.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series - 2024
CA Test – 06 – (CA3316)

(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check
that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI

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1. The ‘Berlin Process’, sometimes seen in the 5. Consider the following statements with reference
news, is related to: to the maritime security of India:
(a) Russia and Ukraine peace negotiations
1. Goa Maritime Conclave is a flagship event
(b) India-Canada diplomatic relations
aimed at propelling the Indian maritime
(c) Free trade agreement between Germany and
India economy by promoting global and regional
(d) Cooperation among the Western Balkans partnerships.
countries 2. Global Maritime India Summit (GMIS) aims
to identify gaps in regulatory and legal
2. Consider the following statements with reference
frameworks for achieving maritime security in
to the International Humanitarian Law (IHL):
the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
1. It applies only to armed conflicts and does not
cover internal tensions. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It applies equally to all sides regardless of correct?
who initiated the fighting. (a) 1 only
3. Unlike IHL, Human Rights Law applies in (b) 2 only
peacetime.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three 6. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD), sometimes
(d) None seen in the news, is mainly used for the treatment
of:
3. In the context of environment, the ‘solar tipping
(a) alzheimer’s disease
point’ is reached when:
(a) solar energy becomes economically (b) diabetes
competitive with fossil fuels (c) mental health disorder
(b) solar energy takes precedence as the primary (d) hypertension
source in agriculture production
(c) maximum capacity a solar panel can achieve
7. Consider the following statements with reference
before requiring replacement
to the Ultraviolet (UV)-C light:
(d) excess electricity stored in the electrical grid
produced by domestic solar panels 1. It has a shorter wavelength than Gamma
radiation.
4. Consider the following sports: 2. It is germicidal as it deactivates the DNA of
1. Cricket viruses and other pathogens.
2. Baseball
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Lacrosse
4. Flag football correct?
5. Squash (a) 1 only
The International Olympic Committee has recently (b) 2 only
included how many of the above for the Olympic (c) Both 1 and 2
Games Los Angeles 2028 (LA28)?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

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8. Which one of the following statements best 11. The Pink bollworm pest affects which of the
describes the term ‘Patient capital’? following crops?
(a) Capital that requires a long gestation period in 1. Cotton
the infrastructure sector 2. Okra
(b) Capital provided to economically 3. Hibiscus
disadvantaged population in the healthcare 4. Jute
industry Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Long-term investment where sustainable below:
growth is prioritised alongside financial (a) 1 only
returns (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Venture capital to support the integrated (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
digital health infrastructure of the country (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Consider the following statements with reference

12. The phrase ‘climate investment trap’ is used for:
to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(a) extraction and storage of excess carbon
Amendment Act of 2021:
dioxide from the atmosphere
1. It enhanced the upper gestation limit for the
(b) a program focused on replacement of all non-
termination of pregnancy from 20 to 24 weeks
renewable energy sources
for special categories of women.
(c) insufficient investments in climate-related
2. Upper gestation limit for termination of
projects
pregnancy does not apply in cases of
(d) trading in the credits that allow companies to
substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by
emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide
the Medical Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are
13. Consider the following pairs:
correct?
(a) 1 only Sl. Geographical State
(b) 2 only No. Indication (GI)
Tag
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Yak Churpi : Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Panangkarupatti : Tamil Nadu
3. Kalari Cuisine : Goa
10. ‘NexCAR19’, often talked about in media, is a/an: 4. Mankurad Mango Uttar Pradesh
(a) vaccination regime to prevent emerging
zoonotic infections How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) technology to synthetically produce the matched?
induced Pluripotent Stem (iPS) cells in a (a) Only one pair
laboratory (b) Only two pairs
(c) enzyme used to produce vaccines for genetic (c) Only three pairs
diseases caused by mutations (d) All four pairs
(d) indigenously developed cell therapy to cure
cancer

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14. Consider the following statements with reference 17. Which one of the following authorities is
to the SHRESHTA scheme: responsible to prevent dam-related disasters and
1. It aims to provide quality education to all resolve inter-State issues?
meritorious students in private schools across (a) National Dam Safety Authority
the country. (b) National Disaster Management Authority
2. The students are selected through the
(NDMA)
National Entrance Test conducted by the
(c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
National Testing Agency (NTA).
(d) Central Water Commission (CWC)
3. The Central Government will bear the total
cost of the school fees and hostel charges till
completion of their academics up to class 12. 18. Consider the following:
How many of the above statements are correct? 1. Higher government borrowing
(a) Only one 2. Higher inflation
(b) Only two 3. Higher interest rate
(c) All three How many of the above can lead to an increase
(d) None in the bond yield?
(a) Only one
15. Consider the following statements with reference (b) Only two
to the Green Credit Program (GCP):
(c) All three
1. It is launched under the Lifestyle for
(d) None
Environment (LiFE) movement.
2. It incentivises individuals and industries for
19. The ‘Rafah Crossing’, sometimes seen in the
their voluntary environmental actions.
3. The green credits earned under it will be news, is :
tradable on a domestic market platform. (a) a landlocked territory in the Levant region of
How many of the above statements are correct? Western Asia
(a) Only one (b) world’s first international wildlife corridor in
(b) Only two the Sahara Desert
(c) All three (c) the busiest shipping area in the world located
(d) None in the North Sea
(d) a border crossing point between Egypt and
16. With reference to the SIM card, consider the
the Gaza Strip
following statements:
1. In order for a mobile phone to connect to
20. Consider the following statements with reference
a cellular network that follows the Global
to the ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup, India 2023:
System for Mobile Communications (GSM)
standard, a SIM card is mandatory. 1. The first stage of the tournament was
2. It does not store any information about the conducted in a round-robin format where all
preferred networks or the users. teams played each other at least once.
3. In India, Aadhaar is mandatory for getting a 2. If teams are level on points their semifinal
mobile SIM card. spot will be decided based on their total wins.
How many of the above statements are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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21. The ‘Atlantic Charter’ is known for the 25. Consider the following statements with reference
establishment of which one of the following? to the Pichwai painting:
(a) International Monetary Fund 1. They are a traditional style of painting from
Odisha.
(b) European Union
2. They primarily revolve around the themes of
(c) United Nations
peasant uprisings in British India.
(d) North Atlantic Treaty Organization 3. They are known for the use of bright colours
along with the use of gold.
22. The IceCube and Trident telescopes are seen in How many of the above statements are correct?
the news in the context of: (a) Only one
(a) detection of neutrinos (b) Only two
(c) All three
(b) detection of gravitational waves
(d) None
(c) examination of cosmic history
(d) study of the Sun’s corona 26. The “Rosebank oil field” often heard in the news
roughly corresponds to which of the following
23. Consider the following statements with reference regions?
to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (a) North Sea
(1961): (b) Gulf of Mexico
(c) Strait of Hormuz
1. It guarantees free communication between
(d) Arabian Peninsula
a mission and its sending State by all
appropriate means. 27. Consider the following:
2. The receiving State may require the sending 1. Magnesium chloride
State to keep the size of a mission within 2. Polymers
reasonable limits. 3. Asphalt emulsions
3. The host State can ask the sending State to 4. Lignosulfonates
How many of the above are dust suppressants
recall its representatives without providing
used to control air pollution?
any explanation.
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) Only three
(b) Only two (d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None 28. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Monoclonal Antibodies (MABs):
1. They are laboratory-made proteins that mimic
24. Visa shopping sometimes seen in the news refers
the behaviour of antibodies produced by the
to: immune system.
(a) comparison of visa fees in different countries 2. All MABs produced from a cell are identical
before applying for one and have the same specificity for the target
(b) application for a visa from a country with more antigen.
lenient immigration policies Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) repeatedly applying for visas to extend one’s
(a) 1 only
stay in a foreign country
(b) 2 only
(d) obtaining visas for countries that individuals (c) Both 1 and 2
may or may not visit (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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29. Consider the following statements: 32. Consider the following statements with reference
Statement-I: The ozone hole appears in the to White Phosphorus:
Antarctica region at the beginning of the Southern 1. It burns quickly when exposed to air.
Hemisphere spring in August-October. 2. It is used in the manufacture of combustible
Statement-II: During spring time, Polar weapons.
Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) in the Antarctic 3. It is banned as a chemical weapon under
stratosphere allow chlorine and bromine reactions the Convention on the Prohibition of Use of
to produce the ozone hole. Certain Conventional Weapons.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of How many of the above statements are correct?
the above statements? (a) Only one
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are (b) Only two
(c) All three
correct and Statement–II is the correct
(d) None
explanation for Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
33. The Pontus Tectonic Plate corresponds to which
correct and Statement–II is not the correct
of the following regions on present-day earth?
explanation for Statement–I
(a) South China Sea
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is
(b) Black Sea
incorrect
(c) Mediterranean Sea
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is
(d) Arabian Sea
correct

34. Consider the following statements with reference

30. Which one of the following best describes the to Hemochromatosis:
‘Hycean planets’? 1. It is a rare genetic disorder that leads to
(a) Planets that primarily have a nitrogen-rich excess iron in the body.
atmosphere 2. It is also known as bronze diabetes because
(b) Planets covered in oceans that have an of the skin darkening.
atmosphere rich in hydrogen 3. It can be caused by blood transfusions from
(c) Planets that are found exclusively in binary infected persons.
star systems 4. It can be treated by removing red blood cells
(d) Planets that orbit pulsars or rapidly rotating from the body.
neutron stars How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
31. Consider the following: (b) Only two
1. Measles (c) Only three
2. Hepatitis B (d) All four
3. Zika
4. Tuberculosis 35. A National Crisis Management Committee
5. Smallpox (NCMC) set up by the Government of India
6. Polio in the wake of a natural calamity for effective
How many of the above diseases are included coordination is headed by?
under Mission Indradhanush 5.0? (a) Prime Minister
(a) Only three (b) Union Minister of Home Affairs
(b) Only four (c) Cabinet Secretary
(d) Union Minister of Environment, Forest and
(c) Only five
(d) All six Climate Change

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36. Consider the following statements with reference 39. Consider the following pairs:
to PUSA-44: Sl. International Related to
1. It is a variety of paddy developed by the Indian No. Agreement/
Convention
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
1. Palermo : Biodiversity
2. It is a long-duration variety that takes around Declaration Conservation
160 days to mature. 2. Cape Town : Aircraft Equipment
Convention
3. Its usage can lead to severe groundwater
3. Montreux : Nuclear wastes
depletion in the region of its cultivation. Convention
How many of the above statements are correct? How many pairs given above are correctly
(a) Only one matched?
(b) Only two (a) Only one pair
(c) All three (b) Only two pairs
(d) None (c) All three pairs
(d) None
37. Consider the following pairs:

Sl. Initiative Objective 40. With reference to ‘Antimatter’, consider the

No.
following statements:
1. Tele-MANAS : Provide mental health
initiative services to people
1. It has the same mass but opposite charge as
2. SHREYAS : Provide coaching its matter counterpart.
Scheme to economically 2. It cannot coexist with matter at close range.
disadvantaged
candidates 3. Unlike ordinary matter, antimatter rises
3. Sagar Parikrama : Provide early warning upward under the influence of gravity.
systems for a tropical How many of the above statements are correct?
cyclone
(a) Only one
How many pairs given above are correctly
(b) Only two
matched?
(c) All three
(a) Only one pair
(d) None
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None 41. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Olive Ridley Turtles:
38. With reference to Project Mariana, consider the 1. They are currently the most abundant of all
following statements: sea turtles in the world.
1. It is jointly launched by the World Bank and 2. They are the only sea turtle species to exhibit
the International Monetary Fund. synchronous mass nesting.
2. It primarily focuses on testing the feasibility of 3. They are known to lay eggs only once in their
transnational cryptocurrency transactions. reproductive lifetime.
3. Its Automated Market Maker (AMM) facilitates 4. The Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is the
the settlement of spot forex transactions. largest breeding site for sea turtles in the
How many of the above statements are correct? world.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four

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65. With reference to the Kathaprasangam, consider 69. ‘PBKnot Technology’ is seen in the news in which
the following statements: one of the following context?
1. It is a popular art of storytelling which blends (a) AI-based precision irrigation
the tradition of music and speech. (b) Soil temperature measurements
2. It has been influenced by the Chakyar Koothu
(c) Crop harvesting
art form.
(d) Pest attack management
3. It was used for social upliftment in Kerala in
the late 19th century.
70. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one Sl. Tribe Country
No.
(b) Only two
1. Bushmen : South Africa
(c) All three
(d) None 2. Bedouin : Egypt
3. Maoris : India

66. ‘Reference Fuel’, sometimes talked about in 4. Irula : New Zealand

media, is/are: How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) a fuel with octaxne number lower than the matched?
normal fuel
(a) Only one pair
(b) a fuel with octane number lower than the
(b) Only two pairs
premium fuel
(c) Only three pairs
(c) fuels used for emission testing of vehicles
equipped with spark ignition engines (d) All four pairs
(d) fuels made from renewable energy for
replacing fossil fuel 71. Brazzaville summit, recently seen in the news, is
related to which one of the following?
67. Consider the following pairs: (a) Ratification of global climate change
Sl. Name Species of agreement
No. (b) Water crisis in African region
1. Gurnards : Fish (c) Improvement of the ecological lungs of the
2. Yellow-rumped : Bird globe
flycatcher
3. Conocarpus : Bamboo
(d) Prevent the migration due to climate change

4. Candolleomyces : Mushroom
albosquamosus 72. With reference to the ‘Champions of the Earth’
How many of the pairs given above are correctly Award, consider the following statements:
matched? 1. It is the highest environmental honour granted
(a) Only one pair by the World Wildlife Fund.
(b) Only two pairs 2. It is conferred only on individuals and groups
(c) Only three pairs and not on institutions.
(d) All four pairs 3. No Indian has been the recipient of the award
till now.
68. The Edakkal caves, recently seen in the news,
How many of the above statements are correct?
are best known for:
(a) Only one
(a) prehistoric rock arts
(b) Only two
(b) Buddhist paintings
(c) All three
(c) megalithic structures
(d) None
(d) Jaina sculptures

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73. In India, which one of the following notifies the 77. Recently, there was a growing awareness about
Minimum Export Price (MEP)? the importance of watermeal plant in space
(a) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) research because it has been found to be a
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices source of:
(CACP)
(a) liquified hydrogen
(c) Agricultural Produce and Livestock Market
(b) drinking water
Committee (APMC)
(d) Agricultural and Processed Food Products (c) vitamin B12
Export Development Authority (APEDA) (d) oxygen

