns to look for in each pattern, the search becomes faster and more efficient.
Answer Explanation
TOP TIP: A circle has 1 side, but an infinite number of lines of symmetry.
Answer Explanation
Question 4
Set A Set B Test Shape
Answer Explanation
It is unusual for shapes to touch the sides of the boxes – if present in every box always
TOP TIP:
consider this first.
Question 5
Answer Explanation
TOP TIP: If you see the letters E, F, H, L, T always consider right angles first.
Answer Explanation
TOP TIP: Never consider the meaning of the shape as a potential pattern e.g. the ‘time’ in a clock question.
Answer Explanation
TOP TIP: Never consider the meaning of the shape as a potential pattern e.g. the ‘time’ in a clock question.
Answer Explanation
Type 4 Questions
The Type 4 questions are similar to Type 1, but with a twist. You are presented with two sets of test shapes – Set A
and Set B, just as in Type 1 questions.
You are then asked to select which of 4 test shapes belong to either Set A or Set B.
As such, use the same strategy as in Type 1 questions to identify the pattern.
A B C D
Type 2 Questions
You are presented with a series of shapes and must select which shape comes next in the pattern. Analyse each
component in turn, paying close attention to:
• Number
• Position
• Direction / Reflection
• Size
• Shading
When approaching these questions, eliminate options one by one until left with the correct answer.
These are very time pressured – you only have 14 seconds per question!
Answer Explanation
A B C D
Question 11
Answer Explanation
A B C D
Type 3 Questions
You are presented with a ‘statement’ for a group of shapes.
X is to Y as Z is to A/B/C/D
You need to select which shape completes the statement. Pay close attention to:
• Number
• Position
• Direction / Reflection
• Size
• Shading
Eliminate answer options one by one.
Only 14 seconds per question!
Answer Explanation
is to
as
is to
A B C D
Question 13
Answer Explanation
is to
as
is to
A B C D
Quantitative Reasoning
The Quantitative Reasoning section “assesses your ability to use numerical skills
to solve problems. It assumes familiarity with numbers to the standard of a good
pass at GCSE. However, items are less to do with numerical facility and more to
do with problem solving”.
As such, the focus is on problem solving, and not maths.
The section consists of 9 scenarios, each containing 4 questions. This makes
a total of 36 questions to be answered in 25 minutes, giving 42 seconds per
question.
Each question consists of a stem followed by 4 questions. The stem contains the
information needed for the question, and may be presented in various formats,
including:
• Tables and graphs
• Charts and pie charts
• 2 and 3 dimensional shapes
• Diagrams
• Pure text
There are five answer options per question, which sometimes includes ‘can’t tell’.
Can’t tell is not the same as “I disagree with the other answer options”. If you
believe a question is possible to answer, but you can’t see your answer option,
TOP TIP:
you must have gone wrong! ‘Can’t tell’ means you think it’s not possible to answer
based on the information provided.
What are They Testing?
QUANTITATIVE REASONING
Mathematically, the section is not difficult. You need to have a good, basic grasp to the level of a “good pass at
GCSE”. The core topics include:
• Basic arithmetic
• Percentages
• Averages
• Ratios & fractions
• Common formulae
• Basic geometric formulae
• Basic algebra
The section focuses heavily on problem solving. The core problems solving concepts running through all of the
above topics include:
• Data analysis and interpretation
• Logic and reasoning
• Working under time pressure
The Calculator
You are not allowed to bring anything into the exam, but you do have
access to an on-screen calculator.
The calculator is very basic, and only allows functions such as: MC M+ X
• Addition
• Subtraction 7 8 9 -
• Division
• Multiplication 4 5 6 +
• Square root
1 2 3
=
When practising at home, never use a pocket calculator. .
TOP TIP: 0
Instead, consider using your computer calculator.
Question Set 1
Naomi is having three friends round for dinner and plans on serving fajitas. She requires the following
ingredients:
• 1 x pack of tortillas
• 4 x chicken breasts
• 1 x red onion
• 1 x green pepper
• 1 x pot of guacamole
• 1 x pot of sour cream
Sugar (g) 12 15
If Naomi buys her ingredients from Shop 1, what is the cost per person for dinner?
