XAT 2016

XAT 2016

Duration: 205 mins Max Score: 234

Test Instructions

1. The total time duration for the exam is 205 minutes.

2. Each question is allotted 1(one) marks for correct response. One fourth of a mark will be
deducted for an incorrect answer.
3. The paper consist of 2 sections comprises of 72 Question of verbal and logical ability and 25
Questions of General knowledge .
4. Total questions in the test are 78.

Test Sections

Section Questions Marks

Verbal Ability 26 Questions (1 - 26) 78
Decision Making 23 Questions (27 - 49) 69
Data Interpretation 29 Questions (50 - 78) 87

Color coding for types of Questions

Code Type of Question

Single Option Correct Multiple Choice Question
One or More Options Correct Multiple Choice Question with Multiple Answers
Numerical Numerical

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Q. 1 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following options best captures the relationship similar to INSPECT: VIVISECT?

A. Enquire: Observe
B. Inquire: Explore
C. Investigate: Interrogate
D. Query: Survey
E. Question: Respond

Q. 2 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Read the following poem and answer the question that follows:

I sought a soul in the sea

And found a coral there
Beneath the foam for me
An ocean was all laid bare.

Into my heart's night

Along a narrow way
I groped; and lo! the light,
An infinite land of day.

Which of the following would best capture the ESSENCE of the poem above?

A. What lies 'outside' is always deceptive

B. Pursue the narrow path and avoid the broadways
C. External search is futile; explore the inner space for answers
D. Heart's pathways are broad and clear to find the destination
E. Light offers sight and insight

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Q. 3 Single Option Correct +3 -1

"Assumptions are analogous to the basic ingredients in a gourmet recipe. Only the final
product of the recipe dictates whether the ingredients suffice ... "

Which of the following is ANALOGOUS to the statement above?

A. Good wine needs no advertisement!

B. The apple never falls far from the tree!
C. All is well that ends well!
D. As you row, so shall you reap!
E. The proof of the pudding is in the eating!

Q. 4 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others,
labeled P, Q, R, and S are given below:
1. Suppose I know someone, Smith.
P. One day you come to me and say: "Smith is in Cambridge."
Q. I inquire, and find you stood at Guildhall and saw at the other end a man and said: "That
was Smith."
R. I'd say: "Listen. This isn's sufficient evidence."
S. I've heard that he has been killed in a battle in this war.
6. If we had a fair amount of evidence he was killed I would try to make you say that you're
being credulous.

Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?

A. 1SPQR6
B. 1RSPQ6
C. 1PRSQ6
D. 1QSRP6
E. 1RQPS6

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Q. 5 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others,
labeled as P, Q, R, and S are given below:
1. The word "symmetry" is used here with a special meaning, and therefore, needs to be
defined.
P. For instance, if we look at a vase that is left-and-right symmetrical, then turn it 180°
around the vertical axis, it looks the same.
Q. When we have a picture symmetrical, one side is somehow the same as the other side.
R. When a thing is symmetrical- how can we define it?
S. Professor Hermann Weyl has given this definition of symmetry: a thing is symmetrical if
one subject it to a certain operation and it appears exactly the same after operation.
6. We shall adopt the definition of symmetry in Weyl's more general form, and in that form
we shall discuss symmetry of physical laws.

Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?

A. 1PQRS6
B. 1QRSP6
C. 1RQPS6
D. 1RQSP6
E. 1SPQR6

Q. 6 Single Option Correct +3 -1

In recent past, the football team has lost most of the matches in international football
tournaments. The most successful coaches in Indian club football tournaments are from
Latin American countries. In most of the Latin American countries, football is a more
popular sport than cricket.

From the passage above, choose the correct option:

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A. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that "In India, cricket is more popular than football".
B. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that "Most Latin American countries are successful at
football".
C. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that "In recent past, coaches of Indian football teams
are not from Latin America".
D. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that "European football coaches are less successful
than their Latin American counterparts for Indian national team".
E. It cannot be DEFINITELY concluded that "The more popular a sport the better the
chance of producing a successful coach in that sport".

Q. 7 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Choose the best pronunciation of the word, Sobriquet, from the following options:

A. soh-bruh-key
B. suub-rry-ka
C. sob-bee-ri-kwet
D. soub-rick-kaat
E. Sobb-rik-kwet

Q. 8 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Consider the two related statements below:

Statement I: Offices and positions for the marginalized sections should open to those with
greater savings among them.
Statement II: Offices and positions must be open to everyone based on the principle of fair
opportunity.

Which of the following is true?

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A. Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections are incapable of saving.

B. Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally exposed to all opportunities.
C. Statement II contradicts meritocracy.
D. Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally intelligent.
E. Statement II assumes that the marginalized sections always depend on subsidies.

Q. 9 Single Option Correct +3 -1

This season will pass. The Prime Minister may not win Lok Sabha elections, or she may; she
may not continue as Prime Minister, or she may. The country will survive whatever the
texture of politics in this decade or the next.

Which of the following, IF TRUE, will BEST reinforce the author's view?

A. The survival of any Prime Minister is dependent on the country's economic growth.
B. The country has a vibrant young working population.
C. The survival of the country depends on a dynamic, growth-oriented Prime Minister,
not on the texture of politics.
D. The previous season had also witnessed similar political uncertainty.
E. The survival of the Prime Minister is dependent on the political texture of the country.

Q. 10 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The subject of this book is knavery, skulduggery, cheating, betrayal, unfairness, crime,
sneakiness, malingering, cutting corner, immorality, dishonesty, betrayal, graft,
wickedness, and sin.

Which of the following options best captures ALL italicized words above?

A. Agressive behaviors
B. Illegal behaviors
C. Deviant behaviors
D. Banned behaviors
E. Vetoed behaviors

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Q. 11 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Read the following conversation:

OINOS: I can comprehend you thus far- that certain operations of what we term Nature, or
the natural laws, will, under certain conditions, give rise to which has all the appearance of
creation. Shortly before the final overthrow of the earth, there were, I well remember,
many very successful experiments in what some philosophers were weak enough to
denominate the creation of animalculae.
AGATHOS: The cases of which you speak were, in fact, instances of the secondary creation -
and of the only species of creation which has ever been, since the first word spoke into
existence the first law.

