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INDEX (Click on Level To Direct Jump On That Page)

Exam Date Exam Time Level

20/06/2024 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM Matriculation
20/06/2024 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM Higher Secondary
20/06/2024 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM Graduation
20/06/2024 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM Matriculation
21/06/2024 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM Matriculation
21/06/2024 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM Higher Secondary
21/06/2024 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM Graduation
21/06/2024 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM Matriculation
24/06/2024 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM Matriculation
24/06/2024 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM Higher Secondary
24/06/2024 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM Graduation
24/06/2024 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM Matriculation
25/06/2024 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM Matriculation
25/06/2024 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM Higher Secondary
25/06/2024 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM Graduation
25/06/2024 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM Higher Secondary
26/06/2024 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM Matriculation
26/06/2024 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM Higher Secondary
26/06/2024 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM Graduation
26/06/2024 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM Graduation
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 20/06/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
88 – 7 ÷ 65 × 13 + 34 = ?
Ans 1. 94

2. 101

3. 76

4. 89

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘LAST’ is coded as ‘5489’, and ‘SILT’ is coded as ‘9465’. What is the code for ‘I’ in that language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 9

4. 6

Q.3 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some bamboos are sticks.
II. All canes are sticks.
III. All canes are twigs.
Conclusions:
I. Some bamboos are twigs.
II. Some twigs are sticks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.4 In a certain code language, 'GROUP' is written as '7T15W16' and 'STATE' is written as '19V1V5'. How will 'RIGHT' be written
in that language?
Ans 1. 18J7J20

2. 17K8J20

3. 18K7J20

4. 18K8K20
Q.5 Identify the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series to logically complete the series?

Ans

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
1) All mats are sheets.
2) No sheet is a paper.
3) Some papers are notebooks.
Conclusions:
I. No mat is a paper.
II. Some sheets are notebooks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.7 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

MBZT, KYBW, IVDZ, ?, EPHF

Ans 1. GSFC

2. FSGC

3. FRGB

4. GRFB
Q.8 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed in the blanks below, will complete the letter-
series.
e_bho_etb_ _met_hom_tbhom
Ans 1. h m t e b o

2. t m h o b e

3. t m b h o e

4. m h t o b e

Q.9 In a certain code language 'WHEAT' is written as 'AMIFX' and 'BLACK' is written as 'FQEHO'. How will 'GREASE' be written
in the same code language?
Ans 1. KWIFVJ

2. KWIFWJ

3. KWIFWI

4. KWIGWI

Q.10 In a certain code language,'BLOOD' is written as 'CNRSI' and 'VEINS' is written as 'WGLRX'. How will 'HEART' be written in
that language?
Ans 1. IGDVY

2. IGVDY

3. IGDYV

4. IGYDV

Q.11 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks, will complete the
letter series.
r _ m _ s_ t _ i _ m s s _ r i m _ _ s t
Ans 1. i s m r m t m s

2. i m s r m t m s

3. i m s r s t s s

4. i m s r t t m s

Q.12 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is O related to M if ‘C − O ÷ L × U ÷ M ÷ N’?
Ans 1. Father’s brother

2. Mother’s mother

3. Mother’s father

4. Father’s father

Q.13 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1.Neural
2.Newspaper
3.Neglect
4.Newfound
5.Neutron
6.Nephew
Ans 1. 3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2

2. 3, 6, 1, 4, 5, 2

3. 3, 6, 1, 5, 4, 2

4. 3, 1, 6, 5, 4, 2
Q.14 If WATER is coded as 30 and ORANGE is coded as 36, what will EIGHT be coded as?
Ans 1. 36

2. 42

3. 30

4. 25

Q.15 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
LINK : JGKN : : THAT : RFTA : : GROW : ?
Ans 1. EQVP

2. EQXO

3. EPWO

4. FQVO

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Convict : Prison :: Eskimo : ?
Ans 1. Igloo

2. Cottage

3. Hut

4. Palace

Q.17 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English
dictionary.
1. Expert
2. Exotic
3. Explicit
4. Expense
5. Expanse
Ans 1. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

2. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

4. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

Q.18 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
BINZ, EJOY, HKPX, ?, NMRV
Ans 1. KLRW

2. JLRW

3. JLQW

4. KLQW

Q.19 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
168,191,218,249,284,?
Ans 1. 329

2. 333

3. 319

4. 323

Q.20 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
9 ÷ 145 × 29 – 75 + 13 = ?
Ans 1. 113

2. 137

3. 124

4. 107
Q.21 Following certain logic, 64 is related to 16 and 100 is related to 25. To which of the following is 144 related, following the
same logic?
Ans 1. 72

2. 24

3. 36

4. 48

Q.22 In a certain code language,

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’,
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’,
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
‘P = Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’,
‘P − Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
Based on the above, how is P related to R if ‘P * Q = R’?
Ans 1. Mother’s brother

2. Father

3. Mother’s father

4. Brother

Q.23 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.24 Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter-
series.
a_ m x _ q _ y c _ o _
Ans 1. prnbx

2. pnbrz

3. nbprz

4. pbnrz

Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘BORE’ is coded as ‘7513’, and ‘ROTE’ is coded as ‘1457’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 1

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Asian Games is also known as _________.

Ans 1. National Games

2. Asiad

3. World Cup

4. Commonwealth Games
Q.2 During a National Emergency, the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for:
Ans 1. three months at a time

2. two years at a time

3. one year at a time

4. six months at a time

Q.3 In February 2023, which high court ordered that even foreigners can invoke Domestic Violence Act, 2005 in Indian courts
and that the residence of women is immaterial?
Ans 1. Calcutta

2. Madras

3. Delhi

4. Bombay

Q.4 Identify a factor that does NOT determine the temperature of ocean waters.
Ans 1. Unequal distribution of land and water

2. Latitude

3. Ocean currents

4. Longitude

Q.5 Identify the Mughal emperor who was imprisoned for the rest of his life in Agra after the war of succession among his sons.
Ans 1. Aurangzeb

2. Bahadur Shah I

3. Shah Jahan

4. Jahadar Shah

Q.6 Which of the following states is associated with Bonalu festival?

Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Telangana

Q.7 Alarippu, Jatiswaram, Shabdam, Varnam and Tillana are regular patterns of which of the following classical dance forms of
India?
Ans 1. Manipuri

2. Kathak

3. Sattriya

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.8 In which of the following sports/games is the term 'bull's eye' used?
Ans 1. Shooting

2. Kho-kho

3. Kabaddi

4. Chess

Q.9 The Union Cabinet has approved to extend the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) for how many years in September
2023?
Ans 1. Two years

2. Five years

3. Seven years

4. Three years
Q.10 Which type of muscles do the uterus, iris of the eye, and bronchi contain?
Ans 1. Striated muscles

2. Cardiac muscles

3. Smooth muscles

4. Skeletal muscles

Q.11 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. These principles are justiciable.

2. The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy has been taken from the Irish Republic.

3. They were incorporated in our Constitution in order to provide economic justice.

4. They are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Q.12 Who among the following personalities renounced his knighthood after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Ans 1. JC Bose

2. CV Raman

3. Rabindranath Tagore

4. Syed Ahmed Khan

Q.13 Where was the first cement plant located in India in the year 1904?
Ans 1. Hyderabad

2. Chennai

3. Rajkot

4. Jaipur

Q.14 Which Ministry of the Government of India launched South Asia Distribution Utility Network (SADUN) which aims to
modernise distribution of utilities in South Asia?
Ans 1. Power ministry

2. Information and Broadcasting ministry

3. Railways ministry

4. Civil Aviation ministry

Q.15 The density of population is the crude relationship between human and ________.
Ans 1. land

2. family

3. capital

4. growth

Q.16 The Federal Court of India was established in Delhi by the Act of ________.
Ans 1. 1935

2. 1919

3. 1908

4. 1905

Q.17 What is called the powerhouse of the cell?

Ans 1. Nucleus

2. Cytoplasm

3. Chloroplast

4. Mitochondria
Q.18 The Quit India Resolution was ratified in the _________ session of Indian National Congress to launch the movement.
Ans 1. Lucknow

2. Bombay

3. Bankipur

4. Nagpur

Q.19 Which metalloid in the carbon group is chemically similar to its group neighbours tin and silicon?
Ans 1. Arsenic

2. Flerovium

3. Lead

4. Germanium

Q.20 Which Assamese artist was known as Sudhakantha?

Ans 1. Hiteswar Saikia

2. Bhupen Hazarika

3. Hem Barua

4. Hema Bharali

Q.21 Which group of oilfields among the following is located in Assam?

Ans 1. Mehsana and Nawagam

2. Ankaleshwar and Kalol

3. Kosamba and Lunej

4. Digboi and Naharkatiya

Q.22 Rajasthani architecture is also known as:

Ans 1. Indo-Saracenic

2. Sharqi

3. Greco-Roman

4. Maru-Gurjara

Q.23 The Suresh Tendulkar committee was formed in 2005 for _______.
Ans 1. poverty estimates

2. employment

3. foreign policy

4. economic reform

Q.24 Kalidasa was a famous poet in the court of ________.

Ans 1. Pushyamitra Shunga

2. Harshavardhana

3. Chandragupta II

4. Kanishka

Q.25 Which of the following novels was written by George Orwell?

Ans 1. Fahrenheit 451

2. Animal Farm

3. Pride and Prejudice

4. Brave New World

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If the length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 15 cm and the adjacent angle is 30o, then the area of
the triangle is:
Ans 1.

Q.2 Rohan buys a bike priced at ₹95,000. He pays ₹25,000 at once and the rest after 18 months, on which he is charged a simple
interest at the rate of 10% per annum. The total amount (in ₹) he pays for the bike is:
Ans 1. 1,23,200

2. 1,05,500

3. 1,03,500

4. 1,02,320

Q.3 A bank gives ₹1,500 as simple interest in one year on an amount of ₹60,000. What is the annual rate of simple interest (in
percentage)?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5.5

3. 2.5

4. 3.5

Q.4 In a Panchayat election, three contestants - A, B, and C - are contesting. 75% of the total population of 8000 cast their votes.
There were no invalid or NOTA votes in the election. A got the least votes, with only 300 votes. B got 66% of the total votes
and won the election. How many votes did B get?
Ans 1. 3960

2. 5280

3. 3660

4. 4060

Q.5 In a circular path of 619 m, Preeti and Rani start walking in opposite directions from the same point at the speed of 2.85
km/h and 5.4 km/h, respectively. When they will meet for the first time approximately?
Ans 1. After 6.75 minutes

2. After 4.75 minutes

3. After 6.05 minutes

4. After 4.50 minutes

Q.6 An iron costing ₹758 was sold by Ramesh at a gain of 15%, and it was again sold by Reena, who bought it from Ramesh, at a
loss of 8%. Find the selling price of the iron for Reena (correct to two places of decimals).
Ans 1. ₹808.69

2. ₹820.69

3. ₹810.96

4. ₹801.96

Q.7 A man walks 3 km and 200 metres in 25 minutes. What is his speed (in km/h)?
Ans 1. 8.76

2. 7.86

3. 6.87

4. 7.68
Q.8 A chemistry laboratory requests for a 25% solution of ferrous sulphate. A supplier has 40 millilitres of 20% solution. How
many millilitres of 40% solution should be added to make it a 25% solution (correct to two decimal places)?
Ans 1. 14.30

2. 15.20

3. 16.40

4. 13.33

Q.9 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

Ans 1. 611571

2. 969331

3. 701611

4. 908781

Q.10 The perimeter of one face of a cube is 40 cm. Its volume will be:
Ans 1. 1000 cm3

2. 100 cm3

3. 10 cm3

4. 10000 cm3

Q.11 In an educational institution, the ratio of the numbers of students in middle school and in high school, respectively, in a
given year was given as 4 : 3. If there were 324 students in middle school in that year in that institution, what was the
number of students in high school in the same year in that institution?
Ans 1. 243

2. 240

3. 246

4. 249

Q.12 The marked price of a fancy toy is ₹30,000. It is to be sold allowing two successive discounts of 20% and 24%, respectively.
On cash payment, an additional 10% discount on the net price is also given. The selling price (in ₹) of the toy is:
Ans 1. 16416

2. 16520

3. 18350

4. 17280

Q.13 If 28 men can do a piece of work in 26 days, then in how many days 13 men will do it?
Ans 1. 50

2. 56

3. 52

4. 58

Q.14 The lateral surface area of a cone is 550cm2. If the diameter of the cone is 14cm, then the height of the cone is:
Ans 1. 12.5 cm

2. 25 cm

3. 24 cm

4. 12 cm

Q.15 Rameshwar sold a bike at a loss of 15%. If the selling price had been increased by ₹3,375, there would have been a gain of
12%. Find the cost price of the bike.
Ans 1. ₹25,100

2. ₹25,200

3. ₹12,500

4. ₹15,200
Q.16 Find a single discount equivalent to the successive discount of 12%, 20%, 24%, and 32%. (Correct to two places of
decimals)
Ans 1. 43.41%

2. 73.71%

3. 63.62%

4. 53.51%

Q.17 Find the amount of equal annual instalment, which will discharge a debt of Rs.40,376 due in 4 years at the rate of 2% p.a.
simple interest.
Ans 1. Rs.8,758

2. Rs.10,250

3. Rs.8,600

4. Rs.9,800

Q.18 A car covers the distance from Delhi to Gurugram at 60 km/h and returns at a uniform speed of 40 km/h. The average speed
of the car during the whole journey is:
Ans 1. 40 km/h

2. 50 km/h

3. 48 km/h

4. 60 km/h

Q.19 The number 10000 is exactly divisible by which of the following numbers?
Ans 1. 17

2. 18

3. 25

4. 14

Q.20 In a college election between two rivals, a candidate got 30% of the total votes polled. He was defeated by his rival by 200
votes. The total number of votes polled was:
Ans 1. 600

2. 300

3. 400

4. 500

Q.21 Find the average of all prime numbers between 42 and 75.
Ans 1. 59.25

2. 60.25

3. 55.75

4. 57.65

Q.22 A and B complete a work in 12 and 15 days, respectively. They started the work alternatively for 1 day each and A started the
work first. In how much time will 60% of the work be completed?
Ans 1. 7 days

2. 9 days

3. 8 days

4. 10 days

Q.23 The price of a trouser is first decreased by 12% and then increased by 15%. If the initial price of the trouser was ₹1,500, find
the final price (in ₹) of the trouser.
Ans 1. 1,545

2. 1,554

3. 1,518

4. 1,581
Q.24 Find the average of 642, 253, 834 and 303.
Ans 1. 509

2. 508

3. 452

4. 512

Q.25 Rashid sells a book at a gain of 20%. If he had sold it at ₹34.51 more, he would have gained 37%. The cost price (in ₹) of the
book is:
Ans 1. 220

2. 207

3. 203

4. 210

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

On this auspicious Monday, chilled and shudering in spite of astrologer's assurances, he was glad to return to the shelter of
canvas awnings on bamboo stakes.
Ans 1. stakes

2. auspicious

3. shudering

4. assurances

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The state or condition of not being in agreement, accordance, or in harmony

Ans 1. Congeniality

2. Incongruence

3. Liquidity

4. Diplomacy

Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
She will clear the test tomorrow.
Ans 1. The test should be cleared by her the previous day.

2. The test would be cleared by her tomorrow.

3. The test must be cleared by her the coming day.

4. The test will be cleared by her the next day.

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He said, “I can speak three languages fluently.”
Ans 1. He said that he can speak three languages fluently.

2. He said that he will be able to speak three languages fluently.

3. He said that he was able to speak three languages fluently.

4. He said that he could speak three languages fluently.

Q.5 Select the MISSPELT word.

Ans 1. Resturant

2. Refrain

3. Resemblance

4. Retain
Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Rue’ from the given sentence.

Rubina was in distress and guilt due to the loss she incurred to her company, so she could not accept the bonus with relish
at the end of the month.
Ans 1. Guilt

2. Distress

3. Loss

4. Relish

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

____________, French was the most difficult language for Shruti.

Ans 1. Bear out

2. Be in the air

3. Break into

4. By far

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Someone who does not care about rules

Ans 1. Nonconformist

2. Tyrant

3. Vampire

4. Illegitimate

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Brave
Ans 1. Courageous

2. Foolish

3. Coward

4. Shallow

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Jargon
Ans 1. Terminology

2. Music

3. Essay

4. Automobile

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the options given below.
Ans 1. Enthusiatik

2. Liquidity

3. Pioneer

4. Phenomenon

Q.12 In the following question a sentence has been given with a blank. You are required to choose the correct idiom to fill in the
blank.

I'm ________until my family arrives from their holiday. I cannot wait to see them.
Ans 1. losing ground

2. counting down the days

3. getting myself into a mess

4. bearing the gift of the gab

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Pixar’s feature-length releases, which consistently achieved ______ commercial success, were lauded not only for their
visual innovations but for their intelligent and emotional storytelling.
Ans 1. aggregate

2. planetary

3. worldly

4. worldwide

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Stunning
Ans 1. Plain

2. Hideous

3. Ugly

4. Gorgeous

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Courageous
Ans 1. Timid

2. Fearful

3. Cowardly

4. Gutsy

Comprehension:
Read the following passage and fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate option.
Children working in hazardous industries are ____1 to debilitating diseases which can cripple them for life. By sitting in cramped,
damp, unhygienic spaces, their limbs become deformed for life. Inside the matchstick, fireworks and glass industries, they are
______2 of bronchial diseases and TB. Their mental and physical development is permanently _____3 by long hours of work. Once
______4, they can’t get out of the vicious circle of poverty. They ______5 uneducated and powerless.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option for blank 1:
Ans 1. Determined

2. Elevated

3. Prone

4. Questionable

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option for blank 2:
Ans 1. Victims

2. Creators

3. Admirers

4. Producers
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate option.
Children working in hazardous industries are ____1 to debilitating diseases which can cripple them for life. By sitting in cramped,
damp, unhygienic spaces, their limbs become deformed for life. Inside the matchstick, fireworks and glass industries, they are
______2 of bronchial diseases and TB. Their mental and physical development is permanently _____3 by long hours of work. Once
______4, they can’t get out of the vicious circle of poverty. They ______5 uneducated and powerless.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option for blank 3:
Ans 1. Established

2. Included

3. Examined

4. Impaired

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option for blank 4:
Ans 1. Trapped

2. Confirmed

3. Adopted

4. Determined

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option for blank 5:
Ans 1. Choose

2. Accuse

3. Remain

4. Compete
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 14 November 2022, the POCSO Act completed a decade of being on the statute books in India. When enacted, it marked the
culmination of years of campaigning for a dedicated domestic legislation to deal with sexual offenses against children. Ten years is a
reasonable period of time to look back and reflect on how far it has been able to meet the objectives it set out to achieve.
Objectives of the law: The need for a dedicated law to deal with sexual offenses against children emanated from a realisation that, by
failing to account for the specific needs of child victims, the criminal justice system’s response to such cases lacked the sensitivity
required. To address this concern, the POCSO Act in addition to providing punishment for sexual offenses against children, provided
certain safeguards to make children’s interaction with the criminal justice system ‘child-friendly’. For instance, the child victim should
not see the accused at the time of testifying and that trial be held in camera. The evidence of a child shall be recorded within a period
of 30 days. The trial court completes the trial, as far as possible, within a period of one year from the date of cognisance. The POCSO
rules, 2020 also made a provision for appointment of support persons for victims to render assistance.
Hurdles in implementation: Implementing a new law in a vast country like India is not an easy task. Though the child protection
ecosystem is complex and involves the interplay of multiple actors, when it comes to courts, the delay in disposal of POCSO cases
presents one of the biggest challenges in meeting the Act’s objectives. There is a huge variation in the average case length across
states. For instance, Chandigarh takes about six months (on average) to dispose of a case, Himachal Pradesh takes about two years
10 months. Slow disposals not only impact the accused who might be incarcerated during the duration of the trial but also negatively
impact the child victim who might be retraumatised.
Lessons learnt: Though the Act’s implementation is far from perfect, the fact remains that the criminal justice system is more sensitive
towards child victims today than it was a decade ago. Since some states are clearly performing better than others, certain best
practices can be adopted by other states.
Going forward, the government and the judiciary need to assess the gaps in implementation and strengthen the capacity of the
various actors to meet the objectives of the Act.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘incarcerate’.
Ans 1. Reject

2. Commit

3. Liberate

4. Invite

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans 1. Lawlessness of POCSO Act

2. A Decade of POCSO Act and its Reflect

3. POCSO, the Perfect Protection

4. POCSO Act and the Lawyers’ Opinions

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following statements is NOT correct, according to the passage?
Ans 1. The trial court completes the trial within a period of one year.

2. Chandigarh takes about six years on average to dispose of a case.

3. The government and the judiciary need to assess the gaps.

4. Implementing a law in India is difficult.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 What is the view of the writer on one decade of the POCSO Act?
Ans 1. It has made the criminal justice system more sensitive towards child victims.

2. It has brought new problems to children who have become victims.

3. It has been a complete success in controlling crime against children.

4. It has failed in protecting child victims.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The POCSO Act deals with ______________.
Ans 1. sexual offenses against children

2. sexual offenses against the mentally challenged

3. offenses against children in their education

4. sexual offenses against women

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 20/06/2024
Exam Time 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
16 : 36 :: 64 : 100 :: 25 : ?
Ans 1. 47

2. 61

3. 45

4. 49

Q.2 Three statements are given, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some cars are bikes.
All bikes are trucks.
Some trucks are buses.
Conclusions:
I. Some trucks are cars.
II. All buses are cars.
III. Some cars are buses.
IV. All bikes are buses.
Ans 1. Only conclusions I and IV follow

2. Only conclusions II and III follow

3. Only conclusions I, II and IV follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.3 In a certain code language, CAT is written as 24 and LATE is written 38. How will DOLL be written in the same language?
Ans 1. 39

2. 47

3. 40

4. 43

Q.4 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1 Rain
2 Sea
3 Evaporation
4 Clouds
Ans 1. 3, 4, 1, 2

2. 1, 2, 3, 4

3. 2, 3, 4, 1

4. 1, 2, 4, 3
Q.5 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
SOWJ, QPUK, OQSL, ?, KSON
Ans 1. MRQM

2. MSQN

3. NRPM

4. NQQL

Q.6 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Car : Garage :: Clothes : ?
Ans 1. Dress

2. Wardrobe

3. Iron

4. Bus

Q.7 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
ROYAL : ALZRO : : ABOUT : UTPAB : : POLES : ?
Ans 1. FSNPR

2. ESMPO

3. FRMQN

4. ESNPQ

Q.8 In a code language, 'government help people' is written as 'abc pqr mno', 'people live happily' is written as 'efg xyz pqr', and
'people choose government' is written as 'abc pqr ijk'. What is the code for the word 'choose' in that language?
Ans 1. ijk

2. pqr

3. abc

4. xyz

Q.9 According to the series given below, fill in the blank with a suitable letter that would satisfy the series.
Z, B, D, F, H, ________
Ans 1. N

2. I

3. J

4. K
Q.10 Identify the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series to logically complete the series?

Ans

Q.11 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AGMZ, CEOX, ECQV, ?
Ans 1. GAST

2. GCSW

3. GBTS

4. GDSX

Q.12 Which two numbers (not individual digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
[(39 – 3) ÷ 6] + 11 × 2 – 4 × 5 = 13
Ans 1. 2 and 6

2. 11 and 4

3. 2 and 5

4. 3 and 6
Q.13 In a certain code language, 'SEQUINS' is written as 'HVJFKPU' and 'REACTED' is written as 'IVZXVGF'. How will 'PROCESS'
be written in that language?
Ans 1. BDIUNMO

2. KILXGUU

3. TRUIWDM

4. LOPKFGH

Q.14 In a certain code language, 'FLUTE' is written as 'VGFOU' and 'EXILE' is written as 'VORCV'. How will 'BLOOD' be written in
that language?
Ans 1. WLLDB

2. WLOXY

3. WLLOB

4. WLLOY

Q.15 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
IBDA, MFHE, QJLI, ?, YRTQ
Ans 1. QNPQ

2. UNPM

3. UNTM

4. VNPM

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘ABROAD’ is written as ‘SCBFCQ’ and 'ACCEPT' is written as 'DDBVRG'. How will ‘ACTION’ be
written as in that language?
Ans 1. UDBPQK

2. TCANOI

3. VECPQK

4. TCAPQK

Q.17 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
5, 3,20,9,80,27,320,?
Ans 1. 90

2. 81

3. 100

4. 89

Q.18 In a certain code language,

‘X + Y’ means ‘X is the mother of Y’.
‘X * Y’ means ‘X is the father of Y’,
‘X − Y’ means ‘X is the daughter of Y’,
‘X % Y’ means ‘X is the wife of Y’.
Based on the above, how is A related to D if ‘A − B * C + D’?
Ans 1. Mother’s sister

2. Daughter

3. Mother’s mother

4. Mother

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘WHITE’ is written as ‘FSJGX’ and 'COLOR' is written as 'SNMND'. How will ‘SHIRT’ be written as
in that language?
Ans 1. UQJGT

2. TGJQU

3. UPJGT

4. UQJIT
Q.20 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Discover
2. Disperse
3. Disjointed
4. Discard
5. Disposable
6. Discriminate
Ans 1. 4, 1, 6, 5, 3, 2

2. 4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 5

3. 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5

4. 4, 1, 6, 2, 3, 5

Q.21 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
16 − 4 + 7 × 8 ÷ 1 = ?
Ans 1. 35

2. 47

3. 23

4. 15

Q.22 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some clay are soils
II. Some soil are mud.
III. Some mud are dust.
Conclusions:
I. Some clay are dust.
II. All dust are soil.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.23 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is C related to E if A + B ÷ C × D − E?
Ans 1. Brother’s wife

2. Mother

3. Sister

4. Sister’s husband
Q.24 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.25 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks, will complete the
letter series.
_R__AR_O__GOA_GO
Ans 1. A A G O G R R

2. A G O G R A A

3. A G O G A R R

4. A G G O A R R

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 On the 46th Civil Accounts Day, as a part of ‘Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) and Digital India eco-system’, the Government
of India introduced which of the following?
Ans 1. Sahaj system

2. E-bill processing system

3. Digi-bill processing system

4. Saral system

Q.2 What is the name of the farmer's parliament formed by the villagers in 1999 with the primary objective of safeguarding
community efforts to conserve and utilise their scarce natural resources?
Ans 1. Siddhi Sansad

2. Renuka Sansad

3. Kulsi Sansad

4. Arvari Sansad

Q.3 Why I Am An Atheist is the autobiography of which Indian freedom fighter?

Ans 1. Bhagat Singh

2. Subhash Chandra Bose

3. Sarojini Naidu

4. Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.4 Which of the following classes has the largest number of animals?
Ans 1. Mammals

2. Insects

3. Reptiles

4. Pisces
Q.5 From the given alternatives, identify an inner planet.
Ans 1. Mercury

2. Jupiter

3. Uranus

4. Saturn

Q.6 The festival of Eid Milad-un-Nabi is celebrated in which of the following Islamic months?
Ans 1. Muharram

2. Rabi’ al-Awwal

3. Rajab

4. Safar

Q.7 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Attorney General of India?
Ans 1. A person qualified to be appointed as the judge of the Supreme Court is eligible for the office of the Attorney General of India.

2. Article 76 provides for the Attorney General of India.

3. He/She is considered the highest law officer in the country.

4. He/She is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

Q.8 In December 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru, president of Indian National Congress, formally demanded __________ from British
Government.
Ans 1. fundamental rights

2. dominion status

3. civil rights

4. complete freedom

Q.9 Which of the following classical dance forms has originated in Andhra Pradesh?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Bharatnatyam

3. Kathak

4. Kathakali

Q.10 In April 2022, the Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme was extended till December
_______.
Ans 1. 2025

2. 2023

3. 2026

4. 2024

Q.11 From which country were the ideals of justice of the Indian Constitution borrowed?
Ans 1. The UK

2. Japan

3. The USSR

4. The US

Q.12 Who has been named the new CEO of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in December 2022?
Ans 1. Manish Mani Tiwari

2. Prasanna K Sharma

3. Ramesh Chander

4. Ganji Kamala V Rao

Q.13 When Akbar introduced Mansabdari system, __________ was the lowest grade of Mansabdar.
Ans 1. fifty

2. one hundred

3. ten

4. one thousand

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT an Indian tournament?

Ans 1. Subroto Cup

2. Santosh Trophy

3. UEFA Champions League

4. Durand Cup

Q.15 The first train steamed off from Mumbai to ________.

Ans 1. Pune

2. Thane

3. Malad

4. Nagpur

Q.16 Thaneswar where the Vardhana dynasty ruled around the present-day state of ________.
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Rajasthan

Q.17 As per the 2011 census, what is the density of population in Arunachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. 20 persons/km2

2. 17 persons/km2

3. 19 persons/km2

4. 18 persons/km2

Q.18 The term ‘bishop’ is associated with which game?

Ans 1. golf

2. chess

3. basketball

4. hockey

Q.19 In which of the following places the Indian National Congress passed the resolution of Purna Swaraj?
Ans 1. Karachi

2. Bombay

3. Lahore

4. Madras

Q.20 On 7th March 2022, the Government initiated a scheme to re-enrol out-of-school adolescent girls (OoS AG) in the age group
of 11-14 years. What is the name of the scheme?
Ans 1. National Scheme of Incentives to Girls for Secondary Education

2. Prerna Scheme

3. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

4. Kanya Shiksha Pravesh Utsav

Q.21 Natya Sangeet is a form of musical play in classical music still prevalent in Maharashtra. Bal Gandharava is an exponent of
this musical form. What is actual name of Balgandharva?
Ans 1. Mallikarjun Mansur

2. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande

3. Vishnu Digambar Paluskar

4. Narayan Shripad Rajhans

Q.22 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states about the executive power of the Union?
Ans 1. Article 55

2. Article 54

3. Article 53

4. Article 52

Q.23 In which Harappan site was a paved bathroom found?

Ans 1. Banawali

2. Dholavira

3. Kalibangan

4. Mohenjodaro

Q.24 K-selected species are characterised by:

Ans 1. species possessing relatively unstable populations and which tend to produce relatively large numbers of offspring

2. species possessing relatively stable populations and which tend to produce relatively large numbers of offspring

3. species possessing relatively unstable populations and which tend to produce relatively low numbers of offspring

4. species possessing relatively stable populations and which tend to produce relatively low numbers of offspring

Q.25 Technetium, the first artificially produced element used in many medical diagnostic imaging scans, is found in which group
of the periodic table?
Ans 1. Group 7

2. Group 19

3. Group 12

4. Group 14

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If an electricity bill is paid before the due date, one gets a reduction of 5% on the amount of the bill. By paying the bill before
the due date, a person got a reduction of ₹250. The original amount of his electricity bill (in ₹) was:
Ans 1. 4000

2. 5000

3. 4500

4. 5500

Q.2 At a construction site, 15 men or 10 machines can construct a room in 66 days. In how many days can 5 men and 4
machines together complete the work?
Ans 1. 75

2. 80

3. 90

4. 85
Q.3 The average of v numbers is w2 and that of w numbers is v2 . Then the average of all the numbers is:
Ans 1. v2+ w2
2. v + w

3. vw

4. vw2

Q.4 A shopkeeper expects a gain of 36% on his cost price. If in a month, his sale was ₹6,14,856, then what was his profit (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 1,62,756

2. 1,63,900

3. 1,61,235

4. 1,62,800

Q.5 Which of the following numbers are divisible by 11?

(i) 29435417
(ii) 57463828
(iii 57463824
(iv) 29435416
Ans 1. (i) and (ii)

2. (iii) and (iv)

3. (ii) and (iii)

4. (i)and (iii)

Q.6 If class A has 11 boys and 18 girls, class B has 13 boys and 17 girls, and class C has 20 boys and 9 girls, which class has
the biggest ratio(s) of boys to girls?
Ans 1. Both class A and class B

2. Class C

3. Class B

4. Class A

Q.7 A teacher travelled a distance of 22 km in 7 hours. He travelled partly on foot at the speed of 2 km/h and partly on bicycle at
the rate of 4 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is:
Ans 1. 10 km

2. 6 km

3. 8 km

4. 3 km

Q.8 ₹1,380 has to be paid after 4 years. If four equal instalments are required with a simple interest of 10% on each instalment,
then what is the value of each instalment?
Ans 1. ₹500

2. ₹200

3. ₹400

4. ₹300

Q.9 A 4-digit number ‘34PQ’ divisible by 3,5 and 7. Find the value of P+Q.
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 13

4. 11
Q.10 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 500 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief
and the policeman run at the speed of 12 km/h and 13 km/h, respectively. What is the distance between them after 12
minutes?
Ans 1. 200 m

2. 300 m

3. 150 m

4. 100 m

Q.11 If the cylinder height is 9 cm and the base area is 25πcm2, then find the total surface area.
Ans 1.

Q.12

Ans 1.

Q.13 The average age of all the students of a class is 18 years. The average age of the boys of the class is 19 years and of the
girls is 14 years. If the number of girls in the class is 30, then what is the number of boys in the class?
Ans 1. 100

2. 120

3. 140

4. 110

Q.14 Sanjana borrows ₹16,000 at24% per annum simple interest and Savithri borrows ₹18,200 at 20% per annum simple interest.
In how many years will their amounts of debts be equal?
Ans 1. 10

2. 15

3. 12

4. 11

Q.15 In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 4% of the votes were declared
invalid. A candidate got 9504 votes, which were 80% of the valid votes. Find the total number of votes enrolled in that
election.
Ans 1. 12,375

2. 12,672

3. 13,200

4. 16,500

Q.16 A sum of ₹2,400 gives a simple interest of ₹378 in 2 years 4 months. What is the rate of interest per annum?
Ans 1. 7.05%

2. 6.75%

3. 6.85%

4. 6.95%
Q.17 Kajal offers two successive discounts of 10% and 8% on the sale of a cosmetic item to her customer. What is the equivalent
single percentage discount offered by Kajal?
Ans 1. 17.6%

2. 17.2%

3. 17.4%

4. 17.8%

Q.18 The radius of a hemisphere is 9 cm. Its volume will be:

Ans 1. 486π cm3

2. 243π cm3

3. 972π cm3

4. 712π cm3

Q.19 A train passes a 500 m long platform in 12 seconds and a man standing on the platform in four seconds. Find the speed of
the train.
Ans 1. 225 km/h

2. 152.5 km/h

3. 252.5 km/h

4. 125 km/h

Q.20 If two-fifth of three-eighth of one-sixth of a certain number is 52, what is 40% of the number?
Ans 1. 1248

2. 1664

3. 2080

4. 832

Q.21 If Tanmay covers three equal distances at the speeds of 2 km/h, 3 km/h and 4 km/h, respectively, then find his average speed
(in km/h) during the whole journey. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1. 3.25

2. 2.77

3. 5.75

4. 4.35

Q.22 Roshan owned a plot of land having an area that was 20% more than the area of the plot owned by Susan, while the area of
the plot of land owned by Jacob was 30% more than the area of the plot owned by Roshan. If the area of the plot owned by
Susan was 1250 square feet, what was the area (in square feet) of the plot owned by Jacob?
Ans 1. 2020

2. 1950

3. 1875

4. 2050

Q.23 A garrison of 140 men has provisions for 35 days. At the end of 10 days, 35 more men joined them. How many days can they
sustain on the remaining provisions?
Ans 1. 10

2. 35

3. 20

4. 25

Q.24 If the cost price of a table is ₹400 and the selling price is ₹600, then find the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 50%

2. 45%

3. 55%

4. 33%
Q.25 A salesman purchases goods at ₹1,250 and is forced to sell it at ₹1,000. Find his loss percentage.
Ans 1. 25%

2. 30%

3. 20%

4. 15%

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the highlighted word.
His liberal policies were responsible for progress in the community.
Ans 1. central

2. conservative

3. hysterical

4. ineffectual

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

A frugal lifestyle doesn’t necessarily reflect someone’s personality.

Ans 1. conventional

2. dynamic

3. wasteful

4. cooperative

Q.3 Identify the option that rectifies the spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The fencing was adoned with ornamental plants of various colours.

Ans 1. Fensing

2. Adorned

3. Ornamenntal

4. Variouse

Q.4 From among the words given in bold, select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.
These are the letters of administration that are useful for genaelogical studies and for investigations pertaining to the state
of society.
Ans 1. investigations

2. genaelogical

3. administration

4. pertaining

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Speech without prior preparation
Ans 1. Lecture

2. Rambling

3. Debate

4. Extempore

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

It was certainly a cowardly act.

Ans 1. Fearful

2. Comfortable

3. Brave

4. Believable
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Concise
Ans 1. Belief

2. Brief

3. Relief

4. Grief

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Psychometric

2. Psychology

3. Phisiology

4. Psychiatry

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
The police is interrogating the peons of my school.
Ans 1. The peons of my school are being interrogated by the police.

2. The peons of my school were being interrogated by the police.

3. The peons of my school have been being interrogated by the police.

4. The peons of my school has been being interrogated by the police.

Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
Sheena said, 'I am flying a kite.'
Ans 1. Sheena said that she was flying a kite.

2. Sheena said that she has been flying a kite.

3. Sheena says she was flying a kite.

4. Sheena said that she had flown a kite.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Warm
Ans 1. Amicable

2. Hostile

3. Unkind

4. Mean

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Many societies throughout history have understood the ______ for harmony between the environment, society, and
economy.
Ans 1. necessity

2. amenity

3. superfluity

4. caninity

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A snake in the grass
Ans 1. A worthless person

2. A man of ability

3. A secret or hidden enemy

4. A man with a straightforward attitude

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given underlined idiom.
The construction of the office building of the company was taking place in leaps and bounds.
Ans 1. Progressing very quickly

2. Stopped due to some legal issues

3. Broken because of negligence

4. Moving very slowly

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The term 'germ'________ an army of tiny terrors, including viruses, fungi, parasites and bacteria. These pathogens all have
the ability to ________ from victim to victim, who is known as host. These look like microscopic monsters.
Ans 1. encompasses; spread

2. incorporate; grow

3. encircle; stretch

4. enclose; extend

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Sustainability is ___(1)___ longer just a buzzword. It ___(2)___ a necessity and the primary agenda of the world today. Like many
other countries, India too is witnessing a growth of ___(3)___ green economy. It ___(4)___ estimated that India’s renewable energy
target will create more than 3.4 million new job opportunities ___(5)___ 2030. In fact, a recent survey stated that a Sustainability
Manager is going to be one of the top 10 jobs this decade.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 In the context of the passage, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank (1)
Ans 1. not

2. never

3. no

4. any

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 In the context of the passage, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank (2).
Ans 1. is

2. will be

3. might be

4. was
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 In the context of the passage, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank (3).
Ans 1. their

2. its

3. hers

4. his

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 In the context of the passage, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank (4).
Ans 1. is

2. were

3. had been

4. will be

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 In the context of the passage, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank (5).
Ans 1. for

2. with

3. by

4. since
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Dhamaal is a mix of Sufi and African (mostly East African) musical and dance traditions. It refers particularly to the spiritual practices
of the Siddis of Gujarat.
The Siddis begin almost every Dhamaal song by blowing into a conch shell. This is often followed by the slow playing of East African
percussion instruments like the musindo and the slow thumping of feet that marks the onset of the singing and dancing Dhamaals.
The ritual of foot thumping is a crucial part of spiritual East African dance and musical traditions.
The Siddis are followers of Islam and arrived in India from Muslim communities in East and Central Africa. Dhamaals are performed in
memory of their spiritual leaders, among them Bava Gor, Mai Misra, Baba Habash and Sidi Nabi Sultan. According to Siddi folklore
they arrived from Ethiopia through the Nubian Valley, Syria and the Indian Ocean to the coast of Kuda in the Bhavnagar district of
Gujarat.
Usually, Dhamaal songs and dances are performed to celebrate the anniversary of the birth and death of spiritual leaders. They are
performed in two ways – Dance Dhamaal and Baithaaki Dhamaal. The Baithaaki Dhamaal is performed in the sitting position and the
Dance Dhamaal is performed in both sitting and dance positions.
During the performance of Baithaaki Dhamaal the focus is more on the lyrics and less on the musical instruments. During Dance
Dhamaal the focus is more on the sounds of the instruments. These are often played in a frenzied manner and accompanied by
frenzied dance movements. The spiritual songs that are sung during the Dhamaals are known as zikrs.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What is the tone of the speaker?
Ans 1. Biased

2. Aggressive

3. Informative

4. Sarcastic

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Dhamaal is a mix of Sufi and African (mostly East African) musical and dance traditions. It refers particularly to the spiritual practices
of the Siddis of Gujarat.
The Siddis begin almost every Dhamaal song by blowing into a conch shell. This is often followed by the slow playing of East African
percussion instruments like the musindo and the slow thumping of feet that marks the onset of the singing and dancing Dhamaals.
The ritual of foot thumping is a crucial part of spiritual East African dance and musical traditions.
The Siddis are followers of Islam and arrived in India from Muslim communities in East and Central Africa. Dhamaals are performed in
memory of their spiritual leaders, among them Bava Gor, Mai Misra, Baba Habash and Sidi Nabi Sultan. According to Siddi folklore
they arrived from Ethiopia through the Nubian Valley, Syria and the Indian Ocean to the coast of Kuda in the Bhavnagar district of
Gujarat.
Usually, Dhamaal songs and dances are performed to celebrate the anniversary of the birth and death of spiritual leaders. They are
performed in two ways – Dance Dhamaal and Baithaaki Dhamaal. The Baithaaki Dhamaal is performed in the sitting position and the
Dance Dhamaal is performed in both sitting and dance positions.
During the performance of Baithaaki Dhamaal the focus is more on the lyrics and less on the musical instruments. During Dance
Dhamaal the focus is more on the sounds of the instruments. These are often played in a frenzied manner and accompanied by
frenzied dance movements. The spiritual songs that are sung during the Dhamaals are known as zikrs.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Identify the most suitable title for the passage.
Ans 1. What’s Missing in Dhamaal?

2. Wonders of Indian Dance

3. The Saga of the Siddis

4. The Bhavnagar Treat

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Who is NOT a spiritual leader of the Siddis?
Ans 1. Sidi Nabi Sultan

2. Gulam Ali

3. Baba Habash

4. Mai Misra

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most suitable word from the passage which means ‘excited’.
Ans 1. Spiritual

2. Ritual

3. Frenzied

4. Percussion
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Dhamaal is a mix of Sufi and African (mostly East African) musical and dance traditions. It refers particularly to the spiritual practices
of the Siddis of Gujarat.
The Siddis begin almost every Dhamaal song by blowing into a conch shell. This is often followed by the slow playing of East African
percussion instruments like the musindo and the slow thumping of feet that marks the onset of the singing and dancing Dhamaals.
The ritual of foot thumping is a crucial part of spiritual East African dance and musical traditions.
The Siddis are followers of Islam and arrived in India from Muslim communities in East and Central Africa. Dhamaals are performed in
memory of their spiritual leaders, among them Bava Gor, Mai Misra, Baba Habash and Sidi Nabi Sultan. According to Siddi folklore
they arrived from Ethiopia through the Nubian Valley, Syria and the Indian Ocean to the coast of Kuda in the Bhavnagar district of
Gujarat.
Usually, Dhamaal songs and dances are performed to celebrate the anniversary of the birth and death of spiritual leaders. They are
performed in two ways – Dance Dhamaal and Baithaaki Dhamaal. The Baithaaki Dhamaal is performed in the sitting position and the
Dance Dhamaal is performed in both sitting and dance positions.
During the performance of Baithaaki Dhamaal the focus is more on the lyrics and less on the musical instruments. During Dance
Dhamaal the focus is more on the sounds of the instruments. These are often played in a frenzied manner and accompanied by
frenzied dance movements. The spiritual songs that are sung during the Dhamaals are known as zikrs.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What is played in a Dhamaal song after blowing into a conch shell?
Ans 1. Baithaaki

2. Musindo

3. Table

4. Lyre
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 21/06/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.2 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Shirt : Trouser :: Shoes : ?
Ans 1. Polish

2. Socks

3. Leather

4. Sandal
Q.3 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed in the blanks below, will complete the letter-
series.
kr_om_kry_mt_ _yom_kryo_t
Ans 1. t y k o r m t

2. t k y r o m k

3. y t k r o t m

4. y t o k r t m

Q.4 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1) All bottles are doors.
2) All doors are pens.
Conclusions:
I. All doors are bottles.
II. All pens are doors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.5 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
13, ?, 25, 37, 53, 73
Ans 1. 17

2. 21

3. 15

4. 19

Q.6 In a certain code language, 'BREWING' is written as 'CIFDJMH' and 'ANCIENT' is written as 'BMDRFMU'. How will
'MUSEUMS' be written in that language?
Ans 1. MULCSPE

2. BADGGIU

3. HITUOPL

4. NFTVVNT

Q.7 In a certain code language, 'MUTUAL' is written as 'OXVXCO' and 'REASON' is written as 'THCVQQ'. How will 'SERIES' be
written in that language?
Ans 1. VHTKGU

2. UHTLGV

3. VHTKHW

4. UHTKHU

Q.8 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
JPNH, IRMI, HTLJ, GVKK, ?
Ans 1. FZJP

2. EXJN

3. FXJL

4. EZJN

Q.9 In a certain code language, 'CONTEXT' is written as 'DNOSFWU' and 'OUTLOOK' is written as 'PTUKPNL'. How will
'CLIMATE' be written in that language?
Ans 1. DKKLCSF

2. EKJLCSG

3. DKJLBSF

4. EKJLCSE
Q.10 In a certain code language, 'CUP' is coded as '45' and 'FIT' is coded as '50'. How will 'FUN' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 44

2. 55

3. 40

4. 48

Q.11 In a certain code, TAPE is coded as WDSH and SACK is coded as VDFN. What is the code for MANY?
Ans 1. PDBQ

2. BQDP

3. BDQP

4. PDQB

Q.12 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
IQAF, JRBG, KSCH, ?, MUEJ
Ans 1. LTCJ

2. KTDI

3. LTDI

4. MTDI

Q.13 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
POWER : QOYEU : : FIRST : GITSW : : BEING : ?
Ans 1. DFKNK

2. CEKNJ

3. CEJNK

4. CFJNK

Q.14 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1 Country
2 City
3 Town
4 State
5 District
Ans 1. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

2. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

3. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

4. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

Q.15 In a code language, 'football and cricket' is written as 'aa dd ee', 'cricket is game' is written as 'ee rr ss', and 'football or
cricket' is written as 'dd bb ee'. What is the code for the word 'or' in that language?
Ans 1. ee

2. bb

3. dd

4. ss

Q.16 In a certain code language,

R + T means ‘R is the sister of T’.
R – T means ‘R is the father of T’.
R * T means ‘R is the wife of T’.
R ÷ T means ‘R is the mother of T’.
Based on the above, how is L related to S if ‘K – L ÷ P * Q – R + S * T?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Wife

3. Mother’s mother

4. Sister
Q.17 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.18 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the following blanks, will
complete the letter-series.

P__SH_BK_HPB_S_PB__H
Ans 1. BKPSKSKS

2. KSBKPHKS

3. KBSKPHKS

4. BKPSKHKS

Q.19 If ROW is coded as 3 and LAND is coded as 4, FRIGHTENED will be coded as ________.
Ans 1. 15

2. 10

3. 25

4. 20

Q.20 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. No fact is a truth.
II. No truth is a detail.
III. Some details are points.
Conclusions:
I. Some points are facts.
II. No point is a truth.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.21 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
27 : 9 :: 125 : 25 :: 64 : ?
Ans 1. 16

2. 23

3. 21

4. 13
Q.22 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
1. FEARED
2. FAIRER
3. FIRED
4. FERRIED
5. FARED
Ans 1. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2

2. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

3. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3

4. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4

Q.23 Which two numbers (not individual digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
3 × 9 × 7 – 18 × 4 + (72 ÷ 8) – 21 = 186
Ans 1. 9 and 8

2. 3 and 4

3. 18 and 21

4. 7 and 4

Q.24 ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
If ‘H – D + C × B ÷ A + X’, then how is D related to X?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Father’s mother

3. Mother’s mother

4. Father

Q.25 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
(14 ÷ 2) – (16 × 4) + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 16

2. 32

3. 20

4. 25

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Olympian authored the book titled 'A Shot at History: My Obsessive Journey to Olympic Gold'?
Ans 1. PV Sindhu

2. Mary Kom

3. Abhinav Bindra

4. Leander Paes

Q.2 Article 171 deals with ________.

Ans 1. composition of the Legislative Assembly

2. qualifications of the Chief Minister of a State

3. qualifications of the Governor of a State

4. composition of the Legislative Councils

Q.3 Which neighbouring country has assumed the chairmanship of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) from November
2021 to November 2023?
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Myanmar

3. China

4. Afghanistan

Q.4 In which of the following sports/games is the term 'checkmate' used?

Ans 1. Polo

2. Volleyball

3. Handball

4. Chess

Q.5 Who is the author of the poetry 'Chand Pukhraj Ka'?

Ans 1. Anand Bakshi

2. Shailendra

3. Gulzar

4. Gurmel Singh

Q.6 Which is the weakest intermolecular force, considered as the Van der Waals force, often found in halogens, noble gases and
other non-polar molecules?
Ans 1. Ion-dipole forces

2. Dipole– induced dipole forces

3. Dipole – dipole forces

4. London dispersion forces

Q.7 Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the 1820s, promoted radical ideas and encouraged his
pupils to question all authority. Referred to as the ______, his students attacked tradition and custom, demanded education
for women and campaigned for the freedom of thought and expression.
Ans 1. Young Radical Movement

2. Young Christian Movement

3. Young Men’s Movement

4. Young Bengal Movement

Q.8 The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November in ________.

Ans 1. 1947

2. 1950

3. 1949

4. 1948

Q.9 Bhabru-Bairat rock edicts mainly depicting Ashokas' conversion to Buddhism is found in _______.
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Odisha

3. Rajasthan

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.10 Which chromosome is involved in the production of ‘masked’ mRNAs for early development?
Ans 1. Sex chromosome

2. Lampbrush chromosome

3. Polytene chromosome

4. Autosomal chromosome
Q.11 A primitive form of cultivation called Bewar is practised in which state?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Mizoram

Q.12 At which place is Harappan Dockyard found?