A. £3.92
B. £4.50
C. £6.00
D. £11.75
E. £18.00
Answer Explanation
Question 2
What is the weight of one pot of Guacamole?
A. 125g
B. 300g
C. 500g
D. 600g
E. Can’t Tell
Answer Explanation
Ratio:
Proportion:
A cake is made up of one part butter and two parts flour. What is:
Question 3
What percentage of the Guacamole is made of fat?
A. 5.6
B. 11.5
C. 12.6
D. 14.0
E. Can’t Tell
Answer Explanation
Percentage Conversions
Handy to remember to speed up mental arithmetic:
• 1/2 = 0.5 = 50% • 1/5 = 0.2 = 20% • 1/8 = 0.125 = 12.5%
• 1/3 = 0.33 = 33.33% • 1/6 = 0.167 = 16.7% • 1/9 = 0.11 = 11.11%
• 1/4 = 0.25 = 25% • 1/7 = 0.143 = 14.3% • 1/10 = 0.1 = 10%
Shop 2 has a ‘buy one get one free’ offer on chicken breasts. What percentage saving will Naomi make on chicken
by going to Shop 2 instead of Shop 1?
A. 8%
B. 8.7%
C. 16%
D. 17.4%
E. Can’t Tell
Answer Explanation
Common Pitfalls
Be careful of the wording used, especially in recipe based questions. You must apply common sense when answer-
ing the questions.
“How many X do you need to buy?”
• Round up to the nearest whole number. After all, you can’t buy half a mushroom!
“How many X do you need to use”
• You can use part of or fractions of items. For example, you could use half a mushroom.
Question Set 2
Peter and Paul are both going on holiday and have decided to drive. Peter is driving from London to
Frankfurt with an overnight stop in Paris. Paul is driving from London to Zurich, stopping in Paris for
lunch.
The distances between the cities (in miles) are:
Question 5
Peter leaves London at 18:30 and arrives in Paris four hours later. The following morning he leaves Paris at 11:15
and gets to Frankfurt at 17:15.
What was his average driving speed?
A. 40 miles per hour
B. 44.4 miles per hour
C. 44.9 miles per hour
D. 49.4 miles per hour
E. 54.8 miles per hour
Answer Explanation
Whilst driving, Peter discovers the E50 connecting Paris to Frankfurt is shut due to an accident. He has to take a
diversion, increasing his journey by 14.4 miles.
By what percentage does his journey from Paris to Frankfurt increase?
A. 2.8%
B. 4.6%
C. 4.76%
D. 5%
E. Can’t Tell
Answer Explanation
Paul leaves Paris with a full tank of fuel. His fuel tank has a capacity of 70 litres, and when he arrives in Zurich he
notes that he only has 0.143 of a tank of fuel left.
Approximately what is his average fuel consumption in miles per litre?
A. 4.23
B. 5
C. 6
D. 12
E. 30
Answer Explanation
Averages
Make sure you know your definitions:
Mean average (or just “average”):
• Total of individual values divided by number of values
Median:
• List numbers in ascending order; find mid-value
• If there is an even number of values, work out the mean of the two mid-values
Mode:
• Most common value
• Can have more than one mode (e.g. bimodal)
Range:
• Highest value – lowest value
Another friend, Robert, drove the 210 miles from London to Manchester one night in just 197 minutes. He stopped
for 9 minutes for petrol and 8 minutes for a coffee on route.
Excluding his stops, what was his average speed?
A. 64 kilometres per hour
B. 66 miles per hour
C. 70 kilometres per hour
D. 70 miles per hour
E. 72 miles per hour
Answer Explanation
Common Formulae
The three formulae you must know:
Distance
Travel: Speed =
Time
Given amount
Calculating a percentage: x 100
Total amount
Difference
Calculating percentage change: x 100
Original
Remember, you might be given unusual values and asked to work backwards to derive a more standard measures.
So make sure you learn the formulae, but also understand the relationship between different terms.
