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Preface

Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with
detailed explanations for the NABARD Gr A 2020. This document has been
meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the
NABARD Gr A
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types
of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles
have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice
answering questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and logic behind
each correct answer. Through explanations, you will be able to reinforce your
understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of the subject
matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this
document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.

Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and
relevance of the questions, there can be some variations in the question language
and options. Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a reference
point. This will help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the syllabus
and increase your chances of success in the upcoming NABARD Gr – A.

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 Section: - Quant
Q1. A bag contains 5 red, 7 yellow and 6 green balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. What is
the probability that the balls drawn contain balls of different colours?
35
A. 138
35
B. 136
351
C. 134
35
D. 163

E. None of these
Q2. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft and 10 ft respectively. Square
tiles of 2 ft dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row
of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and
the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue-colour tiles are there?

A. 16
B. 32
C. 48
D. 24
E. None of these
Directions (3-5): Study the following line graph and answer the following questions.
Number of units sold by two different shops (Shop A and Shop B)

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 Q3. If shop C sold 30% more units of Computer as compare to shop B and it sold 25% less
units of PD as compare to shop A. Find the difference between the units of Computer sold
by Shop C and the total units of PD sold by Shop C?
A. 78
B. 79
C. 80
D. 77
E. 76
Q4. Total number of units of Computer, Printer and Hard disk sold by shop B are
approximately what % more/less than the total number of units of Mouse, PD and Other
sold by shop A?
A. 42%
B. 43%
C. 44%
D. 48%
E. 46%
Q5. Find the ratio between the total units sold by shop A to that of shop B?
A. 13: 17
B. 17: 13
C. 251: 229
D. 229: 251
E. None of these
Direction (6-8): Two equations (I) and (II) are given in each question. On the basis of these
equations, you have to decide the relation between ‘x’ and ‘y’ and give answer.
Q6. I. 99x2 + 149x + 56 = 0
II. 156y2 + 287y + 132 = 0
A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
E. if x = y or relation cannot be established.
Q7. I. 3x2 – 4x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 17y + 36 = 0

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 A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
E. if x = y or relation cannot be established.
Q8. I. x2 + 14x + 49 = 0
II. y2 + 9y = 0
A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
E. if x = y or relation cannot be established.

Directions (9-11): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only
one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Q9. 8.1, 9.2, 17.3, 26.5, 43.8, 71.5, 114.1
A. 17.3
B. 9.2
C. 26.5
D. 43.8
E. None of these
Q10. 4, 10, 22, 46, 96, 190, 382
A. 8
B. 10
C. 96
D. 382
E. None of these
Q11. 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
A. 8
B. 20
C. 48
D. 188
E. None of these
Q12. (5√7+√7) × (4√7+8√7)-? =192
A. 143
B. 72√7

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 C. 134
D. 70√7
E. None of these
Q13. A watch dealer sells watches at Rs 600 per watch. However, he is forced to give to
successive discounts of 10% and 5% respectively. However, he recovers the sales tax on the
net sale price from the customer at 5% of the discount price. What price does a customer
have to pay him to buy the watch?
A. Rs 539.75
B. Rs 539.65
C. Rs 538.75
D. Rs 538.65
E. None of these
Q14. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is 6500 in eight years at the
rate of 13 per cent per year. What would be the compound interest accrued on that
principal at the rate of 8 per cent per year in 2 years?
A. Rs 1040
B. Rs 1020
C. RS 1060
D. Rs 1200
E. None of these
Q.15 In an examination, the average of marks was found to be 50. For deducting marks for
computational errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each
and so the average of marks came down to 45. The total number of candidates, who
appeared at the examination, was:
A. 600
B. 300
C. 200
D. 150
E. None of these
Q16. There are two right circular cylinders A1 and A2. The ratio of the volumes of A1 and
A2 is 9: 4, and the heights of A1 and A2 are equal. If the difference between the radius of
A1 and A2 is 6 cm, then find the radius of A2.
A. 14 cm

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 B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
E. None of these
Q17. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours. If the tank is already 1/5 th
full and pipe A is opened for 7.5 hours and then closed, then in how much time can pipe B
fill the remaining part of the tank alone?
A. 7.5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7.2 hours
D. 8 hours
E. None of these
Q18. There are four friends. The average score in unit test of the first three is 15 and that
of the last three is 16. If the score of the last friends is 19, then first friend’s score is what
per cent of the total score of last three?
2
A. 66 3 %

B. 300%
1
C. 33 3 %

D. 40%
E. None of these

Q19. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder 616 𝐦𝟑 and 352m2 respectively,
what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in 𝐦𝟐 )?
A. 429
B. 419
C. 435
D. 421
E. 417
Q20. If ratio of investment A, B and C are in the ratio 3: 5: 8 and the time of investment of
𝟏𝟎𝟎
A, B and C are %, 𝟖𝟎% and 25% respectively of their investment, and profit of A is 4800
𝟑
then what will be the profit of C.
A. 25600

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 B. 15600
C. 24800
D. 22500
E. 26700

Section: - Reasoning
Direction: (21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W live on eight different floors of the building but not
necessarily in the same order. Each person lives in a building with floors numbered as 1 to
8 from bottom to top. U lives on an odd-numbered floor above the fourth floor. Only three
people live between U and W. Number of people live above W is same as the number of
people live below P. Three people live between P and R. V lives on an odd-numbered floor
immediately above Q. Only two people live between V and S. T lives on the lowermost floor.
Q21. Who lives immediately below U?
A. R
B. U
C. Q
D. P
E. W
Q22. Q lives on the _________________ floor.
A. 4th
B. 6th
C. 2nd
D. 1st
E. None of the above
Q23. Who lives on the 3rd floor?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. T
E. W

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 Q24. Who lives on the topmost floor?
A. S
B. P
C. R
D. Q
E. T
Q25. How many people live between U and W?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 5
Direction: In each of the questions below are given few statements followed by four
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Q26. Statements:
Some paths are trail.
All trail is stain.
Some stains are fast.
Conclusions:
I. Some trails are stain.
II. Some paths are stain.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follow
E. Neither I nor II follows
Q27. Statements:
Some Sword are Pistol.

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 No Knife are Risk.
All Pistol are Knife.
Conclusions:
I. No pistol is Risk
II. Some Sword are not Knife.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follow
E. Neither I nor II follows
Q28. Statements:
All ball is rat.
All rat is feather.
No feather is troll.
Conclusions:
I. Some feathers are ball.
II. Some trolls are rat.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follows
E. Neither I nor II follows
Q29. Statements:
Some crows are doll.
All doll is clove.
Some cloves are route.
Conclusions:
I. Some dolls are route.
II. Some crows are clove.

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 A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follows
E. Neither I nor II follows
Q30. Statements:
All planes are aslant.
Some aslant are fans.
All fans are bans.
Conclusions:
I. All planes being fans is a possibility.
II. Some bans are planes.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follows
E. Neither I nor II follows
Direction: (31-32) Study the following information and answer the given questions below.
Eight girls M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a circular table, not necessarily in the same
order, such that some of them are facing an inward direction and others are facing an
outward direction. N is sitting 3rd to the left of R, who is facing inside. Four girls are sitting
between M and N. O, who is facing outside the table, is an immediate neighbour of neither
M nor N. P faces the same direction as the person seated opposite to her is facing. T sits
fifth to the left of Q, who is not adjacent to N. S and R is not facing the same direction. P sits
to the immediate left of N. T and M face the same direction but opposite to P. S doesn't sit
exactly between R and M.
Q31. Who sits sixth to the left of M?
A. O
B. R
C. N
D. T
E. None of the above

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 Q32. How many people face outside the table?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
E. None of the above
Direction: In each question, some statements and two conclusions are given. You have to
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) according to the given statements.
Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Q33. Statements:
A < R = F ≤ N; C ≤ B ≥ L > S= N
Conclusions:
I. A ≥ L
II. S ≥ F
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Q34. Statements:
Q ≥ E ≤ A < L; H ≤ E ≥ M = L
Conclusions:
I. L ≤ Q
II. L < H
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Q35. Statements:

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 A > F ≥ D= R; N< X > J ≥ R; S > B ≤ V = A
Conclusions:
I. X > B
II. V > J
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Direction: (36-40) Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Ten people are born in five different months i.e., January, March, June, September, and
October of the same year, two people were born in one month.
Note: Persons born in the same month are "time twins" i.e., they were born at the same time
on the same day, in the same month.
W was born just before S and just after V. U and P were born in the same month having 31
days. S was born in a month having 30 days. R is just elder than X and just younger than Q. X
is neither the youngest nor the eldest person in the group. Y is elder than T who was not born
in the same month as S.
Q36. T was born before _____________ but after ________________.
A. Y, R
B. Y, S
C. V, Q
D. U, P
E. None of the above
Q37. S was born in ___________.
A. January
B. March
C. June
D. October
E. None of the above
Q38. Who among the following was born in January?

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 A. W
B. V
C. X
D. U
E. None of the above
Q39. How many people are younger than R?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
E. None of the above
Q40. P was born in the month of _______________.
A. January
B. March
C. October
D. June
E. September

Section: - English Language

(Directions 41-45): In this question, a part of the sentence is written in BOLD. Below are
given alternatives to the BOLD part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no replacement is needed, mark (E) as your answer.

Q41. A comedian analyses the mundane from a variety of angles and FIND THE THREAD
AMONG TWO POINTS.
A. found the threading between two points
B. finds the thread between two points
C. finding the thread among two points
D. is finding the thread between more than two points
E. No correction required
Q42. A federal government climate-change report released last year shows the Pacific
Northwest is already SEEING DAMANGE FROM RISING TEMPERATURES.

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 A. seen damages for rising temperatures
B. seeing damaging rising temperatures
C. seen damaging from rising temperatures
D. seeing damages for rising temperatures
E. No correction required
Q43. GETTING TO HIRE as the assistant to a pastry chef seemed like a dream come true.
A. Get to hire
B. Getting to be hired
C. Getting hired
D. Having got hired
E. No correction required
Q44. The article explores the problem and the CONSEQUENCES DAMAGE ARISES out of
dumping about 5 to 13 million tonnes of plastic into the ocean each year.
A. consequences damaging arising
B. consequential damaging arising
C. consequences for damages arising
D. consequential damage arising
E. No correction required
Q45. Students from around the world HAVE INCREASING STARTED OPTING TO online
education.
A. has increasingly started opt to
B. have increasing starting opted to
C. have increasingly started opting for
D. have increasingly starting opting for
E. No correction required
(Directions 46-50): Rearrange the following eight sentences A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given
beside.
A. What was until then a sport predominantly of the hinterlands received wider recognition
as television and newspapers began discovering it.
B. The Aamir Khan-starrer Dangal, which narrates the story of Mahavir Singh Phogat and his
daughters Geeta Phogat and Babita Kumari, was perhaps the icing on the cake.
C. Ever since Sushil Kumar won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, wrestling has,

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 without doubt, grown by leaps and bounds.
D. Now, it has reached a stage where Sakshi’s Olympic bronze is expected to do to women’s
wrestling what Sushil’s did to wrestling in general.
E. Also, independent India’s first individual Olympic medal winner was a wrestler: Khashaba
Dadasaheb Jadhav, who bagged a bronze in the 1952 Helsinki Games. This aided wrestling in
securing a prominent place both in the minds of the country’s citizenry as well as in its yet-to-
thrive sporting ecosystem.
F. That Sakshi and the Phogats came from Haryana, a State infamous for its skewed gender
ratio, even boosted the narrative of the sport now being a tool for breaking gender
stereotypes.
G. Even to the uninitiated, the sport’s rich moral, philosophical and mystical heritage — with
links first to the Ramayana and the Mahabharata through the likes of Hanuman and Bhima,
and then to the Mughals and Maratha kings, who were huge patrons of the sport — has
always appealed.
H. A series of successes followed, from Yogeshwar Dutt to the Phogat sisters to Sakshi Malik.
Q46. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. G
B. B
C. H
D. A
E. F
Q47. Which of the following would be the SEVENTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. C
B. H
C. D
D. B
E. A
Q48. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. H
C. C
D. D
E. F
Q49. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

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 A. H
B. C
C. G
D. A
E. D
Q50. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A. D
B. A
C. G
D. H
E. B
Directions 51-60) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
Certain words are given in BOLD to help you locate them while answering same of the
questions.

Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in its emphasis,
approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new dimension and perspective as
a consequence. Rural development can be richer and more meaningful only through the
participation of clienteles of development. Just as implementation is the TOUCHSTONE for
planning, people's participation is the centrepiece in rural development. People's
participation is one of the foremost prerequisites of development process both from
procedural and philosophical perspectives. For the development planners and administrators,
it is important to solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans
participatory.
Rural development aims at improving rural people's livelihoods in an EQUITABLE and
sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access to assets and
services, and control over productive capital.
The basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been ALLEVIATION of poverty
and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure, provision of
training to rural unemployed you and providing employment to marginal farmers/labourers
to discourage seasonal and permanent migration to urban areas.
Rural development is the main pillar of nation's development. In spite of rapid urbanisation,
a large section of our population still lives in the villages. Secondly, rural India has lagged
behind in development because of many historical factors. Though the 11th Plan began in
very favourable circumstances with the economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year
in the 10th Plan period, there still existed a big challenge to correct the developmental
imbalances and to accord due priority to development in rural areas. Ministry of Rural
Development is implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic
development in rural areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all-round economic and

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 social transformation in rural areas through a multi-pronged strategy aiming to reach out to
the most disadvantaged sections of the society.
Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the Government of India through several
plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still remains much more to be
done to bring prosperity in the lives of the people in rural areas. At present, technology
dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural areas. Good efforts of organisations developing
technologies, devices and products for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences
of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher
dissemination rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been
catering to needs, rather than creating demand. There is no industry-linkage machinery to
create demand-based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there is also an
imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes. PROPAGATION of
technology/schemes for rural development is slow and there is a lacking in wider participation
of different stakeholders. An ideal approach may, therefore, include the government,
panchayats, village personnel, researchers, industries, NGOs and private companies to not
only help in reducing this imbalance, but also to have a multiplier effect on the overall
economy.
Q51. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural
Development Programmes?
(A) To promote urbanisation
(B) Provide training to youth
(C) Reducing unemployment
A. Only A and C
B. Only C
C. Only B and C
D. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
E. Only A
Q52. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold
as used in the passage?
ALLEVIATION
A. Mitigation
B. soothing
C. intensification
D. outpouring
E. comfortable
Q53. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word PROPAGATION
as used in the passage?
A. generation

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 B. producing
C. reproduction
D. underdevelopment
E. growth
Q54. What, according to the passage, is the most important factor of rural development?
A. Alleviation of poverty and unemployment
B. Employment to marginal farmers and labourers
C. Participation of different groups of rural people
D. Creation of basic social and economic infrastructure
E. None of these
Q55. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(A) Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban areas.
(B)The economic growth of the 10th Five Year Plan did not translate into proportionate rural
development.
(C) The efforts of the Government of India for poverty alleviation have met with complete
failure.
A. Only A and B
B. Only C
C. Only A and C
D. Only B
E. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
Q56. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME is meaning as TOUCHSTONE used in
the passage?
A. yardstick
B. periphery
C. sensitivity
D. weakness
E. hurdle
Q57. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology-aided development in
rural areas?
(A) Creation of demand for technology-aided development in rural areas is missing.
(B) There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology-aided
development.