74. The ‘RISC-V’, sometimes mentioned in the news, 78. Consider the following statements with reference
is: to the Section 54EC bonds:
(a) a state-of-the-art chip technology to store 1. They are fixed income instruments that
confidential data
provide tax exemption under capital gains to
(b) a standard instruction set architecture used to
investors.
design processors for digital gadgets
(c) a technology used in the spacecraft for storing 2. They have a lock-in period of five years and
information are non-transferable.
(d) a technology used for transporting Which of the statements given above is/are
nanomedicines in the human body correct?
(a) 1 only
75. Consider the following statements with reference (b) 2 only
to microbiome:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It includes bacteria, fungi, protozoa and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
viruses.
2. Autoimmune diseases such as diabetes are
associated with dysfunction in the microbiome. 79. Consider the following statements with reference
3. The Human Microbiome Project is launched to Nanoparticles:
by the World Health Organisation (WHO) to 1. They can be created as the by-products of
map the human microbiome. combustion reactions.
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. They have a very large surface area to volume
(a) Only one
ratio when compared to bulk material.
(b) Only two
3. Titanium oxide nanoparticles are used in the
(c) All three
(d) None cosmetic industry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
76. Consider the following statements with reference (a) Only one
to the Asia Pacific Institute for Broadcasting (b) Only two
Development (AIBD): (c) All three
1. It was established under the auspices of the (d) None
United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).
80. The ‘APEP mission’, recently seen in the news,
2. All India Radio is the only broadcasting
authority representing India in AIBD. aims to:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) explore the Jupiter Trojan asteroids
correct? (b) study the interstellar space beyond the Sun’s
(a) 1 only heliosphere
(b) 2 only (c) search for the existence of water on Mars
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) study the effects of solar eclipse on the upper
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 atmosphere

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81. In which one of the following groups are all the five 84. Consider the following statements with reference
countries founding members of the Organization to the Nobel Prize:
of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC): 1. It can only be shared by up to three persons
(a) Qatar, Indonesia, Libya, United Arab Emirates, at a time.
Algeria 2. Self-nomination is not allowed in any of the
(b) Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela categories.
(c) Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, United Arab 3. Once granted, a Nobel Prize cannot be
Emirates, Iran, Iraq revoked.
(d) Qatar, Indonesia, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, How many of the above statements are correct?
Venezuela (a) Only one
(b) Only two
82. Consider the following statements with reference (c) All three
to the Territorial Army (TA): (d) None
1. It is regulated under the Army Act, 1950.
2. It is a part time civilian force and is voluntary 85. Consider the following statements with reference
in nature. to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme:
3. All citizens above the age of 21 are eligible to 1. Trading activities under the scheme will be
join the TA. regulated by the Central Electricity Regulatory
4. It cannot be deployed in times of war or Commission.
internal disturbances. 2. It will issue one carbon credit certificate for
How many of the above statements are correct? every ton of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e)
(a) Only one emissions reduced from the environment.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Only three correct?
(d) All four (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
83. In the context of ecology, sympatric speciation is (c) Both 1 and 2
the process by which: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) two or more new species evolve from a single
ancestral species while living in the same 86. ‘Bharat NCX 2023’ was recently seen in the news
geographic area in the context of:
(b) two or more new species evolve from a single (a) renewable energy funds
ancestral species through hybridization (b) natural gas trade
(c) two or more new species evolve from a (c) cyber threats
single ancestral species after becoming (d) sustainable fisheries projects
geographically isolated
(d) two or more new species evolve from multiple
ancestral species through hybridization

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87. Consider the following statements with reference 90. With reference to Natural rubber, consider the
to the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty following statements:
(CTBT): 1. It is made from monomer isoprene.
1. It is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear 2. India is the second biggest consumer of
explosions for military or peaceful purposes. natural rubber in the world.
2. No State has the right to withdraw from the 3. Tripura is the second largest producer of
treaty unless authorised by all the Member natural rubber in India, after Kerala.
States. How many of the above statements are correct?

3. India along with China and USA have not (a) Only one

ratified the treaty. (b) Only two

How many of the above statements are correct? (c) All three
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
91. With reference to the ‘Lucy Mission’, consider the
(c) All three
following statements:
(d) None
1. It is the first spacecraft launched to explore
the Trojan asteroids.
88. Consider the following statements with reference
2. It will travel into interstellar space to collect
to the Continuously Operating Reference Stations
information relating to the origins of the
(CORS) Network:
universe.
1. It can provide precise location-based data that
3. It was launched by the European Space
can help in the study of upper atmosphere
Agency in collaboration with the Indian Space
and space weather.
Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. It will be operated by the Regional Remote
How many of the above statements are correct?
Sensing Centre of the Indian Space Research
(a) Only one
Organisation (ISRO).
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 92. With reference to global climate, the climate ‘poly-
(c) Both 1 and 2 crisis’ refers to:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) extinction of several marine organisms due to
excess of polypropylene in the oceans
89. The provision of ‘dynamic injunction’ was recently (b) interconnected climate disasters that are
seen in the news in the context of: affecting the planet across several sectors
(a) capitalisation of Public Sector Banks (c) process to measure the amount of carbon
(b) protection of copyrighted works dioxide equivalents that will not be released
(c) compensation for environmental damage into the atmosphere
(d) foreign trade restrictions (d) analysis of specific emerging situations that
might threaten society or the environment

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93. Consider the following statements with reference 96. Consider the following statements with reference
to ‘Panchnamas’ in the judicial system: to Iron Dome:
1. It is a document having legal bearing that 1. It is a ground-to-air, short-range air defence
records evidence and findings at the scene of system.
a crime.
2. Unlike the air defence systems designed to
2. The term ‘Panchanama’ is not defined
stop ballistic missiles, the Iron Dome targets
anywhere in the Code of Criminal Procedure,
unguided rockets at low altitudes.
1973.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. With reference to the Plasma waves, consider the 97. Which one of the following statements is correct
following statements: with reference to the Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
1. They control the dynamics of the Earth’s (a) It is a rare condition where the immune system
magnetosphere.
attacks the nerves of the body.
2. They are involved in the generation of auroras
(b) It is a genetic disorder caused by the presence
at the earth’s poles.
of an extra chromosome.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) It is a mental health syndrome experienced by
correct?
(a) 1 only intelligence officials in foreign countries.

(b) 2 only (d) It is an inherited genetic disorder that is passed

(c) Both 1 and 2 down from parents to children.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Consider the following countries:
95. With reference to the withholding tax, consider 1. Australia
the following statements: 2. New Zealand
1. It ensures that the government receives 3. Bangladesh
a portion of the income tax owed by the
4. Somalia
recipient.
5. Thailand
2. It is not applicable in the case of payments
6. Vietnam
made to non-resident individuals.
7. South Africa
3. It is levied at the rate prescribed in the
How many of the above are members of the
Income Tax Act, 1961 or the Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement, whichever is lower. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)?
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only four
(a) Only one (b) Only five
(b) Only two (c) Only six
(c) All three (d) All seven
(d) None

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI

.
99. Which of the following statements is correct with
reference to the Global Framework on Chemicals
(GFC)?
(a) It bans the transboundary movement of
hazardous chemicals.
(b) It aims to eliminate or restrict the production
of persistent organic pollutants.
(c) It eliminates the use and release of mercury
from Artisanal and Small-Scale Gold Mining.
(d) It aims to phase out highly hazardous
pesticides in agriculture by 2035.

100. With reference to Thallium, consider the following

statements:
1. It is found in trace amounts in the earth’s
crust.
2. It has no colour and is highly soluble in water.
3. The Prussian blue tablet is used to remove
thallium from the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Test No. – 06 (CA3316)
 .
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Institute for IAS Examination

Current Affairs Test – 06

(CA3316)

Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanation
 .
PowerUp Current Affairs Test - 06 (CA3316) - Answer Key
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (b) 71. (c) 81. (b) 91. (a)
2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (b) 42. (c) 52. (b) 62. (a) 72. (d) 82. (a) 92. (b)
3. (a) 13. (b) 23. (c) 33. (a) 43. (c) 53. (b) 63. (c) 73. (a) 83. (a) 93. (c)
4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (b) 84. (c) 94. (c)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (b)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (a) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (c) 96. (c)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (d) 37. (b) 47. (d) 57. (a) 67. (c) 77. (d) 87. (b) 97. (a)
8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (c) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (b) 68. (a) 78. (c) 88. (a) 98. (b)
9. (c) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (a) 49. (b) 59. (a) 69. (d) 79. (c) 89. (b) 99. (d)
10. (d) 20. (c) 30. (b) 40. (b) 50. (c) 60. (b) 70. (b) 80. (d) 90. (c) 100. (d)

Q1.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Berlin Process: It is a diplomatic initiative and a series of meetings and summits aimed at fostering
cooperation and promoting stability in the Western Balkans.
● The Berlin process was set up in 2014 as a platform for high-level cooperation between high official
representatives of the Western Balkan Six (WB6), consisting of Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina,
Kosovo, Montenegro, North Macedonia and Serbia, and their peers in Berlin Process host countries.
● The Process also involves the European Union institutions, international financial institutions and the
region’s civil society, the Regional Youth Cooperation Office (RYCO) and businesses.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Berlin Process summit was organized in Tirana, Albania.

Q2.
Answer: c
Explanation:
International Humanitarian Law (IHL), also known as the law of war or the law of armed conflict, is a set of rules
which seek, for humanitarian reasons, to limit the effects of armed conflict. It protects persons who are not or
are no longer participating in the hostilities and restricts the means and methods of warfare. A major part of
international humanitarian law is contained in the four Geneva Conventions of 1949. The Conventions have
been developed and supplemented by two further agreements: the Additional Protocols of 1977 relating to the
protection of victims of armed conflicts.
● IHL applies only to armed conflict; it does not cover internal tensions or disturbances such as isolated
acts of violence. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The law applies only once a conflict has begun, and then equally to all sides regardless of who started
the fighting. IHL distinguishes between international and non-international armed conflict. So,
statement 2 is correct.

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● While some of the rules of the IHL and Human Rights Law are similar, these bodies have developed
separately and are contained in different treaties. In particular, Human Rights Law – unlike international
humanitarian law – applies in peacetime, and many of its provisions may be suspended during an armed
conflict. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Amnesty International and Human Rights Watch have accused the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) of
using white phosphorus munitions in Gaza, in violation of International Humanitarian Law (IHL).

Q3.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A tipping point in technology signifies the shift from fossil fuel-based to zero-emission technologies. A
solar tipping point is where solar energy combined with energy storage becomes more cost-effective
than coal and gas power.
● But beyond the tipping point, the momentum is with the new technology. It grows fast, and benefits
from the reinforcing feedback – the more people buy it, the more people invest in it, its cost comes
down, it improves, and then more people want to buy it, and this keeps going around and around. After
passing the tipping point, the transition tends to accelerate and solar energy takes precedence as the
primary source of global electricity production.
● Solar panels have a long lifespan but their ability to capture sunlight diminishes gradually. Solar panels
produce less electricity as they age which is known as solar panel degradation rate.
● A solar metering energy system is a system that uses the electrical grid to store the excess electricity
produced by domestic or commercial solar panels. The electrical meter installed inside a house or any
other commercial building records the power consumption. Thus, people only need to pay for the net
energy consumed by them.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: New research suggested that the world may have crossed a "tipping point" that will inevitably make
solar power the main source of energy.

Q4.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Recently, baseball/softball, cricket (T20), flag football, lacrosse (sixes) and squash have been officially
included as additional sports on the programme for the Olympic Games Los Angeles 2028 (LA28). The
decision has been taken at the 141st Session of the International Olympic Committee (IOC). So, points
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● Baseball and softball have been part of the programme at several editions of the Olympic Games,
most recently at Tokyo 2020.
● Cricket was on the programme for the Olympic Games Paris 1900.
● Lacrosse was included on the programme at St Louis 1904 and London 1908.
● Flag football and squash will make their Olympic debut at LA28.
So, all five of the above games are included in the Olympics Los Angeles 2028 (LA28).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The International Olympic Committee has approved 5 new games for the 2028 Los Angeles Olympic
Games.

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Q5.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) is the Indian Navy's outreach initiative, where the non-traditional threats
in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and other issues are discussed.
● Chiefs of navies or heads of maritime forces from 12 Indian Ocean littorals - Bangladesh, Comoros,
Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius, Myanmar, Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka and
Thailand - participate in the event
● Aims and objectives of the Goa Maritime Conclave:
o Identifying gaps in regulatory and legal frameworks for achieving maritime security in the IOR.
So statement 1 is not correct.
o Formulation of a common multilateral maritime strategy and operating protocols for GMC
nations for collective mitigation of maritime threats and challenges
o Identification and establishment of collaborative training programmes with center of excellence
across the IOR
o Leveraging activities pursued through existing multilateral organisations in the IOR towards
generating collective maritime competencies
● Global Maritime India Summit (GMIS) is a flagship event aimed at propelling the Indian maritime
economy by promoting global and regional partnerships and facilitating investments. It is an annual
meet of the Indian and international maritime community to address key industry issues and exchange
ideas to bring the sector forward. So statement 2 is not correct.
o Driven by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, GMIS 2023 brings together global
maritime players, policy makers and regulators, key opinion leaders and industry leaders through
a series of engaging dialogues, forums and knowledge exchange platforms.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the fourth edition of Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) was conducted.

Q6.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is a synthetic (man-made) drug that is mainly being used to treat people
with mental health disorders, especially with major depression status. It has been known for its
hallucinogenic properties (that alters perception, mood and a host of cognitive processes) since the
1960s. If consumed in a sufficiently large dose, LSD produces delusions and visual hallucinations that
distort the user's sense of time and identity.
● Hallucinogens like LSD are experiencing renewed interest for their potential in treating psychiatric and
substance use disorders, driven by research and positive media coverage of their therapeutic benefits.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent research shows Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) use is on the rise, most prevalently among
the depressed.

Q7.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Ultraviolet light is part of the light spectrum, which is classified into three wavelength ranges: UV-C,
from 100 nanometers (nm) to 280 nm, UV-B, from 280 nm to 315 nm, UV-A, from 315 nm to 400 nm.

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UV-C has a longer wavelength than Gamma radiation and shorter wavelength than Visible light. So,
statement 1 is not correct.

● UV-C light is germicidal, which means that it deactivates the DNA of bacteria, viruses, and other
pathogens, reducing their ability to grow and cause disease. UV-C radiation specifically damages
microorganism nucleic acids by generating covalent bonds between certain neighboring bases in the
DNA. The creation of such connections prevents the DNA from being unzipped for replication, preventing
the organism from reproducing. In fact, the creature dies when it tries to replicate. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: New research at MIT suggests that germicidal UV lights can produce potentially harmful compounds
in indoor spaces.

Q8.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Patient capital: It is a term used to describe long-term investment, in the form of debt or equity, where
sustainable growth is prioritised alongside financial returns. Patient capital strategies vary between
funds and business sectors, but typically see investments maintained for many years before exiting.
● During this time, patient capital funds may offer additional support to investee businesses in the form
of follow-on funding, to help accelerate their growth and increase Return On Investment (ROI).
● Patient capital helps small businesses to unlock their growth potential, by enabling them to invest in
infrastructure and R&D, make senior hires, expand into new markets, and so on.
● Long-term partnerships with investors also provide opportunities for significant value-add, such as
technical or sector expertise, mentoring, and other non-financial support to maximise growth.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to recent findings, the patient capital with no exit mandates can benefit founders in India,
where it can take much longer to become sustainable.