Which of the following options CANNOT be DEFINITELY inferred based on the above
conversation?

A. Agathos was explaining something related to creation of Oinos.

B. At the time of conversation there was nothing called Earth.
C. The creation o animalculae is a natural law.
D. Natural laws are creations of philosophers.
E. Law is a spoken word

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Q. 12 Single Option Correct +3 -1

...there is a degree of convergence in the definition of trust which can be summarized as

follows: Trust is a particular level of the subjective probability with which an agent assesses
that another agent or group of agents will perform a particular action. When we say we
trust someone or that someone is trustworthy, we implicitly mean that the probability that
he will perform an action that is beneficial to us...

Which of the following statements BEST COMPLETES the passage above?

A. is high enough for us to find out if he will cheat us

B. is high enough for us to consider engaging in some form of cooperation with him
C. is low enough for him not to engage in negative behavior against us
D. is high enough for us not to build defences against his possible aggression
E. is low enough for us to attack him

Questions: 13 - 16

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers to the questions
that follow:

An effective way of describing what interpersonal communication is or is not is

perhaps to capture the underlying beliefs using specific game analogies.

Communication as Bowling: The bowling model of message delivery is probably

the most widely held view of communication. I think that's unfortunate. This
model sees the bowler as the sender, who delivers the ball, which is the
message. As it rolls down the lane (the channel), clutter on the boards (noise)
may deflect the ball (the message). Yet if it is aimed well, the ball strikes the
passive pins (the target audience) with a predictable effect. In this one-way model
of communication, the speaker (bowler) must take care to select a precisely
crafted message (ball) and practice diligently to deliver it the same way every
time. Of course, that makes sense only if target listeners are interchangeable,
static pins waiting to be bowled over by our words- which they aren't.
This has led some observers to propose an interactive model of interpersonal

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communication.

Communication as Ping-Pong: Unlike bowling, Ping-Pong is not a solo game. This

fact alone makes it a better analogy for interpersonal communication. One party
puts the conversational ball in play, and the other gets into position to receive. It
takes more concentration and skill to receive than to serve because while the
speaker (server) knows where the message is going, the listener (receiver)
doesn't. Like a verbal or nonverbal message, the ball may appear straightforward
yet have a deceptive spin.
Ping-Pong is a back-and-forth game; players switch roles continuously. One
moment the person holding the paddle is an initiator; the next second the same
player is a responder, gauging the effectiveness of his or her shot by the way the
ball comes back. The repeated adjustment essential for good play closely
parallels the feedback process described in a number of interpersonal
communication theories.

Communication as Dumb Charades: The game of charades best captures the

simultaneous and collaborative nature of interpersonal communication. A
charade is neither an action, like bowling a strike, not an interaction, like a rally in
Ping-Pong. It's a transaction.
Charades is a mutual game; the actual play is cooperative. One member draws a
title or slogan from a batch of possibilities and then tries to act it out visually for
teammates in a silent mini-drama. The goal is to get at least one partner to say
the exact words that are on the slip of paper. Of course, the actor is prohibited
from talking out loud.
Suppose you drew the saying "God helps those who help themselves". For God,
you might try folding your hands and gaze upward. For helps, you could act out
offering a helping hand or giving a leg-up boost over a fence. By pointing at a
number of real or imaginary people you may elicit a response of them, and by
this point, a partner may shout, "God helps those who help themselves". Success.
Like charades, interpersonal communication is a mutual, on-going process of
sending, receiving, and adapting verbal and nonverbal messages with another
person to create and alter the images in both of our minds. Communication
between us begins when there is some overlap between two images and is
effective to the extent that overlap increases. But even if our mental pictures are
congruent, communication will be partial as long as we interpret them differently.
The idea that "God helps those who help themselves" could strike one person as

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a hollow promise, while the other might regard it as a divine stamp of approval
for hard work.
Dumb Charade goes beyond the simplistic analogy of bowling and ping-pong. It
views interpersonal communication as a complex transaction in which
overlapping messages simultaneously affect and are affected by the other person
and multiple other factors.

Q. 13 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The meaning CLOSEST to 'interchangeable' in the 'Communication as Bowling' paragraph

is:

A. Complementary
B. Contiguous
C. Conforming
D. Compatible
E. Comparable

Q. 14 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following options is the CLOSEST to the necessary condition of

communication:

A. Threshold overlap of shared images

B. Simultaneous exchange
C. Ability to stimulate affect
D. Ability to enact a drama
E. Ability to elicit a response

Q. 15 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The two LIMITATIONS of Ping-Pong as a metaphor for communication are:

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A. It is governed by conventions with possibility for appeal; it has clear rules.

B. The operating model is win-lose because only one individual or team can win; the
receiver can always predict the spin.
C. The number of players is limited as very few can be meaningfully engaged at a time;
the rules of the game are fixed by the regulators
D. It demands more skills of the receiver than of the speaker; it is as passive as bowling
E. Real life communications is like Dumb Charade with multiple players; there are
multiple balls used in Dumb Charade

Q. 16 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Action, interaction, and transaction are CLOSEST to:

A. Advertising, buyer negotiating with a seller, bidding for a player in Indian Premier
League.
B. Preparing an election manifesto, addressing a public gathering, engaging in door-to-
door canvassing
C. Preparing for MBA entrance exam, writing the MBA entrance exam, facing an interview
for business school
D. Applying for learners license, negotiating with a driving school, driving a car
E. Negotiating overseas posting, applying for visa, undertaking a journey

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Questions: 17 - 19

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers to the questions
that follow:

Advances in the economic theory in the 1970s and 1980s illuminated the limits of
markets; they showed that unfettered markets do not lead to economic efficiency
whenever information is imperfect or markets are missing (for instance, good
insurance markets to cover key risks confronting individuals). And information is
always imperfect and markets are always incomplete. Nor do markets, by
themselves, necessarily lead to economic efficiency when the task of a country is
to absorb new technology, to close the "knowledge gap": a central feature of
development. Today, most academic economists agree that markets, by
themselves, do not lead to efficiency; the question is whether the government
can improve matters.