Question Set 3
A zoo vet needs to sedate his elephants. To do this, he will use the special sedative Jumbodiazepam. In
elephants, the effective dose of Jumbodiazepam is one microgram per kilogram of bodyweight (a micro-
gram, μg, is one thousandth of a milligram), and the lethal dose is one and a half micrograms per kilogram
of bodyweight.
An average male bull elephant weighs 3 tonnes (a tonne is 1000kg), a female weighs two-thirds of this,
and a new-born calf weighs a quarter of its mother’s weight.
An average zoo-vet weighs 80kg.
Question 9
The vet has to sedate one bull elephant, two female elephants and three calves.
What is the minimum weight of pure Jumbodiazepam he needs to order?
A. 8500g
B. 0.0078g
C. 0.0085g
D. 0.0065g
E. 8.5g
Answer Explanation
Orders of Magnitude
Giga 109 1 000 000 000
Mega 106 1 000 000
Kilo 103 1 000
10° 1
Milli 10-3 0.001
Micro 10-6 0.000 001
Nano 10-9 0.000 000 001
Veterinary scientists have discovered that a compound found in peanuts lowers the tolerance thresholds of
elephants to Jumbodiazepam by one third.
What is the largest weight of a peanut-eating elephant, in kilograms, that could be killed by 2.5mg of Jumbodiazepam?
A. 5000
B. 2500
C. 2.5
D. 5
E. 3750
Answer Explanation
Question 11
During the nights, the elephants are kept inside open-topped rectangular rooms. Each room measures 5 metres in
both width and height and the length is twice the width. Each year, the zoo repaints the walls of the rooms.
How much paint do they require for each room?
A. 150 cm2
B. 1,500,000 cm2
C. 200 m2
D. 200,000,000 mm2
E. 250 m2
Answer Explanation
So, 1m2 =
So, 1m3 =
Geometric Formulae
2-dimensional shapes: 3-dimensional shapes:
Greg and Jim go to a hardware store. Jim buys 4 hammers and 2 packs of nails for £17. Greg buys 7 hammers and
a pack of nails for £23.50
How much would 3 hammers cost?
A. £1.95
B. £3
C. £6
D. £7.50
E. £9
Answer Explanation
Situational Judgement
“The situational judgement test (SJT) measures your capacity to understand real
world situations and to identify critical factors and appropriate behaviour in
dealing with them. Questions do not require medical or procedural knowledge.
The test assesses integrity, perspective taking, team involvement, resilience and
adaptability.”
In addition to the UCAT, situational judgement testing is widely used in medicine,
including:
• Medical school exams
• FY1 Applications
• GP applications
The aim is to present students with a range of different situations they might
encounter now or in their future work environment. Following this, a number of
possible actions are suggested.
Students must then rate how appropriate or important they believe an action to
be in the context of the scenario.
Scoring
The scoring is slightly confusing!
The best answer gets full points, but subsequent answers may score partial points. This helps mitigate against
some of the subjectivity associated with the section. For example, if you rated a response as ‘important’ but the
examiners felt it was ‘very important’, would it be fair to not give you any points? No! As such, as long as you’re close
to the right answer, there’s a good chance you’ll at least pick up some partial marks.
The raw score falls into 4 bands:
• Band 1 is the highest
• Band 4 is the lowest
The ‘band’ is then used by universities, and each university will use this differently (if at all!). As a general rule of
thumb, if you’re in Band 1 or 2 you should be safe to apply to almost every university.
Performance Descriptors
Those in Band 2 demonstrated a good, solid level of performance, showing appropriate judgement
Band 2
frequently, with many responses matching model answers.
Those in Band 3 demonstrated a modest level of performance, with appropriate judgement shown
Band 3
for some questions and substantial differences from ideal responses for others.
The performance of those in Band 4 was low, with judgement tending to differ substantially from
Band 4
ideal responses in many cases.