Q9.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act of 2021 enhanced the upper gestation limit
from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women which will be defined in the amendments to the
MTP Rules and would include survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like
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differently-abled women, minors) etc. Opinion of only one provider will be required for termination of
pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation and of two providers for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks
of gestation. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The provisions relating to the length of the pregnancy shall not apply to the termination of pregnancy
by the medical practitioner where such termination is necessitated by the diagnosis of any of the
substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by a Medical Board, which is to be constituted by the State
Government as per prescribed norms. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Other important facts about the MTP Act:

● If there is a change in a person’s marital status during the ongoing pregnancy (due to
widowhood or divorce), after seeking the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners, the pregnancy can be terminated up to 24 weeks of gestational age.
● According to Section 5A of the MTP act, registered medical providers may only
“disclose the name and other particulars of a lady whose pregnancy has been
terminated” to a person who has been authorized by law. If these medical personnel
violate or otherwise violate the woman’s privacy, they could spend up to a year in jail,
pay a fine, or even both.
Relevance: Recently, the Supreme Court rejected a married woman's plea to abort a 27-week pregnancy, citing
foetal viability and upholding the MTP Act.

Q10.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● NexCAR19 is an indigenously developed CD19-targeted
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy. CD-19 is a
biomarker for B lymphocytes and can be utilised as a target
for leukemia immunotherapies.
● NexCAR19 has shown an excellent balance of efficacy and
low toxicity, which is a significant advantage in clinical
management (post-infusion) of the patients.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Knowledge Box

CAR-T-cell therapy:
● It is a type of cancer immunotherapy treatment where blood is first drawn from the
patient. Then, immune cells called T-cells are genetically modified in a laboratory and
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are injected back into the patient to enable the cells to locate and destroy cancer cells
more effectively.
● It improves immunogenic memory, allowing for ongoing monitoring of local and distant
metastatic lesions. It recognizes and removes damaged cells as well as cells infected
with diseases such as viruses and malignant cells. It also lessens the need for severe
chemotherapy.
Relevance: Recently, the the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) gave its approval for India’s
first Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy.

Q11.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Pink Bollworm (PBW) is one of the most destructive pests of cotton. Originally native to India, it is now
recorded in nearly all the cotton-growing countries of the world.
● The pink bollworm’s larva feeds only on a few crops such as cotton, okra, hibiscus and jute. It lays eggs
on flowers, young bolls, axils, petioles and the undersides of young leaves. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct.
● Integrated pest management practices, including crop rotation, resistant varieties and biological control
agents, are effective methods to deal with pink bollworm infestation. Using pheromone traps to monitor
the adult moth activity is also a method. Thus, to control PBW both biological and chemical methods
can be used like insecticides. The Government of India introduced the genetically modified pest-resistant
cotton variety Bt Cotton (Bollgard II seed) to provide resistance against the American bollworm, pink
bollworm and spotted bollworm. However, the pink bollworm has developed resistance to Bt cotton
over time.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the pink bollworm pest has decimated Bt Cotton crops in the northern cotton zone causing
the most severe damage in the last two decades.

Q12.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A climate investment trap occurs when climate-related investments remain chronically insufficient, due
to a set of self-reinforcing mechanisms with dynamics similar to those of the poverty trap.
● Finance is vital for the green energy transition, but access to low-cost finance is uneven as the cost of
capital differs substantially between regions. Developed regions are by far the largest recipients, with
developing economies, particularly those in Africa, receiving only a small proportion. Differences in
macroeconomic conditions, business confidence, policy uncertainties and regulatory frameworks
define investment conditions.
● Energy system transitions in developing economies require particularly high investment, but given their
underdeveloped financial markets and domestic risks, investors apply high-risk premiums to the finance

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they make available, making the transition more expensive
than in countries with lower perceived risk. Investments are
thus usually foregone, creating a climate investment trap.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent research has shown that higher cost of finance
exacerbates a climate investment trap in developing economies.

Q13.
Answer: b
Explanation:
A Geographical Indication (GI) tag represents a product’s quality,
reputation of other attributes that can be identified by where it
originates. GIs are covered as an element of Intellectual Property
Rights (IPRs). They are also covered under the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
Agreement of WTO. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to
provide for the registration and better protection of GIs relating to goods in India. This GI tag is valid for 10
years following which it can be renewed.
● A first-ever yak milk product, Arunachal Yak Churpi, along with Khaw Tai (Khamti rice) and Tangsa textile,
has got the GI tag. Churpi is prepared from the milk of Arunachali yak, is an excellent source of proteins
and is frequently used as a substitute for vegetables by tribal yak herders in the vegetation-starved cold
mountainous regions of Arunachal Pradesh. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Udangudi ‘Panangkarupatti’ (palm jaggery) from Tamil Nadu has been given a GI tag. The palm jaggery
preparation procedure in this area is traditional to date without the inclusion of any additional modern
strategies and chemical additives. It has a unique taste due to the presence of red sand dune soil found
in the region. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● The Udhampur churned milk speciality Kalari and Basohli Pashmina, known for their feather-like
softness, are both from Jammu and Kashmir and have received the GI Tags. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
● Mankurad mangoes also known as ‘poor coloured mangoes’ from Goa recently received GI tag. Also
Bebinca, known as ‘queen of Goan deserts’, which is a traditional Indo-Portuguese pudding, received the
GI tag. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Udangudi ‘Panangkarupatti’ (palm jaggery) has been given a Geographical Indication (GI)
tag.

Q14.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● ‘SHRESHTA’- Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas is for
Scheduled Caste (SC) students who could not reach for higher quality education. The Scheme aims to
provide easier access to the meritorious SC students in the best schools in the country for their
educational and holistic development, thereby securing their future opportunities. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● The scheme is being implemented in two modes: One is SHRESHTA schools, (Best CBSE/State Board
affiliated Private Residential Schools). Under this, each year a specified number of meritorious SC

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students in States/UTs will be selected through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be
conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) and admitted in SHRESHTA schools in classes 9th and
11th for completion of education till 12th standard. The second mode is NGO/VO-operated
Schools/Hostels and other organizations having higher classes (up to class 12) and who have been
receiving Grant-in-aid. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Approximately 3000 (1500 for 9th class and 1500 for class 11th tentative) SC students, whose parents'
annual income is up to 2.5 lahks, are selected every year. The total fee for the student covering the
school fee (including tuition fees) and hostel fee (including mess charges) would be borne by the Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Government has approved a new scheme named SHRESHTA (Residential
Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas).

Q15.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Green Credit Program (GCP) is an innovative market-based mechanism designed to incentivize
voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors, by various stakeholders like individuals,
communities, private sector industries, and companies. The programme is a domestic voluntary market
mechanism, where green credit serves as a singular unit of credit provided for each specified activity.
So, statement 2 is correct.
o It was announced in 2021 under the Government of India's ‘Lifestyle for Environment’ or ‘LiFE’
movement. In its initial phase, it focused on two key activities: Water conservation and
afforestation. The calculation of green credit in respect of any activity undertaken shall be based
on the equivalence of resource requirements, parity of scale, scope, size and other relevant
parameters required to achieve the desired environmental outcome. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Green Credit registry and trading platform, being developed by the Indian Council of Forestry
Research and Education (ICFRE) along with experts, would facilitate the registration and thereafter, the
buying and selling of green credits. The green credits will be tradable and those earning them will be
able to put these credits up for sale on a proposed domestic market platform. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change has recently notified the Green
Credit Program.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
‘SIM’ stands for ‘Subscriber Identification Module’. It is an integrated circuit, or a microchip, that identifies the
subscriber on a given network.
● In order for a mobile phone to connect to any cellular network that follows the Global System for
Mobile Communications (GSM) standard, a SIM card is mandatory. This relationship is established using
a unique authentication key – a piece of data that a user needs to ‘unlock’ access to the network. So,
statement 1 is correct.

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● SIM cards also store information about its own ID number (the integrated circuit card identifier), the
IMSI, the subscriber’s location area identity (i.e. their current location), a list of preferred networks (to
whom the subscriber can connect when roaming), emergency numbers, and – depending on the space
available – the subscriber’s contacts and SMS messages. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● According to the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), Aadhaar is not mandatory for getting
mobile SIM. As per the amendments of the Telegraph Act, 1885, telecom users can use their Aadhaar
number as a KYC document along with authentication on a voluntary basis to obtain a new mobile
connection. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● SIM cards are designed according to the ISO/IEC 7816 international standard
maintained by – as its name indicates – the International Organisation for
Standardisation and the International Electrotechnical Commission. It applies to
electronic identification cards, including smart cards.
● In the eSIM paradigm, the SIM software is loaded to a UICC that is permanently
installed in the mobile equipment in the factory itself, i.e. it can’t be removed. (This is
called the eUICC.)
Relevance: Recently, India has seen a rise in a number of SIM-swapping cases.

Q17.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Dam Safety Act, 2021, was enacted as a response to deficient surveillance and maintenance causing dam
failure-related disasters. The Act listed key responsibilities and mandated that national and State-level bodies
be established for implementation.
● It said a National Committee on Dam Safety would oversee dam safety policies and regulations; a
National Dam Safety Authority would be charged with implementation and resolving State-level
disputes.
● The Chairman of the Central Water Commission (CWC) would head dam safety protocols at the national
level; a State Committee on Dam Safety (SCDS) and State Dam Safety Organisation (SDSO) would be set
up.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to a recent study, India has almost 6,000 large dams and about 80% of them are more
than 25 years old and carry safety risks.

Q18.
Answer: c
Explanation:
A bond is a type of loan made by an investor to a borrower – a company or an institution – for a fixed period of
time in return for regular interest payments. The yield on a bond is the return an investor expects to receive
each year over its term to maturity. The prices at which investors buy and sell bonds (bond price) in the
secondary market move in the opposite direction to the yields.
● Higher government borrowing through issuance of securities, especially when inflation is high, will push
up yields on bonds and result in a fall in bond price. A higher yield means the government will have to
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pay more as return to investors, leading to a rise in the cost of borrowing. This will impact the financial
system, and put upward pressure on general interest rates. So, point 1 is correct.
● If market participants believe that there is higher inflation on the horizon, interest rates and bond yields
will rise (and prices will decrease) to compensate for the loss of the purchasing power of future cash
flows. Bonds with the longest cash flows will see their yields rise and prices fall the most. So, point 2 is
correct.
● Bond prices are inversely related to interest rates. When a Central Bank raises its target interest rate, it
makes the existing bonds with lower rates less valuable. Prices of bonds fall and the bond yield rises. So,
point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above can lead to an increase in the bond yield.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the US bond yield hit a 16-year high of 5 per cent.

Q19.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Gaza, home to more than two million people, currently has
three functional entry and exit points — the Erez or the Beit
Hanoun crossing in the north and the Karem Abu Salem and
Rafah crossings in the south.
● Opposite the Erez crossing in the north is the Rafah point on
the border with the Sinai Peninsula of Egypt — a vast, volatile
Egyptian territory of mountains and desert which has been a
centre of conflict for decades, starting with the first Arab-Israeli
war in 1948.
● This crossing is the primary exit point from Gaza due to
longstanding restrictions associated with the blockade at the
Erez crossing. Since it serves as a vital link between the Gaza strip and the outside world, the Rafah
crossing is widely referred to as the lifeline of the Gaza Strip. It is under the management of Egypt as per
a 2007 agreement with Israel. It is the only border not directly controlled by Israel, but the approval of
Israeli authorities is still required for supplies to enter Gaza from Egypt.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Rafah crossing has become a focal point to deliver aid to Palestinians.

Q20.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The ICC ODI World Cup 2023 Men's Cricket World Cup was held in India from 5 October to 19
November 2023. It was the 13th edition of the tournament and the fourth time India has hosted the
event.
● The first stage of the tournament was conducted in a round-robin format where all teams played each
other once, resulting in 45 matches. The top four teams at the end of the round-robin stage will qualify
for the semifinals. So, statement 1 is correct.
● If teams are level on points their semi final spot will be decided on the basis of total wins. The net run
rate is the next factor to consider when differentiating teams. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Knowledge Box

● The following technology may be used by the third umpire during a Player Review:
o Replays, at any speed, from any available broadcast camera
o Sound from the stump microphones with the replays at normal speed and slow
motion
o Approved ball-tracking technology:
▪ HawkEye (HawkEye Innovations), or;
▪ VirtualEye (ARL)
o Approved sound-based edge detection technology.
▪ Real-Time Snickometer (BBG Sports), or;
▪ UltraEdge (HawkEye Innovations)
● The hours of play on the Reserve Day shall be the same as on the scheduled day for
the match (including the extra time provision). If play is interrupted on the scheduled
day, the umpires shall use the available extra time and, if necessary, reduce the
number of overs to try to achieve a result on that day.
Relevance: India hosted the 13th edition of the ICC Men's World Cup 2023 in October-November 2023.

Q21.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● United Nations (UN): It is an intergovernmental organization that was established with the purpose of
promoting international cooperation and maintaining peace and security among its member states. It
emerged from the remnants of a previous international organization established to prevent war i.e. the
League of Nations, formed in 1919 following World War I as a component of the Treaty of Versailles.
● In 1941 during World War II, representatives from 26 countries signed the Atlantic Charter, which called
for the establishment of a post-war organization to promote international cooperation and prevent
future wars. The UN was founded after the signing of the UN Charter by 51 countries in 1945. The
headquarters of the UN is located in New York City.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: October 25 marks the Foundation Day of the United Nations.

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● IceCube telescope is currently the largest neutrino-detecting telescope of the University of Madison-
Wisconson. It is situated deep in the Antarctic and the sensors of the telescope span around 1 cubic
kilometer. China is building ‘Trident’ , an enormous telescope in the western Pacific Ocean. Its primary
objective will be to detect “ghost particles'', also known as neutrinos. It will be the largest neutrino
detecting telescope which will span 7.5 cubic kilometers in the South China Sea.
● Neutrinos are a type of electron but like neutrons they are uncharged particles. They're incredibly
abundant, with trillions passing through us every second, yet extremely tiny. Initially thought to be
without mass, scientists later discovered they possess a very small amount. Due to their weak charge
and minuscule mass, detecting neutrinos has been a significant challenge. They become noticeable only
when interacting with other particles. Their rarity of interactions makes them elusive, earning them
the moniker "ghost particles."
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● Occasionally, they interact with water molecules, motivating China's construction of an underwater
telescope. Scientists have glimpsed them when they produce light flashes, called muons while passing
through water or ice. These flashes can be captured by advanced underwater telescopes, offering a rare
method to investigate neutrinos' energy and origins. There's growing evidence that understanding
neutrinos is crucial for comprehending the beginnings of our universe.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In a recent article published, scientists said that China is building the largest ghost particle detector.

