Mega NEET BTR PART -1

BIOCHEM, FMT, PEDS, OBG

BIOCHEMISTRY
4. Which of the following is seen in low insulin: glucagon
ratio?

A. Activation of lipoprotein lipase

B. Activation of glycogen synthase
C. Activation of phosphofructokinase-1
D. Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase
 FED FASTING
INSULIN GLUCAGON BOTH-

B-blocker toxicity:
11. An autopsy is performed on a 9-month-old boy who died
due to refractory seizures. Examination shows microcephaly
and skin with diffuse hypopigmentation. Further work-up
reveals deficiency of a cofactor required for the formation of
neurotransmitters found predominantly in the substantia
nigra and locus caeruleus. The absence of this cofactor is
most likely to affect the function of which of the following
enzymes?
A. Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase
B. Dopamine hydroxylase
C. Homogentisic acid oxidase
D. Dihydropteridine reductase
 Glycine+ arginine + methionine:
Glycine + cysteine + glutamate:
Glycine + Glutamine + Aspartate:
Glutamine + aspartate:

Methionine + lysine:

Serine NO GABA
Purines Creatinine
Heme
Creatinine
Glutathione
Niacin
Bile salts
Melatonin
Basic: Collagen MC (every 3rd)
Keratin Serotonin
Universal methyl donor:

Urea cycle in : Thyroxine

NH3 transported by : Dopamine
Sodium benzoate, Phenylacetate, Phenylbutyrate: Catecholamines
Melanin
13. Which of the following helps in the transport of fatty
acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A. Acyl carrier protein

B. Carnitine
C. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
D. Carnitine and albumin Carnitine shuttle:
Citrate shuttle:
Malate shuttle:
9. A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to
nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision. He was making his own whiskey
with a home moonshine still and started feeling sick after sampling the
first several ounces of distillate. Funduscopic evaluation reveals optic
disc hyperemia. Laboratory results show a high anion gap metabolic
acidosis. He is started on fomepizole, a medication that transiently binds
to alcohol dehydrogenase. Which of the following graphs most accurately
portrays the change in enzyme kinetics after administration of the
antidote?
Transporter Location Function
GLUT-1 Brain, kidney, placenta, erythrocytes Basal uptake of glucose, high
affinity
GLUT-2 Liver, pancreatic cell, small intestine Fed state
GLUT-3 Brain, kidney, placenta Glucose uptake, maximum
affinity for glucose
GLUT-4 Heart and skeletal muscle, adipose tissue Insulin-stimulated glucose uptake
GLUT-5 Small intestine, sperms Fructose
20. The enzymes that convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA are
given in the diagram. What are the enzymes marked as E1
and E2 respectively?

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase and dihydrolipoyl transacetylase

B. Pyruvate carboxylase and dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase and dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase and dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
29. A young girl presented to the OPD for examination. She
is tall and thin with slender fingers, and dislocated lenses.
Workup revealed cystathionine beta-synthase deficiency.
Which compound should be supplemented in this case?
A. Cysteine
B. Methionine
C. Cystine
D. Folate
B6 assay:
B6 cofactor for:
Hypoglycemia, Convulsions, Neuropathy, Sideroblastic anemia
Carboxylase cofactor:
Misincorporation of uracil in DNA:
Folinic acid
31. Identify the correct statements:
1. In a patient with Wilson's disease, 3-methylhistidine is decreased
in urine
2. Direct positive Van der bergh's reaction is seen in a case of
obstructive jaundice
3. If the percentage of thymine residues in DNA is 28%, percentage
of cytosine is 22%
4. Thermogenin is present in the mitochondria
5. Aspartate and glutamate are responsible for the negative charge
in fibrinopeptide A
6. Choline should be avoided in a patient with fish odor syndrome.