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 (C) There is a dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology-aided
development.
A. Only C
B. Only B and C
C. Only A
D. Only A and B
E. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
Q58. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technology in Rural India
B. The Rural Indian Communities
C. Rural Development—The Participative Way
D. Rural India — Ignored by All the Stakeholders
E. Rural Development —An Impossible Dream
Q59. What is the current status of the poverty alleviation programme initiated by the
Government of India?
(A) Technology dissemination is uneven and slow in rural areas.
(B) There still remains much more to be done to bring prosperity in the lives of the people in
rural areas.
(C) There is a lack of participation of different stakeholders.
A. Only (A) and (B)
B. Only (B) and (C)
C. Only (A) and (C)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Q60. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word EQUITABLE given in
the passage?
A. troubled
B. unfair
C. separated
D. futuristic
E. just
(Directions 61-65) In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four
fragments labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the correct

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 order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement from the options given below. In
case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer.
Q61. Constructed role for women places them in the (A) / domestic sphere and prevents
them from undertaking (B) / social, economic, and political activities designated for men (C)
/ In traditional, patriarchal societies, the culturally (D)
A. ADCB
B. BCDA
C. DABC
D. DACB
E. No rearrangement required
Q62. Claimed that an “independent agency” found that (A) / the Prime Minister, in a recent
televised interview, misleadingly (B) / 70 lakh Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
accounts (C) / were opened for persons aged 18–25 years (D)
A. BACD
B. BCDA
C. ADCB
D. DBCA
E. No rearrangement required
Q63. That from January 2018, user charges in public hospitals for various services will (A) /
services tax (GST) and to finance better quality services and improved maintenance (B) / At
the end of 2017, the Maharashtra government issued a government resolution (C) / increase
substantially, in order to cover the increased costs to hospitals due to goods and (D)
A. DABC
B. CBAD
C. BACD
D. CADB
E. No rearrangement required
Q64. Of higher education because in addition to large-scale (A)/ state universities remain
central in the entire structure (B)/ on-campus enrolment they grant affiliation and thereby
administer (C)/ and control a large network of colleges in their respective jurisdictions. (D)
A. BCDA
B. BACD
C. ADCB
D. DBCA

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 E. No rearrangement required
Q65. Surge pricing is a price discrimination policy which is (A)/ supply and is a strategy of
taking advantage of (B)/ followed when the demand for a product exceeds its (C)/ low price
elasticity of demand during peak or rush times. (D)
A. ACBD
B. ABCD
C. DACB
D. CABD
E. No rearrangement required
(Directions 66-70) In the following passage, some of the words/sentences have been left out,
each of which is indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word/sentence from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words/sentences to make the
paragraph meaningful.
"The first thing you ____ 66____, if you look at a map, is that the Arctic — unlike the Antarctic
— is an ocean surrounded by continents," Alastair Fraser, a geoscientist from Imperial College
London, told Live Science. Firstly, this means there's a huge quantity of ____ 67 ____ material
available, in the form of dead sea creatures such as plankton and algae, which form the basis
of what will ____ 68 ____ become oil and gas. Secondly, the surrounding ring of continents
means that the Arctic Basin contains a high proportion of continental crust, which makes up
about 50% of its oceanic area, Fraser explained. That's significant because continental crust
— as ____ 69 ____ to ocean crust, which makes up the rest of the area — typically contains
deep depressions called basins, into which organic matter sinks, he said.
Here, it gets ____ 70____ in shale and preserved in 'anoxic' waters, meaning they contain
little oxygen. "Normally, in a shallow sea with lots of oxygen, it would not be preserved. But
if the sea is deep enough, the ocean will be stratified, meaning the oxygenated waters at the
top will be separated from the anoxic conditions at the base," Fraser explained.
Q66. Fill in the blank 66.
A. realize

B. endeavour
C. associate
D. intend
E. pretend
Q67. Fill in the blank 67.
A. toxic
B. utility

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 C. stable
D. flammable
E. organic
Q68. Fill in the blank 68.
A. primarily
B. prematurely
C. lately
D. ultimately
E. freshly
Q69. Fill in the blank 69.
A. callous
B. rebellious
C. opposed
D. contiguous
E. similar
Q70. Fill in the blank 70.
A. dismembered
B. maimed
C. decomposed
D. embedded
E. adapted
(Directions 71-72) Five statements are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E, among these,
four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given
options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
Q71. A. The egregious practice that many Muslim men employ to divorce their wives
instantaneously and without their consent, merely by uttering the word talaq thrice, was
rendered legally invalid by the Shamim Ara vs State of UP judgment of 2002 and subsequent
orders from various High Courts.
B. This practice has been either explicitly derecognised in Muslim-majority countries such as
Indonesia, Iran and Tunisia or implicitly in countries such as Pakistan, which provides for a
mandatory arbitration procedure after the pronouncement of talaq.

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 C. Shayara Bano, one such victim of this arbitrary custom — not to speak of years of domestic
violence — has filed a public interest litigation in the Supreme Court seeking a ban on the
practice.
D. But this has not stopped the practice; many Muslim women are unaware of the judgments
or have had to accept such pronouncements owing to pressure from conservative sections.
E. The conservative All India Muslim Personal Law Board that seeks to wield influence on
questions of Muslim personal law has, predictably, found it an occasion to air its regressive
views on the issue.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q72. A. But a premature lowering of the guard and growing resistance to DDT led to rising
incidence in the 1980s.
B. Some of the major challenges the country had to face before it interrupted local
transmission were the Plasmodium falciparum parasite becoming resistant to the chloroquine
drug, behavioural changes in the vector, asymptomatic carriers and vector reintroduction.
C. Sri Lanka was close to eliminating malaria in 1963, when it reported just 17 cases.
D. But the tide turned from 2000 when a steady reduction in the number of cases was
recorded.
E. The public sector and the private sector were oriented to the common goal of eliminating
malaria by enhancing case notification and achieving 100 per cent detection and confirmation
through tests.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
(Directions 73-75): The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits in the
context of the sentence.
Q73. The edtech firms provide campus recruits the required platform, content, assignments
and project work in their last _____________ of college to ensure they are prepared with
programming skills and _____________ digital skills before they join.

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 A. week, archaic
B. semester, emerging
C. month, irrational
D. segment, depreciating
E. portion, appreciating
Q74. Content that _____________ leaders or groups of the opposite ideology based on
falsehoods, deepens communal _____________ or incites hatred have gained traction in the
last few years.
A. disparages, harmony
B. denigrates, polarization
C. cheer, positioning
D. maligns, congruence
E. excites, agenda
Q75. IFC aims to support the Maharashtra Housing department to scale-up green affordable
_____________ in the region and avoid lock-in of the resources and energy _____________
housing units.
A. homes, extensive
B. spots, filling
C. companies, neutral
D. housing, intensive
E. markets, finishing
(Directions 76-80): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The study of climate change has established retreating glaciers and rising global temperatures
from a number of data sources. Establishing the influence of mankind upon these effects has
been more difficult, because the climate is subject to oscillations that are much longer in
duration than our record of direct temperature measurements, which extends back only
about 150 years.
By drilling and conducting chemical and physical studies of ice cores on six of the seven
continents, scientists have developed a method of estimating climatic information that had
previously been thought inaccessible. Ice cores removed from the earth's crust and studied
in order to draw such inferences are termed paleo-proxies. The values of various climatic
variables at a particular time and place can be inferred through some form of proxy analysis
in a given ice core sample. For example, deuterium excess indicates humidity levels, electrical
conductivity indicates volcanic activity, beryllium levels indicate solar activity, and particle size
and concentration indicate wind speeds. Temperature, in particular, can be inferred from the
ratios of water molecules composed of stable isotopes of oxygen and hydrogen, namely

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 1H2H16O and 1H218O. Because molecules consisting of these isotopes have slightly different
weights than their more common counterparts, their concentration in the ice core in a given
epoch depends on the condensation temperature prevailing at the time. This technique
enables scientists to estimate the air temperature of condensation when the snow fell and
establish variations in temperature over a series of multiple samples.
One advantage of using ice cores as a paleo-proxy is that ice core samples can be extracted
from across the world using different drilling techniques, for analysis either on-site or in a
laboratory, with results that can be compared to each other and stitched into a coherent
global picture. The primary sources of ice cores are the ice sheets of Antarctica and Greenland,
whose thickness allows scientists to extract long cores representing time spans of up to
100,000 or even 400,000 years. Nevertheless, samples representing spans of multiple
centuries have been extracted more recently at low latitudes--for example, at Mt.
Kilimanjaro, in the Andes Mountains, and on the Himalayan plateau. Depending on the
objectives of the project and the nature of the ice core, scientists use a variety of types of drill
ranging from hand-powered auger drill to electro-mechanical drills. A limitation of using ice
cores is that they represent data for conditions during snowfall only. Periods bereft of
snowfall will fail to leave a record in the ice and can even disrupt the essential step of dating
the samples. To mitigate this problem, multiple cores are typically extracted from nearby
locations. A more critical limitation of the ice core method, one indicative of the larger
problem at hand, is that as ice fields continue to retreat, the ability to measure in some
locations will disappear entirely.
Q76. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
A. describing the data that supports a scientific theory
B. illustrating how a research method has generated results that challenge an accepted theory
C. arguing that data obtained from a particular research method are as useful as data
obtained directly
D. describing a scientific challenge and a research technique to address that challenge
E. providing an overall evaluation of a research technique
Q77. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about using ice cores as paleo-proxies?
A. It is the only feasible method to collect climate data.
B. It yields data that are insufficient to determine the influence of mankind on retreating
glaciers.
C. It should not be widely adopted, since it will be impossible in the near future.
D. It is one of multiple valid sources of data on the climate.
E. It yields unreliable data about global temperature but has advanced the state of our
scientific knowledge.
Q78. It can be inferred from the passage that the technique of using ice cores to determine
historical temperatures would be less advantageous if which of the following were true?

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 A. It indicated different temperatures at different times for a particular location, according to
different isotope concentrations in the sample.
B. It indicated different results at the same location, according to differing extraction methods
of the samples.
C. It yielded information dating back only 80,000 years in most locations.
D. It indicated that the ratios of oxygen isotopes in the air in a given location varied over time.
E. It indicated that ice sheets were not retreating.
Q79. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ice cores extracted at
low latitudes?
A. They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than
sediments formed at other times.
B. They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of
land ice.
C. They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the
sediment was laid down.
D. They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions.
E. They can be used to determine atmospheric conditions at various times in the past.
Q80. It can be inferred from the passage that the air temperature of condensation at a time
in the past when snow fell
A. can be determined from the ratio of hydrogen and oxygen isotopes in the air
B. correlates with the average air temperature in that area at that time
C. correlates with the average air temperature in that area at the time of measurement
D. creates land ice of a higher density at higher temperatures
E. rises during periods in which glaciers are retreating

Section: - General Awareness

Q81. Recently, BIMSTEC Disaster management Exercise 2020 has taken place recently in
February 2020 at which of the following places?

A. Gandhinagar, Gujarat

B. Jaipur, Rajasthan

C. Amritsar, Punjab

D. Bhubaneshwar, Odisha

E. New Delhi

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 Q82. Who is the winner of 55th Jnanpith Award, announced in the month of November
2019?

A. Amitav Ghosh

B. Krishna Sobti

C. Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri

D. Kavita Krishnan

E. Kedarnath Singh

Q83. Who was the captain of Indian team in ICC U-19 cricket world cup, held recently in
January 2020?

A. Yashaswi Jaiswal

B. Priyam Garg

C. Atharva Ankolekar

D. Shubhang Hegde

E. Divyaansh Saxena

Q84. Who among the following has recently, in the month of Feb 2020, won Men’s single
title in Australian Open 2020?

A. Novak Djokovic

B. Rafael Nadal

C. Roger Federer

D. Dominic Thiem

E. Alexander Zverev

Q85. R.K Pachauri who has recently passed away in the month of Feb 2020, belonged to
which of the following fields?

A. Environment

B. Space

C. Energy

D. Music

E. Medicine

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 Q86. Recently in the month of February 2020, ‘Ajeya Warrior’ exercise was held between
India and which of the following countries?

A. Canada

B. Afghanistan

C. Singapore

D. United Kingdom

E. USA

Q87. India’s lightest & cheapest bullet proof jacket has been developed by Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre under Make in India Programme, in July 2019. This indigenously built jacket
is called as ________________

A. Bhabha Surakshit

B. Bhabha Kavach

C. Suraksha Kavach

D. Nano Jacket

E. Arjun Kavach

Q88. Which of the following movies has won the award for Best Movie for the year 2020 at
Oscar awards, in Feb 2020?

A. Marriage Story

B. Bomb Shell

C. Green Book

D. Parasite

E. Shape of Water

Q89. Addia Ababa is the capital of which of the following African nations?

A. Ghana

B. Ethiopia

C. Kenya

D. Liberia

E. Libya

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 Q90. Recently in the month of Feb 2020, India has signed an MOU (Memorandum of
Understanding) in the field of sustainable fisheries development with which of the
following countries?

A. Japan

B. Netherland

C. South Africa

D. Iceland

E. Australia

Q91. According to the recently released Public Enterprises Survey in the month of Feb 2020,
which of the following PSUs has come under top three profitable PSUs along with IOCL and
NTPC in 2018-19?

A. ONGC

B. BSNL

C. MTNL

D. SAIL

E. PFC

Q92. Union Minister of MSME Nitin Gadkari has recently (Feb 2020) flagged off ‘Apiary on
Wheels’, a unique concept designed by __________ for the easy upkeep and migration of
Bee Boxes having live Bee colonies.

A. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

B. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD)

C. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)

D. National Housing Bank (NHB)

E. National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj

Q93. Recently in the month of February 2020, Kaamya Karthikeyan has become the
youngest girl to summit Mount Aconcagua. She is a student of Navy Children School,
_________

A. Mumbai

B. Hyderabad

C. Thiruvananthapuram

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 D. Ahmedabad

E. Indore

Q94. Recently, WHO (World Health Organization) has recently named Corona Virus as
________

A. COVID-19

B. COVIN-19

C. ZIKA-19

D. SARS-19

E. CROWID-19

Q95. Marcelo Rebelo de Sousa was recently on a state visit to India in the month of Feb
2020. He is the President of which of the following countries?

A. Spain

B. Chile

C. Argentina

D. Brazil

E. Portugal

Q96. What was the theme of “United Nations (UN) International Day of Education 2020”,
recently observed on 24th January 2020?

A. Educate for sustainable development

B. Learning for people, planet, prosperity and peace

C. Educate for our prosperous future

D. Educate for our sustainable future

E. None of the above

Q97. What is the name of world’s cheapest gunshot locator developed recently by Indian
Army’s College of Military Engineering (CME) jointly with a private firm, in the month of Feb
2020?

A. Vaibhav

B. Akshat

C. Parth

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 D. Abhimanyu

E. Bheem

Q98. UNESCO World Heritage site Buddhist Monument ‘Horyu-ji Area’ is located in which
of the following countries?

A. Indonesia

B. Japan

C. Cambodia

D. Afghanistan

E. Vietnam

Q99. Which of the following companies has announced, in the month of Feb 2020, that it
is going to set up two data centres in the state of Telangana at a cost of Rs 11,624 crore?

A. Amazon

B. Flipkart

C. Google

D. Facebook

E. Snapdeal

Q100. A mobile app of Red Cross Society of India, developed by Telangana Center for Good
Governance (CGG). It has been released by President of India Sh. Ram Nath Kovind in which
of the following cities?

A. Hyderabad

B. Warangal

C. Siddipet

D. Nizamabad

E. Sangareddy

Section: - Economics & Social Issues (ESI)

Q101. Largest cultivation of rice is done in which of the following states of India?

A. Gujarat

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 B. West Bengal

C. Punjab

D. Tamil Nadu

E. Uttar Pradesh

Q102. What is India’s rank in Human Development Index 2019?

A. 121st

B. 132nd

C. 129th

D. 189th

E. 130th

Q103. In which of the following farming type, large amount of capital and labour is used
relative to the land available?

A. Extensive Farming

B. Intensive Farming

C. Commercial Farming

D. Primitive Farming

E. Mixed Farming

Q104. Sustaining agricultural productivity depends on quality and availability of natural

resources like soil and water. Towards it, National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture
(NMSA) has been launched in India. Which of the following is a component of NMSA?

A. Rainfed Area Development (RAD)

B. Sub-Mission on Agroforestry (SMAF)

C. Soil Health Management (SHM)

D. Climate Change and Sustainable Agriculture: Monitoring, Modeling and Networking

(CCSAMMN)

E. All of the above are the components of this Mission

Q105. What is the sunset date of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)?

A. 31.03.2021

B. 25.06.2024

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 C. 31.03.2022

D. 25.06.2024

E. 01.01.2021

Q106. Third Industrial Policy of India is going to be launched with the objective of making
India a manufacturing hub. It will replace which of the following earlier Industrial policies?

A. Industrial policy, 1956

B. Industrial policy, 1984

C. Industrial policy, 2014

D. Industrial policy, 1991

E. None of the above

Q107. Production of raw silk using domesticated caterpillars is called ___________

A. Arboriculture

B. Sericulture

C. Apiculture

D. Silviculture

E. Floriculture

Q108. 50th edition of Summit of World Economic Forum has recently taken place in the
month of Jan 2020 in Davos, Switzerland. What was its theme?

A. Globalization 4.0: Shaping a Global Architecture in the Age of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution.

B. Stakeholders for a Cohesive and Sustainable World

C. Creating a Shared Future in a Fractured World

D. Creating a Sustainable World for Future Generation

E. None of these

Q109. Fifth edition of Pulses Conclave has recently taken place in the month of February
2020, at which of the following places?

A. Gandhinagar, Gujarat

B. Lonavala, Maharashtra

C. Mysuru, Karnataka

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 D. Bikaner, Rajasthan

E. New Delhi

Q110. According to the first advance estimates of the year 2019-20, what is the estimated
production of Kharif crops for this year?

A. 145.55 Million Tonnes

B. 150.55 Million Tonnes

C. 125.57 Million Tonnes

D. 140.57 Million Tonnes

E. 240.67 Million Tonnes

Q111. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the objectives of Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?

A. To Enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under
assured irrigation.

B. To Improve on - farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both
in duration and extent.

C. To Enhance recharge of aquifers and introduce sustainable water conservation practices.

D. To provide insurance coverage to farmers for their yield under assured irrigation.

E. All of the above are features of the scheme

Q112. Government has recently increased the deadline for NCLT for the resolution from 270
days to ______ days, in the month of July 2019.

A. 315

B. 425
C. 330

D. 365

E. 300

Q113. 6th World Congress in Rural and Agri finance has taken place at which of the following
places, in the month of November 2019?

A. New Delhi

B. Hyderabad

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 C. Indore

D. Chennai

E. Kolkata

Q114. What does ‘R’ stand for in GOBAR DHAN Yojana?

A. Resources

B. Rejuvenate

C. Renewable

D. Rural

E. None of these

Q115. IMF has recently, in the month of January 2020, has lowered the GDP Forecast of
India for this year due to which of the following factors?

A. NBFC

B. Dip in rural demand

C. Dip in urban demand

D. Both a & b

E. Both b & c

Q116. According to the advance estimates of 2019-20, What is the amount of horticulture
production in India?

A. 213.33 million tonnes

B. 313.35 million tonnes

C. 125.25 million tonnes

D. 325.45 million tonnes

E. 125.45 million tonnes

Q117. NABARD has announced, in the month of July 2019, that it is going to raise Rs.55,000
crore in this financial year. It raises such amount through the long-term bonds of ________
years.

A. 5-10

B. 20-25

C. 10-15

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 D. 50

E. 30-35

Q118. Which of the following is the aim of Deen Dayal Antoyada National Rural Livelihood
mission?

A. to provide employment to each household for 100 days in an year

B. to alleviate rural poverty and create livelihood opportunities for rural poor

C. to provide free foodgrains to poor people in the rural areas

D. to provide the women Self Help Groups with the required financial aid

E. All of the above

Q119. Draft National Education Policy 2019 has laid the foundational pillars of Access,
Equity, Quality, Affordability and ___________

A. Accountability

B. Equality

C. Education

D. Sustainability

E. None of these

Q120. Global Economic Prospects Report released recently in January 2020, by World Bank,
has forecasted the GDP growth rate of India for this year at __________

A. 5%

B. 5.7%

C. 6.5%

D. 7%

E. 6%

Q121. Which of the following states/UTs has the highest Gross state domestic product
(GSDP) in India?

A. Kerala

B. Maharashtra

C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat

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 E. Tamil Nadu

Q122. Practice of tilling sloped land along the lines of consistent elevation is called
________

A. Contour farming

B. Strip farming

C. Intercropping

D. Mixed Cropping

E. None of these

Q123. Deen Dayal Updhayay Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is an initiative of which of the
following Ministries?

A. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

B. Ministry of Rural Development

C. Ministry of Labour & Employment

D. Both a & b

E. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

Q124. Agri Export Policy 2018 aims to double the export to USD______ by the year _____

A. 60 billion by 2022

B. 30 billion by 2022

C. 50 billion by 2024

D. 30 billion by 2024

E. 50 billion by 2025

Q125. Retail inflation in India has risen to a record five and a half years high in the month
of December 2019 to _____________

A. 8.5%

B. 6.5%

C. 9.15%

D. 7.35%

E. 8.25%

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 Q126. Which of the following is the unique feature of Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, in which
each member of Parliament adopts one village?

A. adopting people’s participation as an end in itself

B. making panchayats as the highest decision-making body

C. encouragement of self-help groups

D. Both a & b

E. All of the above

Q127. According to the Economic Survey 2019-20, what is the share of service sector in
Indian economy?

A. 55%

B. 65%

C. 75%

D. 52%

E. 60%

Q128. What is the name of all-weather road connectivity scheme that aims to provide
connectivity to unhabituated areas?

A. National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)

B. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)

C. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)

D. Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

E. Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

Q129. FAO has endorsed India’s proposal to declare year _________ as the “International
Year of Millets”.

A. 2025

B. 2023

C. 2024

D. 2022

E. 2021

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 Q130. Farmers from which of the following age groups can enroll under the Pradhan Mantri
Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana, which has been recently launched in the month of September
2019?

A. 21-40 years

B. 18-40 years

C. 18-50 years

D. 25-60 years

E. 20-45 years

Q131. Agri Markets and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index (AMFFRI) aims to rank states in India
based on the degree of reforms they have undertaken in agri marketing, it is a project by
which of the following?

A. Ministry of Finance

B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

C. NITI Aayog

D. Ministry of Commerce & Industry

E. Both a & b

Q132. According to the Global Risk Report recently released by World Economic Forum in
the month of Jan 2020, top 5 risk factors to the world by impact are related to which of the
following?

A. Environment

B. Infectious diseases

C. Cyberattacks

D. Data fraud or theft

E. Global Governance failure
Q133. 124th Constitutional Amendment aims to provide 10% reservation to economically
weaker section of the society. For this reservation, the income of the families must be less
than __________

A. Rs. 10 lakhs

B. Rs. 5 lakhs

C. Rs. 8 lakhs

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 D. Rs. 6 lakhs

E. Rs. 8.5 lakhs

Q134. According to the Economic Survey 2019-2020, what was the GDP growth rate of India
in the year 2019-20?

A. 7.5%

B. 3.5%

C. 6.5%

D. 5.5%

E. 4.8%

Q135. Mega Food Park scheme provides for 50% subsidy to setup Food Processing industry
in the plain areas while for the hilly and difficult terrains, it is _______

A. 60%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. 85%

E. 90%

Q136. Transformation of Aspirational Districts has been launched in India with an aim to
improve its ranking in which of the following?

A. SDG India Index

B. Human Development Index

C. Global Hunger Index

D. Both a & b

E. All of the above

Q137. When banks fail to meet the priority sector lending targets, the due amount needs
to be transferred to which of the following?

A. RBI

B. NABARD

C. RIDF

D. SIDBI

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 E. SBI

Q138. Which of the following is not correct regarding the features of PMKSY?

A. All the States and Union Territories including North Eastern States are covered under the
programme

B. The National Steering Committee (NSC) of this scheme is under the chairmanship of NITI
Aayog.

C. It is to be implemented in an area development approach, adopting decentralized state

level planning and projectised execution.

D. It aims to improve on - farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability
both in duration and extent.

E. All of these are correct

Q139. In which of the following years, was the National Education Policy launched in India?

A. 1956

B. 1968

C. 1985

D. 2005

E. 2000

Q140. Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Yojana has been launched by which of the following
Ministries?

A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

B. Ministry of Rural Development

C. Ministry of Finance

D. Both a & b

E. All of these

Section: - Agriculture & Rural Development (ARD)

Q141. Which type of ecosystem in India has richest alluvial soil with adequate water?

A. Northern Plains

B. Eastern Himalayan region

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 C. Western Plateau and hills

D. Central Plateau and hills

E. None of the above

Q142. Which of the following crop occupies largest area in India?

A. Tomato

B. Potato

C. Brinjal

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Q143. Recently Finance Minister announced in the Budget 2020-21 about the revival of
Agriculture sector through ________ point programme.

A. Ten

B. Fourteen

C. Sixteen

D. Eight

E. None of the above

Q144. What is rosette in ground nut?

A. Peanut Leaf miner

B. Peanut nutritional disorder

C. Peanut pathogenic Bacteria

D. Peanut pathogenic virus

E. None of the above

Q145. Which of the following crop is known as white gold?

A. Radish

B. Sugarcane

C. Mushroom

D. Cotton

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 E. None of the above

Q146. Padma Shri award for this year under the category ‘others – agriculture’ has been
awarded to whom?

A. Mr Subhash Palekar

B. Ms Kamala Pujhari

C. Ms. Sivamman

D. Mr Chandrasekhar

E. None of the above

Q147. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi.

A. Central sector scheme

B. Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare

C. Scheme is for all farmers with few exclusions

D. Scheme gives 6000 rupees at the starting of year

E. None of the above

Q148. What is the Operating Ratio under farm management?

A. Ratio of operating expenses/gross profit

B. Ratio of Current assets/Current liabilities

C. Ratio of Fixed costs/Gross income

D. Ratio of Networth/Total Assets

E. None of the above

Q149. Arrange the production share of horticulture crops in the descending order for the
year 2018-19?

A. Fruits>Vegetables>Aromatic plants>Plantation>Spices

B. Aromatic plants>Spices>Plantation>Fruits> Vegetables

C. Fruits>Vegetables>Spices>Plantation>Aromatic plants

D. Vegetable>Fruits>Plantation>Spices>Aromatic plants

E. None of the above

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 Q150. Which of the following breeds of sheep is famous for its finest carpet wool?

A. Marwari

B. Chokla

C. Nellori

D. Mandya

E. None of the above

Q151. Under which of the following industry maximum greenhouse gas emission has taken
place in India?

A. Construction

B. Fossil fuels

C. Industries

D. Agriculture, Forestry & other land use

E. None of the above

Q152. Under which of the following scheme 100 days employment is given to people for
unskilled manual labor?

A. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

B. PM Employment Guarantee Scheme

C. PMKVY

D. PM Krishi Vikas Yojana

E. None of the above

Q153. Which of the following crop is suitable for crop rotation to enrich soil deficiency of
nitrogen?

A. Wheat

B. Maize

C. Alfalfa

D. Napier grass

E. None of the above

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 Q154. Which of the following is the most serious virus disease that has affected the poultry
Industry in India?

A. Colibacillosis

B. Ranikhet disease

C. Necrotic Enteritis

D. Ulcerative Enteritis

E. None of the above

Q155. Which of the following fish breed lives in freshwater but breeds in salt water?

A. Potamodromous

B. Polydromous

C. Catadromous

D. Anadromous

E. None of the above

Q156. In which of the following years RBI had introduced the Banking Correspondent Model
to enhance financial inclusion?

A. 2002

B. 2006

C. 1995

D. 2000

E. 1982

Q157. What is the aim of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana?

A. To provide loans to rural people for Agriculture and allied sectors

B. To provide loans to the poor for healthcare

C. To provide food to the BPL families at low cost

D. To uplift the poor by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill

development

E. None of the above

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 Q158. Commodity exchange in India is regulated by _______.

A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare

B. NABARD

C. SEBI

D. FSSAI

E. None of the above

Q159. Which of the following nutrient plays key role in sugar synthesis of sugarcane?