Q23.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) is a treaty established by the United Nations,
outlining fundamental principles and guidelines for the treatment of diplomatic envoys between
nations. This framework aims to foster friendly relations and facilitate effective communication channels
among countries.
● The Convention guarantees free communication between a mission and its sending State by all
appropriate means and ensures that the diplomatic bag carrying such communications may not be
opened or detained even on suspicion of abuse. Given the purposes of diplomatic missions, secure
communication for information and instructions is probably the most essential of all immunities. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● In the absence of specific agreement as to the size of the mission, the receiving State may require that
the size of a mission be kept within limits considered by it to be reasonable and normal, having regard
to circumstances and conditions in the receiving State and to the needs of the particular mission. The
receiving State may equally, within similar bounds and on a non-discriminatory basis, refuse to accept
officials of a particular category. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Convention stipulates that the host State can, without justifying, inform the sending State at any
time that the head of the mission or any member of the diplomatic staff is considered persona non
grata or unwelcome. The article further specifies that in such a situation, the sending State must, either
recall the individual in question or terminate their functions with the mission. Additionally, if the sending
State declines to recall their diplomats, the host State has the right to withhold recognition of the
individual as a member of the mission. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● One significant provision within this convention is that of diplomatic immunity,

granting diplomatic exemption from specific laws and taxes in the host country. This
privilege is designed to enable diplomats to carry out their duties without fear of
coercion or harassment from the host nation.
● The concept of diplomatic immunity stems from this convention and the Convention
on Consular Relations, 1963. Article 29 of the 1961 Convention explicitly states, "The
person of a diplomatic agent shall be inviolable. He shall not be liable to any form of
arrest or detention. The receiving State shall treat him with due respect and shall take
all appropriate steps to prevent any attack on his person, freedom or dignity".
● Ratification means that a country should seek approval for the treaty on the domestic
level and enact a law in their country to give effect to it. 193 countries have ratified the
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convention, meaning they agree it should be legally binding on them. India ratified it
through the Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act of 1972.
Relevance: Recently, the External Affairs Minister of India said that Canada’s inability to provide safety and
security to Indian diplomats challenges the most fundamental aspect of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic
Relations.

Q24.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Visa shopping: It refers to obtaining visas for countries that individuals may or may not visit during the
granted visa period. This is because such visas can provide a gateway for people to enter their preferred
countries, particularly in Europe, even if they have obtained a visa for another European nation.
● Additionally, people who have no immediate plans to visit a specific country are also purchasing visas
for such nations. This is to increase the chances of obtaining visas for countries of their choice in the
future, given how the application process often takes a long time or has chances of rejection. Also, visas
usually remain valid for a few years after being issued.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Embassy of Estonia in New Delhi issued a statement advising against visa shopping.

Q25.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Pichwai painting is a traditional style of painting of the state of Rajasthan. The history of this art form
can be traced back to the 17th century. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The paintings primarily revolve around religious themes. The theme mainly features the various stages
of Lord Krishna’s life. They are often used to decorate the backdrops of Hindu temples, where they serve
as a visual representation of the stories associated with Lord Krishna. These paintings have distinct
features of a heavier body and large elongated eyes, with a broad nose of Shrinathji, similar to the
features of the idol at the temple. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones. The brighter orange, red, chrome
yellow and Kesari colours come from vegetable dyes. The paintings are often filled with details, such as
flowers, animals, and geometric patterns, which are arranged in a symmetrical and balanced
composition. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, artists in Chennai hosted an art exhibit showcasing Pichwai, some dating back 350 years.

Q26.
Answer: a

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Explanation:
● The Rosebank oil field is a significant oil and gas
field located in the North Sea, approximately 130
kilometres northwest of the Shetland Islands, which
belong to the United Kingdom (UK).
● Estimated to pump 300 million barrels of oil, the
Rosebank field is estimated to comprise 8% of UK’s
total oil production.
● The project will reuse a Floating Production Storage
and Offloading vessel (FPSO).
o An FPSO is a ship-like structure which
receives fluids through risers from subsea
reservoirs and then separates them into crude oil, natural gas, water and impurities.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The approval of the North Sea Rosebank oil and gas project by the United Kingdom (UK) government
has sparked agitations by the environmentalists.

Q27.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Dust suppression is the application of liquid to restrict the airborne dissemination of fine particles. Dust
suppressants may be used to minimize fugitive dust emissions, control erosion, and reduce
maintenance costs on unpaved roads and lots.
● Dust suppressants may be salts of calcium or magnesium that can absorb moisture. Examples of
chemical dust suppressants include: Calcium chloride, Magnesium chloride, Lignosulfonates, Asphalt
emulsions, Polymers. Magnesium chloride absorbs moisture. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
o Calcium Chloride is hygroscopic and deliquescent which means it attracts and holds moisture
which is what makes it an effective dust suppressant.
o Lignosulfonates work by binding the road surface particles together. Water evaporates from
the lignosulfonate as it dries, and the dust particles are trapped by the high-viscosity, naturally
sticky material. In addition, over time some of the lignosulfonates become completely insoluble
due to solar heating.
o Polymer longevity plays a crucial role in determining the effectiveness of these suppressants, as
longer-lasting polymers provide extended periods of dust control by forming stronger bonds
with soil particles.
● Findings of a study indicate that use of dust suppressant along with water is relatively more effective in
control of pollution than conventional methods of dust control i.e. water spraying.
So, all four of the above are dust suppressants used to control air pollution.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Dust suppressants will be used in Delhi to mitigate pollution from dust.

Q28.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Antibodies are proteins produced naturally by the immune system that target a specific foreign antigen. If
produced by clones derived from a single parent cell, they are known as Monoclonal Antibodies.

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● Monoclonal Antibodies (MABs) are laboratory-made proteins that mimic the behaviour of antibodies
produced by the immune system to protect against diseases and foreign substances. An antibody
attaches itself to an antigen – a foreign substance, usually a disease-causing molecule – and helps the
immune system eliminate it from the body. Monoclonal antibodies are specifically designed to target
certain antigens. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The production of MABs involves isolating a single B cell that produces the desired antibody and fusing
it with a myeloma cell. This hybrid cell, called a hybridoma, can be grown indefinitely in culture,
producing a continuous supply of identical MABs. This ensures that all the MABs produced are identical
and have the same specificity for the target antigen. So, statement 2 is correct.
● MABs are identical copies of an antibody that targets one specific antigen. Scientists can make
monoclonal antibodies by exposing white blood cells to a particular antigen.
● Monoclonal antibodies can be engineered to perform various therapeutic functions. This includes
blocking harmful molecules, activating immune responses and delivering targeted therapies to specific
cells or tissues. This versatility is one of the reasons why monoclonal antibodies have become a crucial
tool in medicine.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Glenmark’s subsidiary Ichnos Sciences entered into a licensing agreement with Astria
Therapeutics for its monoclonal antibody portfolio.

Q29.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The ozone layer is a crucial component of Earth's atmosphere, acting as a protective shield against harmful
Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun. It is a trace gas found in the stratosphere, one of the four layers of the
Earth's atmosphere.
● One of the most significant threats to the ozone layer is the formation of the ozone hole over Antarctica.
This seasonal phenomenon occurs during the Southern Hemisphere spring (August-October) and is
characterised by a significant depletion of ozone in the stratosphere above Antarctica. So, statement 1
is correct.
● Under normal atmospheric conditions, the two chemicals that store most atmospheric chlorine
(hydrochloric acid and chlorine nitrate) are stable. But in the long months of polar darkness over
Antarctica in the winter, atmospheric conditions are unusual. An endlessly circling whirlpool of
stratospheric winds called the polar vortex isolates the air in the center. Because it is completely dark,
the air in the vortex gets so cold that clouds form, even though the Antarctic air is extremely thin and
dry. Chemical reactions take place that could not take place anywhere else in the atmosphere. These
unusual reactions can occur only on the surface of polar stratospheric cloud particles, which may be
water, ice, or nitric acid, depending on the temperature.
● These reactions convert the inactive chlorine reservoir chemicals into more active forms, especially
chlorine gas (Cl2). When the sunlight returns to the South Pole in October, UV light rapidly breaks the
bond between the two chlorine atoms, releasing free chlorine into the stratosphere, where it takes part
in reactions that destroy ozone molecules while regenerating the chlorine (known as a catalytic
reaction). A catalytic reaction allows a single chlorine atom to destroy thousands of ozone molecules.
● Bromine is involved in a second catalytic reaction with chlorine that contributes a large fraction
of ozone loss. The ozone hole grows throughout the early spring until temperatures warm and
the polar vortex weakens, ending the isolation of the air in the polar vortex. As air from the

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surrounding latitudes mixes into the polar region, the ozone-destroying forms of chlorine
disperse. The ozone layer stabilises until the following spring. So, statement 2 is correct.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–
I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Ozone hole also opens up because of the rotation of the Earth causing special winds
over the closed landmass of Antarctica. The winds create a mini climate, creating a
shield over Antarctica preventing it from mixing with surrounding air. When the winds
die down, the hole closes.
Relevance: The ozone hole recently discovered over Antarctica is one of the biggest on record.

Q30.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Hycean planets are a relatively new class of exoplanets that have been proposed as potential candidates for
harbouring life.
● Hycean planets are hot planets covered in oceans that have an atmosphere rich in hydrogen. Some of
the Hycean planets are bigger and hotter than Earth. However, researchers believe these planets have
large oceans that could support the kind of life that began on early Earth and can still be found in extreme
ocean environments.
● One of the intriguing aspects of these planets is their expanded habitable zone compared to Earth or
Earth-like planets. This broader range allows the possibility of supporting life even beyond the zone
typically considered necessary for habitability on our planet.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, some astronomers have identified a new class of exoplanets – the Hycean Planets.

Q31.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Mission Indradhanush 5.0 (IMI 5.0) is an immunisation campaign targeting partially vaccinated and
unvaccinated children up to the age of five years and pregnant women.
o For the first time the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and
includes children up to 5 years of age (Previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age).
● It provides vaccinations for eight preventable, life-threatening diseases, including tuberculosis,
meningitis, measles, hepatitis B, tetanus, pertussis, polio and diphtheria. In specific areas, it extends to
Japanese encephalitis and Haemophilus influenza vaccines. So, points 1, 2, 4 and 6 are correct.
o Zika virus and Smallpox are not covered under Mission Indradhanush 5.0. So, points 3 and 5 are
not correct.
So, only four of the above diseases are covered under Mission Indradhanush 5.0.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

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● The goal of the IMI 5.0 campaign is to increase immunisation coverage for all
vaccinations supplied through the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) as
outlined in the National Immunisation Schedule (NIS).
● Special emphasis is being placed on increasing Measles and Rubella vaccine coverage
in order to achieve Measles and Rubella elimination by 2023, as well as the usage of the
U-WIN digital platform for Routine Immunisation (RI) in pilot mode across all districts
in the country.
o The U-WIN platform facilitates online registration of all the routine vaccinations,
while digitising the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).
o It is used to register and vaccinate every pregnant woman, record her delivery
outcome, register every newborn delivery, administer birth doses and all
vaccination events thereafter.
Relevance: Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 (IMI 5.0) campaign, with special focus on Measles and Rubella
vaccination coverage, concluded all three rounds in October 2023.

Q32.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● White phosphorus is a waxy, yellowish-to-clear chemical with a pungent, garlic-like odour. It is a highly
combustible chemical that burns quickly and brightly when exposed to air. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It can cause fast-moving and widespread fires on the ground. Once ignited, the substance is very
difficult to put out, as it clings to many surfaces, including skin and clothing. It is incredibly
dangerous to civilians because it can cause severe burns that penetrate deep into the tissue and
bone, and it can reignite even after treatment.
● It is used in incendiary (combustible) weapons by militaries around the world, including the United
States, for a variety of purposes, such as illuminating targets at night, or to inflict damage on enemies.
So, statement 2 is correct.
● White phosphorus munitions can legally be used on battlefields to make smoke screens, generate
illumination, mark targets or burn bunkers and buildings. Because it has legal uses, white phosphorus is
not banned as a chemical weapon under international conventions, but it can cause serious burns and
start fires. White phosphorus is considered an incendiary weapon under Protocol III of the Convention
on the Prohibition of Use of Certain Conventional Weapons. The protocol prohibits using incendiary
weapons against military targets located among civilians. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Incendiary weapons are weapons that are designed to set fire to objects or cause burn
injuries to people. They can be used in warfare to destroy enemy equipment and
infrastructure or to cause casualties among enemy troops.
● Incendiary weapons can be delivered in a variety of ways, including by artillery, aircraft,
and hand-held weapons. Some common incendiary weapons include:
o White phosphorus munitions
o Napalm
o Thermite

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o Molotov cocktails
● Protocol III of the Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons (CCW) prohibits the
use of incendiary weapons against civilians and civilian objects, and it also restricts their
use in military areas where civilians are present.
● Despite the restrictions on their use, incendiary weapons continue to be used in
warfare. In recent years, incendiary weapons have been used in conflicts in Syria, Iraq,
and Yemen.
Relevance: There are allegations that Israeli forces are using white phosphorus on the civilian population of
Gaza.

Q33.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Pontus Tectonic Plate is a recently discovered tectonic plate that was once located beneath the
South China Sea. It is believed to have been about
the size of the Pacific Ocean and to have
disappeared around 20 million years ago.
● The plate is only known from a few granite
fragments found in Borneo's mountains and the
relics of its massive slab discovered deep in the
Earth's mantle. Scientists have dubbed it the
"Pontus plate" because it once resided beneath an
ocean known as the Pontus Ocean.
● Its discovery provides new insights into the
geological history of the South China Sea and the
region. It also helps to explain some of the unique
geological features of the region, such as the
presence of serpentine rocks and the high heat
flow in the northern South China Sea.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Pontus Tectonic Plate was discovered by scientists in the South China Sea.

Q34.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Hemochromatosis is a rare genetic disorder that quietly threatens the health of affected individuals by
causing excess iron, which can lead to severe organ dysfunction. It is indeed a condition in which the
body stores an abnormally high amount of iron. This iron overload can damage organs such as the liver,
heart, pancreas, and joints. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Hemochromatosis is sometimes referred to as "bronze diabetes" because of the skin darkening and
concomitant pancreatic illness. The most frequent autosomal recessive condition in whites is hereditary
hemochromatosis. The excess iron in the body can affect the pancreas, leading to impaired insulin
production and glucose regulation. This can increase thirst, frequent urination, and elevated blood sugar
levels. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is primarily a hereditary condition, meaning it is often caused by genetic factors. Mutations in specific
genes, such as the HFE gene (human homeostatic iron regulator protein), can lead to the development
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of hemochromatosis. In addition to genetic causes, hemochromatosis can also occur as a result of
repeated blood transfusions from an infected person. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Phlebotomy is the standard treatment for primary hemochromatosis. Iron toxicity can be reduced by
removing red blood cells, the body's main mobilizer of iron. So, statement 4 is correct.
So, all four of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Acute-on-chronic liver failure from acquired hemochromatosis was recently found in a patient with
sickle cell disease.

Q35.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is a committee set up by the Government of India in
the wake of a natural calamity for effective coordination and implementation of relief measures and
operations.
● An NCMC is constituted in the Cabinet Secretariat under the chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary.
The other members of the Committee include the Secretary to the Prime Minister, Ministry of Home
Affairs and Directors of the Intelligence Bureau, Research and Analysis Wing. An officer of the Cabinet
Secretariat is the Convenor of the Committee.
o The Committee has been given the power to give directions to the Crisis Management Group
(CMG) as deemed necessary. The Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for
ensuring that all developments are brought to the notice of the NCMC promptly.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC), under the Chairmanship of the
Cabinet Secretary, reviewed the situation in Sikkim.

Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● PUSA-44 is a paddy variety developed in 1993 by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Due to its remarkably high yield, it accounted for 70 to 80 percent of Punjab's paddy cultivation area. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● It is a long-duration variety, with a maturation period of approximately 160 days. This duration is
notably longer, necessitating an additional 35 to 40 days compared to other varieties, which require an
extra 5-6 cycles of irrigation. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Punjab government recently has taken the decision to ban the cultivation of the PUSA-44 paddy
variety due to concerns regarding groundwater depletion. Furthermore, this particular variety has been
linked to the persistent issue of stubble burning in the state, which has also contributed to the decision
for its prohibition. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

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● The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation
under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
● It was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies
Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on
Agriculture. The ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi.
Relevance: The Punjab Government has recently declared that the cultivation of the PUSA-44 paddy variety will
be prohibited in the state starting in the upcoming year.