While it is difficult for economists to perform experiments to test their theories,

as a chemist or a physicist might, the world provides a vast array of natural
experiments as dozens of countries try different strategies. Unfortunately,
because each country differs in its history and circumstances and in the myriad
of details in the policies- and details do matter- it is often difficult to get a clear
interpretation. What is clear, however, is that there have been marked differences
in performance, that the most successful government played a very active role.
As we look more carefully at the effects of particular policies, these conclusions
are reinforced: there is a remarkable congruence between what economic theory
says the government should do and what the East Asian governments actually
did. By the same token, the economic theories based on imperfect information
and incomplete risk markets that predicted that the free flow of short-term
capital- a key feature of market fundamentalist policies- would produce not
growth but instability have also been borne out.

Q. 17 Single Option Correct +3 -1

"...whether the government can improve matters." Here "matters" indicates

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A. Economic efficiency
B. Information imperfectness
C. Knowledge gaps
D. Good insurance markets
E. Incomplete risk markets

Q. 18 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following options CANNOT be inferred from the above passage?

A. Free flow of short-term capital might fail to ensure economic growth.

B. Insurance market is a proof that 'markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency'.
C. It is difficult to interpret the success of economic policies of Asian countries.
D. Technology can impede market efficiency.
E. State intervention and imperfect information can never go hand-in-hand

Q. 19 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following statements BEST captures the ESSENCE of the two paragraphs in the
above passage?

A. Paragraph I and Paragraph II are parallel arguments that are unrelated

B. Paragraph I describes markets in general whereas Paragraph II describes market
failures in Asian economies in particular
C. Paragraph I explains why markets fail. Paragraph II spells out why market based
economic theories fail to explain the success of Asian economies
D. Paragraph I raises questions and Paragraph II answers them
E. Paragraph I states an economic theory and Paragraph II cites a natural experiment to
disprove it

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Questions: 20 - 23

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers to the questions
that follow:

The base of Objectivism according to Ayan Rand is explicit: "Existence exists- and
the act of grasping that statement implies two corollary axioms: that something
exists which one perceives and that one exists possessing consciousness,
consciousness being the faculty of perceiving that which exists."

Existence and consciousness are facts implicit in every perception. They are the
base of all knowledge (and the precondition of proof): knowledge presupposes
something to know and someone to know it. They are absolutes which cannot be
questioned or escaped: every human utterance, including the denial of these
axioms, implies their use and acceptance.

The third axiom at the base of knowledge- an axiom true, in Aristotle's words of
"being qua being"- is the Law of Identity. This law defines the essence of
existence: to be is to be something, a thing is what it is; and leads to the
fundamental principle of all action, the law of causality. The law of causality
states that a thing's actions are determined not by chance, but by its nature, i.e.,
by what it is.

It is important to observe the interrelation of these three axioms. Existence is the

first axiom. The universe exists independent of consciousness. Man is able to
adapt his background to his own requirements, but "Nature, to be commanded,
must be obeyed" (Francis Bacon). There is no mental process that can change the
laws of nature or erase facts. The function of consciousness is not to create
reality but to apprehend it. "Existence is Identity, Consciousness is Identification."

Q. 20 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following is DEFINITELY CORRECT according to the passage:

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A. Only what can be perceived exists

B. What exists is perceived
C. All that exists does not have consciousness
D. Consciousness makes perception of being possible
E. Something to be known and someone to know are the conditio sine qua non for
existence

Q. 21 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following is the ESSENCE of 'The law of Causality'?

A. To be is to be something; 'being qua being'

B. Wishing to become something else denies the nature of that being
C. The law of identity is the same as the law of causality
D. Essence of existence
E. Actions of a being a determined by its nature

Q. 22 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following can be best captured as 'Identity' and 'Identification'?

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A. College as identity; perception of cultural events as identification

B. Twitter as identity; perception of Twitter as identification
C. Government as identity; perception of taxation of citizens as identification
D. Marriage as identity; perception of children as identification
E. MBA as identity; perception of campus placement as identification

Q. 23 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The author would interpret Francis Bacon's "Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed"
as:

A. Reality should not be modified or escaped but faced

B. Man's existence depends on nature's whims
C. Essentially and objectively nature is superior to humans
D. Obstacles are better circumvented than confronted
E. Before channeling nature one must first comply with it

Questions: 24 - 26

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers to the questions
that follow:

Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always an approximation to the

complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we know it. In fact, everything we
know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know
all the laws as yet. Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again,
or, more likely, to be corrected.

The principle of science, the definition, almost, is the following: The test of all
knowledge is the experiment. The experiment is the sole judge of scientific
"truth". But what is the source of knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be
tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense
that it gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these hints
the great generalizations- to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange
patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we

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have made the right guess. This imagining process is so difficult that there is a
division of labor in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce,
and guess at new laws, but do not experiment; and then there are experimental
physicists who experiment, imagine, decide, and guess.

We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the "wrong"
ones, and then we find the "right" ones. Now, how can an experiment be
"wrong"? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did not notice.
But these things are easily fixed and checked back and forth. So without
snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong?
Only by being inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object never seems to
change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a "law" was
invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That "law" is now found to be
incorrect. Mass is found to increase with velocity, but appreciable increase
requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed
of less than one hundred miles a second the mass is constant to within one part
in a million. In some such approximate form, this is a correct law. So in practice,
one might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and
no. For ordinary speeds, we can certainly forget it and use the simple constant
mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the
higher the speed, the more wrong we are.

Finally, and most interesting, philosophically, we are completely wrong with the
approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be altered even though
the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the
philosophy, or the ideas, behind the laws. Even a very small effect sometimes
requires profound changes to our ideas.

Q. 24 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following options is DEFINITELY NOT an approximation to the complete truth?

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A. I know that I know

B. I know that I do not know
C. I know what I know
D. I know what I do not know
E. I know that other do not know

Q. 25 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Consider the two statements from the passage:

Statement I: The mass of an object never seems to change.
Statement II: Mass is found to increase with velocity.