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4,5
D. 1,4,6
37. A 4-year-old child presents with easy fatiguability. The
mother also complains that the child has increased hunger
between meals, which is relieved after food. Liver
examination revealed no glycogen. What enzyme is most
likely deficient?
A. Glycogen phosphorylase
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Debranching enzyme
D. Glucose 6 phosphatase
Glucagon challenge test –ve: NADH CoQ reductase
Succinate CoQ Reductase
Cyt C reductase
Cyt C oxidase (Cu)
ATP synthase
ATP transporter

Co-translational modification
Selenocysteine : UGA
Pyrrolysine: UAG

Thioredoxin reductase, glutathione peroxidase, deiodinase

I-Hyper- Lipoprotein lipase or Pancreatitis, eruptive/pruritic xanthomas

chylomicronemia ApoC-II deficiency
II- Familial hyper Absent LDL receptors, Accelerated atherosclerosis, tendon
cholesterolemia or ApoB-100 (Achilles) xanthomas, and corneal arcus.
III-Dysbeta- Defective ApoE Premature atherosclerosis, tuberoeruptive
lipoproteinemia and palmar xanthoma, Broad beta band

IV-Hyper- Hepatic overproduction Acute pancreatitis

triglyceridemia of VLDL
 LOW HDL
NORMAL HDL LOW HDL
HIGH VLDL
ABSENT LDL / VLDL

Non-ketotic Retinitis VLCFA+ Phytanic

hypoglycemia pigmentosa acid Accumulation
Phytanic acid
Dicarboxylic raised Absent peroxisomes
aciduria No alpha-
oxidation

DHA: Omega-3 Fatty acid- Decreased in:

Liver cant utilize ketone bodies:
Fluoroacetate inhibits: NaF inhibits: Arsenite inhibits:
HBA1C estimation
Barth syndrome:
Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase: Tyrosinase:
Lysyl oxidase:
Epinephrine, Norepinephrine →
Dopamine →
Serotonin->
Immediate source of energy during muscle contraction
Germ cells: Telomerase
TTAGGG - RNA dep DNA polymerase
Nucleotide excision : Cockayne, Trichothiodystrophy
Base excision:
Mismatch repair (NOT IN DS DNA BREAKS):
NHEJ: MICRODELETION
HEJ: TRANSLOCATION
AMPLIFICATION
Not-point mutation
RNA EDITING

DNA template, DNA primers, a heat stable DNA polymerase,

and deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs)
PEDIATRICS
7. A young child with congenital hydrocephalus was treated
with a successful ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt. Four
months post surgical repair, the child presented with fever,
nuchal rigidity, and irritability. You suspect meningitis. What
is the next best step?
A. Wait and watch
B. Check shunt patency by nuclear study
C. Blood culture and take CSF sample from shunt tap
D. Blood culture and take CSF sample by lumbar puncture
8. A baby assessed 5 minutes after birth, is found to be
cyanosed with irregular gasping respiration. Heart rate is 60
beats/min, and a grimace is seen with some flexion of
extremities. The Apgar score for this newborn is?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
 NADA’S CRITERIA
MAJOR MINOR
1. Systolic murmur ≤ Grade 2
1. Systolic murmur Grade ≥ 3
2. Abnormal Second hear sound
2. Diastolic murmur
3. Abnormal ECG
3. Cyanosis
4. Abnormal Chest Xray
4. Congestive Heart Failure
5. Abnormal Blood pressure

Bone Age ˂ Chronological Age

Bone = Chronological Age

Puberty:
Constituent Breast milk Cow’s milk
FEMALES: MALES:
(gm/L) (gm/L)
Proteins 11 33
• Casein 4 28
• Soluble 7 5
proteins
Lactose 70 50

• Ca 0.33 1
• P 0.15 1
Vitamins
• C 60mg 20mg
• D 501U 251U
12. A fetus with intrauterine growth restriction was born
prematurely with jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly,
microcephaly, and diffuse petechiae at birth. A brain CT was
done which revealed periventricular calcifications. What is
the best method for the diagnosis of the etiological agent?
A. Urine examination
B. Liver biopsy
C. Blood examination
D. CSF examination
 16. Which of the following is not seen in a child with cystic
fibrosis?

A. Sweat chloride test chloride conc of 70 mEq/L

B. Increase immunoreactive trypsinogen level
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Contraction alkalosis

CF: Chromosome:
-MC mutation:
-MC class of mutation:
-Trikafta: Elexacaftor + Tezacaftor + Ivacaftor
19. When do you consider administering epinephrine in a
neonate during resuscitation?