A. Potassium

B. Magnesium

C. Nitrogen

D. Copper

E. None of the above

Q160. Inarching grafting method is practiced in which food crop?

A. Ber

B. Sapota

C. Fig

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Q161. Government provides a subsidy of _______ on the purchase of combine harvester

A. 25% of the project cost

B. 40% of the project cost

C. 60% of the project cost

D. 15% of the project cost

E. None of the above

Q162. Which of the following soils has the property of self ploughing?

A. Alluvial soils

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 B. Black soils

C. Laterite soils

D. Red soils

E. None of the above

Q163. Which of the following is the knowledge partner of the committee on doubling
farmers income by 2022?

A. NITI Ayog

B. National Council of Applied Economic Research

C. National Institute of Agricultural Marketing

D. Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare

E. None of the above

Q164. “Swasth Dhara Khet Hara” is a slogan of which of the following government schemes?

A. PMKVY

B. PMKISAN Yojana

C. PMFBY

D. Soil Health Card scheme

E. None of the above

Q165. Which of the following is the most dominant factor of soil degradation in semi-arid
zones in India?

A. Soil erosion

B. Deforestration

C. Overgrazing

D. Barren lands

E. None of the above

Q166. Which of the following acts a trap crop for Onion leafminer?

A. Cucumber

B. Tomato

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 C. Fennel

D. Beans

E. None of the above

Q167. Lancing is practiced in which crop?

A. Groundnut

B. Sesamum

C. Okra

D. Onion

E. Opium

Q168. Which of the following is more important that goes as an input in determination of
MSP but is not the only deciding MSP by CACP?

A. Cost of Marketing

B. Cost of Production

C. Cost of HYVs seeds

D. Cost of Plant protection chemicals

E. None of the above

Q169. Elephant grass is popularly called as _____

A. Napier grass

B. Lucerne

C. Berseem

D. Clover

E. None of the above

Q170. According to IMD rainy day is defined as _____________

A. a day with rainfall of 10 mm or more rainfall

B. a day with rainfall of 2.5 mm or more rainfall

C. a day with rainfall of 4 mm or more rainfall

D. a day with rainfall of 7.5 mm or more rainfall

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 E. None of the above

Q171. Which of the following committee has recommended democratic decentralization

which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj?

A. Kothari committee

B. Sivaraman committee

C. Balwant Rai Mehta committee

D. Mohan Rao Committee

E. None of the above

Q172. Which of the following soil has the best water retention?

A. Sandy soils

B. Clayey soils

C. Silt soils

D. Gravelly soils

E. None of the above

Q173. Which state has the largest area under micro irrigation scheme?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Maharashtra

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Rajasthan

E. None of the above

Q174. PSS (Price Support Scheme) and PDPS (Price Deficiency Payment Scheme) are the
components of which of the following schemes?

A. PM KISAN scheme

B. PM AASHA scheme

C. PMFBY

D. PMKVY

E. None of the above

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 Q175. Economic life of layer poultry bird is ______ weeks?

A. 5-8 weeks

B. 12-15 weeks

C. 16-18 weeks

D. 18-20 weeks

E. 21-72 weeks

Q176. Under Interest Subvention Scheme, RBI sanctions loan upto _____ lakh with the
interest rate of 7%.?

A. 10 Lakhs

B. 7 Lakhs

C. 3 Lakhs

D. 1.5 Lakhs

E. 2.5 lakhs

Q177. Which of the following statement is correct regarding minor irrigation scheme?

A. It covers command area of 2000 hectares

B. It covers command area of 4000 hectares

C. It covers command area of 8000 hectares

D. It covers command area of 10000 hectares

E. None of the above

Q178. Which of the following states is the highest producer of sunflower?

A. Kerala

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh

E. Maharashtra

Q179. Tipping is practiced in which of the following crops?

A. Cocoa

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 B. Coffee

C. Tea

D. Banana

E. Coconut

Q180. State of Maharashtra has topped the list of states is terms of MSME registration in
Udyam Portal. Which of the following states is second after Maharashtra as per a
newspaper report, released recently in February 2021?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Madhya Pradesh

E. Haryana

Section: - Computer Knowledge

Q181. A printer that cannot print the graphics?

A. Daisy Wheel printer

B. Ink jet printer

C. Laser printer

D. Digital printer

E. None of the above

Q182. Which of the following chart is not present with the MS-Excel?

A. Bar graph

B. Dot chart

C. Line graph

D. Pie chart

E. None of the above

Q183. Which of the following is false about the hyperlinks in the MS-Word?

A. It is a reference to data that the user can follow by clicking or tapping

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 B. Hyperlinks are underlined

C. Hyperlinks are highlighted in italics and bold

D. Hyperlinks can be created in MS word

E. None of the above

Q184. Which directs the components of a computer to perform tasks that are specified in
program instruction?

A. Monitor

B. Printer

C. Keyboard

D. Control Unit

E. None of the above

Q185. What is the responsibility of the logical unit of the computer?

A. To produce results

B. To compare numbers

C. To control flow of information

D. To do maths work

E. None of the above

Q186. Which of the following appears in MS- excel that says the results are too long to fit
in the cell?

A. *******

B. #######

C. @@@@@@

D. $$$$$$$$

E. None of the above

Q187. Cold boot is done when?

A. a wrong entry is done

B. no power supply

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 C. switching from one programme to other

D. Pressing the power button

E. None of the above

Q188. What is the example of PAN?

A. Bluetooth

B. Switches

C. Router

D. Firewall

E. None of the above

Q189. A virus that fools the user into downloading and or executing them by pretending to
be useful application is?

A. Morris worm

B. Ransomware

C. Cryptolock

D. Trojan horse

E. None of the above

Q190. What is the logical address assigned to a PC, Printer, Router etc on network?

A. CP address

B. IP address

C. Logical address

D. Hardware address

E. None of the above

Q191. What is DPI in printing?

A. Diagram per inch

B. Dot performance inch

C. Diagram per ink

D. Dots Per Inch

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 E. None of the above

Q192. What is the string of characters that defines the address of the webpage?

A. Uniform Resource Locator

B. IP address

C. DPI

D. DRL

E. None of the above

Q193. Which of the following is an example of Hardware?

A. Mouse

B. Kayboard

C. Monitor

D. Printer

E. All of the above

Q194. Unwanted mails received in an user account are called as?

A. Virus mails

B. Spam mails

C. Unwanted mails

D. Series mails

E. None of the above

Q195. What is the shortcut for selecting all in MS-Word?

A. Ctrl+D

B. Ctrl+P

C. Ctrl+S

D. Ctrl+A

E. None of the above

Q196. What is the standard interface for connecting storage devices like harddisk and CD-
ROM devices inside PC?

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 A. PETA

B. ATA/SATA

C. TROT

D. IP

E. None of the above

Q197. Which of these gives continuous power supply to a PC?

A. ATA

B. PSU

C. IMPS

D. SMPS (Switched mode Power supply)

E. None of the above

Q198. RAM is volatile in nature and ROM is non volatile in nature?

A. Both RAM and ROM are Non volatile in nature

B. False

C. True

D. Both RAM and ROM are volatile in nature

E. None of the above

Q199. The high-speed internet connection using phone line and allows user to use the
phone for voice communication at the same time?

A. DSL

B. PSL

C. DPL

D. MSL

E. None of the above

Q200. Which of the following is not the input device?

A. Speaker

B. Mouse

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 C. Keyboard

D. Microphone

E. Sound Card

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58 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241
 Maximum marks (100) Time (90 mins.)
Instructions-
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks to each
question.
3) Answers must be written only in English.
4) Marks will be deducted if word limit is not observed.

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 Q.1 Write an Essay of about 400 words on any one of the following
topics: - (40 Marks)
1. Digitalisation and internet should be a right rather than luxury.
The advent of digitalisation and the internet has revolutionized the
way we live, work, and communicate. As modern societies
increasingly rely on digital technologies, the debate surrounding
whether digitalisation and internet access should be considered a
right rather than a luxury has gained traction. This essay explores the
historical context, key figures, and the impact of digitalisation and
internet accessibility. It analyzes influential individuals who have
contributed to the field and discusses diverse perspectives, providing
a well-reasoned analysis of both the positive and negative aspects.
Additionally, this essay considers potential future developments in
the context of digitalisation and internet accessibility.
Digitalisation and internet accessibility have roots in several key
technological advancements that have shaped and transformed
society. Historical milestones include the invention of the World
Wide Web, advancements in mobile technology, and the
proliferation of social media platforms. These developments have
given rise to an interconnected world, facilitating rapid information
exchange, expanding global opportunities, and enhancing
communication.
One influential figure in this historical context is Tim Berners-Lee,
who is credited with inventing the World Wide Web in 1989.
Berners-Lee's vision enabled individuals to access and share
information globally, transforming the way we collaborate, learn,
and conduct business. As a result, societies have become increasingly
digitalized, enabling higher efficiency, productivity, and
interconnectedness.
Furthermore, the impact of digitalisation and internet accessibility on
education cannot be overstated. With online learning platforms and

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 educational resources readily available, individuals have greater
access to information and opportunities for skill development. This
has helped bridge educational gaps, empowering individuals from
disadvantaged backgrounds.
Access to digitalisation and the internet should be considered a
fundamental right rather than a luxury. Affordable and reliable
internet access has become indispensable for individuals to fully
participate in modern society. It is essential for employment,
education, healthcare, and democratic participation. Denying
individuals this access deepens inequalities and creates a socio-
digital divide, hindering social and economic progress.
Various countries have recognized the importance of digitalisation
and internet accessibility by enshrining it as a legal right. For
instance, Estonia, Finland, and France have included internet access
as a legal right in their respective legislation, ensuring universal
access to all citizens. By treating digitalisation and the internet as a
right, these countries prioritize equal opportunities, promote digital
literacy, and enhance societal well-being.
While there is a strong argument to view digitalisation and internet
accessibility as a right, it is crucial to consider multiple perspectives
and analyze the potential challenges and drawbacks.
Some detractors argue that treating digitalisation and internet access
as a right could burden governments with significant financial
obligations. They contend that investing in infrastructure, providing
affordable access, and promoting digital literacy may strain public
budgets. Additionally, concerns about online privacy, cybersecurity,
and the spread of misinformation highlight the importance of
equipping individuals with digital literacy skills to navigate the online
world responsibly.
However, the positive impact of digitalisation and internet access
outweighs these challenges. By recognizing access to the internet as

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 a right, governments can prioritize digital infrastructure
development, ensuring equal opportunities for all citizens.
Investment in digital skills training and education can mitigate the
negative effects associated with technology and empower individuals
to make informed decisions. Moreover, increased digital inclusion
will lead to economic growth, bridge societal divides, and foster
democratic participation.
The digitalisation revolution and internet accessibility have reshaped
our societies, creating new opportunities and challenges. Treating
digitalisation and internet access as a right rather than a luxury is
crucial to bridge the socio-digital divide and promote equitable
opportunities. The historical context, key figures such as Tim
Berners-Lee, and the impact on education highlight the importance
of recognizing digitalisation and internet access as fundamental
rights. By addressing potential challenges and prioritizing digital
literacy, governments can harness the positive aspects of technology
while mitigating the negative effects. As we move forward, it is
essential to foster inclusive policies, ensuring that digitalisation and
internet access become accessible to all, shaping a more equitable
and empowered future for everyone.

2. Importance of Art and Music in life

Art and music have been an integral part of human civilization since
ancient times. They have shaped and reflected our culture, beliefs,
and emotions, and have provided a medium for self-expression and
communication. From cave paintings and sculptures to symphonies
and contemporary installations, art and music have played a
significant role in enhancing our lives. This essay aims to explore the
historical context, key figures, and the impact of the importance of
art and music in life. It will identify and analyze influential individuals
who have contributed to this field, examine various perspectives,

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 and provide a well-reasoned analysis, considering both the positive
and negative aspects. Furthermore, future developments related to
the importance of art and music in life will be discussed.
The history of art dates back thousands of years, with ancient
civilizations leaving behind masterpieces that still inspire and
captivate us today. From the establishment of the first known art
school in Ancient Egypt to the Renaissance period, which witnessed a
major revival in art and creative expression, historical context plays a
significant role in understanding the importance of art.
Key figures such as Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, and Vincent van
Gogh contributed immensely to the world of art. Leonardo da Vinci's
Mona Lisa and The Last Supper, Michelangelo's David and ceiling
frescoes of the Sistine Chapel, and Van Gogh's The Starry Night are
iconic works that continue to evoke admiration and contemplation.
These artists demonstrated the power of their creativity to convey
complex emotions, depict beauty, and provoke thought.
Like art, music has accompanied human beings throughout history,
transcending borders and cultures. From ancient societies using
music for religious and healing purposes to the development of
complex musical systems in classical music, the historical context of
music provides a rich framework.
The impact of art on individuals and society is multi-faceted. Art
captures and reflects the diverse human experiences, allowing
individuals to connect with their own emotions and the experiences
of others. It can serve as a form of therapy, offering solace and
healing to those dealing with trauma or emotional distress.
Additionally, art has the power to inspire creativity and critical
thinking, fostering innovation and problem-solving skills in various
fields.
On a societal level, art plays a crucial role in shaping cultural identity
and preserving historical heritage. Museums, galleries, and public art

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 installations serve as important sites for cultural exchange and
education. They provide spaces for dialogue, reflection, and
appreciation of the diverse perspectives represented in artistic
expressions.
The impact of music on individuals and society is similarly profound.
Music is often associated with emotions and can elicit strong feelings
and memories. It has the ability to uplift spirits, create a sense of
community, and bridge cultural divides. It can also be a source of
comfort during difficult times, providing solace and a means of self-
expression.
Music education has proven to have numerous benefits for
individuals, fostering cognitive development, improving memory
retention, and promoting social interaction. Moreover, music
therapy has been effectively used to support individuals with mental
health issues, developmental disabilities, and chronic conditions. The
power of music to heal and bring joy is evident in its use in
healthcare settings, where it has shown to alleviate pain and reduce
anxiety.
Different perspectives exist regarding the importance of music in life.
Some view music purely as entertainment, valuing its ability to
provide pleasure and distraction. Others see music as a means of
social commentary and protest, highlighting injustices and
advocating for change. Music's universality and ability to transcend
language and cultural barriers make it a powerful medium for
promoting understanding and empathy between different
communities and cultures.
The importance of art and music in life cannot be overstated.
Throughout history, these forms of expression have enriched our
lives, inspired creativity, and fostered cultural understanding. From
the cave art of early humans to the masterpieces of the Renaissance
and the revolutionary sounds of modern music, art and music have

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 shaped our history and continue to impact our present. Both positive
and negative aspects exist, with art and music having the potential to
heal, challenge, and shape society. As we look to the future, it is
essential to continue nurturing and supporting these forms of
expression, ensuring their continued relevance and impact on our
lives.