Which of the following options CANNOT be concluded from the above passage?

A. Both statements I and II are approximation to the complete truth

B. Both statements I and II are complete truth so far as we know
C. Statement I is an approximation to the complete truth but Statement II is complete
truth.
D. Statement I reveals that experimental physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess are
philosophically wrong.
E. Statement II shows that theoretical physicists can pinpoint the shortcomings of
experimental physicists

Q. 26 Single Option Correct +3 -1

'Big Bang' is a popular theory related to the origin of the universe. It states that the
universe was the outcome of a big bang that released enormous energy.

Which of the following is the MOST PROBABLE inference about the big bang theory?

A. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists

B. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by theoretical physicists
C. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists and then deduced by
theoretical physicists
D. Philosophers got the Big Bang theory wrong
E. Big Bang Theory is not an approximation of the complete truth

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Questions: 27 - 29

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote

research. In addition to helping in policy making, it also provides free online
access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high-quality
research articles. Till 2010, the publication of articles was very slow because there
was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory
one article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and
earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was considered the best
place for cutting-edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy
with the work done by researchers in a silo and came out with a new research
policy n 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among
researchers. It was decided that extra benefits would be offered to researchers
with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles increased
fourfold in 2014. At the end of the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised
against the new benefits scheme. Auditors were not happy with increased
expenses towards remuneration for researchers. Further, the government opined
that the publication was itself a reward and hence, researchers need be paid
nothing extra. The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the
government was not encouraging.

1. Note: Auditors role is to verify accounts

Q. 27 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The following facts were observed by an analytics team hired by the government to study
the extant situation.
1. There was a four-fold increase in the number of researchers leaving the organization in
2014
2. A researcher died while on duty.
3. The quality of articles published declined substantially.
4. The average number of people accessing an article decreased by 2%.

Which of the following options would justify the government's intention to DISCONTINUE
the scheme?

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A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 4 only
E. 3 and 4

Q. 28 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The director still wanted to persuade the government to review its stand. He had framed
the following arguments:
1. Most famous researchers in the world are also the highest paid.
2. American Institute of research gives extra benefits to its scientists.
3. This year's highest-paid researcher had won the Nobel Prize last year.

Considering the government to be reasonable, which of the following options is UNLIKELY

to convince the government?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. 29 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The director wanted to promote good decision-making at Indian Institute of Research. A

few trusted colleagues offered the following suggestions:
1. Auditors need not be allowed to object extra benefits schemes.
2. Auditors need not pin-point sudden increase in expenditure.
3. Auditors need not be consulted before taking any policy-level decision.

Which of the following combination of options should the director agree THE MOST with?

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A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2, and 3

Questions: 30 - 31

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Kamal Chinnappa, Vimal Rao, Ganesh Krishnan and Dinesh Kumar own a salon
each on the Barbil street. They are the only hairdressers on that street. Each of
them offered three services viz. haircut, shaving, and hair-dye. One evening, all
four of them met in a nearby tea-stall and agreed to charge Rs. 100 for any of the
three services (haircut, shave and hair-dye) on weekdays. They also agreed to
increase this rate to Rs. 115 on weekends and holidays. All verbally decided to
implement the agreement.

Q. 30 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The following day Kamal, being the most competent hairdresser on that street, was
contemplating charging higher than agreed upon price.

Which of the following would enable them to charge with minimal violation of the
agreement?

A. He should introduce a new and specialized service at Rs. 130

B. He should open another shop on the same street and charge Rs. 150
C. He should charge Rs. 130 for those wanting to jump the queue
D. He should charge Rs. 115 for a service to a particular customer and give the next
service free
E. He should open his shop two hours before others and close it after two hours

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 XAT 2016

Q. 31 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Vimal relies heavily on a bunch of loyal customers. He is concerned about retaining them.

Which of the following options should he choose if he does not want to violate the
agreement?

A. He should charge differential rates for loyal customers

B. He should charge the loyal customers lower
C. He should charge every third visit free for his loyal customers
D. He should charge all the agreed upon price
E. He should allow his loyal customers to jump the queue

Questions: 32 - 33

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

The city of Yashmund is served by licensed taxis operating on officially

sanctioned metered rates and driven by licensed drivers who do not own taxis
but pay a monthly rent to the taxi-owners. Shailesh Nair, the mayor of Yashmund,
perceived that most of these taxis do not offer sufficient comfort and safety to
passengers.

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 XAT 2016

Q. 32 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The Mayor wants the owners and drivers to care about comfort.

Which of the following decisions, IF TAKEN, is MOST LIKELY to increase the comfort levels of
passengers?

A. The mayor issues a guideline that taxis will be randomly inspected by the police for
the comfort level
B. The mayor ensures bank grant drivers loans to own cars. Owner driven cars generally
offer greater comfort
C. The mayor introduces licensing of air-conditioned taxis which can charge increased
rates to the rich customers
D. The mayor introduces a feedback system that records passenger satisfaction with
comfort levels; this will affect renewal of annual taxi license
E. The mayor permits doubling metered rates which will ensure enhanced income for
owners to invest in greater comfort

Q. 33 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The mayor wants to involve the car owners in finding a solution to the problem of comfort
and safety. He is concerned that the customers may not be willing to pay more for safety.

Which of the options below is MOST LIKELY to convince the owners?

A. The taxi owners who clear comfort-inspection can charge higher rentals from the
drivers and drivers with impeccable safety record can charge the same from
customers
B. The taxis that clear comfort-inspection can charge 25% above the metered rates;
studies have shown that customers are willing to pay around 18% extra for comfort
C. If a taxi owner has a consistent record of comfort and safety the government will
subsidize a second loan
D. Taxis can charge 25% more if they clear comfort-inspection. However, owners of the
taxis found compromising on safety will be jailed
E. Taxis that pass comfort-inspection test can charge 25% more. Should they violate any
traffic rule this privilege would be withdrawn.

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 XAT 2016

Questions: 34 - 35

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Chatterjee, the MLA of Trikathapur, owes his election success to his close friend
and businessman Ghosh. The victory had appeared unlikely for Chatterjee after
the arrival of Bhowmich, a budding politician with hordes of money. However, his
clean image along with Ghosh’s money ensured Chatterjee’s resounding victory.