Golden Rules
SJT Format:
1. You do not require any specific medical or procedural knowledge
2. Rate the responses not the scenario
3. Ask yourself what you should do, not what you would do
SJT Questions:
1. Don’t lie - always inappropriate!
2. Do consider your timing. Do you need to do this/say this now?
3. Do take opportunities to raise concerns privately with those in authority
4. Don’t make any assumptions – answers need not contain everything you would do
It’s important you understand the formal definitions of the answer options:
This action positively addresses one or all parts of the scenario and is a
A very appropriate thing to do
positive action to undertake in the context of the scenario.
This action can be done in the context of the scenario, but it is not the most
Appropriate, but not ideal
positive or best way to go about it.
This action should not be done, and it is likely to negatively impact the
A very inappropriate thing to do
scenario, making the situation worse.
Question 1
Whilst on a work experience placement, Tom is shadowing a consultation between a GP and a patient. The patient
has come back to hear the results of an HIV test, which the GP told Tom was positive before the consultation. Be-
fore giving the results to the patient, the GP is called out to the room next door. Whilst waiting, the patient looks
at Tom and says ‘I can’t take this waiting – please can you just tell me the result’.
How appropriate is the following response by Tom in this situation:
Tell the patient he can’t as he doesn’t know the result.
A. Very appropriate
B. Appropriate, but not ideal
C. Inappropriate, but not awful
D. Very inappropriate
Answer Explanation
“Openness and honesty are key to being a good medical student and a safe and trustworthy doctor”.
- GMC Good Medical Practice
Question 2
Angela is working part-time in a coffee shop. It is a busy shift, and Angela needs to serve customers whilst also
perform a stock count, update the specials boards and help train a new employee.
How appropriate is the following response by Angela in this situation:
Start by asking another colleague to assist her.
A. Very appropriate
B. Appropriate, but not ideal
C. Inappropriate, but not awful
D. Very inappropriate
Answer Explanation
Pressure:
• Acute: dealing with an emergency situation
• Chronic: dealing with multiple upcoming deadlines
Question 3
Priya is a medical student on a surgical rotation. One day she arrives late to the operating theatre and the surgical
consultant asks her and her colleagues to perform a rectal examination on an anaesthetised patient to aid their
learning. She is unsure if consent has been obtained.
How appropriate is the following response by Priya in this situation:
Inform her colleagues that as the patient has not consented they must not perform the examination, and threaten
to report them to the medical school if they do.
A. Very appropriate
B. Appropriate, but not ideal
C. Inappropriate, but not awful
D. Very inappropriate
Answer Explanation
The choice of words used in the action will help to dictate the overall sentiment. Look out for positive and negative
verbs and adjectives:
Positive Negative
Truthful Propose Threaten Abuse
Honest Encourage Shout Refuse
Open Explore Intimidate Hide
Calm Listen Avoid Blame
Value Suggest Careless Shun
Support Recommend Impatient Accuse
Question 4
During his clinical placement as a medical student, Arif sees a patient with an interesting growth on their face. He
took a photograph of this and emailed it to another medical student, Justin, but by mistake sent the email to the
wrong person.
How appropriate is the following response by Arif in this situation:
He resends the email to the correct person and informs his supervisor of his mistake.
A. Very appropriate
B. Appropriate, but not ideal
C. Inappropriate, but not awful
D. Very inappropriate
Answer Explanation
Confidentiality is about maintaining the trust between doctors and patients. Doctors have a legal and ethical duty
to keep sensitive information confidential unless:
• The patient consents to disclosure
• Required by law
• Necessary in public interest
Before breaking confidentiality you must do everything to persuade the patient to agree and inform the patient of
your intended actions.
Be weary of social media scenarios in the SJT. There’s a useful guide to social media use for doctors and medical
students on the GMC website (https://www.gmc-uk.org/ethical-guidance/ethical-guidance-for-doctors/doctors-
use-of-social-media).
Confidentiality is a complex area – if in doubt ask!
The definitions of the importance style questions aren’t necessarily intuitive, so it’s important you know exactly
what each answer option means:
It is essential that you take this into account when addressing the scenario.
Very important
(You must do)
You should take this aspect into account however it is not absolutely essential.