A. Heart rate remains at < 60 beats/minute despite effective compressions and

ventilations.
B. Heart rate remains at < 100 beats/minute despite effective compressions and
ventilations.
C. Heart rate does not improve after 30 seconds with bag and mask ventilation.
D. Infants with severe respiratory depression fail to respond to positive-pressure
ventilation via bag and mask.
Q. BMV Q. Order of suction:
-Start within:
-Saturation term: Q. Temp of room:
-Saturation <35wks:
-RR:
-CI:

Q. CC
Q. Vascular access of -2 thumb
choice: -Lower 1/3 body sternum
-Midline
-1/3rd depth of AP
CC:PPV-
26. What can be the fluid of choice for a child in shock with
severe acute malnutrition?

A. Ringer lactate
B. Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose
C. Normal saline
D. Ringer lactate
27. Identify the correct statements
1. The greenish-black color of the first stool in the newborn is
due to bilirubin
2. According to current recommended dietary guidelines for
children, energy from saturated fats should be <10% be of total
energy intake
3. Most common cause of ventriculomegaly in newborns is
Arnold-Chiari malformation
4. Steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome is defined as failure to
achieve remission after 4-6 weeks when on a daily
corticosteroid therapy regimen
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,3,4
C. 2,4
D. 1,3
 30. A woman came to OPD with a newborn who has
complaints of chest retractions, dyspnea, and lethargy. The
paediatrician diagnosed the baby with respiratory distress
syndrome. This occurs due to the deficiency of:
A. Dipalmitoyl inositol
B. Lecithin
C. Sphingomyelin
D. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylethanolamine

1. Surfactant 1st appears in lungs by 20 wks.

2. Surfactant appears in Amniotic fluid → 28 weeks. (IUL)
3. Surfactant appears inside lung alveoli → 33-35(~34 wks.)
4. Surfactant formed by Type 2 pneumocytes.
32. A 3-month-old baby is brought to OPD with jaundice and
clay-colored stools. Lab work up reveals that the baby has
conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. A liver biopsy was done and
shows periductal proliferation. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
B. Neonatal hepatitis
C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
D. Biliary atresia
UNCONJUGATED CONJUGATED

BREAST MILK BREASTFEEDING

JAUNDICE JAUNDICE

UDP-GT UDP-GT MRP-2 No black Periductal Absent

severely mildly Black liver fibrosis and periductal
deficient deficient liver proliferation fibrosis
IOC:
34. An 8-day-old newborn was found to have thyroid -
stimulating hormone level of more than 100 mlU/L. Which of
the following will be the next best investigation?
A. Urine iodine excretion
B. Serum thyroid receptor antibody
C. Radiotracer uptake with technetium
D. Perchlorate secretion test
 GABRA1 gene

CAH MC Testosterone
21- hydroxylase deficiency

11- hydroxylase deficiency

17- hydroxylase deficiency

FMT
1. A child before playing consumed the following fruit from
the garden. After some time, he developed a high fever,
confusion, photophobia, and unable to urinate. What is the
appropriate antidote used in this case?
A. Pralidoxime
B. Physostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Neostigmine
3. Identify the range of the firearm wound:

A. Close shot entry wound

B. Close shot exit wound
C. Distant shot entry wound
D. Distant shot exit wound
 Tooth Age of eruption
First molar 6-7 years
Central incisors 6-8 years
Lateral incisors 7-9 years
First premolar 9-11 years
Second premolar 10-12 years
Canine 11-12 years
Second molar 12-14 years
Third molar 17-25 years

PM caloricity:
PELVIS SKULL Putrefaction Heat stroke
All large and wide in All large and wide in males except: delay:
females except: Pontine
-F/P eminence Strychnine, hemorrhage
O
S
-Nasal aperture metallic poison, Sepsis
A -Female forehead, orbit, chin round Carbolic acid NOT BURNS