Q. 34 Single Option Correct +3 -1

After the election, Ghosh requested Chatterjee to sanction the land adjoining his factory,
for expansion. However, the requested government land was a green belt reducing
harmful pollution from the factory.

Which of the following is the BEST option for Chatterjee in these circumstances?

A. Chatterjee should approve the sale only after Ghosh plants a large number of trees
around the factory and the city.
B. Chatterjee should oblige Ghosh provided he recruits 20 locals as his employees on
condition that they plant and maintain a tree each in their locality.
C. As Ghosh is paying market rates Chatterjee should approve the sale with no riders
D. Chatterjee should approve the sale and ensure that the green belt is shifted to a
different tract of land outside the city, purchased from the proceeds of the sale.
E. Chatterjee should unconditionally approve the transfer of the land to Ghosh as a
token of gratitude.

Q. 35 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Inspired by Bhowmick’s manifesto, Chatterjee is contemplating a green policy which can

adversely affect Ghosh’s business interests.

Which of the following actions from Ghosh is likely to convince Chatterjee NOT to pursue
this policy?

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 XAT 2016

A. Request Chatterjee to defer implementation f the green policy by 3 years, the time
needed to make his factory green.
B. Remind Chatterjee that it is for his clean image that people voted him and not for
Bhowmick’s green policy.
C. Warn Chatterjee that all industrialists will turn against him and despite his clean
image he may be hated by the industry.
D. Appeal to Chatterjee’s sympathy citing the potential loss his business will suffer if the
policy were to be implemented.
E. Threaten Chatterjee that he should not take his loyalty for granted as Bhowmick has
invited him to join his party.

Questions: 36 - 38

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Nicky, Manoj, and Benita are graduates from a top-ranked B-school. They joined
ABC corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its performance-oriented culture.
This is the first time the organization recruited from a top-ranked B-school. They
are part of a five-member team with two others from lower ranked B-schools.
Nicky, Manoj, and Benita draw 40 percent higher salaries than other team
members. This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior executive.

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 XAT 2016

Q. 36 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Amelia is disappointed with the performance of Nicky, Manoj, and Benita. She came to
know that ABC was not their first choice and they had spent the first ten months applying
to other organizations. However, they have not started liking ABC and promised to do their
best henceforth. Amelia has to rate their annual performance and decide about their
future. She has the following choices:

1. fire them from ABC for insincerity and save the organization’s time and money.
2. give them average ratings with a year to prove their worth and fire them from ABC if they
fail to show significant progress.
3. impose a pay-cut of 15% since they have not delivered on the promise, but give them
relatively higher ratings.
4. Give them relatively poor ratings with one year time to improve and fire them from ABD
if they fail to show significant progress.
5. give them high ratings and give them a second chance to prove their worth.

Which of the following options rank the above choices in the order of MOST APPROPRIATE
or LEAST APPROPRIATE?

A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 1, 4
C. 4, 2, 5
D. 4, 3, 1
E. 5, 2, 3

Q. 37 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Recruiting Nicky, Manoj, and Benita was a part of a larger initiative to make the organization
attractive to prospective employees. Recently, Amelia's boss informally told her that the
trio's perception of the organization might influence future recruitment from top B-
schools. However, the trio had already expressed their unhappiness about the
organization to Amelia. She suspected that her promotion due next year depend on the
trio!

Which of the following is the BEST way for Amelia to deal with this situation?

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 XAT 2016

A. Henceforth, she should be lenient with the trio

B. She should promise the trio an early promotion if they can help her recruit good
talent from top B-schools
C. Henceforth, she should occasionally invite the trio for dinner and informal outings
D. She should tell her boss that it is unfair to link her promotion to the trio's behavior
E. She should convey the trio's unhappiness to her boss

Q. 38 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Nicky's performance on the job is disappointing though she is considered a very helpful
person outside the workplace helping her teammates and others in the organization with
their personal needs, example: finding a place to rent, a good place to get homely food etc.
On the other hand, Manoj and Benita are performing well in their respective jobs and are
perceived by their teammates as important to the team. But they are not interested in
helping outside the workplace. Amelia has to decide the future of the trio. She has the
following options:
1. Inform the higher authorities about Nicky's poor performance and ask them to take a
call.
2. Send Nicky for a one-month training earmarked for top performing employees.
3. Serve Nicky an ultimatum to improve within the next six months or get fired.
4. Even though they performed well, give Manoj and Benita average ratings because of their
disinterest in helping outside workplace.
5. Give Manoj and Benita high ratings based on their performance.

Which of the following combinations of the above options will be the MOST APPROPRIATE?

A. 1 and 5
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5

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 XAT 2016

Questions: 39 - 41

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Recently, a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful

chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast moving consumer goods giant. The
report sparked a nationwide outcry.

Q. 39 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, feared this incident might affect the company's
image among consumers. Rajahn had the following options:
1. Apologising publicly for this inconvenience and immediately withdrawing the products
from all stores.
2. Communicate 'the correct findings' to the public.
3. Hire a reputed independent testing agency to verify the claims of the report.
4. Establish internal mechanisms to prevent the repetition of such incidences in future.
5. Give higher incentives to distributors and retailers for selling the company brands.

Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE ORDER of options for Rajan,
starting from the immediate?

A. 3, 1, 5
B. 3, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 1, 2, 5
E. 5, 3, 2

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 XAT 2016

Q. 40 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Mukesh routray, a shopkeeper is a remote village was surprised to read in the newspaper,
his only source of information , about harmful chemicals in crunchy chips . He had stocked
a large quantity of crunchy chips for the forthcoming festive season. He also realized that
people in his village are completely unaware of this controversy . He had the following
options:
1. Sell the entire stock at a discount before the news spread.
2. Destroy the entire stock and advise cutoers not to buy the product from other shops as
well.
3. Donate the entire stock of crunchy chips to a local orphanage
4. Ignore cstomers about the controversy but understate its seriousness.
5. Explore the veracity of the report and then take decisions.
If arranged from ethical to unethical which of the following is DEFINITELY the WRONG
order?