Ans 1. Surkotada

2. Banawali

3. Amri

4. Lothal

Q.13 Which of the following statements are true regarding the Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022?
1. The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 1 August 2022.
2. The Bill amends the Central Universities Act, 2019, which provides for establishing central universities in various states.
3. The Bill seeks to convert the National Rail and Transportation Institute, Vadodara (a deemed university) to Gati Shakti
Vishwavidyalaya, which will be a central university.
4. Establishment of the Vishwavidyalaya will address the need of trained talent in the transportation sector.
Ans 1. 2, 3 and 4

2. 1, 3 and 4

3. 1, 2 and 4

4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14 The All India MCC Murugappa Gold Cup Tournament in Chennai is held for which sport?
Ans 1. Handball

2. Football

3. Basketball

4. Hockey

Q.15 Which of the following movement is known as first Satyagraha led by Mahatma Gandhi?
Ans 1. Kheda movement

2. Champaran movement

3. Quit India Movement

4. Ahmedabad movement

Q.16 Ibn Battuta, who visited India during Delhi Sultanate, originally belonged to which country?
Ans 1. Egypt

2. England

3. Russia

4. Morocco

Q.17 As of December 2021, NPS and APY are the two flagship pension schemes of _________.
Ans 1. PFC

2. NABARD

3. PFRDA

4. IIFCL

Q.18 Who was appointed as the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in March 2022?
Ans 1. JB Mohapatra

2. Debasish Panda

3. Supratim Bandyopadhyay

4. Rajesh Bhushan
Q.19 The festival of Ram Navami is celebrated in which of the following Hindu months?
Ans 1. Magh

2. Falgun

3. Chaitra

4. Kartik

Q.20 Which crops are benefitted from the temperate cyclones arising from the Mediterranean Sea that cause rainfall in Punjab?
Ans 1. Zaid crops

2. Cash crops

3. Rabi crops

4. Kharif crops

Q.21 Who called the preamble of the Indian Constitution ‘The Political Horoscope of our Constitution’?
Ans 1. Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer

2. Dr. KM Munshi

3. M. Hidayatullah

4. Sir Ernest Baker

Q.22 On which of the following component of chloroplast is chlorophyll arranged?

Ans 1. Cell Membrane

2. Matrix

3. Thylakoids

4. Stroma

Q.23 The main worker is a person who works for at least ________ days in a year.
Ans 1. 183

2. 115

3. 167

4. 145

Q.24 'Lai Haraoba' is the earliest form of dance of which of the following classical dance forms of India?
Ans 1. Mohiniattam

2. Kuchipudi

3. Manipuri

4. Kathakali

Q.25 In which state is the Sambhar Salt Lake located?

Ans 1. Odisha

2. Maharashtra

3. Rajasthan

4. West Bengal

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 To clear a stock of items, a seller gives an 8% discount on the marked price. He spends ₹x on the promotion of the discount
offer. His total cost of the items is ₹2,50,000 and the marked price is 10% more than the cost price. Finally, he earns no profit
or no loss. What is the value of x?
Ans 1. 7500

2. 3000

3. 6000

4. 4500
Q.2 By selling a mobile phone for ₹23,856, Ramesh gains 20%. If he sells it for ₹20,580, find his gain or loss percentage (correct
to two places of decimals).
Ans 1. Gain 3.52%

2. Loss 3.52%

3. Gain 5.32%

4. Loss 5.32%

Q.3 In a 3000 m race, if vehicle A gives vehicle B a start of 400 m, then vehicle A wins the race by 10 s. If vehicle A gives vehicle
B a start of 750 m, then the race ends in a dead heat. How long does vehicle A take to run 3000 m?
Ans 1. 90.5 s

2. 100 s

3. 64.3 s

4. 92.5 s

Q.4 At a fitness club, 70% of the members are men and 30% of the members are women. If the average age of the men is 30
years and that of the women is 40 years, then what is the average age of all the members?
Ans 1. 30 years

2. 35 years

3. 33 years

4. 38 years

Q.5 If the number 3727 x 4 is completely divisible by 8, then the smallest integer in place of x will be:
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 0

4. 8

Q.6 The monthly salaries of A and B together amount to ₹45,000. A spends 75% of his salary and B spends 80% of his salary. If
now their savings are the same, then the salary of B (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 15,000

2. 25,000

3. 30,000

4. 20,000

Q.7 The price of a bike is first increased by 21% and later on, it is decreased by 34% due to reduction in sales. Find the net
percentage change in the final price of the bike.
Ans 1. Decrease of 20.14%

2. Increase of 13.25%

3. Decrease of 13.25%

4. Increase of 20.14%

Q.8 Two trains, A and B started travelling towards each other at the same time, from places P to Q and Q to P, respectively. After
crossing each other, A and B took 9 hours and 16 hours to reach Q and P, respectively. If the speed of A was 56 km/h, then
what was the speed (in km/h) of B?
Ans 1. 38

2. 42

3. 40

4. 46
Q.9 A drives for 2 hours, 2.5 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours and 2.5 hours in five days of a week, respectively. His speeds on these days
are 45 km/h, 50 km/h, 60 km/h, 70 km/h and 80 km/h, respectively. What is his average speed for the week?
Ans 1. 64.08 km/h

2. 60.8 km/h

3. 68.02 km/h

4. 61.25 km/h

Q.10 Find the average of the first 18 multiples of 9.

Ans 1. 85.5

2. 82.3

3. 88.5

4. 84.6

Q.11 A cube is having surface area of 5400 square units. Its volume would increase approximately ______ if the side is increased
by 5 units.
Ans
1.

Q.12

Ans 1. 12 cm

2. 14 cm

3. 11 cm

4. 13 cm

Q.13 The height of one cone is 3 times the height of another cone, while its radius is half of the radius of other cone. If their total
volume is 100 unit3, then the difference in the volumes of the cones is ______ unit3.
Ans 1. 13.4

2. 15.5

3. 14.3

4. 12.5

Q.14 Mr Gogia invested an amount of ₹,13,900 divided into two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% pa
and 11% pa, respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years is ₹3,508, what was the amount invested in
scheme B?
Ans 1. ₹7,200

2. ₹7,500

3. ₹6,400

4. ₹6,500

Q.15 A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and allows a discount of 10%. What is his
profit percentage?
Ans 1. 8%

2. 10%

3. 4%

4. 6%
Q.16 If 108 workers can build a wall in 36 days, then in how many days can 48 workers build the same wall?
Ans 1. 72

2. 81

3. 54

4. 63

Q.17 A borrows ₹20,000 from B and C. B lends him a certain sum of money at 25% simple interest per annum, while C lends him
the remaining sum of money at 21% simple interest per annum. The total interest paid by A in one year is ₹4,500. The sum
(in ₹) borrowed from B is:
Ans 1. 12,500

2. 6,000

3. 9,000

4. 7,500

Q.18 In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 5% of the votes polled were found
invalid. The successful candidate got 55% of the valid votes and won by a majority of 1,710 votes. The number of voters
enrolled on the voters list was:
Ans 1. 21,000

2. 18,000

3. 19,000

4. 20,000

Q.19 The ratio of the salaries of S to F is 2 : 3 and the ratio of their savings is 3 : 4. What is the ratio of their expenditures if their
total savings are equal to the salary of S?
Ans 1. 7 : 15

2. 8 : 13

3. 8 : 15

4. 7 : 12

Q.20 A dealer sells an article at a discount of 5% on the marked price. If the marked price is 20% above the cost price and the
article was sold for ₹2,280, then the cost price would be:
Ans 1. ₹2,500

2. ₹3,000

3. ₹2,000

4. ₹3,500

Q.21 The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs.2,100 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same
article for Rs.1,460. At what price should the article be sold to make 20% profit?
Ans 1. Rs.2,156

2. Rs.2,256

3. Rs.2,136

4. Rs.2,056

Q.22 A recipe is made using cheese and butter in the ratio 4 : 3. If Arohi uses 8 bowls of cheese, how many bowls of butter
should she use?
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 8

4. 3
Q.23 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?
Ans 1. 88,65,747

2. 88,65,987

3. 45,12,458

4. 55,78,961

Q.24 On a deposit of ₹1,50,000, R gets ₹2,000 as interest on simple rate of interest in a year. How much amount (in ₹) should he
deposit to get interest of ₹4,500?
Ans 1. 4,25,500

2. 3,37,500

3. 2,77,500

4. 3,77,500

Q.25 In a 200-m race, if A gives B a head start of 35 m, then A wins the race by 20 sec. Alternatively, if A gives B a head start of 55
m, the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 m?
Ans 1. 150 sec

2. 165 sec

3. 145 sec

4. 155 sec

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Diffusion

2. Haphaazard

3. Connoisseur

4. Appropriate

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Felicity
Ans 1. Anguish

2. Happiness

3. Function

4. Fellow being

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Seclusion
Ans 1. Solitude

2. Tactics

3. Involvement

4. Readiness

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
'I have been to Australia,' Amritha told me.
Ans 1. Amritha told me that she had being to Australia.

2. Amritha told me that she had been to Australia.

3. Amritha tell me that she has being to Australia.

4. Amritha told me that she has be to Australia.

Q.5 Select the word which is INCORRECTLY spelt in the given sentence.

The opertunity cost of going with parents back to the village made Naman upset for almost the entire month.
Ans 1. parents

2. almost

3. opertunity

4. village

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To move into or through something

Ans 1. Transparent

2. Perpetuate

3. Cross

4. Penetrate

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Renewable energy is energy that is environment-friendly because it is ______ from renewable resources, that are naturally
replenished.
Ans 1. construed

2. derived

3. deduced

4. found

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
The insect bit the little baby.
Ans 1. The little baby has bitten by the insect.

2. The little baby had bitten by the insect.

3. The little baby was bitten by the insect.

4. The little baby is bitten by the insect.

Q.9 Select the sentence that uses the given idiom correctly.
Eat like a bird
Ans 1. Overeating is the most obvious reason for gaining weight quickly.

2. Pinky is on a diet so she is too picky about the food she eats.

3. The colonial powers colonised small countries by exploiting them and stealing their resources.

4. Nobody can eat with Jerry at the same table as he is so messy.

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

All Greek to me
Ans 1. Something that is fancy and classy

2. Something that is harmful to all

3. Something that is not understandable

4. Something that is ancient and classic

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Bold
Ans 1. Heroic

2. Gallant

3. Timid

4. Valiant
Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Troublesome
Ans 1. Curious

2. Planless

3. Obedient

4. Soulful

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Unreasonable

2. Complimentery

3. Despondent

4. Impertinent

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Frisky
Ans 1. Playful

2. Loose

3. Memorable

4. Transient

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The reasons or intentions that cause a particular set of beliefs or actions

Ans 1. Motive

2. Rationale

3. Practical

4. Thinkable

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The internet has (1) __________ reshaped the way information is accessed and shared. With a vast array of websites and social
media platforms, individuals can (2) __________ connect with others globally. However, this digital age also brings (3) __________
challenges. The spread of misinformation has become a (4) __________ issue, as false content can quickly gain traction. It is
essential for users to (5) __________ assess the credibility of sources before believing and sharing information. In this era of rapid
data dissemination, cultivating media literacy is of utmost importance.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. gradually

2. occasionally

3. significantly

4. discreetly
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. hesitantly

2. periodically

3. seamlessly

4. scarcely

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. irrelevant

2. numerous

3. intriguing

4. abstract

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. pressing

2. dormant

3. negligible

4. soothing
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. hesitantly

2. impulsively

3. reluctantly

4. meticulously

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Earth Day is an apt moment to consider how our planet, a majestic 4.54 billion years old, is faring. The statistics are not pleasing.
Once covered in verdant green, FAO finds Earth has now lost one-third of its forests through human activity. WWF estimates such
land-use changes have caused wildlife to decline by 69% in the last 50 years. The loss of natural eco-systems and their engineers,
which includes birds, animals, insects and fungi, is literally drying up the world. The UN finds 75% of Earth’s land is degraded while its
oceans are 30% more acidic now, choked by plastic and chemical waste. Neither is the air pristine – as pollutants coat the skies, the
World Economic Forum finds global CO2 emissions rose in 2022 to a record high. Such CO2 covers Earth in a sheath which doesn’t
let it release heat into space, trapping this in the atmosphere instead, making Earth 1.11 degrees warmer.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Who caused the loss of forests?
Ans 1. Animals

2. Nature

3. People

4. Realtors

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.
Ans 1. Animals and Birds

2. Earth and its Dangers

3. Earth and Nature

4. Nature and Animals

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘decline’.
Ans 1. Increase

2. Drag

3. Decrease

4. Push

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Who are the engineers NOT mentioned in the passage?
Ans 1. Birds

2. Fungi

3. Insects

4. Eggs

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the tone of the passage.
Ans 1. Persuasive

2. Cautionary

3. Narrative

4. Entertaining
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 21/06/2024
Exam Time 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language, HONEY is coded as SLMVB and PRESIDENT is coded as KIVHRWVMG. What is the code for
SPIDER?
Ans 1. TQJEFS

2. REDIPS

3. URKFGT

4. HKRWVI

Q.2 If in a code language, 'EAR' is coded as JFW, and 'CUP' is coded as HZU, then what will 'LIGHT' be coded as?
Ans 1. QNLMY

2. ORTSG

3. JGEFR

4. NKIJV
Q.3 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.4 Select the option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Drop
2. Ocean
3. Pond
4. Puddle
5. River
Ans 1. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

2. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

3. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2

4. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

Q.5 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
MASTER : AMTSRE : : SEARCH : ESRAHC : : PEOPLE : ?
Ans 1. PEPOEL

2. EPOPLE

3. EPPEOL

4. EPPOEL

Q.6 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
UVDE, WXFG, YZHI , ?, CDLM
Ans 1. ABJK

2. ABIK

3. BAJK

4. CDJK
Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
1) Some drinks are juices.
2) Some juices are sodas.
3) All sodas are cocktails.
Conclusions:
I. No drink is a soda.
II. At least some juices are cocktails.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.8 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
PTPA, OSOB, NRNC, ?, LPLE
Ans 1. MQMC

2. MQMD

3. MQND

4. NQMD

Q.9 In a certain code language, 'driving is fun' is written as 'xe ru vt' and 'too much fun' is written as 'ru py re'. What is the code
for 'fun' in that language?
Ans 1. py

2. ru

3. xe

4. vt

Q.10 Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?
320, 225, 178, 155, 144, ?
Ans 1. 138

2. 139

3. 140

4. 136

Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.12 In a code language, 'TRUST' is written as 'UQVRU' and 'FAITH' is written as 'GZJSI'. How will 'LOVELY' be written in that
language?
Ans 1. KPUFKZ

2. MNWDMX

3. MPUFKX

4. MNWDMZ
Q.13 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
YVQJ, VSOI, SPMH, ?, MJIF
Ans 1. PMKI

2. NNLH

3. PMKG

4. PNLH

Q.14 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace * signs and to balance the given equation.
7 * 5 * (16 * 8 * 9) * 20
Ans 1. ÷, −, ×, +, =

2. −, +, ÷, ×, =

3. −, +, ×, ÷, =

4. +, ×, ÷, −, =

Q.15 Select the option that is related to the sixth letter-cluster in the same way as the first letter-cluster is related to the second
letter-cluster and the third letter-cluster is related to the fourth letter-cluster.
OUTPUT : TUOTUP :: MUMBAI : MUMIAB :: ? : CUBTEK
Ans 1. KBUECT

2. BUCKET

3. KUBCET

4. BUKCET

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
4867 : 9574 :: 635 : 473 :: 573 : ?
Ans 1. 746

2. 592

3. 374

4. 618

Q.17 ‘X # Y’ means ‘X is the wife of Y’,

‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is the daughter of Y’,
‘X @ Y’ means ‘X is the brother of Y’,
‘X & Y’ means ‘X is the father of Y’,
‘X × Y’ means ‘X is the sister of Y’.
If ‘I @ H $ F # D & L # K @ O’, then how is I related to L?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Father’s brother

3. Sister

4. Brother’s son

Q.18 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in English dictionary?
1. GENUINE
2. GENERAL
3. GENTRY
4. GENTLE
5. GENERATE
Ans 1. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1

2. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

3. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

4. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
Q.19 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
18 ÷ 3 + 12 x 6 – 4 = ?
Ans 1. 56

2. 38

3. 42

4. 48

Q.20 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
I _ _ I G O _ N D _G O I N_ _ G O _ N _ I _ _
Ans 1. DNIGOINDNO

2. INGODIIGON

3. NDIIDIIDGO

4. NDIDIIIGON

Q.21 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some lotuses are daisies.
II. No daisy is a rose.
III. All thorns are roses.
Conclusions:
I. No thorn is a daisy.
II. Some roses are lotuses.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘STUD’ is coded as ‘8469’, and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘9764’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 8

4. 6

Q.23 In a certain code language,

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’;
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’;
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’; and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
If N % M # R @ L & K, then how is M related to K?
Ans 1. Father

2. Mother

3. Son

4. Brother

Q.24 In a certain code language, TRUST is written as UTXWY and GROUP is written as HTRYU. How will VISIT be written in that
language?
Ans 1. WKUNZ

2. XKUNY

3. WKVMY

4. WLUNY
Q.25 In a code language, 'chef cooks food' is written as 'Bb Cc Ee', 'food is healthy' is written as 'Cc Pp Mm', and 'chef eats
healthy' is written as 'Pp Jj Ee'. What is the code for the word 'cooks' in that language?
Ans 1. Bb

2. Ee

3. Cc

4. Jj

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which is a colourless, odourless gas of the alkane series of hydrocarbons with a chemical formula of C3H8?
Ans 1. Propane

2. Pentane

3. Ethane

4. Butane

Q.2 Who has the power to prorogue the House or either House of State Legislature from time to time?
Ans 1. Chief Minister

2. Speaker

3. Governor

4. Chairman

Q.3 Libero, a special player, plays in which of the following sports?

Ans 1. Football

2. Basketball

3. Handball

4. Volleyball

Q.4 Which vitamin prevents the neural tube defect in new-born babies?
Ans 1. Niacin

2. Riboflavin

3. Folic acid

4. Ascorbic acid

Q.5 Which of the following statements are true regarding the Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2022?
1. The Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 25 March 2022.
2. The Bill seeks to amend the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1967 passed by the Parliament.
3. The Bill replaces the three municipal corporations under the Act with one corporation named the Municipal Corporation of
Delhi.
4. The Bill states that the total number of seats in the new corporation should not be more than 250.
Ans 1. 2, 3 and 4

2. 1, 3 and 4

3. 1, 2 and 4

4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.6 Guntapalle Chaitya Buddhist cave is situated in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Maharashtra

4. Himachal Pradesh
Q.7 Which of the following articles deal with Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. Article 36-51

2. Article 39-55

3. Article 37-52

4. Article 38-53

Q.8 What is density of population in NCT of Delhi as per the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. 10,567

2. 11,342

3. 10,265

4. 11,320

Q.9 Who requested the Syrian king to send a Greek philosopher?

Ans 1. Kunal

2. Ashok

3. Bindusara

4. Chandragupta Maurya

Q.10 Foods like pizza, burger are rich in:

Ans 1. Vitamins

2. carbohydrates

3. proteins

4. Minerals

Q.11 What is the Neonatal Mortality Rate (per 1000 live births) as per the fifth round of National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
conducted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) during the year 2019-21?
Ans 1. 20.1

2. 24.9

3. 19.4

4. 58.5

Q.12 The All-India Muslim League, popularly known as the Muslim League, was founded in _________.
Ans 1. 1906

2. 1910

3. 1904

4. 1908

Q.13 Identify a type of season that is NOT a part of the four seasons of India.
Ans 1. The southeast monsoon season

2. The southwest monsoon season

3. The hot weather season

4. The cold weather season

Q.14 Which of the following agencies is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the Hazira- Vijaypur- Jagdishpur
pipeline?
Ans 1. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited

2. Oil and Natural Gas Commission

3. Indian Oil Corporation Limited

4. Gas Authority of India Limited

Q.15 According to Hindu calendar, on which day does Holika Dahan take place?
Ans 1. Phalgun Poornima

2. Chaitra Pratipada

3. Chaitra Poornima

4. Phalgun Amawasya

Q.16 Who among the following was the guru of Tansen?

Ans 1. Abul Fazal

2. Makarand Mishra

3. Shaukat Mian

4. Swami Haridasa

Q.17 Which of the following classical dance forms of India is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatises stories, which
are mostly adapted from the Indian epics?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Kathak

3. Kathakali

4. Manipuri

Q.18 Who authored the autobiography 'The Race of My Life'?

Ans 1. Dutee Chand

2. Milkha Singh

3. Mohinder Singh Gill

4. PT Usha

Q.19 The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron ore belt lies in ______ states.

Ans 1. Maharashtra and Karnataka

2. Maharashtra and Telangana

3. Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand

4. Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra

Q.20 Who among the following got defeated by Babur at Chanderi in 1528?
Ans 1. Prithviraj Chauhan

2. Durgadas Rathore

3. Medini Rai

4. Chandrasen Rathore

Q.21 In which year was the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Council abolished?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2018

3. 2020

4. 2017

Q.22 Who launched the Capacity Building Plan (CBP) for Government Employees in September 2023?
Ans 1. Dr. Virendra Kumar

2. Dr Jitendra Singh

3. Dr. Subhas Sarkar

4. Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey

Q.23 Gloves are NOT used in which of the following sports?
Ans 1. Hockey

2. Football

3. Cricket

4. Basketball

Q.24 In which of the following years, was the Self-Respect movement started in Tamil Nadu region?
Ans 1. 1916

2. 1930

3. 1910

4. 1925

Q.25 In December 2022, the Union Agriculture Ministry formed an advisory group for streamlining the development of the
bamboo sector. Who among the following approved the committee?
Ans 1. Bhagwat Kishanrao Karad

2. Narendra Singh Tomar

3. Ajay Seth

4. Pankaj Chaudhary

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In a discount scheme, there is a 38% discount on the marked price of Rs.1,250, but the sale is done at Rs.434 only, then
what additional discount did the customer get?
Ans 1. 40%

2. 44%

3. 48%

4. 58%

Q.2 Prakash and Avinash can complete a work in 24 days. If Prakash alone can complete it in 48 days, then in how many days
can Avinash alone complete the work?
Ans 1. 48

2. 36

3. 24

4. 40

Q.3 The height of a solid cylinder is 4 times its radius. Its curved surface area is ______ times its base area.
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 2

4. 6

Q.4 The profit earned after selling a bucket for ₹680 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the bucket for ₹532. The cost
price (in ₹) of the bucket is:
Ans 1. 606

2. 612

3. 610

4. 618
Q.5 The mean proportion of 0.06 and 0.96 is:
Ans 1. 0.48

2. 0.26

3. 0.51

4. 0.24

Q.6 Which of the following is a condition of divisibility of a number by six?

Ans 1. Sum of digits is divisible by 3 and last digit is even

2. Sum of digits is divisible by 6

3. Sum of digits is divisible by 3 and first digit is even

4. Last digit is 3 or 6

Q.7 What must be the total percentage change in the volume of a cuboid if its length and breadth are decreased by 10% and
20%, respectively, while its height is increased by 40%?
Ans 1. 0.8% increase

2. 1.8% decrease

3. 1.8% increase

4. 0.8% decrease

Q.8 There is a large cone with a diameter of 14m and height of 12m. It is being filled with water at a rate of 2 m3 in every 20
seconds. How long will it take to fill the cone?
Ans 1. 616 sec

2. 12320 sec

3. 6160 sec

4. 313 sec

Q.9 The volume of a cuboid is twice the volume of a cube. If the dimensions of the cuboid are 12 cm, 16 cm and 18 cm, then the
total surface area of the cube is:
Ans 1. 864 cm2

2. 625 cm2

3. 764 cm2

4. 484 cm2

Q.10 A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been put at 5% higher rate, it would have fetched ₹520
more. Find the sum.
Ans 1. ₹2,400

2. ₹2,600

3. ₹2,200

4. ₹2,000

Q.11 The largest 4-digit number that is exactly divisible by 88 is:

Ans 1. 8888

2. 9988

3. 9768

4. 9848

Q.12 A shopkeeper purchased an article for ₹7,200 and spent 9% of its cost on repairs. He sold it to Rajan for ₹8,100. What was
the profit percentage on selling the article? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1. 3.21%

2. 3.12%

3. 12.5%

4. 2.91%
Q.13 The marked price of an electronic weighing machine in a store is ₹1,220 and it is available at a discount of 15%. What is the
price (in ₹) at which a customer can buy it from the store?
Ans 1. 1,035

2. 1,039

3. 1,041

4. 1,037

Q.14 The simple interest on a certain sum is one-fifth of the sum and the interest rate per cent per annum is 3.2 times the number
of years. If the rate of interest increases by 4%, then the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹7,500 for 4 years is:
Ans 1. 3,600

2. 3,000

3. 2,500

4. 5,100

Q.15 A grocer has 15 kg of sugar at ₹45 per kg. How much sugar at ₹34.5 per kg should she add to it, so that the mixture is worth
₹38 per kg?
Ans 1. 32 kg

2. 30 kg

3. 35 kg

4. 28 kg

Q.16 In a 300 m race, A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. Which of the following options is equal to B’s time over the course?
Ans 1. 82 sec

2. 80 sec

3. 300 sec

4. 30 sec

Q.17 In a business, R invests ₹65,000 and he gets a total ₹80,000 back. Out of profit, ₹2,000 are spent as expenses of the
business. What is his profit from the business in percentage?
Ans 1. 18%

2. 22%

3. 20%

4. 25%

Q.18 A sum of money invested at simple interest amounts to ₹1,01,264 in 3 years and to ₹1,01,654 in 4 years. What was the sum
invested (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 2,01,094

2. 1,01,094

3. 1,00,194

4. 1,00,094

Q.19 A train starts from station P with ‘n’ number of passengers. At station Q, 20% of the passengers get down and 50
passengers get in. At station R, 40% of the passengers get down and 10 passengers get in. If a total of 520 passengers are
left on the train, find the value of ‘n’.
Ans 1. 750

2. 1000

3. 975

4. 855
Q.20 A boat covers a distance of 72 km downstream in 6 hours, while it takes 12 hours to cover the same distance upstream.
What is the speed of the boat?
Ans 1. 8 km/h

2. 10 km/h

3. 6 km/h

4. 9 km/h

Q.21 Antara’s monthly income is ₹96,000, while Barnali’s monthly income is ₹1,10,000. If y% of Barnali’s income is equal to 55%
of Antara’s monthly income, find the value of y.
Ans 1. 45

2. 48

3. 44

4. 52

Q.22 ₹4,800 is divided among Ram, Shyam and Mohan in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. Who gained most of the money and how much?
Ans 1. Shyam ₹2,500

2. Ram ₹2,200

3. Shyam ₹2,000

4. Mohan ₹2,000

Q.23 The average of runs of a cricket player in 12 innings was 42. How many runs must he make in his next innings to increase
his average of runs by 2?
Ans 1. 68

2. 64

3. 78

4. 72

Q.24 A truck driver drove for 4 hours at 40 km/h. He drove for another 3 hours at 50 km/h after taking rest for 1 h. What was the
driver’s average speed, in km/h, during the whole journey?
Ans 1. 36.50

2. 38.75

3. 40

4. 39.25

Q.25 Ram goes to his office from his house at a speed of 8 km/h and returns at a speed of 2 km/h. If he takes four hours in going
and coming back, find the distance between the house and the office.
Ans 1. 6.4 km

2. 5.3 km

3. 7.4 km

4. 6.3 km

Section : English Language

Q.1 Choose the sentence that contains correct spellings.

Ans 1. Esha resembles her mother very much.

2. Esha resimbles her mother very much.

3. Esha risembles her mother very much.

4. Esha risimbles her mother very much.

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the options given below.
Ans 1. Ambitious

2. Instantaneous

3. Nesessity

4. Successfully

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Embezzlement
Ans 1. Management

2. Confusion

3. Disposition

4. Misappropriation

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
She is preparing the presentation for the meeting.
Ans 1. The presentation by her is being prepared for the meeting.

2. The presentation is preparing by her for the meeting.

3. The presentation is being prepared by her for the meeting.

4. She is being prepared the presentation for the meeting.

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

She was engaged to be married to him.

Ans 1. baptised

2. bestowed

3. betrayed

4. betrothed

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Apple of discord
Ans 1. Solution of dispute

2. Disruption of communication

3. Matter of dispute

4. Cause of happiness

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Occupied
Ans 1. Overflowed

2. Vacant

3. Closed

4. Filled

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined word.

Ms Marry is a barbarous lady.

Ans 1. brutal

2. dull

3. matured

4. calm
Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Enormous
Ans 1. Small

2. Little

3. Large

4. Tiny

Q.10 Select the correctly spelt word and fill the blank.
The Amish community believes in __________ .
Ans 1. auasterity

2. auisterity

3. austerity

4. austarity

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Insolent
Ans 1. Dignified

2. Disrespectful

3. Dutiful

4. Humble

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A judgement or verdict that a person is not guilty of the crime with which he has been charged
Ans 1. Acquittal

2. Appellant

3. Writ

4. Petition

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
You have hurt so many people. Now, it is time to get a taste of your own medicine.
Ans 1. to be in a risky situation

2. to be treated the way you have treated others

3. to benefit from two different opportunities

4. to lose control in a situation

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Drug addiction is fatal ___________ of therapy, which includes therapies, counselling, medications, and rehab facilities.
Ans 1. regardless

2. nonetheless

3. careless

4. instead

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Sudha said, 'Vivek arrived on Friday.'

Ans 1. Sudha said that Vivek arrives on Friday.

2. Sudha said that Vivek had arrived on Friday.

3. Sudha said that Vivek had been arrived on Friday.

4. Sudha said that Vivek was being arrived on Friday.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the ______1____ of both a city and an empire. The empire was ______2_____ in the fourteenth
century. In its heyday, it _____3______ from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula. In 1565 the city was
sacked and ______4______ deserted. Although it fell into ruin in the seventeenth-eighteenth centuries, it lived on in the memories of
people living in the Krishna-Tungabhadra doab. They remembered it as Hampi, a name ________5______ from that of the local
mother goddess, Pampadevi.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1
Ans 1. name

2. label

3. mark

4. sign

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2
Ans 1. Implanted

2. begun

3. discovered

4. founded

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3
Ans 1. magnified

2. stretched

3. started

4. strained
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4
Ans 1. subsequently

2. presently

3. previously

4. accidentally

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5
Ans 1. derived

2. extracted

3. designed

4. collected

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
An economic theory backed by considerable evidence is that incomes of countries and regions tend to converge over time. The
underlying logic is that areas with low-hanging fruit tend to attract capital and other resources that allow them to catch up. India’s
region might be an exception to this trend. A national survey on incomes by economic thinktank ‘Price’ shows that the gap between
states in southern and western India and many of those in the north, central and east is wide. The worrying part is that it’s diverging.
Consider the per capita incomes of Bihar and Karnataka in 1989-90, the eve of economic liberation. Karnataka’s per capita income at
₹2,055 a year was almost two times that of Bihar. In 2019-20, the last pre-pandemic year, the gap had widened to over five times with
Bihar’s annual per capita income at ₹29,794 and that of Karnataka at ₹1,55, 869. This trend generally holds across states, with the
west and south of India pulling away from eastern and central Indian states such as UP and MP. A 2016 paper by IDFC institute
observed that India is the only major economy bucking the trends of subnational convergence.
India’s fiscal architecture and related institutions such as Finance Commission are designed to mitigate the fall out of the gap by
allocating the divisible pool of taxes in a manner that brings about a degree of equity between states. However, a combination of
economic and fertility divergences makes for an explosive mix. Government of India has projected a national population increase of
311 million between 2011 and 2036. Of this increase, only 9% will come from the five southern states, which the Price survey shows,
currently contribute 30% of national income with 20% of the population.
These trends are playing out in the backdrop of an impending delimitation of political constituencies that can widen fault lines. India’s
subnational economic divergence is a trend that deserves more study and policy attention. A lopsided economic structure usually has
consequences that ripple out into other areas. Convergence is the only answer to it.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 According to the government of India, what is the expected increase of population by 2036?
Ans 1. 211 million

2. 113 million

3. 112 million

4. 311 million
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
An economic theory backed by considerable evidence is that incomes of countries and regions tend to converge over time. The
underlying logic is that areas with low-hanging fruit tend to attract capital and other resources that allow them to catch up. India’s
region might be an exception to this trend. A national survey on incomes by economic thinktank ‘Price’ shows that the gap between
states in southern and western India and many of those in the north, central and east is wide. The worrying part is that it’s diverging.
Consider the per capita incomes of Bihar and Karnataka in 1989-90, the eve of economic liberation. Karnataka’s per capita income at
₹2,055 a year was almost two times that of Bihar. In 2019-20, the last pre-pandemic year, the gap had widened to over five times with
Bihar’s annual per capita income at ₹29,794 and that of Karnataka at ₹1,55, 869. This trend generally holds across states, with the
west and south of India pulling away from eastern and central Indian states such as UP and MP. A 2016 paper by IDFC institute
observed that India is the only major economy bucking the trends of subnational convergence.
India’s fiscal architecture and related institutions such as Finance Commission are designed to mitigate the fall out of the gap by
allocating the divisible pool of taxes in a manner that brings about a degree of equity between states. However, a combination of
economic and fertility divergences makes for an explosive mix. Government of India has projected a national population increase of
311 million between 2011 and 2036. Of this increase, only 9% will come from the five southern states, which the Price survey shows,
currently contribute 30% of national income with 20% of the population.
These trends are playing out in the backdrop of an impending delimitation of political constituencies that can widen fault lines. India’s
subnational economic divergence is a trend that deserves more study and policy attention. A lopsided economic structure usually has
consequences that ripple out into other areas. Convergence is the only answer to it.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.
Ans 1. The Poor and their Income

2. Statistics of the Union of India

3. Indian Politics

4. Population in India

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
Ans 1. India is the principal economy resisting the trends of subnational convergence.

2. In 2019-20, the per capita of Karnataka was five times higher than that of Bihar.

3. The per capita income of all states is the same.

4. India’s subnational economic divergence deserves more study and policy attention.
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
An economic theory backed by considerable evidence is that incomes of countries and regions tend to converge over time. The
underlying logic is that areas with low-hanging fruit tend to attract capital and other resources that allow them to catch up. India’s
region might be an exception to this trend. A national survey on incomes by economic thinktank ‘Price’ shows that the gap between
states in southern and western India and many of those in the north, central and east is wide. The worrying part is that it’s diverging.
Consider the per capita incomes of Bihar and Karnataka in 1989-90, the eve of economic liberation. Karnataka’s per capita income at
₹2,055 a year was almost two times that of Bihar. In 2019-20, the last pre-pandemic year, the gap had widened to over five times with
Bihar’s annual per capita income at ₹29,794 and that of Karnataka at ₹1,55, 869. This trend generally holds across states, with the
west and south of India pulling away from eastern and central Indian states such as UP and MP. A 2016 paper by IDFC institute
observed that India is the only major economy bucking the trends of subnational convergence.
India’s fiscal architecture and related institutions such as Finance Commission are designed to mitigate the fall out of the gap by
allocating the divisible pool of taxes in a manner that brings about a degree of equity between states. However, a combination of
economic and fertility divergences makes for an explosive mix. Government of India has projected a national population increase of
311 million between 2011 and 2036. Of this increase, only 9% will come from the five southern states, which the Price survey shows,
currently contribute 30% of national income with 20% of the population.
These trends are playing out in the backdrop of an impending delimitation of political constituencies that can widen fault lines. India’s
subnational economic divergence is a trend that deserves more study and policy attention. A lopsided economic structure usually has
consequences that ripple out into other areas. Convergence is the only answer to it.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?
Ans 1. In 1989-90, Bihar’s per capita income was higher than that of Karnataka’s.

2. In 1989-90, Karnataka’s per capita income was higher than that of Bihar’s.

3. In 1989-90, Karnataka’s per capita income was higher than that of the other southern states.

4. In 1989-90, Karnataka’s per capita income was equal to that of Bihar’s.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Fertility
Ans 1. Innovation

2. Tenderness

3. Fruitfulness

4. Dryness
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 24/06/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’,

‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’,
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’,
‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.
If ‘D × B – E + C – A’, then how is A related to E?
Ans 1. Son-in-law

2. Father-in-law

3. Son

4. Brother’s son

2. Coo

3. Roar

4. Howl

Q.3 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English
dictionary.
1. Brutal
2. Browse
3. Bubble
4. Bruise
5. Buckle
Ans 1. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

2. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

3. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

4. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘served her people’ is written as ‘vt yc df’, and ‘dinner is served’ is coded as ‘kp df hu’. How will
‘served’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. kp

2. df

3. yc

4. vt
Q.5 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
WGZC, TJVG, ?, NPNO, KSJS
Ans 1. QNRJ

2. PMRJ

3. PMRK

4. QMRK

Q.6 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
EFCD, GHEF, IJGH, ?, MNKL
Ans 1. KLJI

2. KLIJ

3. LLIJ

4. KLKI

Q.7 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.8 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

31, 37, 41, 43, ? , 53, 59, 61, 67

Ans 1. 49

2. 45

3. 51

4. 47
Q.9 In a certain code language, 'RULE' is written as 'VXNF' and 'LEAD' is written as 'PHCE'. How will 'HERO' be written in that
language?
Ans 1. MITP

2. MHUP

3. LHTP

4. LHUQ

Q.10 In a certain code language, FROM is coded as 8 and BITTERNESS is coded as 20.What is the code for CAULIFLOWER?
Ans 1. 11

2. 12

3. 22

4. 10

Q.11 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
1. BRILLIANT
2. BRITTLE
3. BRIGHTON
4. BRITISH
5. BRIDGESTONE
Ans 1. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

2. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

3. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

4. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Q.12 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AGMST, CIOUV, EKQWX, ?
Ans 1. FLPXZ

2. GMSYZ

3. FLOYU

4. GKSWA

Q.13 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is B related to E if A − B + C × D ÷ E?
Ans 1. Mother’s daughter

2. Mother’s mother

3. Mother

4. Father’s mother

Q.14 In a certain code language, 'candle main' is coded as 'fire blaze' and 'line candle' is coded as 'number fire'. What is the code
word for 'main'?
Ans 1. over

2. candle

3. blaze

4. fire

Q.15 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
143 – 42 × 7 ÷ 8 + 21 = ?
Ans 1. 170

2. 176

3. 159

4. 181
Q.16 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
56 : 51 :: 71 : 64 :: 69 : ?
Ans 1. 60

2. 63

3. 64

4. 61

Q.17 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
42 × 6 ÷ 11 – 97 + 25 = ?
Ans 1. 149

2. 120

3. 131

4. 154

Q.18 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
BCDA, FGHE, JKLI, ?, RSTQ
Ans 1. NOPM

2. MOPM

3. MNPM

4. NOPL

Q.19 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
TRUE : XUWF : : USED : YVGE : : POOR : ?
Ans 1. TRQS

2. VRPS

3. SSQS

4. URQR

Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.21 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. All vases are bottles.
II. All bottles are flasks.
III. All flasks are cups.
Conclusions:
I. Some cups are bottles.
II. All vases are flasks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.22 In a code language, 'SLEEK' is coded as 37 and 'FOLD' is coded as 25. How will 'YATCH' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 40

2. 48

3. 52

4. 42

Q.23 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
1) Some trips are hikes.
2) All hikes are climbs.
3) Some climbs are jumps.
Conclusions:
I. All trips can never be jumps.
II. At least some hikes are jumps.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘sun and sand’ is written as ‘zf jc dt’, and ‘the hot sun’ is coded as ‘km dt wo’. How will ‘sun’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. km

2. zf

3. dt

4. wo

Q.25 In a code language, 'bus car bike' is written as 'az bz ez', 'bicycle tyre car' is written as 'bz fz pz', and 'scooter bus tyre' is
written as 'az pz sz'. What is the code for the word 'bicycle' in that language?
Ans 1. pz

2. sz

3. ez

4. fz

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Bahu Mela in _________ is the major festival held at the Kali Temple in the Bahu Fort twice an year.
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Leh

3. Jammu

4. Haryana
Q.2 The golden revolution in India related to the agriculture sector is referred to as:
Ans 1. cashew cultivation

2. coconut production

3. horticulture and honey

4. minerals

Q.3 What is the weight of the shot put for the men's category?
Ans 1. 16 pounds

2. 12 pounds

3. 14 pounds

4. 10 pounds

Q.4 _____________ was elected as the president of the third session of Indian National Congress.
Ans 1. KT Telang

2. Pherozeshah Mehta

3. Badruddin Tyabji

4. AO Hume

Q.5 Which of the following articles lays down for protection from self-incrimination i.e. protection from standing trial against
oneself?
Ans 1. Article 17

2. Article 19

3. Article 18

4. Article 20

Q.6 Who is the author of the book 'A Life Misspent'?

Ans 1. Dushyant Kumar

2. Harivansh Rai Bachchan

3. Suryakant Tripathi Nirala

4. Maithili Sharan Gupta

Q.7 Sher khan defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa and Kanauj and forced him to flee to _______.
Ans 1. Turkey

2. Iraq

3. Iran

4. Uzbekistan

Q.8 According to article 112 of Indian constitution, who shall cause in every financial year a statement of estimated receipts and
expenditure of the Government of India?
Ans 1. Speaker

2. President

3. Prime Minister

4. Vice President

Q.9 How many classical dance forms were officially acknowledged by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in India till 2023?
Ans 1. 10

2. 9

3. 8

4. 7
Q.10 Who has taken over as the new Chief Executive Officer and Chairman of the Railway Board since January 2023?
Ans 1. Rashmi Verma

2. Udai Singh Kumawat

3. Sansar Chand Bardai

4. Anil Kumar Lahoti

Q.11 According to the Indian Mineral Yearbook 2018, which state alone accounts for 72% of the magnetite deposits in India?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Maharashtra

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Karnataka

Q.12 The disease caused by deficiency of iodine is:

Ans 1. malaria

2. chicken pox

3. goitre

4. anaemia

Q.13 How many Members of Parliament were elected to the 17th Lok Sabha from Odisha?
Ans 1. 22

2. 24

3. 21

4. 20

Q.14 Which of the following is defined as the number of females per thousand males in India?
Ans 1. Population Growth

2. Sex Ratio

3. Population Density

4. Fertility Rate

Q.15 Barabar Cave, famously known for depicting Ashokas' inscription, is situated at_______.
Ans 1. Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh

2. Rampurva, Bihar

3. Gaya, Bihar

4. Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh

Q.16 Which artificial element has been provisionally named seaborgium by American researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate
Glenn T Seaborg?
Ans 1. Element 103

2. Element 106

3. Element 90

4. Element 97

Q.17 Amaravati stupa is situated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Odisha

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.18 Who among the following is to succeed Air Marshal Sandeep Singh as Vice Chief of Indian Air Force in 2023?
Ans 1. Amar Preet Singh

2. Vivek Ram Chaudhari

3. Harjit Singh Arora

4. Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria

Q.19 Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating Body Mass Index (BMI)?
Ans 1. BMI = gm/cm2

2. BMI = kg × m2

3. BMI = kg/m2

4. BMI = kg × cm2

Q.20 Who founded the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1894?

Ans 1. Konstantinos Zappas

2. Baron Pierre de Coubertin

3. George Averoff

4. Sir Ludwig Guttmann

Q.21 As of April 2021, the ________ India scheme aims at providing people belonging to the scheduled caste or scheduled tribe
or women of the country a loan between ₹10 lakhs to ₹1 crore, based on their requirement to promote entrepreneurship,
which has been extended up to the year 2025.
Ans 1. Stand-up

2. Grow-up

3. Start-up

4. Rise-up

Q.22 Who among the following has been credited with developing a notation system for Indian classical music?
Ans 1. Kumar Gandharva

2. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande

3. Bal Gandharva

4. Bhimsen Joshi

Q.23 What is the name of the large-scale demographic survey conducted to provide reliable estimates of birth and death rates
and other fertility and mortality indicators at the national and sub-national levels?
Ans 1. Sample Registration System (SRS)

2. Enumeration of Human Resource system (EHRS)

3. Direct Recruitment System (DRS)

4. Creation and bifurcation System (CBS)

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT a part of the ocean floor?

Ans 1. The continental shelf

2. The continental slope

3. The deep sea shelf

4. The deep sea plain

Q.25 In 1883, which of the following allowed Indians to try Europeans in courts of law?
Ans 1. Christian Personal Law

2. Ilbert Bill

3. Indian Penal Code

4. Murderous Outrage Regulation

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Manoj earned Rs.6,075 as simple interest on a certain sum at 9% per annum after 5 years. Find the sum invested by him.
Ans 1. Rs.13,500

2. Rs.13,750

3. Rs.12,600

4. Rs.12,250

Q.2 A wristwatch is sold for ₹2,700 at a loss of 10%. What is the cost price of the wristwatch?
Ans 1. ₹2,900

2. ₹3,200

3. ₹3,000

4. ₹3,300

Q.3 The time taken by R to cover 45 km is 1.2 hours. In how many seconds will he cover 400 metres?
Ans 1. 34.8

2. 48.3

3. 38.4

4. 43.8

Q.4 A shopkeeper offers a cash discount of ₹275 first and then three successive discounts of 10%, 8% and 5% on the sale of a
laptop. If the marked price of the laptop is ₹85,275, find its price for a customer.
Ans 1. ₹65,561

2. ₹66,561

3. ₹65,861

4. ₹66,861

Q.5 If 6 people are required to complete a work in 1 hour 20 minutes, then how long will only 5 people take to complete the same
work?
Ans 1. 105 minutes

2. 90 minutes

3. 96 minutes

4. 100 minutes

Q.6 45% of Samita’s monthly income is equal to 63% of Anil’s monthly income. If Samita’s monthly income is ₹84,000, what is
Anil’s monthly income (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 59,400

2. 61,500

3. 58,500

4. 60,000

Q.7 The average weight of 4 persons is increased by 14 kg when one of them whose weight is 55 kg, is replaced by another
person. What is the weight (in kg) of the new person?
Ans 1. 111

2. 85

3. 56

4. 98

Q.8 Dixit covers a certain distance by car, driving at the speed of 28 km/h and he returns to the starting point riding on a scooter
at the speed of 36 km/h. Find the average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey.
Ans 1. 31.5

2. 32.0

3. 64.0

4. 48.5
Q.9 A person can paint a 2.5 ft2 of a wall in 5 minutes. How much ft2 of the wall will he paint in 6 hours?
Ans 1. 120

2. 160

3. 140

4. 180

Q.10 The ratio of the cost price of an article to its selling price is 432 ∶ 612. The profit percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal
places) on it is:
Ans 1. 41.66%

2. 40.25%

3. 42.33%

4. 38.26%

Q.11 Find the least value digit which is assigned to * so that the number 1972*471 is divisible by 9.
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 2

Q.12 A loan of ₹2,550 is to be paid back in two equal half-yearly instalments. How much is each instalment if the interest is
compounded half-yearly at 8% p.a.?
Ans 1. ₹1,258

2. ₹1,352

3. ₹1,745

4. ₹1,457

Q.13 Two containers of equal capacity are full of mixture of milk and water. In the first, the ratio of milk to water is 3 : 7 and in the
second it is 7 : 9. Now both the mixtures are mixed in a bigger container. What is the resulting ratio of milk to water?
Ans 1. 59 : 101

2. 57 : 107

3. 61 : 97

4. 58 : 103

Q.14

Ans 1. ₹740

2. ₹750

3. ₹720

4. ₹730

Q.15 The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 3862.2 cm2 and its height is 15 cm. Find its volume (take π = 3.14)correct to one
decimal place.
Ans 1. 79175.1 cm3

2. 88275.2 cm3

3. 78275.2 cm3

4. 89175.1 cm3
Q.16 A and B invested money in a business in the ratio of 2:3. If 10% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share in the profit is
₹4,500, then what is the total profit?
Ans 1. ₹13,000

2. ₹12,500

3. ₹12,000

4. ₹13,500

Q.17 An amusement park gives an offer to its customers that one person will be given free entry with four other people. What is
the effective percentage discount given by the amusement park?
Ans 1. 14%

2. 18%

3. 20%

4. 16%

Q.18 Sachin purchases a watch from a dealer at some price and sells it at 20% profit. The next day he purchases the same watch
and marks up the price by 75% and offers a discount of 30%. What is the change in the percentage in the profit that Sachin
receives on day 2?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 22.5%

3. 17%

4. 12.5%

Q.19 A car covers a distance of 45.6 km in 2.4 litres of petrol. How much distance will it cover in 1 litre of petrol?
Ans 1. 19 km

2. 20 km

3. 19.4 km

4. 109.44 km

Q.20 A man can row 9 km/h in still water. If the river is running at 4 km/h, it takes 8 hours more in upstream than to go
downstream for the same distance. How far is the place?
Ans 1. 65 km

2. 60 km

3. 75 km

4. 55 km

Q.21 The diagonal of a cubical block of wood is 192 cm. Find its volume.
Ans
1.

Q.22 S varies directly as (R + 7), and S = 42 when R = 17. What is the value of S when R = 29?
Ans 1. 51

2. 63

3. 58

4. 66
Q.23 A train covers 40 km between two stations in 45 minutes. It covers another 30 km in 30 minutes and the remaining 20 km in
15 minutes. Find the average speed of the train in the whole journey.
Ans 1. 40 km/h

2. 60 km/h

3. 50 km/h

4. 45 km/h

Q.24 A shopkeeper charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid ₹30,135 for a dining table, then find its
original price (in ₹).
Ans 1. 24,000

2. 24,500

3. 28,200

4. 23,300

Q.25 The length of cold storage of cuboidal shape is double its breadth and its height is half of its breadth. If its volume is 216 m3
, then what are the dimensions of the cold storage?
Ans 1. 12 m × 6 m × 3 m

2. 12 m × 9 m × 5 m

3. 14 m × 7 m × 5 m

4. 8 m × 4 m × 2 m

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Introductory

2. Decendant

3. Ordinance

4. Disinterested

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as synonym for the underlined word.

Mohan is deprived of the opportunity to start his business.

Ans 1. Renewal

2. Reconstruct

3. Divested

4. Restore

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the context of its meaning in the given sentence.

She felt relieved and light after taking the headache medicine.
Ans 1. extinguish

2. ignorant

3. dark

4. heavy

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who eats meat but not seafood or fish
Ans 1. Herbivorous

2. Carnitarian

3. Carnivorous

4. Omnivorous
Q.5 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Zara is buying a new car.
Ans 1. A new car has been bought by Zara.

2. A new car was bought by Zara.

3. A new car is bought by Zara.

4. A new car is being bought by Zara.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

How do you ______________ the photos and files you have lost in your computer?
Ans 1. retire

2. retrieve

3. receive

4. remove

Q.7 Based on the situation in the sentence, select the most appropriate idiom.
Although Greta Thunberg gave a moving speech at the UN about environmental damage, it could _________.
Ans 1. break the ice

2. cut no ice

3. walk on thin ice

4. be the icing on the cake

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Forbid
Ans 1. Bear

2. Operate

3. Collect

4. Allow

Q.9 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Bungalow

2. Banglo

3. Bunglow

4. Banglow

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The child grew up cheerfully listening to ___________ stories.
Ans 1. few

2. endless

3. horror

4. sad

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Tara thought that they were absurd on a dying saviour, that his sandals, his blazer, his hair, all were unsuited to the
occassion.
Ans 1. occassion

2. unsuited

3. absurd

4. saviour
Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to complete the idiom in the following sentence.
I have a _______ thumb and I love gardening.
Ans 1. red

2. yellow

3. blue

4. green

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

Sheena comes of an affluent family.