Q37.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Tele-MANAS initiative: It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round
the clock, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas. The programme includes a
network of 23 tele-mental health centres of excellence. The National Institute of Mental Health and
Neurosciences (NIMHANS) is the nodal centre and International Institute of Information Technology-
Bangalore (IIITB) providing technology support. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bengaluru and
National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC) will provide the technical support. So, pair 1 is
correctly matched.
● SHREYAS Scheme: It is an umbrella Scheme, under the Union Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
The objective of the Scheme is to provide coaching of good quality for economically disadvantaged
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) candidates to enable them to appear in
competitive and entrance examinations for obtaining appropriate jobs in Public/Private Sector as well as
for securing admission in reputed technical and professional higher education institutions. So, pair 2 is
correctly matched.
● Sagar Parikrama: It is an outreach program intended to reach out to fishermen's communities across
the entire coastal belt of the country. The initiative has been launched to understand the issues,
experiences and aspirations of fishermen and also to create awareness of various schemes and programs
of the Government available to fishermen in coastal areas. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare has inaugurated new facilities of Tele-MANAS at
NIMHANS and has also launched its logo.

Q38.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Bank for International Settlement (BIS) in collaboration with the Bank of France, Switzerland, and Singapore
has announced the successful conclusion of Project Mariana.
● It was jointly developed by three BIS Innovation Hub centres, including the Swiss, Singapore, and
Eurosystem Hub Centers, in partnership with the Bank of France, the Monetary Authority of Singapore,
and the Swiss National Bank. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● It is primarily focused on demonstrating cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale Central Bank
Digital Currencies (wCBDCs) among financial institutions using Decentralised Finance technology (DeFi)
concepts on a public blockchain. It does not focus on intercontinental cryptocurrency transactions. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
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● The successful trading of cross-border wCBDCs relies on 3 key elements:
o A common technical standard, provided by a public blockchain, to facilitate the exchange and
interoperability of different currencies.
o Bridges enable the seamless transfer of wCBDCs across different networks.
o Its Automated Market Maker (AMM) is a specialised decentralised exchange for the automatic
trading and settlement of spot FOREX transactions. It pooled liquidity from various wCBDCs,
enabling ‘automatic pricing’ and execution of Spot FOREX transactions, demonstrating its
innovative function in facilitating cross-border trading and settlement. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Bank for International Settlements (BIS):

● Established in 1930, the BIS is owned by 63 Central Banks, representing countries from
around the world that together account for about 95% of world GDP.
● Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland.
● The Bank for International Settlements is commonly referred to as the "central bank
for central banks" because it offers banking services to entities like the European
Central Bank and the Federal Reserve.
Relevance: Project Mariana has successfully completed its mission of cross-border trading and settlement of
wholesale Central Bank Digital Currencies (wCBDCs).

Q39.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Palermo protocols are three protocols that established additional crimes and include: to prevent,
suppress, and punish trafficking of humans; to prevent the smuggling of migrants by land, air, and sea;
and to stop the illicit manufacturing of and trafficking in firearms, their parts and components, and
ammunition that were adopted by the United Nations to supplement the 2000 Convention against
Transnational Organized Crime. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● The Cape Town Convention of 2001 included the Protocol on Specific Matters Related to Aircraft
Equipment and both of these were established through the collaboration of the International Civil
Aviation Organization (ICAO) and the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law
(UNIDROIT). So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● The Montreux Convention is an international agreement governing the Bosporus and Dardanelles Straits
in Turkey and was adopted in 1936. It prohibits the stay of warships belonging to countries not
bordering the Black Sea for more than three weeks. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o In exceptional cases, Turkey may limit or prevent its passage through the Bosphorus and
Dardanelles Straits. Ankara also has the right to impose fees on passing ships for lighthouses,
evacuation and medical services.
So, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Relevance: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) exempted aircraft-related transactions from certain sections
of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, bringing Indian regulations in compliance with the Cape Town
Convention (CTC).

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Q40.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Matter and antimatter are collections of particles which form particle pairs with the same mass but opposite
electric charge. For example, an electron (negative charge) and a positron (positive charge), or a proton
(positive) and an antiproton (negative).
● Antimatter is a type of matter that is composed of the antiparticles of the corresponding particles in
ordinary matter. Antiparticles have the same mass but opposite charge and other quantum properties
as their matter counterparts. For example, an antiproton is an antiparticle of a proton, and a positron is
an antiparticle of an electron. So, statement 1 is correct.
● When a particle and its antiparticle meet, they annihilate each other, releasing a burst of energy in the
form of photons and neutrinos. This process is called annihilation. Matter and antimatter cannot coexist
at close range because they will destroy each other. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity implied that antimatter would fall just like matter does, but
some physicists have long been suggesting that it should rise upward. Experiments at the European
Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) have now demonstrated that antimatter falls under the
influence of gravity, validating this aspect of the general theory of relativity. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Experiments at the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) have now demonstrated
that antimatter falls, validating yet another aspect of the general theory.

Q41.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The olive ridley turtle is considered the most abundant sea turtle in the world, with an estimated
800,000 nesting females annually. It is omnivorous, feeding on algae, lobsters, crabs, tunicates,
molluscs, shrimp, and fish. It is globally distributed in the tropical regions of the South Atlantic, Pacific,
and Indian Oceans. It is mainly a pelagic species (they mostly live in the open ocean and do not live near
the sea floor), but it has been known to inhabit coastal areas, including bays and estuaries. So, statement
1 is correct.
● It is the only sea turtle species to exhibit synchronous mass nesting, termed arribadas. During the
arribadas, the Spanish word for ‘arrivals,’ tens of thousands of female turtles nest during the same 3-7
day period once a month. Along with Kemp’s ridley, and, to a lesser extent, flatbacks, olive ridleys are
the only sea turtle species to commonly nest during the day. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Olive ridley takes approximately 15 years to reach sexual maturity and lay their first clutch. They
reproduce every 1-3 years, laying 1-3 clutches of 90-130 eggs each per season. They take around 50 days
to incubate, depending on the temperature of the sand during development. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
● The Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary in Odisha holds the distinction of being the world's largest breeding
colony of sea turtles and is known as a rookery for them. So, statement 4 is correct.
● Protection Status:
o Under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, they are listed in Schedule I.
o According to the IUCN Red List, they are categorised as "Vulnerable,".
o They are included in Appendix I of CITES.

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So, only three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Two Olive Ridley turtles, Bageshri and Guha, fitted with satellite transmitters, have been tracked by
researchers as they navigate the seas in search of food.

Q42.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The conflict between Armenia and
Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh is called
one of the “frozen conflicts” of the world.
● Nagorno-Karabakh is a mountainous region
that, despite being officially recognized as
part of Azerbaijan, is predominantly
inhabited by a population of around 120,000
people who are primarily of Armenian
ethnicity. A crucial geographical link between
Nagorno-Karabakh and Armenia is the 5-
kilometer Lachin Corridor, which connects
the enclave to its Armenian counterpart.
● Since December 12, 2022, Azerbaijani
protesters have staged a blockade in the
Lachin Corridor, with their primary grievance centering on the alleged illegal mining of natural
resources in Nagorno-Karabakh. This protest action has effectively disrupted the regular flow of people
and commodities in and out of the enclave. Consequently, essential supplies like food, fuel, and medical
resources have become scarce within the enclave, leading to critical shortages of these vital goods.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A group of United Nations experts raised the alarming situation in Nagorno-Karabakh as a result of
the ongoing blockade of the Lachin Corridor by Azerbaijan.

Q43.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The pygmy hog is the smallest and rarest species of pig in the world. It has dark brownish-black skin and
hair, and yellow stripes along its body when young. Once thriving across the alluvial grasslands along the
southern edge of the Himalayas, the pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) was thought to be extinct in the 1970s.
Now, Pygmy hog is found only in Assam, India. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Pygmy Hog is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’. It
is an omnivore that feeds on roots, tubers, insects, rodents, and small reptiles. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The pygmy hog is a social animal that lives in small family groups of one or two females and their
offspring. It is listed as an endangered species on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, with less than
250 mature individuals left in the wild. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● The pygmy hog is an indicator species, meaning that its presence reflects the health of its habitat. The
pygmy hog’s primary habitat is the tall and wet grasslands of the Himalayan foothills, which are
threatened by human encroachment and destruction. So, statement 4 is correct.
So, only three of the above statements are correct.

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Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, eighteen captive-bred pygmy hogs were released in western Assam’s Manas National Park
and Tiger Reserve.

Q44.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Inverse vaccines stop the immune system from attacking healthy cells and may help treat multiple
sclerosis or diabetes. Scientists are testing an "inverse vaccine," which selectively suppresses the
immune system. It successfully treated a multiple sclerosis-like condition in mice.
● Conventional vaccines work by teaching the immune system to identify and combat infectious diseases,
such as COVID-19, by introducing components that mimic the disease-causing agent, like the spike
protein of the coronavirus. This helps the immune system recognize and fight the virus effectively.
o In contrast, an inverse vaccine doesn't encourage the immune system to attack cells; rather, it
aims to prevent the immune system from mistakenly attacking healthy cells. It essentially
reprograms the immune system to spare these healthy cells by adding a "do not attack" signal.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists are testing an "inverse vaccine" that reverses the damage caused by autoimmune diseases
like multiple sclerosis.

Q45.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) is a tiger reserve in the South Western Ghats montane
rain forests in Tamil Nadu, India. It is the second-largest protected area and was the first tiger reserve
in Tamil Nadu. It is part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
● It has vegetation types which gradually change from dry thorn forest to dry deciduous, moist deciduous
and a patch of West Coast wet evergreen forests on the higher reaches of the reserve.
● The reserve forms the catchment area for 14 rivers and streams, among which the Thamirabarani,
Ramanadi, Karayar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Pachayar, Kodaiyar, Gadananathi River, and Kallar are the
major ones.
● Some of the notable wildlife found in KMTR are tigers, leopards, elephants, gaurs, Nilgiri tahrs, lion-tailed
macaques, Nilgiri langurs, sloth bears, flying squirrels, and many birds and reptiles.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Srivilliputhur-Megamalai Tiger Reserve: It is located in Tamil Nadu and is part of the

Western Ghats Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It forms the catchment area for the Vaigai
and Gundar rivers. It provides a connecting link between Kerala’s Periyar Tiger Reserve
and Tamil Nadu’s Southern Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
● Annamalai Tiger Reserve: It is located in Tamil Nadu and is part of the Western Ghats
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It forms the catchment area for the Amaravathi and Aliyar
rivers. It has tropical wet evergreen and montane forests.
● Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve: It is located in Tamil Nadu and is not part of any
biosphere reserve, but rather a buffer zone for the Western Ghats Nilgiri Biosphere

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Reserve. It forms the catchment area for the Bhavani River. It has dry deciduous and
scrub forests.
Relevance: The Madras High Court issued a notice to the State Government regarding a public interest litigation
seeking an order to restrict the entry of outsiders and vehicles inside the Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

Q46.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● South Lhonak Lake: It is situated in the remote northwestern region of Sikkim and is a lake formed by a
glacial moraine dam. The lake is formed due to the melting of the Lhonak glacier. The lake's size is rapidly
increasing due to the melting of the lake's associated South Lhonak glacier and additional melting. So,
pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Pangong Tso Lake: It is located in eastern Ladakh, derives its name from the Tibetan word, “Pangong
Tso”, which means “high grassland lake”. It is one of the highest altitude lakes in the world that is filled
with saline water and an endorheic lake. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Rudrasagar Lake: It is located in the State of Tripura. This man-made lake was constructed by Ahom
King Lakshmi Singha in honour of his father, King Rudra Singha. It is a designated Ramsar Site. The lake
is also known as Twijilikma and functions as a naturally occurring sedimentation reservoir. So, pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
● Haflong Lake: It is located in Assam and is the only natural lake in the State. So, pair 4 is correctly
matched.
So, only three of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent flash floods in north Sikkim resulted from the bursting of the South Lhonak Lake.

Q47.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A quantum dot is a tiny cluster of atoms, typically consisting of just a few thousand atoms and
measuring a mere few nanometers in diameter. The term 'quantum' in its name originates from the
limited space available for electrons to navigate within these atoms. As a result, the entire crystal exhibits
the peculiar phenomena of quantum mechanics, which would otherwise be challenging to observe
without advanced instruments.
o Quantum dots are sometimes likened to 'artificial atoms' because, under certain conditions, they
mimic the behaviour of individual atoms.
● The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2023 was granted for the discovery of quantum dots. They
are widely used today to create colours in flat screens, Light-Emitting Diode (LED) lamps and devices that
help surgeons see blood vessels in tumours.
● Applications of Quantum dots:
o Enhancement the quality of displays in Quantum dot LED TV (QLED) screens.
o Adjustment of the colour temperature in LED lamps. So, point 1 is correct.
o Utilisation for mapping cells and organs in research and diagnostics. So, point 2 is correct.
o Used in targeted drug delivery for therapeutic purposes. So, point 3 is correct.
o Enhancement the efficiency of solar cells. So, point 4 is correct.
o Detection and measurement of the specific substances.
o Usage in quantum dots as qubits in quantum computing.
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under Chapter VI, and under paragraph 3 of Article 52, a party to a dispute shall abstain from
voting.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India abstained in a UN General Assembly vote on a resolution that called for an immediate
humanitarian truce in the Israel-Hamas conflict.

Q53.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1): It is a multifaceted hormone with broad pharmacological potential.
Among the numerous metabolic effects of GLP-1 are the glucose-dependent stimulation of insulin
secretion, decrease of gastric emptying, inhibition of food intake, increase of natriuresis and diuresis
and modulation of rodent β-cell proliferation.
● GLP-1 also has cardio and neuroprotective effects, decreases inflammation and apoptosis, and has
implications for learning and memory, reward behavior, and palatability.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Biochemist Katalin Karikó became only the 23rd woman in Nobel’s 122-year-long history to have
won the award in science and medicine for her contribution to discovering GLP-1.

Q54.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Hostile Activity Watch Kernel (HAWK) System, is a specialised software platform to monitor all aspects
of forest and wildlife crime. It is developed by Wildlife Trust of India (WTI), in association with the
International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW).
● The system would help the department monitor activities such as the death of wildlife, suspected
criminal activities, and the movement of suspicious vehicles.
● Information regarding these and other incidents of interest from the field would be fed into a centralised
system so that effective and pre-emptive responses, including counteraction, could be initiated.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Karnataka Forest Department, along with the Wildlife Trust of India, has recently launched the
Hostile Activity Watch Kernel (HAWK) system.

Q55.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● As per the Central Board of Direct Taxation, the overall number of income tax (I-T) returns filed by
individuals has risen from 3.36 crore to 6.37 crore through assessment years 2013-14 to 2021-22, while
there is also an increase in number of returns filed by individual taxpayers across various ranges of gross
total income. So statement 1 is not correct.
● For higher income ranges of ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh, and ₹10 lakh to ₹25 lakh, the number of individual
returns filed surged 295% and 291% individuals over the same period, respectively. It indicates that
individual taxpayers are showing a positive trend of migration to a higher range of gross total income.
So statement 2 is correct.