A. 6,5,1
B. 6,1,4
C. 4,5,1
D. 2,4,3
E. 2,4,1

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 XAT 2016

Q. 41 Single Option Correct +3 -1

An independent trustworthy confidante of Rajan shekawat , the CEO of the company

informed him that one of their main competitors had bribed the food testing agency to
manipulate the report.
Which of the following action will BEST help crunchy chips to bounce back.

A. Proclaim over the media that their product is completely safe.

B. Secretly hire a food casting agency to ascertain the quality of competitor's product.
C. Hire another food testing agency to test and communicate the outcome to the
consumers.
D. File a defamation case against the competitor for this alleged involvement in the
conspiracy
E. File a defamation case against the food testing agency.

Questions: 42 - 44

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Purushottam Bhatnagar owns and operates a sweetshop Puru and Sons. He is

about 60 years old and is eager to hand over the business to his sons Ratan and
Pramod. He, however, fears that his sons, fresh from college, may not understand
the tricks of the trade.

Q. 42 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Purushottam sends a batch of sweets to the Police station across the street every day.
Ratan construed it is as a bribe and wanted to stop this practice.

Which of the following arguments, IF TRUE, would BEST convince Ratan NOT to give up this
practice?

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 XAT 2016

A. In the last three years, three attempts to burgle Puru and Sons were effectively foiled
by the Police
B. Each policeman receives only two pieces of sweet, too small to be considered a bribe
C. The police in return send two policemen in mufti to mingle with the customers during
rush hours to prevent pickpockets
D. Every day, Purushottam also sends a batch of sweets to the school next to the
station, an orphanage nearby, and the temple at the end of the street
E. Purushottam's competitor Uttampurush who runs a sweet shop in the same street
and his neighbor Mahapurush who runs a samosa stall, both do similar things every
day

Q. 43 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Purushottam's eldest son discovered that the shop repackaged sweets that were close to
expiry and sold them at a discount under different names. These sweets usually get sold
very fast. But his son was concerned about the possible consequences of this practice.

Purushottam was thinking of the following arguments to convince his son.

1. these sweets are consumed the same day and therefore there is no cause for worry.
2. reduced prices give enough indication about the sweets to the customers.
3. these products are preferred by those who cannot afford full price and in a way, this is a
service done to them.
4. in the past 30 years, not a single person has reported ill because of consumption of
these sweets
5. repackaging and selling sweets is a common practice

Which combination of arguments below is MOST LIKELY to convince Ratan?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 5
E. 4 and 5

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 XAT 2016

Q. 44 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Purushottam's younger son Pramod discovered that 10% of their customers whom
Purushottam called privileged customers purchased sweets at prices fixed 10 years ago
(which is significantly lower than the current prices). Purushottam told him, "This 10% is my
core and loyal customers with whom I have personal contact and therefore they deserve
this privilege." Pramod refuted his father's argument citing the following information.
1. These customers from the top 20% of the income bracket of the city.
2. These customers frequently purchase from other sweetshops at market prices.
3. None of them recognizes and greets Purushottam at the shop or at anywhere else.
4. None of them was present at Pramod's marriage.
5. These customers actually buy sweets at Puru and Sons for others not part of the core
and loyal customer group.

Which of the following combination of the above will MOST LIKELY convince Purushottam to
charge the market price to all?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 4 and 5

Questions: 45 - 47

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a
real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are listed in the first image.

They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available
(marked with a tick mark in image two)

A person is 'satisfied' if a project meets all three preferences.

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 XAT 2016

Q. 45 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Identify the project(s) where NONE of the 6 persons will be 'satisfied'.

A. M only
B. N only
C. P only
D. N and P only
E. In all projects at least one person will be 'satisfied'

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 XAT 2016

Q. 46 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Identify the project(s), where AT LEAST 3 of the 6 persons will be 'satisfied'.

A. M only
B. S only
C. Q and R only
D. M, Q and S only
E. M, Q and R only

Q. 47 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The marketing managers of all six projects have agreed to add a recreation club and a car
parking facility to the projects. In this changed scenario projects where AT LEAST 2 of the 6
persons will NOT be 'satisfied'.

A. N, Q and R only
B. P only
C. M and P only
D. N and P only
E. M, N and P only

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 XAT 2016

Questions: 48 - 49

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Geetha Gawde can cultivate up to 6 crops a year. Crop A and B are ready for
harvest in 2 months; crop C and D in 3 months, and crop E and F in 4 months.
Crop A can be cultivated from January to June; crop B can be cultivated from April
to September; crop C can be cultivated from May to December; crops D, as well
as E, can be cultivated from August to December, and crop F from November to
May. If Geetha plans a change of crop the soil should be left fallow for one
month; however, if the same crop is sown no fallow time is needed. Sowing takes
place only at the beginning of the month. Geetha can only harvest a maximum of
1000 units of any crop at any point in time. The production cost per unit (incurred
at the time of sowing) and price per unit of a crop are as given in the image.

For Geetha, soil preparation does not incur any cost. If a crop is abandoned
before the scheduled harvesting, she gets no money. Geetha is preparing a
cropping schedule to maximize her annual profits (i.e. price-cost). She plans to
replicate the schedule in the coming years.

Q. 48 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following would DEFINITELY be a part of the ideal schedule?

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 XAT 2016

A. Cultivate crop B in August or September

B. Cultivate crop B from April to September
C. Do not cultivate any crop in August but cultivate crop D is September
D. Cultivate crop D or crop E in August or September
E. Do not cultivate any crop in August; but cultivate crop D or crop E in September

Q. 49 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Which of the following schedules would maximize her annual profit while minimizing the
costs, if Geetha decides NOT to repeat a crop in a calendar year?

A. Crops A, B and E
B. Crops B, D and F
C. Crops B, D, E and F
D. Crops C, D and F
E. Crops A, B, D or E

Q. 50 Single Option Correct +3 -1

In the figure below, AB=AC=CD. If ∠ADB=20°, what is the value of ∠BAD?