3. Opinion regarding increase in number of old age homes

Life expectancy has been steadily increasing due to newer medicinal
avenues and better living conditions. As per United Nations
Population Fund and Help Age India, it is estimated that the number
of elderly people will increase to 173 million (17.30 Crore) by 2026.
The number of older people are increasing throughout the world. As
individuals grow older, they are faced with numerous physical,
psychological and social role changes. Depression and loneliness are
considered to be the major problems leading to impaired quality of
life among the elderly.
But close to 18 million elderly people in India are homeless. Senior
citizens living in poverty are abandoned by their own families, as
they cannot earn any income. Many a times, they are left with no
choice but to beg and survive. Many elderly are left alone after their
children move to the cities in search of better livelihood. In the last
few days of their lives, who will they look up to?
Pilgrimage to hill stations is considered auspicious. But many times
under this pretext, children conveniently abandon their ailing
parents to suffer on footpaths with no money even to buy a meal. In
the recent times, more number of senior citizens hailing from the
Indian middle class are seeking accommodation in the old age
homes. The conditions of some of them are even worse. They are
separated from their families and sent to old age homes. Hence, the
Old Age Homes have come to be a part of our social system.

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 The thought of ‘Old age homes’ could be frightening for many of the
elderly as the notion that has been rooted deep in the society for so
long, gives a negative impression. Seniors think of loneliness,
abandonment, detachment from the bloodline, and reduced care
and safety, whenever they hear the name ‘old age home’.
Over the last few decades, old age homes in India have become a
haven for the people who are handicapped and dependent. Finding
dignity and independence would be a bit difficult as few old age
homes fail to provide sufficient or the kind of care seniors deserve.
However, in India numerous old age homes have sprung up across
the length and breadth of the country.
Sometimes, elders live with relatives or in old age homes, either with
spouse or alone, with financial, health and emotional insecurity.
Elders, both men and women, who remained single without marriage
invariably land in Old Age Homes.
Each of these situations has its own merits and demerits. While many
elders accept the change, others are unable to adjust, and start
grumbling and sulking, which is understandable considering the age
and exposure to circumstances.
Fighting the loneliness epidemic amongst seniors does not have to
be difficult. When both caregivers and family members are
committed to engaging in meaningful interactions with seniors, it’s
relatively easy to keep loneliness at bay. Some things you can start
doing today to ensure loneliness do not negatively impact your
elderly loved one’s health.
The life of elders in the present age is full of problems, both for
themselves and for the children. The fortunate few depart with
satisfaction and peace of mind, while others leave with an unhappy
state of mind. As old people are the most respectful and sensitive on
this planet, they ought to be revered and taken care of by the
younger members of the family.

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 However, most of them are neglected and are left to fend
themselves. Even the grandparents, who live in affluent families, are
not happy. If they are given some tasks, such as paying the
electricity, water and telephone bills, they stand in long queues and
return home tired and exhausted. The grandmothers have to take
care of the naughty tiny tots who keep them at tenterhooks for the
entire day.
People who neglect their old parents and grandparents should think
about the moral values which they had inculcated in us, and try to be
kind and affectionate towards them. If they can’t oblige their needs,
at least they should speak obligingly with them. Now, think about the
future generation. God knows what will happen to them. Therefore,
it is better to save a fortune for old age now itself, because we won’t
know how will our children and grand children treat us.
Help the poor senior citizens who are in desperate need of support.
Donate to old age homes to save the poor elderly from hunger and
homelessness. Support an old age home to make sure that in their
old age, these senior citizens are taken care of. Kind hearted people
can donate to help the “Old Age Homes” with essentials for daily
sustenance, and constant medical support.

4. What is difference between underemployment and

unemployment. Does underemployment is more serious problem
than unemployment.
Unemployment and underemployment are two critical issues that
countries face in their pursuit of stable and inclusive economies.
India, with its vast population and complex socio-economic
dynamics, is no exception. This essay aims to explore the key
differences between underemployment and unemployment, assess
their respective severity in India, examine influential figures who
have made significant contributions to this field, discuss various

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 perspectives, and provide a well-reasoned analysis of the problem. It
will also shed light on the positive and negative aspects of both
phenomena while considering potential future developments.
To effectively compare underemployment and unemployment, we
must first understand their definitions and distinguishing
characteristics. Unemployment refers to a situation where
individuals of working age, who are actively seeking employment,
cannot secure a job and are left without any source of income.
Underemployment, on the other hand, occurs when individuals are
employed but have insufficient work or are working in jobs that do
not match their qualifications or skills.
Underemployment can take several forms, including working part-
time despite desiring full-time employment or being employed in
jobs that do not adequately use an individual's skills or education. In
contrast, unemployment manifests as people being entirely out of
work, desperately looking for employment to sustain their livelihood.
Both underemployment and unemployment pose significant
challenges to individuals, families, and the overall economy.
India faces substantial hurdles in its efforts to combat both
underemployment and unemployment. Historically, the country has
struggled with high joblessness rates and has witnessed significant
disparities across different regions and demographics. In recent
years, underemployment has emerged as a significant concern due
to India's growing informal sector and inadequate job creation.
Unemployment in India has often been measured using traditional
indicators, such as the unemployment rate. However, this approach
fails to capture the full extent of the problem, particularly when
underemployment is prevalent. As such, it is essential to consider
both categories together to assess the true gravity of the situation.
The severity of underemployment in India is reflected in the large
informal workforce, where a vast number of individuals lack stable

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 jobs and social security benefits. Many are engaged in low-
productivity sectors, such as agriculture and small-scale industries,
where earnings are minimal and precariousness is high. The lack of
decent work opportunities often leads to disguised unemployment,
where individuals are employed but contribute little to productivity.
This underutilization of human capital stifles economic growth and
perpetuates social inequalities.
Throughout India's history, several influential figures have
contributed to the discourse on underemployment and
unemployment. Economists like Amartya Sen and Raghuram Rajan
have extensively studied the causes and consequences of these
issues. Sen's research on development economics emphasizes the
importance of expanding capabilities and opportunities, highlighting
the need for job creation and reducing underemployment. Rajan has
focused on comprehensive economic reforms and has proposed
strategies to address unemployment through skill development and
entrepreneurship.
From a governmental perspective, initiatives such as the Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) have
aimed to tackle underemployment by providing rural households
with a legal guarantee of 100 days of employment per year.
However, such measures still struggle to address the quality of
employment and the sustainability of livelihoods.
Various perspectives exist on whether underemployment or
unemployment is the more serious problem in India. Some argue
that unemployment deserves more attention as it signifies an
absolute lack of work opportunities and deprives individuals of basic
income, leading to poverty and social unrest. Others emphasize that
underemployment affects a larger segment of the population,
trapping people in low-quality jobs and hindering social mobility.

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 A comprehensive analysis of underemployment and unemployment
in India must consider both positive and negative aspects. While
underemployment can be seen as a stepping stone towards higher-
quality employment, it often translates into exploited labor,
inadequate wages, and limited social security. Unemployment,
although it may spur individuals to seek better opportunities, can
create social tensions and hinder long-term growth prospects.
Furthermore, the future dynamics of underemployment and
unemployment in India greatly depend on various factors, including
technological advancements, skill development programs, and
government policies aimed at inclusive growth. It is essential that
policymakers prioritize job creation through investments in
infrastructure, education, and innovation while also addressing
systemic issues within the labor market.
In conclusion, underemployment and unemployment are two
intertwined issues that India faces, each presenting unique
challenges. While underemployment has gained more prominence in
recent years due to precarious and low-quality jobs, unemployment
remains a significant concern, particularly for the youth. A
comprehensive approach to tackling both problems is necessary,
involving not only job creation but also skill development, education
reforms, and policies that promote a more inclusive society. Only
through such efforts can India work towards a more resilient and
equitable future, where all individuals have access to quality
employment opportunities.

5. Importance of good communication skills

Communication is an essential aspect of human interaction and has
played a crucial role throughout history. Good communication skills
are vital for effective collaboration, building relationships, and
achieving personal and professional success. This essay aims to

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 explore the historical context, key figures, and the impact of good
communication skills. It will identify and analyze influential
individuals who have contributed to this field, discuss various
perspectives, and provide a well-reasoned analysis of both the
positive and negative aspects of acquiring and refining
communication skills. Additionally, potential future developments
related to the importance of good communication skills will be
discussed.
Throughout history, the necessity of good communication skills has
been recognized and esteemed. Ancient civilizations laid the
foundation for effective communication, with the development of
spoken and written languages. The Egyptians, for instance, utilized
hieroglyphics to convey messages and record historical events on
papyrus. In other parts of the world, the Greeks and Romans
emphasized oratory skills, considering them essential for public
speaking, governance, and persuasion.
Key figures emerged during historical periods who further influenced
the importance of good communication skills. One such individual
was Aristotle, a Greek philosopher, and scholar, who wrote
extensively on rhetoric. His work, "Rhetoric," focused on the art of
persuasion and the importance of effective communication in any
field. Aristotle's teachings laid the groundwork for future scholars
and practitioners to study and refine communication skills.
In the modern era, influential figures like Dale Carnegie and Marshall
McLuhan have made significant contributions to the importance of
good communication skills. Dale Carnegie, an American writer and
lecturer, emphasized the power of interpersonal communication and
public speaking through his book "How to Win Friends and Influence
People." His teachings revolutionized communication skills in
business and personal relationships. Marshall McLuhan, a Canadian
philosopher of communication theory, introduced the concept of the

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 global village, predicting the impact of electronic media on
communication patterns and social interactions.
The impact of good communication skills is vast and pervasive. In
personal relationships, effective communication fosters
understanding, trust, and empathy, leading to happier and more
fulfilling connections. On a professional level, good communication
skills are crucial for career advancement, teamwork, and leadership.
Employers highly value individuals who can express ideas clearly,
actively listen, and negotiate effectively.
In the field of politics, effective communication can make or break a
leader's career. Historically, figures like Winston Churchill and Martin
Luther King Jr. exemplified exceptional communication skills.
Churchill's passionate speeches during World War II rallied the
British people and boosted morale, demonstrating the power of well-
timed and well-delivered messages. Martin Luther King Jr., through
his captivating speeches, played a pivotal role in the Civil Rights
Movement, mobilizing individuals towards societal change
In the business world, Steve Jobs, the co-founder of Apple Inc.,
revolutionized communication through his visionary product
launches. Known for his charismatic and persuasive speaking style,
Jobs captivated audiences and created an emotional connection to
Apple's brand. His presentation skills not only contributed to Apple's
success but set a benchmark for effective communication in the tech
industry.
From various perspectives, the importance of good communication
skills is evident. Effective communication promotes understanding,
reduces conflicts, and enhances cooperation among individuals. It
empowers people to express themselves, share ideas, and
collaborate on problem-solving. Additionally, good communication
enables leaders to inspire others, mobilize movements, and create
positive change in society.

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 However, there are also negative aspects associated with
communication skills. Miscommunication, inadequate listening, and
manipulation are potential pitfalls that can lead to
misunderstandings, disagreements, and mistrust. In the era of
technology, the rise of social media and instant messaging has led to
a decline in face-to-face interactions, potentially hindering the
development of essential verbal and non-verbal communication
skills.
Looking towards the future, advancements in technology will
continue to shape the importance of good communication skills.
Virtual communication, remote work, and artificial intelligence will
require individuals to adapt their communication techniques.
Empathy, cultural sensitivity, and inclusiveness will be vital
components of effective communication in a globalized world.
Moreover, as communication becomes increasingly digitized,
protecting privacy, promoting ethical communication practices, and
combating misinformation will be critical challenges to address.
In conclusion, good communication skills have played a significant
role throughout history and continue to be highly valued in various
aspects of life. From ancient civilizations to modern times, key
figures have emphasized the importance of effective communication.
The impact of good communication skills is evident in personal
relationships, politics, businesses, and society at large. However,
there are both positive and negative aspects to consider, and future
developments will require individuals to adapt and refine their
communication skills to thrive in an ever-evolving world.

Q.2 Make a Précis of the following passage in 150 words, and give it
a suitable title. (20 Marks)
Are you as attached to your mobile as you are to your kidneys? Free
yourself from the digital obsession. Help is at hand!

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 This is an intervention. Kindly put away your cell phone and take a
much-needed break. You may smugly be in denial but compulsive
communicating, it has been established, is a serious addiction. So if
your phone accompanies you from the boardroom to bedroom to
bathroom, you may need to reassess your relationship with it.
While studies across the world have been reasserting how cell phone
dependency is a clear, present and future danger, UK researchers
have recently discovered another facet to the malaise: Smartphone
users suffer from anxiety and withdrawal symptoms when they do
not receive any messages or updates. Many of us will identify with
what the researchers found in common among the phoneobsessed
— phantom vibrations; that feeling of your cell phone ringing even
when it isn’t. Also, when stressed, people check their phones more
often and when they find no new updates, their stress levels shoot
up, the study found.
Constantly checking your cell phone may only be a manifestation of
complex underlying problems. Clinical psychologist Seema
Hingorrany says an overwhelming number of people are addicted to
their cell phones and are in denial over it causing restlessness,
insomnia, anxiety and even depression. “I have come across so many
such patients who can’t sleep without their cell phones next to them.
They are so anxious to keep checking their phones for messages or
alerts that they end up sleeping very late or losing it. The root causes
of this dependency — be it loneliness, lack of self-esteem or need of
constant validation — need to be tackled. For people coming to
empty houses or dealing with difficult circumstances, their cell phone
becomes their ‘only friend’. They don’t realise how unhealthy such a
belief can be. What this leads to is a wandering, unfocussed mind at
work or at study, which continually breeds low attention and
concentration.”
With smart phones, American psychologists have found that the
same associative learning pathways get triggered in our brain which

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 make other compulsive behaviours, such as gambling, so addictive.
The fact that our brain’s insular cortex, which is associated with
feelings of love and compassion, gets activated, points to how most
of us start ‘loving’ our phones as we do our spouse or family
member. Also, similar to drugs or cigarette addiction, the feelgood
neurotransmitter dopamine chemically drives this process. So
instead of ‘the classic brain-based signs of addiction’, the subjects
were found to, worse, ‘love’ their smart phones. Hingorrany says,
“Like in any addiction, cortisol levels shoot up in cell phone addicts
too and hence their anxiety to always be available to others or know
what’s going on in the world. They develop unreal expectations from
people to immediately message or call them back.”