Indian red scorpion –

Mesobuthus
Canthardin Autonomic storm
Priapism DOC-
GSR collected using: Test:
Galton system MC:
Tattoo not seen:
1st organ to putrefy:
Glaister-keene rods:
Posterolateral (4-7) hymenal tear:
Police inquest: Minimum rank
Res ipsa loquitor: Sub-inspector-Sexual offences
Medical maloccurence: Head constable-Others
Custodial death/ rape/ disappearance:
Res Judicata: Dowry death:
Res Indicata: IPC: Cruelty:
Exhumation:
Primary blast injury:
Sexual Assault case: Duties of doctor
Abrasion, Contusion, Laceration:
1) Inform police
Leading questions- 2) Consent for examination-Age:
3) Psychological counselling
Superfetation VS Superfecundation:
4) Written refusal
Barberio test- 5) Provide diagnosis and treatment
Time limit:
DNA samples-Blood, muscle, teeth
Vaginal swab- Semen sample-
Chop wound: 53A crPC Accused
164A CrPC Victim
6. A patient came with complains of hair loss. His wife
mentions that she has noticed some behavioral changes.
The doctor notices that there is a loss of eyebrows on the
lateral side. He then comes to a conclusion by examining the
nails. What is the antidote of the likely posion?
A. Thallium
B. Arsenic
C. Prussian blue
D. Desferrioxamine
Antidotes: CHELATORS: Hemodialysis:
BAL/ Dimercaprol- Barbiturate
PCM DMSA/Succimer- Lithium
BZD D-penicillamine- Alcohol
EDTA- Salicylates
Methanol/ ethylene glycol Desferioxamine- Theophylline
Cyanide LEVEL:
Prussian blue-
Meth Hb
25. A child who is a victim under POCSO act is brought to
the department of forensic medicine for age estimation. The
X-ray image of the hand is shown below. What is the likely
age of the child?

A. 4 years
B. 18 years
C. 9 years
D. 13 years

2 mon:
3 mon:
3yr:
4yr:
5-6yr:
9-12yr:
15. A man running a 40-kilometre marathon on a hot summer
afternoon suddenly collapsed before completing his race.
On examination, his body temperature was 104 degrees, but
there were no physical signs of dehydration. Which of the
following symptoms is least likely to be seen in this patient?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Sweating
D. Disorientation
18. In the civil negligence case against a doctor who bears
the onus of proof?

A. Patient
B. Police not under rank of sub inspector
C. Magistrate
D. Doctor
35. Identify the correct statements:
1. Bluish discoloration of the stomach mucosa is seen in
copper sulphate and sodium amytal poisoning.
2. Article 42 says that the state shall make provision for
securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity
relief
3. Fusion of Basiocciput with basisphenoid is seen
around 18-22 years.
4. Edmond Locard known for the study of fingerprints
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3
D. 1,4
Cadaveric spams not on traumatic
asphyxia
OBG
2. A female presents to OPD with 6 weeks of amenorrhea
complaints of bleeding per vagina and mild abdominal pain.
The urine pregnancy test is positive and hCG level is 2800
IU/L. On investigation, mass is seen on the left adnexa
measuring 3 x 2 cm. She is hemodynamically stable. How
will you manage this patient?
A. Oral methotrexate
B. Single-dose im methotrexate
C. Serial im methotrexate + leucovorin rescue
D. Salpingectomy
5. A pregnant woman with no other comorbid conditions
develops preeclampsia. She enquires about the cause of her
condition. The doctor explains that it is due to the failure of
the invasion of?
a) Spiral artery by villous trophoblasts
b) Radial artery by cytotrophoblasts
c) Spiral artery by extravillous trophoblasts
d) Arcuate artery by extravillous trophoblasts
10. A 30-year-old G4A3 woman had a history of miscarriage
at 8 weeks, the second miscarriage at 11 weeks with no
cardiac activity, and the third pregnancy loss at 24 weeks
with preterm delivery due to early-onset preeclampsia. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Syphilis
B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
C. TORCH infections
D. Gestational diabetes mellitus
14. A 49-year-old woman, gravida 5 para 5, comes to the
OPD due to involuntary, intermittent loss of urine over the
past 5 months. The patient loses a small amount of urine
when asked to cough. She has no dysuria, urgency, or
hematuria and usually awakens once a night to void.
Postvoid residual urine volume is 40 mL. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of this patient's
symptoms?
A. Bladder outlet obstruction
B. Detrusor overactivity
C. Urethral hypermobility
D. Vesicovaginal fistula
17. Patient is planned to undergo hysteroscopic
polypectomy using bipolar electrocautery. What is the ideal
agent for distention?
A. Distilled water
B. Normal saline
C. CO2
D. 70% dextrose
21. A 52-year-old woman diagnosed with carcinoma cervix
stage 2B was advised radiotherapy. Which of the following
statements regarding radiotherapy is false?
A. Point B is 3 cm lateral to point A
B. Point A is 2 cm above the external os and 5 cm lateral to the internal uterine canal
C. Point A receives a dose of 7000 cGy
D. Point B receives a dose of 6000 cGy
 Abnormal FSH:
Abnormal AMH:
Modified BPP:
BPP:

Last to be affected:

>36wks, singleton with breech/transverse (not in knee or

footling), adequate liquor, membranes intact, normal
FHR, no placenta previa:

Second twin in transverse lie, no previous LSCS:

22. A 20-year-old woman comes to the OPD due to 3 days of
malodorous vaginal discharge and severe vulvar pruritus. The
patient is sexually active and had a copper-containing
intrauterine device placed for contraception last year. Pelvic
examination shows a thin, frothy, and green vaginal discharge
with marked vulvar and vaginal erythema. Vaginal discharge
pH is 5.5. The intrauterine device strings are visualized and
protrude through the cervical os. Microscopic examination of
this patient's vaginal discharge will most likely reveal which of
the following?
A. Clue cells
B. Filamentous, gram-positive bacilli
c. Flagellated, motile organisms
D. Pseudohyphae
23. A partogram of a woman in labor is shown below.
Oxytocin infusion has been administered. Mark the best
management for the patient?
A. Forceps-assisted delivery
B. Vacuum-assisted delivery
C. Oxytocin infusion
D. Cesarean section
24. All are normal physiological changes in pregnancy
except?

A. Left axis deviation

B. Mild ST changes in inferior leads
C. Atrial and ventricular premature contractions
D. S4
PHYSIOLOGICAL CHANGES IN PREGNANCY

Blood/plasma/RBC volume Hematocrit BT, CT

(Effect of estrogen + Hb
aldosterone) Platelet EF
Retic count F 11/13
WBC count Protein C/S IRV
All clotting factors RR
Fibrinogen PVR Vital capacity
ESR BP TLC
SHBG/TBG, Total protein COMPLIANCE
FRC
CO, HR, SV
Sr Urea
IC Uric acid/Creatinine Pigmentation
TV Salt and water retention
MV Vaginal pH Cholestasis
Raised SHBG
Onset of labour
RBF, GFR
28. All are true regarding peripartum cardiomyopathy
except?
A. Development of cardiac failure within 5 months of delivery
B. Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction
C. Absence of identifiable cause
D. Dilated left ventricle
39. Which of the following is true about vaginal changes in a
normal pregnancy?

A. Decreased number of Lactobacilli

B. Increased glycogen metabolism in the epithelium
C. pH > 6.8
D. Epithelial thinning
35. A pregnant lady with 34 weeks of amenorrhea has the
following findings: LDH - 700 IU/L, platelets - 75,000/ mm3,
serum bilirubin - 1.5 mg/dL, SGOT - 200 U/L, SGPT - 150 U/L,
and BP - 140/96 mm Hg. Her coagulation profile and renal
function tests are normal. What is the diagnosis?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Intrahepatic cholestasis
36. A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has the
following features. What is the most probable diagnosis?