A. 40°
B. 60°
C. 70°
D. 120°
E. 140°

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 XAT 2016

Q. 51 Single Option Correct +3 -1

In an amusement park along with the entry pass, a visit gets two of the three available rides
(A, B, and C) free. On a particular day, 77 opted for ride A, 55 opted for B and 50 opted for c;
25 visitors opted for both A and C, 22 opted for both A and B, while no visitor opted for
both B and C. 40 visitors did not opt for ride A or B, or both. How many visited with the
entry pass on that day?

A. 102
B. 115
C. 130
D. 135
E. 150

Q. 52 Single Option Correct +3 -1

ΔABC and ΔXYZ are equilateral triangles of 54 cm sides. All smaller triangles like ΔANM,
ΔOCP, ΔQPX etc. are also equilateral triangles. Find the area of the shape MNOPQRM

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 XAT 2016

A. 243√3 sq.cm
B. 486√3 sq.cm
C. 729√3 sq.cm
D. 4374√3 sq.cm
E. None of the above above

Q. 53 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Akhtar plans to cover the rectangular floor of dimensions 9.5 meters and 11.5 meters using
tiles. Two types of square-shaped tiles are available in the market. A tile with side 1 meter
costs Rs. 100 and a tile with 0.5 meters cost Rs. 30. The tiles can be cut if required. What will
be the minimum cost of covering the entire floor with tiles?

A. 10930
B. 10900
C. 11000
D. 10950
E. 10430

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 XAT 2016

Q. 54 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Anita, Biplove, Cheryl, Danish, Emily, and Feroze compared their marks among themselves.
Anita scored the highest marks, Biplove scored more than Danish. Cheryl scored more
than at least two others and Emily had not scored the lowest.
Statement I: exactly two members scored less than Cheryl
Statement II: Emily and Feroze scored the same marks

Which of the following statements would be sufficient to identify the one with the lowest
marks?

A. statement I only
B. statement II only
C. both statement I and statement II are required together
D. neither statement I nor II is sufficient
E. either statement I or statement II is sufficient

Q. 55 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Rani bought more apples than oranges. She sells apples at Rs. 23 a piece and makes 15%
profit. She sells oranges at Rs. 10 a piece and makes 25% profit. If she gets Rs 653 after
selling all the apples and oranges, find her profit percentage.

A. 16.8%
B. 17.4%
C. 17.9%
D. 18.5%
E. 19.1%

Q. 56 Single Option Correct +3 -1

consider the set of numbers {1, 3, 3<, 3=,.........,3;::}. The ratio of the last number and the
sum of the remaining number is closet to :

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 XAT 2016

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 50
E. 99

Q. 57 Single Option Correct +3 -1

f is a function for which f(1)=1 and f(x)=2x+f(x-1) for each natural number x≥2. Find f(31).

A. 869
B. 929
C. 951
D. 991
E. None of the above

Q. 58 Single Option Correct +3 -1

two numbers in the base system A are 2061ₐ and 601ₐ. The sum of these two numbers in
decimal system is 432 . Find the value of 1010ₐ in decimal system.

A. 110
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140
E. 150

Q. 59 Single Option Correct +3 -1

A water tank has M inlet pipes and N outlet pipes. An inlet pipe can fill the tank in 8 hours
while an outlet pipe can empty the full tank in 12 hours. If all pipes are left open
simultaneously, it takes 6 hours to fill the empty tank. What is the relationship between M
and N?

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 XAT 2016

A. M:N=1:1
B. M:N=2:1
C. M:N=2:3
D. M:N=3:2
E. None of the above

Q. 60 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Company ABC starts an educational program in collaboration with Institute XYZ. As per the
agreement, ABC and XYZ will share profit in 60:40 ratio. The initial investment of Rs. 100,000
on infrastructure is borne entirely by ABC whereas the running cost of Rs. 400 per student
is borne by XYZ. If each student pays Rs. 2000 for the program find the minimum number of
students required to make the program profitable, assuming ABC wants to recover its
investment in the very first year and the program has no seat limits.

A. 63
B. 84
C. 105
D. 157
E. 167

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 XAT 2016

Q. 61 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Study the attached figure and answer the question:

Four persons walk from point A to point D following different routes. The one following
ABCD takes 70 minutes. Another person takes 45 minutes following ABD. The third person
takes 30 minutes following route ACD. The last person takes 65 minutes following route
ACBD. If all were to walk at the same speed, how long will it take to go from point B to point
C?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes
E. Cannot be answered as the angles are unknown

Q. 62 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Each day on Planet M is 10 hours, each hour 60 minutes and each minute 40 seconds. The
inhabitants of Planet M use 10-hour analog clock with an hour hand and a second hand. If
one such clock shows 3 hours 42 minutes and 20 seconds in a mirror, what will be the time
in Planet M exactly after 5 minutes?

A. 6 hours 18 minutes 20 seconds

B. 6 hours 22 minutes 20 seconds
C. 6 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds
D. 7 hours 17 minutes 20 seconds
E. 7 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds

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 XAT 2016

Q. 63 Single Option Correct +3 -1

a, b, c are integers. |a| ≠ |b| ≠ |c| and -10 ≤ a, b, c ≤ 10. What will be the maximum
possible value of [abc-(a+b+c)]?

A. 524
B. 693
C. 731
D. 970
E. None of the above

Q. 64 Single Option Correct +3 -1

A square piece of paper is folded three times along its diagonal to get an isosceles triangle
whose equal sides are 10 cm. What is the area of the unfolded original piece of paper?

A. 400 sq.cm
B. 800 sq.cm
C. 800√2 sq.cm
D. 1600 sq.cm
E. Insufficient data to answer

Q. 65 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The difference between the area of the circumscribed circle and the area of the inscribed
circle of an equilateral triangle is 2156 sq.cm. What is the area of the equilateral triangle?

A. 686√3
B. 1000
C. 961√2
D. 650√3
E. None of the above

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 XAT 2016

Q. 66 Single Option Correct +3 -1

A person standing on the ground at point A saw an object at point B on the ground at a
distance of 600 meters. The object started flying towards him at an angle of 30° with the
ground. The person saw the object for the second time at point C flying at 30° angle with
him. At point C, the object changed direction and continued flying upwards. The person
saw the object for the third time when the object was directly above him. The object was
flying at a constant speed of 10 kmph.