Precis Solution -
Title – A new Addiction
While you can experience impulse-control problems with a laptop or
desktop computer, the size and convenience of smartphones and
tablets means that we can take them just about anywhere and
gratify our compulsions at any time. In fact, most of us are rarely
ever more than five feet from our smartphones. Like the use of drugs
and alcohol, they can trigger the release of the brain chemical
dopamine and alter your mood. You can also rapidly build up
tolerance so that it takes more and more time in front of these
screens to derive the same pleasurable reward. Heavy smartphone
use can often be symptomatic of other underlying problems, such as
stress, anxiety, depression, or loneliness. At the same time, it can
also exacerbate these problems. If you use your smartphone as a
“security blanket” to relieve feelings of anxiety, loneliness, or
awkwardness in social situations, for example, you’ll succeed only in
cutting yourself off further from people around you. Staring at your
phone will deny you the face-to-face interactions that can help to

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 meaningfully connect you to others, alleviate anxiety, and boost your
mood. In other words, the remedy you’re choosing for your anxiety
(engaging with your smartphone), is actually making your anxiety
worse.
Answer the following questions based on the above paragraph.
Q.1) How to identify your addiction with mobile phones?
You are addicted if... - You use it to flip through tweets, punch in
messages or browse the web while you are on the pot.
- You keep checking it and using it even in the midst of a face-to-face
conversation.
- Your heart misses a beat when you step out and realise that you
have left your phone behind. Never mind that you are just going
down the road to buy groceries.
- You feel left out, low or edgy if your phone is inactive or you are
offline for hours.
- If it flashes or buzzes, no matter what you are doing, you
instinctively reach for it and respond. - You were on the phone when
your spouse, child, friend or parents said something important and
now you can't remember the details.
- You always talk about your phone.
- A meal, movie or outing is not complete until you have posted a
picture or your opinion of it online.
Q.2) What do you understand by “Phantom Vibration”?
Phantom Vibration is that feeling of your cell phone ringing even
when it isn’t. Also, when stressed, people check their phones more
often and when they find no new updates, their stress levels shoot
up, the study found.One can identify phantom vibration If mobile
flashes or buzzes, no matter what you are doing, you instinctively
reach for it and respond. - You were on the phone when your

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 spouse, child, friend or parents said something important and now
you can't remember the details.
Q.3) What are the complex consequences of this addiction?
• Constantly checking your cell phone may only be a
manifestation of complex underlying problems.
• it causing restlessness, insomnia, anxiety and even
depression.
• The root causes of this dependency — be it loneliness, lack
of self-esteem or need of constant validation.
Q.4) How phycologists relate Mobile addiction with other forms of
addictions?
Psychologists have found that the same associative learning
pathways get triggered in our brain which make other compulsive
behaviours, such as gambling, so addictive. The fact that our brain’s
insular cortex, which is associated with feelings of love and
compassion, gets activated, points to how most of us start ‘loving’
our phones as we do our spouse or family member. Also, similar to
drugs or cigarette addiction, the feelgood neurotransmitter
dopamine chemically drives this process.

Q.5) Meanings of the words-

) Clear b) Root c) Wandering d)
Triggered
a) Clear - obvious b) Root - Initial c) Wandering -
Unsettled d) Triggered - Initiate

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 Q.4 Write a letter/report in about 250 words on any one of the
topics given below. (20 Marks)
• Report on Excursion with all the itinerary details.
• Letter to bank asking for loan of Rs 4 Lakh for renovation of
house.
• Letter to daughter who has recently gone to the UK to pursue
Phd. telling her importance of hard work and discipline.

1) Report on Excursion with all the itinerary details.

Excursion to the Capital.

Riya Bharwaj,
Khanakul, 25th Dec, 2020.
This year also, like every year, our school has organised/arranged
an educational tour to New Delhi. It is a historical place. It was a
tour full of fun and enjoyment. We, the students got the chance to
learn in a different environment. This tour helped the students to
learn how to become self-sufficient. The students also learnt to
adjust to every situation and to look after their belongings.
We boarded the Rajdhani Express. We reached New Delhi on 19th
December. We were 70 students and six teachers. All of us
enjoyed history there. We visited the Rajght, Lalkella, Parliament
House, India Gate and the Qutub Minar in New Delhi. We all
became surprised when we crossed the palatial doors of Red Fort.
The guides gave information about historical facts. We were
amazed to know the facts and enjoyed a lot. We also visited
Akshardham Temple. It was a symbol of unique architecture. Our
trip was full of soothing pleasure. We visited the Red Fort, the
Dewani-Khas or the hall of private audience, the Rang Mahal etc.
We saw Jumma Masjid.It was one of the largest and most
beautiful mosques. Many a story of lover and heroism, bloodshed

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 and cruelty stood in front of us when we were watching the
capital city of India. We saw many ruins here and there that we
had read about in the pages of our history book.
Having visited the aforesaid places in real life, we were
overwhelmed with joy. Our respected teachers guided us with
much care and affection. The constant companionship of my
friends also made this trip a successful one. I would to be a part
and parcel of such educational tour again. This touching
experience will ever remain in my memory.

2) Letter to bank asking for loan of Rs 4 Lakh for renovation of

house.
House No XXX,
Pragati Path, Charigaon,
Jorhat, Assam – 781001

Date 7th April, 2020

The Branch Manager,
Assam Gramin Vikas Bank,
Jorhat Branch, Jorhat,
Assam – 781001

SUBJECT: Regarding request for subsidy on housing loan interest

rate under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna (PMAY)

Respected Madam/Sir,
With due respect, I would like to inform you that I am a customer
of your bank and owner of the account number 654321. I am
writing this letter to request for housing loan under Pradhan
Mantri Awas Yojna (PMAY).

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 I am a worker at Jorhat Tea Factory and I am interested in availing
housing loan under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna (PMAY) through
your bank. I am eligible for benefits under EWS category
considering my annual income. (I have attached my income
certificate and EWS category certificate issued by District
Administration in the Annexure-I). I want to avail housing loan
under PMAY amountin 4 Lac Rupees. I am facing hardship in daily
life due to dilapidated condition of my kutcha house. The loan will
be utilised to replace the present kutcha house with a new pucca
house. A better house will add value to the living standards of my
family. A safe and secure house will also help my children to study
properly and secure a better future.
I, hereby, request you to grant me the loan at the stipulated
subsidised interest rate as per the benefits available for EWS
category under PMAY. As an esteemed customer of your bank, I
am looking forward to your prompt action for processing my
request for loan. The matter is for your kind perusal.
Thanking you,
XXXXXX,
Mobile: 1234512345
E-mail: hkd@ymail.com

List of enclosures:
Annexure-I:
• Income certificate and EWS certificate of Mr XXXXXX
• Copy of attested Adhar Card validating details.
3) Letter to daughter who has recently gone to the UK to pursue
Phd. telling her importance of hard work and discipline.
#22, Yorkshire Road,
London,
The United Kingdom.

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 Date: 12/11/20.

Dear Vandana.
Life is a wonderful gift to all of us from the Almighty God. It has to
be always lived in joy & happiness and also in spreading the same
to the others.
And that is why, today when you are traveling abroad for your
higher education, I thought to share some of these lessons with
you. I am sure that these lessons will help you in your life as they
have helped me in mine, in living life full of joy and bliss.
You should always have very clear and specific goals in life that
you would like to achieve from time to time. Always remain
focussed on them. This will ensure that you achieve these goals as
planned and also help you remain balanced during twists and
turns of life when things may not be going as per your
expectations. But, your “Life Goal” should always be only one and
i.e. “To live life in joy & happiness and also in spreading the same
to the others”.
Ever wondered what makes one person successful when most
others struggle with just getting through the day? There are many
factors involved in making a person a success. They’re usually
talented, intelligent, and sometimes a little lucky, but one thing
nearly all successful people have in common is hard work and
discipline. You may be lucky enough to have been gifted with a
specific talent, been born into an affluent family, or met a
benefactor or mentor along the way who gave you ‘the break.’
But none of that matters if you don’t have a high level of hard
work, productivity and self-discipline. It doesn’t matter if you have
the ideal genetics to go to the Moon. If you don’t have the self-
discipline to go through the hours of athletic and strength training
every day, it’ll be even harder to make it. Success doesn’t come
from just luck.

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 Your loving father, always waiting to see you soon returning
home.
Yours lovingly,
Rajneesh Bhardwaj.

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83 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241
 Q.1) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding PM SVANIDHI
Scheme, recently launched in the month of June 2020?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (June 2020)
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 marker
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – GOVT SCHEMES
Options:
A. It targets to benefit over 50 lakh street vendors in urban areas
including those from surrounding peri-urban/ rural areas.
B. Under it, vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000,
which is repayable in quarterly instalments in the tenure of one year.
C. On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per
annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through
Direct Benefit Transfer on quarterly basis.
D. There will be no penalty on early repayment of loan.
E. None of the above is incorrect

Answer: (B) Under it, vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs.
10,000, which is repayable in quarterly instalments in the tenure of one year.

Explanation:

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 Q.2) The Government of India launched a framework in the year 2008 outlining
eight National Missions on climate change including National Solar Mission,
National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, National Mission on
Sustainable Habitat among others. Identify this framework out of the options
given below.
Static or Current – Static
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 Marker
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Environment (in ARD – NAPCC is given in syllabus)
Options:
A. National Mission for a Green India
B. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change
C. National Action Plan on Climate Change
D. Mission Indradhanush
E. National Plan for Sustainable Development

Answer: (C) National Action Plan on Climate Change

Explanation:
The National Action Plan on Climate change was formally launched on June 30th,
2008. The NAPCC identifies measures that promote development objectives
while also yielding co-benefits for addressing climate change effectively. There
are eight “National Missions” which form the core of the National action plan.
They focus on promoting understanding of climate change, adaptation and
mitigation, energy efficiency and natural resource conservation.”
The eight missions are:
1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
6. National Mission for a Green India
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

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 Q.3) Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) have been opened for which
of the following communities in India?
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 Marker
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes (Flagship)
Options:
A. Scheduled Tribes only
B. Scheduled Castes only
C. Both a & b
D. Persons with disabilities
E. All of the above

Answer: (A) Scheduled Tribes only

Explanation:

Q.4) According to RBI data, what is the central government’s External Debt by
March 2020?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (March 2020)
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 Marker
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT

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 Topic – Banking and Financial Sector
Options:
A. USD 258.5 billion
B. USD 700.5 billion
C. USD 250.5 billion
D. USD 775.5 billion
E. USD 558.5 billion

Answer: (E) USD 558.5 billion

Explanation:

Q.5) Which of the following age group people are eligible to enroll under
PMSYM, launched in the month of Feb 2019?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS – Flagship Scheme
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes - Education
Options:
A. 21 – 40 years
B. 21 – 50 years
C. 18 - 40 years
D. 18 – 60 years
E. 18 – 50 years

Answer: (C) 18 - 40 years

Explanation:

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 Q.6) What amount is given to Pregnant and Lactating mothers under the
scheme PMMVY?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS – Flagship Scheme
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes – Human Development
Options:
A. Rs. 10,000
B. Rs. 3000
C. Rs. 4000
D. Rs. 5000
E. Rs. 2000

Answer: (D) Rs. 5000

Explanation:

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 Q.7) Which of the following is responsible to monitor the implementation of
MGNREGA scheme at village level?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS – Flagship Scheme
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. Central Employment Guarantee Council
B. State Employment Guarantee Council
C. Village Sarpanch
D. Gram Sabha
E. Panchayat Officer

Answer: (D) Gram Sabha

Explanation:

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 Q.8) The aim is to reduce poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households
by enabling them to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage
employment opportunities. Identify this scheme from the following.
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS – Flagship Scheme
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. PMEGP
B. DAY-NRLM
C. PMMY
D. PMKVY
E. PMSYM

Answer: (B) DAY-NRLM

Explanation:

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 Q.9) Which of the following committees has been setup by the Government
on Doubling of Farmer’s income, in the year 2016?

Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS

1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Technical and Institutional changes in Indian Agriculture
Options:
A. Ranjana Desai Committee
B. Ashok Dalwai Committee
C. Bibek Debroy Committee
D. Rita Teotia Committee
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Ashok Dalwai Committee

Explanation:

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 Q.10) Which of the following mentioned schemes was launched on 2nd
October, 2014 as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi, with the aim to achieve the
vision of a ‘Clean India’?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. Smart Cities Mission
B. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
C. Bharatmala Pariyojana
D. Swachh Bharat Mission
E. None of the above
Answer: (D) Swachh Bharat Mission

Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Swachh Bharat Mission at Rajpath
in New Delhi on 2nd October 2014.
It was launched throughout length and breadth of the country as a national
movement. The campaign aims to achieve the vision of a ‘Clean India’ by 2nd
October 2019.

Q.11) Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Government
to provide insurance and financial support to farmers in case of crop failure?

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 Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
B. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
D. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable
production in agriculture sector by way of –
• providing financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage
arising out of unforeseen events
• stabilizing the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in
farming
• encouraging farmers to adopt innovative and modern agricultural
practices
• ensuring flow of credit to the agriculture sector; which will contribute
to food security, crop diversification and enhancing growth and
competitiveness of agriculture sector besides protecting farmers from
production risks.

Q.12) __________, launched by the Government to create well planned

Rurban clusters and to stimulate local economic development has recently
observed its fourth anniversary in the month of Feb 2020?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:

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 A. Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
B. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
C. National Rurban Mission
D. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
E. MGNREGA

Answer: (C) National Rurban Mission

Explanation:

Q.13) Which of the following is not a sub-mission of National Livestock

Mission?
1. Sub-mission on Livestock Development
2. Sub-mission on Pig development in North-eastern region
3. Sub-mission on Feed and Fodder Development
4. Sub-mission on Meat Processing
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 4 only
C. 3 only

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 D. 2 & 3 only
E. 4 only

Answer: (E) 4 only

Explanation:
• The National Livestock Mission (NLM) has commenced from 2014-15,
The Mission is designed to cover all the activities required to ensure
quantitative and qualitative improvement in livestock production
systems and capacity building of all stakeholders.
• The Mission will cover everything germane to improvement of livestock
productivity and support projects and initiatives required for that
purpose subject. This Mission is formulated with the objective of
sustainable development of livestock sector, focusing on improving
availability of quality feed and fodder.
• NLM has 4 submissions as follows:
1. Sub-Mission on Fodder and Feed Development
2. Sub-Mission on Livestock Development
3. Sub-Mission on Pig Development in North-Eastern Region
4. Sub-Mission on Skill Development, Technology Transfer and
Extension

Q.14) Under the Lead Bank Scheme, the District Coordination Committee
meetings must be convened at which of the following intervals?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. Quarterly
B. Monthly
C. Annually
D. Fortnightly
E. Bi-annually

Answer: (A) Quarterly

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 Explanation:
The District Consultative Committees were constituted in the early seventies as
a common forum at the district level for bankers as well as Government
agencies/departments to facilitate coordination in implementing various
developmental activities under the Lead Bank Scheme.
The District Collector is the Chairman of the DCC meetings. Reserve Bank of
India, NABARD, all the commercial banks including Small Finance Banks Wholly
Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) of Foreign Banks, RRBs, Payments Banks, co-
operative banks including the District Central Cooperative Bank (DCCB), various
State Government departments and allied agencies are the members of the
DCC.
The Lead District Officer (LDO) represents the Reserve Bank as a member of the
DCC. The Lead District Manager (LDM) convenes the DCC meetings.
Conduct of DCC Meetings
• DCC meetings should be convened by the Lead Banks at quarterly
intervals.
• At the DCC level, sub-committees as appropriate, may be set up to
work intensively on specific issues and submit reports to the DCC
for its consideration.
• DCC should give adequate feedback to the SLBC on various issues
that need to be discussed on a wider platform, so that these receive
adequate attention at the State Level.