Important
(You should do)
This action does not have a positive or negative impact, so whether you take it into
Of minor importance account or not doesn’t matter.
(You could do)
This action should not be taken into account and may have negative consequences
Not important at all if you do.
(You shouldn’t do)
Question 5
Sarah is the new junior doctor working on the respiratory firm. The job is notoriously busy and she finds herself
working late almost every day. Sarah’s registrar, Sophie, frequently leaves early, stating she ‘needs to pick up her
kids’. As a result Sarah is often without senior support in the afternoon when the days blood and other important
tests results come back.
How important is it to take into account the following considerations for Sarah when deciding how to respond to
the situation?
The need for the consultant being aware of the situation.
A. Very important
B. Important
C. Minor importance
D. Not important
Answer Explanation
“You must take prompt action if you think that patient safety, dignity or comfort is or may be seriously
compromised”.
- GMC Good Medical Practice
You must always act on any compromise to patient safety. Remember that inaction may lead to harm.
Seeking help is a positive trait:
• By asking for help when uncertain you ensure patient safety
• If in doubt – ask!
Be careful not to simply ‘offload’ your problems or workload to others.
Question 6
Will is the captain of the school football team. His team trains twice a week for an important upcoming tournament,
however one of the players, Fred, has consistently been turning up late and has missed several training sessions
entirely.
How important is it for Will to take the following into account when deciding how to respond to the situation?
The need to talk to Fred and explore why he’s been missing training.
A. Very important
B. Important
C. Minor importance
D. Not important
Answer Explanation
“You should understand that your own behaviour can influence how well a team works and be pre-
pared to adapt your behaviour to achieve the goals of the team”.
- GMC Tomorrow’s Doctors
Leadership
The UCAT also have a less common variation on ‘importance style’ questions where instead of four answer options,
you’re simply asked to rate an action as:
A. Important
B. Not important
The technique required is in essence identical. But instead of deciding on varying degrees of importance, you simply
need to decide whether an action is important or not overall.
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LARGEST SOURCE
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20,000+
School of Medicine graduates*
workforce*
*According to FSMB physician licensure data, 2021 *Based on the number of students who have completed
the Doctor of Medicine program from 1981-2022.
www.sgu.edu/md
C H A P T E R 0 7
As a general rule of thumb, the higher your score, the better your chance of being shortlisted for an interview.
When you apply to a university, they will use the UCAT as part of their shortlisting process. Your score will therefore
be relative to the others who apply to that particular university.
If your score is in the top two deciles (8th and 9th decile overall), you should stand a very good chance at most uni-
versities. The further from the top 20% your score falls, the greater the chance of not being shortlisted. This does
not mean that you won’t be shortlisted, but instead means you need to be strategic with your university choice.
But of course, UCAT is only part of the shortlisting process. Universities may also consider academics, such as GCSE
scores, and personal statements. This means that the lower your UCAT score, the more strategic you need to be
about where you apply, considering universities where the UCAT plays a lower part of the overall shortlisting for
interview stage.
The table below shows the total UCAT score required for each decile band in 2023:
1st 2150
2nd 2270
3rd 2360
4th 2440
5th 2510
6th 2580
7th 2660
8th 2760
9th 2890
Once you know how, you can move on to practising applying that information into questions. As the UCAT is an
online exam, this is best done using an online question bank.
Only once you’re consistently achieving above an 80% accuracy rate should you consider moving on to the final
stage.
The amount of time required for this stage is variable amongst individuals, but typically most people require 20 to
50 hours for this stage. It’s best to start 6 to 8 weeks prior to your UCAT exam once you’ve read and understood
the theory.
It is essential that you plan your revision well if you wish to achieve a great UCAT score. Most candidates find they
need around 6 to 8 weeks of preparation time, so plan ahead and make sure you select a UCAT date where you
have a relatively free calendar to revise in the preceding weeks.
Below is a selection of tools and suggested timelines to help you maximise your score.
□ Mastering the UCAT textbook – 3rd Edition (by Nordstrom, Rendel and Tavares)
Good luck!
www.themedicportal.com