Find the angle at which the object was flying after the person saw it for the second time.
You may use the additional statement(s) if required.
Statement I: after changing direction the object took 3 more minutes than it had taken
before
Statement II: after changing direction the object traveled an additional 200√3 meters

Which of the following is the correct option?

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to find the angle but statement II is not

B. Statement II alone is sufficient to find the angle but statement I is not
C. Statement I and Statement II are consistent with each other
D. Statement I and Statement II are inconsistent with each other
E. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient to find the angle

Q. 67 Single Option Correct +3 -1

For two positive integers a and b, if (a+b) is divisible ny 500 , then the least possible value of
axb is:

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 XAT 2016

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
E. none of the above

Q. 68 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Pradeep could either walk or drive to office. The time taken to walk to the office is 8 times
the driving time. One day, his wife took the car making him walk to the office. After walking 1
km, he reached a time when his wife called to say that he can now take the car. Pradeep
figured that continuing to walk to the office will take as long as walking back home and then
driving to the office. Calculate the distance between the temple and the office

A. 1
B. 7/3
C. 9/7
D. 16/7
E. 16/9

Q. 69 Single Option Correct +3 -1

If a,b and c are 3 consecutive integers between -10 to +10 (both inclusive), how many
integer values are possible for the expression a³+b³+c³+3abc / (a+b+c)²

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

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 XAT 2016

Q. 70 Single Option Correct +3 -1

In the figure in the attached image, two circular curves create 60° and 90° angles with their
respective centers. If the length of the bottom curve Y is 10π, find the length of the other
curve.

A. 15π/√2
B. 20π√2/3
C. 60π/√2
D. 20π/3
E. 15π

Q. 71 Single Option Correct +3 -1

ABCD is a quadrilateral such that AD=9 cm, BC=13 cm, and ∠DAB=∠BCD=90°. P and Q are
two points on AB and Cd respectively, such that DQ: BP=1:2 and DQ is an integer. How
many values can DQ take, for which the maximum possible area of the quadrilateral PBQD
is 150 sq.cm?

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A. 14
B. 12
C. 10
D. 9
E. 8

Questions: 72 - 74

Study the data given in the first image and answer the questions that follow:

Based on a survey of 'shop types', Kamath categorized Indian states into four
geographical regions as shown in the first attached image. His boss felt that the
categorization was inadequate since important labels were missing. Kamath
argued that no further labels are required to interpret the data.

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 XAT 2016

Q. 72 Single Option Correct +3 -1

A consultant observing the data made the following two inferences:

Inference I: the number of grocers per-thousand-population is the highest in North India
Inference II: the number of cosmetic per-thousand is the highest in South India

Which of the following options is DEFINITELY correct?

A. Inference I alone is correct

B. Inference II alone is correct
C. Either of the inferences is correct
D. Neither of the inferences is correct
E. Inference I will be correct only if inference II is correct

Q. 73 Single Option Correct +3 -1

The average size of food shops in East India was twice that of food shops is West India.
Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the above data?

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 XAT 2016

A. As far as 'food shops' are concerned, customers in East India prefer spatial
surroundings compared to customers in West India
B. As far as 'food shops' are concerned, rentals are very high in West India compared to
East India
C. The ratio of customers buying from 'food shops' in East India to customers buying
from 'food shops' in West India is 15.8:11.8
D. There are 740 'food shops' in West India
E. There are 240 'food shops' in South India

Q. 74 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Bala collected the same data five years after Kamath, using the same categorization. His
data is presented in the second attached image.

Which of the following statements can DEFINITELY be concluded?

A. In the last four years, the number of Electrical hardware shop types has increased in
North India
B. In the last four years, the number of Grocers shop types has increased n South India
C. For the last four years in All India the number of Chemists shop types has remained
constant
D. In the last four years in East India, the number of 'others' shop types has decreased
E. As per the new survey conducted Pan Bidi shops in East India are next only to Grocers

Questions: 75 - 78

Study the graph in the first image and answer the questions that follow:

This graph depicts the last eight years' annual salaries (in lacs.) offered to
students during campus placement. Every year 100 students go through the
placement process. However, at least one of them fails to get placed. The salaries
of all unplaced students are marked zero and represented in the graph.

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Q. 75 Single Option Correct +3 -1

In which year was a maximum number of students offered salaries between Rs. 20 to Rs. 30
lacs (both inclusive)?

A. 2008
B. 2009
C. 2010
D. 2012
E. Cannot be determied

Q. 76 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Identify the years in which the annual median salary is higher by at least 60% than the
average salary of the preceding year?

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 XAT 2016

A. 2009, 2010
B. 2012, 2014
C. 2009, 2010, 2012
D. 2009, 2012, 2014
E. 2009, 2010, 2012, 2014

Q. 77 Single Option Correct +3 -1

Identify the number of years in which the difference between the average salaries of the
top 25% and the bottom 25% is more than Rs. 20 lacs:

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Q. 78 Single Option Correct +3 -1

If the average salary is computed excluding students with no offers, in how many years will
the new average salary be greater than the existing median salary? Refer the table in the
second attached image for the number of students without offers.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. Cannot be solved without additional information

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 XAT 2016

XAT 2016
Answers

1. B 2. C 3. E
4. A 5. D 6. E
7. A 8. B 9. D
10. C 11. D 12. B
13. E 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. A 18. C
19. C 20. D 21. E
22. B 23. E 24. D
25. E 26. B 27. C
28. D 29. D 30. A
31. E 32. D 33. D
34. A 35. B 36. C
37. E 38. E 39. B
40. B 41. E 42. D
43. B 44. C 45. C
46. D 47. A 48. C
49. A 50. D 51. E
52. B 53. A 54. A
55. B 56. B 57. D
58. C 59. E 60. A
61. C 62. B 63. C
64. A 65. A 66. D
67. B 68. C 69. C
70. A 71. D 72. D
73. C 74. E 75. E
76. B 77. B 78. A

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