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● The proportionate contribution of gross total income of top 1% individual taxpayers vis-à-vis all
individual taxpayers has decreased from 15.9% to 14.6%, while the share of the bottom 25% taxpayers
increased from 8.3% to 8.4% over the same period. So statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Central Board for Direct Taxes (CBDT) stated that India’s tax base has widened sharply
since 2013-14.

Q56.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Ejecta halo can be understood by this simple example: When a meteorite or asteroid collides with the
Moon's surface, it creates a crater, and the material excavated from the impact site is referred to as
ejecta. The ejecta can be made up of rock, soil, and dust from the lunar surface.
● The ejecta from the impact is often thrown out in all directions and can create a distinctive pattern
around the crater. This pattern is known as the ejecta halo. It typically consists of debris and material
that has been displaced from the impact site and can extend for some distance around the crater.
● Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram, which was carrying the rover Pragyan, released a storm of lunar dust on the
surface creating a halo on the surface, which is described as 'ejecta halo.'
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Epi Regolith: It is the top layer of the lunar surface, which is made out of lunar rocks
and soil, commonly known as moon dust.
Relevance: Recently, the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3 touched down on the Moon’s surface resulting in a
lunar phenomenon called ‘ejecta halo.’

Q57.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) has been established on the lines of the National Academic Depository
(NAD), in the sense, NAD is the backbone of ABC, where the students' academic data are held and
academic awards are stored (i.e. storehouse of academic awards). So, statement 1 is correct.
● ABC deposits credits awarded by registered institutions into students' accounts. ABCs can only be shared
from institutions, not directly from the student. Only credits submitted by an authorized institution will
be accepted for storage and validation by the ABC. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Despite the fact that ABC enables students to register or commence credit transfer, the final outcomes
of credit redemption and issuance of certificates, as well as the compilation of award records, are
administered by academic institutions via the NAD Platform. Hence being the owner of academic
awards, academic institutions must mandatorily register themselves under ABC via NAD. So, statement
3 is not correct.
● It is the initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Ministry
of Education (MoE) respectively.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Recently the University Grants Commission (UGC) Chairman said that over 2 crore students across
the country have registered for the commission’s Academic Bank of Credit (ABC).

Q58.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Reykjanes is a peninsula in South West Iceland, characterized by immense lava fields, volcanoes, and
heightened geothermal activity. The Reykjanes Peninsula runs along the Mid-Atlantic Rift, where the
Eurasian and the North American tectonic plates are drifting apart. Due to this geological setting, the
whole peninsula is extremely volcanically active, covered with moss-coated lava fields and cone-shaped
mountains. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Sinai Peninsula is a triangular peninsula linking Africa with Asia. The Sinai Desert, as the peninsula’s arid
expanse is called, is separated by the Gulf of Suez and the Suez Canal from the Eastern Desert of Egypt,
but it continues eastward into the Negev desert without marked change of relief. It is under the
administrative control of the Egyptian government. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Kamchatka Peninsula lies in far eastern Russia, lying between the Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the
Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea on the east. The climate of the Kamchatka Peninsula is severe, with
prolonged, cold, and snowy winters and wet, cool summers. Most of Kamchatka is tundra supporting
mosses and lichens. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● Iberian Peninsula in southwestern Europe is occupied by Spain and Portugal. The Pyrenees mountain
range forms an effective land barrier in the northeast, separating the Iberian Peninsula from the rest of
Europe, and in the south at Gibraltar the peninsula is separated from North Africa by the narrow Strait
of Gibraltar. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a seismic swarm hit the Reykjanes peninsula in southwest Iceland.

Q59.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Bortle Dark-Sky Scale is a nine-level numeric scale that measures the night sky's and stars'
brightness in a particular location. It quantifies the observability of celestial objects and the interference
caused by light pollution and skyglow. The most common cause of skyglow is man-made lights that give
off light pollution.
● A hydrometer is used to measure the salinity of a solution. A Secchi disk is a device used for the
measurement of water clarity in lakes.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Knowledge Box

Gegenschein:
● It is a bright spot in the night sky centred at the antisolar point, caused due to
backscatter of sunlight by interplanetary dust.
● For an observer on Earth, the dynamic dust cloud is primarily seen as the zodiacal
light. This light forms a cone extending from the sun along the path of the ecliptic,
visible after dusk and before dawn. The morning and evening zodiacal light
represent the areas of the interplanetary dust disk where sunlight scatters forward
towards Earth, creating bright silvery cones of light.
● Along the rest of the ecliptic path, the interplanetary dust disk is visible, known as
the zodiacal band. However, these sections are challenging to detect due to their
extremely low surface brightness. Yet, directly opposite the sun, the geometry
again favours visibility, enhancing our ability to observe the interplanetary dust.
This region is known as the Gegenschein.
● The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) is India’s first dark sky region and is centred at
Hanle in Eastern Ladakh, around the Indian Astronomical Observatory. HDSR
preserves the dark skies by reducing light pollution in the surrounding areas and
uses these dark skies to view Zodiacal light and Gegenschein by astronomers
Relevance: Recently, in a first-of-its-kind event, the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) hosted an official Star
Party at the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve in eastern Ladakh.

Q60.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Banni is a traditional stick fight celebrated on the night of Dussehra celebrations in Andhra Pradesh. This
festival was celebrated by people under the Vijayanagara Empire. It is celebrated on account of the
victory of Lord Mala Malleswara Swamy and Goddess Parvati over demonish Mani and Mallasura, who
troubled the people in the Devaragattu region. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Bonalu is a Hindu Festival where Goddess Mahakali is worshiped. It is an annual festival celebrated in
the twin Cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad and other parts of Telangana state. It is celebrated
usually during Ashada Masam which falls in July/August. Special poojas are performed for goddess
Yellamma during the first and last day of the festival. The festival is considered a form of thanksgiving to
the Goddess after the fulfilment of vows. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Bathukamma festival is celebrated for nine days during Durga Navratri in Telangana. It is a festival to
worship the ‘Life Giver’, the universal energy - Goddess Shakti. Bathukamma is made up of seven
concentric layers of flowers that are arranged in a pyramid shape. The arrangement signifies the mother
goddess. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● The Wangala festival, also known as the 100 Drum festival, is celebrated with much zeal and enthusiasm
by the Garo tribe in Meghalaya. During the Wangala, tribals offer sacrifices to please their deity Saljong,
the Sun God. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, more than a hundred persons were injured in the traditional Banni festival in Andhra
Pradesh.

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Q61.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Best Tourism Villages initiative is a global initiative by World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) to
showcase villages where tourism preserves cultures and traditions, celebrates diversity, provides
opportunities and safeguards biodiversity. The Programme works to foster development and inclusion
in rural areas, combat depopulation, advance innovation and value chain integration through tourism
and encourage sustainable practices. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Dhordo, the gateway to the renowned white desert in Gujarat, has recently been named one of the best
tourism villages in the world by UNWTO. It is the only village in India to be conferred this award. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● The villages are evaluated under nine key areas:
○ Cultural and Natural Resources
○ Promotion and Conservation of Cultural Resources
○ Economic Sustainability
○ Social Sustainability
○ Environmental Sustainability
○ Tourism Development and Value Chain Integration
○ Governance and Prioritization of Tourism
○ Infrastructure and Connectivity
○ Health, Safety, and Security
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) has named Dhordo (Gujarat) as one of the best
tourism villages in the world.

Q62.
Answer: a
Explanation:
United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA):
● It is a UN agency that supports the relief and human development of Palestinian refugees. It was
established in 1949 when nearly three-quarters of a million Palestinians became refugees in the
aftermath of the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. UNRWA was originally designed as a temporary agency, though
its mandate has been continuously renewed every three years by the General Assembly. So, statement
1 is not correct.
○ Its mandate is to support Palestinian refugees and their patrilineal descendants who fled or
were expelled from their homes during the 1948 Palestine War and 1967 Six-Day War. Its
services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and
improvement, microfinance and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict.
● It provides services in its five fields of operations: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, Gaza Strip and West Bank,
including East of Jerusalem. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. It also receives some
funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations. It reports only to the UN General Assembly. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Recently, amidst the Israel-Gaza war, the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine
Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) has asked for unimpeded access to Gaza.

Q63.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought was set up in 1988 to honour individuals and organisations
defending human rights and fundamental freedoms. It is awarded each year by the European
Parliament.
● It was originally aimed at rewarding the work on the development of East-West relations, the freedom
of debate and inquiry and the defence of human rights or the rule of law.
● It is named in honour of Soviet physicist and political dissident Andrei Sakharov, a European citizen who
was the personification of freedom of thought and expression. He had decided to renounce all the
material advantages and all the honours which were open to him.
● The first Sakharov Prize was won by Nelson Mandela and Anatoli Marchenko - the latter laureate
proposed by Sakharov himself.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

The UN Prize in the Field of Human Rights:

● It is an honorary award given to individuals and organisations in recognition of
outstanding achievement in human rights.
● The Prize was established by the UN General Assembly in 1966 and was
awarded for the first time in 1968.
The Freedom Award:
● It is given at an annual event for the National Civil Rights Museum every year.
● It honours individuals who have made significant contributions in civil rights and
who have laid the foundation for present and future leaders in the battle for
human rights.
● Since 1991, it has served as a symbol of the ongoing fight for human rights both
in America and worldwide.
Relevance: Recently, Mahsa Amini was awarded the Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought by the European
Parliament.

Q64.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Balkan peninsula lies east of Italy, separated from it by the Adriatic Sea. The Balkan countries include
Romania, Moldova, Bulgaria, Greece, Albania, and the independent states of the former Yugoslavia—
Serbia, Croatia, Slovenia, North Macedonia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, and Montenegro—but there is not
universal agreement on the region’s components.
● The Balkans are bordered by parts of the Mediterranean Sea, the Adriatic and the Ionian Sea in the west
and by the Aegean Sea in the south. The Sea of Marmara, south of the Balkan peninsula, connects the
Mediterranean with the Black Sea. So, points 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● Tyrrhenian sea does not border the Balkan region. So, point 1 is not correct.
So, only four of the above surround the Balkan Countries.
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Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the European Union leaders
have planned to hold a summit with Western
Balkans nations to discuss joining the bloc.

Q65.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Kathaprasangam of Kerala is a storytelling
popular art form which blends the
tradition of music and speech together. It
is also known as Harikatha,
Harikathakalakshepam, Kathakalashepam
and Sathakatha Kalashepam. So,
statement 1 is correct.
○ Themes: In the beginning they
were devotional in nature. Later, themes were drawn from the works of great poets and writers
of Malayalam like Kumaran Asan, Vallathol, Ulloor etc. Gradually, over the years, social and
political themes were introduced. World classics were also presented later.
● Similar art forms can be seen in many folk and cultural traditions in different languages in different parts
of India. Kathaprasangam in Kerala has been influenced by art forms like Chakyarkoothu.
○ Chakyarkoothu: It is a Keralan art form. It is a combination of prose and poetry, and it is
primarily a Malayalam narration. The Chakyar community has traditionally performed it (a
priestly caste). So, statement 2 is correct.
● According to historians, Mahabharata and Ramayana were initially performed orally in the form of
Harikatha. It was originally used for social upliftment in Kerala in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent study stated that the Kathaprasangam art form is seeing a revival.

Q66.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Reference fuels are the high-value premium products of petrol and diesel specifically utilised for
calibrating and testing vehicles. These fuels, which have higher specifications, are critical for calibrating
and testing by automobile manufacturers and testing agencies like the International Centre for
Automotive Technology (ICAT) and the Automotive Research Association of India.
● For decades, India has relied on imports to meet the demand for these specialised fuels. But now,
Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has indigenously developed products that will replace imports, ensuring a
reliable supply at a much lower cost for vehicle manufacturers and testing agencies.
● They have higher specifications than regular or premium fuels. It includes various specifications such as
Cetane number, flash point, viscosity, sulphur and water content, hydrogen purity, and acid number.
● The host of specifications -- from Cetane number to flash point, viscosity, sulphur and water content,
hydrogen purity and acid number -- are listed under government regulations, such fuels are referred to

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as 'reference' petrol/diesel. For instance, reference grade petrol and diesel have an octane number of
97. The higher the octane number, the more compression the fuel can withstand before detonating.
○ The octane number is nothing but a unit to measure the ignition quality of petrol or diesel. For
vehicle testing purposes, the fuel has to be of a higher grade than regular or premium petrol and
diesel.
● It exceeds the octane numbers of regular and premium fuels, which stand at 87 and 91, respectively. The
biggest difference between the normal and premium fuel lies in the octane number.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has indigenously developed products that will replace
imports of reference fuels.

Q67.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Gurnards: It is a new species of deep water marine fish, displaying a striking orange hue. It belongs to
the Triglidae family, commonly referred to as gurnards or sea-robins. Named Pterygotrigla intermedica,
this species is the fourth species within the Pterygotrigla genus to be reported in India. So, pair 1 is
correctly matched.
● Yellow-rumped flycatcher: It is an extremely rare bird species. It has been historically recorded from
two localities in central India and southern India. It was sighted from Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary of
Odisha, and in Narcondam Island of the Andaman archipelago. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Conocarpus: It is an invasive mangrove species found in Gujarat. It is renowned for maintaining its dark
green foliage year-round, even in harsh environmental conditions like extreme temperatures. Its
adaptability allows it to thrive in highly saline areas. It exhibits an excessive water-absorption trait from
the soil, posing a threat to groundwater. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Candolleomyces albosquamosus: It is the newly discovered mushroom species belonging to the genus
Candolleomyces. The discovery of a new species of the genus Candolleomyces in India is special given
that there are only 35 species in this genus worldwide. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only three of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q68.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The name Edakkal itself means “a stone in between”. The Edakkal Caves are not actually caves. They
are among the oldest human settlements ever discovered. Inside the caves are pictorial drawings and
engravings that indicate the presence of ancient human settlements in the region. The oldest among
them date back to 6000 B.C, to the age of Stone Age man.
● They are part of a prehistoric rock shelter, formed naturally when one huge boulder got wedged between
two bigger ones.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Kerala tourism department has planned to enhance civic amenities in the region
surrounding Edakkal caves.

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Q69.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The PBKnot Technology uses a dispenser that releases sex pheromones to prevent male moths from
finding females and mating, thus disrupting the reproductive cycle. The technology helps to tackle the
pest that affects agricultural crops.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to experts, the Recent Pheromone-based mating disruption technology can help control
pink bollworm.