Ans 1. Backward

2. Infamous

3. Ordinary

4. Poor

Q.14 Choose an appropriate synonym for the given word.

Cease
Ans 1. Continue

2. Transmit

3. Conclude

4. Commence

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
He said to me, 'I am grateful to you.'
Ans 1. He told me he is grateful to me.

2. He said that I am grateful to you.

3. He says to me that he is grateful to me.

4. He told me that he was grateful to me.

Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer all 5 questions given below.
Population ______1_______is one of the most serious problems of the world today. Studies ________2________in this area suggest
that the world population is further likely to increase by a few more billions. According to many environmental scientists, ecologists,
researchers, and other intellectuals, the rise in the population will lead to several ________3______consequences. Most significantly,
the increasing number of people will ____4______more water, more food, and more energy _____5_______to survive.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Choose the word which fits in the blank labelled 1 and gives appropriate meaning.
Ans 1. increase

2. reduction

3. plunge

4. decrease

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Choose the word which fits in the blank labelled 2 and gives appropriate meaning.
Ans 1. shared

2. provided

3. given

4. conducted
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer all 5 questions given below.
Population ______1_______is one of the most serious problems of the world today. Studies ________2________in this area suggest
that the world population is further likely to increase by a few more billions. According to many environmental scientists, ecologists,
researchers, and other intellectuals, the rise in the population will lead to several ________3______consequences. Most significantly,
the increasing number of people will ____4______more water, more food, and more energy _____5_______to survive.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Choose the word which fits in the blank labelled 3 and gives appropriate meaning.
Ans 1. joyful

2. unpleasant

3. pleasant

4. delightful

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Choose the word which fits in the blank labelled 4 and gives appropriate meaning.
Ans 1. prevent

2. not require

3. require

4. ignore

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Choose the word which fits in the blank labelled 5 and gives appropriate meaning.
Ans 1. more people

2. more technology

3. more energy

4. more Requirement

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Dilya-eje, a secondary school teacher in the border village of Samarkandek, Kyrgyzstan, often visits the houses of her neighbourhood
to record the children who should attend school the next year. She always indicates the status of their parents in her notebook. More
than half of the parents are labelled as migrants.
When men migrate, women take on the usual male roles: today most agricultural labour in the villages is done by women. But in
Kyrgyzstan there are also a high number of women migrants. In 2016, women accounted for about 40% of total Kyrgyz labour
migrants to Russia. Some are divorced or married women and some are very young girls who begin to earn money just after
graduating from high school. Women migrating to Russia are usually employed in the service sector.
Because of these trends, traditional notions of femininity and masculinity are now often in conflict. Despite the fact that these women
are sometimes the main source of income in their families, they have to face misogynistic behaviour – and violence.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Identify the most suitable title for the passage.
Ans 1. Power of Education in Kyrgyzstan

2. Independence of the Kyrgyz Women

3. Gift of Russian Service

4. Pangs of the Migrant Kyrgyz Women

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 What does Dilya-eje realise about the status of the parents of the school children to be admitted?
Ans 1. Half of them are uneducated

2. Half of them are migrants

3. Many of them are very poor

4. Many of them are illiterate

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most suitable word from the passage which means ‘contempt against women’.
Ans 1. Misogynistic

2. Migrant

3. Masculinity

4. Accounted

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 What does the passage actually mean when it says that the women do agricultural labour?
Ans 1. They rewrite history.

2. They assume the male roles.

3. They create alternative culture.

4. They accept the harsh realities.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What is the tone of the speaker?
Ans 1. Incendiary

2. Exaggerating

3. Sarcastic

4. Humorous
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 24/06/2024
Exam Time 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘PLAYER’ is written as ‘CNRSFZ’ and ‘LIQUID’ is written as ‘SKNEJV’. How will ‘RECORD’ be
written in that language?
Ans 1. EGTESP

2. ETGPSP

3. EGTPES

4. ETGESP

Q.2 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is D related to B if A ÷ B − C + D × E?
Ans 1. Daughter’s husband

2. Wife

3. Mother

4. Wife’s mother

Q.3 In a certain code language, 'GOLIATH' is coded as '216' and 'DYNAMIC' is coded as '207'. How will 'CURRANT' be coded in
that language?
Ans 1. 285

2. 168

3. 235

4. 148

Q.4 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
PTXL, OSWK, NRVJ, ?, LPTH
Ans 1. MQUJ

2. MQUI

3. NQUI

4. MQVI

Q.5 In a certain code language, 'NORMAL' is written as 'LMPOCN' and 'PEOPLE' is written as 'NCMRNG'. How will 'MOMENT' be
written in that language?
Ans 1. KMKHPU

2. KNKGPU

3. KMKGPV

4. LMLGPV
Q.6 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
13 ÷ 8 – 96 × 6 + 17 = ?
Ans 1. 98

2. 103

3. 114

4. 107

Q.7 Three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1) All cobblers are masons.
2) No mason is an electrician.
3) Some electricians are plumbers.
Conclusions:
I. All plumbers can never be masons.
II. At least some electricians are cobblers.
Ans 1. Only Conclusion II follows.

2. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only Conclusion I follows.

4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.8 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1 Paragraph
2 Letters
3 Phrase
4 Sentence
5 Words
Ans 1. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

2. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

3. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4

4. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1

Q.9 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
Ans 1. SXI

2. SWG

3. TVG

4. TXI

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
GLOBAL : HNRAYI :: HONEST : IQQDQQ :: ITSELF : ?
Ans 1. JVVDJC

2. JVVEJC

3. JVVDKC

4. JVUDJC

Q.11 Following a certain logic, if 36 is related to 9 and 100 is related to 49, to which of the following is 225 related?
Ans 1. 148

2. 133

3. 135

4. 144
Q.12 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?

1. Illustrate
2. Illustration
3. Illustrator
4. Illuminate
5. Illumination
Ans 1. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3

2. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

3. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

4. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

Q.13 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
SO_T_S_F_Y_OFT__OFTY
Ans 1. F Y O T S Y S

2. S O T T Y FS

3. Y F O T S Y T

4. O F S T Y F O

Q.14 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
JJ_K_LM_N_ _ O _ _ Q _ R _
Ans 1. KLNOPPQRS

2. JKNNOOPRR

3. IJKLMNOPQ

4. KLMNOPPQR

Q.15 Which two numbers (not individual digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
56 + (11 × 2) – (52 ÷ 4) + 16 = 76
Ans 1. 2 and 4

2. 56 and 52

3. 52 and 16

4. 16 and 11

Q.16 In a certain code language,

‘C # D’ means ‘C is the father of D’,
‘C @ D’ means ‘C is the sister of D’,
‘C $ D’ means ‘C is the mother of D’,
‘C % D’ means ‘C is the brother of D’.
Based on the above, how is S related to V if ‘S % T @ U # V’?
Ans 1. Father

2. Father’s father

3. Son

4. Father’s brother

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘right from wrong’ is written as ‘jn bh yt’, and ‘take the right’ is coded as ‘dn yt gd. How will
‘right’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. gd

2. bh

3. jn

4. yt
Q.18 In a certain code language, 'careful emotion' is coded as 'du yu', 'sun key' is coded as 'bin fin', 'careful sun' is coded as 'du
bin' and 'emotion key' is coded as 'yu fin'. What is the code word for 'sun'?
Ans 1. bin

2. du

3. yu

4. fin

Q.19 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cease : Desist :: Eradicate : ___________
Ans 1. Replenish

2. Destroy

3. Restore

4. Abstain

Q.20 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. All apples are bees.
II. Some apples are cannons.
III. No cannon is a dear.
Conclusions:
I. Some cannons are bees.
II. No dear is an apple.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.21 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans 1.

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘ALPHA’ is written as ‘MBPBI’ and 'GAMMA' is written as 'BHMBN'. How will ‘LASER’ be written
as in that language?
Ans 1. BMSSF

2. BNSSF

3. BMFSS

4. BMSFS
Q.23 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘BOOK’ is coded as ‘DMRH’ and ‘WELL’ is coded as ‘YCOI’. How will ‘TREE’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. VPHB

2. UPHC

3. VSHC

4. UQHB

Q.25 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the following series.
6, 7, 16, 41, ?, ?, 292
Ans 1. 90, 171

2. 115, 240

3. 95, 180

4. 100, 220

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 One-third of the members of the State Legislature Council retire every ________ years.
Ans 1. fifth

2. second

3. sixth

4. fourth
Q.2 Archaeological evidence of which of the following dance forms dating back to the 2nd century BC was found in the caves of
Udayagiri and Khandagiri?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Manipuri

3. Odissi

4. Kathak

Q.3 A plant cell wall is mainly composed of:

Ans 1. lipid

2. cellulose

3. starch

4. protein

Q.4 The thermocline layer is the _______ layer of the ocean.

Ans 1. fourth

2. third

3. second

4. first

Q.5 What is the function of cytochrome P450?

Ans 1. ATP synthesis

2. Assimilation of medicines and xenobiotics

3. Detoxification of xenobiotics

4. Hydrolysis of glucose

Q.6 Which of the following articles guarantees the Right to Equality before the Law and the Right to Equal Protection of the
Laws?
Ans 1. Article 15

2. Article 14

3. Article 16

4. Article 17

Q.7 In which of the following states is the Behdienkhlam festival celebrated in the month of July?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Bihar

3. West Bengal

4. Meghalaya

Q.8 In which year was the ‘Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi’ (PM SVANidhi) scheme launched by the
Government of India with the objective of providing an affordable working capital loan to street vendors to resume their
livelihoods?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2022

3. 2021

4. 2020

Q.9 With which field was Madhuri Barthwal associated?

Ans 1. Sports

2. Medicine

3. Literature and education

4. Music
Q.10 Which law was studied in the year 1787, in which it was said that as the volume of a gas increases its absolute temperature,
if its absolute temperature decreases, then its volume will decrease?
Ans 1. Charles's law

2. Dalton’s law

3. Boyle’s law

4. Avogadro’s law

Q.11 In which sport is a shuttlecock used?

Ans 1. Badminton

2. Kabaddi

3. Football

4. Basketball

Q.12 Which of the following cities is called the Silicon Valley of India due to its prominence in the IT industry?
Ans 1. Gurugram

2. Hyderabad

3. Dehradun

4. Bengaluru

Q.13 Stupas are a symbol of which of the following religions?

Ans 1. Jainism

2. Sikhism

3. Hinduism

4. Buddhism

Q.14 Which of the following politicians was conferred a Lifetime Achievement Honour in 2023 by the India-UK Achievers Honours
in London for contribution to economic and political life?
Ans 1. M Venkaiah Naidu

2. VP Singh

3. Sushma Swaraj

4. Manmohan Singh

Q.15 The Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act was passed in __________ by colonial Government.
Ans 1. 1907

2. 1912

3. 1903

4. 1898

Q.16 Which of the following Acts provided the title of the Viceroy to the Governor-General of India?
Ans 1. Government of India Act, 1858

2. Charter Act of 1853

3. Charter Act of 1833

4. Regulating Act of 1773

Q.17 Which author wrote the autobiography 'Baluta'?

Ans 1. Chitra Mudgal

2. Teji Grover

3. Daya Pawar

4. Nirmal Verma
Q.18 Which Mughal rulers intervention in the succession and internal politics of the Rathor Rajputs of Marwar led to their
rebellion?
Ans 1. Aurangzeb

2. Babur

3. Shah Jahan

4. Akbar

Q.19 Which of the following oilfields is NOT located in Gujarat?

Ans 1. Kosamba

2. Kalol

3. Naharkatiya

4. Nawagam

Q.20 As per the Indian Constitution, the size of the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed:
Ans 1. 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People

2. 25 percent of total number of members of the House of the People

3. 10 percent of total number of members of the House of the People

4. 20 percent of total number of members of the House of the People

Q.21 As of 1 March 2022, which of the following bills were passed in December 2021?
Ans 1. The Mediation Bill, 2021

2. The National Anti-Doping Bill, 2021

3. The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021

4. The Election Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2021

Q.22 According to the 2011 census, the sex ratio (females per 1000 males) is ________.
Ans 1. 943

2. 900

3. 923

4. 912

Q.23 What was the name of the first dynasty that ruled over Magadh kingdom?
Ans 1. Nanda dynasty

2. Mauryan dynasty

3. Shishunga dynasty

4. Haryanka dynasty

Q.24 In which year was the first Cricket World Cup held in India?
Ans 1. 1983

2. 1987

3. 1975

4. 1979

Q.25 Who is the first woman to lead Indian Army unit near China border in Ladakh?
Ans 1. Lt. Gen. Punita Arora

2. Colonel Shuchita Shekhar

3. Lt. Gen. Madhuri kanitkar

4. Colonel Geeta Rana

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Akshara scores 85% in five subjects together. The subjects are Hindi, Science, Mathematics, English and Computers, where
the maximum marks of each subject are 100. Akshara scores 75 marks in Hindi, 92 marks in Computers, 89 marks in
Mathematics, and 81 marks in English. How many marks did Akshara score in Science?
Ans 1. 92

2. 73

3. 67

4. 88

Q.2 A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief are 18 km/h and 6 km/h, respectively. If the policeman
started 10 minutes late, at what distance will he catch the thief?
Ans 1. 2.0 km

2. 1.5 km

3. 2.5 km

4. 1.0 km

Q.3

Ans 1. 924 ft2

2. 928 ft2

3. 922 ft2

4. 926 ft2

Q.4 The marked price of a commodity was given as ₹425 per kg. After two successive discounts of 5% and y%, respectively, the
retailer purchased it for ₹323 per kg. What was the value of y?
Ans 1. 18

2. 24

3. 19

4. 20

Q.5 If the volume of spheres are 27 : 8, then their ratio of surface areas is:
Ans
1.

Q.6 There are two types of rice. Type 1 rice costs ₹20 per kg and type 2 rice costs ₹25 per kg. Both the rice are mixed in the ratio
2 : 3. Find the cost (in ₹) of the mixed rice per kg.
Ans 1. 23

2. 23.50

3. 22.50

4. 22

Q.7 Shyam bought a chair for ₹1,563 and spent ₹350 on its repairing. He sold it for ₹2,398. Find his profit percentage (correct to
two places of decimals).
Ans 1. 52.55%

2. 35.55%

3. 42.35%

4. 25.35%
Q.8 A group of men decided to complete a job in 4 days. However, since 10 men dropped out every day, the job got completed at
the end of the 7th day. How many men were there in the beginning?
Ans 1. 90

2. 70

3. 140

4. 35

Q.9 A man has to discharge a debt of ₹15,600 which is due in 3 years at 4% simple interest per annum. If he pays this amount in
equal instalments of annual payment, find the amount for annual payment.
Ans 1. ₹5,100

2. ₹5,000

3. ₹5,400

4. ₹5,200

Q.10 If a 9-digit number 937X728Y6 is divisible by 72, then one of the possible values of X + Y is:
Ans 1. 8

2. 9

3. 5

4. 12

Q.11 The difference between the cost price and the selling price of a table lamp is ₹540. If the profit is 30%, then the selling price
(in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 2,340

2. 2,150

3. 2,800

4. 2,280

Q.12 A chair is bought for ₹600 and sold for ₹750. Find the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 20%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 35%

Q.13 A policeman spots a thief from a distance of 100 metres. When he starts running after the thief, the thief starts running as
well. How far will the thief have to run before being overtaken if his speed is 8 km/h and the policeman's speed is 10 km/h?
Ans 1. 415 metres

2. 430 metres

3. 380 metres

4. 400 metres

Q.14 In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 2% of the votes were declared
invalid. A candidate got 9,261 votes, which were 75% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of votes.
Ans 1. 17,200

2. 16,800

3. 17,000

4. 17,400

Q.15 The average cost of a pencil is ₹8 and the average cost of an eraser is ₹4. The cost of 8 erasers, 4 pencils and 12 sharpeners
are ₹148. The average cost of a sharpener is ₹____.
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 6.5

4. 6.66
Q.16 The rice sold by a grocer contained 20% of low-quality rice. What quantity of good-quality rice should be added to 175 kg of
mixed rice so that the percentage of low-quality rice remains 10%?
Ans 1. 150 kg

2. 100 kg

3. 175 kg

4. 125 kg

Q.17 If a number is divisible by both 11 and 13, then it must be:

Ans 1. divisible by 42

2. divisible by (11+13)

3. divisible by (13-11)

4. divisible by (11×13)

Q.18 The volume of a right circular cylinder of base radius r is obtained by multiplying its curved surface area by:
Ans
1.

Q.19 In how many years will Rs.2,500 invested at the rate of 12% per annum, simple interest, amount to Rs.3,700?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.20 Ram, standing on a railway platform, noticed that a train took 36 seconds to completely pass through the platform, which
was 108 m long, and it took 12 seconds in passing him. Find the speed of the train.
Ans 1. 18.2 km/h

2. 25.2 km/h

3. 20.2 km/h

4. 16.2 km/h

Q.21 The annual instalment (in ₹) to discharge a debt of ₹8,432 due in 4 years at 16% simple interest per annum is:
Ans 1. 2,204

2. 1,527

3. 2,108

4. 1,700

Q.22 A packet has to consist of three types of jellies – orange, mango and strawberry. The price per unit of orange, mango and
strawberry jelly is ₹2.00, ₹3.00 and ₹3.50, respectively. In a packet, there are 80 orange jellies, 50 mango jellies and 120
strawberry jellies. What is the average cost (in ₹) of a jelly in a mixed packet?
Ans 1. 2.92

2. 3.02

3. 2.80

4. 2.96
Q.23 The marked price of an item was ₹12,500. Two successive discounts of 12% each was offered on its sale. What was the
selling price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 9500

2. 9720

3. 9680

4. 9620

Q.24 In a constituency, the total number of people on the electoral roll was 2,75,000. Out of them, 90% cast their votes in an
election and 15% of the votes cast were declared invalid. What was the number of valid votes cast?
Ans 1. 2,10,375

2. 2,10,425

3. 2,10,275

4. 2,10,325

Q.25 Find the third proportional to 6 and 24.

Ans 1. 24

2. 12

3. 15

4. 96

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Stop beating around the bush and tell me what is expected out of me.
Ans 1. misunderstanding the situation

2. getting the conversation going

3. revealing a secret to everyone

4. avoiding to talk about the issue

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

We have four seasons because the earth doesn’t sit up straight; it’s _______ on its axis. As it orbits the sun, the planet’s
slight slouch _______ more or less of the northern and southern hemisphere to the sun depending on the time of the year.
Ans 1. inclined; uncover

2. sloped; reveal

3. slanted; show

4. tilted; exposes

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

He benevolently offered to drop me all the way home after the office party got over in the wee hours of the morning.
Ans 1. Tenderly

2. Humanely

3. Unkindly

4. Selflessly

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Teenu wrote a congratulatory letter.
Ans 1. A congratulatory letter had been written by Teenu.

2. A congratulatory letter is written by Teenu.

3. A congratulatory letter written by Teenu.

4. A congratulatory letter was written by Teenu.

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

'Do you have a fair copy of this document?' The editor asked the reporter.
Ans 1. The editor asked the reporter whether he had a fair copy of that document.

2. The editor asked the reporter whether did he have a fair copy of that document.

3. The editor asked the reporter whether had he had a fair copy of that document.

4. The editor asked the reporter whether he had had a fair copy of that document.

Q.6 Select the MISSPELT word.

Ans 1. Library

2. Lexicon

3. Logarithm

4. Lagitimate

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Inscription on a person's grave
Ans 1. Prologue

2. Epitaph

3. Monograph

4. Epistle

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Shah called Saeed a hard nut to crack, and described him as cool, but intelligent.
Ans 1. Someone with good will

2. Considerate person

3. Moderate person

4. Someone who is difficult to deal with

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Extinguish

2. Sovereignity

3. Amendment

4. Violation

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Eccentricity
Ans 1. Deception

2. Jeopardy

3. Mannerism

4. Regularity

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Impediment
Ans 1. Benefit

2. Experiment

3. Pedestrian

4. Obstacle

Q.12 Select the MISSPELT word.

Ans 1. Exhale

2. Assence

3. Ascend

4. Escalade
Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Addiction is a _______ process that requires the addict's friends and family's assistance at various addiction levels such as
mentally, physically, psychologically, and emotionally.
Ans 1. protracted

2. abbreviated

3. condensed

4. curtailed

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Control
Ans 1. Fold

2. Grip

3. Embrace

4. Purchase

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
The new software offers a plethora of features to enhance productivity.
Ans 1. a consequence of

2. a shortage of

3. an abundance of

4. a scarcity of

Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer all 5 questions given below.
A little bird was flying South for the winter. It was so cold the bird froze and _____1______ to the ground into a large field.
While she was _____2______ there, a cow came by and dropped some dung on her. As the frozen bird lay there in
the_______3______of cow dung, she began to realize how warm she was.
The dung was actually ________4________ her out! She lay there all warm and happy, and soon began to sing for joy.
A _______5_______cat heard the bird singing and discovered the bird under the cow dung. The cat dug her out and ate her.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Choose the word from the given options which fits in the blank labelled 1 and gives correct meaning
Ans 1. Fell

2. Rose

3. Soared

4. Went up

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Choose the word from the given options which fits in the blank labelled 2 and gives correct meaning.
Ans 1. Lying

2. Sleeping

3. Walking

4. Napping
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer all 5 questions given below.
A little bird was flying South for the winter. It was so cold the bird froze and _____1______ to the ground into a large field.
While she was _____2______ there, a cow came by and dropped some dung on her. As the frozen bird lay there in
the_______3______of cow dung, she began to realize how warm she was.
The dung was actually ________4________ her out! She lay there all warm and happy, and soon began to sing for joy.
A _______5_______cat heard the bird singing and discovered the bird under the cow dung. The cat dug her out and ate her.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Choose the word from the given options which fits in the blank labelled 3 and gives correct meaning
Ans 1. Crowd

2. Pile

3. Row

4. Box

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Choose the word from the given options which fits in the blank labelled 4 and gives correct meaning
Ans 1. Chilling

2. Killing

3. Thawing

4. Drawing

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Identify the phrasal verb which fits in the blank labelled as 5 and gives correct meaning.
Ans 1. covered

2. hid

3. hit

4. discovered
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Prime Minister Modi has recently declared Modhera, Gujarat as India’s first 24×7 solar-powered village. It is an important marker in
India’s ambitious renewable energy vision. The aim is to increase installed capacity by more than three-fold to 500 GW by 2030. The
commercial viability of solar power will have a say in realising this goal. Presently, India’s electricity sector displays a dichotomy,
representing the challenges facing the renewable sector.
Thermal power contributed 75%-85% of the power generated over the last three financial years. Its installed capacity, however, dipped
from 62.3% to 59.6% over the same period. During the same phase, solar power installed capacity increased from 9.4% to 12.8%
among renewables, its share in a generation increased. Therefore, among available sources of renewable energy, it’s solar power that
holds the brightest promise. Renewable energy consumption gets a big push from the Government of India in the form of legally
binding purchases called Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO). Despite this boost, renewables struggle to meet generation targets
because states which have an incentive to keep costs low often fail to meet their RPO. A March 2021 parliamentary committee report
showed that only four states met their entire RPO target in 2019-20.
Solar power trajectory is delicately poised despite the Government’s move to increase the share of RPO till 2030. An increase in
important tariff this year on inputs such as solar modules to boost domestic industry will in the near future push up project costs and,
thereby, power tariffs. This is at odds with a separate move to nudge discoms to maintain financial discipline. Moreover, the renewable
space itself is set to get more competitive with the advent of green hydrogen. The renewable energy is set for a churn with a complex
set of factors at play.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Identify the structure of the passage.
Ans 1. Narrative essay

2. Factual essay

3. Argumentative essay

4. Abstract essay

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 How many states met the RPO target in 2019-20?
Ans 1. Two

2. Five

3. Four

4. Three
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans 1. The World in Danger Zone

2. Renewable Energy – Moving Forward

3. Electricity and Private Companies

4. Thermal Electricity – Difficulties

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘ambitious’.
Ans 1. Energetic

2. Unenthusiastic

3. Impressive

4. Mischievous
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the correct full form of RPO?
Ans 1. Review Public Obligations

2. Renewable Purchase Obligation

3. Renewable Purchase Operations

4. Revenue Purchase Obligation

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 25/06/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. No art is a drawing.
II. Some drawings are paintings.
III. All sketches are paintings.
Conclusions:
I. No sketch is a drawing.
II. No painting is an art.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’
are interchanged?
[( 48 – 2) ÷ 23] × 19 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 38

2. 58

3. 68

4. 48

Q.3 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

WCKY, XENC, ?, ZITK, AKWO

Ans 1. YGQG

2. YCQG

3. YCSY

4. YGSY

Q.4 In a certain code language, SAD is coded as 48 and DOG is coded as 52. What is the code for HIT in that language?
Ans 1. 47

2. 73

3. 37

4. 74
Q.5 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
IJKL, MNOP, QRST, ?, YZAB
Ans 1. TUWX

2. UVYZ

3. UVWX

4. TUYZ

Q.6 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the following series.
1, 2, 4, ?, 11, ?, 22
Ans 1. 7, 16

2. 8, 20

3. 6, 18

4. 5, 17

Q.7 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1 Western Europe
2 Germany
3 Munich
4 Europe
5 Bavaria
Ans 1. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

2. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

3. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2

4. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

Q.8 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
1. CHATTER
2. CHASTISE
3. CHARTER
4. CHANT
5. CHAIR
Ans 1. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

2. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

3. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

4. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Q.9 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks, will complete the
letter series.
_cb__amcc_eaa_cc_e__m
Ans 1. c a e b m b e a

2. c a a b m b a a

3. c e a b m b a a

4. c e a b m b e a
Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.11 In a certain code, PROVIDE is written as QSPWJEF and PLATE is written as QMBUF. What is the code for POND?
Ans 1. RQPF

2. PNOD

3. ONMC

4. QPOE

Q.12 In a certain code language,

'M + N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’,
‘M − N’ means ‘M is the father of N’,
‘M * N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’,
‘M $ N’ means ‘M is the son of N’.
Based on the above, how is A related to C if ‘A + B * C’?
Ans 1. Daughter

2. Mother’s sister

3. Mother

4. Sister

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BUTTON’ is coded as ‘CTVRRK’ and ‘ACTUAL’ is coded as ‘BBVSDI’. How will ‘STRONG’ be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. TSTMQD

2. RSTMQD

3. TRTNQE

4. TSSMRD

Q.14 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
XJPC YLOA ZNNY APMW ?
Ans 1. BRKU

2. BRLU

3. CRKU

4. BQKU

Q.15 In a code language, 'grass is green' is written as 'pp rr tt', 'vegetables are green' is written as 'rr dd ee', and 'bamboos are
grass' is written as 'pp dd mm'. What is the code for the word 'vegetables' in that language?
Ans 1. ee

2. rr

3. dd

4. pp
Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
1) Some lamps are bulbs.
2) All bulbs are tubes.
3) Some tubes are pipes.
Conclusions:
I. All bulbs are pipes.
II. At least some lamps are tubes.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.17 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is B related to D, if A × B + C ÷ D?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Brother’s wife

3. Mother

4. Brother

Q.18 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
MASTER : RETSAM : : DURING : GNIRUD : : THEORY : ?
Ans 1. WROHET

2. YROEHT

3. YROEGS

4. ZSOEIS

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘all fell down’ is written as ‘jm ib fc’, and ‘down the road’ is coded as ‘ib gb tf’. How will ‘down’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. tf

2. gb

3. ib

4. fc

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cat : Kitten :: Bear : ?
Ans 1. Lamb

2. Fawn

3. Child

4. Cub

Q.21 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
SA_C_ _S_D_A T_ _D C A _ S _DC_ T
Ans 1. DATACSATAA

2. CASASSASAS

3. SASASSASAA

4. DTATSDADAA
Q.22 In a certain language, GATE is coded as FZSD, and PANT is coded as OZMS. How will BANK be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. ABKN

2. AZMJ

3. KNAB

4. CBOK

Q.23 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
( 28 ÷ 4) – (15 × 3) + 48 = ?
Ans 1. 69

2. 62

3. 75

4. 58

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
4862 : 6428 :: 3952 : 5392 :: 1758 : ?
Ans 1. 3857

2. 2593

3. 8765

4. 8517
Q.25 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically completethe series.

Ans

4. \

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The historic Salt March was started by Mahatma Gandhi and his followers from ________.
Ans 1. Dandi

2. Gandhinagar

3. Sabarmati Ashram

4. Kheda

Q.2 Launched in March 2023, the VAIBHAV fellowship for Indian diaspora that aims at improving the research ecosystem of
India’s Higher Educational and Scientific Institutions is for a researcher engaged in an overseas
academic/research/industrial organisation working in the top _________ QS World University Ranking.
Ans 1. 400

2. 500

3. 200

4. 300
Q.3 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
Ans 1. Article 140

2. Article 146

3. Article 145

4. Article 148

Q.4 During the reign of which of the Pallava kings was the shore temple at Mahabalipuram built?
Ans 1. Paramesvaravarman I

2. Narasimhavarman II

3. Mahendravarman II

4. Narasimhavarman I

Q.5 Post 1857 revolt, the Peel commission was set up to give on recommendations on ________ reorganisation of British India.
Ans 1. military

2. telecom

3. trade

4. land revenue

Q.6 Which of the following holy days in Christianity is a mourning day?

Ans 1. Easter

2. Maundy Thursday

3. Christmas

4. Good Friday

Q.7 The National Health Authority (NHA), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), has organised '__________' to
celebrate five years of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) and two years of Ayushman
Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) on 25th and 26th September 2023 in New Delhi.
Ans 1. Swasthya Kalyan

2. Arogya Manthan

3. Bharat Arogya Mela

4. Ayushman Ayojan

Q.8 What is the name of the cold phase of the ENSO climate pattern that describes the unusual cooling of the surface waters of
the region?
Ans 1. ENSO-neutral

2. NINO-3 region

3. La Nina

4. Trans-Nino

Q.9 How many players from one team can play in a Kabaddi match at a time?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 9

4. 10

Q.10 Which of the following leagues is related to the game of football?

Ans 1. Indian Super League

2. Indian Supra League

3. Super Indian League

4. Indian Soft League

Q.11 From which of the following epics did the Garadi folk dance of Puducherry originate?
Ans 1. Ramayana

2. Mahabharata

3. Panchatantra

4. Hitopadesha

Q.12 Sashastra Seema Bal is the lead intelligence unit for the ________ and Bhutan borders and the coordinating agency for
national security activities.
Ans 1. Pakistan

2. Myanmar

3. Bangladesh

4. Nepal

Q.13 Who among the following rulers was defeated in the battle for Pataliputra by Chandragupta Maurya?
Ans 1. Megasthenes

2. Seleucus Nicator

3. Dhana Nanda

4. Elara

Q.14 Biotic potential can be defined as:

Ans 1. the maximum number of individuals a species can produce

2. the minimum number of individuals of a species that can survive but cannot reproduce

3. the minimum number of individuals a species can produce

4. the maximum number of individuals of a species that cannot survive after birth

Q.15 The cell wall of spirogyra contains:

Ans 1. lignin

2. cellulose

3. Chitin

4. suberin

Q.16 Who was appointed as the Chairman of National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) in October
2021?
Ans 1. NR Narayana Murthy

2. Nandan Nilekani

3. KV Kamath

4. Uday Kotak

Q.17 Who was recognised for his services in the discovery of inert gaseous elements in air and in the determination of their place
in the periodic system?
Ans 1. Lord Rayleigh

2. Henry Cavendish

3. Henry Miers

4. Sir William Ramsay

Q.18 The emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the Government of India Act, ________.
Ans 1. 1935

2. 1933

3. 1931

4. 1940
Q.19 Which state of India does the musician Shyamamani Devi belong to?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Bihar

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. West Bengal

Q.20 In 1962, who published 'The History of Ocean Basins', which outlined the theory of how tectonic plates could move, later
called 'sea floor spreading'?
Ans 1. Louis Bauer

2. Alfred Wegener

3. George Edward Backus

4. Harry Hammond Hess

Q.21 NALCO is an Indian government enterprise, dealing with which of the following minerals?
Ans 1. Copper

2. Iron

3. Bauxite

4. Mica

Q.22 Which of the following states has the largest net-out migrants?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Maharashtra

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Gujarat

Q.23 Who is considered as the ‘linchpin of the Government’?

Ans 1. Prime Minister

2. President

3. Vice-President

4. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

Q.24 ‘An Unsuitable Boy’ is the autobiography of which Indian personality?

Ans 1. Virat Kohli

2. AR Rahman

3. Karan Johar

4. Salman Khan

Q.25 The Sisodiya ruler of Mewar, Amar Singh, accepted Mughal service during the reign of ___________.
Ans 1. Shah Jahan

2. Akbar

3. Aurangzeb

4. Jahangir

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Which of the following statements is true?

Ans 1. The sum of deviations of the items from the arithmetic mean is always one.

2. The sum of the squared deviations of the items from the arithmetic mean is maximum.

3. Arithmetic mean is the sum of deviations from the mid value.

4. The sum of deviations of the items from the arithmetic mean is always zero.
Q.2 An item costs Rs15,000. A customer can choose either 30% discount or the buy two get one free offer. Jeevan chose the
first offer and Rakshit chose the second offer. Find the difference in their payment for a single item.
Ans 1. Rs.750

2. Rs.10,500

3. Rs.500

4. Rs.10,000

Q.3 A store is running a scheme for offering a discount of 12% if the customer pays instantly, and a discount of 6% if purchased
through credit card. The benefit of the scheme may be split on the amount of payment, however only one discount shall be
given on one item. There is no discount on any other type of transaction. Ankur purchased a shirt from the store, whose
marked price was ₹2,200, through credit card and paid instantly for the purchase of a coat marked at ₹7,500. What was the
total amount (in ₹) billed?
Ans 1. 8568

2. 8778

3. 8814

4. 8668

Q.4 If the weight of A is 40 kg, weight of B is 54 kg and weight of C is 62 kg, then what is the average weight (in kg) of the three
persons?
Ans 1. 58

2. 78

3. 156

4. 52

Q.5 A bank gives simple interest at the rate of 4.5% per annum. How much money (in ₹) should a person deposit to get ₹7,500 as
interest every year?
Ans 1. 1,66,666.67

2. 2,66,666.67

3. 1,33,333.33

4. 2,33,333.33

Q.6 The initial ratio of water and milk in a mixture of 84 litres is 2:5. What quantity of water (in litres) should be added to the
mixture so that the resulting mixture has 50% of water?
Ans 1. 36

2. 18

3. 16

4. 32

Q.7 The cost price of 10 apples is equal to the selling price of 20 apples. Find the loss or gain percentage.
Ans 1. Loss 50%

2. Gain 10%

3. Gain 20%

4. Loss 40%

Q.8 A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder of 24. When twice the original number is divided by the same
divisor, the remainder is 13. What is the value of the divisor?
Ans 1. 25

2. 35

3. 30

4. 37
Q.9 In an examination, there were two papers, A and B, and the maximum mark in each of the two papers was 10. However, the
weights assigned to papers A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, respectively. Riddhi scored 8 out of 10 in Paper B, and an overall
70% in the examination. How much did she score in Paper A out of 10?
Ans 1. 5

2. 5.5

3. 6

4. 6.5

Q.10 Two trains of equal length take 10 s and 20 s, respectively, to cross a pole. If these trains are moving in the same direction,
then how long will they take to cross each other?
Ans 1. 10 sec

2. 30 sec

3. 40 sec

4. 15 sec

Q.11 If (5)55 is divided by 4, then the remainder is:

Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 5

4. 1

Q.12 In measuring the sides of a rectangle, one side is taken 10% in excess, and the other 8% in deficit. The error percent in the
area calculated from these measurements is:
Ans
1.

Q.13 If the GST on a certain article was Rs.600 two years back and it increased to Rs.750 this year, find the percentage increase
in the GST on that article.
Ans 1. 25%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 15%

Q.14 The amount of debt that will be discharged by 5 equal monthly instalments of ₹1,845 each, at the rate of 48% simple interest
per annum, is:
Ans 1. ₹9,468

2. ₹9,048

3. ₹9,936

4. ₹9,963

Q.15 Find the third proportional to 5 and 15 which is equal to the fourth proportional of 2, 5 and 18.
Ans 1. 45

2. 36

3. 32

4. 46
Q.16 Two workers - Sagar and Manish - are working on a heavy machine to melt waste metal. Sagar can complete the work in 15
days while both workers on alternate basis can complete the work in 12 days. In how many days can Manish alone complete
the work?
Ans 1. 10

2. 18

3. 9

4. 30

Q.17 A tradesman marked his goods at 26% above its cost price and then allowed a discount of 13%. His gain (in %) is:
Ans 1. 6.92

2. 6.29

3. 9.62

4. 9.26

Q.18

Ans
1.

Q.19 How many cubes of length 50 cm can be accommodated in a container of 5 m in length, 2 m in width and 5 m in height?
Ans 1. 450

2. 250

3. 400

4. 500

Q.20 A city’s population grows by 10% in the first year, 20% in the second year and 10% in the third year. If the population after 3
years is 8,71,200, then what was the original population 3 years ago?
Ans 1. 6,60,000

2. 7,00,000

3. 6,00,000

4. 7,92,000

Q.21 Two trains start at the same time from stations P and Q and travel towards each other at the speeds of 75 km/h and 100
km/h, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 50 km more than the other. The distance (in km)
between two stations is:
Ans 1. 325

2. 350

3. 300

4. 375

Q.22 A goods train 350 m long passes through a tunnel of 1250m in 80 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
Ans 1. 56 km/h

2. 64 km/h

3. 72 km/h

4. 78 km/h
Q.23 A person bought bananas at 6 for ₹12 and sold them at 8 for ₹10. Find his gain or loss percentage?
Ans 1. 37.5% loss

2. 375% gain

3. 3.75% gain

4. 0.375% loss

Q.24 An annual instalment of ₹3,500 will discharge a debt of ₹16,310 due in 4 years at y% simple interest per annum. What is the
value of y? [Note: Instalments will be paid at the end of Year 1, Year 2, Year 3 and Year 4.
Ans 1. 10.5

2. 16.5

3. 11.5

4. 11

Q.25 The price of a television set and a washing machine are in the ratio of 8 : 7. If the cost of the television set is ₹4,800 more
than the cost of the washing machine, then find the price of the washing machine.
Ans 1. ₹33,600

2. ₹33,000

3. ₹33,500

4. ₹33,700

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The people affected with ____________ are vulnerable to other infections as well.
Ans 1. pneumonia

2. pnemonia

3. neumonia

4. pnemonea

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Enthusiastic
Ans 1. Fanatic

2. Desperate

3. Courageous

4. Apathetic

Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
He wanted to be a professional basketball player but given his height, luck was against him.
Ans 1. his principles were against him

2. his health was not in his favour

3. the cards were stacked against him

4. the ball was against him

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the options given below.
Ans 1. Deficiency

2. Amateur

3. Noticeable

4. Comparision
Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Pride
Ans 1. Modesty

2. Aristocracy

3. Assurance

4. Attraction

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Sindhu mailed the letter.

Ans 1. The letter was mailed by the Sindhu.

2. The letter was mailed by Sindhu.

3. Letter mailed by the Sindhu.

4. Sindhu was mailed by the letter.

Q.7 Select the option with the correct spelling to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
It was a priviledge to meet the finance minister of the country last week.
Ans 1. privilege

2. previledge

3. privilage

4. privledge

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Nicholas Copernicus is famous for showing the world that the sun is the ________ of the universe in 1543 AD in Poland. He
also noticed that some planets appeared to change directions when moving ________ the sky. Earlier astronomers believed
in the phenomenon of retrograde motion but Copernicus saw it as ________ that earth orbited the sun like other planets did.
Ans 1. foundation; inside; display

2. centre; across; proof

3. bipolar; through; evidence

4. polar; off; indicate

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Lullaby
Ans 1. Love

2. Song

3. Baby

4. Disturb

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Delighted
Ans 1. Sad

2. Angry

3. Confused

4. Joyful

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Sunny
Ans 1. Bright

2. Cloudy

3. Fair

4. Brilliant
Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To frighten or threaten someone, usually in order to persuade the person to do something he or she does not wish to do
Ans 1. Forceless

2. Authoritative

3. Intimidate

4. Compel

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
He said that he might change that format.
Ans 1. He said, “I may change this format”.

2. He says, “He might change that format”.

3. He told, “He may change that format”.

4. He said, “I will change that format”.

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An extremely abnormal fear of confined space

Ans 1. Glossophobia

2. Acrophobia

3. Selenophobia

4. Claustrophobia

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

No one even thought that Sheila’s success would burst the bubble.
Ans 1. Change her into arrogance

2. Break the border

3. Suddenly end

4. Last for ever

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Curd contains several microorganisms. Of these, the bacterium, Lactobacillus ___(1)___ the formation of curd. It multiplies in milk and
___ (2) ____ it into curd. Bacteria are also involved in the ____ (3) ____of cheese, pickles and many other food items. Bacteria and
yeast are also helpful for the fermentation of rice idlis and dosa batter. Yeast ____(4)____ rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during
respiration. Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increase its ____(5)____ . This is the basis of the use of yeast in the baking industry
for making bread, pastries and cakes.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. promotes

2. help

3. lead

4. cause
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. leads

2. cause

3. change

4. converts

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. causing

2. converting

3. changing

4. making

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. reproduces

2. change

3. convert

4. leads

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. length

2. width

3. volume

4. shape
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

A potential flashpoint in the long-running boundary dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka was averted when the scheduled visit
of two ministers in the Maharashtra government to Belgavi was called off. Unfortunately, this will not end the disruption endured by
people in the area. Prohibitory orders have been imposed, public transport disrupted, and the atmosphere remains charged. The
immediate trigger for this round of flare-ups is the conduct of senior functionaries in both governments and organisations with a stake
in the issue.
The dispute goes back to reorganisation of states on linguistic lines in the 1950s. Multilingual regions were demarcated and
Maharasthtra’s governments have been unsatisfied with the allocation of Belgavi to Karnataka. A joint effort by governments in the two
states in the 1960s to find a solution did not fructify. The dispute currently is in the Supreme Court. In other words, no amount of
grandstanding by politicians on both sides is going to result in redrawing borders. However, that hasn’t prevented them from
periodically raking it up with the consequences borne by people in the region. As is the case with border areas, many inhabitants
speak both languages even as politicians are ostensibly fighting the cause of speakers of one language.
India does need a more active national interstate council to manage tensions that arise out of disagreements over maps. However, an
inactive council cannot condone the conduct of senior politicians as heated rhetoric causes collateral damage. India’s painstaking
transition to dismantling interstate fiscal barriers through the roll-out of GST is undermined when physical movement of goods and
people get disrupted by escalating tension. The political class that set aside differences to arrive at a grand bargain and created a
common market in India should not undo their achievement. One of India’s strengths is the extent of multilingualism even when
internal borders have been determined largely on linguistic basis. Politicians need to learn from common Indians.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Identify the most suitable title for the passage.
Ans 1. Border Disputes and Political Fuel

2. Unending Love of Religion

3. Linguistic Love of The People

4. Political Leaders and Their Corruption

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 What is the apple of discord mentioned in the passage?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Bellari

3. Bengaluru

4. Belgavi
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 What is the passage based upon?
Ans 1. Linguistic narrowmindedness of the common men of the two states Karnataka and Maharashtra

2. Political leaders and their opportunism in using court decisions for their own pastime

3. The bureaucracy in India and the egoism of the leaders in the administration

4. Existing border dispute between Karnataka and Maharashtra fuelled often by politicians, not common men

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Reorganisation of states in the 1950s was done based on ________.
Ans 1. linguistic lines

2. economic lines

3. castes

4. religious lines
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘impose’.
Ans 1. Ennoble

2. Release

3. Cure

4. Compel
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 26/06/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Selection Post Matriculation level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
MAKING : NCLKOI :: LUCENT : MWDGOV :: ISLAND : ?
Ans 1. JUMCPF

2. JUMCOF

3. JUMCOE

4. JUMDOF

Q.2 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
ABZ, BCY, CDX, DEW, _______.
Ans 1. EGH

2. EFV

3. EGV

4. EFG

Q.3 In a certain language MET is coded as 32, and MOW is coded as 45. How will RUN be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 53

2. 50

3. 30

4. 47

Q.4 If in a code language, REPORT is coded as 3 and CALM is coded as 2, what will be the code for TOGETHER?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 10

4. 5

Q.5 ‘A + B’ means A is the mother of B

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
If ‘A × Z + P & R ÷ Q – S’, then how is Z related to S?
Ans 1. Mother’s father

2. Father’s mother

3. Mother’s mother

4. Mother
Q.6 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the following series.
83, 86, 91, 98, ?, 122, ?
Ans 1. 92, 173

2. 90, 171

3. 98, 189

4. 109, 139

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘PARTIAL’ is written as ‘MZJSSZQ’ and 'RADICAL' is written as 'MZDHEZS'. How will ‘RESPOND’
be written as in that language?
Ans 1. EMQOTDS

2. EMPQTDS

3. EMPOTDS

4. SDTOPME

Q.8 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. No picture is an album.
II. All albums are frames.
III. Some frames are portraits.
Conclusions:
I. No picture is a frame.
II. Some pictures are portraits.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.9 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
ABZY, CDXW, EFVU, ?, IJRQ
Ans 1. GHTS

2. GHUS

3. GHTT

4. FHTS

Q.10 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
FKAC, GLCE, HMEG, ?, JOIK
Ans 1. INGI

2. INHI

3. JNGI

4. INGJ

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘CURVED’ is coded as ‘FWSUCA’ and ‘LONDON’ is coded as ‘OQOCMK’. How will ‘SIMPLE’ be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. VKNPJC

2. WLNPJD

3. VKNOJB

4. WLMOKB

Q.12 Which two numbers (not individual digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
21 × 5 – 35 + (42 ÷ 7) + 28 = 96
Ans 1. 28 and 35

2. 28 and 21

3. 21 and 42

4. 35 and 42
Q.13 According to the series given below, fill in the blank with a suitable letter that would satisfy the series.
Z, A, Y, B, X, C, ________
Ans 1. D

2. U

3. W

4. V

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the fourth number is related to the third number and
the second number is related to the first number.
37 : 43 :: 23 : 31 :: 17 : ?
Ans 1. 23

2. 19

3. 21

4. 25

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘HONOR’ is coded as 16-30-28-30-36 and ‘PLEAD’ is coded as 32-24-10-2-8. How will ‘LOCK’ be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 24-32-6-22

2. 26-30-8-22

3. 24-30-6-22

4. 26-32-8-20

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.17 In a certain code language,

R + T means ‘R is the sister of T’.
R – T means ‘R is the father of T’.
R * T means ‘R is the wife of T’.
R ÷ T means ‘R is the mother of T’.
Based on the above, how is H related to E if ‘D – E * F – G + H ÷ I + J’?
Ans 1. Wife

2. Father

3. Mother

4. Daughter
Q.18 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cow : Pen :: Hare : ?
Ans 1. Burrow

2. Sty

3. Den

4. Rabbit

Q.19 In a certain code language, BUG is coded as 24 and TWO is coded as 52. What is the code for ONE in that language?
Ans 1. 28

2. 33

3. 27

4. 32

Q.20 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically completethe series.

Ans

4.
Q.21 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
5÷9−3×4+6=?
Ans 1. 26

2. 16

3. 20

4. 34

Q.22 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English
dictionary.
1. Anger
2. Analogy
3. Animate
4. Anchor
5. Anarchy
Ans 1. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

2. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2

3. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

4. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1

Q.23 In a certain code, BANK is written as AZMJ and TALE is written as SZKD. What is the code for LAND?
Ans 1. JYLB

2. MBOE

3. KZMC

4. NDLA

Q.24 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1) All clothes are black.
2) All shirts are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. All shirts are black.
II. Some clothes are black.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.25 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?

1. Groin
2. Groove
3. Grouch
4. Grocery
5. Gross
Ans 1. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

2. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

3. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

4. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Myoko festival is celebrated in which of the following North-Eastern states of India?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Manipur

3. Sikkim

4. Meghalaya
Q.2 Which of the following is expressed as the total number of deaths per thousand population per year in India?
Ans 1. Age Specific Death Rate

2. Infant Mortality rate

3. Incidence Rate

4. Death Rate

Q.3 ________ of the Indian Constitution sets qualifications for being a member of Lok Sabha.
Ans 1. Article 74

2. Article 64

3. Article 84

4. Article 76

Q.4 All India Kisan Sabha was founded in 1936 at Indian National Congress (INC) __________ Session as All India Kisan
Congress.
Ans 1. Bombay

2. Delhi

3. Lucknow

4. Agra

Q.5 The Government has approved the continuation of pension for freedom fighters for financial years 2021-22 to 2025-26. What
is the name of the scheme?
Ans 1. Swatantrata Sainik Samman Yojana (SSSY)

2. One Rank One Pension Scheme (OROP)

3. Swatantrata Sainik Yojana (SSY)

4. Veer Sainik Samman Yojna (VSSY)

Q.6 The 2024 Olympic Games will be hosted by ________.

Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Paris

3. New York

4. London

Q.7 When was the preamble to the Indian Constitution amended?

Ans 1. 1974

2. 1981

3. 1980

4. 1976

Q.8 Which of the following Pacts succeeded the Communal Award of 1932?
Ans 1. Ambedkar-CR Das Pact

2. Gandhi-Ambedkar Pact

3. Gandhi-Jinnah Pact

4. Jinnah-Nehru Pact

Q.9 What is the name of the process of gases being outpoured from the interior of the solid earth?
Ans 1. Gas evolution

2. Transpiration

3. Evaporation

4. Degassing
Q.10 'Sattriya' dance is predominantly practiced in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Assam

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.11 Which inert gas is used in double-glazed windows to fill the space between the panes?
Ans 1. Xenon

2. Helium

3. Radon

4. Argon

Q.12 What is it called in basketball when a shot goes through the basket without touching the rim or backboard?
Ans 1. Technical foul

2. Screen

3. Swish

4. Dime

Q.13 The ‘National Food for Work Programme’ was launched in the year 2004 by the Government of India in _____ most backward
districts of India.
Ans 1. 250

2. 150

3. 100

4. 200

Q.14 The Darjeeling hills in India are world famous for ________ cultivation.
Ans 1. mango

2. tea

3. cinnamon

4. banana

Q.15 Which of the following are major coal fields in India?