Para 1. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released a

publication titled “India – Spearheading Climate Solutions”. This publication
mentions the key actions India has taken under various sectors towards
combating and adapting to climate change. In the last four years, many clean
and green development initiatives taken at both the state and national level
have significantly contributed to the adaptation and mitigation of climate
change. A number of new policies and initiatives in various sectors like e-
mobility, green transportation, renewable energy, waste management,
afforestation, water, etc. have also been introduced to minimize the impact of
climate change. (Q 15 to 17)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

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 Q.15) Which of the following initiatives are a part of the publication mentioned
above in the passage?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (Feb 2019)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Environment
Options:
A. International Solar Alliances (ISA)
B. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
C. UJALA scheme
D. FAME Scheme
E. All of the above

Answer: (E) All of the above

Explanation:
Some of the major initiatives included in the publication are:
• India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) which
covers eight major missions on Solar, Enhanced Energy Efficiency,
Sustainable Habitat, Water, Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem,
Green India, Sustainable Agriculture and Strategic Knowledge on
Climate Change
• International Solar Alliances (ISA)
• State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC)
• FAME Scheme – for E-mobility
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation & Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
– for Smart Cities
• Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana – for access to clean cooking fuel
• UJALA scheme - for embracing energy efficient LED bulbs
• Swachh Bharat Mission

Q.16) In context of the passage given above, India has set a goal of achieving
________ of renewable energy by 2022.
Static or Current – Current Affairs

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 1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Environment
Options:
A. 150 GW
B. 175 GW
C. 100 GW
D. 1000 MW
E. 125 GW

Answer: (B) 175 GW

Explanation:
The Government of India has set a target of installing of installing 175 GW of
renewable energy capacity by the year 2022, which includes-
• 100 GW from solar
• 60 GW from wind
• 10 GW from bio-power
• 5 GW from small hydro-power

Q.17) Which of the following schemes is related to the Distribution of LEDs and
has also been mentioned in publication mentioned in the passage above?
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes
Options:
A. AMRUT
B. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
C. UJALA scheme
D. FAME Scheme
E. NAPCC

Answer: (C) UJALA scheme

Explanation:

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 Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has launched a scheme for LED bulb
distribution under the domestic efficient lighting programme in Delhi.
UJALA scheme - for embracing energy efficient LED bulbs

Para 2. Government is implementing a flagship scheme called the Pradhan

Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) 2016-20 with an objective to provide
skilling to one crore youth under Short Term Training (STT) courses and
Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) across the country in a four years period.
Under it, the focus on employment has been significantly enhanced and
candidates have been placed in various sectors and industries. (Q18 to 21)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.18 As per the scheme mentioned in the passage above, the reimbursement
of last ______ of training payout to Training Centers (TCs) is linked with the
placement of the candidate.
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:

A. 50%
B. 45%
C. 40%
D. 30%
E. 20%

Answer: (E) 20%

Explanation:
• Under PMKVY 2016-20, focus on employment has been significantly
enhanced and candidates have been placed in various sectors and
industries.
• Training Centers (TCs)/ Training Providers (TPs) are required to have
dedicated mentorship-cum-placement cells for industry linkage and
placement of candidates.

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 • Further, the reimbursement of last 20% of training payout to TCs
is linked with the placement (wage employment or self-
employment) of the candidate.
• Additionally, post placement support of Rs. 1500 per month per
trainee is applicable for special group (women candidates and
persons with disability) and special areas (LWE, North East
region and J&K) for 2- or 3-month post training depending on
placement within or outside the district of the domicile of the
candidate.

Q.19 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the features of the
scheme mentioned above?
1. A candidate is considered to be placed if the candidate is placed
within 90 days of certification
2. Post placement support of Rs. 1,500 per month per trainee for
special areas/special groups
3. Provides monetary awards for Skill Certification to boost
employability and productivity of youth by incentivizing them for
skill trainings

Static or Current – Current Affairs

1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 & 3 only
E. All of the above

Answer: (E) All of the above

Explanation: All features mentioned above are a part of Pradhan Mantri
Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).

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 Q.20 Maximum financial support to training centers (TCs) per trainee if he or
she is retained in employment for 12 months is _____
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:

A. Rs. 3000
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 6000
D. Rs. 4500
E. Rs. 4000

Answer: (A) Rs. 3000

Explanation:
Under PMKVY, various initiatives are taken to enhance placement of the
certified candidates such as-
• organization of Rozgar Melas with the support of Sector Skill Councils
• placement linked release of last tranche funds to the Training Centres
(TCs)
• requirement to have dedicated mentorship-cum-placement cells at
TCs / Training Providers (TPs) for industry linkage and placement of
candidates
• incentive to TCs @ Rs. 3000 per trainee if he or she is retained in
employment for 12 months
• post placement support of Rs. 1,500 per month per trainee for special
areas/special groups
• one time placement travel cost upto maximum of Rs. 4,500 per
candidate; implementation of employer-led training model
• reallocation of target to TCs based on placement performance; etc.

Q.21) The scheme mentioned in the passage above was launched under which
of the following, in the year 2015?
Static or Current – Current Affairs

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 1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Govt Schemes - Flagship
Options:
A. Skill India Mission
B. Standard Training Assessment and Reward Scheme (STAR)
C. UDAAN
D. SANKALP
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Skill India Mission

Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in 2015 to
encourage and promote skill development in the country by providing free short
duration skill training and incentivizing this by providing monetary rewards to
youth for skill certification.

Para 3. Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala
Sitharaman has unveiled Public Sector Bank (PSB) Reforms Agenda 2020-21 for
smart, tech-enabled banking in the month of Feb 2020. It is a common reform
agenda for PSBs aimed at institutionalizing clean and smart banking. In the
perusal of same, The index related to it has been launched in Sept 2020 which
seeks to enhance ease of banking in all customer experiences, using technology,
alternate data and analytics. (Q22 to Q24)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.22) Identify the index that is mentioned above in the passage.
Static or Current – Current Affairs (Sept 2020)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. PSBX
B. RELEASE
C. RAISE

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 D. EASE
E. TECHX

Answer: (D) EASE

Explanation:

Q.23) Which of the following reforms related to PSBs, as mentioned in the

passage above, were introduced in the year 2020?
1. Dial-a-loan
2. Tech-enabled agriculture lending
3. Credit take off

Static or Current – Current Affairs (Sept 2020)

1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. None of these
E. All of these

Answer: (E) All of these

Explanation:

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 Q.24) The Index that has been mentioned above measures the performance of
each PSB on how many objective metrics across six themes?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (Feb 2019)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. 500
B. 140
C. 10
D. 20
E. 250

Answer: (B) 140

Explanation:
Union Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs Shri Arun Jaitley released the first
report on EASE Reforms Index that independently measures progress on the
Public Sector Banks (PSB) Reforms Agenda announced last January on 140
objective, benchmarked metrics.

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 Para 4. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal launched by the Prime Minister
Shri Narendra Modi, in the year 2016, with the aim of networking the existing
Mandis on a common online market platform as “One Nation One Market” for
agricultural commodities in India. It also aims at reducing transaction costs,
bridging information asymmetries, and helping expansion of market access for
farmers and other stakeholders. (Q25 - Q26)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.25) Identify the Portal that has been mentioned in the passage above.
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – Easy
Topic – Govt Schemes – Flagship
Options:
A. e-NMR
B. e-FPR
C. e-MANDI
D. UMANG
E. e-NAM

Answer: (E) e-NAM

Explanation:

Q.26) In line with the steps mentioned in the passage above, which of the
following states has become the first to introduce Contract Farming in India,
in the month of Oct 2019?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (Oct 2019)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER

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 ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Recent trends in Indian Agriculture
Options:

A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat
C. Haryana
D. Kerala
E. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (E) Tamil Nadu

Explanation:
Tamil Nadu has become the first State in the country to enact a law on contract
farming with the Agricultural Produce and Livestock Contract Farming and
Services (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, in Oct 2019.
Q.27) Which of the following is a set of benchmarks that aims to track housing
price indicators across Indian cities, originally flagged off in July 2007?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level - DIFFICULT
Topic – Reforms in Banking/ Financial sector
Options:
A. RBI Residex
B. NHB Housedex
C. NHB Residex
D. RBI Housedex
E. Resi Index

Answer: (C) NHB Residex

Explanation:
NHB Residex from the National Housing Bank, designed by a technical advisory
committee comprising Government representatives, lenders and property
market players, is a set of benchmarks that aims to track housing price indicators
across Indian cities.

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 Originally flagged off in July 2007, the index was discontinued in 2015 and was
refurbished and re-introduced in July 2017.

Para 5. Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman has recently in the month of Aug 2020
inaugurated an online dashboard. It is being hosted on the India Investment Grid
(IIG), which is an interactive and dynamic online platform that showcases
updated & real-time investment opportunities in the country. (Q28 to Q30)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.28) What is the approximate number of projects covered under online
dashboard mentioned above?
Static or Current – Current Affairs (August 2020)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. 5000
B. 5500
C. 7000
D. 2000
E. 4000

Answer: (C) 7000

Explanation:
Launched in August 2020, the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) is a first-of-
its-kind, whole-of-government exercise to provide world-class infrastructure
across India, and improve the quality of life for all citizens. It aims to showcase
investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, improve project
preparation and attracting investments into India.
The NIP aims to capture key greenfield and brownfield projects for investments
across all economic and social infrastructure sub-sectors on a best-effort basis.

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 Q.29) The name of dashboard mentioned in the passage above is _________
online dashboard.
Static or Current – Current Affairs (August 2020)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. National Investment Pipeline
B. National Infrastructure Project
C. National Infrastructure Pipeline
D. National Investment Project
E. New India Investment Project

Answer: (B) National Infrastructure Pipeline

Explanation:

Q.30) Which of the following features are available to investors under the
online dashboard mentioned above?
1. To Search a pan-India database for investment opportunities
across sectors

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 2. To Track the progress of preferred projects and indicate
interest
3. To Directly communicate with project promoters

Static or Current – Current Affairs (August 2020)

1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 & 3 only
E. 1,2 & 3

Answer: (E) 1,2 & 3

Explanation:

Para 6. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the concept of a Red Flagged
Account (RFA) in a bid to minimize fraud risks. Once a bank has identified an
account as an RFA, within 15 days it must ask the consortium leader or the
largest lender under a multiple banking arrangement to convene a meeting of
the joint lenders’ forum (JLF) to discuss the issue. (Q31 to Q33)
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)

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 Q.31) Government has launched "Fraud Prevention and Management
Function" to enable effective investigation of fraud cases. It talked about Red
Flagged Account and EWS. In EWS, S stands for?
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. System
B. Signals
C. Sanctions
D. Systemic
E. Standard

Answer: (B) Signals

Explanation:
• A Red Flagged Account (RFA) is one where a suspicion of
fraudulent activity is thrown up by the presence of one or more
Early Warning Signals (EWS).
• These signals in a loan account should immediately put the bank on
alert regarding a weakness or wrong doing which may ultimately turn
out to be fraudulent.
• A bank cannot afford to ignore such EWS but must instead use them as
a trigger to launch a detailed investigation into a RFA.

Q.32) The threshold for EWS and RFA is an exposure of Rs. _______ or more at
the level of a bank irrespective of the lending arrangement.
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. 75 crore
B. 10 crore

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 C. 50 crore
D. 100 crore
E. 5 crore

Answer: (C) 50 crore

Explanation:
The threshold for EWS and RFA is an exposure of ₹ 500 million (50 Crore) or
more at the level of a bank irrespective of the lending arrangement (whether
solo banking, multiple banking or consortium).
All accounts beyond ₹ 500 million classified as RFA or ‘Frauds’ must also be
reported on the CRILC data platform together with the dates on which the
accounts were classified as such.
Q.33) The framework mentions about a central payment registry, which can
be accessed by banks and to monitor digital payments related frauds on a real-
time basis. This registry is based on which of the following?
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Topic – Reforms in Banking/Financial sector
Options:
A. Fraud Management Framework
B. Fraud Risk Management
C. Fraud Monitoring Returns
D. Central Fraud Returns
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Fraud Monitoring Returns

Explanation:
A Central Fraud Registry (CFR) based on the Fraud Monitoring Returns, filed by
the banks and the select FIs, including the updates thereof, has been made
available, for which banks have been given access through user-ids and
password. CFR is a web-based and searchable database.
The practice of issuing paper-based Caution Advice (CA) has since been
discontinued.

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 Q.34) What is the contribution of Livestock to Agricultural GDP?
Static or Current – Current Affairs
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Agricultural performance
Options:
A. 17.25%
B. 35.58%
C. 16.43%
D. 44.5%
E. 25.6%

Answer: (E) 25.6%

Explanation:
• Livestock plays an important role in Indian economy. About 20.5
million people depend upon livestock for their livelihood.
• Livestock contributed 16% to the income of small farm households as
against an average of 14% for all rural households. Livestock provides
livelihood to two-third of rural community. It also provides
employment to about 8.8 % of the population in India.
• Livestock sector contributes 4.11% GDP and 25.6% of total
Agriculture GDP.