Q70.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Bushmen: They are the indigenous people of southern Africa. Largely hunter-gatherers, their territory
spans several nations like Botswana, Namibia, South Africa, Angola and Zimbabwe. They have called the
region home for tens of thousands of years. The tribes are well-known for the profound connection they
have with their land, their intimate knowledge of the natural world, and the delicate balance they have
maintained for millennia with the environment. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Bedouin: They are Arabic-speaking nomadic peoples of the Middle Eastern deserts, especially of North
Africa, the Arabian Peninsula, Egypt, Israel, Iraq, Syria, and Jordan. Most Bedouins are animal herders
who migrate into the desert during the rainy winter season and move back toward the cultivated land
in the dry summer months. Bedouin society is tribal and patriarchal, typically composed of extended
families that are patrilineal, endogamous, and polygynous. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Maoris: These are the indigenous people of New Zealand. Being Maori means respecting and honoring
their Maori ancestors, having a special connection to family land, and having the right to be recognized
as “people of the land” in their ancestors' village. In 1987, Maori became an official language of New
Zealand. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Irula: This tribe forms a part of aboriginal tribes sporadically settled in the South Indian state of Tamil
Nadu. The Irular people inhabit the scrub jungle of the Nilgiri Mountains. So, pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q71.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Republic of Congo, as the initiator of the alliance between the Three Great Basins, hosted the
Founding Summit of the Amazon – Congo – Borneo – Mekong – Southeast Asia, Summit of the Three
Basins, Biodiversity Ecosystems, and Tropical Forests (S3B EBFT), in October 2023 in Brazzaville.
● The Brazzaville summit’s central vision is to preserve and restore the planet’s three ecological lungs.
It aims to strengthen South-South governance for three ecosystems — Amazon, Congo, Borneo-Mekong
and Southeast Asia.
○ The Amazon River Basin is home to the largest rainforest on Earth. The basin -- roughly the size
of the forty-eight contiguous United States -- covers some 40 percent of the South American
continent and includes parts of eight South American countries: Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador,
Colombia, Venezuela, Guyana, and Suriname, as well as French Guiana.
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○ Borneo-Mekong is the world’s third largest carbon sink. It is composed of two sub-regions, the
island of Borneo and the Mekong River.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Brazzaville summit was held by the Republic of Congo.

Q72.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Champions of the Earth award is the United Nations’ highest environmental honour. It recognizes
heroes who inspire, encourage others to join them, and defend a better, more sustainable future. So
statement 1 is not correct.
● It is given every year to individuals, groups and institutions that transform economies, shape new and
sustainable technology and lead political change. They fight environmental injustice, protect our
environment and defend our natural resources. So statement 2 is not correct.
● Champions of the Earth are celebrated in four categories:
○ Policy leadership – individuals or organizations in the public sector leading global or national
action for the environment. They shape dialogue, lead commitments and act for the good of the
planet.
○ Inspiration and action – individuals or organizations taking bold steps to inspire positive change
to protect our world. They lead by example, challenge behavior and inspire millions.
○ Entrepreneurial vision – individuals or organizations challenging the status quo to build a cleaner
future. They build systems, create new technology and spearhead a groundbreaking vision.
○ Science and innovation– individuals or organizations who push the boundaries of technology for
profound environmental benefit. They invent possibilities for a more sustainable world.
● Indian wildlife biologist Dr. Purnima Devi Barman (2022); PM Narendra Modi (2018); Tulsi Tanti
(Chairman of the Suzlon Group), and Afroz Alam, a lawyer who led the clean-up at Mumbai’s Versova
beach have been the recipients of the Award. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, none of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Champions of the Earth have been announced.

Q73.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Minimum Export Price (MEP): It is the price below which an exporter is not allowed to export the
commodity from India. It is imposed in view of the rising domestic retail/wholesale price or production
disruptions in the country. It is a kind of quantitative restriction to trade. It is notified by the Directorate
General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
● The Central Government fixes MEP for the selected commodities with a view to arrest domestic price
rise and augment domestic supply. This is intended to be imposed for short durations and is removed
when situations change.
● Legal backing: As per section 5 of the the Foreign Trade (Development And Regulation) Act, 1992, the
Central Government may, from time to time, formulate and announce by notification in the Official
Gazette, the export and import policy and may also, in the like manner, amend that policy.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: The Government of India imposed a $800 per ton minimum export price on onions being shipped
from India.

Q74.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The term RISC stands for "Reduced Instruction Set Computer," which performs a limited number of
computer instructions, and 'V' stands for fifth generation.
● It is an open-source hardware ISA (Instruction Set Architecture) that is used to design custom
processors for a wide range of end applications.
● It also allows designers to generate thousands of potential bespoke processors, allowing for a quicker
time to market. The processor IP's commonality also reduces software development time.
● Wearables, IoT, cellphones, automobiles, aerospace, and other applications benefit from RISC-V
processors' power economy, performance customization, and security.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Qualcomm has announced that it is developing a wearables platform for Wear OS,
Google's operating system for smartwatches, based on RISC-V technology.

Q75.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Microbiome: It is the genetic material of all the microbes - bacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses - that
live on and inside the human body. The number of genes in all the microbes in one person’s microbiome
is 200 times the number of genes in the human genome. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ The bacteria in the microbiome help digest food, regulate immune system, protect against other
bacteria that cause disease and produce vitamins including B vitamins B12, thiamine and
riboflavin and Vitamin K, which is needed for blood coagulation.
● Autoimmune diseases such as diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis and
fibromyalgia are associated with dysfunction in the microbiome. Disease-causing microbes accumulate
over time, changing gene activity and metabolic processes and resulting in an abnormal immune
response against substances and tissues normally present in the body. Autoimmune diseases appear to
be passed in families not by DNA inheritance but by inheriting the family’s microbiome. So, statement 2
is correct.
● The Human Microbiome Project (HMP) is sponsored by the National Human Genome Research Institute
(NHGRI), part of the National Institutes of Health (NIH) of the United States of America. The HMP began
in 2008 as an extension of the Human Genome Project. It aims to understand the microbial components
of the human genetic and metabolic landscape and how they contribute to normal physiology. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A new computational tool has allowed scientists to map how microbes interact in the gut, and it
could one day be used to develop more-targeted therapies for diseases.

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Q76.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was established in 1977 under the
auspices of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). It is a
unique regional inter-governmental organisation servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and
Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development. It is
hosted by the Government of Malaysia and the secretariat is located in Kuala Lumpur. So, statement 1
is correct.
○ The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP), and the UNESCO and the Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union (ABU) are founding
organisations of the Institute and they are non-voting members of the General Conference.
● Doordarshan, All India Radio, National Academy of Broadcasting and Multimedia and Broadcast
Engineering Consultants India Limited are the broadcasting authorities representing India in the
institute. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● It currently has 92 member organisations from across 44 countries, including 26 member countries.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India has been elected president of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD)
General Conference (GC) for the third successive term.

Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Scientists from Mahidol University in Thailand conducted research into the potential of watermeal, the
world's smallest flowering plant, as a source of nutrition and oxygen for astronauts.
● Their study, conducted at the technical centre of the European Space Agency (ESA), involved subjecting
watermeal to hypergravity conditions using ESA's Large Diameter Centrifuge (LDC). The LDC allows
scientists to replicate gravity levels up to 20 times that of Earth for extended periods.
● Watermeal is a rootless, stemless plant that typically floats on the surface of water bodies in regions
like Thailand and other parts of Asia. Its simplicity and rapid growth rate make it an ideal candidate for
studying the effects of altered gravity on plant development.
● Watermeal is a prolific producer of oxygen through photosynthesis and a rich source of protein.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q78.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Section 54EC bonds are a type of fixed income financial instruments which provide tax exemption
under capital gains to investors. These bonds are specifically meant for investors earning long-term
capital gains who would like tax exemption on these gains. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Tax deduction is available under section 54EC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. 54EC bonds do not
allow any tax exemption on short-term capital gains tax.

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● One can invest up to ₹50 lakh per financial year in 54EC bonds. The minimum investment limit is
generally in the range of ₹10,000 to ₹20,000.
● These bonds come with a lock-in period of five years. As these bonds provide a tax benefit, they come
with a lock-in and are non-transferable. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Rural Electrification Corp. (REC) Limited has introduced a dedicated mobile application designed
exclusively for both current and prospective investors in REC's 54EC Capital Gain Tax Exemption Bonds.

Q79.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges between 1 to 100 nanometres in size. Nanomaterials can
occur naturally or can be created as the by-products of combustion reactions, or be produced
purposefully through engineering to perform a specialised function. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The material properties change as their size approaches the atomic scale. This is due to the surface area
to volume ratio increasing, resulting in the material’s surface atoms dominating the material's
performance. Owing to their very small size, nanoparticles have a very large surface area to volume
ratio when compared to bulk material, such as powders, plates and sheets. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Due to the ability to generate the materials in a particular way to play a specific role, the use of
nanomaterials spans a wide variety of industries, from healthcare and cosmetics to environmental
preservation and air purification.
○ In aerospace, carbon nanotubes can be used in the morphing of aircraft wings. The nanotubes
are used in a composite form to bend in response to the application of an electric voltage.
○ In the cosmetics industry, mineral nanoparticles such as titanium oxide are used in sunscreen,
due to the poor stability that conventional chemical UV protection offers in the long-term. Just
as the bulk material would, titanium oxide nanoparticles are able to provide improved UV
protection while also having the added advantage of removing the cosmetically unappealing
whitening associated with sunscreen in their nano-form. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Nanoparticles found in the air in Delhi have the potential to migrate from the respiratory system to
various regions within the human body.

Q80.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched Atmospheric Perturbations
around the Eclipse Path (APEP) mission to study how a solar eclipse affects the upper atmosphere.
● During an eclipse, the sudden drop in sunlight causes changes in the ionosphere, creating waves that
ripple through this atmospheric layer. It will measure changes in electric and magnetic fields, density
and temperature.

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● According to NASA, the ionosphere's temperature and density are projected to decrease during the
eclipse, resulting in a wave-like disturbance that has the potential to disrupt GPS and other satellite
communications.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The NASA has launched a mission called Atmospheric Perturbations around the Eclipse Path (APEP)
to study how a solar eclipse affects the upper atmosphere.

Q81.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the
signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
● These countries were later joined by Qatar (1961), Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), the United Arab
Emirates (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), Ecuador (1973), Gabon (1975), Angola (2007), Equatorial
Guinea (2017) and Congo (2018).
● By its statute, the mission of the OPEC is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member
countries. The aim is to ensure the stabilisation of oil markets to secure an efficient, economic and
regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to producers and a fair return on capital for
those investing in the petroleum industry.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India emphasises the importance of OPEC taking into account the concerns and requirements of
nations reliant on oil consumption.

Q82.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Territorial Army in its present form came into being after the passing of the Territorial Army Act in
1948. It comprised Infantry, Armoured Corps, Air Defence Artillery, Signals, Supply and other
departmental units. It was officially initiated by the first Indian Governor General Shri C Rajagopalachari
in 1949. This day continues to be celebrated as the Territorial Army Day. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Territorial Army is a voluntary, part-time civilian force that receives military training and serves as
a reserve force for the army “to relieve [it] of static duties, to aid the civil power, and to provide units
for the regular Army, as and when required.” It has been deployed in times of war and internal
disturbances. So, statement 2 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.
● Any Indian citizen aged between 18 and 42 is eligible to apply for and join the Territorial Army upon
successfully passing the written test, interview, medical examination and the required training. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Territorial Army inducted the first batch of Mandarin-trained officers along LAC.

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Q83.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Sympatric speciation is the process by which two or more new species evolve from a single ancestral
species while living in the same geographic area. This is in contrast to allopatric speciation, which occurs
when two or more new species evolve from a single ancestral species after becoming geographically
isolated.
○ One recent example of sympatric speciation is the Asiatic wild dog (Dhole). According to a study,
the diurnal activity of the dholes had the highest temporal overlap with leopards and the lowest
with clouded leopards.
● Hybrid speciation occurs when two divergent lineages (e.g., species) with independent evolutionary
histories come into contact and interbreed.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
Asiatic wild dog (Dhole):
● Native Species: Dholes are native to Central, South, East, and Southeast Asia.
● Habitation and Distribution: They are found in various regions of India, including the
Central Indian Highlands, Western and Eastern Ghats, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Meghalaya, West Bengal, and the Indo-Gangetic Plain's Terai region.
● Other Names: Dholes are known by several names, including Asian wild dog, Asiatic
wild dog, Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red dog, and mountain wolf.
● Conservation Status:
○ Dholes are listed as "Endangered" on the IUCN Red List.
○ They are included in CITES Appendix II.
○ In India, they are protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
Relevance: A study of Assam’s Manas National Park revealed there could be a positive association between
dholes and tigers.

Q84.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Nobel Prizes were established by Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, engineer, scientist, and
philanthropist. Alfred Nobel, in his last will and testament, left instructions for the establishment of the
Nobel Prizes, which are awarded annually in recognition of outstanding achievements in the fields of
Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, and Peace.
● The Nobel Prizes were initially given in the areas of Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine,
Literature and Peace. In 1968, Sveriges Riksbank (Sweden's central bank) established The Sveriges
Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel.
● Following are some of the important facts related to the Nobel Prize:
○ A Nobel Prize can be shared by up to three individuals, or in the case of the peace prize, it can
also be awarded to an organisation. The statutes of the Nobel Foundation, which is responsible
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for fulfilling the intentions of Nobel’s will, specifically states: “In no case may a prize amount be
divided between more than three persons”. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ In order to become a Nobel Prize laureate, one must first be nominated for a prize by an eligible
nominator. Self-nomination is not allowed. Except for the Nobel Peace Prize, nomination is by
invitation only and nominators must fulfil the criteria set out by the awarding institutions. So,
statement 2 is correct.
○ A Nobel Prize cannot be revoked. According to the statutes of the Nobel Foundation, § 10, “No
appeals may be made against the decision of a prize-awarding body with regard to the award of
a prize”. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ A Nobel Prize cannot be awarded posthumously. However, since 1974, if the recipient dies after
the prize has been announced they can still be awarded it.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently Noble Prizes for 2023 were awarded in recognition of outstanding achievements in the
fields of Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature and Peace.

Q85.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS): It was brought into effect through the Energy Conservation
(Amendment) Act of 2022 which empowers the Central Government to establish a carbon trading framework.
With the CCTS, India aims to create a thriving domestic carbon market, encouraging industries and entities to
reduce their carbon emissions through a market-based approach.
● The responsibility for developing the Carbon Trading Scheme is jointly entrusted to the Bureau of Energy
Efficiency, operating under the Ministry of Power, along with the Ministry of Environment, Forest &
Climate Change. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency, as the Administrator, will identify sectors for emission
reduction and issue carbon credit certificates based on recommendations from accredited verification
agencies.
● Transparent trading will be facilitated through a secure registry operated by the Grid Controller of India
Ltd. The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission will regulate trading activities, safeguarding
interests and overseeing market operations. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The system assigns a quantifiable value, referred to as a carbon credit, to every metric ton of reduced
or avoided carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e) emissions from the environment. Companies exceeding
their predetermined emission reduction goals will receive carbon credit certificates as an incentive, while
those failing to meet their targets must procure certificates to compensate for their shortfall or
potentially face penalties. Each carbon credit certificate will be equivalent to one tonne of CO2e (carbon
dioxide equivalent). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Experts have lauded the notification of the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) by the Government
of India under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.

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Q86.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● ‘Bharat NCX 2023’ was conducted as a hybrid exercise with the aim to train senior management and
technical personnel of Government/Critical Sector organisations and Public and Private agencies on
contemporary cyber threats and handling cyber incidents and response.
● It was organised by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with the Rashtriya
Raksha University (RRU).
● Bharat NCX India helped strategic leaders to better understand cyber threats, assess readiness, and
develop skills for cyber crisis management and cooperation. This will also help develop and test
cybersecurity skills, teamwork, planning, communication, critical thinking, and decision-making.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Bharat NCX 2023, a hybrid exercise to combat cyber threats, was recently conducted.