Ans 1. Jhunjhunu and Alwar

2. Coimbatore and Madurai

3. Satara and Pune

4. Jharia and Raniganj

Q.16 What is the title of the autobiography written by the renowned American professional boxer, Mike Tyson?
Ans 1. The Greatest: My Own Story

2. Undisputed Life: My Story

3. Undisputed Truth: My Autobiography

4. Undeniable Story: My Life

Q.17 The entire salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission are
charged on the ________.
Ans 1. Contingency fund of India

2. Reserve Bank of India

3. Consolidated fund of India

4. Special Fund of the UPSC

Q.18 How many Mahajanapadas were there during the age of Buddha?
Ans 1. 15

2. 26

3. 9

4. 16

Q.19 Which of the following groups represents essential amino acid?

Ans 1. Alanine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine

2. Glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine

3. Alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid

4. Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine

Q.20 Who was the founder of Jaipur-Atrauli gharana?

Ans 1. Alladiya Khan

2. Omkarnath Thakur

3. Abdul Karim Khan

4. Ali Baksh Khan

Q.21 Who had headed SEBI’s High Powered Steering Committee on Cyber Security post expansion to the six-member committee
in September 2022?
Ans 1. Shambhu Kumar

2. Simanchala Dash

3. Navin Kumar Singh

4. Manish Mani Tiwari

Q.22 Which of the following cell organelles is involved in apoptosis?

Ans 1. Golgi

2. ER

3. Lysosome

4. Mitochondria

Q.23 The tall sculptures on the Bharhut Stupa are the depictions of ____________.
Ans 1. Mahavira

2. Bodhisattvas

3. Buddha

4. Yakshas and Yakshinis

Q.24 Who among the following was the first chairperson of National Commission for Women and a senior congress leader who
passed away in 2022?
Ans 1. Jayanti Patnaik

2. Sheila Dikshit

3. Sushmita Dev

4. Ambika Soni

Q.25 Rajataranagini, the book authored by Kalhana in 12th Century was originally written in which of the following languages?
Ans 1. Shaurseni

2. Sanskrit

3. Tamil

4. Telugu

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In an examination, there were two papers, A and B, and the maximum mark in each of the two papers was 10. However, the
weights assigned to papers A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, respectively. Jonathan scored 8 out of 10 in Paper A and an
overall 70% in the examination. How much did he score in Paper B out of 10?
Ans 1. 6.5

2. 6

3. 5

4. 5.5

Q.2 If the surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 9 : 49, then the ratio of their volumes is:
Ans 1.

Q.3 A shopkeeper gives a discount of 15% on the marked price of an article. If the selling price is ₹8,500, then the discount on it
will be ________.
Ans 1. ₹1,500

2. ₹1,800

3. ₹1,600

4. ₹1,200

Q.4 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 4.

(i) 67920598
(ii) 618703592
(iii) 618703594
(iv) 67920590
Ans 1. (ii)

2. (iv)

3. (i)

4. (iii)

Q.5 Rama sold a car costing ₹4,00,000 to Sansar at a loss of 20%. What is the selling price (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 3,50,000

2. 3,20,000

3. 4,80,000

4. 3,80,000

Q.6 Sandeep spends 32% of his annual income on food, 20% of the remaining income on travelling, and 35% of the remaining
income on clothes, and still saves ₹70,720 per year. What is the annual income (in ₹) of Sandeep?
Ans 1. 3,75,000

2. 4,50,000

3. 2,00,000

4. 5,44,000

Q.7 Reena makes a profit of 20% by selling pens at a certain price. If she charges ₹5 more on each pen, she will gain 40%. The
initial selling price of one pen was:
Ans 1. ₹20

2. ₹25

3. ₹30

4. ₹35
Q.8 Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 5, and their sum is 56. Find the sum of the first and third numbers.
Ans 1. 24

2. 16

3. 20

4. 12

Q.9 Find the area of a right angle whose base is 15 cm and hypotenuse is 17 cm.
Ans
1.

Q.10 Three solid iron cubes of edges 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm are melted together to make a new cube. It is observed that 496 cm3
of the melted material is lost due to improper handling. The area (in cm2) of the whole surface of the newly formed cube is:
Ans 1. 1176

2. 3375

3. 1331

4. 2197

Q.11 Reshma covers 45 km at a speed of 15 km/h by bicycle, 80 km at a speed of 40 km/h by car, and another 6 km at a speed of 2
km/h on foot. Find her average speed for the whole journey (correct to 2 decimal places).
Ans 1. 18.36 km/h

2. 43.50 km/h

3. 15.25 km/h

4. 16.38 km/h

Q.12 A person crosses a road 350 metres wide in 70 seconds. His speed (in km/h) is:
Ans 1. 19

2. 17

3. 15

4. 18

Q.13 In an election, the total number of valid votes cast was 3,75,000. Candidate A secured 48% of the valid votes, with the rest of
the valid votes going to the winner, Candidate B. By how many valid votes did Candidate B win over Candidate A?
Ans 1. 15,000

2. 13,500

3. 15,250

4. 14,750

Q.14 A shopkeeper offers 25% discount on all the toys. He offers a further discount of 5% on the reduced price to those
customers who pay in cash. How much does a customer have to pay (in ₹) in cash for a toy of ₹510? (Correct to two decimal
places)
Ans 1. 363.38

2. 360.38

3. 146.25

4. 250.65
Q.15 How many numbers less than 1,000 are multiples of both 7 and 11?
Ans 1. 11

2. 13

3. 12

4. 10

Q.16 The percentage profit earned by selling an article for ₹1,910 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same
article for ₹1,690. At what price (in ₹) should the article be sold to make a 12% profit?
Ans 1. 2,106

2. 2,160

3. 2,016

4. 2,610

Q.17 Shweta spends 21% of her monthly salary on house rent, 14% on education, and 13% on entertainment, and still saves
₹5,408. What is her monthly salary (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 10,400

2. 14,000

3. 12,400

4. 9,150

Q.18 What equal instalment of annual payment (in ₹) will discharge a debt that is due as ₹624 at the end of 5 years at 2% per
annum simple interest?
Ans 1. 120

2. 150

3. 180

4. 240

Q.19 What annual installment will discharge a debt of ₹5,460 due in 5 years at 10% simple interest per annum?
Ans 1. ₹1,200

2. ₹910

3. ₹1,092

4. ₹950

Q.20 In nine games, A wins five games with score differences of 12, 3, 8, 4 and 1, while in the remaining four games, he loses with
score differences of –4, –1, –2 and –3. The average score difference of A in all the nine games is:
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

Q.21 Three partners decided to start a business. They decided to donate 10% of the profit to a charity organisation and then the
remaining profit would be shared among first, second and third partner in the ratio 1 : 2 : 2. The total profit received was
₹1,80,000. Find the share of the first partner.
Ans 1. ₹31,800

2. ₹29,600

3. ₹33,200

4. ₹32,400
Q.22 From a container having pure milk, 40% is replaced by water and the process is repeated thrice. At the end of the third
operation, the purity of milk is:
Ans 1. 21.6%

2. 22.7%

3. 18.6%

4. 23.4%

Q.23 A policeman chases a thief on a straight road. The policeman catches the thief in 15 minutes if he drives with a speed of 60
km/h and catches the thief in 0.5 hours if he drives with a speed 45 km/h. What should be his driving speed (in km/h) to
catch the thief in just 10 minutes?
Ans 1. 75

2. 70

3. 90

4. 65

Q.24 ₹50,000 is deposited in a bank account. There was already some money in the account. Now the bank gives ₹7,500 as
simple interest in a year. The rate of simple interest is 4.5% per annum. How much money (in ₹) was already there in the
account?
Ans 1. 1,66,666.67

2. 1,16,666.67

3. 1,13,333.33

4. 1,33,333.33

Q.25 A and B can complete a piece of work in 25 days and 55 days, respectively. The total number of days (in whole number) to
complete the work, if A and B both work together, is:
Ans 1. 21

2. 22

3. 20

4. 18

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Within the walled palace, rows of attractive food stalls, souvenir bouteques and entertainment platforms have been erected
by the prominent delegations.
Ans 1. prominent

2. souvenir

3. erected

4. bouteques

Q.2 Choose the sentence that contains correct spellings.

Ans 1. Geeta is unable to ricall the events of five years ago in comparison to her brother, Mohit who can recollect the memories of his
childhood.
2. Geeta is unable to recall the events of five years ago in comparison to her brother, Mohit who can recollect the memories of
his childhood.
3. Geeta is unable to rekall the events of five years ago in comparison to her brother, Mohit who can recollect the memories of
his childhood.
4. Geeta is unable to recal the events of five years ago in comparison to her brother, Mohit who can recollect the memories of
his childhood.
Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Taking the summer job proved to be ____________ for Anand’s visa applications.
Ans 1. a blessing in disguise

2. come in high

3. come up

4. on the contrary

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank

Philosophers dating all the way back to Plato and the Ancient Greeks________ placed significant emphasis on education.
Ans 1. have been

2. has

3. have

4. was

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The Russia-Ukraine war has caused chaos.

Ans 1. Pitilessness

2. Orderliness

3. Havoc

4. Modesty

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Extingish

2. Dependent

3. Announcement

4. Extravagant

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Last month tomatoes were quite cheap.

Ans 1. Costly

2. Insufficient

3. Less

4. Inexpensive

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The furniture displayed a wonderful combination of elegance and practicality.
Ans 1. Glory

2. Simplicity

3. Magnificence

4. Gracelessness

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Retreat
Ans 1. Withdraw

2. Dishonour

3. Advance

4. Destruct
Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

That which cannot be satisfied

Ans 1. Prickly

2. Drastic

3. Stubborn

4. Insatiable

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Ritika closed the box quickly.
Ans 1. The box had closed quickly by Ritika.

2. The box has been closed by Ritika quickly.

3. The box was closed by Ritika quickly.

4. The box is quickly closed by Ritika.

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
Bhavin said, 'I will take you now.'
Ans 1. Bhavin said that he will be taking me then.

2. Bhavin said that he would take me then.

3. Bhavin said that he will take you then.

4. Bhavin said that he has to take me now.

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Hard but liable to be easily broken

Ans 1. Stagnant

2. Rudiment

3. Fragmentary

4. Brittle

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence.
Dinisha visits her mother once in a blue moon.
Ans 1. Very frequently

2. Every week

3. Every month

4. Very rarely

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

They were sure of their victory.

Ans 1. Doubtful

2. Confident

3. Imprudent

4. Vengeful
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The food industry in India accounts for about 26 percent of the gross domestic product (GDP) and will be one of the
________1________ growth areas in the years ahead. This has given ________2______ to international trade but has also increased
the responsibility to achieve the appropriate level of _____3______ in terms of sanitary and phytosanitary protection. Further, the
Indian Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006, reflects a major shift in food laws and seeks to provide greater consumer protection by
_________4_______ the safety and wholesomeness of food at all stages of the food chain. This changing scenario has widened the
scope and ________5______ career options in this area.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1
Ans 1. minor

2. major

3. superior

4. inferior

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2
Ans 1. motivation

2. impetus

3. energy

4. assurance

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3
Ans 1. welfare

2. immunity

3. danger

4. safety
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4
Ans 1. manipulating

2. contradicting

3. ensuring

4. entangling

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5
Ans 1. Intensified

2. increased

3. emphasised

4. enlarged

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) has recently released its ‘Living Planet Report 2022’ – this finds a 69% decline in wildlife
populations between 1970 and 2018. ‘Vertebrate wildlife groups have fallen by two-thirds globally while freshwater species have
shrunk by 83%. One million planets and animals face extinction – about 2.5% of birds, mammals, amphibians, reptiles and fish have
gone forever. The crisis is caused by the Anthropocene, our era of sprawling human impacts, extending from heating Earth’s
atmosphere to making oceans acidic and destroying habitat. Many animals inhabit trees, nooks and crannies in forests across Earth –
yet, every year, we destroy ten million hectares of forestlands. Our greenhouse gas emissions warm the world, causing extreme
weather events, droughts, heatwaves, wildfires and the collapse of productive plants. This forces wildlife to travel, seeking water and
food. As they wander, they face human-animal conflicts over resources. We have a few consolations of metal and plastic to amuse
ourselves with through this destruction – the animals of the Anthropocene have none.
However, losing them has huge implications for humanity. According to the World Economic Forum, an analysis of 163 industry
sectors shows over half the world’s GDP is dependent on nature and ecosystem services performed by animals. About $44 trillion of
economic value generation comes from such services- the World Bank finds their collapse could cause a $2.7 trillion annual decline in
global GDP by 2030, South Asia among the worst-hit. Alongside, without our fellow species, we lose the wonders and beauty of the
world.
There are solutions to halt this growing loss. We can rejuvenate wild habitat, protect humans sharing lands with animals and respect
wildlife’s need or peace. Thinking about animals helps us understand the alchemy of existence.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.
Ans 1. Animal Life in India

2. Birds and their Life

3. Animals in the Anthropocene

4. World Wildlife Fund and India

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 How much forestland, according to the passage, is destroyed every year?
Ans 1. Two and half billion hectares

2. Ten million hectares

3. Two-and-a-half percent of land

4. Twenty-seven trillion hectares

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the central theme of the passage.
Ans 1. For peace and economic well-being, man should not harm animals.

2. Forest protection should be taken care of by the governments.

3. Animals and humans should come to an agreement to live together.

4. As GDP growth depends on animals, we should replace them.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 As per the World Economic Forum, half the world’s GDP depends on_________.
Ans 1. birds

2. animals

3. anthropocene

4. forests

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for human-animal conflict?
Ans 1. Heatwaves

2. Excessive love of animals

3. Destruction of forest land

4. Animal’s travel for food

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 20/06/2024
Exam Time 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘BONE’ is written as ‘619189’, and ‘CASH’ is written as ‘752312’. How will ‘DAWN’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. 851518

2. 852718

3. 751615

4. 751517
Q.2 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.3 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All mangoes are fruits.
Some mangoes are pears.
All pears are vegetables.
Conclusions:
I. Some mangoes are vegetables.
II. Some fruits are vegetables.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.4 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
_ _ J R _ J R _ J _ R _ RR_
Ans 1. JRRJJRJ

2. JJRRJRJ

3. RRRRRJJ

4. RJRRJJJ

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘BROWSE’ is written as ‘ZJMEIW’ and ‘ROAD’ is written as ‘JMAX’. How will ‘BUDGET’ be written
in that language?
Ans 1. ZGXWHU

2. ZGXHWU

3. ZGXUWH

4. ZGXUHW
Q.7 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
Based on the above, how is J related to T if ‘T – M + H ÷ K × J’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Brother’s wife

3. Mother’s sister

4. Mother

Q.8 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
CASTLE : SCALET :: PRIMED : IPREDM :: PHONES : ?
Ans 1. OPHESN

2. OPHSEN

3. OHPESN

4. OHPSEN

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Eye : See :: Skin : ?
Ans 1. Hot

2. Soft

3. Hard

4. Touch

Q.10 If ‘+’ means ‘division’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ means ‘addition’ and ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’, then what is the value of
the following expression?
19 − 6 ÷ 306 + 17 × 9
Ans 1. 126

2. 218

3. 123

4. 212

Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Snake : Bite :: Bee : ?
Ans 1. Buzz

2. Hive

3. Sting

4. Honey

Q.12 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Grouping
2. Grotesque
3. Grovel
4. Ground
5. Groundless
Ans 1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

3. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

4. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
Q.13 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(2, 8, 4), (7, 343, 49), (4, 64, ?)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 8

2. 32

3. 16

4. 12

Q.14 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 5.

Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 6

Q.15 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
4, 14, 34, 64, ?, 154
Ans 1. 114

2. 94

3. 124

4. 104

Q.16 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Only a few ladders are walls.
Some ladders are vans.
All vans are cans.
Conclusions:
I. Some cans are ladders.
II. All walls being cans is a possibility.
III. No vans can be walls.
Ans 1. All conclusions, I, II and III, follow

2. Both conclusions II and III follow

3. Both conclusions I and III follow

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.17 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Manufacturing
2. Raw material
3. Consumption
4. Material processing
5. Distribution
Ans 1. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

2. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

3. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

4. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
Q.18 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.19 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
_UG_HU_EH_GE_ _G_
Ans 1. GEHUEHU

2. HGEUGHE

3. HEGUHUE

4. EHUGHGE

Q.20 In a certain code language,

A+ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to V if ‘R + P × Q ÷ S – T × V’?

Ans 1. Daughter’s husband

2. Wife’s mother

3. Son’s daughter

4. Son’s mother
Q.21 ‘M $ N’ means ‘M is the son of N’,
‘M + N’ means ‘M is the daughter-in-law of N’,
‘M ÷ N’ means ‘M is the husband of N’,
‘M & N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’,
‘M = N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’.
If ‘G $ C = A ÷ B + D & E’, then how is E related to C?
Ans 1. Son

2. Father

3. Brother

4. Father’s brother

Q.22 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All socks are clothes.
All clothes are shoes.
Some shoes are gloves.
Conclusions:
I. Some shoes are socks.
II. Some gloves are clothes.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.23 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

1. Peril
2. Perfume
3. Permission
4. Perform
5. Period
6. Perplex
Ans 1. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2, 6

2. 4, 5, 1, 2, 6, 3

3. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 6

4. 4, 2, 5, 6, 3, 1

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘BLOW’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘4258’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 2

4. 5

Q.25 In a certain code language. ‘JAMB’ is written as ‘SBPA’ and ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘ANBI’. How will ‘JERK’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. SXKR

2. SXRK

3. SRKX

4. SKRX

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 When a non-minister proposes a bill, it is called:

Ans 1. Government Bill

2. Money Bill

3. Private Member’s Bill

4. Non-Money Bill
Q.2 The Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament (Amendment) ordinance, 2020 reduced the salary of
Members of Parliament by _______ for a period of one year commencing from 1 April 2020 to meet the exigencies arising
out of COVID-19.
Ans 1. 40%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 20%

Q.3 Ricky Kej, a globally acclaimed musician from India, won the 57th Grammy Award for which of the following albums?
Ans 1. Divine Tides

2. Winds of Samsara

3. Mountain Dreams

4. Mystic Mountains

Q.4 Which of the following bacteria grow in milk and convert it to curd?
Ans 1. Salmonella typhi

2. Salmonella lactae

3. E. curdae

4. Lactic acid bacteria

Q.5 Anantha R Krishnan is associated with which musical instrument?

Ans 1. Tabla

2. Mridangam

3. Drums

4. Violin

Q.6 Which Indian award was established in the year 1982, to promote and encourage scientific efforts in the field of environment
and ecology?
Ans 1. B P Pal National Environment Fellowship Award for Biodiversity

2. Sanjay Gandhi Award for Environment and Ecology

3. Pitambar Pant National Environment Fellowship Award

4. Indira Gandhi ParyavaranPuraskar

Q.7 Which of the following Acts abolished the East India Company’s monopoly of trade with China?
Ans 1. Charter Act of 1833

2. Charter Act of 1853

3. Government of India Act 1858

4. Charter Act of 1793

Q.8 Sea ice helps determine Earth's climate. According to this, what percentage of the sunlight falling on sea ice is reflected
back into space?
Ans 1. 80%

2. 75%

3. 85%

4. 70%

Q.9 Which option is NOT correct in case of appointment of a Governor?

Ans 1. Cannot hold any office of profit during his tenure

2. Should be at least 35 years

3. Appointed for six years

4. Citizen of India
Q.10 By the Act of _________, the Governor General in Council was given the power to legislate for the whole of the British
territories in India.
Ans 1. Charter Act of 1813

2. Charter Act of 1833

3. Charter Act of 1853

4. Charter Act of 1793

Q.11 At which of the following places in the Indus valley civilisation a brick structure has been identified as a dockyard meant for
berthing ships and handling cargo?
Ans 1. Mohanjodaro

2. Rakhigarhi

3. Lothal

4. Dhaulavira

Q.12 Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Ans 1. Tap water

2. Distilled water

3. Water from pond

4. Water from hand pump

Q.13 The Karbi tribe, which celebrates the cultural festival ‘Rongker’, belongs to the Indian state of _________.
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Assam

3. Maharashtra

4. Uttarakhand

Q.14 Harisena, the author of Prayag Prashasti, was the court poet of which of the following Gupta emperors?
Ans 1. Kumaragupta I

2. Skandagupta

3. Ramagupta

4. Samudraguta

Q.15 Which of the following schemes was launched by the Chhattisgarh Government on the occasion of the International Day of
Forests in 2023?
Ans 1. Mukhya Mantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana

2. Krishi Vikas Yojana

3. Farmer income scheme

4. Mukhya Mantri Krishi Yojana

Q.16 The census operations of India had been carried out in ________ phases according to census 2011.
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 3

4. 7

Q.17 Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) in December 2022?
Ans 1. Gajender Sharma

2. Dinesh Menon

3. Santosh Kumar Yadav

4. Anshul Mishra
Q.18 Which of the following duties is mentioned as the 11th Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. To protect the integrity and unity of India

2. To develop a scientific temper

3. To provide opportunities for education to children between 6-14 years of age

4. To cherish and preserve the rich national heritage of our culture

Q.19 Which of the following dynasties of Delhi Sultanate founded Agra city?
Ans 1. Lodi dynasty

2. Sayyid dynasty

3. Khalji dynasty

4. Tughluq dynasty

Q.20 ________ is a state of deprivation that reflects the inability of an individual to satisfy basic needs for a sustained, healthy
and reasonably productive living.
Ans 1. Poverty

2. Illiteracy

3. Ignorance

4. Bondage

Q.21 The National Youth Day or the ‘Yuwa Diwas’ is celebrated on which day in India?
Ans 1. 12 January

2. 14 April

3. 26 November

4. 26 January

Q.22 On whose advice does the Governor appoint the ministers?

Ans 1. Vice-President

2. President

3. Chief Minister

4. Prime Minister

Q.23 According to the Carbon Brief Review 2019 data, India is the world's _____ largest emitter of greenhouse gases (GHGs).
Ans 1. fifth

2. seventh

3. ninth

4. third

Q.24 Which is the world’s largest PV Solar Park located in one of the Indian states?
Ans 1. Harshad Solar Park

2. Pavagada Solar Park

3. Bhadla Solar Park

4. Dholera Solar Park

Q.25 Who among the following wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
Ans 1. Mary Kom

2. Milkha Singh

3. Kapil Dev

4. Sachin Tendulkar

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The dimensions of a rectangular field when extended by 6 metres are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and when decreased by 6 metres
are in the ratio of 2 : 1. Find the dimensions of the field.
Ans 1. 14 metres, 10 metres

2. 18 metres, 12 metres

3. 16 metres, 12 metres

4. 10 metres, 6 metres

Q.2

Ans 1. 40

2. 2

3. -16

4. 10

Q.3 The radii of the two concentric circles are 27 cm and 18 cm. The area (in cm2) of the closed figure bounded by the
boundaries of the circle is:
Ans 1.

Q.4 A retailer buys 220 chocolates from a wholesaler for the marked price of 198 items. He then sells each chocolate at a
discount of 3.7%. What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1. 7%

2. 7.2%

3. 6%

4. 6.3%

Q.5 In a division sum, the divisor is 13 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 39, then the dividend is:
Ans 1. 4,240

2. 4,800

3. 4,251

4. 4,576

Q.6 A six-digit number is divisible by 33. If 21 is added to the number, then the new number which formed is also divisible by:
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

Q.7 Pooja, Chameli and Anju have a total of ₹450 in their purses. Pooja has ₹50 more than Chameli. Anju has two times what
Pooja has. How much do Pooja, Chameli and Anju, respectively, have in their purses?
Ans 1. ₹125, ₹50 and ₹275

2. ₹100, ₹50 and ₹300

3. ₹150, ₹75 and ₹225

4. ₹125, ₹75 and ₹250

Q.8 A bus covers 1200 km in 30 hours. What is its average speed in m/s?
Ans
1.

Q.9 If the vertical angle of an isosceles triangle is 42°, then the measure of the other two angles will be:
Ans 1. 59° and 59°

2. 69° and 69°

3. 79° and 79°

4. 89°and 89°

Q.10 If 8 men or 16 women or 32 boys can do a piece of work in 8 months, then in how many months can 4 men, 4 women and 4
boys together complete the work?
Ans
1.

Q.11 A bus covers the first 70 km of its journey in 40 minutes and the remaining 60 km in 30 minutes. The average speed of the
bus, in km/h, is:
Ans
1.

Q.12 P and Q can complete a job in 4 days and 12 days, respectively. They work on alternate days with P starting the job. In how
many days will the job be completed?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 8 days

3. 3 days

4. 4 days
Q.13

Ans 1. 2004

2. 2002

3. 2003

4. 2005

Q.14 The dimensions of a cuboid are 8 cm, 12 cm and 14 cm. Find the total surface area.
Ans 1. 753 cm2

2. 754 cm2

3. 752 cm2

4. 751 cm2

Q.15 The marked price of a grinder was ₹3,000, and the dealer offered successive discounts of 20% and 15% on it. For how much
did he sell the grinder?
Ans 1. ₹2,040

2. ₹2,000

3. ₹2,200

4. ₹2,400

Q.16

Ans 1. 1298

2. 1125

3. 1920

4. 1331

Q.17 In an election between two candidates, the first gets 75% of the total valid votes. If 20% votes are invalid among 2,48,000
votes, then how many votes were cast in the favour of the other candidate?
Ans 1. 56600

2. 46800

3. 53800

4. 49600

Q.18 Anita saves 20% of her income. If her income is increased by 30% and she saves 25% of the new income, by what
percentage will her actual savings increase?
Ans 1. 83%

2. 62.50%

3. 65.20%

4. 70%
Q.19 The radius of a circle is increased in such a way that its circumference increases by 7%. As a result, the area of the circle
also increases by:
Ans 1. 12.20%

2. 10.28%

3. 14.49%

4. 18.69%

Q.20 What annual instalment will discharge a debt of Rs.3,658 due in four years at 12% simple interest per annum?
Ans 1. Rs.725

2. Rs.825

3. Rs.750

4. Rs.775

Q.21 Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose sides are 16 cm each.
Ans
1.

Q.22

Ans 1. -281450

2. -281250

3. 271250

4. 281350

Q.23 Sahil covers a distance of 96 km at the speed of 16 km/h and covers another distance at the speed of 21 km/h in 5 hours.
What is his average speed (in km/h)? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1. 19.45

2. 18.50

3. 18.27

4. 17.47

Q.24 How many times does the hour hand and minute hand of a clock coincide in half a day?
Ans 1. 44

2. 11

3. 22

4. 55

Q.25 Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If 3 is added to the smaller and 7 is subtracted from the larger number, they are in the
ratio 1 : 1. Find the numbers.
Ans 1. 60, 75

2. 20, 25

3. 40, 50

4. 55, 44

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
I said to Amit, “I am not participating in the annual function.”
Ans 1. I told Amit that he was not participating in the annual function.

2. I said Amit that I was not participating in the annual function.

3. I told Amit that I was not participating in the annual function.

4. I told to Amit that I was not participating in the annual function.

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Jim will translate it.
Ans 1. It will be translated by Jim.

2. It is translated by Jim.

3. It will be translate by Jim.

4. It would translate by Jim.

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An absolute government by one man

Ans 1. Communism

2. Autocracy

3. Supremacy

4. Aristocracy

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person in charge of the old people’s home or a hostel

Ans 1. Watchman

2. Guard

3. Warden

4. Warder

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Gift of the gab

Ans 1. Very beautiful

2. Attached to God

3. Talent for speaking

4. Someone’s precious gift

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The novel was being read by many people.
Ans 1. The novel was read by many people.

2. Many people had read the novel.

3. Many people were reading the novel.

4. The novel is being read by many people.

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Immediately

2. Parallel

3. Occurence

4. Grateful
Q.8 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
He has been (1) watered the plants (2) for one hour. (3) No error
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We must try and incorporate positive thinking in our lives to _____________ countless benefits it has to offer.
Ans 1. derive

2. ignore

3. release

4. contain

Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the following sentence.
I like drinking lamonade.
Ans 1. Lemenade

2. Lemonaid

3. Lemonade

4. Limonade

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Call it a day
Ans 1. Stop working on something

2. The time at the end of the day

3. Start working on something

4. Start a day badly

Q.12 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

The imposition of lock down proved to be a ________ for many students who were not prepared for the examinations.
Ans 1. blessing in disguise

2. piece of cake

3. chip on their shoulder

4. feather in cap

Q.13 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The toast was raised in honour of the chairman yesterday at hall.

Ans 1. yesterday at hall.

2. raised in honour

3. of the chairman

4. The toast was

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Miserable
Ans 1. Depressing

2. Wealthy

3. Cheerful

4. Decorated
Q.15 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
About 200 birds were driven out of their habitats by the City Council based on a Health Department recommendation.
Ans 1. A Health Department recommendation was the basis for the City Council to drive out 200 birds from their habitats.

2. The City Council has driven about 200 birds out of their habitats based on a Health Department recommendation.

3. The City Council drove about 200 birds out of their habitats, based on a Health Department recommendation.

4. About 200 birds is driven out of their habitats based on a Health Department recommendation.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Tim Wright knows all about making companies more efficient. His firm, Check-up, sends ‘secret shoppers’ into retail and leisure
companies in order to make sure that customers are receiving good service. After (1)_________ visit, the secret shoppers prepare a
report for the company to let them know how the service was. “Companies like to know”, says Mr Wright, “that (2)____________
customers go into a store just a few minutes before closing time, they will still get good service.”

Check-up (3)___________ set up in the west of England and after two years moved to London so it could offer a nationwide service.
(4)________ the last three years, Check-up’s profits have increased dramatically as companies have come to realise the great
importance of good customer service. Last week, an important new contract was (5)_________ with a major supermarket chain.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. there

2. our

3. their

4. his

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. when

2. while

3. as

4. then
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. are

2. was

3. is

4. has

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. From

2. For

3. During

4. Until

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. signing

2. have signed

3. signed

4. sign
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Seeking to move towards a cashless economy, the government has proposed income tax benefits for people making payments
through credit or debit cards, besides doing away with transaction charges on the purchase of petrol, gas and rail tickets with plastic
money. This is the first serious effort to tackle the predominance of cash in India’s economy. India is a hugely cash-dependent
economy. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rupees 21,000 crore in currency operations costs while the citizens
of Delhi alone spend Rupees 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash.
The scale of this burden is unique to India considering that it is among the most cash-intensive economies with a cash-to-GDP ratio of
12%, almost four times as much as other markets such as Brazil (3.93%), Mexico (5.3%) and South Africa (3.73%). Moreover, cash
transactions and black money are directly linked, since a cash trail is nigh impossible to track. As such, electronic transactions and the
ease of audit they afford should make the government’s job much easier in terms of curbing illegal transactions.
What the switchover to payments by credit and debit cards means is that the payer must have money in the bank. This can be
facilitated through a greater recourse to direct cash transfer of subsidies to banks. But, those who avail of this may not belong to the
section that pays income tax. Given that less than three per cent of our population pays income tax, transactions by plastic cards may
not amount to much. But, the scene is changing. For instance, payments by mobiles have grown from just 860 transactions in
November 2010 to 4.4 million in August 2014. With the spread of Internet and expansion of e-commerce, online payments are fast
catching on among the middle class. These are mostly cashless transactions. It is also necessary to remember that a move towards a
cashless economy will eliminate the cost of printing and distributing cash. If to these expenses are added the cost of storage and
maintaining the currencies in the over 60,000 ATMs, the outlay becomes prohibitive. The answer is a buoyant economy that will
reduce the numbers of those who still regard cash as the only reliable legal tender.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 How would e-transactions help the Government of India?
Ans 1. Increasing the cash transportation charges at government level

2. Increasing the paperwork of the government

3. Increasing the audit work at government level

4. Curbing illegal transactions

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Seeking to move towards a cashless economy, the government has proposed income tax benefits for people making payments
through credit or debit cards, besides doing away with transaction charges on the purchase of petrol, gas and rail tickets with plastic
money. This is the first serious effort to tackle the predominance of cash in India’s economy. India is a hugely cash-dependent
economy. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rupees 21,000 crore in currency operations costs while the citizens
of Delhi alone spend Rupees 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash.
The scale of this burden is unique to India considering that it is among the most cash-intensive economies with a cash-to-GDP ratio of
12%, almost four times as much as other markets such as Brazil (3.93%), Mexico (5.3%) and South Africa (3.73%). Moreover, cash
transactions and black money are directly linked, since a cash trail is nigh impossible to track. As such, electronic transactions and the
ease of audit they afford should make the government’s job much easier in terms of curbing illegal transactions.
What the switchover to payments by credit and debit cards means is that the payer must have money in the bank. This can be
facilitated through a greater recourse to direct cash transfer of subsidies to banks. But, those who avail of this may not belong to the
section that pays income tax. Given that less than three per cent of our population pays income tax, transactions by plastic cards may
not amount to much. But, the scene is changing. For instance, payments by mobiles have grown from just 860 transactions in
November 2010 to 4.4 million in August 2014. With the spread of Internet and expansion of e-commerce, online payments are fast
catching on among the middle class. These are mostly cashless transactions. It is also necessary to remember that a move towards a
cashless economy will eliminate the cost of printing and distributing cash. If to these expenses are added the cost of storage and
maintaining the currencies in the over 60,000 ATMs, the outlay becomes prohibitive. The answer is a buoyant economy that will
reduce the numbers of those who still regard cash as the only reliable legal tender.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 How does the spread of the internet and expansion of e-commerce help people?
Ans 1. Online payments don’t attract people at all.

2. Online payments are fast catching.

3. Online payments are expensive.

4. Online payments are slow catching.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the passage?
Ans 1. Payments by mobiles have grown from 860 transactions in 2010 to 4.4 million in 2014.

2. Less than 4% of our population pays income tax.

3. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rupees 21,000 crore in currency operations costs.

4. Citizens of Delhi alone spend Rupees 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 According to the author of the passage, which of the following is directly linked?
Ans 1. Black and white money

2. Credit transaction and black money

3. Cash and credit transactions

4. Cash transactions and black money

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 According to the author of the passage, what type of economy exists is India?
Ans 1. Dependent economy

2. Cash-intensive economy

3. Labour intensive economy

4. Developed economy
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 21/06/2024
Exam Time 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language,

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A ! B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A > B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father-in-law of B’,
‘A ^ B’ means ‘A is the mother-in-law of B’.
Based on the above, how is U related to A if
a)‘P > Q $ R > S ! T’,
b) ‘U # T’,
c)‘R # A’?
Ans 1. Father

2. Son

3. Mother’s brother

4. Mother’s father

Q.2 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some tables are chairs.
II. All desks are chairs.
III. No chair is a fan.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are tables.
II. Some fans are desks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.3 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 2.

Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 1

4. 6
Q.4 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
3, 14, 20, 31, ?, 48
Ans 1. 40

2. 37

3. 41

4. 39

Q.5 A and C are sisters. A is the daughter of D. D is the mother of B. How is A related to B?
Ans 1. Sisters

2. Grand Mother

3. Aunt

4. Mother

Q.6 Arrange the following countries according to world map from East to West.

1. Canada 2. Japan 3. India 4. Uzbekistan 5. Germany 6. Malaysia

Ans 1. 2, 6, 3, 4, 5, 1

2. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6

3. 1, 5, 4, 3, 6, 2

4. 2, 6, 4, 3, 1, 5

Q.7 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(2, 8, 100), (7, 2, 81), (4, 7, ?)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 98

2. 112

3. 124

4. 121

Q.8 Radha visits her brother Rohan, who stays with their father Prasant, mother Sarala and grandfather Raghuvir. Rohan has
two children, Binny and Champak. Binny's husband is Keshab, and Champak’s wife is Tina. Tina’s daughter helped Radha
to find their home. How is Tina’s daughter related to Rohan?
Ans 1. Son’s daughter

2. Daughter

3. Son

4. Son’s son

Q.9 In a code language, some statements are coded as follows:

1.“Economy growth level down” is coded as “ 77 42 11 36“.
2.“Slow percentage rate range” is coded as “ 55 91 23 82”.
3.“Economy growth rate index range” is coded as “ 77 64 91 11 82”.
4.“Economy range level down” is coded as “ 36 11 42 82”.
What is the code for “Growth”?
Ans 1. 42

2. 77

3. 64

4. 55

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘FEATURE’ is coded as 1001010 and ‘CANDID’ is coded as 101101. How will ‘HOLIDAY‘ be coded
in the same language?
Ans 1. 1010101

2. 1011001

3. 1010100

4. 1001101
Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘DESTROY’ is written as ‘DYORTSE’ and ‘EFFECTS’ is written as ‘ESTCEFF’. How will
‘FOUNDED’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. FDEDNUO

2. DEDNUOF

3. FOEDDNU

4. DFOUNDE

Q.12 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. All tables are charts.
II. Some charts are graphs.
III. Some graphs are pies.
Conclusions:
I. No table is a graph.
II. Some pies are charts.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.13 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
PORTRAY : YARTROP : : CONCEPT : TPECNOC : : REGULAR : ?
Ans 1. RAULGER

2. RRALUGE

3. RALUEGR

4. RALUGER

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Cat : Kitten :: Lion : ?
Ans 1. Cub

2. Shoal

3. Infant

4. Fawn

Q.15 The position of how many letters will change if each of the letters in the word CUSHION is arranged in alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Five

4. Six
Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘QUOD’ is written as ‘GCIT’ and ‘CRY’ is written as ‘UFY’. How will ‘QUIP’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. GCOH

2. GHOC

3. GCHO

4. GHCO

Q.18 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Autorickshaw
2. Car
3. Train
4. Bicycle
5. Bus
Ans 1. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

3. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3

4. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
Q.19 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All boxes are squares.
All squares are rectangles.
All rectangles are figures.
Conclusions:
I. All boxes are figures.
II. All squares are figures.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.20 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
_AT_RLA_ERL_ _E_ _A_ER
Ans 1. LETATRLT

2. LTERRLET

3. TLERLTLR

4. TTRLETLR

Q.21 Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks below will complete the letter series.
S_P__G_ISG_I__PI
Ans 1. GIPSSPG

2. SISSSPG

3. SISPSPG

4. GISPPSG

Q.22 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

4.
Q.23 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.24 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
36 + 8 × 184 − 23 ÷ 10 = 90
Ans 1. − and +

2. + and ×

3. ÷ and ×

4. ÷ and −

Q.25 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
ONGOING : HOIOHOO :: PROJECT : UDEKOSQ :: REPORTS : ?
Ans 1. TUSPQES

2. TUSOQFS

3. TUSPQFS

4. TUSOQES
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre in December 2022?
Ans 1. Justice Krishnendra Pratap Singh

2. Justice Hemant Gupta

3. Justice Ajay Kumar

4. Justice Vinod G Khandare

Q.2 Rickets is caused by deficiency of:

Ans 1. vitamin C

2. vitamin B

3. vitamin D

4. vitamin A

Q.3 ________ unemployment refers to the time lag between jobs when an individual is searching for a new job or is switching
between jobs.
Ans 1. Structural

2. Seasonal

3. Frictional

4. Technological

Q.4 In which of the following cities is the Agera festival celebrated?

Ans 1. Lucknow

2. Kolkata

3. Chennai

4. Mumbai

Q.5 In the context of British rule in India, who among the following became the first Governor-General after the post of Governor
was elevated to Governor-General of Bengal?
Ans 1. Warren Hastings

2. Lord William Bentinck

3. Lord Cornwallis

4. Lord Canning

Q.6 Who among the following wrote the book ‘Long Walk to Freedom’?
Ans 1. Barack Obama

2. Nelson Mandela

3. Mother Teresa

4. Winston Churchill

Q.7 Which metallic element is called ‘ferromagnetic’ because of its strong attraction?
Ans 1. Gold

2. Molybdenum

3. Aluminium

4. Iron

Q.8 Under Phase I of Mission COVID Suraksha, the Government of India had sanctioned an amount of ________, in November
2020.
Ans 1. ₹700 crores

2. ₹1,000 crores

3. ₹800 crores

4. ₹900 crores
Q.9 A western disturbance is the extra-tropical storm that brings rainfall over northeast India during winter. From which ocean
does this disturbance originate?
Ans 1. East Siberian Sea

2. Coral Sea

3. Mediterranean Sea

4. Arabian Sea

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT one of the Rabi crops?

Ans 1. Mustard

2. Cucumber

3. Wheat

4. Barley

Q.11 How many Lok Sabha seats are there for the state of Meghalaya?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.12 Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha after India’s Independence?
Ans 1. M Ananthasayanam

2. Ganesh V Mavalankar

3. MA Ayyangar

4. Meira Kumar

Q.13 The famous musician Vishnu Govind Jog is primarily associated with which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Violin

2. Veena

3. Flute

4. Tabla

Q.14 The Greek ambassador Megasthenes was sent to the court of Chandra Gupta Maurya by which of the following Greek
kings?
Ans 1. Antiochus

2. Seleucus I Nicator

3. Antigonus

4. Alexander

Q.15 The Finance Commission of India consists of ________.

Ans 1. a Chairperson and five other members

2. a Chairperson and four other members

3. a Chairperson and three other members

4. a Chairperson and two other members

Q.16 In the context of British rule in India, who among the following Governor-Generals created a professional cadre of company
servants making provisions for them for generous salaries?
Ans 1. Lord Dalhousie

2. Lord Cornwallis

3. Lord Mayo

4. Warren Hastings
Q.17 McMahon Line is the boundary line between India and ________.
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. China

3. Pakistan

4. Nepal

Q.18 Who unfurls the flag at Rajpath on the Republic Day?

Ans 1. The Prime Minister of India

2. The President of India

3. The Chief Minister of Delhi

4. The Chief of Defence Staff

Q.19 Sriharikota island is located in which of the following states?

Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Odisha

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.20 ‘Sacred Games’ is a novel written by which of the following writers?

Ans 1. Chetan Bhagat

2. Amitav Ghosh

3. Vikram Chandra

4. Rohinton Mistry

Q.21 Which glands help in digestion in the stomach?

Ans 1. Pineal

2. Gastric glands

3. Thyroid

4. Pituitary

Q.22 Who among the following was chosen by Shahjahan as his successor to the Mughal throne?
Ans 1. Dara Shikoh

2. Aurangzeb

3. Murad Bakhsh

4. Shah Shuja

Q.23 If the recipient of Employee provident Fund (EPF) withdrawal does not provide his PAN, TDS on the withdrawal will be
________, instead of the maximum marginal rate as per new budget of 2023.
Ans 1. 30%

2. 51%

3. 40%

4. 20%

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT a directive principle of international peace and security?
Ans 1. Create opportunities of employment for foreigners

2. Promotion of international peace and security

3. Encourage settlements of international disputes

4. Respect for international laws and treaty obligations

Q.25 Which of the following statements are true regarding the Ravana Phadi cave at Aihole.

1.Nataraja is the important structure at this site.

2.This Nataraja image is surrounded on the right by four large saptamatrikas and on the left by three large ones.
3.The figures have slim, graceful bodies with long oval faces.
4.The temple shows a distinct feature of Pandya architecture of mixing and incorporation of several styles.
Ans 1. 1, 3 and 4

2. 1, 2 and 4

3. 1, 2 and 3

4. 2, 3 and 4

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The difference between the simple interest on a sum of money for 3½ years at the rate of 12% per annum and simple interest
on the same sum of money for 4 ½ years at 10% per annum is ₹360. Find the sum(in ₹).
Ans 1. 16,000

2. 12,000

3. 14,000

4. 10,000

Q.2 What is the mean proportional of 45x4 and 5y2?

Ans
1.

Q.3 A person, while trading the shares of a particular company, observes that its price has gone down by 10% from the previous
day. In anticipation of increment on the next day, he holds it for the next day. But the share price further falls down by
another 8% of the previous day. Then he sells his shares and gets ₹12,420. How much could he have saved had he sold it
the previous day?
Ans 1. ₹1,080

2. ₹1,220

3. ₹1,260

4. ₹1,140
Q.4

Ans 1. ₹19,220

2. ₹19,210

3. ₹19,200

4. ₹19,230

Q.5 If x3 = 184 + y3 and x = 4 + y, then the value of (x + y) is (given that x > 0 and y > 0):
Ans
1.

Q.6 P drives a car for 5 hours and after every hour he doubles the speed. In the fifth hour, his speed is 128 km/h. What is his
average speed of the journey in km/h?
Ans 1. 52.6

2. 62.6

3. 49.6

4. 55.6

Q.7 The selling price of 84 items is equal to the cost price of 105 items. What is the percentage of profit gained in the
transaction?
Ans 1. 28%

2. 20%

3. 25%

4. 21%
Q.8

Ans
1.

Q.9

Ans 1. 112

2. 95

3. 75

4. 45

Q.10 On a machine there is 12% trade discount on the marked price of ₹2,56,000, but the machine is sold for ₹2,05,000 after
giving a cash discount. How much is this cash discount (in %)? (Rounded to the nearest whole number)
Ans 1. 9%

2. 10%

3. 8%

4. 12%

Q.11 Simplify the following.

(x – 3y)3 + 27(y3 – xy2)
Ans 1. x3 – 3x2y

2. x3 – 9x2y

3. x3 – 27y3 – 9x2y

4. x3 – 27y3 – 9x2y + 27xy2 + 27y2 – 27y2

Q.12 The ages of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 7, respectively. After 8 years, the ratio of their ages will be 2 : 3. What is the sum of
the ages of A and B (in years)?
Ans 1. 38

2. 36

3. 42

4. 44
Q.13 The number 1254216 is divisible by which of the following numbers?
Ans 1. 16

2. 8

3. 11

4. 5

Q.14 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 36 ?

Ans 1. 1542

2. 8840

3. 55512

4. 96272

Q.15 ∆ABC is inscribed in a circle with centre O. If AB = 35 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 37 cm, then what is the circumradius of a
triangle?
Ans 1. 18.5 cm

2. 13.5 cm

3. 16.5 cm

4. 14.5 cm

Q.16 3 men can finish a work in 10 days, 4 women can finish it in 12 days and 10 qualified workers can finish it in 6 days. In how
many days is the work finished by 4 men, 4 women and 4 qualified workers, working together every day?
Ans
1.

Q.17

Ans 1. decreased by 2.57%

2. decreased by 1.57%

3. increased by 1.57%

4. increased by 2.57%

Q.18 Veena and Karmesh were at different places in Delhi. They fixed a meeting point to meet to settle some issue. Veena started
her journey at 8:00 a.m. from place A and reached place B at 4:00 p.m. and Karmesh started moving from place B 2 hours
later than the time Veena started and could reach place A at 5:00 p.m. the same day, via the same route. At what time will
Karmesh and Veena meet each other?
Ans 1. 1:24 p.m.

2. 1:00 p.m.

3. 12:48 p.m.

4. 1:46 p.m.
Q.19 In a parallelogram ABCD, if vertices are in respective order and diagonals AC and BD intersect at O, then which of the
following is NOT always correct?
Ans 1. ∆BOC ≅ ∆AOD

2. ∆ABC ≅ ∆ADC

3. ∆AOD ≅ ∆COD

4. ∆AOB ≅ ∆COD

Q.20 Rashi travelled a distance of 400 km at an average speed of 50 km/h. She covers the first half distance in the first lag in 2
hours, while she covers another lag at half the speed of that of the first lag in 1 hour. What is the speed (in km/h) of the
remaining distance?
Ans 1. 45

2. 60

3. 30

4. 50

Q.21

Ans 1. 5544 mm2

2. 5540 mm2

3. 5546 mm2

4. 5542 mm2

Q.22 What is the average of the first 10 prime numbers?

Ans 1. 12.1

2. 13.1

3. 13.9

4. 12.9

Q.23 The following table shows the % of marks obtained by three students in three different subjects in a school exam. (The
maximum marks in each subject are shown in the table at the top)

Find the total marks obtained by Varun and Seema together in Science.
Ans 1. 178

2. 189

3. 126

4. 145

Q.24 Two articles were sold for Rs.3,000 each, with no loss and profit in the entire transaction. If one was sold at a profit of 25%,
then the loss incurred on the second article is ________.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.25 Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 18 hours and 27 hours, respectively, whereas pipe C can empty the full tank in 54 hours. All
three pipes are opened together, but pipe C is closed after 12 hours. In how much time (in minutes) will the one-third of the
remaining part of the tank be filled by A and B together?
Ans 1. 24

2. 36

3. 30

4. 15

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence with its ANTONYM.

The teacher filled the students’ minds with pessimistic thoughts about their futures.
Ans 1. discouraging

2. desperate

3. cynical

4. bright

Q.2

Ans 1. a, d, c, e, f, i, h, g, k, j, b

2. a, d, e, k, f, i, h, b, g, j, c

3. a, d, c, e, g, f, i, h, b, k, j

4. a, d, b, e, f, i, h, c, g, k, j

Q.3 Select the idiom that means the same as the underlined segment in the given sentence.
She forgot to apply for her internship abroad due to the ongoing marriage preparations she had to help with and now that
opportunity is lost .
Ans 1. Missing the boat

2. Burning the midnight oil

3. Treading on thin ice

4. Beat about the bush

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment.
Ruby fell victim to the green eyed monster.
Ans 1. jealousy

2. love

3. hatred

4. flattery

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Jack loves the Christmas break.
Ans 1. The Christmas break would loved by Jack.

2. The Christmas break is being loved by Jack.

3. The Christmas break is loved by Jack.

4. The Christmas break was loved by Jack.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
The boss of our organisation is considered a jack of all trades.
Ans 1. Doing several different jobs instead of specialising in one

2. Engaged in gambling

3. Knowing nothing but boasting

4. Innocence about everything

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Have they broken the car?

Ans 1. Has they been broken by the car?

2. Have they been broken by the car?

3. Has the car been broken by them?

4. Have the car been broken by them?

Q.8 Select the sentence that does NOT have a spelling error.
Ans 1. Meet me in my office tomorrow.

2. Meet me in my office tomorow.

3. Meet me in my office tommorrow.

4. Meet me in my office tommorow.

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Anita said, “I am happy.”
Ans 1. I am happy said Anita.

2. She was happy said Anita.

3. Anita was happy she said.

4. Anita said that she was happy.

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Seperate

2. Weird

3. Vacuum

4. Receive

Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph—labelled A, B, C, D—are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the
sentences in the correct logical order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A.“A brilliant story about death and the fear of death,” said the original jacket blurb on Don DeLillo’s 1985 novel, White
Noise, adding that the book “is a comedy, of course.”
B.The writer that inspired Netflix's latest hit, White Noise, is a dazzling chronicler of modern America, and one of the
country’s legendary novelists.
C.So this feels like a good time to look again at White Noise’s author, and consider why Don DeLillo is one of the great
novelists of our time.
D.This month, Noah Baumbach’s Netflix film, White Noise, dazzles its way on to our screens, and we’re promised ‘a
fascinating, invigorating spectacle’, a ‘thrillingly original’ blast of cinematic lustre.
Ans 1. A, D, B, C

2. D, A, B, C

3. C, D, A, B

4. B, A, D, C

Q.12 Identify the error in the verb form in the following sentence and choose the correct sentence from the given options
(Present Tense).
Earth revolve around the sun.
Ans 1. Earth revolves around the sun.