Q.35) International Monetary Fund was established in which of the following

years?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – International Funding Institutions
Options:
A. 1945
B. 1992
C. 1939
D. 1950

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 E. 1960

Answer: (A) 1945

Explanation:

Q.36) Which of the following statements regarding World Trade Organisation

is not true?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – International Funding Institutions
Options:
A. It implements rules and provisions related to trade policy review
mechanism
B. It has the authority to overrule the national laws
C. It administers the rules and processes related to dispute settlement
D. Only A & C
E. Only B & C

Answer: (B) It has the authority to overrule the national laws

Explanation:

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 Q.37) In India, The Child Sex Ratio is calculated based on which of the following
age-groups?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Population Policy in India
Options:
A. 0-6 years
B. 1-5 years
C. 0-4 years
D. 0-3 years
E. 1-3 years

Answer: (A) 0-6 years

Explanation:

Q.38) According to which of the following concepts, the stable high-fertility

and high-mortality population is transferred/converted to low-fertility, low-
mortality population?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Population Trends
Options:
A. Population theory
B. Demographic Transition

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 C. Migration Theory
D. Mortality transition
E. None of these

Answer: (B) Demographic Transition

Explanation:

Q.39) RTE Act was enacted in the year 2009, which came into effect from
_________
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ESI
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Education
Options:
A. 1st April 2015
B. 1st April 2010
C. 1st May 2011
D. 1st May 2012
E. 1st March 2012

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 Answer: (B) 1st April 2010
Explanation:
Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2008, was passed in
both Houses of Parliament in 2009. The law received President's assent in
August 2009.
Article 21-A and the RTE Act come into effect from 1 April 2010.
• This Act serves as a building block to ensure that every child has his
or her right (as an entitlement) to get a quality elementary
education, and that the State, with the help of families and
communities, fulfils this obligation.
• Few countries in the world have such a national provision to ensure
both free and child-centred, child-friendly education.

XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
XXXXXXXXXXXX

Q.40) Based on the statements mentioned, identify the type of farming system
from the options given below:
Statement I - Use of less herbicides
Statement II - Use of less Pesticides
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Agriculture: Organic Farming
Options:
A. Organic Farming
B. Inorganic farming
C. Non-Chemical farming
D. Bio organic farming
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Organic Farming

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 Explanation:
The main difference between the inputs used in conventional agriculture is that
those used in organic farming must be of plant, animal, microbial or mineral
origin except where products or substances from such sources are not available
in sufficient quantities or qualities or if alternatives are not available.
Q.41) What is the kind of mushroom that ages with well forms gills and
wrinkled umbrella/curled umbrella?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic –Plantation and Horticulture
Options:
A. Shitake Mushroom
B. Oyster Mushroom
C. Button Mushroom
D. Globus Mushroom
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Oyster Mushroom

Explanation:
Oyster mushrooms are a type of edible fungi. They are one of the most widely
consumed mushrooms in the world. They get their name from their oyster-
shaped cap and very short (or completely absent) stem.

Q.42) Blue revolution is related to?

Static or Current – STATIC

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 1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – Easy
Topic –Fisheries
Options:
A. Anthocyanin rich food
B. Blue dyes
C. Aquaculture
D. Olericulture
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Aquaculture

Explanation:
The Blue Revolution, with its multi-dimensional activities, focuses mainly on
increasing fisheries production and productivity from aquaculture and fisheries
resources, both inland and marine.
OBJECTIVES
• To increase the overall fish production in a responsible and sustainable
manner for economic prosperity
• To modernize the fisheries with special focus on new technologies
• To ensure food and nutritional security
• To generate employment and export earnings
• To ensure inclusive development and empower fishers and aquaculture
farmers

Q.43) What is the first milk produced by animals which is highly nutritious?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Animal Husbandry and Poultry
Options:
A. Nutrimilk
B. Collagen
C. Pediatrum
D. Colostrum

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 E. None of the above

Answer: (D) Colostrum

Explanation:
Colostrum is a breast fluid produced by humans, cows, and other mammals
before breast milk is released. It is very nutritious and contains high levels of
antibodies, which are proteins that fight infections and bacteria.
Q.44) Which of the following tillage implements perform harrowing action
with rotating steel discs?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Agri Engineering
Options:
A. Cultivator
B. Blade harrow
C. Disc Harrow
D. Hooked harrow
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Disc Harrow

Explanation:

Q.45) What is the kind of forestry system which contains Trees, Crops, Pasteur
for livestock?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – FORESTRY

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 Options:
A. Agripastoral system
B. Agrisilvipastoral system
C. Silvipastoral system
D. Olerisilvipastoral system
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Agrisilvipastoral system

Explanation:
Agrisilvipastoral system is the system in which the forest tree crops for fodder
like Anjan, Subabhul, Babhul, are taken with intercrops of grasses like Stylo,
Burssem for fodder purpose as well as the food grain crop like Wheat, Rice,
Jowar etc. are taken in between the strips of forest tree species. The forest tree
species are planted at 10 to 12 m distance and in the lines the grasses and food
grains are cultivated as intercrops.
Q.46) As per the classification of type of farmers in India based land holding,
what would be the landholding of a marginal farmer?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - Easy
Topic – Agri Census 2015-16
Options:
A. 2 – 4 ha
B. 3 – 5 ha
C. 1 – 2 ha
D. < 1.0 ha
E. None of the above

Answer: (D) < 1.0 ha

Explanation:

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 Q.47) What is the kind of forestry system – for the community, to the
community and by the community?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – FORESTRY
Options:
A. Community forestry
B. Recreational forestry
C. Extension forestry
D. Industrial forestry
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Community forestry

Explanation:

Q.48) Which is the best milk yielding indigenous breed of cattle?

Static or Current – STATIC

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 1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Animal Husbandry and Poultry
Options:
A. Jersey
B. Kagayam
C. Umblecherry
D. Sahiwal
E. None of the above

Answer: (D) Sahiwal

Explanation:
Sahiwal is the Best indigenous dairy breed, with average milk yield between
1400 and 2500 kgs per lactation. It originated in Montgomery region of
undivided India.
This breed otherwise known as Lola (loose skin), Lambi Bar, Montgomery,
Multani, Teli.
Q.49) Which of the following breeds of sheep is famous for its finest carpet
wool?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Animal Husbandry and Poultry
Options:
A. Marwari
B. Chokla
C. Nellori
D. Mandya
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Chokla

Explanation:
Chokla is perhaps the finest carpet-wool breed.

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 It is found in Churu, Jhunhunu, Sikar & border areas of Bikaner, Jaipur & Nagaur
dists of Rajasthan.
Q.50) Which type of soil classification is acceptable for soils in India?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Soil Sciences
Options:
A. Soil texture
B. Soil structure
C. Soil classification
D. Soil Taxonomy
E. None of the above

Answer: (D) Soil Taxonomy

Explanation:
In an effort to study soil and to make it comparable at the international level,
the ICAR has classified the Indian soils on the basis of their nature and
character as per the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Soil
Taxonomy.
Q.51) Which type of soils occupy the maximum area in India?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Soil and Water Conservation
Options:
A. Alluvial soils
B. Black soils
C. Red soils
D. Laterite soils
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Alluvial soils

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 Explanation:
Alluvial soils are by far the largest and the most important soil group of India.
Covering about 15 lakh sq km or about 45.6 per cent of the total land area of
the country, these soils contribute the largest share of our agricultural wealth
and support the bulk of India’s population.
Q.52) What is the soil order that is low in plant nutrients but high in Boron?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Soil and Water Conservation
Options:
A. Alfisols
B. Entisols
C. Aridisols
D. Mollisols
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Aridisols

Explanation:
• Aridisol is one of the 12 soil orders in the U.S. Soil Taxonomy.
• Aridisols are dry, desertlike soils that have low organic content and
are sparsely vegetated by drought- or salt-tolerant plants.
• Dry climate and low humus content limit their arability without
irrigation.
• They have high water-soluble boron due to high evaporation but
Entisols and Oxisols have lower B content due to recently developed
soil and highly weathered soils respectively.

Q.53) What is the amount of soil moisture present in a given volume of soil at
a given time?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE

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 Topic – Soil and Water Conservation
Options:
A. Field capacity
B. Soil Moisture Capacity
C. Maximum Admissible capacity
D. Field moisture
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Soil Moisture Capacity

Explanation:
The soil water content/capacity (SWC) or soil moisture is the amount of water
present in the soil. It influences plant growth, soil temperature, transport of
chemicals and groundwater recharge.
The two most widely used parameters for quantifying SWC or water availability
for plants are i) volumetric water content; and ii) soil matric potential.
Q.54) In India, net irrigation area has increased over time and currently Gross
irrigation area is more than net irrigation area. Paragraph talks about 2 types
of irrigation. What can be the conclusion?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Irrigation
Options:
A. Irrigation remained unchanged
B. Area of cropping decreased
C. Irrigation decreased in area
D. Irrigation increased in area
E. None of the above

Answer: (D) Irrigation increased in area

Explanation:
Net Irrigated Area is the actual land area on which irrigation was used
for growing crops for as many times as many in an agricultural year.

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 Gross irrigated area is the total irrigated area under various crops during the
year counting the area irrigated under more than one crop during the same year
as many times as the number of crops grown.
Q.55) Which state has the highest area under irrigation with methods of water
conservation?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Irrigation
Options:
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Punjab
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Rajasthan

Explanation:
Rajasthan with 18.9 Lakh hectares under Micro irrigation (This is as per the data
from Agricultural Statistics at a glance 2019 as on 31st March 2019, which is the
latest available published data).
Q.56) What is the post-harvest loss of fruits and Vegetables in India?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS (May 2019)
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Post Harvest Management
Options:
A. 10-15%
B. 50-70%
C. 40-60%
D. 30-35%
E. None of the above

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 Answer: (D) 30-35%
Explanation:
• Losses in fruits and vegetables have been quantified as 30-35%
accounting for an economic drain of Rs 2.40 lakh crore annually.
• The post-harvesting processes like storage and transportation are
stated to be the reason for this loss.

Q.57) Which of the following pairs of fruits are semi perishable?

Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Horticulture
Options:
A. Coconut, Banana
B. Banana, water melon
C. Coconut, Orange
D. Grapes, Banana
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Coconut, Orange

Explanation:

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 Q.58) Which of the following maturity Indices of Jackfruit is not same as
mango?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Horticulture
Options:
A. Dull sound when tapped
B. Skin Color
C. Pulp peel ratio
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Dull sound when tapped

Explanation:

Q.59) What is the cropping pattern of Sugarcane with a short span crop that
can be harvested even before Sugarcane reaches maturity?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE

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 Topic – Cropping Pattern
Options:
A. Companion cropping
B. Relay cropping
C. Multicropping
D. Alley cropping
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Companion cropping

Explanation:
Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field is known as
intercropping/companion cropping. The duration of intercrop should be less
than 4 months to avoid contention with sugarcane.

Q.60) Which of the following cropping system is used maximum in India?

Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Cropping System
Options:
A. Wheat-Wheat Cropping system
B. Rice-Wheat Cropping system
C. Rice-Maize Cropping system
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: (B) Rice-Wheat Cropping system

Explanation:
• RICE-based cropping system can be described as mix of farming practices
that comprises of rice as the major crop followed by subsequent
cultivation of other crops.
• It is a major cropping system practiced in India, which include the rotation
of crops involving cereals especially wheat, pulses, oilseeds, cotton,
sugarcane, green manures, vegetable etc.

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 Q.61) Which of the following Cereals but not rice has the highest area under
cultivation?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Cropping System
Options:
A. Rye based Cropping system
B. Wheat based Cropping system
C. Maize based Cropping system
D. Millets based cropping system
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) Maize based Cropping system

Explanation:
Maize-Wheat is the most important cropping systems, after Rice-Wheat and
Rice-Rice CS in India.
Q.62) Broilers are marketed between ______ weeks of age.
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Animal Husbandry and Poultry
Options:
A. 3-4 weeks of age
B. 8-10 weeks of age
C. 6-8 weeks of age
D. 15 weeks of age
E. None of the above

Answer: (C) 6-8 weeks of age

Explanation:

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 Q.63) Union Agriculture Ministry has listed many initiatives for the growth of
farm sector and ensuring that farmers' income doubles by 2022. The new
initiatives include use of cutting-edge technology to increase farm
productivity, promotion of climate-resilient indigenous breeds of cows and
buffaloes, launch of a nationwide programme to harvest the advantages of
space technology in agriculture and allied sectors etc. All this is aimed at
bringing about which of the following revolutions in Indian Agriculture? (2
marks)
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – Issues of Food Security
Options:
A. Evergreen Revolution
B. Rainbow Revolution
C. Sunrise Revolution
D. Dark Blue Revolution
E. None of the above

Answer: (A) Evergreen Revolution

Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in the year 2017, called for “evergreen
revolution” to enable the country to meet the challenge faced by the
agriculture sector. He emphasised the need for moving from the concept of
‘food security’ to ‘nutrition security’, for which he favoured scientific and
technological intervention.

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 Need for Evergreen revolution arose due to failures of green revolution.
Important demerits of green revolution are
• More than five decades after India launched the Green Revolution, it
has not only failed to eliminate hunger but also malnutrition is at its
high.
• Wheat and rice have largely displaced more nutritious pulses and
other cereals such as millets in consumption.
• Soil has lost its fertility due to unscientific application of fertilisers.
• Due to mechanisation of agriculture, the likeliness for sons instead of
daughters led to skewed sex ratio in Punjab, Haryana.
• Indian agriculture became cereal- centric and regionally biased.
• Water logging in fields and salinity increased due to excess irrigation.
• Farmers got burdened with debts from moneylenders, banks.

Q.64) What is the maximum limit for revolving funds for Self Help Groups
under DAY – NRLM?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Government Schemes – Flagship schemes
Options:
A. Rs. 25000
B. Rs. 20000
C. Rs. 15000
D. Rs. 30000
E. Rs. 35000

Answer: (C) Rs. 15000

Explanation:
DAY-NRLM would provide Revolving Fund (RF) support to SHGs in existence for
a minimum period of 3/6 months and follow the norms of good SHGs, i.e. they
follow ‘Panchasutra’ – regular meetings, regular savings, regular internal
lending, regular recoveries and maintenance of proper books of accounts.

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 Only such SHGs that have not received any RF earlier would be provided with
RF, as corpus, with a minimum of ₹10,000 and up to a maximum of ₹15,000 per
SHG.
Q.65) Government has announced a technology-driven second green
revolution with emphasis on higher productivity. What is the name of this
revolution?
Static or Current – STATIC
1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
ESI or ARD – ARD
Difficulty Level - MODERATE
Topic – Food Security in India
Options:
A. Golden Revolution
B. Silver Revolution
C. Protein Revolution
D. Round Revolution
E. Pink Revolution

Answer: (C) Protein Revolution

Explanation:
The government has announced a technology-driven second green revolution
with emphasis on higher productivity. The major point of this revolution is that
the Government set up a Price Stabilization Fund with an initial amount of Rs.
500 crores to help farmers deal with volatility. This is being called as “Protein
Revolution”.

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