• Normal stature
• Thelarche – absent
• FSH, LH – high
• Karyotype - 46 XX
A. Testicular feminizing syndrome
B. Gonadal dysgenesis
C. Kallmann syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
 MALE PSEUDOHERMAPHRODITE

46 XY 46 XY 46 XY CAH
No uterus / FT Streak testes Testes present
Female external genitalia No ovary Male internal genitalia
IF not purely female: Uterus and FT + Female external
Breast present Female external genitalia genitalia
No axillary pubic hair No breast Virilisation at puberty:
Testosterone high No axillary pubic hair Acne, male axillary and
Testosterone low pubic hair, clitoromegaly

Female pseudohermaphrodite:
CAH
Aromatase deficiency
38. A pregnant woman presents with obstructed labor and is
grossly dehydrated. Investigations reveal fetal demise. What
will be the management?
A. Craniotomy
B. Decapitation
C. Cesarean section
D. Forceps extraction
40. A 22-year-old pregnant lady presents with fever and is
put on antibiotics. Fever is still not brought under control. On
further investigation, she is diagnosed to have septic pelvic
thrombophlebitis. Which among the following is the next
course of treatment for her?
A. Stop antibiotics and start heparin
B. Antibiotics + Heparin
C. Surgical embolectomy
D. Hysterectomy
 Minipill: >3hrs
Cerazette: >12hrs

OCP
MIFEPRISTONE (RU-486)
Copper T

Eclampsia:
REGIMEN

Guidelines Fasting mg/dl Glucose 1-hour mg/dL 2-hour

(mmol/L) Challenge (mmol/L) mg/dL(mmol/
L) Therapeutic level-
IADPSG ≥ 92 75 g OGTT ≥ 180 ≥ 153 Monitoring-
DIPSI 75 g OGTT ≥ 140
 Episiotomy
The ligament that maintains anteversion of the uterus Timing:
during pregnancy is:
Order:
A. Round ligament Type of perineal tear:
B. Cardinal ligament
Muscles cut: Bulbospongiosus, Levator ani,
C. Uterosacral ligament
Superficial and deep transverse perinii
D. Pubocervical ligament Not cut: Ischiocavernosus/coccygeus, obturator
Uterus:
True muscular supports: Cervical incompetence:
• Pelvic diaphragm Indication of cerclage:
• Urogenital diaphragm
• Perineal body Cerclage in non-pregnant:
True ligamentous supports: Absolute CI to cerclage:
• Mackenrodts’s ligaments/ Cardinal / transverse cervical
• Pubocervical ligament
• Uterosacral ligament
Management of prolapse: Calorie Requirement increases in
-Pregnancy / Extreme elderly: pregnancy
-Poor surgical candidate: Obliterative (Colpocleisis) –Le
Fort Second trimester: + Kcal/day
-Ideal TOC: Reconstructive: Anterior colporrhaphy + Thirst trimester: + Kcal/day
Hysterectomy +Colpoperinorrhaphy Lactation (0-6m): + Kcal/day
Fertility preserving: Sling surgeries -Shirodkar/ Purandare/ Lactation (6-12m): + Kcal/day
Khanna
Uterus preserving: Fothergill/Manchester repair –Cervical
amputation

What is altered in thyroid profile throughout pregnancy?

A. Free T3 level
B. Free T4 level Post-VVF repair:
C. Total T3 level Sexual abstinence
D. TSH level Pregnancy avoid
COMPLICATIONS
Help: call for help Sudden severe pain Unexplained shock + • Intense pain
Evaluate for episiotomy abdomen + Shock + Difficulty breathing • H/o C-sec /
Uterine fundus not within 30min of myomectomy
Legs: McRoberts position palpable at umbilicus delivery + DIC +No • Fetal parts
fever palpable
Pressure: Suprapubic superficially
pressure STOP oxytocin
Rotate posterior shoulder Manual replacement:
Johnson’s technique

Roll the patient on to all

fours
Put baby back -> LSCS

Cord prolapse “Bag of worms”

Least risk with:
-Prepare for urgent LSCS
-Tredelenburg position
-Relieve pressure off cord: Lift
presenting part
CI: Hypertension, PAD, Rh
isoimmunization, Heart disease

CI: Asthma
While discharging a patient who underwent a vesicovaginal fistula
repair, which of the following would you recommend?
A. Sexual abstinence for 3 months and avoid pregnancy for a year
B. Sexual abstinence for 3 weeks and avoid pregnancy for 6 months
C. Sexual abstinence for 6 weeks and avoid pregnancy for a year

Magnesium sulphate has no role in?

A. Prevention of seizures in severe pre-eclampsia

B. Prevention of recurrent seizures in eclampsia
C. Prevention of RDS in premature baby
D. Reducing contractility of uterus