2. Earth are revolve around the sun.

3. Earth has revolve around the sun.

4. Earth revolved around the sun.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank.
Ratan doesn’t like _________ tea.
Ans 1. No article required

2. the

3. an

4. a

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Liable to be easily broken

Ans 1. Tenacious

2. Precious

3. Brittle

4. Amateur

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
Tara’s painting was stolen from the museum.
Ans 1. Someone stole Tara’s painting from the museum.

2. Someone has stolen Tara’s painting from the museum.

3. Tara’s painting has been stolen from the museum.

4. Someone from the museum stole Tara’s painting.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A new clothing company is hoping to create as (1)_________ as 500 jobs in its factory and nationwide chain of stores. The company,
New Trend was set up by Peter Dalton, a 36-year-old businessman (2)__________ Liverpool. The company, which is due to start
production early next year, will provide employment for 300 people in its factory on the edge of Liverpool. In 12 months’ time,
(3)___________ will be a further 200 jobs, as the company begins opening shops in towns in all parts of Britain. Peter Dalton is also
(4)_______ to open a shop in new York. “This project has (5)_______ me over four years to finalise,” says Peter Dalton.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. much

2. many

3. lot

4. more

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. in

2. to

3. from

4. up
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. here

2. it

3. they

4. there

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. plans

2. planning

3. been planning

4. planned

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. taking

2. been taking

3. taken

4. took
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Climate change is one of the most pressing issues facing the world today. It is a phenomenon that has been caused by human
activities, primarily the burning of fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and gas. This has led to an increase in the concentration of greenhouse
gases, primarily carbon dioxide, in the atmosphere. The consequences of climate change are far-reaching and can be felt in many
different ways.
One of the most significant impacts of climate change is the rise in global temperatures. The average temperature of the Earth's
surface has increased by 1.1 degrees Celsius since the pre-industrial era, and this rise is expected to continue in the coming years.
This increase in temperature is causing a range of changes in the Earth's climate, including more frequent and intense heatwaves,
droughts, and floods.
Another consequence of climate change is the loss of biodiversity. As temperatures rise and weather patterns change, many species
of plants and animals are struggling to adapt. This is leading to a decline in biodiversity, which is essential for maintaining the balance
of ecosystems.
Climate change is also having a significant impact on human societies. Rising sea levels, for example, are putting millions of people at
risk of flooding and displacement. In addition, changes in weather patterns are leading to crop failures and food shortages, particularly
in developing countries where many people rely on subsistence agriculture.
To address the issue of climate change, there needs to be a concerted effort at the global level. Governments, businesses, and
individuals all have a role to play in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to the changes that are already taking place.
One of the most important steps that can be taken is to transition to renewable energy sources. This means reducing our dependence
on fossil fuels and investing in technologies such as wind, solar, and hydropower. Governments can incentivise the adoption of
renewable energy by providing subsidies and tax breaks, while businesses can invest in new technologies and sustainable practices.
Individuals can also play a role in reducing their carbon footprint. This can be achieved by using public transport instead of driving,
reducing meat consumption, and reducing energy consumption at home. Small changes in individual behaviour can add up to make a
significant difference in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
In conclusion, climate change is a complex issue that requires a global response. The consequences of inaction are severe, and
urgent action is needed to mitigate its impact. By working together, we can reduce greenhouse gas emissions, protect biodiversity,
and create a more sustainable future for generations to come.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What is the central theme of the passage?
Ans 1. The role of governments in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

2. The impact of climate change on biodiversity.

3. The importance of reducing meat consumption.

4. The need for a global response to climate change.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 How can individuals contribute to reducing their carbon footprint?
Ans 1. By reducing energy consumption at home

2. By increasing meat consumption

3. By not recycling waste products

4. By using private transportation instead of public transport

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of climate change, discussed in the passage?
Ans 1. Rise in global temperatures.

2. Reduction in greenhouse gas emissions from human activities.

3. Increased frequency and intensity of extreme weather events.

4. Disruption of agricultural systems.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage?
Ans 1. Strategies for Adapting to Climate Change

2. The Impact of Climate Change

3. Biodiversity Loss and Climate Change

4. The Importance of Renewable Energy

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What is one of the most important steps that can be taken to address climate change?
Ans 1. Investing in new coal power plants.

2. Reducing dependence on fossil fuels and investing in renewable energy.

3. Burning more fossil fuels.

4. Increasing meat consumption.

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 24/06/2024
Exam Time 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
BASIC : GEVKD : : TABLE : YEENF : : COULD : ?
Ans 1. HRXNE

2. HSYNE

3. HSXNE

4. ITYMF

Q.2 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 4.

Ans 1. 1

2. 5

3. 6

4. 3

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘DWELL’ is written as ‘UBTMM’ and ‘OVER’ is written as ‘JCTG’. How will ‘DYAD’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. UXZU

2. UZXU

3. ZUXU

4. XUZU

Q.4 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
48, ?, 12, 6, 3, 1.5
Ans 1. 24

2. 16

3. 12

4. 48
Q.5 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
G_INGGO_N_G_IN_GOI_ _
Ans 1. GOGINIG

2. IOGNGOI

3. OIGOGNG

4. IOOGONG

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘MERRY’ is written as ‘QYLLE’ and ‘OVEN’ is written as ‘OHYP’. How will ‘MESIAL’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. QKYUCR

2. QYKUCR

3. QYKRCU

4. QYKURC

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘HUNTER’ is coded as 80 and ‘TRIAL’ is coded as 55. How will ‘BURNT’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 65

2. 80

3. 70

4. 75

Q.8 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Building
2. City
3. State
4. Country
5. Apartment
Ans 1. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

2. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

3. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

4. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.9 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All p are r.
Some r are c.
All c are d.
Conclusions:
I. Some d are p.
II. Some c are p.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Either conclusion I or II follows

Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans

Q.11 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
1.Rush
2.Roven
3.Rumpus
4.Royal
5.Rugged
Ans 1. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1

2. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

3. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

4. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Q.12 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All figs are twigs.
Some twigs are trees.
Some ants are trees
Conclusions:
I. Some ants are twigs.
II. Some trees are figs.
Ans 1. Either conclusion I or II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.13 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(6, 64, 2), (8, 225, 7), (3, ?, 9)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 124

2. 146

3. 144

4. 148

Q.14 Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks below will complete the letter series.
U_G_F_K_MG_FN_U_G
Ans 1. MKLNULM

2. MLNULKM

3. NLMKULM

4. NKNMULM

Q.15 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
Based on the above, how is K related to O if ‘K – L × M – N + O’?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Wife’s brother

3. Mother’s brother

4. Father

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
India : Delhi :: United Kingdom : ?
Ans 1. London

2. Liverpool

3. Tottenham

4. Manchester
Q.17 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’;

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to S if ‘P − Q × R ÷ S + T’?

Ans 1. Father’s sister

2. Mother’s mother

3. Mother’s sister

4. Sister’s daughter

Q.18 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word SCRAMBLE is arranged in
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. None

4. Three

Q.19 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

4.
Q.20 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
Some tables are chairs.
Some chairs are beds.
All beds are wardrobes.
Conclusions:
I. No table is a wardrobe.
II. All tables are wardrobes.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘THORP’ is written as ‘EQJGI’ and ‘HEART’ is written as ‘QTXGE’. How will ‘TENDER’ be written
in that language?
Ans 1. ETKUGT

2. ETKGTU

3. ETKUTG

4. ETKTGU

Q.22 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Socket : Plug :: Nut : ?
Ans 1. Bolt

2. Monkey

3. Eat

4. Screw-Driver

Q.23 In a certain code language,

A+ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is R related to Q if ‘P × Q ÷ T + S – R × V’?
Ans 1. Daughter’s daughter

2. Son’s daughter

3. Mother’s father

4. Mother’s mother

Q.24 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’
means ‘+’?
18 ÷ 4 + 3 × 2 − 2 = ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 29

3. 28

4. 19
Q.25 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 ________ is NOT part of the Union Executive.

Ans 1. The Prime Minister of India

2. The President of India

3. The Supreme Court of India

4. The Council of Ministers

Q.2 Which of the following pairs is/are INCORRECTLY matched?
A. Separation of Executive from the Judiciary – Article 50
B. Organisation of the village panchayats and endow them with powers – Article 40
C. Promote justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and to provide free legal aid to the poor – Article 39A
D. Organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines – Article 45
Ans 1. B, C and D only

2. A, B and C only

3. C and D only

4. D only

Q.3 Which of the following statements are true regarding Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022?
1. The Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 1 Dec 2022.
2. The Bill seeks to give effect to the Antarctic Treaty, the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living
Resources and the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty.
3. It also seeks to protect the Antarctic environment and regulate activities in the region.
4. The provisions of the Bill will apply to any person, vessel or aircraft that is a part of an Indian expedition to Antarctica
under a permit issued under the Bill.
Ans 1. 1, 2 and 4

2. 1, 2 and 3

3. 2, 3 and 4

4. 1, 3 and 4

Q.4 What is the literacy rate for Scheduled Tribe Population as per the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. 65%

2. 55%

3. 66%

4. 59%

Q.5 When is the Constitution Day observed in India?

Ans 1. 31 October

2. 26 January

3. 12 January

4. 26 November

Q.6 ‘2 States’ is a novel written by whom among the following authors?

Ans 1. Ayan Gogoi Gohain

2. Kiran Desai

3. Chetan Bhagat

4. Arundhati Roy

Q.7 What is the name of the highest peak of Indian Garhwal Himalayas located in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand state with a
height of 7,816 metres?
Ans 1. Mukut Parbat

2. Hardeol

3. Trisul

4. Nanda Devi

Q.8 Who among the following was the founder of the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science in 1876, an institution,
devoted to the pursuit of fundamental research in the frontier areas of basic sciences?
Ans 1. Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman

2. Dr. Mahendra Lal Sircar

3. Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya

4. Har Gobind Khorana

Q.9 Which of the following states has the lowest female literacy rate as per Census of India 2011?
Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Orissa

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Rajasthan

Q.10 In which of the following states of India is Chethiyagiri Vihara festival celebrated?
Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Kerala

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.11 Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) has signed a loan agreement with SJVN Green Energy for financing
over ₹4,000 crores for the 1000 MW solar power project at Bikaner, Rajasthan. Who is the current chairman and managing
director of Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) in 2023?
Ans 1. Dinesh Menon

2. Anshul Mishra

3. CL Guleria

4. Pradip Kumar Das

Q.12 The likelihood of a neutral atom gaining an electron is known as:

Ans 1. electron affinity

2. electro positivity

3. electronegativity

4. electro attraction

Q.13 Whom among the following cricketers has co-written the book named ‘281 and beyond’?
Ans 1. Rahul Dravid

2. Saurav Ganguly

3. Ajay Jadeja

4. VVS Laxman

Q.14 Mohan Shyam Sharma is a famous musician associated with the :

Ans 1. Drums

2. Tabla

3. Pakhawaj

4. Sarod

Q.15 In Harappa, the granary had rows of ________ brick platforms for threshing the grains.
Ans 1. spherical

2. circular

3. rectangular

4. diagonal

Q.16 The word ________ means a body of persons that looks after the implementation of rules and regulations in actual practice.
Ans 1. Bureaucracy

2. Legislature

3. Judiciary

4. Executive
Q.17 What does CJI stand for?
Ans 1. Chief Justice of Income Tax

2. Chief Justice of India

3. Council Judges of India

4. Controller Justice of India

Q.18 Which of the following is the proposed successor to the Information Technology Act, 2000?
Ans 1. Multimedia Bill

2. Optical India Bill

3. Cyber India Bill

4. Digital India Bill

Q.19 Who among the following is associated with the Theosophical Society?
Ans 1. Savitri Bai Phule

2. Sarojini Naidu

3. Tarabai Shinde

4. Annie Besant

Q.20 What is the adulterant of hot paprika?

Ans 1. Chalk powder

2. Saw dust

3. Sudan dye

4. Starch powder

Q.21 Which of the following cities was the capital of the Pallavas?
Ans 1. Rameshwaram

2. Hampi

3. Orugallu

4. Kanchipuram

Q.22 Who is best known for his testimony on climate change to congressional committees in the 1980s,Which helped raise wider
awareness of the global warming issue?
Ans 1. Joseph Fourier

2. Svante Arrhenius

3. James Hansen

4. Shen Kuo

Q.23 Which is the oldest and most widespread industry in India?

Ans 1. Food processing

2. Fertiliser

3. Mining

4. Textile

Q.24 Who among the following was the founder of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in the region of Malwa in the eighth century?
Ans 1. Nagabhatta I

2. Vatsaraja

3. Mahendrapala I

4. Mihira Bhoja
Q.25 _________ is an example of acoelomate.
Ans 1. Molluscs

2. Arthropods

3. Echinoderms

4. Platyhelminthes

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans
1.

Q.2 The monthly income of Reena was ₹75,200 and her monthly expenditure was ₹22,500. Next year, her income increased by
25% and her expenditure by 14%. Find the percentage increase in her savings (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Ans 1. 34.80%

2. 28.25%

3. 29.70%

4. 30.75%

Q.3 In ΔABC, D is the mid‐point of BC and G is the centroid. If GD = 10 cm, then the length of AD is _________.
Ans 1. 15 cm

2. 10 cm

3. 20 cm

4. 30 cm

Q.4 The speed of a boat in still water is 6 km/h and the speed of the stream is 1.5 km/h. In going from point A to point B and
returning to A, the boatman takes 2 hours 40 min. Find the distance between points A and B.
Ans 1. 7.5 km

2. 7 km

3. 8 km

4. 8.5 km

Q.5 The average temperature of a city for the first four days of the week is 25°C, and the average temperature for the last four
days is 30°C. If the average temperature for the entire week is 27°C, then what is the temperature on the fourth day?
Ans 1. 30°C

2. 31°C

3. 29°C

4. 28°C
Q.6 The selling price of 80 items is equal to the cost price of 72 items. What is the percentage of loss incurred in the
transaction?
Ans 1.

Q.7 In a triangle ABC, P is the midpoint of BC. If AB = (2x + 4) cm, AC = 6 cm and AP⊥ BC, then the value of x is:
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

Q.8 A dealer advertises that he sales his goods at cost price. But he uses 950 gm for 1 kg weight. Find his gain or loss
percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a correct formula?

Ans
1.

Q.10

Ans 1. 1.75

2. 3.25

3. 2.00

4. 2.50

Q.11 A group of 25 tourists consume 5 containers of food in 8 days in a hotel. How many containers will be required for 10
tourists to eat for 16 days?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 5

4. 4
Q.12 The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students in four subjects in an examination.

How many students scored more than 60% of marks in all the four subjects?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 2

Q.13

Ans 1. ₹188.30

2. ₹410.10

3. ₹277.20

4. ₹388.20

Q.14 If 70 is subtracted from 70% of a number, the remainder is 70. What is the number?
Ans 1. 400

2. 100

3. 300

4. 200

Q.15 The average weight of 5 boys is increased by 9 kg when one of them, whose weight is 39 kg, is replaced by another boy.
What is the weight (in kg) of the new boy?
Ans 1. 65

2. 70

3. 69

4. 84
Q.16 The one-day work of 2 men is equal to the one-day work of 4 women or the one-day work of 8 qualified workers. 10 qualified
workers can finish a work in 8 days. If a man, a woman and a qualified worker work in the same order on three different
days, the work is finished in ____ days.
Ans
1.

Q.17 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

Ans 1. 294621

2. 956127

3. 258913

4. 958749

Q.18 A single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% is:
Ans 1. 31.87%

2. 33.55%

3. 30.87%

4. 32.68%

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹9,900 at 9% per annum in 3 years.
Ans 1. 2,512

2. 2,683

3. 2,582

4. 2,673
Q.20 The given pie-chart shows the number of students admitted into various schools, A, B, C, D, E, in a town. The total number
of students is 6500. The number of boys in each school is given by the table. Study the pie-chart and the table carefully and
answer the question that follows.

The total number of boys in schools A, C, D is what percentage of the total number of girls in schools B, C, E (rounded to 2
decimal places)?
Ans 1. 1.2863

2. 1.2062

3. 1.2662

4. 1.2963

Q.21 The wages of 10 workers for a six-day week are ₹1,200. What is the one-day wage of one worker?
Ans 1. ₹28

2. ₹20

3. ₹24

4. ₹16

Q.22 In a circular race of 950 m length, A and B start with speeds of 18 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively, in the same direction, at
the same time, from the same point. After how many seconds will they meet for the first time at the starting point?
Ans 1. 195

2. 190

3. 90

4. 95
Q.23

Ans 1. 532

2. 575

3. 540

4. 552

Q.24

Ans 1. 45

2. 38

3. 40

4. 35

Q.25

Ans 1. 9840

2. 6560

3. 3280

4. 6561

Section : English Language

Q.1

Ans 1. a, k, b, h, d, i, j, g, f, c, e

2. a, j, b, c, d, i, e, k, g, f, h

3. a, b, h, i, e, j, k, f, g, c, d

4. a, g, b, c, h, d, i, e, j, k, f

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
The teacher praised the students for their excellent performance.
Ans 1. The students were praised by the teacher for their excellent performance.

2. The students are praised by the teacher for their excellent performance.

3. The students had been praised by the teacher for their excellent performance.

4. The students were being praised by the teacher for their excellent performance.
Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The principal said, “A biometric device will be installed from the next week.”
Ans 1. The principal said that a biometric device would have been installed the following week.

2. The principal said that a biometric device would be installed the for following week.

3. The principal said that a biometric device would be installed from the following week.

4. The principal said that a biometric device will be installed the next week.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Counterfeit
Ans 1. Unreal

2. Authentic

3. Fake

4. Imitation

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Hiking across an Himalayas is going to be a tough task for a beginner.
Ans 1. Hiking across

2. an Himalayas is

3. task for a beginner.

4. going to be a tough

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Would you repair the bike?

Ans 1. Would have the bike repaired by you?

2. Would you be repaired by the bike?

3. Would the bike repaired by you?

4. Would the bike be repaired by you?

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Break a leg
Ans 1. Hurt yourself

2. Wish bad luck

3. Sprain a leg

4. Wish good luck

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

No longer in existence or use

Ans 1. Omnipotent

2. Outpour

3. Obscure

4. Obsolete

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Book written by an author on his own life

Ans 1. Historiography

2. Anthology

3. Biography

4. Autobiography
Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Obstain

2. Dependence

3. Resonate

4. Integrity

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who physically travels in space.

Ans 1. Astronaut

2. Astrologer

3. Anarchist

4. Pilot

Q.12 Select the sentence that does NOT have a spelling error.
Ans 1. A varity of languages are spoken in India.

2. A variety of languages are spoken in India.

3. A veriety of languages are spoken in India.

4. A vareity of languages are spoken in India.

Q.13 Select the correct form of the past tense to fill in the blank.

I ______ a headache earlier, but I feel fine now.

Ans 1. had

2. have

3. am having

4. was having

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The employees made a noticeable hue and cry to get their demands raised to the board of Directors.
Ans 1. Lie lifeless

2. Protest something

3. Celebrate an event

4. Participate in sports

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Close the curtains!
Ans 1. Let the curtains become closed!

2. Let the curtains be closed!

3. Let the curtains fall close!

4. Let the curtains be close!

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The road to success is not ___1___; there is a curve called failure, a loop called confusion, speed bumps called friends, caution-lights
called family, and you ___2___ have flats called jobs. But ___3___ you have a spark called determination, an engine called
perseverance, insurance called faith, and a driver called God, you will make it ___4___ a place called success!
In spite of all our planning and preparation, ___5___ challenges are certain to arise.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. parallel

2. straight

3. perpendicular

4. even

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. ought to

2. will

3. dare

4. should

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. if

2. and

3. whether

4. so
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The road to success is not ___1___; there is a curve called failure, a loop called confusion, speed bumps called friends, caution-lights
called family, and you ___2___ have flats called jobs. But ___3___ you have a spark called determination, an engine called
perseverance, insurance called faith, and a driver called God, you will make it ___4___ a place called success!
In spite of all our planning and preparation, ___5___ challenges are certain to arise.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. although

2. to

3. through

4. until

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. unsatisfactory

2. uneasy

3. unexpected

4. ungracious

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Hunger is an emotive word. Most of us reading this are fortunate to have enough to eat. We find the idea that the other people live in
hunger deeply unsettling. Hence, it is also unsettling that the well-publicised 2022 Global Hunger Index has ranked India at 107 out of
121 countries. It has ranked India behind North Korea, Ethiopia, Sudan, Rwanda, Nigeria and Congo. This doesn’t seem to make
much sense. But people don’t really like digging through the actual reports and methodology. They read the headline and comment on
that and move on.
The GHI report is jointly released by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, non-government organisations from Ireland and
Germany, respectively. Both are good organisations with long and reputed track records. The report is a 60-page beautiful PDF
document, with its heart in the right place. The formatting and language are perfect. It has beautiful pictures, such as of African farm
women holding vegetables.
At the same time, its rankings are highly questionable. Four criteria are used to determine the final index: prevalence of
undernourishment, child stunting rate, child wasting rate, and child mortality. Thus, three of the four criteria are related to children.
Child stunting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference height for a 5-year-
old. Child wasting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference weight for a 5-
year-old. The argument is that if our children are not tall enough or do not weigh enough, it is an indicator of national hunger. It is in
these parameters that India scored poorly, hence the slippage in rank.
The GHI report takes India’s data from our own National Family Health Survey 2019-21. This in turn is prepared by the health and
family welfare ministry, by surveying a sizable sample of over 61 lakh households. In this 700-plus page survey report also, there is
data for India’s child stunting and child wasting rates. It says 36% of Indian kids are stunted and 19% of the children are wasted.
These are some of the highest values in the world. Plug these into the GHI criteria spreadsheet, India ranks low, behind even North
Korea. We are a starving nation!

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the correct summary of the given passage.
Ans 1. The organisations prepared GHI with unquestionable criteria taken all the things into consideration.

2. Primarily based on the children’s height and weight, the nation’s GHI 2022 was calculated, so India’s place was 107 which is
questionable.
3. The GHI report is good with perfect language, but the pictures are not beautiful and colourful.

4. Child growth is important though india is trying hard to combat the problem. When it is addressed, India will not
be a hunger country
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Hunger is an emotive word. Most of us reading this are fortunate to have enough to eat. We find the idea that the other people live in
hunger deeply unsettling. Hence, it is also unsettling that the well-publicised 2022 Global Hunger Index has ranked India at 107 out of
121 countries. It has ranked India behind North Korea, Ethiopia, Sudan, Rwanda, Nigeria and Congo. This doesn’t seem to make
much sense. But people don’t really like digging through the actual reports and methodology. They read the headline and comment on
that and move on.
The GHI report is jointly released by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, non-government organisations from Ireland and
Germany, respectively. Both are good organisations with long and reputed track records. The report is a 60-page beautiful PDF
document, with its heart in the right place. The formatting and language are perfect. It has beautiful pictures, such as of African farm
women holding vegetables.
At the same time, its rankings are highly questionable. Four criteria are used to determine the final index: prevalence of
undernourishment, child stunting rate, child wasting rate, and child mortality. Thus, three of the four criteria are related to children.
Child stunting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference height for a 5-year-
old. Child wasting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference weight for a 5-
year-old. The argument is that if our children are not tall enough or do not weigh enough, it is an indicator of national hunger. It is in
these parameters that India scored poorly, hence the slippage in rank.
The GHI report takes India’s data from our own National Family Health Survey 2019-21. This in turn is prepared by the health and
family welfare ministry, by surveying a sizable sample of over 61 lakh households. In this 700-plus page survey report also, there is
data for India’s child stunting and child wasting rates. It says 36% of Indian kids are stunted and 19% of the children are wasted.
These are some of the highest values in the world. Plug these into the GHI criteria spreadsheet, India ranks low, behind even North
Korea. We are a starving nation!

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the tone of the last line ‘We are a starving nation!’
Ans 1. Pathetic

2. Ironic

3. Realistic

4. Religious

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which of the following countries is NOT mentioned as better than India in GHI?
Ans 1. Sudan

2. Ethiopia

3. North Korea

4. South Arica
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Hunger is an emotive word. Most of us reading this are fortunate to have enough to eat. We find the idea that the other people live in
hunger deeply unsettling. Hence, it is also unsettling that the well-publicised 2022 Global Hunger Index has ranked India at 107 out of
121 countries. It has ranked India behind North Korea, Ethiopia, Sudan, Rwanda, Nigeria and Congo. This doesn’t seem to make
much sense. But people don’t really like digging through the actual reports and methodology. They read the headline and comment on
that and move on.
The GHI report is jointly released by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, non-government organisations from Ireland and
Germany, respectively. Both are good organisations with long and reputed track records. The report is a 60-page beautiful PDF
document, with its heart in the right place. The formatting and language are perfect. It has beautiful pictures, such as of African farm
women holding vegetables.
At the same time, its rankings are highly questionable. Four criteria are used to determine the final index: prevalence of
undernourishment, child stunting rate, child wasting rate, and child mortality. Thus, three of the four criteria are related to children.
Child stunting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference height for a 5-year-
old. Child wasting rate is defined as the percentage of children that are two standard deviations below the reference weight for a 5-
year-old. The argument is that if our children are not tall enough or do not weigh enough, it is an indicator of national hunger. It is in
these parameters that India scored poorly, hence the slippage in rank.
The GHI report takes India’s data from our own National Family Health Survey 2019-21. This in turn is prepared by the health and
family welfare ministry, by surveying a sizable sample of over 61 lakh households. In this 700-plus page survey report also, there is
data for India’s child stunting and child wasting rates. It says 36% of Indian kids are stunted and 19% of the children are wasted.
These are some of the highest values in the world. Plug these into the GHI criteria spreadsheet, India ranks low, behind even North
Korea. We are a starving nation!

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 In which country is the organisation Welthungerhilfe based?
Ans 1. Germany

2. Australia

3. Ireland

4. India

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Which of the following CANNOT be accepted by the general public in India regarding GHI?
Ans 1. One of the two organisations that prepare GHI is from Ireland.

2. 19% of Indian children are wasted.

3. The GHI report takes India’s data from our own National Family Health Survey.

4. If our children are not tall enough or do not weigh enough, it is an indicator of national hunger.
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 25/06/2024
Exam Time 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
NEAREST : PICVGWV :: OFFICER : QJHMEIT :: SERVICE : ?
Ans 1. UITXKGG

2. UITZMGG

3. UITZKGG

4. UITXMEI

Q.2 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
_V_D_B__BD__
Ans 1. DDBVDVB

2. BDDVDVB

3. DBVDVVB

4. BDVVBDV

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘GROSS’ is written as ‘4’ and ‘MOIST’ is written as ‘8’. How will ‘ZEBRA’ be written in the same
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 9

4. 5

Q.4 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
PLEASED: ELPADES : : HOWEVER : WOHEREV : : IMAGINE : ?
Ans 1. MAIGEIN

2. AMIGENI

3. AIMGEIN

4. MAIGNEI
Q.5 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All apples are fruits.
Some apples are raw.
No fruit is a vegetable.
Conclusions:
I. Some vegetables are raw.
II. No apple is a vegetable.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.6 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 4.

Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 2

4. 1

Q.7

Ans

Q.8 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’;

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

Based on the above, how is E related to I if ‘E ÷ F + G × H − I’?

Ans 1. Brother

2. Mother’s brother

3. Father’s brother

4. Mother’s father
Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Pilot : Airplane :: Captain : ?
Ans 1. Sail

2. Sea

3. Ship

4. Swim
Q.11 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (Rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘GHOST’ is coded as 74 and ‘TRIBAL’ is coded as 68. How will ‘HORN’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 60

2. 55

3. 59

4. 61
Q.13 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. No map is a plan.
II. All globes are plans.
III. All atlases are plans.
Conclusions:
I. No atlas is a map.
II. Some globes are atlases.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.14 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English
dictionary.
1- Deflection
2- Degrade
3- Degeneration
4- Degree
5- Deformation
Ans 1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

3. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

4. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Q.15 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Nail
2. Elbow
3. Finger
4. Shoulder
5. Wrist
Ans 1. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

3. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

4. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

Q.16 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
F_LT_R_IL_ERFI_ _E_ _ILT_R
Ans 1. LTEIRTFEI

2. TEILTRFEI

3. LTRFEITLE

4. IEFTLTRFE

Q.17 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
Based on the above, how is K related to R if ‘L + K ÷ D × P − R’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Father’s sister

3. Mother’s sister

4. Mother
Q.18 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(3, 6, 81), (2, 2, 16), (4, 5, ?)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 78

2. 72

3. 81

4. 18

Q.19 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
Ans 1. 120

2. 130

3. 125

4. 127

Q.20 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All buildings are houses.
Some houses are palaces.
No palace is a mansion.
Conclusions:
I. Some buildings are palaces.
II. Some mansions being not houses is a possibility.
III. No building is a palace.
Ans 1. All conclusions, I, II and III, follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Conclusion II and either conclusion I or conclusion III follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.21 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the husband of B
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to C if ‘E ÷ F × D − C’?
Ans 1. Son

2. Son-in-law

3. Father

4. Brother

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘ROVE’ is written as ‘JMFW’ and ‘ROSE’ is written as ‘JMIW’. How will ‘RUIN’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. JSGN

2. JGNS

3. JGSN

4. JNGS

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘PARADOX’ is written as ‘IXGXUJA’ and ‘WIPES’ is written as ‘BPITF’. How will ‘PARALLEL’ be
written in that language?
Ans 1. MTMMXGXI

2. IXGXMMTM

3. IXGXMTMM

4. MTMXMXGI
Q.24 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’
means ‘−’?
(18 + 10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ?
Ans 1. 18

2. 22

3. 19

4. 20

Q.25 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Globetrotter
2. Globalize
3. Globule
4. Global
5. Globe
Ans 1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3

3. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

4. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In August 2021, the third phase of Mission Shakti 3.0 was launched by the Indian state of _________ to empower women and
make them self-reliant.
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.2 The Keoladeo National Park is located in the state of _______.

Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Odisha

3. Rajasthan

4. Gujarat

Q.3 Which of the following is an example of a vertebrate?

Ans 1. Crustaceans

2. Molluscs

3. Insects

4. Mammals

Q.4 Under the ‘Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu Adhikar Yojana’ launched by the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh, plots worth
about ________ crore were distributed to 10,918 families of Tikamgarh district.
Ans 1. ₹130

2. ₹129

3. ₹139

4. ₹140

Q.5 Which of the following forts was built by Raja Rai Singh in 1588?
Ans 1. Amer Fort

2. Junagarh Fort

3. Kumbhal Garh

4. Sonar Kila
Q.6 Pakyong airport is located in ________.
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Nagaland

3. Assam

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.7 Who among the following sportspersons is credited with the autobiography ‘Undisputed Truth’?
Ans 1. Matthew Hayden

2. Mike Tyson

3. Kevin Pietersen

4. Muhammad Ali

Q.8 Which of the following types of unemployment arises from a mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the
skills of the available workers in the market?
Ans 1. Disguised

2. Frictional

3. Structural

4. Seasonal

Q.9 Which trek in Bhutan is considered to be the crown jewel of Bhutanese trekking?
Ans 1. Dagala Thousand Lakes Trek

2. Snowman Trek

3. Laya Gasa Trek

4. Jumolhari Trek

Q.10 In May 2023, Ravneet Kaur was in the news due to her appointment as the ________.
Ans 1. Chairperson of Competition Commission of India

2. Chief Vigilance Commissioner

3. Election Commissioner of India

4. Chief Election Commissioner of India

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT correct about the Prime Minister of India?
Ans 1. He is the Head of the Government.

2. He recommends the name of persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President.

3. He is the principal communicator between the President and the Council of Ministers.

4. He and his ministers are collectively responsible to the Upper House of the Parliament.

Q.12 In the reference of the Delhi Sultanate, what was the ‘Group of Forty’?
Ans 1. They were forty banjara leaders who transferred military supplies in times of war.

2. They were mostly powerful Turkish slaves of Iltutmish, who took power in the interregnum following Sultana Raziyya’s killing.

3. They were forty Rajput nobles who planned a coup to dethrone Qutb ud Din Aibak in 1210.

4. They were forty military archers who distinguished themselves by their bravery in the Delhi Sultanate.

Q.13 In 1955, who published a comprehensive study of small particle constituents of the cytoplasm' (ribosomes) and correctly
estimated their physiological importance?
Ans 1. Albert Von Kolliker

2. George E Palade

3. Pierre Joseph Pelletier

4. James Thomson
Q.14 Who among the following is NOT associated with the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha?
Ans 1. Syed Ahmed Khan

2. SS Bengalee

3. Naoroji Furdunji

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.15 The Governor’s emoluments are decided by the:

Ans 1. Prime Minister

2. State Legislature

3. President

4. Parliament

Q.16 ‘My Country, My Life’ is an autobiographical text of which of the following Indian politicians?
Ans 1. Lal Krishna Advani

2. Narendra Modi

3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

4. Sharad Pawar

Q.17 The highly viscous, mechanically-weak and ductile region of Earth's upper mantle is called:
Ans 1. lithosphere

2. mesosphere

3. asthenosphere

4. exosphere

Q.18 The Government of India initiative ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’ to commemorate 75th Independence Day, commenced in which
year?
Ans 1. 2021

2. 2022

3. 2020

4. 2019

Q.19 Gupta emperor Chandragupta I was the first ruler to adopt which of the following titles?
Ans 1. Mahendraditya

2. Maharajadhiraja

3. Vikramaditya

4. Parmeshvara

Q.20 The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by which Amendment?

Ans 1. 44th Amendment 1978

2. 86th Amendment 2002

3. 42nd Amendment 1976

4. 84th Amendment 2000

Q.21 Republic Day in India is celebrated to commemorate:

Ans 1. India’s independence.

2. the day when the Constituent Assembly was formed.

3. the day when the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held.

4. the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect.

Q.22 On 12th of March 1930, Gandhiji with his 72 followers began a march from _______ up to Dandi coast.
Ans 1. Kutch

2. Surat

3. Sabarmati Ashram

4. Tolstoy Farm

Q.23 The dry cell is made up of an outer __________ container that acts as the anode.
Ans 1. lead

2. nickel

3. manganese

4. zinc

Q.24 The famous musician Aban Mistry is associated with which instrument?
Ans 1. Shehnai

2. Tabla

3. Flute

4. Drums

Q.25 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are related to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Ans 1. Article 148-154

2. Article 148-151

3. Article 148-152

4. Article 147-150

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 255

2. 254

3. 259

4. 256

Q.2

Ans 1. 38 cm

2. 56 cm

3. 46 cm

4. 58 cm
Q.3

Ans 1. 2011

2. 2010

3. 2012

4. 2009

Q.4

Ans
1.

Q.5 The salary of an employee is increased by 10% and then the increased salary is reduced by 10%. The percentage loss in the
salary of the employee is:
Ans 1.

4.
Q.6

Ans 1. 25%

2. 70%

3. 65%

4. 75%

Q.7 In a circular race of 840 m, A and B start running in the same direction at the same time from the same point at the speeds of
6 m/s and 12 m/s, respectively. After how much time will they meet next?
Ans 1. 70 s

2. 20 s

3. 140 s

4. 40 s

Q.8 A shopkeeper bought 30 books and sold 25 books for same price. What percentage had he gained or lost?
Ans 1. 20% loss

2. 20% gain

3. 25% gain

4. 25% loss

Q.9 Class X has 45 students scoring average marks of 30 and class Y has 35 students scoring average marks of 18. Find the
average marks of the students of both classes together.
Ans 1. 25

2. 24.75

3. 28.50

4. 30

Q.10 If an electricity bill is paid before the due date, one gets a reduction of 10% on the amount of the bill. By paying the bill
before the due date, a person got a reduction of ₹23. The amount of his electricity bill (in ₹) was:
Ans 1. 230

2. 250

3. 380

4. 520

Q.11 A shopkeeper claims to sell 450 kg rice at a cost price of ₹40 per kg but uses a weight of 900 grams instead of a one
kilogram weight. He makes a profit of ₹2,520 by selling the remaining rice in the black market. The ratio of the black-market
price to the original price per kg of rice is:
Ans 1. 9 : 4

2. 4 : 3

3. 10 : 7

4. 7 : 5
Q.12 A police station, a bank and a safe house for the thief are in a straight line with a bank in between. The distance between the
police station and the safe house is four times the distance between the bank and the safe house. After looting the bank at
9:15 A.M, the thief runs away. A policeman gets the information instantly and chases him at the speed of 16 km/h. The
policeman catches the thief at the gate of the safe house in fifteen minutes. What is the distance between the bank and the
police station?
Ans 1. 4 km

2. 1 km

3. 2 km

4. 3 km

Q.13 The following table shows the number of voters at 5 different centres P, Q, R, S and T and the percentage of people who
voted in an election.

If the number of invalid votes cast at Centre S was 20% of the total number of votes cast, then what percentage of the total
number of registered voters cast invalid votes at Centre S?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 25%

3. 18%

4. 22%

Q.14 X and Y can do a piece of work in 18 days and 27 days, respectively. Starting with X, they work on alternate days. The whole
number of days to complete the work by X and Y is:
Ans 1. 22

2. 24

3. 20

4. 21

Q.15 Pass percentage of an examination is 35%. If a student who got 210 marks, failed by 14 marks, then what are the maximum
marks of the examination?
Ans 1. 660

2. 600

3. 640

4. 620

Q.16 If a − b = 5 and ab = 25, then the value of a3 − b3 is:

Ans 1. 525

2. 500

3. 450

4. 400

Q.17 Which number should be added to 3, 11, 4 and 14 to make them in proportion?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4
Q.18

Ans 1. 33.96%

2. 23.96%

3. 43.96%

4. 53.96%

Q.19

Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 14

4. 9

Q.20 36 persons can do a work in 10 days, working 6 hours a day. In how many days will 24 persons, working 9 hours a day
complete the work?
Ans 1. 4

2. 10

3. 6

4. 8

Q.21

Ans 1. 34

2. 17

3. 36

4. 27

Q.22 The number 2918245 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 3

4. 11

Q.23 The base of a parallelogram is thrice its height. If the area of the parallelogram is 1020 cm2, then what is its height?
Ans
1.

4.
Q.24 A work can be finished by 8 men in 10 days working 6 hours a day or same can be finished by 20 qualified workers in 6 days
working 8 hours a day. 2 men and 4 qualified workers work simultaneously 10 hours a day, the work will be finished in
_______ days.
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 12

4. 8

Q.25 John buys 20 kg of wheat at ₹30 per kg and 30 kg of wheat at ₹50 per kg. Find his average price.
Ans 1. ₹40 per kg

2. ₹20 per kg

3. ₹42 per kg

4. ₹21 per kg

Section : English Language

Q.1 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) the concert was too expensive
(B) to watch his favourite
(C) hard-earned money on
(D) to waste his parents'
(E) artist's live performance
(F) so he sacrificed the chance
Ans 1. BADECF

2. ADCFBE

3. FACEDB

4. FADECB

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Rakesh appointed three managers.

Ans 1. Three managers will be appointed by Rakesh.

2. Three managers were being appointed by Rakesh.

3. Three managers were appointed by Rakesh.

4. Three managers appointed Rakesh.

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The killing of one’s sister

Ans 1. Parricide

2. Regicide

3. Uxoricide

4. Sororicide

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said, “I am going to Delhi to attend my friend’s marriage.”
Ans 1. She said that I was going to Delhi to attend my friend’s marriage.

2. She said that she was going to Delhi to attend her friend’s marriage.

3. She said that she was going to Delhi to attend our friend’s marriage.

4. She said that she was going to Delhi to attend my friend’s marriage.

Q.5 Select the sentence that contains a spelling error.

Ans 1. I shall always remain greatful to you.

2. The result will be declared tomorrow.

3. I can’t believe you.

4. His presence in the party was unexpected.

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Ethereality

2. Elocaution

3. Preclude

4. Cryptic

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Desperate
Ans 1. Bleak

2. Hopeful

3. Erratic

4. Sloping

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The flight is carrying relief material.
Ans 1. Relief material is being carrying by the flight.

2. Relief material is carrying by the flight.

3. Relief material is being carried by the flight.

4. Relief material is carried by the flight.

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My friends / and their family members / have gone to the beach / two days ago.
Ans 1. My friends

2. two days ago

3. have gone to the beach

4. and their family members

Q.10 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Children should watch TV from distance as it will affect their eyesight.
Ans 1. Children should watch

2. their eyesight

3. as it will affect

4. TV from distance

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The wild elephant will be captured and left in the forest.
Ans 1. We had captured and left the wild elephant in the forest.

2. The wild elephant would be captured by us and left in the forest.

3. We would have captured and left the wild elephant in the forest.

4. They will capture the wild elephant and leave it in the forest.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
I know you have been really busy with your work, but can you just give me a few minutes?
Ans 1. through thick and thin

2. jumped on the bandwagon

3. on cloud nine

4. snowed under
Q.13 Select the idiom that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence.
Our Principal looked disappointed when no one expressed the willingness to join the trip.
Ans 1. Made a comeback

2. Pulled a long face

3. Gave a single shot

4. High and dry

Q.14 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A: leaped into the water
B: ship touched the shore
C: as soon as the
D: a soldier of the tenth legion
Ans 1. CBDA

2. BDAC

3. ACBD

4. DACB

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An act of copying the behavior or speech of other people.

Ans 1. Pedantry

2. Mimicry

3. Oratory

4. Parody

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
L. M. Thapar made important contributions to ASSOCHAM which (1)_________ the interests of trade and commerce in India. He was
(2)________ a good life and was known for being charming and polished. He was an avid art collector, with an (3)_________
personal gallery of some of the finest works of art. This suave gentleman with an impeccable English accent and very British persona
enjoyed Indian classical vocal music and loved getting a crowd together for a performance. His (4)________ personality, his
generosity and his encouragement of young talent is remembered (5)__________ by his friends, family and admirers.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. demoted

2. developed

3. promoted

4. designed

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. caring for

2. world of

3. want of

4. fond of
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
L. M. Thapar made important contributions to ASSOCHAM which (1)_________ the interests of trade and commerce in India. He was
(2)________ a good life and was known for being charming and polished. He was an avid art collector, with an (3)_________
personal gallery of some of the finest works of art. This suave gentleman with an impeccable English accent and very British persona
enjoyed Indian classical vocal music and loved getting a crowd together for a performance. His (4)________ personality, his
generosity and his encouragement of young talent is remembered (5)__________ by his friends, family and admirers.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. routine

2. ordinary

3. impressive

4. regular

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. vivacious

2. hesitant

3. dull

4. workaholic

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. eventually

2. fondly

3. sometimes

4. never
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
A significant reduction in farm fires this winter in both Punjab and Haryana is heartening news for policymakers and agriculture
scientists at the forefront of combating the scourge. North India’s citizens had slightly better winter air as well. Farm fires are down by
30% and 48% over last year in Punjab and Haryana respectively. The key then is to sustain these gains next year and the year after –
to ensure that the practice of paddy stubble burning, which is nothing less than social malpractice, is eradicated.
What is obvious this time is a concerted attempt by Punjab and Haryana officials to deter farmers from setting yield on fire. The anti-
farm-reforms agitation and the Punjab elections had turned the fightback against stubble burning into a nonstarter, the last two years.
Both in-situ straw management through super-seeders, which plough the straw back into the soil, and ex-situ baling of the straw for
sale to biogas plants, industries with captive power plants, fodder suppliers, were heavily promoted this year. Super-seeder machines
gaining popularity over the previous generation happy-seeders is a promising development. Innovations that make these machines
better and faster and more fuel-efficient can win over the holdout farmers too. ICAR’s bio-decomposer appeared to not find much
favour, given the short window between Kharif harvest and Rabi sowing this year, but it’s just as promising.
There is a political dimension as well. AAP government in Punjab and BJP helming Centre and Haryana have their own policies.
Centre’s commission for Air Quality Management, in which the affected NCR states are stakeholders, has also released ample funds.
For even bigger environmental challenges, for example, weaning off coal, there is a lesson - a mix of technology, government-backed
incentives and funds, garnished by a sense of political responsibility, can make a difference to even seemingly intractable problems.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.
Ans 1. A Few Good Policies and Less Farm Fires

2. Fire and Farmers

3. Fire and Water

4. Water and Politics

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
A significant reduction in farm fires this winter in both Punjab and Haryana is heartening news for policymakers and agriculture
scientists at the forefront of combating the scourge. North India’s citizens had slightly better winter air as well. Farm fires are down by
30% and 48% over last year in Punjab and Haryana respectively. The key then is to sustain these gains next year and the year after –
to ensure that the practice of paddy stubble burning, which is nothing less than social malpractice, is eradicated.
What is obvious this time is a concerted attempt by Punjab and Haryana officials to deter farmers from setting yield on fire. The anti-
farm-reforms agitation and the Punjab elections had turned the fightback against stubble burning into a nonstarter, the last two years.
Both in-situ straw management through super-seeders, which plough the straw back into the soil, and ex-situ baling of the straw for
sale to biogas plants, industries with captive power plants, fodder suppliers, were heavily promoted this year. Super-seeder machines
gaining popularity over the previous generation happy-seeders is a promising development. Innovations that make these machines
better and faster and more fuel-efficient can win over the holdout farmers too. ICAR’s bio-decomposer appeared to not find much
favour, given the short window between Kharif harvest and Rabi sowing this year, but it’s just as promising.
There is a political dimension as well. AAP government in Punjab and BJP helming Centre and Haryana have their own policies.
Centre’s commission for Air Quality Management, in which the affected NCR states are stakeholders, has also released ample funds.
For even bigger environmental challenges, for example, weaning off coal, there is a lesson - a mix of technology, government-backed
incentives and funds, garnished by a sense of political responsibility, can make a difference to even seemingly intractable problems.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Which of the following options best summarises the given passage?
Ans 1. Farm fires have been halted successfully due to the coordination between AAP and BJP.

2. There are no political dimensions in dealing with intractable problems.

3. Farmers’ difficulties have been reduced to zero per cent by agriculture scientists.

4. A mix of technology, government funds and a sense of political responsibility helps solve difficult problems.
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
A significant reduction in farm fires this winter in both Punjab and Haryana is heartening news for policymakers and agriculture
scientists at the forefront of combating the scourge. North India’s citizens had slightly better winter air as well. Farm fires are down by
30% and 48% over last year in Punjab and Haryana respectively. The key then is to sustain these gains next year and the year after –
to ensure that the practice of paddy stubble burning, which is nothing less than social malpractice, is eradicated.
What is obvious this time is a concerted attempt by Punjab and Haryana officials to deter farmers from setting yield on fire. The anti-
farm-reforms agitation and the Punjab elections had turned the fightback against stubble burning into a nonstarter, the last two years.
Both in-situ straw management through super-seeders, which plough the straw back into the soil, and ex-situ baling of the straw for
sale to biogas plants, industries with captive power plants, fodder suppliers, were heavily promoted this year. Super-seeder machines
gaining popularity over the previous generation happy-seeders is a promising development. Innovations that make these machines
better and faster and more fuel-efficient can win over the holdout farmers too. ICAR’s bio-decomposer appeared to not find much
favour, given the short window between Kharif harvest and Rabi sowing this year, but it’s just as promising.
There is a political dimension as well. AAP government in Punjab and BJP helming Centre and Haryana have their own policies.
Centre’s commission for Air Quality Management, in which the affected NCR states are stakeholders, has also released ample funds.
For even bigger environmental challenges, for example, weaning off coal, there is a lesson - a mix of technology, government-backed
incentives and funds, garnished by a sense of political responsibility, can make a difference to even seemingly intractable problems.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 How much of the percentage of farm fires is down over last year in Haryana?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 48%

3. 25%

4. 30%

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘deter’.
Ans 1. Disappoint

2. Encourage

3. Bolt

4. Prove
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
A significant reduction in farm fires this winter in both Punjab and Haryana is heartening news for policymakers and agriculture
scientists at the forefront of combating the scourge. North India’s citizens had slightly better winter air as well. Farm fires are down by
30% and 48% over last year in Punjab and Haryana respectively. The key then is to sustain these gains next year and the year after –
to ensure that the practice of paddy stubble burning, which is nothing less than social malpractice, is eradicated.
What is obvious this time is a concerted attempt by Punjab and Haryana officials to deter farmers from setting yield on fire. The anti-
farm-reforms agitation and the Punjab elections had turned the fightback against stubble burning into a nonstarter, the last two years.
Both in-situ straw management through super-seeders, which plough the straw back into the soil, and ex-situ baling of the straw for
sale to biogas plants, industries with captive power plants, fodder suppliers, were heavily promoted this year. Super-seeder machines
gaining popularity over the previous generation happy-seeders is a promising development. Innovations that make these machines
better and faster and more fuel-efficient can win over the holdout farmers too. ICAR’s bio-decomposer appeared to not find much
favour, given the short window between Kharif harvest and Rabi sowing this year, but it’s just as promising.
There is a political dimension as well. AAP government in Punjab and BJP helming Centre and Haryana have their own policies.
Centre’s commission for Air Quality Management, in which the affected NCR states are stakeholders, has also released ample funds.
For even bigger environmental challenges, for example, weaning off coal, there is a lesson - a mix of technology, government-backed
incentives and funds, garnished by a sense of political responsibility, can make a difference to even seemingly intractable problems.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What is the good news mentioned here?
Ans 1. High yielding of crops

2. Sufficient electricity

3. New policies for farmers

4. Reduction in farm fires

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 25/06/2024
Exam Time 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘PAST’ is coded as ‘9713’ and ‘SORE’ is coded as ‘8146’. What is the code for ‘S’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 8

3. 9

4. 4

Q.2 In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
I. Some digits are alphabets.
II. All alphabets are books.
III. Some books are novels.
Conclusions:
I. All novels are digits.
II. Some digits are books.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.3 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
_ _NE_ _CIN_ _ _C_ _ _M_
Ans 1. MECIANEMANE

2. CIMAEMAINEA

3. AIMCNEMNACN

4. IMCEANEMAME

Q.4 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Eye : Tears :: Skin : ?
Ans 1. Sweat

2. Soft

3. Supple

4. Body
Q.5 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Cow : Bull :: Mare : ?
Ans 1. Buck

2. Boar

3. Stallion

4. Lamb

Q.6 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
C_C_S_C__C__
Ans 1. SCCSCSC

2. CSSCCSC

3. CCSCSSC

4. SCSSCCC

Q.7 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
DIALOGUE : HMEPKCQA : : HOSPITAL : LSWTEPWH : : CHAMBERS :?
Ans 1. GLEPXANO

2. GLEQWAON

3. GLEQXANO

4. GLEQXZNO

Q.8 In a certain code language,

‘A+ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
Based on the above, how is H related to L if ‘H + I – J × K + L’?
Ans 1. Father’s sister

2. Mother’s sister

3. Father’s mother

4. Mother’s mother

Q.9 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
729, 512, 343, ?, 125
Ans 1. 216

2. 64

3. 576

4. 16

Q.10 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Toddler
2. Adult
3. Adolescent
4. Foetus
5. Baby
Ans 1. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

2. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

3. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

4. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
Q.11 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Lion, Dog, Elephant
Ans

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘NOISE’ is coded as 124 and ‘WILD’ is coded as 96. How will ‘GIVER’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 111

2. 120

3. 104

4. 122
Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.14 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 2.

Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 5

4. 1

Q.15 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following equation?
36 B 17 D 59 C 224 A 7 = ?
Ans 1. 585

2. 685

3. 558

4. 855
Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘BUSHY’ is written as ‘CTTGZ’ and ‘COAST’ is written as ‘DNBRU’. How will ‘DWELL’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. EXFMN

2. EXFKN

3. EVGKM

4. EVFKM

Q.17 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(2, 12, 72), (7, 42, 252), (4, 24, ?)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 140

2. 124

3. 164

4. 144

Q.18 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. District
2. Room
3. Village
4. State
5.House
Ans 1. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

2. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

3. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

4. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (Rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.21 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Masterstroke
2. Malnutrition
3. Marigold
4. Magical
5. Magnify
Ans 1. 3,4,5,2,1

2. 4,5,2,3,1

3. 5,4,2,3,1

4. 2,4,5,3,1

Q.22 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
Based on the above, how is O related to L if ‘O − M ÷ N + L’?
Ans 1. Daughter

2. Daughter-in-law

3. Sister

4. Mother

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘THORP’ is written as ‘IUNKM’ and ‘SERIES’ is written as ‘JXKTXJ’. How will ‘TRACE’ be written
in that language?
Ans 1. IKBXZ

2. XBZKI

3. IKBZX

4. IKXBZ

Q.24 In a certain code language,

‘M & N’ means ‘M is the mother of N’
‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the son of N’,
‘M # N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’.
Based on the above, how is L related to O if ‘K & L & M # N @ O’?
Ans 1. Son’s wife

2. Brother’s wife

3. Sister

4. Daughter

Q.25 Two Statements are given followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some mugs are rugs.
All tugs are mugs.
Conclusions:
I. Some rugs are mugs.
II. Some mugs are tugs.
III. No rug is a mug.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and III follow.

2. Both conclusions II and III follow.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. All conclusions I, II and III follow.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 A _________ is one billionth of a metre.
Ans 1. angstrom

2. micrometre

3. parsec

4. nanometre

Q.2 What is the percentage of people below the poverty line in India according to Government of India, planning commission
2013?
Ans 1. 21.92%

2. 13.98%

3. 5.09%

4. 23.67%

Q.3 The ministers in the state hold office during the pleasure of the:
Ans 1. Deputy Chief Minister

2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

3. Governor

4. Chief Minister

Q.4 Who among the following Mauryan rulers was the first, who tried to convey his messages to his subjects concerning the
idea and practice of dhamma through inscriptions?
Ans 1. Brihadaratha

2. Ashoka

3. Dasaratha

4. Chandragupta Maurya

Q.5 Lad Khan Temple at Aihole in Karnataka is an example of which of the following styles of temple architecture?
Ans 1. Nagara

2. Vesara

3. Pagoda

4. Dravida

Q.6 Chromosomes found in the salivary glands of Drosophila are:

Ans 1. giant chromosome polytene

2. presence of fat digestive enzymes

3. giant chromosome lampbrush

4. presence of minute chromosomes

Q.7 Through an Act passed in which year was the post of Governor-General removed and a new post of Viceroy got created
during British rule in India?
Ans 1. 1833

2. 1935

3. 1858

4. 1853

Q.8 ________ is the study of the distribution and movement of water both on and below the Earth’s surface, as well as the
impact of human activity on water availability and conditions.
Ans 1. Hydrology

2. Biology

3. Anthology

4. Ecology
Q.9 In February 2023, which State Government’s cabinet has approved the new excise policy under which ‘ahatas’, or areas for
drinking attached to liquor outlets, and shop bars will be closed?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. West Bengal

4. Bihar

Q.10 Which of the following options is INCORRECT?

In order to become a member of Vidhan Sabha, a person must:
Ans 1. be a citizen of India

2. not hold any office of profit

3. have his/her name in the voters’ list

4. have attained the age of 21 years

Q.11 Who among the following Hindustani classical musicians was NOT associated with ‘Maihar Gharana’?
Ans 1. Pt Ravi Shankar

2. Ustad Bismillah Khan

3. Annapurna Devi

4. Ali Akbar Khan

Q.12 The Vikramshila University was founded under the patronage of the king ___________ .
Ans 1. Gopala

2. Devraja

3. Dharmpala

4. Devpala

Q.13 In which of the following years was the first population census conducted non-synchronously in different parts of India?
Ans 1. 1900

2. 1885

3. 1872

4. 1912

Q.14 Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) Scheme is a scheme of which Ministry of the Government of India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

2. Ministry of Tourism

3. Ministry of Minority Affairs

4. Ministry of Culture

Q.15 AIDS is an abbreviation for:

Ans 1. Acquire Immuno Deficiency Syndicate

2. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

3. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndicate

4. Acquired Immunic Deficiency Syndrome

Q.16 Who among the following was appointed as the Chairman of the 22nd law commission in November 2022?
Ans 1. Justice (retd) Rituraj Awasthi

2. Justice D Y Chandrachud

3. Justice T K Shankar

4. Justice (retd) S Abdul Nazeer

Q.17 Padma Shri Awardee Gosaveedu Shaik Hassan is known for playing:
Ans 1. Violin

2. Ghatam

3. Veena

4. Nadaswaram

Q.18 In which of the following festivals is Kolam drawn?

Ans 1. Bhogali Bihu

2. Hareli

3. Pongal

4. Karma

Q.19 Which is the deepest point of Earth's oceans with a depth of 11,022 metres?
Ans 1. Indian Ocean's Java Trench

2. Pacific Ocean's Mariana Trench

3. Arctic Ocean's Eurasian Basin

4. Atlantic Ocean's Puerto Rico Trench

Q.20 Which Article of the Indian Constitution makes it clear that Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the
governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws?
Ans 1. Article 40

2. Article 46

3. Article 37

4. Article 44

Q.21 Which triangular plateau region of India lies south of the river Narmada?
Ans 1. Deccan plateau

2. Bagelkhand plateau

3. Marwar plateau

4. Malwa plateau

Q.22 Which of the following festivals is also known as the ‘100 drums festival’?
Ans 1. Sanken

2. Cheiraoba

3. Saga Dawa

4. Wangala

Q.23 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Complete Adventures of Feluda’?
Ans 1. Satyajit Ray

2. Ritwik Ghatak

3. Mrinal Sen

4. Goutam Ghosh

Q.24 Which of the following does NOT come under the Concurrent List?
Ans 1. Population Control

2. Medical Education

3. Protection of Wildlife

4. Artificial Habitats
Q.25 Under the Governor Generalship of ________, the Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793.
Ans 1. Dalhousie

2. Willian Bentinck

3. Charles Cornwallis

4. Warren Hastings

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A shopkeeper mixes 15 kg of sugar costing ₹ 11/kg with 22 kg of sugar costing ₹12/kg. What is the cost (in ₹) per kg of the
mixture? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1. 11.51

2. 11.59

3. 11.38

4. 11.84

Q.2

Ans 1. 3

2. 17

3. 11

4. 7

Q.3 In ΔOPQ, ∠ O = 50°, ∠ P = 70°, and the bisectors of ∠ P and ∠ Q meet at R. Find ∠ PRQ.
Ans 1. 118°

2. 125°

3. 120°

4. 115°

Q.4 In a circular race of 2,500 m, Reeta and Geeta start running in the same direction from the same point and at the same time
with speeds of 36 km/h and 54 km/h, respectively. After how much time will they meet for the first time on the track?
Ans 1. 480 second

2. 500 second

3. 490 second

4. 510 second

Q.5 A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is:
Ans
1.

Q.6

Ans 1. 343

2. 332

3. 340

4. 322
Q.7 A can do a piece of work in 25 days. After working for 5 days, he took help of B and completed the work in 8 days. If both A
and B had worked together from the beginning, in how many days would they have completed the work?
Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 10

4. 15

Q.8 The prices of a school bag and a school dress are in the ratio of 8 : 7. The price of the school bag is ₹400 more than the
price of the school dress. Find the price of the school dress.
Ans 1. ₹3,400

2. ₹2,800

3. ₹3,800

4. ₹2,400

Q.9 If a car covers 90 km using 4 litres of petrol, how much distance (in km) will it cover using 32 litres of petrol?
Ans 1. 720

2. 650

3. 710

4. 680

Q.10 In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 12, then what is the
dividend?
Ans 1. 352

2. 386

3. 368

4. 372

Q.11 A shopkeeper announced 17% rebate on the marked price of an article. If the selling price of the article is ₹1,245, then the
marked price (in ₹) of the article is :
Ans 1. 1500

2. 1820

3. 1780

4. 1600

Q.12 A train leaves Hyderabad at 4:00 A.M. and reaches Vijayawada at 8:00 A.M. the same day. Another train leaves Vijayawada at
6:00 A.M. and reaches Hyderabad at 9:30 A.M the same day. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
Ans 1. 6:45 A.M.

2. 7:45 A.M.

3. 6:56 A.M.

4. 7:56 A.M.
Q.13 The following bar graph shows the failure rates (in thousands) for different electric components:

How many times is the failure rate of hybrid micro circuits compared to that of signal devices?
Ans 1. 0.4

2. 2.5

3. 5.2

4. 4

Q.14 Sarthak and Mohan are working on alternate days in a workshop. Sarthak can complete the work in 20 days while Mohan
can finish in 25 days. Sarthak works on the 1st day, Mohan on the 2nd day, and so on. How much time (in days) will they
take on alternate basis?
Ans
1.

Q.15 ΔABC and ΔABD are on a common base AB and AC = BD and BC = AD as shown in the given figure.

Which of the following options is true?

Ans 1. ΔABC ≅ ΔADB

2. ΔABC ≅ ΔBAD

3. There are no congruent triangles in the given figure

4. ΔABC ≅ ΔABD
Q.16 In what duration (in years) will ₹1,500 amount to ₹2,250 at simple interest 10% per annum?
Ans 1. 5.5

2. 5

3. 3

4. 3.5

Q.17

Ans 1. 1

2. 0

3. -1

4. 8

Q.18

Ans 1. More, 12.7%

2. Less, 14.1%

3. Less, 12.7%

4. More, 14.1%
Q.19 A person spends 60% of his income. His income increased by 30% and he increased his expenditure by 20%. His percent
savings will then be increased by:
Ans 1. 45%

2. 42%

3. 46%

4. 48%

Q.20 Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If 17 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 11 : 14. If 20 is added to
each of the original numbers, then the ratio becomes:
Ans 1. 241 : 275

2. 224 : 241

3. 224 : 275

4. 275 : 241

Q.21 If (x + y + z) = 23 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 179, then find the value of (xy + yz + zx).

Ans 1. 225

2. 280

3. 175

4. 350

Q.22 A vendor buys 20 pens for ₹15 and sells them at 15 for ₹20. How many pens should be bought and sold to earn a profit of
₹245?
Ans 1. 280

2. 540

3. 320

4. 420

Q.23

Ans 1. Krishna

2. Rameshwar

3. Bitthal

4. Ramagya

Q.24 A shopkeeper normally makes a profit of 20% in a certain transaction; he weighed 900 gm instead of 1 kg due to an error in
the weighing machine. If he charges 15% less than what he normally charges, then what is his actual profit or loss
percentage?
Ans 1. 18.33% profit

2. 13.33% profit

3. 13.33% loss

4. 18.00% loss
Q.25 A person mixes two liquids, x and y. One litre of x weighs approximately 900 g, and one litre of y weighs approximately 750
g. If one litre of the mixture weighs approximately 800 g, then the percentage of x in the mixture is:
Ans
1.

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
A few minutes later a request came that all members of the house party should assemble in the drawing-room.
Ans 1. Disperse

2. Gather

3. Search

4. Guard

Q.2 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
By the time she retires, / she has been teaching / at the university for 30 years.
Ans 1. at the university for 30 years

2. No error

3. By the time she retires

4. she has been teaching

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Trigger

2. Accuse

3. Conservative

4. Raival

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A study of the conditions and structure of the earth

Ans 1. Biology

2. Meteorology

3. Geography

4. Geology

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Beliefs or incidents that happen in a way which cannot be explained by reason or science.
Ans 1. Science totems

2. Wonders

3. Superstitions

4. Marvels

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Rohit laid down his proposal, and told Rohit that the ball was now in his court.
Ans 1. He had to continue the remaining time in court

2. It is Rohit's responsibility to take the next action or decision

3. He had to play the game and win the match

4. The captaincy of the team was on his shoulders

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
Were these books bought by her yesterday?
Ans 1. Who bought these books yesterday?

2. Are these books bought by her yesterday?

3. Is she the one who bought these books yesterday?

4. Did she buy these books yesterday?

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Crime of killing a king

Ans 1. Genocide

2. Regicide

3. Pesticide

4. Homicide

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He said, “She has finished the painting.”
Ans 1. He said she had finished the painting.

2. He said she has finished the painting.

3. She has finished the painting he said.

4. He said that she had finished the painting.

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle.

Ans 1. Ascetic

2. Atheist

3. Agnostic

4. Apostate

Q.11 Select the sentence that does NOT have a spelling error.
Ans 1. How dare you chellenge me?

2. How dare you challange me?

3. How dare you challenge me?

4. How dare you chalenge me?

Q.12 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank.

Your shirt is _____ same colour as mine.
Ans 1. the

2. a

3. No article required

4. an

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
We love Nathan.
Ans 1. Nathan is loved by us.

2. Nathan is being loved by us.

3. Nathan have been loved by us.

4. Nathan has been loved by us.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
To make both ends meet
Ans 1. Quite worthless

2. To take back what you have said

3. To live within one’s income

4. To anticipate

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
A Mercedes-Benz was owned by my father.
Ans 1. My father owned a Mercedes-Benz.

2. My father has owned a Mercedes-Benz.

3. My father owns a Mercedes-Benz.

4. My father has been owning a Mercedes-Benz.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The water cycle, also known as the hydrological cycle, is a continuous process that circulates water throughout the Earth's systems. It
involves the movement of water between the (1)____________, the water bodies and the land. The cycle consists of several key
stages, each playing a crucial role in maintaining Earth's water balance.
At the heart of the water cycle is the process of (2)____________. This is where water from oceans, lakes and rivers is heated by the
sun and turns into water vapour. This water vapour then rises into the atmosphere, where it cools and condenses to form clouds.
When these clouds become heavy enough, they release their moisture through (3)____________, which can fall as rain or other
forms of precipitation.
When precipitation falls onto the land, it can take different paths. Some of it may evaporate back into the air, while some may be taken
up by plants and released back into the atmosphere through a process called (4)_________. The rest of the water may flow over the
land's surface, gathering in streams and rivers that eventually lead back to the oceans, completing the cycle.
The water cycle is essential for maintaining Earth's ecosystems and supporting life. It helps distribute fresh water to various regions,
replenishes water sources, and plays a role in regulating (5)_______ temperatures. Understanding the water cycle is crucial for
addressing water scarcity and managing natural resources effectively.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. environment

2. atmosphere

3. ecosystem

4. forest

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. liquefaction

2. sublimation

3. condensation

4. evaporation
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The water cycle, also known as the hydrological cycle, is a continuous process that circulates water throughout the Earth's systems. It
involves the movement of water between the (1)____________, the water bodies and the land. The cycle consists of several key
stages, each playing a crucial role in maintaining Earth's water balance.
At the heart of the water cycle is the process of (2)____________. This is where water from oceans, lakes and rivers is heated by the
sun and turns into water vapour. This water vapour then rises into the atmosphere, where it cools and condenses to form clouds.
When these clouds become heavy enough, they release their moisture through (3)____________, which can fall as rain or other
forms of precipitation.
When precipitation falls onto the land, it can take different paths. Some of it may evaporate back into the air, while some may be taken
up by plants and released back into the atmosphere through a process called (4)_________. The rest of the water may flow over the
land's surface, gathering in streams and rivers that eventually lead back to the oceans, completing the cycle.
The water cycle is essential for maintaining Earth's ecosystems and supporting life. It helps distribute fresh water to various regions,
replenishes water sources, and plays a role in regulating (5)_______ temperatures. Understanding the water cycle is crucial for
addressing water scarcity and managing natural resources effectively.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. sublimation

2. condensation

3. evaporation

4. precipitation

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. condensation

2. transpiration

3. precipitation

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. national

2. global

3. rural

4. communal

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Our failure to control one of the most common of all ailments sometimes seems ridiculous. Medical science regularly practises
transplant surgery and has rid whole countries of such killing diseases as Typhus and the Plague. But the problem of the common
cold is unusually difficult and much has yet to be done to solve it. It is known that a cold is caused by one of a number of viral
infections that affect the lining of the nose and other passages leading to the lungs, but the confusing variety of viruses makes
studying and remedy very difficult. It was shown in 1960 that many typical colds in adults are caused by one or the other of a family of
viruses known as rhinoviruses, yet there still remain many colds for which no virus has as yet been isolated.
There is also the difficulty that, because they are so much smaller than the bacteria which cause many other infections, viruses cannot
be seen with ordinary microscopes. Nor can they be cultivated easily in the bacteriologist’s laboratory, since they only grow within the
living cells of animals or plants. An important recent step forward, however, is the development of the technique of tissue culture, in
which bits of animal tissue are enabled to go on living and to multiply independently of the body. This has greatly aided virus research
and has led to the discovery of a large number of viruses. Their existence had previously been not only unknown but even
unsuspected. The fact that we can catch a cold repeatedly creates another difficulty. Usually, a virus strikes only once and leaves the
victim immune to further attacks. Still, we do not gain immunity from colds. It seems, therefore, that we are likely to have to suffer
colds for some time yet.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 The most appropriate synonym of the word ‘isolated’ is:
Ans 1. accessible

2. deserted

3. bare

4. futile
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Our failure to control one of the most common of all ailments sometimes seems ridiculous. Medical science regularly practises
transplant surgery and has rid whole countries of such killing diseases as Typhus and the Plague. But the problem of the common
cold is unusually difficult and much has yet to be done to solve it. It is known that a cold is caused by one of a number of viral
infections that affect the lining of the nose and other passages leading to the lungs, but the confusing variety of viruses makes
studying and remedy very difficult. It was shown in 1960 that many typical colds in adults are caused by one or the other of a family of
viruses known as rhinoviruses, yet there still remain many colds for which no virus has as yet been isolated.
There is also the difficulty that, because they are so much smaller than the bacteria which cause many other infections, viruses cannot
be seen with ordinary microscopes. Nor can they be cultivated easily in the bacteriologist’s laboratory, since they only grow within the
living cells of animals or plants. An important recent step forward, however, is the development of the technique of tissue culture, in
which bits of animal tissue are enabled to go on living and to multiply independently of the body. This has greatly aided virus research
and has led to the discovery of a large number of viruses. Their existence had previously been not only unknown but even
unsuspected. The fact that we can catch a cold repeatedly creates another difficulty. Usually, a virus strikes only once and leaves the
victim immune to further attacks. Still, we do not gain immunity from colds. It seems, therefore, that we are likely to have to suffer
colds for some time yet.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Medical science has not done anything yet to solve the problem of the common cold because:
Ans 1. bacteria causes many common infections such as pneumonia, wound infections and bloodstream infections

2. other viruses get into the bloodstream where anti-bodies oppose them

3. viruses are so much smaller than the bacteria that cause many other infections; they cannot be seen with ordinary
microscopes
4. we can control one of the commonest of all diseases

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most suitable title for the given passage.
Ans 1. The Technique of Tissue Culture Independently

2. The Most Frequent Infectious Diseases

3. The Problem Of Controlling the Common Cold

4. Viruses Gain Immunity from Colds

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Which of the following is the most appropriate summary of the given passage?
Ans 1. The problem of common cold is unusually difficult, hence, we are likely to get relief from cold.

2. Usually, a bacteria strikes only once and we do not gain immunity from colds

3. Virus research has led to the discovery of a large number of viruses and leaves the victim immune to further attacks.

4. In spite of having the cure to kill diseases like Typhus and Plague, it seems ridiculous that medical science has not done
much yet to solve the problem of the common cold.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Identify the most suitable inference from the given passage.
Ans 1. Medical Science has not yet resolved the problem of the common cold. Therefore, we have to suffer colds for some more
time.
2. When your immune system is exposed to a new germ for the first time, it responds by trying to fight it off.

3. Colds are minor infections of the nose and throat caused by viruses. Rhinovirus is the most common cause of common cold.

4. The viruses causing cold attack only on the surface and become immune to it.
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 26/06/2024
Exam Time 11:45 AM - 12:45 PM
Subject Selection Post Higher Secondary level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

RDJW, SBMS, TZPO, UXSK, ?

Ans 1. VVVG

2. VWUG

3. VXYF

4. VUWH

Q.2 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
COLOUR : CUOLOR :: TRIBAL : TABIRL :: FINGER : ?
Ans 1. FNIEGR

2. FEGNIR

3. FEGINR

4. FGEINR

Q.3 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. River
2. Puddle
3. Pond
4. Lake
5. Ocean
Ans 1. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

2. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

3. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

4. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

2. Bracelet

3. Accessory

4. Clock
Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans

Q.6 In a certain code language,

A+ B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is R related to T if ‘Q ÷ R + P – S ÷ T’?
Ans 1. Mother’s father

2. Son’s daughter

3. Son’s son

4. Father’s mother

Q.7 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
complete the letter series.
_A_J__J_A__A
Ans 1. JAAAAJA

2. AAJJAAA

3. JAAJAJJ

4. AJJAAJJ
Q.8 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

98 × 14 + 24 − 12 ÷ 8 = ?
Ans 1. 79

2. 81

3. 63

4. 93

Q.9 Which letter cluster can replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
HDZH, IFWL, ?, KJQT, LLNX
Ans 1. JITS

2. JHTP

3. JHUT

4. JJSP

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘HABITAT’ is coded as 0101010 and ‘UNDERNEATH’ is coded as 1001001100. How will
‘POSSIBLE’ be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 01001001

2. 01010011

3. 10110001

4. 10110110

Q.11 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Micro
2. Hecto
3. Nano
4. Kilo
5. Mili
Ans 1. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

3. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

4. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Q.12 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
Based on the above, how is P related to Z if ‘W + Y − Z ÷ X + P’?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Sister

3. Son's wife

4. Daughter

Q.13 ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.
If ‘B – A ÷ R + S & M’, then how is B related to S?
Ans 1. Father’s brother

2. Son

3. Brother’s son

4. Brother
Q.14 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.15 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
T_K_NTA_EN_A_E_T_KE_
Ans 1. KETANAKT

2. AEKTKNAN

3. EATKNANT

4. ATKETAKN

Q.16 The numbers in each set are related to each other in a certain way.
(12, 18, 3), (20, 30, 5), (36, 54, ?)
Based on the relationship among the numbers in the first two sets, select the number that can replace the question mark (?)
in the third set.
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 7

4. 6
Q.17 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find
the number on the face opposite to 4.

Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 1

4. 6

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘CASUAL’ is written as ‘SACLAU’ and ‘DESIRE’ is written as ‘SEDERI’. How will ‘FALLEN’ be
written in that language?
Ans 1. NFELLA

2. LAFNEL

3. NELALF

4. NELLAF

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘NODUS’ is written as ‘KJUDF’ and ‘PILLOW’ is written as ‘IPMMJB’. How will ‘NAVEL’ be written
in that language?
Ans 1. KXCTM

2. KXCMT

3. KXTCM

4. KXMCT

Q.20 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
1, 3, 9, 27, ?
Ans 1. 54

2. 81

3. 243

4. 63

Q.21 In a certain code language, 'DEVINE' is written as '53' and 'HANG' is written as '26'. How will 'BLEND' be written in that
language?
Ans 1. 37

2. 26

3. 45

4. 32

Q.22 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Interview
2. Application
3. Selection
4. Examination
5. Appointment
Ans 1. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4

2. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

3. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

4. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
Q.23 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Taj Mahal : India :: Eiffel Tower : ?
Ans 1. France

2. Japan

3. Russia

4. England

Q.24 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All cabbages are beetroots.
Some cabbages are carrots.
Conclusions:
I. Some beetroots are cabbages.
II. Some beetroots are carrots.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.25

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following rivers is NOT related to the coastal plain of India?
Ans 1. Krishna

2. Kaveri

3. Brahmaputra

4. Mahanadi
Q.2 How many state Legislative Council members are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the
state?
Ans
1.

Q.3 The battle of Khanwa was fought between the forces of the Babur and the Rajput forces led by:
Ans 1. Rana Sanga

2. Ibrahim Lodi

3. Medini Rai

4. Mahmud Lodi

Q.4 Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) in 2023?
Ans 1. Sushil R Gaikwad

2. Prabhat Kumar Tripathi

3. Krishnendra Pratap Singh

4. Lalit Kumar Gupta

Q.5 Whom did Lord Curzon entrust as architect for Victoria Memorial Hall?
Ans 1. Herbert Baker

2. Henry Irwin

3. Robert Chisholm

4. William Emerson

Q.6 According to Census 2011, what is the estimated percentage of people below the poverty line in rural areas?
Ans 1. 18.90%

2. 27.09%

3. 13.04%

4. 25.70%

Q.7 Who among the following was the Viceroy of British India when the Shimla conference was held in 1945?
Ans 1. Lord Irwin

2. Lord Wavell

3. Lord Linlithgow

4. Lord Willingdon

Q.8 Who among the following is the longest serving Chief Minister of a state?
Ans 1. Lal Thanhawla

2. Gegong Apang

3. Pawan Kumar Chamling

4. Jyoti Basu
Q.9 The Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Fa Hien visited India during the reign of which of the following Gupta emperors?
Ans 1. Chandragupta I

2. Vishnugupta

3. Chandragupta II

4. Ghatotkacha

Q.10 In respect of Arunachal Pradesh, the Governor has special responsibility under ________ of the Constitution of India with
respect to law and order and in discharge of his functions in relation thereto.
Ans 1. Article 361 H

2. Article 359 A

3. Article 371 H

4. Article 380 A

Q.11 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution enforces that it is the duty of the State to apply directive principles
in making laws?
Ans 1. Article 38

2. Article 39

3. Article 36

4. Article 37

Q.12 For the first time in the country, which of the following State Governments has implemented a policy for blindness control
with the objective of 'Right to Sight'?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Rajasthan

3. Maharashtra

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.13 Who among the following musicians played Carnatic music with Ghatam?
Ans 1. KV Prasad

2. TH Vinayakram

3. Ali Akbar Khan

4. Ramnad Raghavan

Q.14 The CPWD along with the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways works for public infrastructure. What is the full form of
CPWD?
Ans 1. Central Public Welfare Design

2. Central Public Works Department

3. Central Political Welfare Design

4. Central Public Welfare Department

Q.15 In ethylene (C2H4), hybridisation of carbon atoms is:

Ans 1. sp3d
2. Sp

3. sp2

4. sp3

Q.16 Which geostationary weather satellite launched by the European Space Agency in 1977 that provides weather imaging of
Earth at both visible light and infrared wavelengths?
Ans 1. QuikSCAT

2. Himawari

3. Landsat

4. Meteosat
Q.17 73rd Amendment Act 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all the states having population of
above:
Ans 1. 5 lakh

2. 15 lakh

3. 10 lakh

4. 20 lakh

Q.18 What are ribosomes made up of?

Ans 1. Proteins and RNA

2. Only proteins

3. Only DNA

4. Only RNA

Q.19 Cheraw dance belongs to which of the following states?

Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Gujarat

3. Uttarakhand

4. Nagaland

Q.20 What is the root-like structure at the base of an algae (seaweed) that binds the algae to a hard substrate like a stone?
Ans 1. Stipe

2. Frond

3. Midrib

4. Holdfast

Q.21 Which of the following states is the least populated according to census 2011?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.22 ‘Total Recall: My Unbelievably True Life Story’ was authored by whom among the following personalities in addition to Peter
Petre ?
Ans 1. Malcom X

2. Arnold Schwarzenegger

3. Andre Agassi

4. Pete Sampras

Q.23 Mahatma Gandhi called a halt to the Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident. Where among the
following places is Chauri Chaura located?
Ans 1. Meerut

2. Gorakhpur

3. Lucknow

4. Mathura

Q.24 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Peacock Garden’?
Ans 1. Anita Desai

2. Indu Sundaresan

3. Arundhati Roy

4. Shashi Deshpande
Q.25 The Dang Darbar Fair is held every year in which Indian state?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Gujarat

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A dealer buys an article listed at ₹250 and gets successive discounts of 12% and 16%. He spends 10% of the cost price on
transportation. At what price should he sell the article to earn a profit of 25%? (Correct to two places of decimal)
Ans 1. ₹274.10

2. ₹254.10

3. ₹244.10

4. ₹264.10

Q.2 In an isosceles ΔLMN, LM = LN, and ∠ MLN = 37°. Find ∠ MNL.

Ans 1. 60.5°

2. 70.0°

3. 65.0°

4. 71.5°

Q.3 The present ages of Ramu and Ravi are in the ratio of 4 : 3. After 5 years the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 4. Find their
present ages, respectively.
Ans 1. 20 years, 15 years

2. 15 years, 20 years

3. 10 years, 15 years

4. 15 years, 12 years

Q.4

Ans 1. 0

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Q.5 A and B are participants in a 1,800 m circular race. A is running at a speed of 24 km/h and B is running at a speed of 15 km/h.
If both start from the same point and at the same time and run in the same direction, find the time when they will meet again.
(up to two decimal points)
Ans 1. 400 sec

2. 500 sec

3. 720 sec

4. 600 sec

Q.6 If 45% of 50% of a number is 27, then what is the number?

Ans 1. 160

2. 180

3. 150

4. 120
Q.7

Ans 1. 11488.67 cm3

2. 11598.67 cm3

3. 11478.67 cm3

4. 11498.67 cm3

Q.8

Ans 1. More, 25.5%

2. Less, 25.5%

3. More, 28.5%

4. Less, 28.5%

Q.9 Working separately, A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 18 days, respectively. If A starts the work and they work on
alternate days, one on each day, then in how many days will the work be completed?
Ans
1.

4.
Q.10

Ans 1. 2.5 billion

2. 2 billion

3. 1.5 billion

4. 3 billion

Q.11 Ramagya spends 22% of his salary on house rent and 75% of the rest on household expenses. If he saves ₹3,705, find his
total income (in rupees).
Ans 1. ₹17,000

2. ₹18,000

3. ₹21,000

4. ₹19,000

Q.12

Ans 1. 95

2. 92

3. 96

4. 97

Q.13 The average weight of 10 persons is increased by 3.5 kg, when one of them whose weight is 45.5 kg is replaced by a new
man. The weight (in kg) of the new man is ___.
Ans 1. 70.5

2. 85.5

3. 80.5

4. 75.5
Q.14

Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 5

4. 7

Q.15

Ans 1.

Q.16 In a race of 400 m, Bhim gave Saral a head start by 20 m at the start of the race. Saral took 48 seconds to complete the race.
What was the speed (in m/s) of Bhim if Saral defeated Bhim by a margin of 2 seconds?
Ans 1. 8

2. 8.7

3. 7.6

4. 7.4

Q.17

Ans 1. 0.005

2. 0.001

3. 1.000

4. 1.525

Q.18 Find the simple interest on ₹15,000 at the rate of 7% p.a. for 3 years.
Ans 1. ₹3,000

2. ₹3,100

3. ₹3,150

4. ₹3,120

Q.19 Find the third proportional of 9, 7, ?, 14.

Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 24

4. 21

Q.20 A bag contains a total of 180 coins in the denominations of ₹5 and ₹1. Find the number of ₹5 coins in the bag, if the total
value of the coins is ₹500.
Ans 1. 100

2. 60

3. 120

4. 80
Q.21 A completes a piece of work in 4 days and B completes it in 6 days. How long will it take to complete the same piece of work
if they both work together?
Ans
1.

Q.22 During the lockdown, a state government gives 4.5 kg of rice to each person of a family at a cost price of ₹40 per kg. But the
distributor uses false weight of 3.75 kg instead of 4.5 kg and distributes the rice. The accumulated rice was sold in the black
market at double the price. He showed the government that he distributed 2700 kg of rice. When caught, he was made to pay
a fine of 125% of what he earned in the black market. What was his fine amount?
Ans 1. ₹36,000

2. ₹45,000

3. ₹28,000

4. ₹54,000

Q.23 Sukrit purchased an item for ₹650 and sold it at a profit of 26%. At what price (in ₹) did Sukrit sell the item?
Ans 1. 819

2. 813

3. 823

4. 829

Q.24 Without actual division, find the remainder when 379843 is divided by 3.
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.25

Ans
1.

Section : English Language

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Can we make sure we have a lots of fun on the trip?
Ans 1. Can we make

2. a lots of fun

3. on the trip?

4. sure we have
Q.2 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
The reviewer gave a dazzling review of the restaurant, which then went viral.
Ans 1. A dazzling review of the restaurant is given by the reviewer, which then went viral.

2. It went viral when the reviewer gave a dazzling review of the restaurant.

3. The reviewer was given a dazzling review to the restaurant, which then had gone viral

4. A dazzling review of the restaurant was given by the reviewer, which then went viral.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
Sharon doing the work all by herself? Seems like it is possible, but is very unlikely to happen.
Ans 1. a bad egg

2. a piece of cake

3. pie in the sky

4. bent out of shape

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Let’s recall the chapter once again.
Ans 1. Let the chapter be recalled once again by us.

2. Let the chapter is recalled once again by us.

3. Let the chapter being recalled once again by us.

4. Let the chapter is being recalled once again by us

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence with its ANTONYM.

The moment our English Instructor said the final paper is going to be tough, it was music to my ears!
Ans 1. unpredictable

2. resolvable

3. durable

4. peculiar

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A system of government by one person with absolute power

Ans 1. Bureaucracy

2. Democracy

3. Autocracy

4. Anarchy

Q.7 Parts of the following sentences have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Paul and I played tennis yesterday. He’s much better than me, so he win easily.
Ans 1. He’s much better than me

2. So he win easily

3. Paul and I

4. Played tennis yesterday

Q.8 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the following sentence.
The divide between the upper class and the lower class is jixtaposed in this play.
Ans 1. Juxtapused

2. Jextaposed

3. Juxtapoised

4. Juxtaposed
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

We have been at fours and fives in the office due to network issues.
Ans 1. At nines and tens

2. At sixes and sevens

3. At eights and nines

4. At threes and fours

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Great tiredness
Ans 1. Potent

2. Rejuvenation

3. Vigour

4. Fatigue

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The science of teaching

Ans 1. Pedagogy

2. Astrology

3. Technology

4. Zoology

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The room will have been cleaned by the servant.

Ans 1. The servant will have cleaned the room.

2. The servant will clean the room.

3. The servant should clean the room.

4. The servant will have clean the room.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
I know you’re blaming me for all that has happened but I wasn’t at fault alone.
Ans 1. it is always darkest before the dawn

2. make hay while the sun shines

3. it takes two to tango

4. leave no stone unturned

Q.14 In the following sentence, four words have been underlined, out of which one word is MISSPELT. Select the option with the
MISSPELT word.
The maintainance staff of the heritage hotel have decided to go on a strike from next Wednesday.
Ans 1. maintainance

2. decided

3. heritage

4. strike

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He told me, “I will call you later.”

Ans 1. He told me I would call me later.

2. He told you call me later.

3. He told he can call me later.

4. He told me that he would call me later.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Smoking is the leading cause of death from bronchogenic carcinoma of the lungs, as well as a cause of death from larynx, oral cavity,
oesophagus, bladder, kidney, pancreas, stomach, uterine cervix and coronary heart disease. Nicotine is the (1)_______ addictive
component of tobacco smoke. The additives, too, cause (2)_______ to the body; for example, ammonia can result in a 100-fold
increase in nicotine's (3)_________ to enter the nose. Nicotine's 'kick' can be amplified by levulinic acid, an additive used to conceal
the nicotine's harsh taste, by (4)________ the binding of nicotine to brain receptors. More than four thousand compounds and more
than forty known carcinogens are found in cigarette smoke. Tobacco smoke has been well (5)______ as a proven carcinogen and
cancer cause for many years.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. secondary

2. trivial

3. minor

4. primary

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. favour

2. cure

3. harm

4. benefit

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. capacity

2. inability

3. limitation

4. deficiency
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. increasing

2. diminishing

3. reducing

4. decreasing

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. misread

2. neglected

3. recognised

4. behaved
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Superstitions are a universal phenomenon having their own peculiar place in the cultural ethos and milieu of a people. They epitomise
man’s fear of the unknown, fear of evil, blind faith in omens and portents. Superstitions are interwoven with myth, legend, unnatural
phenomena and disaster, customs and traditions, and are mainly the outcome of ignorance. They are unreasonable and irrational
beliefs that gradually become matters of faith. When certain things and happenings are rationally inexplicable, people tend to assign
mysterious and supernatural reasons for their operation. Thus, a natural disaster is explained in terms of God’s wrath and the failure
of one’s project is assigned to the black cat which crossed the path just as one set out on the errand.
The primitive human beings were mainly governed by superstitions. Superstitions were widespread before the dawn of civilisation
when science had not advanced. Thus, ignorance of the primitive people and the resultant growth of superstitions were the direct
outcomes of the lack of scientific advancement. Unenlightened people always tend to be superstitious. The belief in the sanctity of
time and old traditions of the ancestors bind the people into knots of superstitious thought. Besides, the unscrupulous priests and
religious officials exercise a dominating, unhealthy effect upon the people believing in religious orthodoxy. They encourage
superstitions for their own ulterior motives.
Superstitions are not only universally prevalent but even have strikingly common features whether believed in India or in as far off a
place as Canada. There are some common superstitions which are shared by people all over the world. Beliefs in spirits, ghosts and
witches and reincarnation are quite common among all the peoples of the world. Belief in witches still prevails in India, France,
Scotland, England, and many other countries. In countries of the East, especially in India, belief in ghosts and spirits still exists. The
cries of certain birds like owls and ravens and the howl of cats are regarded with superstition as portents of evil throughout the world.
Then there is a very common belief that the sighting of comets portends the death of kings or great men or some unforeseen
catastrophe. Shakespeare refers to such a superstition in his play/tragedy, Julius Caesar. Halley’s Comet in the twentieth century
evoked a similar response in many a mind.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What does ‘unenlightened’ mean in the context of the given passage?
Ans 1. Lack of necessary knowledge

2. A very delighted person

3. Perfect knowledge of something

4. An intellectual human being

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Superstitions are a universal phenomenon having their own peculiar place in the cultural ethos and milieu of a people. They epitomise
man’s fear of the unknown, fear of evil, blind faith in omens and portents. Superstitions are interwoven with myth, legend, unnatural
phenomena and disaster, customs and traditions, and are mainly the outcome of ignorance. They are unreasonable and irrational
beliefs that gradually become matters of faith. When certain things and happenings are rationally inexplicable, people tend to assign
mysterious and supernatural reasons for their operation. Thus, a natural disaster is explained in terms of God’s wrath and the failure
of one’s project is assigned to the black cat which crossed the path just as one set out on the errand.
The primitive human beings were mainly governed by superstitions. Superstitions were widespread before the dawn of civilisation
when science had not advanced. Thus, ignorance of the primitive people and the resultant growth of superstitions were the direct
outcomes of the lack of scientific advancement. Unenlightened people always tend to be superstitious. The belief in the sanctity of
time and old traditions of the ancestors bind the people into knots of superstitious thought. Besides, the unscrupulous priests and
religious officials exercise a dominating, unhealthy effect upon the people believing in religious orthodoxy. They encourage
superstitions for their own ulterior motives.
Superstitions are not only universally prevalent but even have strikingly common features whether believed in India or in as far off a
place as Canada. There are some common superstitions which are shared by people all over the world. Beliefs in spirits, ghosts and
witches and reincarnation are quite common among all the peoples of the world. Belief in witches still prevails in India, France,
Scotland, England, and many other countries. In countries of the East, especially in India, belief in ghosts and spirits still exists. The
cries of certain birds like owls and ravens and the howl of cats are regarded with superstition as portents of evil throughout the world.
Then there is a very common belief that the sighting of comets portends the death of kings or great men or some unforeseen
catastrophe. Shakespeare refers to such a superstition in his play/tragedy, Julius Caesar. Halley’s Comet in the twentieth century
evoked a similar response in many a mind.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Superstitions are mainly the outcomes of _____________.
Ans 1. learning

2. ignorance

3. belief

4. knowledge
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Superstitions are a universal phenomenon having their own peculiar place in the cultural ethos and milieu of a people. They epitomise
man’s fear of the unknown, fear of evil, blind faith in omens and portents. Superstitions are interwoven with myth, legend, unnatural
phenomena and disaster, customs and traditions, and are mainly the outcome of ignorance. They are unreasonable and irrational
beliefs that gradually become matters of faith. When certain things and happenings are rationally inexplicable, people tend to assign
mysterious and supernatural reasons for their operation. Thus, a natural disaster is explained in terms of God’s wrath and the failure
of one’s project is assigned to the black cat which crossed the path just as one set out on the errand.
The primitive human beings were mainly governed by superstitions. Superstitions were widespread before the dawn of civilisation
when science had not advanced. Thus, ignorance of the primitive people and the resultant growth of superstitions were the direct
outcomes of the lack of scientific advancement. Unenlightened people always tend to be superstitious. The belief in the sanctity of
time and old traditions of the ancestors bind the people into knots of superstitious thought. Besides, the unscrupulous priests and
religious officials exercise a dominating, unhealthy effect upon the people believing in religious orthodoxy. They encourage
superstitions for their own ulterior motives.
Superstitions are not only universally prevalent but even have strikingly common features whether believed in India or in as far off a
place as Canada. There are some common superstitions which are shared by people all over the world. Beliefs in spirits, ghosts and
witches and reincarnation are quite common among all the peoples of the world. Belief in witches still prevails in India, France,
Scotland, England, and many other countries. In countries of the East, especially in India, belief in ghosts and spirits still exists. The
cries of certain birds like owls and ravens and the howl of cats are regarded with superstition as portents of evil throughout the world.
Then there is a very common belief that the sighting of comets portends the death of kings or great men or some unforeseen
catastrophe. Shakespeare refers to such a superstition in his play/tragedy, Julius Caesar. Halley’s Comet in the twentieth century
evoked a similar response in many a mind.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 What does the phrase ‘religious orthodoxy’ mean?
Ans 1. The modern beliefs of a social group

2. The advanced beliefs of a political group

3. The western beliefs of a business group

4. The traditional beliefs of a religious group

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT regarded as a superstition by people?
Ans 1. Howling of cats

2. Cries of children

3. Sighting of comets

4. Crossing of path by black cat

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the passage?
Ans 1. Superstitions are a universal phenomenon.

2. Superstitions are rational beliefs.

3. A natural disaster is regarded as a god’s wrath by superstitious people.

4. Superstitions are also prevailing in Canada.

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 20/06/2024
Exam Time 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
SPEAK : ROIEJ :: THEIR : SGIOQ :: BEING : ?
Ans 1. BIONF

2. BOINF

3. AIOMF

4. AIONF

Q.2 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Fox
2. Lion
3. Caterpillar
4. Leaf
5. Bird
Ans 1. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2

2. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

3. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

4. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

Q.3 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
SCATTER : TBBSUDS :: RESPECT : SDTOFBU :: SUCCESS : ?
Ans 1. TTDBFTR

2. TTBDFTR

3. RTBDFTR

4. TTDBFRT
Q.4 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown in the given
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to the number 3.

Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Q.5 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is W related to P if ‘W – V + T # R × S – P’?
Ans 1. Brother’s wife’s father’s mother’s father

2. Brother’s wife’s father’s mother’s brother

3. Wife’s father’s mother’s brother

4. Wife’s father’s mother’ father

Q.6 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
289 + 17 × 12 ÷ 216 − 300 = 120
Ans 1. − and +

2. ÷ and −

3. ÷ and +

4. + and ×
Q.7 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

(X)
Ans

Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All motors are ships.
Some ships are bowls.
No ship is a hammer.

Conclusions:
(I) Some motors are hammers.
(II) Some bowls are motors.
(III) Some bowls are not hammers.
Ans 1. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

Q.10 In a code language, 'THENW' is coded as ‘WNEHT’ and 'HOVER' is coded as ‘REVOH’. How will 'SWAMP' be coded in the
same language?
Ans 1. PAWMS

2. PMAWS

3. PWAMS

4. PMBWS

Q.11 In a certain code language, ROSE is coded as 51 and WAX is coded as 33. How will FOX be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 36

2. 31

3. 40

4. 35

Q.12 26 is related to 12 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 36 is related to 18. Which of the following is related to
20 using the same logic?
Ans 1. 35

2. 45

3. 42

4. 53

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘you were there’ is coded as ‘pu sg ka’ and ‘there are branches’ is coded as ‘sg np tu’. How is
‘there’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ka

2. sg

3. pu

4. np
Q.14 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above information, how is R’s daughter related to T if ‘P + Q ÷ R × S − T ÷ U’?

Ans 1. Brother’s daughter

2. Brother’s father`

3. Brother’s wife

4. Brother’s son

Q.15 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
North America : Mexico :: South America : ?
Ans 1. Venezuela

2. Jamaica

3. Frankfurt

4. Cranberry

Q.16 Select the letter from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Y, W, T, P, K, ?
Ans 1. G

2. E

3. H

4. F

Q.17 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
15, 20, 45, 170, ?
Ans 1. 840

2. 795

3. 520

4. 645

Q.18 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word
Metal : Ore :: Rubber : ?
Ans 1. Fibre

2. Jute

3. Latex

4. Flare

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘CAN’ is written as ‘63’, and ‘TWO’ is written as ‘23’. How will ‘USE’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. 43

2. 33

3. 51

4. 36
Q.20 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
P_P__B__PB__
Ans 1. PPBBBPP

2. BPPPPPP

3. PBBBBPB

4. BPBBPPB

Q.21 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Campus
2. Calendar
3. Capture
4. Capital
5. Calculate
Ans 1. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1

2. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

3. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3

4. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Q.22 Three statements are given, followed by Two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some markers are frogs.
All frogs are combs.
No comb is a stove.
Conclusions:
I. All markers being stove is a possibility.
II. Some combs are markers.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘break the wall’ is written as ‘jl mt hk’ and ‘wall is black’ is written as ‘zy hk bs’. How is ‘wall’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. hk

2. bs

3. jl

4. zy
Q.24 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘WBRP’ is coded as ‘59’and ‘MSAQ’ is coded as ‘50’. How will ‘FUZJ’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 69

2. 54

3. 63

4. 58

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘In the performance of his/her duties, the Attorney-General for India
shall have the right of audience in all the courts in the territory of India’?
Ans 1. Article 76(4)

2. Article 76(2)

3. Article 76(1)

4. Article 76(3)
Q.2 In October 2020, which of the following Ministries launched the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme, to assist cooperatives in the
creation of healthcare infrastructure?
Ans 1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

3. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Q.3 According to the Koppen climate classification system, ‘Am’ is the code for which type of climate?
Ans 1. Humid subtropical climate

2. Marine west coast climate

3. Tropical monsoon climate

4. Tropical wet and dry climate

Q.4 In which of the following states of India is the largest salt water lake, the Chilika lake, located?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Odisha

4. Kerala

Q.5 Flowerless plants, naked seeds, needle like leaves and cones as reproductive structure are the characteristics of:
Ans 1. bryophyta

2. gymnosperms

3. angiosperms

4. pteridophyta

Q.6 Under which Schedule of the Indian Constitution is the form of oath or affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme Court
mentioned?
Ans 1. Third Schedule

2. First Schedule

3. Second Schedule

4. Fourth Schedule

Q.7 The Trimbakeshwar Temple, which is situated in Nashik, Maharashtra, was built by:
Ans 1. Maharaja Ganga Singh

2. Balaji Baji Rao

3. Shivaji

4. Maharana Pratap

Q.8 Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner Deepak Mazumdar is an exponent of ___________.
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Sattriya

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Manipuri

Q.9 Compounds like gingerol, paradol, shogaols and zingerone are:

Ans 1. antimicrobial compounds found in turmeric

2. antifungal compounds found in ginger

3. antimicrobial compounds found in citrus fruits

4. antimicrobial compounds found in ginger

Q.10 As of July 2023, who is the governor of Uttar Pradesh?
Ans 1. Anandiben Patel

2. TV Rajeswar

3. Sudarshan Agarwal

4. Ram Naik

Q.11 Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy is related to which of the following sports events?
Ans 1. Cricket

2. Tennis

3. Football

4. Hockey

Q.12 The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called the National Highway no. ________ between Delhi and Amritsar.
Ans 1. 9

2. 1

3. 3

4. 7

Q.13 The first musician to be awarded with the highest civilian award of India, the ‘Bharat Ratna’ was __________.
Ans 1. Lalitha Venkataraman

2. Sudha Ragunathan

3. MS Subbulakshmi

4. Madurai Mani Iyer

Q.14 Which of the following is the autobiography of Abul Kalam Azad, the first Education Minister of free India?
Ans 1. The Road Ahead

2. Unbreakable

3. India Wins Freedom

4. The Test of My Life

Q.15 Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma is associated with which of these dances?

Ans 1. Manipuri

2. Kuchipudi

3. Kathak

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.16 What is the annual income threshold for parents of government school students to enrol in private schools under the
‘Chirag’ scheme in Haryana?
Ans 1. Less than ₹1 lakh

2. Less than ₹2 lakh

3. Less than ₹1.8 lakh

4. Less than ₹50,000

Q.17 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that every religious denomination or section shall have the right to own
and acquire movable and immovable property?
Ans 1. Article 26(d)

2. Article 26(b)

3. Article 26(a)

4. Article 26(c)
Q.18 Who among the following was one of the founders of the Swaraj Party?
Ans 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Chittaranjan Das

3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.19 When did the United Nations declare the World Physics Year, also known as the Einstein Year, to mark the 100th anniversary
of the physicist Albert Einstein?
Ans 1. 2006

2. 2004

3. 2005

4. 2002

Q.20 Which of the following Sultans of Delhi set up the officers like Barid (intelligence officer) and Munhiyans (secret spies) to
control the market?
Ans 1. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

2. Ghiyasuddin Balban

3. Alauddin Khalji

4. Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Q.21 According to the global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021, India’s rank is ________ out of 109 countries.
Ans 1. 98

2. 66

3. 63

4. 101

Q.22 Which of the following is the earliest literary record of Indian culture?
Ans 1. Atharvaveda

2. Yajurveda

3. Samaveda

4. Rigveda

Q.23 'Moatsu' is a religious festival celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Nagaland

4. Mizoram

Q.24 The battle of Plassey was fought between the East India Company, force headed by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal,
________ in 1757.
Ans 1. Shah Alam

2. Mir Jafar

3. Siraj-Ud-Daulah

4. Mir Qasim

Q.25 Which of the following Union territories has the lowest population as per census 2011?
Ans 1. Daman and Diu

2. Lakshadweep

3. Andaman and Nicobar

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 A truck travels 75 km in the first hour and 33 km in the second hour. Find the average speed of the truck (in km/h).
Ans 1. 54

2. 42

3. 108

4. 60

Q.2 Reyan purchased a laptop for₹56,000 and a scanner-cum-printer for₹22,000. He sold the laptop for a 20% profit and the
scanner-cum-printer for a 15% profit. What is his profit percentage?
Ans
1.