Q87.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear
explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes. Although it was adopted by the United Nations
General Assembly in 1996, it’s still in the ratification stage, 18 countries are yet to ratify (the process by
which a state indicates its consent to be bound to a treaty). So, statement 1 is correct.
● Each State Party has the right to withdraw from the CTBT if it decides that extraordinary events related
to the subject matter of the Treaty have jeopardised the State Party’s supreme national interests. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● Under Article VII, each State Party has the right to propose amendments to the treaty after its entry
into force. Any proposed amendment requires the approval of a simple majority of State Parties at an
amendment conference with no party casting a negative vote.
● The treaty was opened for signature in September 1996 and has been signed by 187 nations and ratified
by 178. The treaty cannot formally enter into force until it is ratified by 44 specific nations, eight of which
have yet to do so: China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel, Iran, Egypt and the United States of
America (USA). So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Russia has announced plans to revoke its ratification of the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
(CTBT).

Q88.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● “Continuously Operating Reference Stations" (CORS) Network is capable of precise Location-based
services, which are capable of providing centimetre-level positioning services in real-time. CORS data
will also aid in various scientific studies like Upper Atmosphere and Space weather studies, Meteorology

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and weather forecast, Plate motion and Tectonic studies, Seismology and Hydrology etc. So, statement
1 is correct.
● These stations will be operated by the Survey of India. The Survey of India has set up more than 1,000
CORS stations across India. These stations are capable of providing Real-Time Positioning Service through
real-time kinematics with an accuracy of + / - 3cm. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Survey of India:
● It is the National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the
Department of Science & Technology.
● It is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India that was set up in 1767.
● It has the responsibility to ensure that the country's domain is explored and mapped
suitably, provide base maps for expeditious and integrated development and ensure
that all resources contribute with their full measure to the progress, prosperity and
security of our country now and for generations to come.
Relevance: The Union Minister of Science and Technology has recently launched the Continuously Operating
Reference Stations (CORS) Network.

Q89.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● An injunction is an official order given by a law court, usually to stop someone from doing something.
However, in most cases, such injunctions are granted by the court only after the court identifies the work
and determines the plaintiff’s copyright in that work. To avoid this cumbersome process and grant
protection to copyrighted works in a timely manner, courts sometimes rely on the concept of “dynamic”
injunctions.
● A dynamic injunction is passed to protect copyrighted works even before they are publicly released,
distributed, or created. It ensures that no irreparable loss is caused to its authors and owner, owing to
the imminent possibility of such works being uploaded on rogue websites or their newer versions
immediately after their creation or release, given the challenges posed by online piracy.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Delhi High Court restrained nine websites from illegally broadcasting the ICC Men’s Cricket
World Cup 2023 matches by issuing dynamic injunction.

Q90.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Natural rubber is an additional polymer that is obtained as a milky white fluid known as latex from a
tropical rubber tree. Natural rubber is from the monomer isoprene (2-methyl-1,3-butadiene), which is
a conjugated diene hydrocarbon. In natural rubber, most of the double fonds formed in the polymer
chain have the Z configuration, resulting in natural rubber's elastomer qualities. So, statement 1 is
correct.
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● India is currently the world’s fifth largest producer of natural rubber while it also remains the second
biggest consumer of the material globally. About 40% of India’s total natural rubber consumption is
currently met through imports. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Tripura is the second largest rubber-producing state in India after Kerala, as per area under cultivation
and quantity of produce. Tripura's share in India's rubber production increased from 7.27% in 2017-18
to 8.70% in 2019-20. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The Association of Natural Rubber Producing Countries (ANRPC) is an inter-governmental organisation
established in 1970. It welcomes governments of natural rubber-producing countries as members.
Presently, it consists of 13 countries including Bangladesh, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Malaysia,
Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam, which
collectively represent around 84% of global natural rubber production in 2022.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Chairman of the Rubber Board has called upon the Association of Natural Rubber Producing
Countries (ANRPC) to prioritise addressing such issues common for all and formulate appropriate policies.

Q91.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Lucy Mission is the first spacecraft launched to explore the Trojan asteroids, a population of
primitive asteroids orbiting in tandem with Jupiter. It will also study the diversity, geology, surface
composition, and physical properties of the asteroids. The mission is named after the fossilized skeleton
of an early human ancestor, which was nicknamed “Lucy” by its discoverers. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Lucy mission will not travel into interstellar space, but will remain within the solar system, orbiting
the Sun. Its objective is to uncover the origins of the solar system, not the universe, by studying the
surface and composition of the Trojan asteroids. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The mission was launched in 2021 by NASA and is expected to last for 12 years, visiting eight
different asteroids. One of the asteroids that the Lucy spacecraft will visit is Dinkinesh, which is
located in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Dinkinesh is named after the Amharic word for “you are marvelous”, which was also used to refer
to the Lucy fossil.
● The Lucy spacecraft captured its first images of Dinkinesh in 2023 and made a discovery:
Dinkinesh is actually a binary system of two asteroids bound together by gravity.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
Trojan Asteroids:
● These are asteroids that share an orbit with a planet, but are located at the leading
(L4) and trailing (L5) Lagrangian points.
● These asteroids occupy a stable Lagrangian point in a planet’s orbit around the Sun.
● Trojan Asteroids are some of the oldest remnants from the formation of our solar
system 5 billion years ago.
● They orbit the Sun in two loose groups: one group leading ahead of Jupiter in its orbit,
the other trailing behind at the same distance from the Sun as Jupiter.

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●Due to the combined gravitational influences of the Sun and Jupiter, these Trojan
asteroids have been trapped on stable orbits (around what is known as the Lagrange
Points) for billions of years.
Relevance: NASA’s Lucy spacecraft is about to visit its first asteroid-Dinkinesh.

Q92.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The climate ‘poly-crisis’ is a term made popular by Adam Tooze. It refers to the interconnected and
compounding crises related to climate change that are affecting the planet not just in a few sectors but
across several sectors and domains.
● Climate change manifests in a multifaceted manner, spanning from its tangible effects like increasing
temperatures, rising sea levels, and extreme weather incidents to the intricate web of societal,
economic, and political repercussions it triggers. In the Indian context, one can discern the intricate
interplay among diverse domains such as energy, infrastructure, public health, migration, and food
production, all of which are profoundly influenced by the far-reaching effects of climate change.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q93.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In the ancient judicial system in India, the justice system at the lowest rung, i.e., village level, which is
still the case in certain kinds of issues, was in the form of Panch, which is a group of five elected learned
members of the village who would preside and decide over a dispute amongst the villagers.
● The term 'Panchnama' essentially refers to a 'record of observations made by five individuals.' A
Panchnama is a document having legal bearing that records evidence and findings that an officer makes
at the scene of an offence/crime. However, its scope extends beyond crime scenes; it can pertain to any
location relevant to the crime or offence, where potentially incriminating evidence may be gathered. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The term Panchanama is not used as such or defined particularly anywhere in any book of law, but it
can be understood within the context of Section 100 of Chapter VII in The Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 (Cr.P.C.), which mandates that an Investigating Officer must create a Panchnama. So, statement 2
is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court recently ruled that 'Panchnamas' would be deemed inadmissible in a court of
law if they were prepared in a manner violative of Section 162 CrPC.

Q94.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Plasma is a very hot gas in which the electrons have been stripped from atoms to form a gas of negatively
charged electrons and positively charged ions.

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● More than 99% of the matter in the visible universe consists of plasma - the fourth state of matter.
The Sun, solar wind, the interplanetary medium, near-Earth region, magnetosphere (the cavity in which
the Earth lies and stays protected from the wrath of the Sun) and upper part of the atmosphere all consist
of plasma.
● The study of plasma waves provides information on regions inaccessible to us, transport mass and energy
across different regions, how they interact with charged particles and control the overall dynamics of
the Earth’s magnetosphere. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Plasma waves have significant applications in various fields, including astrophysics, space science,
plasma physics and communication technology. For example: they are involved in the generation of
auroras. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Aurora is a colourful plasma phenomenon that occurs due to the flow of charged particles (solar
wind) from the Sun entering the Earth’s magnetic field.
○ They are respectively referred to as the Aurora Borealis (northern lights) near the north pole and
Aurora Australis (southern lights) near the south pole.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists have recently discovered plasma waves around Mercury that can shed some light on its
magnetic environment.

Q95.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Withholding tax, also known as retention tax, is withheld or deducted from certain types of income,
such as wages, dividends, interest, and royalties, when they are paid to the recipient (non-resident
individual). The purpose of withholding tax in India is to ensure that the government receives a portion
of the income tax owed by the recipient. It is collected by the Government of India. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● Withholding tax is applicable in the case of payments made to non-resident individuals. If the income
is paid in India, the person responsible for payments to NRI must deduct the withholding tax at the time
of payment or when the amount is credited to the NRI’s account. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The amount of withholding tax in India depends on the type of income, the amount of income earned,
and the tax laws of the country where the income is earned.
● The tax rate is decided as prescribed in the Income Tax Act, 1961, or Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement (DTAA), whichever is lower. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court (SC) recently held that without an express notification, the companies cannot,
automatically, claim lower withholding tax of 5%, even if provided for in the Direct Tax Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA).

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Q96.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Iron Dome is a highly advanced air defence system developed by Israel with the help of Rafael Advanced Defence
Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries.
● It is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defence system that includes radar and Tamir interceptor missiles
that track and neutralise any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets. It is used for countering rockets,
artillery & mortars (C-RAM) as well as aircraft, helicopters and unmanned aerial vehicles. So, statement
1 is correct.
● The Iron Dome operates through three main components:
○ A radar that detects incoming rockets,
○ A command-and-control system that determines the threat level,
○ An interceptor that seeks to destroy the incoming rocket before it strikes.
● It has been adapted and improved to address other threats, including drones and aircraft, particularly in
the short-range category. It is designed to operate effectively in various weather conditions, day or
night, making it a versatile and reliable air defence system.
● Unlike the air defence systems designed to stop ballistic missiles, the Iron Dome targets unguided
rockets that remain at low altitudes – the type often fired by militant groups in Gaza. So, statement 2
is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Iron Dome, Israel's anti-missile system, recently intercepted over 5,000 rockets launched from Gaza.

Q97.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is a chronic illness where the immune system attacks the nerves, leading
to symptoms like weakness, tingling in the hands and feet, and, in severe cases, paralysis, breathing
difficulties, abnormal blood pressure, and trouble walking. Most people do recover with minimal lasting
effects.
● It is a rare condition, and while it is more common in adults and in males, people of all ages can be
affected.
● Infection with the bacteria Campylobacter jejuni, which causes gastroenteritis, is one of the most
common risk factors for GBS. People can also develop GBS after having the flu or other viral infections
including cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, and the Zika virus.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Down syndrome is a genetic disorder, caused by the presence of an extra chromosome

21 also known as trisomy of chromosome 21.
● Havana Syndrome refers to a set of mental health symptoms that are said to be
experienced by US intelligence and embassy officials in various countries. It typically
involves symptoms such as hearing certain sounds without any outside noise being
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present, nausea, vertigo and headaches, memory loss and issues with balance. A study
had found “directed” microwave radiation to be its “plausible” cause.
○ Microwave weapons” are supposed to be a type of direct energy weapons,
which aim highly focused energy in the form of sonic, laser, or microwaves, at a
target.
○ People exposed to high-intensity microwave pulses have reported a clicking or
buzzing sound, as if seeming to be coming from within their head.
● Fragile X Syndrome, also known as Martin-Bell syndrome, is an inherited genetic
disease passed down from parents to children that causes intellectual and
developmental disabilities. It is the most common hereditary cause of mental disability
in boys. The peculiar quality of this disease is that if it is inherited by the father, then it
will only affect the daughter, but if it is inherited by the mother, then it can affect both
genders. It is caused by a defect in the FMR1 gene located on the X chromosome.
Relevance: In a recent study from Israel, a connection was found between Covid-19 infection and a higher
likelihood of being diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS).

Q98.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a dynamic inter-governmental organisation established in
1997. It is aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian
Ocean region.
● IORA has 23 Member States and 11 Dialogue Partners. All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are
eligible for membership of the Association. To become members, States must adhere to the principles
and objectives enshrined in the Charter of the Association.
● Members: Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, France, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia,
Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka,
Tanzania, Thailand, United Arab Emirates, Yemen. So, points 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 are correct.
● New Zealand and Vietnam are not the members of IORA. So, points 2 and 6 are not correct.
● Dialogue Partners: China, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Germany, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Russia, Turkey, the
United Kingdom and the United States of America.
● Secretariat: Ebène, Mauritius
So, only five of the above countries are members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Sri Lanka will assume the chairmanship of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) for the period
2023 to 2025 succeeding Bangladesh.

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Q99.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Global Framework on Chemicals (GFC), administered by the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP), was adopted at the International Conference on Chemicals Management held in
Bonn, Germany in 2023.
● The aim of the GFC is to prevent or, where prevention is not feasible, minimise harm from chemicals
and waste to protect human health, including that of workers. According to the UNEP, the framework
is based on 28 targets that aim to improve the sound management of chemicals and waste.
● The framework sets a goal to phase out highly hazardous pesticides in agriculture by 2035 where risks
have not been adequately managed.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

The Bonn Declaration:

● It was adopted alongside the Global Framework on Chemicals (GFC) during the
conference.
● Advocates for the phased reduction of the most hazardous chemicals where
appropriate.
● Promotes the development of safer alternatives for chemicals.

Global Alliance on Highly Hazardous Pesticides (HHPs):

● Launched in 2023, it is a multi-stakeholder partnership that brings together
governments, international organisations, civil society, and the private sector.
● Its aim is to accelerate the transition to safer and more sustainable pest management
practices by phasing out the use of HHPs. This includes promoting the adoption of
alternative pest control methods, strengthening regulatory frameworks, and enhancing
knowledge sharing and capacity building.
Relevance: The UN Bonn Summit adopted the Global Framework on Chemicals (GFC) to reduce risks from
hazardous chemicals.

Q100.
Answer: d
Explanation
● Thallium (TI) with atomic number 81 is a soft, heavy metal that is tasteless and odourless, making it
difficult to detect. It causes nervous and gastrointestinal disorders and rapid hair loss.
● It is a toxic metal element which was historically used as a rodenticide but is now banned in the US due
to its toxicity. It does not freely occur in nature. It is found in trace amounts in the earth’s crust. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● It has no colour, odour or taste. Its use is regulated in India. It is also called the “poisoner’s poison”.
Mere contact with thallium can cause poisoning as it is highly soluble in water and can easily pass
through the skin. It is also a suspected carcinogen. So, statement 2 is correct.

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● Prussian blue is a pill that may be used in a radiation emergency to help remove radioactive cesium (Cs)
and thallium (Tl) from inside a person's body. Prussian blue traps radioactive cesium and thallium in the
intestines and keeps them from being reabsorbed by the body. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: An agricultural scientist used Thallium for poisoning in Maharashtra.

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