Q.3 The median AD of a triangle ABC is produced and a perpendicular CF is dropped on it. BE is perpendicular to AD. If BC = 34
cm and DF = 8 cm, what is the length (in cm) of BE?
Ans 1. 17

2. 15

3. 19

4. 9

Q.4 The average of 12 numbers is 47. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of the next 4 numbers is 52. If the
10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then what is the average value of the 11th
and 12th numbers?
Ans 1. 44.5

2. 47.5

3. 42.5

4. 46.5

Q.5

Ans 1. 0.9

2. 0.7

3. 0.3

4. 0.4

Q.6 Find the area (in cm2) of a circle with a maximum radius that can be inscribed in a rectangle of length 18 cm and breadth 12
cm.
Ans 1.

4.
Q.7 A wrist watch was purchased for₹3,000 and sold for₹3,500. Find the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 19.58%

2. 18.33%

3. 16.66%

4. 20.50%

Q.8 A and B can do a work in 15 days and 30 days, respectively. They start working together, but A leaves after 3 days. How
much time will B take to complete the remaining work?
Ans 1. 21 days

2. 28 days

3. 24 days

4. 32 days

Q.9 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?

Ans 1. 941201

2. 132490

3. 553986

4. 350846

Q.10 In a 150-m race, if R gets a 5-metre head start, then he would beat S by 35 metres. If S gets a 25-metre head start in a 100-
metre race, then _______ would win the race by ________ metres.
Ans 1. R; 5.44

2. S; 5.44

3. S; 4.44

4. R; 4.44

Q.11 Eight labourers working 10 hours a day completed a work in 18 days. If only 5 labourers are working, then in how many
hours a day should they work to finish the work in 24 days?
Ans 1. 9 hours

2. 10 hours

3. 8 hours

4. 12 hours

Q.12 If x2-1, 2x and x2+1 are the three sides of a right angled triangle, then which of the following can be its hypotenuse?
Ans 1. x2 + 1
2. 2x

3. x2 - 1

4. x2

Q.13 If A : B = 8 : 13, B : C = 5 : 8 and C : D = 4 : 5, then A : B : C : D is equal to:

Ans 1. 40 : 65 : 104 : 130

2. 20 : 50 : 105 : 119

3. 38 : 65 : 111 : 120

4. 40 : 60 : 103 : 112

Q.14 PQ is a diameter of a circle and PS is a chord. If PQ is 82 cm and PS is 80 cm, the distance (in cm) of PS from the center of
the circle is:
Ans 1. 39

2. 18

3. 9

4. 24
Q.15 In an election, there were only two candidates. 12% of the voters did not cast their votes. The winner by obtaining 60% of the
total votes defeated his opposite contestant by 1200 votes. Find the total number of votes.
Ans 1. 3750

2. 3570

3. 4000

4. 5730

Q.16 The area of the rhombus (in cm2) having each side equal to 13 cm and one of its diagonals equal to 24 cm is:
Ans 1. 120

2. 60

3. 110

4. 130

Q.17

Ans 1. 6690

2. 6609

3. 6906

4. 6960

Q.18 Simplify the expression (0.3-0.2) (0.32+0.3×0.2+0.22 ).

Ans 1. 0.035

2. 0.019

3. 0.027

4. 0.053

Q.19 Ramesh spends 60% of his income. If his income is increased by 30% and his expenditure is increased by 20%, then the
percentage increase in the savings of Ramesh will be:
Ans 1. 35%

2. 30%

3. 45%

4. 50%

Q.20

Ans
1.

Q.21

Ans 1. 16

2. 32

3. 28

4. 64
Q.22

Ans 1. 210.25

2. 200.00

3. 215.75

4. 206.25

Q.23

Ans 1. −1

2. 2

3. 0

4. 1

Q.24

Ans
1.

Q.25 Which of the following schemes will yield maximum discount on purchase of ₹x?
1) 2 successive discounts of 25% and 15%
2) Single discount of 20%
3) 2 free on purchase of 3 items
4) 3 free on purchase of 7 items
Ans 1. Scheme 2

2. Scheme 3

3. Scheme 4

4. Scheme 1

Section : English Language

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
King Solomon of Israel is said to be one of a wisest man who ruled the earth.
Ans 1. of a wisest man

2. is said to be one

3. King Solomon of Israel

4. who ruled the earth.

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The teacher said that plants have life in them.
Ans 1. The teacher said, “Plants too have life in them.”

2. The teacher said, “The plants had life in them.”

3. The teacher said, “Plants have life in them.”

4. The teacher says, “A plant has life in them.”

Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The employee said, “I somehow managed to submit the project last night.”
Ans 1. The employee said that he had somehow managed to submit the project the previous night.

2. The employee said that I have somehow managed to submit the project last night.

3. The employee said that he had somehow managed to submit the project last night.

4. The employee said that I somehow managed to submit the project the previous night.

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
English will be taught by Mr. Jha.
Ans 1. English would be taught by Mr. Jha.

2. Mr. Jha would teach English.

3. Mr. Jha will teach English.

4. Mr. Jha teaches English.

Q.5 In the following sentence, four words are given in underlined out of which one word is misspelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY
spelt word.
And so he was (A), for, as she laughed (B) and talked, Jo had whiskd (C) things into place and given quite (D) a different air
to the room.
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
The students were asked to assemble in the meeting hall.
Ans 1. Dispersed

2. Gather

3. Collect

4. Put together

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

It is a proven fact that _______ living being can survive without water.
Ans 1. none

2. neither

3. any

4. no

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who investigates, reports on, and helps settle complaints

Ans 1. Ombudsman

2. Bildungsroman

3. Spokesman

4. Superhuman

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
I have been yet to go to the flower exhibition at Delhi University.
Ans 1. have yet being

2. have yet

3. have yet been

4. had been yet

Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The animals were frightened by the noise.
Ans 1. The noise had frightened the animals.

2. The animals frightened the noise.

3. The noise frightened the animals.

4. The noise frightened the animal.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The bowler signalled the wicket-keeper to catch the ball.
Ans 1. Give

2. Change

3. Throw

4. Drop

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Envoy
Ans 1. Ambassador

2. Chief

3. Receiver

4. Carrier

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Intterupt

2. Commodity

3. Noticeable

4. Experience

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

We should teach our wards not to look down upon anybody in human society.
Ans 1. Despise somebody

2. Guess on something

3. Talk leniently

4. Kneel down

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
He was consulted seldom by his colleagues while making important decisions on financial matters.
Ans 1. while making important

2. by his colleagues

3. decisions on financial matters.

4. He was consulted seldom

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted, Fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.
The roots of some plants get swollen with the (1) __________ of storage food which can be used as vegetables. The plants which
have such roots are called root crops. These are (2)____________ staple foods with (3) __________ giving carbohydrates. These
also have large water (4)_____. Some (5)________ are carrots, beetroots, radishes, turnip, sweet potato etc.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. presence

2. occupancy

3. residence

4. existence
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted, Fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.
The roots of some plants get swollen with the (1) __________ of storage food which can be used as vegetables. The plants which
have such roots are called root crops. These are (2)____________ staple foods with (3) __________ giving carbohydrates. These
also have large water (4)_____. Some (5)________ are carrots, beetroots, radishes, turnip, sweet potato etc.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. fattening

2. nutritious

3. unhealthy

4. peptic

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. strength

2. energy

3. power

4. capacity

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4
Ans 1. gain

2. content

3. worth

4. utility

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. examples

2. illustration

3. samples

4. case
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The advancement of science has brought about profound changes in every aspect of our lives, from medical treatment to the way we
communicate. The capacity of artificial intelligence, sometimes known as AI, to accomplish jobs that previously required human
intellect has caused a revolution in a number of different sectors. The altering of organisms' genetic composition, which is made
possible through genetic engineering, provides answers for issues relating to food security and renewable energy. Technologies that
utilise renewable energy sources, such as solar panels and wind turbines, help to lower the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Manufacturing has been radically altered with the introduction of 3D printing, and the Internet of Things (IoT) has enabled better
resource management via the connection of previously disconnected ordinary products. Because of the tremendous effects these
technologies have on society, their use must be carefully considered from an ethical standpoint.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 According to the paragraph, which phrase describes computers capacity to undertake human-intelligence-based tasks?
Ans 1. Revolution

2. Profound

3. Artificial Intelligence

4. Communication

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Which of the following statements concerning the effects of scientific advancements may be derived from the passage?
Ans 1. The only way to solve problems with food security and renewable energy is through genetic engineering.

2. There is no longer any need for human intelligence since AI has taken over every field.

3. The development of renewable energy technologies has led to a complete elimination of greenhouse gas emissions.

4. Scientific innovations have the potential to revolutionise various sectors and improve efficiency in society.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which technologies are stated in the text as utilising renewable or green energy sources?
Ans 1. Artificial Intelligence (AI) and the Internet of Things (IoT)

2. Genetic engineering and 3D printing

3. Solar panels and wind turbines

4. Medical treatment and communication

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 According to the passage, by linking which sort of products do the Internet of Things (IoT) provide improved resource
management?
Ans 1. 3D printing technologies

2. Previously disconnected ordinary products

3. Renewable energy technologies

4. Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Which of the following best captures the underlying theme of the passage?
Ans 1. The impact of scientific advancements on medical treatment

2. The transformative power of technology in tourism sector

3. The ethical considerations of artificial intelligence (AI) in society

4. The connection between renewable energy and greenhouse gas emissions

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 21/06/2024
Exam Time 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Three statements are given, followed by Two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some fractions are marts.
No mart is a stud.
All studs are frogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some fractions are definitely not studs.
II. Some fractions are definitely not marts.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Either conclusion I or II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.2 9 is related to 16 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 25 is related to 36. To which of the following is 81
related using the same logic?
Ans 1. 49

2. 121

3. 77

4. 100

Q.3 In a certain code language, some statements are coded as given.

1. “Economy growth level down” is coded as “77 42 11 36”.
2. “Slow percentage rate range” is coded as “55 91 23 82”.
3. “Economy growth rate index range” is coded as “77 64 91 11 82”.
4. “Economy range level down” is coded as “36 11 42 82”.
What is the code for “55 11 77 23 91”?
Ans 1. Slow percentage economy growth index

2. Slow economy growth percentage rate

3. Economy down growth rate slow

4. Slow growth economy percentage range

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘ASK’ is written as ‘100’, and ‘BAG’ is written as ‘142’. How will ‘DIE’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. 126

2. 144

3. 118

4. 134
Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘i like apple’ is coded as ‘rt gf po’ and ‘you like orange’ is coded as ‘po bv sd’. How will ‘like’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. po

2. sd

3. gf

4. bv

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘how are you’ is coded as ‘df yt ui’ and ‘trees are tall’ is coded as ‘ui hk op’. How will ‘are’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. hk

2. ui

3. yt

4. df

Q.7 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Odisha : Odia :: Kerala : ?
Ans 1. Hindi

2. English

3. Tamil

4. Malayalam

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘REO’ is coded as ‘22919’ and ‘BVL’ is coded as ‘62616’. How will ‘DUX’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 83536

2. 74617

3. 82528

4. 72467

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
FOREIGN: ROFNGIE :: PRODUCT : ORPTCUD :: BENEFIT : ?
Ans 1. NEBTIFE

2. NEBTIEF

3. NEBFITE

4. NEBETIF

Q.10 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.
_yz_zx_xyx_z_zxzx_
Ans 1. xyzzxy

2. xyxzxy

3. zxyxyy

4. xyzyyy

Q.11 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
24.9, 23.6, 21, 17.1, ?, 5.4
Ans 1. 12.1

2. 9.6

3. 10.5

4. 11.9
Q.12 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown.
Select the number on the face opposite to the one having 1.

Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.13 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
152 + 8 × 16 ÷ 9 – 4 = 309
Ans 1. ÷ and –

2. – and +

3. + and ×

4. ÷ and +

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘RUB’ is written as ‘22118’, and ‘SOW’ is written as ‘231519’. How will ‘WHY’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. 25103

2. 25823

3. 231024

4. 23825
Q.15 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.16 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

(X)
Ans

4.
Q.17 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Language
2. Landlord
3. Laugh
4. Landing
5. Latter
Ans 1. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

2. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

3. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

4. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

Q.18 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Seed
2. Tree
3. Furniture
4. Wood
5. Plant
Ans 1. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

2. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

3. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3

4. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

Q.20 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is W related to P if ‘W × V # T – R + S × P’?
Ans 1. Wife’s mother

2. Wife’s mother’s sister’s daughter

3. Wife’s mother’s sister

4. Wife’s mother’s mother

Q.21 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks of the given series will
complete the letter series.
A__OUAEI__A_I_UAE_O_
Ans 1. E I U O O E I U

2. E I O U E O I U

3. E I U O E O I U

4. E I O U O E U I

Q.22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All eggs are oats.
All oats are buckets.
All buckets are plastics.

Conclusions:
(I) All buckets are eggs.
(II) Some plastics are oats.
(III) All plastics are buckets.
Ans 1. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

2. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.23 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above information, how is R related to P if ‘P + Q ÷ R × S − T ÷ U’?

Ans 1. Son’s sister

2. Son’s wife

3. Son’s son

4. Son’s daughter

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Clown : Circus :: Doctor : ?
Ans 1. Operation

2. Hospital

3. Patient

4. Medicine

Q.25 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word
Sahara : Libya :: Gobi : ?
Ans 1. China

2. India

3. Uzbekistan

4. Afghanistan

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was awarded the Pandit Bhimsen Joshi Lifetime Achievement Award, 2014?
Ans 1. Saraswati Abdul Rane

2. Pandit Kumar Gandharv

3. Pandit Ravi Shankar

4. Prabha Atre

Q.2 Which of the following kings took the title of ‘Dakshinapatheshvara’ (lord of the south) after defeating Harshvardhan?
Ans 1. Mahendravarman

2. Narasimhavarman I

3. Pulakeshin II

4. Rudrasena II

Q.3 Who among the following is conferred upon Padma Shri 2021 for his/her contribution to Panthi folk dance?
Ans 1. Satyaram Reang

2. Radhe Devi

3. Dulari Devi

4. Radhe Shyam Barle

Q.4 Directive Principles of State Policy strive to make India ________.

Ans 1. a capitalist state

2. an authoritarian state

3. a welfare state

4. a communist state

Q.5 How many components of population change are there which are core to the domain of population studies?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Q.6 Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of how many years?
Ans 1. 6 years

2. 3 years

3. 4 years

4. 5 years

Q.7 Which of the following kings of Tuluva dynasty assumed the title of ‘Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya’?
Ans 1. Rama Raya

2. Krishnadevaraya

3. Sadasiva Raya

4. Achyuta Deva Raya

Q.8 According to the Human Development Index 2021, which neighbouring countries from the following ranked behind India?
Ans 1. Maldives

2. Afghanistan

3. Bangladesh

4. Bhutan
Q.9 The north-west region of India receives rainfall in winter due to:
Ans 1. harsh cold and snow storms

2. western disturbances

3. eastern disturbances

4. the summer monsoon

Q.10 The result of which of the following movements/satyagrahas was the abolishment of the Tinkathia System under which the
farmers were asked to cultivate indigo in 3/20th of their holdings?
Ans 1. Kheda Satyagraha

2. Khilafat Movement

3. Champaran Satyagraha

4. Ahmadabad Satyagraha

Q.11 When was the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill introduced in the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. 30 March 2023

2. 28 March 2023

3. 29 March 2023

4. 1 April 2023

Q.12 Which of the following days is celebrated as International Non-Violence Day?

Ans 1. 26th November

2. 26th January

3. 1st March

4. 2nd October

Q.13 ‘Letters from a Father to his Daughter’ was authored by whom among the following freedom fighters?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Subhas Chandra Bose

4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q.14 Tertiary coals occur in which of the following states in India?

Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Haryana

3. Uttarakhand

4. Bihar

Q.15 Who among the following is the author of the novel 'Ret Samadhi'?
Ans 1. Rita Kumari

2. Jhumpa Lahiri

3. Geetanjali Shree

4. Shashi Tharoor

Q.16 The Indian Government scheme, STARS (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for states) project has signed in
agreement with ____________ on 28 January 2021.
Ans 1. Inter-American Development Bank Group

2. Asian Development Bank

3. European Investment Bank (EIB)

4. World Bank
Q.17 Select the INCORRECT statement about Agar.
Ans 1. It is used in preparations of ice-creams and jellies.

2. Agar is used to grow microbes.

3. Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from red algae, gelidium and gracilaria.

4. It is used as nutrient and source of fat of bacterial culture.

Q.18 An argon positive ion fired towards east gets deflected towards south by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is:
Ans 1. towards north

2. towards south

3. upward

4. downward

Q.19 As of July 2023, who is the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi?

Ans 1. Anil Baijal

2. Najeeb Jung

3. Arvind Kejriwal

4. Vinai Kumar Saxena

Q.20 Bharatanatyam of Tamil Nadu has grown out of the art of dancers dedicated to temples, and was earlier known:
Ans 1. Gat

2. Cholom

3. Sadir

4. Jagoi

Q.21 The objective of NIP is to provide equitable access to infrastructure for public, thereby making growth more inclusive. What
is the full form of NIP?
Ans 1. National Infrastructure Project

2. National Integrated Project

3. National Integrated Ports

4. National Infrastructure Pipeline

Q.22 Consider the following statements regarding Kailashnath Temple, Ellora.

1. It is built completely in the Dravidian style.
2. Its main deity is Lord Shiva.
3. This temple was carved out of a portion of a hill.
4. It was built during the Chola phase at Ellora.
Which of the given statements is correct?
Ans 1. Only 1, 2 and 3

2. Only 1, 3 and 4

3. Only 1, 2 and 4

4. Only 2, 3 and 4

Q.23 In the context of movement of cells, exocytosis is the process by which:

Ans 1. cell death is brought about through a heavily regulated sequence of events

2. cells move waste materials from within the cell into the extracellular fluid

3. cells absorb external material by engulfing it with the cell membrane

4. a cell takes in the fluids along with dissolved small molecules

Q.24 The Dr. B. C. Roy Trophy is an Indian football tournament for:

Ans 1. under-19 players

2. under-14 players

3. under-21 players

4. under-17 players
Q.25 In which year did Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan assume office as the first Vice-President of India?
Ans 1. 1950

2. 1951

3. 1954

4. 1952

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In a school, an exam was held for 80 marks in which 32 was the passing marks. Who among the following scored the
minimum marks?
Note: Round off upto one decimal only.
Ans
1.

Q.2 The pie chart given below shows the number of students enrolled in class VI to class X of a school. If 1250 students are
enrolled in VI to X, then find the sum of students enrolled in class VIII and IX.

Ans 1. 575

2. 616

3. 516

4. 661

Q.3 If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 9∶ 11∶ 16, then the difference between the greatest angle and the smallest angle is:
Ans 1. 40°

2. 35°

3. 25°

4. 30°

Q.4 A fruit seller has 10 kg of apples and 5 kg of grapes. The price of 1 kg of apples is ₹94.50 and that of grapes is ₹105. He sold
all the fruits with him. What is the average amount (in ₹) received by the fruit seller?
Ans 1. 101.50

2. 98

3. 100

4. 97.50
Q.5 In ∆ABC and ∆PQR, AB = 7 m, BC = 8 m, AC = 9 m, PQ = 7 m, QR = 8 m and PR = 9 m. Which of the following is true for these
triangles?
Ans 1. ∆ABC ≅ ∆QRP

2. ∆ABC ≅ ∆RQP

3. ∆CBA ≅ ∆PQR

4. ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR

Q.6 Manish invested a certain sum of money at 10% per annum simple interest. If he receives an interest of ₹72780 after 1 year,
the sum (in ₹) he invested is:
Ans 1. 728383

2. 727812

3. 727925

4. 727800

Q.7 The dimensions of a pond are 20 m, 14 m and 6 m. Find the capacity of the pond.
Ans 1. 1680 m3

2. 1520 m3

3. 1280 m3

4. 1460 m3

Q.8 The university has 750 faculty (male and female only) out of which the females are 60%. The average height of females is
162 cm and that of males is 168 cm. What is the average height of the faculty (in cm) of the university?
Ans 1. 164.4

2. 166.4

3. 163.4

4. 161.4

Q.9 A shopkeeper sells goods at 82% loss on cost price but uses 28% less weight. What is his percentage profit or loss?
Ans 1. 54% loss

2. 54% profit

3. 75% profit

4. 75% loss
Q.10

Ans 1. 16.1%

2. 18.2%

3. 16.8%

4. 29.1%

Q.11 While travelling from A to B, Raghav travels a quarter of the distance at 10 km/h, the next quarter of the distance at 15 km/h,
the third quarter of the distance at 20 km/h, and the final quarter of the distance at 30 km/h. While travelling on exactly the
same route, Manish travels for a quarter of the total time taken for his journey at 10 km/h, the next quarter of the total time
taken for his journey at 15 km/h, the third quarter of the total time taken for his journey at 20 km/h, and the final quarter of
the total time taken for his journey at 30 km/h. If the overall average speed of Raghav during his journey is given as y km/h,
and that of Manish is given as z km/h, find the value of (z – y).
Ans 1. 2.5

2. 2.75

3. 0

4. 1.5

Q.12 Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 42, 56, 63 and the fourth proportional of 189, 273, and 153.
Ans 1. 33 : 84

2. 217 : 42

3. 33 : 221

4. 84 : 221
Q.13 The pie chart given below shows the monthly expenditure of a family (in rupees) on various items.If the total earning is
₹70,560, then find the difference between the amount spent on Education and Rent.

Ans 1. ₹7,804

2. ₹8,047

3. ₹7,056

4. ₹8,407

Q.14 The expression sin2 θ + cos2 θ - 1 = 0 is satisfied by how many values of θ?

Ans 1. No value

2. Only one value

3. Infinitely many values

4. Two values

Q.15 A man sells a cow for Rs.22,000 and gains 10%. At what price should he sell the same cow, in order to gain 14%?
Ans 1. Rs.23,000

2. Rs.23,800

3. Rs.22,800

4. Rs.22,900

Q.16 Ram gives a six-digit number 468312 to Shyam to check the divisibility. Shyam tells Ram that the number is divisible by 57.
Shyam asks Ram, “If we rearrange the digits of this number in descending order, then by which number will it be always
divisible?”
Ans 1. 2

2. 17

3. 3

4. 19

Q.17 If x + y = 10 and xy = 12, find the value of x2 - xy + y2.

Ans 1. 78

2. 74

3. 64

4. 82
Q.18

Ans 1. 1500

2. 1200

3. 1100

4. 1300

Q.19 During 2021, the population of a city increased by 8% and in 2022, it increased by 10%. At the end of 2022, its population
was 47520. The population of the city at the end of 2021 was:
Ans 1. 40000

2. 43200

3. 42300

4. 44000

Q.20

Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 4

4. 2

Q.21 Aman and Rajan are working at a construction site. In some engineering experiment, Aman is constructing a wall, while
Rajan is demolishing that wall. Aman can completely build the wall in 15 days, while Rajan will take 20 days to completely
demolish the wall. In how many days will the complete wall be built for the first time if they work on alternate days, with
Aman working on the 1st day?
Ans 1. 57

2. 117

3. 113

4. 120

Q.22 Which of the following schemes will yield minimum discount?

1) 2 successive discounts of 5% and 5%
2) Single discount of 10%
3) 2 successive discounts of 8% and 2%
Ans 1. Scheme 2 only

2. Both Schemes 1 and 3

3. Scheme 1 only

4. Scheme 3 only
Q.23 Find the value of (sin 75° + sin 15°).
Ans
1.

Q.24 The five-digit number 725yz is divisible by 15. What is the maximum possible value of the product of y and z?
Ans 1. 40

2. 35

3. 30

4. 45

Q.25

Ans 1. 17.6

2. 14.5

3. 20.9

4. 21.9

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The manager finally acceded to his request.

Ans 1. Refused

2. Applied

3. Agreed

4. Succumbed

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word

Resign
Ans 1. Achieve

2. Stay

3. Insist

4. Surrender

Q.3 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Ramu said that the dog had died in the evening.
Ans 1. Ramu said, “The dog died in the evening.”

2. Ramu said, “The dog was died in the evening.”

3. Ramu said, “The dog have died in the evening.”

4. Ramu said, “The dog die in the evening.”

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
His son thought, “If my father keeps grieving like this, the crops will die.”
Ans 1. His son thought that if his father kept grieving like that, the crops would die.

2. His son thought that his father kept grieving like that, then crops will die.

3. His son thought that if his father kept grieving like this, the crops would have died.

4. His son thought if his father kept grieving like this, the crops will die.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Generosity
Ans 1. Activeness

2. Strength

3. Selflessness

4. Selfishness

Q.6 A word in the following sentence is INCORRECTLY spelt. Select that word from the given options.

Life requires great sacrifices and an understanding of the duoality of the universe; this makes us happier.
Ans 1. universe

2. understanding

3. duoality

4. sacrifices

Q.7 Select the option that correctly describes the use of the word ‘walking’ in the following sentence.

Walking is good for health.

Ans 1. Walking is the present tense form of the verb.

2. Walking is the past participle form of the verb.

3. Walking is the base form of the verb.

4. Walking is the present participle form of the verb functioning as a gerund.

Q.8 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.

She was desperate to find her lost cat and searched the neverhood for hours.
Ans 1. naighburhood

2. neighborhood

3. neiverhood

4. neighbourhood

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Should he be examined by the doctor?
Ans 1. The doctor examined him.

2. He has been examined by the doctor?

3. Has the doctor examined him?

4. Should the doctor examine him?

Q.10 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The Prime Minister and a President are visiting the town day to see the preparations of International Seminar.
Ans 1. the town day to see the

2. The Prime Minister and

3. preparations of International Seminar.

4. a President are visiting

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Mr. Deshmukh will be met by them at the site office.
Ans 1. They will meet Mr. Deshmukh at the site office.

2. They have met Mr. Deshmukh at the site office.

3. They will be meeting Mr. Deshmukh at the site office.

4. They have been meeting Mr. Deshmukh at the site office.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
She faced a session of abuse after insisting that she was too beautiful to be liked.
Ans 1. tirade of abuse

2. declamation of abuse

3. recitation of abuse

4. recital of abuse

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Everybody was surprised to see that he fell flat even after arduous efforts.
Ans 1. Succeed without hassles

2. Fall from a height

3. Fail to win applause

4. Win a difficult race

Q.14 Select the option that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the following sentence
meaningfully.
You all need to (get into) the books prescribed in your syllabus.
Ans 1. read abreast

2. go through

3. read about

4. go about

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A speech in a play that the character speaks to himself or herself or to the people watching rather than to the other
characters
Ans 1. Dogmatic

2. Soliloquy

3. Scream

4. Eloquence

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian rivers play an integral part in enriching the value and heavenly beauty of India. They are our greatest natural assets. There are
hundreds of them watering our land and making it green and fertile; they even flow as natural highways linking the towns with the
villages. The most eye-catching variety of these rivers is that there are navigable rivers, especially in Bengal and Kerala. Even raging
torrents which leap from the mountains down to the deep gorges. Some huge rivers sometimes burst their banks and flood the
countryside. And in tribute to their strength and beauty, we have always held them sacred. To love India is to love her rivers, big and
small.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
I found it __________ that some people hate rivers.
Ans 1. tribute

2. peculiar

3. gorgeous

4. sacred
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What are the two words highlighted in the passage that describe the vital role of rivers in the development of the agriculture
sector?
Ans 1. Leaping torrents and navigable rivers

2. Watering and fertile

3. Countryside and villages

4. Burst and flood

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Why are the rivers called natural highways?
Ans 1. Because national highways are built alongside their banks

2. Because they link the towns and villages

3. Because they enrich the beauty of Bengal and Kerala

4. Because they avoid overflow and flood

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 What are the characteristics of rivers in India?
Ans 1. Destroyable, tiny, pond-sized

2. Reverse flowing, unflawed, useless

3. Storable, impure, negligible

4. Watering, navigable, sacred, huge, and small

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate word from the passage to fill in the blank.
Why do Indians hold their rivers ________?
Ans 1. navigable

2. variety

3. sacred

4. tribute

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Sheena was an intelligent girl living in a small town of north India. She wanted to become a doctor, but her family’s financial condition
was not good. To pursue her dreams, she had to find out a way. She decided to work after school. She joined a restaurant where she
would work till midnight. She started saving money for her education. But the salary was not enough to bear the expenses of medical
studies. When her father came to know about her aspirations, he decided to sell his ancestral property without letting Sheena know
about it. After completing her 12th, Sheena appeared for the joint medical entrance test and secured a 3rd all India ranking. She got
admission in a government medical college.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What is the most appropriate connection to real-life situations?
Ans 1. Sell your belongings to fulfil your dreams

2. Importance of winning a lottery to fulfil dreams

3. Hard work pays off

4. The negative impact of following one’s passion

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 What is the message one gets from this story?
Ans 1. If you work hard and follow your dream, you will get success.

2. It is okay not to follow your dreams.

3. One should not work hard.

4. Follow you passion but don’t work hard.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Which rank did Sheena secure in the joint medical entrance test?
Ans 1. 3rd all India ranking

2. 4th all India ranking

3. 1st all India ranking

4. 2nd all India ranking

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the bracketed word segment.
Sheena’s father decided to support her aspirations by selling his (ancestral property).
Ans 1. property inherited from family

2. property taken on loan

3. neighbour’s property

4. rented property

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select a suitable title for the given passage.
Ans 1. Small Town Struggles

2. Unexpected Opportunities

3. Financial Struggles

4. Pursuing Dreams Against Odds

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 24/06/2024
Exam Time 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘JUDGE’ is written as ‘47’, and ‘CROSS’ is written as ‘74’. How will ‘BRIEF’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. 40

2. 64

3. 50

4. 54

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘PEDAGOGY’ is written as ‘QGGECLEX’ and ‘CLASSICS’ is written as ‘DNDWOFAR’. How will
‘TOGETHER’ be written in the same code language?
Ans 1. RUJIPEQC

2. UQJIPECQ

3. UJRPIECQ

4. RUIJPECQ

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘are you coming’ is written as ‘mk hv rc’ and ‘coming of age’ is written as ‘bs rc gt’. How is
‘coming’ written in the given language?
Ans 1. hv

2. rc

3. bs

4. gt

2. Kenya

3. Ukraine

4. France

Q.5 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is W related to P if ‘W × V # T – R + P’?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Sister

3. Mother’s sister

4. Mother’s mother
Q.6 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Wool
2. Shops
3. Garments
4. Yarn
5. Sheep
Ans 1. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

2. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

3. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

4. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

Q.7 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
15 ÷ 8 + 12 × 2 – 2 = ?
Ans 1. 118

2. 116

3. 114

4. 112

Q.8 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.9 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

(X)
Ans

4.
Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘GAS’ is written as ‘54’, and ‘JOG’ is written as ‘49’. How will ‘ZIP’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. 30

2. 34

3. 38

4. 42

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘BAGS’ is coded as ‘43921’ and ‘KHEM’ is coded as ‘1310715’. How will ‘JINK’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 12111613

2. 11101512

3. 11121413

4. 109811

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

Q.13 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks of the given series will
complete the letter series.
C__BACC__ACCD__C_D_A
Ans 1. C D B D B A C B

2. C D D B A B C B

3. D C D B B C A B

4. C D D B B A C B

Q.14 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Painter
2. Pace
3. Pair
4. Package
5. Paragraph
Ans 1. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

3. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

4. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Few doctors are buildings.
Most buildings are papers.
All papers are frogs.

Conclusions:
(I) Few doctors are papers.
(II) Some frogs are doctors.
(III) Some buildings are frogs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

4. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Cows : Herd :: Lions : ?
Ans 1. Bunch

2. Pack

3. Pride

4. Flock

Q.17 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown in the given
figure. Find the number on the face opposite to the number 2.

Ans 1. 5

2. 1

3. 4

4. 6

Q.18 R is the son of Q. M is the brother of B, who is the daughter of Q and the mother of P. How is M related to R?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Husband

3. Nephew

4. Father
Q.19 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No number is a machine.
Not a single machine is a bowl.
Every bowl is a sink.
Conclusions:
I. Some sinks which are bowls are numbers as well.
II. No number is a bowl.
III. Some sinks are bowls.
Ans 1. Either conclusion I or II follows

2. Only conclusions II and III follow

3. All conclusions, I, II and III, follow

4. Only conclusion III follows

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
DEFGHI : FHHJJL :: MPQSIV : OSSVKY :: POLICE : ?
Ans 1. RRNLHE

2. RRNLEH

3. RRLNHE

4. RRLNEH

Q.21 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
14, 158, 258, 322, ?, 374
Ans 1. 360

2. 358

3. 353

4. 355

Q.22 8 is related to 45 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 12 is related to 65. Which of the following is related to
80 using the same logic?
Ans 1. 14

2. 15

3. 17

4. 16

Q.23 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
CURTAIN : RUCTNIA :: SUPPOSE : PUSPESO :: TONIGHT : ?
Ans 1. NTOITGH

2. NOTITHG

3. NOTIHTG

4. NOTITGH

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘4765’ and ‘MEAT’ is coded as ‘9142’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that code
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 5

3. 7

4. 4
Q.25 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.
yzx_y_xxyz_x_zxx
Ans 1. yyzx

2. yzxx

3. xzxy

4. xxyz

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In February 2023, who among the following was appointed as the external auditor of ILO for a four-year term?
Ans 1. GC Murmu

2. Arun Goel

3. Sanjeev Shankar Dubey

4. Praveen Kumar Srivastav

Q.2 Using Fleming’s right-hand rule, in which direction will the current flow if the direction of magnetic field is towards north
and the conductor is moving vertically upward?
Ans 1. Towards south

2. Towards west

3. Towards south-west

4. Towards east

Q.3 The location of ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is:

Ans 1. Sarnath

2. Shravasti

3. Kushinagar

4. Bodh Gaya

Q.4 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are traffic in human beings and beggar and other forms of forced labour
prohibited?
Ans 1. Article 23

2. Article 21

3. Article 32

4. Article 27

Q.5 Uppalapu Shrinivas was a _________ player who was awarded with the Padma Shri in 1998.
Ans 1. mandolin

2. veena

3. tabla

4. violin

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Ans 1. Mitochondria – Production of chemical energy

2. Nucleolus – Synthesis of DNA

3. Nucleus – Storage of genetic information

4. Ribosome – Assembly of ribosomes

Q.7 Who among the following Kushana kings was the founder of the Kushana dynasty?
Ans 1. Huvishka

2. Kujula Kadphises

3. Vima Kadphises

4. Vasudeva I
Q.8 What is the percentage share of population working in agricultural sector as per census of India 2011?
Ans 1. 0.567

2. 0.58

3. 0.503

4. 0.546

Q.9 Under which of the following Mughal emperors were the Marathas a major challenge to the sovereignty of the Mughals?
Ans 1. Humayun

2. Babur

3. Aurangzeb

4. Jahangir

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT considered a method of conservation of natural resources?
Ans 1. Extraction

2. Recycling

3. Terrace farming

4. Afforestation

Q.11 Industries of strategic and national importance are usually placed in the ________ sector.
Ans 1. Private

2. Public

3. Co-operative

4. Joint

Q.12 Akham Lakshmi Devi was honoured with Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for the year 2018 for her contribution to _________
dance.
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Manipuri

3. Sattriya

4. Odissi

Q.13 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that there shall be a Supreme Court of India?
Ans 1. Article 123

2. Article 121

3. Article 122

4. Article 124

Q.14 The first South Asian Games were hosted by _____.

Ans 1. Kathmandu

2. Colombo

3. Dhaka

4. Calcutta (Kolkata)

Q.15 Who was the chief guest at India’s 74th Republic Day parade?
Ans 1. Vladimir Putin

2. Rab Butler

3. Shehu Shagari

4. Abdel Fattah Al Sisi

Q.16 Identify the INCORRECT pair of cell shape types and their examples.
Ans 1. Elongated – Muscle cells

2. Oval – Chlamydomonas

3. Irregular – Amoeba

4. Oblong – Nerve cells

Q.17 In 1908 Khudiram Bose along with _________ was involved in throwing a bomb at a carriage believing it to be occupied by
Kingsford, the then sitting judge of Muzaffarpur.
Ans 1. Bhagat Singh

2. Prafulla Chaki

3. Sukhdev

4. Rajguru

Q.18 Which of the following is NOT a poverty alleviation programme in India?

Ans 1. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)

2. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)

3. Namami Gange

4. Rural Housing - Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY)

Q.19 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the recommendations of the Finance Commission?
Ans 1. Article 284

2. Article 283

3. Article 282

4. Article 281

Q.20 Which of the following novels is written by the Indian author Kiran Desai?
Ans 1. A Suitable Boy

2. The Inheritance of Loss

3. The Golden House

4. The Circle of Reason

Q.21 Perihelion is when Earth is ____________.

Ans 1. above the sun

2. farthest from the sun

3. under the sun

4. nearest to the sun

Q.22 What is the duration of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?

Ans 1. 5 years

2. 7 years

3. 8 years

4. 6 years

Q.23 The Telangana state government started the ‘SAHAS’ initiative in 2023. Which of the following aims is related to the ‘SAHAS’
initiative?
Ans 1. To increase access to healthcare services

2. To increase access to education

3. To make workplace safe for women

4. To create job opportunities for the youth

Q.24 During the British rule in India, who among the following unfurled the flag of India in Germany in 1907?
Ans 1. Sucheta Kriplani

2. Annie Besant

3. Bhikaji Cama

4. Sarojini Naidu

Q.25 Select the INCORRECT combination of dance and its respective state of origin.
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam – Tamil Nadu

2. Kathakali – Kerala

3. Sattriya – Himachal Pradesh

4. Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradesh

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 5452

2. 5524

3. 5544

4. 5430

Q.2 The average weight of a group of 15 students is 70 kg. Five more students of weight 65 kg, 68 kg, 45 kg, 77 kg and 62 kg join
the group. What is the change in the average weight (rounded off to the nearest integer) of the group?
Ans 1. Increases by 2 kg

2. Decreases by 2 kg

3. Increases by 1 kg

4. Decreases by 1 kg

Q.3 If 72 * 72 is divisible by 9, the missing * digit will be:

Ans 1. 0 or 9

2. 3 or 6

3. 2 or 4

4. 5 or 8

Q.4 Which of the following in NOT a criterion of congruent triangles?

Ans 1. Side- Angle- Side

2. Angle- Angle- Angle

3. Angle- Side- Angle

4. Side- Side- Side

Q.5

Ans
1.

4.
Q.6 A shopkeeper purchased groundnuts at ₹64/kg and sells at ₹80/kg. While selling, he uses faulty weights and gives 800 gm
instead of 1 kg. Find his actual profit percentage.
Ans 1. 32.25%

2. 28.75%

3. 36.65%,

4. 56.25%

Q.7 By selling a hair oil product for ₹336, the gain is 12%. If the gain is reduced to 9%, find the resultant selling price (in ₹).
Ans 1. 330

2. 300

3. 327

4. 339

Q.8

Ans 1. 60

2. 30

3. 40

4. 50

Q.9 If the 6 digit number 7002 * 4 is completely divisible by 8, then the smallest integer in place of * will be:
Ans 1. 6

2. 0

3. 4

4. 2

Q.10

Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 3

4. 5
Q.11 The bar graph given below shows sales of table fans (in thousand numbers) from five showrooms during two consecutive
years 2021 and 2022. The total sales of showroom B for both years is what per cent of the total sales of showroom E for
both years? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Ans 1. 0.7869

2. 0.7499

3. 0.7694

4. 0.7949

Q.12 A, B and C can do the same work in 9 days, 12 days and 18 days, respectively. A started the work and worked for 3 days and
left. Then, B joined the work and worked for 3 days and left. Then, C joined the work and completed the work. Find the
number of days C took to complete the work.
Ans
1.

Q.13 The price of an item is increased by 15% and then the price is decreased by 12%. What is the effective percentage increase
in the price of the item?
Ans 1. 2.2%

2. 3%

3. 1.2%

4. 1.8%

Q.14 The average of six numbers is 4. The average of two of them is 3.5, while the average of the other two is 3.75. What is the
average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 8.375

2. 4.85

3. 4.65

4. 4.75

Q.15 Select the correct statement about the properties of a triangle.

Ans 1. The sum of two sides may be equal to the third side.

2. The sum of two sides is always equal to the third side.

3. The sum of two sides is always greater than the third side.

4. The sum of two sides is always less than the third side.
Q.16 If sin(5x – 40°) = cos (5y + 40°), then the value of x + y is:
Ans
1.

Q.17 A sum of money was divided between Cyrus, Rohan and Mishti. The ratio of the sums received by Cyrus and Rohan was 3 :
2, while the ratio of the sums received by Rohan and Mishti was 7 : 12. If the sum received by Cyrus was ₹1,800 less than the
sum received by Mishti, how many rupees did Rohan receive as his share?
Ans 1. ₹7,560

2. ₹9,240

3. ₹6,300

4. ₹8,400

Q.18

Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 17

4. 15

Q.19 A sum of ₹5,575 is invested at the rate of 8% simple interest per annum for 4 years. What will be the interest (in ₹) payable
on maturity?
Ans 1. 1776

2. 1784

3. 1782

4. 1788

Q.20

Ans 1. 29 km/h

2. 25 km/h

3. 20 km/h

4. 27 km/h

Q.21 The sum of the two numbers is 450. If the greater number is decreased by 4% and the smaller number is increased by 20%,
then the numbers obtained are equal. The smaller number is:
Ans 1. 144

2. 164

3. 200

4. 176
Q.22

Ans 1. 18

2. 22

3. 24

4. 26

Q.23 A dealer sells an article at ₹850 after offering a cash discount of 15% on its marked price. Without discount, he would have
earned a profit of 25%. What is the cost price of the article (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 950

2. 800

3. 900

4. 1000

Q.24

Ans 1. 34

2. 30

3. 32

4. 36

Q.25

Ans
1.

Section : English Language

Q.1 Identify the INCORRECT section of the given sentence.

Four people / were / witnesses of / that event.
Ans 1. witnesses of

2. were

3. Four people

4. that event.

Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) her suburbs, she was enthralled to see
(B) one cold evening, when she went
(C) autumn still attached to
(D) the last golden leaf left from
(E) out for a walk on the snowy paths of
(F) an otherwise leafless tree
Ans 1. BADECF

2. CABEDF

3. BEADCF

4. CAFEDB
Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can replace the underlined word in the following sentence with its synonym.
Those who desert their families do not always become anchorites.
Ans 1. wanderers

2. sailors

3. hermits

4. pirates

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The smoke coming out of the factory chimneys was polluting the air, which was becoming a major _______ for the local
residents.
Ans 1. concern

2. idea

3. law

4. area

Q.5 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

His old car has become a financial burden on him now.

Ans 1. An apple of one’s eye

2. A white elephant

3. An eyesore

4. A rare bird

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
The presence of vagrant children is a common sight in urban cities.
Ans 1. Vagabond

2. Gallivanting

3. Settled

4. Nomad

Q.7 A word in the following sentence is INCORRECTLY spelt. Select that word from the given options.

Mesing up your laundry or being late for work is not very important when you consider your entire life.
Ans 1. laundry

2. entire

3. important

4. mesing

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The Namesake was written by Jhumpa Lahiri.
Ans 1. Jhumpa Lahiri wrote The Namesake.

2. Jhumpa Lahiri written The Namesake.

3. Jhumpa Lahiri was writing The Namesake.

4. Jhumpa Lahiri has written The Namesake.

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
They will publish the research findings in a scientific journal next month.
Ans 1. The research findings will be published in a scientific journal by them.

2. The research findings will be published in a scientific journal by them next month.

3. The research findings will be being published in a scientific journal by them next month.

4. The research findings will have been published in a scientific journal by them next month.
Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The Colonel said that it gave him great pleasure to be there that evening.
Ans 1. The Colonel said, “It gives me great pleasure to be here this evening.”

2. The Colonel said, “It gave me great pleasure to be there that evening.”

3. The Colonel said, “It gave him great pleasure to be there that evening.”

4. The Colonel says, “It gives me great pleasure to be there that evening.”

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech.

His angry mother jeered and asked whether he supposed that he knew better than his own father.
Ans 1. Her mother supposed, “‘He knew better than his own father.”

2. “Do you suppose you know better than your own father?” jeered his angry mother.

3. “Do you know better than your father I suppose” jeered his angry mother.

4. Her mother jeeringly expressed , “He doesn’t know better than his own father.”

Q.12 Select the correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
This secret will remain between you and I.
Ans 1. between you and me

2. between I and you

3. between you

4. among you and I

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Provoke
Ans 1. Incite

2. Agitate

3. Pacify

4. Aggravate

Q.14 A word in the following sentence is INCORRECTLY spelt. Select that word from the given options.

SpaceX is an American aerospace manufacturer, space transportation services and communications corporation
headquartared in Hawthorne, California.
Ans 1. aerospace

2. manufacturer

3. headquartared

4. transportation

Q.15 The following sentence may have an error of article. Choose the correct sentence from the given options. Choose ‘No error’
if the sentence has no error.
The festivals are celebrated everywhere to rejuvenate the minds of people.
Ans 1. Festivals are celebrated everywhere to rejuvenate the minds of people.

2. An festivals are celebrated everywhere to rejuvenate the minds of people.

3. No error

4. The festivals are celebrated everywhere to rejuvenate minds of people.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Santosh Bisen, science teacher and cartoonist at Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya in Durg, Chhattisgarh (1)_______ his drawing
(2)________ to convert chapters into comic strips. "Convincing authorities to turn textbooks into comics was difficult. I spent my own
money to (3)________ textbooks. I also used cartoons in question papers," he says. "Students were (4)________ with how simple
science became and their performance (5)_________," he adds.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. depicted

2. reformed

3. used

4. maintained

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. skills

2. terms

3. tricks

4. art

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. mend

2. restore

3. allocate

4. design

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. shocked

2. disgusted

3. disappointed

4. thrilled
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. reframed

2. regained

3. regretted

4. improved

Comprehension:
Read the above paragraph and choose the correct answers for the questions given below.
Helping others physically, by removing their physical needs, is indeed a good thing, but spiritual help is more substantial, as it is more
far reaching because the need is greater. ... It is only with the knowledge of the spirit that the faculty of want is annihilated forever, so
helping man spiritually is the best help that can be extended to him. He who gives spiritual knowledge is the greatest benefactor of
mankind. A spiritually strong man can be powerful in every other respect, if he so wishes. Until there is spiritual strength in man, even
physical needs cannot be well satisfied. Next to spiritual comes intellectual help. The gift of knowledge is far higher than that of food
and clothes, it is even higher than giving life to a man, because real life of a man consists of knowledge. Ignorance is death,
knowledge is life.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What does the word ‘annihilated’ mean in the context of the above passage?
Ans 1. Obliterated

2. Obstructed

3. Omitted

4. Occluded

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 According to the author, which of the following is a far higher gift than food and clothes, or even of life?
Ans 1. Books

2. Knowledge

3. Food

4. Jobs
Comprehension:
Read the above paragraph and choose the correct answers for the questions given below.
Helping others physically, by removing their physical needs, is indeed a good thing, but spiritual help is more substantial, as it is more
far reaching because the need is greater. ... It is only with the knowledge of the spirit that the faculty of want is annihilated forever, so
helping man spiritually is the best help that can be extended to him. He who gives spiritual knowledge is the greatest benefactor of
mankind. A spiritually strong man can be powerful in every other respect, if he so wishes. Until there is spiritual strength in man, even
physical needs cannot be well satisfied. Next to spiritual comes intellectual help. The gift of knowledge is far higher than that of food
and clothes, it is even higher than giving life to a man, because real life of a man consists of knowledge. Ignorance is death,
knowledge is life.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 What according to the author is the highest good that one can do?
Ans 1. Monitory help

2. Doing intellectual good to people

3. Helping others physically

4. Extending spiritual help to others

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 How can the faculty of want be destroyed forever?
Ans 1. With knowledge provided in books

2. With a charitable spirit

3. With the knowledge of the spirit

4. With physical assistance

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 According to the author, ignorance is _____ and knowledge is _______.
Ans 1. bliss, painful

2. painful, bliss

3. death, life

4. life, avoidable
Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 25/06/2024
Exam Time 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above information, how is S related to U if ‘P + Q ÷ R × S − T ÷ U’?

Ans 1. Father’s sister

2. Father’s mother

3. Father’s father

4. Father’s brother

Q.2 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Flower
2. Bees
3. Seed
4. Nectar
5. Honey
Ans 1. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

2. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

3. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

4. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

Q.3 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
4, 27, 16, 125, ?, 343
Ans 1. 64

2. 36

3. 216

4. 512

Q.4 Ayush told Neha, “Though I am the son of your father, but you are not my brother”. How is Neha related to Ayush?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Step-daughter

3. Daughter

4. Cousin
Q.5 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
L__L_M_L__M_
Ans 1. MLMLMLL

2. LMLMLMM

3. MMLMLML

4. LLMMLMM

Q.6 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown.
Select the number on the face opposite to the one having 1.

Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 6

4. 3

Q.7 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.8 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cow : Calf :: Pig : ?
Ans 1. Kitten

2. Foal

3. Piglet

4. Puppy

Q.9 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Decision
2. Deference
3. Decorative
4. Decide
5. Defeat
Ans 1. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

2. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2

3. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

4. 3, 1, 2, 5, 2

2. RJY

3. QKW

4. QLY

Q.11 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
CO_ _ _G_C_ _ _E_E_OL_ _GE
Ans 1. LGLEOCOGLGE

2. COGLECELGEC

3. LLEEOLLGCLE

4. CGLEOCOLGEL

Q.12 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
GAINED : NEDGAI :: KINDLY : DLYKIN :: JUNIOR : ?
Ans 1. ROINUJ

2. JOINUR

3. IORJUN

4. JRUNIO

Q.13 In a certain code language, JUMP is coded as “HRIK” and WOLF is coded as “ULHA”. How will FOWL be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. HLSG

2. DLSG

3. ALSG

4. FLSG
Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘TAIL’ is coded as ‘7614’ and ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘1749’. What is the code for ‘I’ in the given
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 7

4. 1

Q.16 100 is related to 18 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 90 is related to 16. Which of the following is related to
12 using the same logic?
Ans 1. 60

2. 65

3. 80

4. 70

Q.17 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All calculators are dustbins.
All complexes are dustbins.
Some adamants are cameras.
Conclusions:
I. Some calculators are complexes.
II. Some dustbins are calculators.
III. Some dustbins are adamants.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Both conclusions II and III follow

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
16 ÷ 6 + 12 × 3 – 6 = ?
Ans 1. 98

2. 92

3. 96

4. 94
Q.19 In a code language, 'FAMOUS' is coded as ‘UZNLFH’ and 'SLOW' is coded as ‘HOLD’. How will 'RUMOUR' be coded in the
same language?
Ans 1. JGNLGI

2. JFNLFJ

3. IGNLGI

4. IFNLFI

Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘QKV’ is coded as ‘14819’ and ‘SHY’ is coded as ‘16522’. How will ‘MDS’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 13127

2. 12125

3. 9127

4. 10116

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘we live here’ is coded as ‘pa tu nk’ and ‘here was tree’ is coded as ‘rp nk fu’. How is ‘here’ coded
in the given language?
Ans 1. pa

2. nk

3. fu

4. rp

Q.23 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
MAKE : NCJC :: FOLD : GQKB :: VIEW : ?
Ans 1. WJEV

2. XKDV

3. WKEV

4. WKDU

Q.24 In a code language, 'DANCER' is coded as ‘REPEAD’ and 'QUEAZY' is coded as ‘YZGCUQ’. How will 'SQUAWK' be coded in
the same language?
Ans 1. KWBUQS

2. KWWCQS

3. KMWCQS

4. KWAUQS

Q.25 In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements
to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some rings are gold.
All gold is hot.
Some hot are red.
Conclusions:
I. Some gold are rings.
II.Some hot are gold.
III.Some red are hot.
Ans 1. All the conclusions follow.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Only conclusion III follows.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following revolutionaries was one of the co-founders of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
(HSRA) which got established in 1928 at Ferozeshah Kotla in Delhi?
Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Aurobindo Ghosh

3. Bhagat Singh

4. Mahatma Gandhi
Q.2 Rani Karnaa was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi (1996) for her contribution to_.
Ans 1. Kathakali

2. Kuchipudi

3. Odissi

4. Kathak

Q.3 Identify the Indian musician who is associated with any string instrument.
Ans 1. Zakir Hussain

2. Krishna Ram Chaudhary

3. Pandit Ravi Shankar

4. Anindo Chatterjee

Q.4 Read the given statements and select the correct option.
A.Directive Principles of State Policy consists of all the ideals which the state should follow and keep in mind while
formulating policies and enacting laws for the country.
B.It can be enforced by the Judiciary.
C.They can be suspended during a national emergency.
Ans 1. Only B

2. Only C

3. Both A and C

4. Only A

Q.5 Who was appointed as the chairman of the National Commission for Backward classes in December 2022?
Ans 1. Arun Haldar

2. Dr. Manoj Soni

3. Vijay Sampla

4. Hansraj Gangaram Ahir

Q.6 Select the INCORRECT combination of folk dance and its respective state.
Ans 1. Dhangari Gaja - Maharashtra

2. Dollu Kunitha - Karnataka

3. Paika – Kerala

4. Dandiya Raas– Gujarat

Q.7 Kathasaritasagara, a collection of stories, was written in which of the following languages?
Ans 1. Sanskrit

2. Prakrit

3. Pali

4. Persian

Q.8 Consider the following statements and select the correct option:
i. Marginal Worker is a person who works for less than 183 days (or six months) in a year.
ii. Main Worker is a person who works for atleast 300 days (or ten months) in a year.
Ans 1. Both i and ii are correct.

2. Both i and ii are incorrect.

3. Only ii is correct.

4. Only i is correct.

Q.9 Which was the prominent architectural feature of the Indus Valley towns and cities?
Ans 1. Pyramids

2. Stupas

3. Citadel

4. False Arch
Q.10 Which of the following Indo-Greek kings was mentioned in the Buddhist text Milindapanho as Milinda?
Ans 1. Demetrius I

2. Menander I

3. Antiochus II

4. Strato II

Q.11 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his/her term,
continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his/her office’?
Ans 1. Article 61

2. Article 50

3. Article 56

4. Article 58

Q.12 ________ is a mode of communication in itself, and it also regulates the use of other means of communication.
Ans 1. Television

2. Radio

3. Phone

4. Satellite

Q.13 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the
election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court, whose decision shall be
final’?
Ans 1. Article 68

2. Article 70

3. Article 69

4. Article 71

Q.14 Who is credited with inventing the reflecting telescope?

Ans 1. Galileo Galilei

2. Isaac Newton

3. Johannes Kepler

4. Christiaan Huygens

Q.15 In 2023, Government of India has proposed to set up ‘Central Processing Centre’ for faster response to organisations
through centralised handling of various forms filed with field offices under the _____________.
Ans 1. Sale of Goods Act

2. Partnership Act

3. Contract Act

4. Companies Act

Q.16 Koderma Gaya Hazaribagh belt is known for the production of which of the following minerals?
Ans 1. Mica

2. Copper

3. Coal

4. Bauxite

Q.17 The Beating Retreat Ceremony during Republic Day is held every year at which of the following places?
Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Bengaluru

3. Hyderabad

4. Jaipur
Q.18 With which sport is the Burdwan Trophy associated?
Ans 1. Boxing

2. Powerlifting

3. Weightlifting

4. Wrestling

Q.19 On 11 May 2023, the Uttarakhand Chief Minister launched the ‘Smart School Smart Block Programme’ in the Goralchod
auditorium in the state’s ________ district.
Ans 1. Dehradun

2. Almora

3. Champawat

4. Bageshwar

Q.20 The Vienna Convention is related to ____________.

Ans 1. sustainable agriculture

2. Disposing of harmful electronic waste

3. protection of wild life

4. protection of ozone layer

Q.21 The novel ‘Raavan - Enemy of Aryavarta’ is written by whom among the following writers?
Ans 1. Amish Tripathi

2. Ruskin Bond

3. Amitav Ghosh

4. Kiran Desai

Q.22 What is the growth rate of population of India as per census 2011?
Ans 1. 0.2154

2. 0.1894

3. 0.2164

4. 0.1764

Q.23 Select the correct statement.

Ans 1. The pyramid of energy is always upright.

2. The pyramid of number is always upright.

3. The pyramid of biomass is always inverted.

4. The pyramid of mass is always upright.

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT an option related to the non-cooperation movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi?
Ans 1. Distribution of Charkhas

2. Picketing of liquor shops

3. Signing the resolution at Lahore for Poorna Swaraj

4. Boycott of foreign goods

Q.25 Which of the following was discovered by GN Ramachandran?

Ans 1. Golgi bodies

2. Plasma membrane

3. Triple helical structure of collagen

4. Fluid mosaic model of a cell

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Nazeer spends 20% of his monthly income on housing, 25% of the remaining on education, and saves 10% of the remaining.
If his monthly salary is ₹52,600, how much money does he save every month?
Ans 1. ₹5,260

2. ₹1,578

3. ₹2,367

4. ₹3,156

Q.2

Ans 1. 1850

2. 1450

3. 1520

4. 1625

Q.3 A tractor manufacturing company sells each tractor for ₹5,00,000. Assuming that KISAN firm buys 50 tractors from them as
a part of an annual contract, the company offers a trade discount of 10% to KISAN and an additional 2% discount if the
payment is made within 30 days. What will be the amount payable by KISAN within 30 days for the consignment?
Ans 1. ₹20,051,000

2. ₹22,050,000

3. ₹24,050,020

4. ₹22,080,100

Q.4 An old HP Deskjet printer was bought for ₹4,800 and ₹500 was spent on its repair. If it was sold for ₹6,360, then its profit
percentage is:
Ans 1. 0.15

2. 0.12

3. 0.18

4. 0.2

Q.5 The strength of a school increases and decreases every alternate year by 20%. It started with an increase in 2018. What is
the strength of the school at the start of 2021 as compared to that of 2018?
Ans 1. Decrease by 16.2%

2. Increase by 15.2%

3. Decrease by 15.2%

4. Increase by 16.2%

Q.6 A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 300 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and
the policeman run at the speeds of 10 km/h and 12 km/h, respectively. What will be the distance between them (in m) after 6
minutes?
Ans 1. 150

2. 100

3. 200

4. 80
Q.7

Ans
1.

Q.8

Ans 1. 38

2. 32

3. 36

4. 34

Q.9 The average weight of Rohan and his three friends is 62 kg. If Rohan’s weight is 8 kg more than the average weight of his
three friends, what is Rohan’s weight (in kg)?
Ans 1. 60

2. 65

3. 68

4. 72

Q.10 If μ = 60°, then Sinμ + Cos(90 - μ) = _______.

Ans
1.

Q.11 The sides of a right-angled triangle, right-angled at B, are 6, 8 and 10 units. C is the vertex opposite to the side with length 8
units. What is the value of tan2 A + cos2 C?
Ans
1.

4.
Q.12 A vendor buys 20 laptop bags for ₹13,000 and sells them at 15 for ₹10,125. How many laptop bags should be bought and
sold to earn a profit of ₹3,225?
Ans 1. 123

2. 129

3. 120

4. 127

Q.13

Ans 1. 2

2. 0

3. 1

4. 3

Q.14 ∆PQR and ∆ABC are two congruent triangles. If the area of ∆PQR is 225 cm2, then the area of ∆ABC is:
Ans 1. 225 cm2

2. 25 cm2

3. 112.5 cm2

4. 15 cm2

Q.15 The average monthly income of A and B is ₹5,050, the average monthly income of B and C is ₹6,250, and the average
monthly income of A and C is ₹5,200. What is the sum of the monthly incomes (in ₹) of A, B and C?
Ans 1. 18000

2. 19500

3. 16500

4. 11000

Q.16 The fourth proportional of 64, 80 and 88 is:

Ans 1. 110

2. 100

3. 120

4. 90

Q.17 The number 7918378 is divisible by:

Ans 1. 9

2. 4

3. 13

4. 11

Q.18

Ans 1. 56.0

2. 55.5

3. 56.33

4. 54.33
Q.19 Who among the following scored the maximum overall percentage?

Ans 1. Bhumika

2. Jyoti

3. Sanjana

4. Simran

Q.20 What least number must be subtracted from 2001 to get a number exactly divisible by 17?
Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 13

4. 11

Q.21 If three angles of a triangle are (18x+6°), (10x+30°) and (15x+15°), then the triangle is:
Ans 1. scalene

2. equilateral

3. right angled

4. isosceles

Q.22

Ans 1. 27 cm

2. 21 cm

3. 24 cm

4. 18 cm

Q.23 Suresh invested a certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest. If he receives an interest of ₹69687 after 15 year,
the sum (in ₹) he invested is:
Ans 1. 92916

2. 92880

3. 92456

4. 92530

Q.24 Simplify the expression:

15×15×15+3×15×12×12-3×15×15×12-12×12×12
Ans 1. 36

2. 9

3. 18

4. 27
Q.25 A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do the same work in 12 days. C and A can do the same work in 15
days. If all the three work together, find the number of days required to complete the work.
Ans 1. 6

2. 10

3. 8

4. 12

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Melancholy
Ans 1. Sad

2. Sorrow

3. Blue

4. Cheerful

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A popular theory among critics is that the character Count Dracula is based on the ________ barbaric Vlad III, better known
as Vlad the Impaler.
Ans 1. debauched

2. ingloriously

3. infamously

4. miserably

Q.3 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) fell dead in an instant
(B) stunned the movement
(C) of the busy Bazaar and
(D) silenced the cacophony
(E) suddenly, a ringing blast
(F) out of the bodies, which
Ans 1. CABEDF

2. BADFEC

3. EDCBFA

4. FACEDB

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Inertia
Ans 1. Progression

2. Energy

3. Activeness

4. Inactivity

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The enigma of quantum mechanics remains inscrutably elusive despite of decades of intensive research by the world's
leading physicists.
Ans 1. despite decades of

2. despite of decades to

3. despite decades with

4. despite of decades in
Q.6 The given sentence has an error. Select the option that contains the error in the given sentence.
We have to be cautius regarding the impact of global warming.
Ans 1. of global warming

2. We have to

3. regarding the impact

4. be cautius

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Mr. Johnson teaches us mathematics.
Ans 1. Mathematics is being taught to us by Mr. Johnson.

2. Mathematics will be taught to us by Mr. Johnson.

3. Mathematics was taught to us by Mr. Johnson.

4. Mathematics is taught to us by Mr. Johnson.

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The teacher orders Mohan not to tear off pages from his note-book.
Ans 1. The teacher says to Mohan, “Let the pages not be torn off from your notebook.”

2. The teacher says to Mohan, “Don’t tear off pages from your notebook.”

3. The teacher says to Mohan, “Mustn’t tear off pages from your notebook.”

4. The teacher says to Mohan, “You shouldn’t tear off pages from your notebook.”

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Grave
Ans 1. Belittle

2. Living

3. Humorous

4. Low

Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Who is looking for a smart advisor?
Ans 1. By whom was a smart advisor looked?

2. By whom is a smart advisor looked for?

3. By whom is a smart advisor looked?

4. By whom is a smart advisor being looked for?

Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Due to its fragrance, the petals of an rose are often used in perfumes and cosmetics.
Ans 1. rose are often used

2. Due to its fragrance,

3. in perfumes and cosmetics.

4. the petals of an

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Many unavoidable situations were avoided only because someone had our back.
Ans 1. Without help

2. Within reach

3. To support

4. In consultation
Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
“Hurrah! I have topped again,” he said. “Congratulations,” said I.
Ans 1. He exclaimed that he topped, and I congratulated him.

2. He exclaimed with joy that he had topped again. I congratulated him.

3. He said that he topped again. I congratulated him.

4. He said to me he had topped again, and I congratulated him.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The plot of the story effects the character and their growth.
Ans 1. effect the character

2. affect the character

3. affect the character’s

4. affects the character

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a spelling error.
It seemed that his route / to the covted island / was not to be / an easy one.
Ans 1. It seemed that his route

2. was not to be

3. an easy one

4. to the covted island

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.
Student clubs are the place where students can (1)____________ their learning through interaction and discussion. Every activity in
the club (2)________ students to cultivate a different perception of life. The main purpose of the club is to provide a/an (3)_________
to showcase their talents and capabilities. It is the only place where students find time to (4)_________ themselves for their future.
These activities not only benefit in shaping their interests and hobbies but also develop their leadership and social skills in a/an
(5)___________ way.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. improve

2. reduce

3. adjust

4. calculate

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. confuses

2. diminishes

3. simplifies

4. encourages
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.
Student clubs are the place where students can (1)____________ their learning through interaction and discussion. Every activity in
the club (2)________ students to cultivate a different perception of life. The main purpose of the club is to provide a/an (3)_________
to showcase their talents and capabilities. It is the only place where students find time to (4)_________ themselves for their future.
These activities not only benefit in shaping their interests and hobbies but also develop their leadership and social skills in a/an
(5)___________ way.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. excuse

2. opportunity

3. risk

4. occasion

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. control

2. interrupt

3. groom

4. clean

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. optimistic

2. pessimistic

3. aggressive

4. dominant

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
While some herbal remedies may have proven health benefits, not all herbs are safe. It’s important to research and consult with a
healthcare professional before using any herbal concoction. While we may use some herbs for minor ailments, such as a cold or
headache, others may treat more serious conditions, such as cancer or heart disease. Not all herbal concoctions are natural and
organic. Some may contain synthetic ingredients or preservatives, so it’s important to read labels and research before using these
concoctions. While herbal remedies may have some health benefits, they should not be used as a substitute for traditional medicine.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the option that best describes the central theme of the passage.
Ans 1. Herbal remedies can cause cancer and heart disease.

2. Herbal remedies are essential for fighting all sorts of modern diseases.

3. Herbal remedies can successfully replace all other forms of medication.

4. While herbal remedies may have some benefits, these should be used cautiously and in consultation with health
professionals.
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
While some herbal remedies may have proven health benefits, not all herbs are safe. It’s important to research and consult with a
healthcare professional before using any herbal concoction. While we may use some herbs for minor ailments, such as a cold or
headache, others may treat more serious conditions, such as cancer or heart disease. Not all herbal concoctions are natural and
organic. Some may contain synthetic ingredients or preservatives, so it’s important to read labels and research before using these
concoctions. While herbal remedies may have some health benefits, they should not be used as a substitute for traditional medicine.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans 1. Cautionary

2. Populist

3. Pedestrian

4. Sarcastic

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans 1. The Benefits of Herbal Concoctions

2. Herbal Remedies: A Way of Life

3. Herbal Remedies

4. Risks with Herbal Remedies

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word in the context of the passage.

Substitute
Ans 1. Surrogate

2. Perdurable

3. Rival

4. Equivalent

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Identify the statement that holds true according to the passage.
Ans 1. Herbal remedies have no proven health benefits.

2. Herbal remedies can be trusted blindly.

3. Herbal remedies can sometimes contain artificial ingredients.

4. Herbal concoctions should not be used for curing minor illnesses.

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 26/06/2024
Exam Time 2:30 PM - 3:30 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
552, ?, 650, 702, 756
Ans 1. 600

2. 625

3. 576

4. 590

Q.2 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
COMBINE : MOCENIB :: FURTHER : RUFREHT :: REVERSE : ?
Ans 1. VERESER

2. VERSERE

3. VERESRE

4. VEREERS
Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.4 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.5 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the following blanks, will
complete the letter series.

Z__O__E__F_EM_F
Ans 1. EMFZMOZO

2. EMZFMOZO

3. EOOFZMZM

4. EZFMOZMO

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘BELO’ is coded as ‘271217’ and ‘IGJA’ is coded as ‘117103’. How will ‘DUXE’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 324246

2. 424268

3. 423247

4. 325227
Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘he knows spanish’ is coded as ‘ty fr op’ and ‘spanish is difficult’ is coded as ‘fr hg df’. How will
‘spanish’ be coded in that language?
Ans 1. op

2. fr

3. df

4. hg

Q.8 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A # B means ‘A is the son of B’
Based on the above, how is W related to P if ‘W × V # T – R + P’?
Ans 1. Mother’s brother’s son’s mother

2. Mother’s mother

3. Husband’s father’s sister’s daughter

4. Mother’s brother’s son’s wife

Q.9 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Rinse
2. Iron
3. Soak
4. Dry
5. Wash
Ans 1. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

2. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

3. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

4. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
EMAILS : VILXPB :: JOINED : GBQFRG :: MAKERS : ?
Ans 1. VOHHXJ

2. VOHHDJ

3. VOBHDJ

4. VOCHDJ

Q.11 In a code language, 'MAINTY' is coded as ‘SGOTZE’ and 'GENIOUS' is coded as ‘MKTOUAY’. How will 'POPULAR' be coded
in the same language?
Ans 1. KUVARGX

2. VUKARGX

3. VUVARGX

4. KUUARGX

Q.12 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Dermatologist : Skin :: Ophthalmologist : ?
Ans 1. Teeth

2. Eyes

3. Bones

4. Ears
Q.13 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.
sr_ss_s_s_ss
Ans 1. ssrs

2. srss

3. srsr

4. rrss

Q.14 Pointing towards the photograph of a person, Saksham said, “She is the only daughter of the only daughter of my father”.
How is Saksham related to the person in the photograph?
Ans 1. Father

2. Grandfather

3. Mother's brother

4. Father-in-law

Q.15 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown.
Select the number on the face opposite to the one having 4.

Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 3

4. 5

Q.16 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Block
2. Province
3. District
4. Country
5. Street
6. Village
Ans 1. 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 4

2. 5, 1, 6, 3, 2, 4

3. 5, 6, 1, 3, 4, 2

4. 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No code is a knuckle.
No eel is a code.
Some codes are bulldozers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bulldozers are codes.
(II) Some bulldozers are not knuckles.
(III) Some bulldozers are not eels.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows

Q.18 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
USA : Dollar :: Bangladesh : ?
Ans 1. Taka

2. Lira

3. Rupee

4. Ruble

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

Q.20 In a code language, 'ELASTCY' is coded as ‘GNCSVEA’ and 'VIRTUAL' is coded as ‘XKTTWCN’. How will 'TANGLED' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. VCPGMGE

2. VCQGNGF

3. VCPGMGF

4. VCPGNGF

Q.21 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ means ‘addition’ and ‘×’ means ‘division’, then what is the value of
the following expression?
22 − 4 + 72 × 18 ÷ 31
Ans 1. 118

2. 124

3. 115

4. 152

Q.22 425 is related to 11 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 482 is related to 14. Which of the following is related
to 16 using the same logic?
Ans 1. 282

2. 280

3. 286

4. 284
Q.23 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No chess is a can.
Not a single can is a horn.
Every horn is an adapter.
Conclusions:
I. Some adapters which are horns are chess as well.
II. No chess is a horn.
III. Some adapters are horns.
Ans 1. Both conclusions II and III follow

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. All conclusions follow

4. Either conclusion I or II follows

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘MOBILES’ is written as ‘N12Y18O22H’ and ‘VEHICLE’ is written as ‘E22S18X15V’. How will
‘NEUTRON’ be written in the same code language?
Ans 1. M22F8L12M

2. M22F7I12M

3. M23F7L13M

4. M22G712M

Q.25 In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘6543’ and ‘LOAD’ is coded as ‘3129’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that code
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 5

3. 3

4. 6

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The novel 'The White Tiger' was written by:

Ans 1. Amitav Ghosh

2. Aravind Adiga

3. Indu Sundaresan

4. Vikram Chandra

Q.2 Atmospheric temperature does NOT depend on _________.

Ans 1. salinity of oceans

2. latitude

3. distance from sea

4. altitude

Q.3 Select the correct statement about climax community.

Ans 1. It is an ecological community in which populations of plants or animals, which are very unstable and exist for very few time.

2. It is a very first community of ecosystem.

3. It is an ecological community in which populations of plants or animals remain stable and exist in balance with each other and
their environment.
4. It consist of only plant population that makes a new ecological system.

Q.4 Who among the following founded the Khudai Khidmatgars or the Red Shirts, a powerful non-violent movement?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

3. BR Ambedkar

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.5 Select the INCORRECT statement from among the following.
Ans 1. ‘Sanchi Stupa’ is situated in Madhya Pradesh.

2. ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is situated in Uttar Pradesh.

3. ‘Bavikonda Stupa’ is situated in Andhra Pradesh.

4. ‘Piprahwa Stupa’ is situated in Sikkim.

Q.6 ________is associated with the production and metabolism of fats and steroid hormones.
Ans 1. Nucleus

2. Golgi apparatus

3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

4. Mitochondrion

Q.7 Who among the following is called 'father of Indian constitution'?

Ans 1. Gopinath Bordoloi

2. P Subbarayan

3. Rajendra Prasad

4. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

Q.8 Which ministry started the Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana?
Ans 1. Ministry of Rural Development

2. Ministry of Labour and Employment

3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

4. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q.9 In which of the following dance forms is Mati-Akhora used as the basic exercise pattern that facilitates various dance
poses?
Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Manipuri

3. Kathakali

4. Kuchipudi

Q.10 Identify the Indian musician who is associated with wind instrument (played by blowing).
Ans 1. Vishwa Mohan Bhat

2. Pandit Deen Dayal

3. Pandit Ravi Shankar

4. Bismillah Khan

Q.11 What is the percentage of concession on fares provided to women on HRTC buses under the ‘Nari ko Naman’ scheme
launched by the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh in 2022?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 100%

3. 75%

4. 50%

Q.12 Which of the following does NOT come under Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. Uniform Civil Code

2. Promotion of Cottage Industries

3. Promotion of Indian Local Languages

4. Promotion of the Welfare of the People

Q.13 Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2005) provides work for how many days?
Ans 1. 200

2. 300

3. 100

4. 125

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT among the commercial sources of energy?
Ans 1. Petroleum

2. Electricity

3. Fuel wood

4. Hydropower

Q.15 Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks?
Ans 1. The Himalayas

2. The Northern Plains

3. The Peninsular Plateau

4. The Indian Desert

Q.16 Which of the following statements is/are true for the recipients of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards?
1.Sonal Mansingh was elected as Fellow of Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year 2018.
2.Jatin Goswami was elected as Fellow of Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year 2018.
3.Radha Sridhar received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in the year 2018 for her contribution to Kathak.
Ans 1. Both 1 and 2

2. Both 2 and 3

3. Both 1 and 3

4. Only 3

Q.17 Which of the following government schemes was launched to provide financial assistance to start-ups for proof of concept,
prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialisation on 19 April 2021?
Ans 1. Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)

2. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)

3. Procurement and Marketing Support (PMS) Scheme

4. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)

Q.18 Who among the following was conferred with the title of ‘Khan-i–Khanan’ under Akbar?
Ans 1. Abul Fazl

2. Todar Mal

3. Bairam Khan

4. Baz Bahadur

Q.19 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that the President is eligible for re-election?
Ans 1. Article 54

2. Article 57

3. Article 56

4. Article 55

Q.20 The Ryotwari system, devised by Thomas Munro, in which peasant cultivators had to pay annual taxes directly to the
government, was prevalent in which of the following present-day states/provinces?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Punjab

3. Rajasthan

4. Odisha
Q.21 How many countries participated in the 2016 South Asian Games?
Ans 1. Six

2. Seven

3. Five

4. Eight

Q.22 Who has taken the oath as the Chief Minister of Meghalaya in March 2023?
Ans 1. Prestone Tynsong

2. Thomas A Sangma

3. Sniawbhalang

4. Conrad K Sangma

Q.23 Which of the following statements best describes Le Chatelier's Principle?

A. The law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual
gases.
B. The principle states that the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of reactants.
C. The principle states that a change in the variables that describe a system at equilibrium causes a shift of the equilibrium
position to counteract the change.
D. The law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

Q.24 Who elects the Presiding Officer (the speaker) in the State legislature?
Ans 1. Members of Vidhan Sabha

2. Member of Vidhan Parishad

3. Chief Minster

4. Council of Minsters

Q.25 Which of the following statements about the Kushana dynasty is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. The First Buddhist Council was organised by Kanishka.

2. The Kushanas were a major ruling group in the post-Mauryan period.

3. Asvaghosha, the author of the Buddhacharita, was the court poet of Kanishka.

4. Many Kushana rulers also adopted the title ‘devaputra’, or ‘son of god’.

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The difference between the total surface area and lateral surface area of a cube, if side of the cube is 11 cm (in square cm),
is _________ .
Ans 1. 242

2. 243

3. 241

4. 244

Q.2

Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 6

4. 9
Q.3 A thief steals an item and escapes, running at 13.5 km/h. A policeman arrives at the spot of the crime after 8 minutes and
immediately starts chasing the thief. 28 minutes after the policeman started to chase the thief, there is still a gap of 540 m
between the two. At what distance from the spot of the crime would the policeman catch up with the thief, and what is the
speed (in km/h) at which the policeman ran?
Ans 1. 10.4 km, 16

2. 10.8 km, 16.2

3. 12.96 km, 16.2

4. 11.2 km, 16.4

Q.4 An amount will be triple itself in 15 years at a certain rate of simple interest per annum. The rate of interest per annum is:
Ans
1.

Q.5

Ans 1. 62290

2. 61200

3. 62000

4. 61000
Q.6

Ans 1. 91

2. 97

3. 94

4. 92

Q.7 On an item there is 8% discount on the marked price of ₹32,000. After giving an additional season’s discount, the item is
sold for ₹25,000. How much is the season’s discount (in %)? (Correct to two places of decimal)
Ans 1. 14.08%

2. 15.08%

3. 12.08%

4. 13.08%

Q.8 On two items of equal prices, T gets 12% profit on one item and incurs 8% loss on other. What is his overall profit or loss
percentage?
Ans 1. Profit, 2%

2. Profit, 4%

3. Loss, 4%

4. Loss, 2%

Q.9 If * is a digit such that 7235 * is divisible by 11, then the value of * is:
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 9

4. 5

Q.10

Ans 1. 223

2. 225

3. 13

4. 17

Q.11 A dishonest dealer professes to sell grains at cost price, but he uses a weight of 925 g for 1 kg weight. Find his gain
percentage. (Approximate to two decimals.)
Ans 1. 0.0811

2. 0.0775

3. 0.085

4. 0.075
Q.12 The pie-chart below illustrates the different fruit yields from a farmer's land that were sold to a fruit shop during a specific
week. study the chart and answer the question that follows.

If a total of 900 kg of fruits were sold that week, find the difference in sales (in kg) between oranges and grapes.
Ans 1. 70

2. 60

3. 75

4. 45

Q.13 The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are given as 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of their corresponding altitudes to
the opposite vertices will be:
Ans 1. 3∶4∶5

2. 5∶4∶3

3. 9∶8∶7

4. 20∶15∶12

Q.14

Ans
1.

Q.15 Vinod and Sanjay were fighting against each other for the post of a village Pradhan. Sanjay got 47.5% votes and lost the
election by 270 votes. How many votes did Vinod get (assuming that all the villagers participated in the voting)?
Ans 1. 2385

2. 2835

3. 2565

4. 2655

Q.16 A stock portfolio consists of three stocks. Stock A represents 30% of the portfolio and has a return of 5%. Stock B
represents 40% of the portfolio and has a return of 10%. Stock C represents the remaining 30% of the portfolio and has a
return of 8%. What is the average return of the portfolio?
Ans 1. 7.2%

2. 7.5%

3. 8.1%

4. 7.9%
Q.17 30 persons working 10 hours a day can do 5 units of work in 12 days. How many people are required to do 8 units of that
work in 16 days if they work for 8 hours a day?
Ans 1. 47

2. 38

3. 45

4. 30

Q.18 Four distinct positive numbers, ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’, in the order given, are in proportion. ‘b’ is 35 more than ‘a’ and ‘d’ is 60
more than ‘c’. The product of ‘a’ and ‘c’ is 5376. What is the sum of ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’?
Ans 1. 400

2. 398

3. 397

4. 399

Q.19 ΔXYZ is an isosceles triangle such that XY = XZ. It is given that YS ⊥ XZ and ZT ⊥ XY. What is the relation between YS and
ZT?
Ans 1. YS = ZT

2. YS = 2 ZT

3. YS < ZT

4. YS > ZT

Q.20 If cos 2θ = 0, where θ is an acute angle, then find the value of sin (75° - θ).
Ans
1.

Q.21

Ans
1.

Q.22 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?

Ans 1. 6816

2. 5006

3. 6124

4. 6006

Q.23 If the average score of a cricketer in three matches is 38 and in two other matches is 23, then what is the average score in all
five matches?
Ans 1. 32

2. 30

3. 34

4. 36
Q.24 A person spends 40% of his salary on food items, 50% of the remaining on transport, and 30% of the remaining on clothes.
After spending on food, transport and clothes, he saves ₹1,260 every month, what is his monthly salary?
Ans 1. ₹10,000

2. ₹6,000

3. ₹7,000

4. ₹8,000

Q.25 If 12 students can read 4800 pages of a book in 15 days, then how many students can read 7200 pages of the same book in
10 days?
Ans 1. 27

2. 33

3. 30

4. 24

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The question is being answered by Sherry.
Ans 1. Sherry is answering the question.

2. The question was being answered by Sherry.

3. Sherry answered the question.

4. The question was answered by Sherry.

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
They said to him, “Do not jump into the pond today.”
Ans 1. They told him to jump into the pond the previous day.

2. They told him from jumping into the pond the same day.

3. They told him not jumped into the pond that day.

4. They told him not to jump into the pond that day.

Q.3 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
She is enough wise not to interfere in their matter, once being insulted publicly by them.
Ans 1. She is enough wise

2. insulted publicly by them.

3. not to interfere in

4. their matter, once being

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Intelligible
Ans 1. Responsible

2. Dispensable

3. Comprehensible

4. Impossible

Q.5 A word in the following sentence is INCORRECTLY spelt. Select that word from the given options.

Fungal diseases in the lungs are often similar to other illnesses such as bacterial or viral pneumoniia
Ans 1. pneumoniia

2. often

3. illnesses

4. fungal
Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Loathe
Ans 1. Hate

2. Esteem

3. Love

4. Dissipate

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.

At sixes and sevens

Ans 1. Having dispute

2. In disorder

3. In happy mood

4. Heavy rains

Q.8 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The coach asked us when we were planning to begin practice.
Ans 1. “When are you planning to begin practice?”, the coach asked us.

2. “When do you plan to begin practice?”, the coach asked us.

3. “When will you to begin practice?”, the coach asked us.

4. “When did you planning to begin practice?”, the coach asked us.

Q.9 A word in the following sentence is INCORRECTLY spelt. Select that word from the given options.

It’s better to think about what you are doing right now—without worying about the unknown.
Ans 1. better

2. worying

3. without

4. about

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The arrangement of events or dates in the order of their occurrence.

Ans 1. Allegory

2. Chronology

3. Plutocracy

4. Topography

Q.11 Select the most appropriate word opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the underlined word in the given sentence.

Human life is transient.

Ans 1. timid

2. permanent

3. tranquil

4. thrifty

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We met a lot of people _______ our stay in Ahmedabad.
Ans 1. while

2. in

3. during

4. on
Q.13 Select the correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select
'No substitution'.
The train left before I reached the station.
Ans 1. left before I had reached

2. No substitution

3. left before I have reached

4. had left before I reached

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Generally, a cycle has an seat and handle along with two pedals and a bell, sometimes a carrier too.
Ans 1. Generally, a cycle has an

2. with two pedals and

3. a bell, sometimes a carrier too.

4. seat and handle along

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Lift the veil!
Ans 1. Let the veil have been lifted!

2. Let the veil be lifted!

3. Please let the veil be lifted now!

4. Let the veil had been lifted!

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Can we see (1)________ the earth is a globe? Yes, we can, when we watch a ship that sails out to sea. If we watch closely, we see
that the ship begins (2)________. The bottom of the ship disappears first, and then the ship seems to sink lower and lower, (3)
________ we can only see the top of the ship, and then we see nothing at all. What is hiding the ship from us? It is the earth. Stick a
pin most of the way into an orange, and (4) ________ turn the orange away from you. You will see the pin disappear, (5)________ a
ship does on the earth.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. that

2. if

3. whether

4. where

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. to disappear

2. to be disappeared

3. to have disappeared

4. being disappeared
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. until

2. by the time

3. since

4. after

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. reluctantly

2. slowly

3. passionately

4. accidentally

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. the same

2. by the way

3. alike

4. just as
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Judicial activism in India has been a topic of great significance and debate. The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, has played a
proactive role in shaping and interpreting laws to ensure justice and protect fundamental rights. Through landmark judgements, the
court has expanded the scope of constitutional principles and acted as a check on the executive and legislative branches. However,
this activism has sparked discussions about the limits of judicial power and the need to strike a balance between activism and
restraint. Critics argue that excessive judicial intervention can encroach upon the domain of the other branches, while proponents see
it as a necessary tool to safeguard democracy, uphold constitutional values and advance social justice. The evolution of judicial
activism continues to influence the dynamics of governance in India.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Find the correct ANTONYM of the following word from the passage.
Proactive
Ans 1. Provident

2. Careless

3. Prompt

4. Accomplish

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Judicial activism in India has been a topic of great significance and debate. The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, has played a
proactive role in shaping and interpreting laws to ensure justice and protect fundamental rights. Through landmark judgements, the
court has expanded the scope of constitutional principles and acted as a check on the executive and legislative branches. However,
this activism has sparked discussions about the limits of judicial power and the need to strike a balance between activism and
restraint. Critics argue that excessive judicial intervention can encroach upon the domain of the other branches, while proponents see
it as a necessary tool to safeguard democracy, uphold constitutional values and advance social justice. The evolution of judicial
activism continues to influence the dynamics of governance in India.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 According to the passage, what do critics argue regarding judicial activism?
Ans 1. It ensures a balanced exercise of power.

2. It encroaches on the domains of other branches.

3. It is necessary for safeguarding democracy.

4. It has no impact on constitutional values.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Identify the central theme of the passage.
Ans 1. The role and impact of judicial activism in India

2. Division of power into executive, legislature and judiciary

3. The evolution of governance in India

4. The constitutional rights of judiciary in India

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 What can be inferred about the Supreme Court's role in shaping laws?
Ans 1. It has no authority to check the executive branch.

2. It has expanded the scope of constitutional principles.

3. It is solely responsible for legislative actions.

4. It has a limited role in interpreting laws.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate title of the passage.
Ans 1. The Role of the Supreme Court

2. The Constitutional Principles in India

3. The Debate over Judicial Activism

4. The Preamble of India

Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024
Exam Date 26/06/2024
Exam Time 5:15 PM - 6:15 PM
Subject Selection Post Graduate level

Section : General Intelligence

Q.1 Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the following blanks, will
complete the letter series.

_K_IW_J_W__I_KJ_
Ans 1. WIJKIKJW

2. WJKIKJWI

3. WWIJKIKJ

4. WKJIKJWI

Q.2 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Bacteria
2. Butterfly
3. Mosquito
4. Vulture
5. Sparrow
Ans 1. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

2. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

3. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

4. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

Q.3 10 is related to 6 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 22 is related to 12. 28 is related to which of the
following using the same logic?
Ans 1. 26

2. 32

3. 15

4. 30

Q.4 Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown.
Select the number on the face opposite to the one having 5.

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 6

4. 3
Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘HWET’ is coded as ‘205238’ and ‘RBKX’ is coded as ‘2411218’. How will ‘ICPZ’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 271532

2. 241128

3. 251526

4. 261639

Q.6 Each of the letters in the word MASONRY are arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English
alphabetical series between the letter that is third from the left and the one that is second from the right in the new letter
cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 7

4. 6

Q.7 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.
_ww_xw_xx_wx_wwx
Ans 1. wwxxx

2. xxwwx

3. xwxwx

4. wwxxw

Q.8 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
India : Rupee :: Bahrain : ?
Ans 1. Yen

2. Dollar

3. Dinar

4. Euro

Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
25 ÷ 5 – 918 × 9 + 4 = ?
Ans 1. 142

2. 112

3. 321

4. 223

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘DENT’ is coded as ‘3856’ and ‘LINK’ is coded as ‘7392’. What is the code for ‘N’ in that language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 9

4. 3

Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word
Oology : Eggs :: Conchology : ?
Ans 1. Shells

2. Algae

3. Skulls

4. Kidneys
Q.12 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
PERFECT: TCEFREP:: UPDATES:SETADPU::UNKNOWN : ?
Ans 1. OWNUNKN

2. UNWNKNO

3. KNOUNWN

4. NWONKNU

Q.13 In a code language, 'LIBERTY' is coded as ‘NKDETVA’ and 'TONIGHT' is coded as ‘VQPIIJV’. How will 'AUCTION' be coded in
the same language?
Ans 1. CWETKQP

2. CXETKQP

3. CEATKQP

4. CWESKQP

Q.14 In a code language, 'ACTING' is coded as ‘ZXGRMT’ and 'CABALS' is coded as ‘XZYZOH’. How will 'EAGLET' be coded in the
same language?
Ans 1. VGTOVG

2. VZTPVG

3. VZTOVG

4. VZSOVG

Q.15 Which of the following term will replace the question mark (?) in the given series
7, 3, 6, 7, 5, 11, ?
Ans 1. 44

2. 4

3. 55

4. 22

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Teeth : Dentist :: Bones : ?
Ans 1. Cardiologist

2. Orthodontist

3. Orthopaedic

4. Dermatologist

Q.17 Three statements are given, followed by Three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No chart is a casket.
Not a single casket is a house.
Every house is an adapter.
Conclusions:
I. Some adapters which are houses are charts as well.
II. No chart is a house.
III. Some adapters are houses.
Ans 1. Only conclusion III follows

2. Both conclusions II and III follow

3. Either conclusion I or II follows

4. All conclusions follow

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘sing of thee’ is written as ‘jd fy yh’, and ‘does she sing’ is coded as ‘fy ug sc’. How will ‘sing’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. ug

2. yh

3. fy

4. jd

Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.21 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above information, how is Q related to S if ‘P + Q ÷ R × S − T’?

Ans 1. Wife’s sister

2. Wife’s mother

3. Wife’s father

4. Wife’s brother

Statements:
Some crocodiles are tubes.
All tubes are socks.
No sock is a menu.

Conclusions:
(I) Some menus are not socks.
(II) No sock is a crocodile.
(III) Some tubes are menus.
Ans 1. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

Q.23 Identify the figure which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘INSTITUTE’ is written as ‘JOTUKWXWH’ and ‘OPPRESSOR’ is written as ‘PQQSGVVRU’. How
will ‘TRANSFORM’ be written in the same code language?
Ans 1. UBSOUIRUP

2. USCOUIRUP

3. USBOUIRUP

4. UTBOUIRVP

Q.25 A woman said to a man, “Your mother’s husband’s father is my husband”. How is the woman related to the man?
Ans 1. Grandmother

2. Grandson

3. Wife

4. Mother

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Great Bath was found in:
Ans 1. Ropar

2. Alamgirpur

3. Mohenjo-daro

4. Rakhigarhi

Q.2 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of
office of the President shall be completed before the expiration of the term?
Ans 1. Article 61

2. Article 62

3. Article 60

4. Article 59

Q.3 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that any person to become the President of India has to be a citizen of
India?
Ans 1. Article 58

2. Article 57

3. Article 60

4. Article 59

Q.4 Which of the following rulers is considered as the greatest king of Satavahana dynasty and is described as the destroyer of
the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas?
Ans 1. Simuka

2. Hala

3. Gautamiputra Satakarni

4. Yajna Sri Satakarni

Q.5 Sanskrit College at Benaras was founded by ________.

Ans 1. Thomas Munro

2. Jonathan Duncan

3. William Jones

4. James Mill

Q.6 Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
more than once’?
Ans 1. Article 20(4)

2. Article 20(2)

3. Article 20(3)

4. Article 20(1)

Q.7 Under which account heading has the funding for the Kashi Yatra Scheme been approved in India for the year 2022-23?
Ans 1. Assistance to Char Dham Yatra pilgrims

2. Assistance to Manasa Sarovara pilgrims

3. Assistance to Amarnath Yatra pilgrims

4. Assistance to Kumbh Mela pilgrims

Q.8 Pandit Ram Narayan, who was awarded the Pandit Bhimsen Joshi Lifetime Achievement Award for 2015–2016, is a _______
player.
Ans 1. violin

2. sarangi

3. flute

4. sarod
Q.9 In which year was Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana launched?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2020

3. 2017

4. 2018

Q.10 The Vijayanagara empire included people from different cultural regions. Which of the following regions was NOT a part of
it?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Telugu

3. Tamil

4. Maratha

Q.11 ________ is the science and art of cultivating fruits, vegetables, flowers and ornamental plants.
Ans 1. Viniculture

2. Floriculture

3. Horticulture

4. Sericulture

Q.12 ________ is the proper management of a natural resource to prevent its exploitation, destruction or degradation.
Ans 1. Protection

2. Degradation

3. Preservation

4. Conservation

Q.13 With which game is the CK Nayudu Trophy associated?

Ans 1. Cricket

2. Football

3. Basketball

4. Handball

Q.14 Jaita is the main dance form of which state?

Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Karnataka

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.15 Which of the following union territories has the least literacy rate according to the Census of India 2011?
Ans 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

2. Daman and Diu

3. Lakshadweep

4. Andaman and Nicobar Island

Q.16 Which physicist is best known for his experiments on generating and confirming the existence of electromagnetic waves?
Ans 1. Heinrich Rudolf Hertz

2. Albert Einstein

3. Isaac Newton

4. JJ Thomson
Q.17 Who among the following authored the book ‘Unbreakable’?
Ans 1. Indra Nooyi

2. Mary Kom

3. Shantanu Naidu

4. Kapil Dev

Q.18 In 2023, Government of India has proposed to launch the ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana’ ___________ to skill lakhs
of youth within the next three years covering new age courses like coding, AI, robotics, mechatronics, IOT, 3D printing,
drones and soft skills.
Ans 1. 1.0

2. 2.0

3. 4.0

4. 3.0

Q.19 The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called _____________.
Ans 1. conduction

2. variation

3. convection

4. advection

Q.20 As of July 2023, who is the Chief Minister of Assam?

Ans 1. Arvind Kejriwal

2. Hemant Soren

3. MK Stalin

4. Himanta Biswa Sarma

Q.21 Who was the designer of India’s national flag?

Ans 1. Prem Behari Narain Raizada

2. KM Munshi

3. Pingali Venkayya

4. BN Rau

Q.22 Which of the following items has a high fibre content?

Ans 1. Whole grain

2. Eggs

3. Fish

4. Milk

Q.23 In which of the following animals are the stinging capsules located around the mouth and on the tentacles?
Ans 1. Taenia

2. Nereis

3. Adamsia

4. Ascaris

Q.24 Allah Rakha was associated with which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Sarod

2. Shehnai

3. Sitar

4. Tabla
Q.25 Gandhiji gave his slogan of ‘Do or Die’ during which of the following Movements/Satyagrahas?
Ans 1. Kheda Satyagraha

2. Quit India

3. Champaran Satyagraha

4. Civil Disobedience

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. −2

4. −1

Q.2

Ans 1. Rs.160 crores

2. Rs.104 crores

3. Rs.200 crores

4. Rs.145 crores

Q.3 The sum of the four numbers A, B, C and D is 875. If the ratio of A to B is 1 : 2, the ratio of B to C is 3 : 1 and the ratio of C to
D is 2 : 3, find the value of C.
Ans 1. 125

2. 120

3. 135

4. 130

Q.4 Half the perimeter of a rectangular garden, whose length is 8 cm more than its width, is 42 cm. Find the area of the
rectangular garden.
Ans 1. 542 cm2

2. 425 cm2

3. 254 cm2

4. 524 cm2
Q.5 A motorboat, whose speed is 15 km/h in still water goes 20 km downstream and comes back in a total of 4 hours. The speed
of the stream (in km/h) is:
Ans 1.

Q.6 A bag contains rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If the total amount is ₹143, the number of 50-paise
coins is:
Ans 1. 66

2. 90

3. 88

4. 132

Q.7 The number of toys manufactured by a machine in 2018 was 25,000, which increased by 20% in 2019. In 2020, the production
was hindered by strike and it fell by 15%. How many total toys were manufactured in three years by the machine?
Ans 1. 80500

2. 80000

3. 25500

4. 89500

Q.8 Which of the following recorded the highest growth rate in manufacturing units from the year 2021 to the year 2022?

Ans 1. D

2. A

3. E

4. B

Q.9 In ∆ABC, AB=9 cm and AC=13 cm, then the length of BC could be:
Ans 1. 20 cm

2. 22 cm

3. 4 cm

4. 2 cm

Q.10 Find the largest number which should replace P in the 7- digit number 87893P4 to make the number divisible by 4.
Ans 1. 2

2. 8

3. 9

4. 0
Q.11

Ans
1.

Q.12 The volume of a cube is 64 cm3. The total surface area of the cube is:
Ans 1. 16 cm2

2. 96 cm2

3. 64 cm2

4. 128 cm2

Q.13 The following table gives the number of post-graduate students enrolled in 4 different colleges A, B, C, and D in a city over
the years 2015-2018 and also the number of students who passed the final examination during these years. Study the table
carefully and answer the question.

Find the percentage of students who passed from college C over all the years put together to the number of students
enrolled in college A over all the years (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Ans 1. 1.0021

2. 1.0112

3. 1.0321

4. 1.0212

Q.14

Ans 1. 195

2. 197

3. 196

4. 194

Q.15 A shopkeeper offers the following three schemes:

I. Buy 9 get 1 free
II. Buy 7 get 8
III. Two successive discounts of 20% and 15%
Which scheme has the lowest discount percentage (all articles have the same marked price)?
Ans 1. Scheme II

2. Scheme I

3. All are equal

4. Scheme III
Q.16 P sells a Laptop to Q at a loss of 25% and Q sells the laptop to R at a profit of 20%. If R purchased the laptop for ₹22,500,
then what was the cost (in ₹) of the laptop for P?
Ans 1. 25000

2. 24800

3. 23200

4. 23800

Q.17 A and B can do a piece of work separately in 10 days and 8 days, respectively. If they work alternately and A begins the
work, in how many days will the work be completed?
Ans 1. 8

2. 10

3. 12

4. 9

Q.18 In the following figure, ∠ A = ∠ P and AC = PR.

Which of the following options needs to be satisfied for Δ PQR and Δ ABC to be congruent?
Ans 1. BC = QR by SSA criteria

2. BC = QR by ASS criteria

3. AB = PQ by SSA criteria

4. AB = PQ by SAS criteria

Q.19 A person travels two-fifth of a distance at a speed of 40 km/h and the remaining at a speed of 60 km/h. What is his average
speed (in km/h) in the entire journey?
Ans 1. 50

2. 40

3. 48

4. 60

Q.20 The selling price of y items is equal to the cost price of 540 items. If the profit made is 44%, then find the value of y.
Ans 1. 375

2. 400

3. 360

4. 380

Q.21 The average of 25 integers is zero. What is the maximum possible number of positive integers?
Ans 1. 24

2. 20

3. 12

4. 13
Q.22

Ans 1. 5%

2. 2%

3. 7%

4. 3%

Q.23 Find the smallest non-zero value of k so that 7-digit number 48397k5 is divisible by 9.
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 9

4. 2

Q.24 If the radius of the right circular cone is increased by 20% and its height is decreased by 25%, then the volume of the right
circular cone will be increased by:
Ans 1. 12%

2. 10%

3. 8%

4. 15%

Q.25

Ans
1.

Section : English Language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Efficacy
Ans 1. Ecstasy

2. Urgency

3. Conspiracy

4. Efficiency

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Confiscate
Ans 1. Sprint

2. Yield

3. Seize

4. Release
Q.3 Select the correct active voice of the given sentence
Why was such a letter written by Rupesh?
Ans 1. Why is Rupesh write such a letter?

2. Why has Rupesh writes such a letter?

3. Why did Rupesh wrote such a letter?

4. Why did Rupesh write such a letter?

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
The film actor and director were accused of indulging in nepotism.
Ans 1. Partiality

2. Favouritism

3. Impartiality

4. Inclination

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Shraddha wandered through the labyrinth of thoughts, seeking clarity _____ chaos.
Ans 1. amidst

2. for

3. upstairs

4. down

Q.6 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A. Lying in bed waiting
B. For the postman to bring
C. Him news of a legacy
D. Luck keeps on
Ans 1. BDAC

2. DABC

3. ADBC

4. BDCA

Q.7 Select the sentence that has NO spelling errors.

Ans 1. The clear blue waters of the lagon called to me, inviting me to dive into its peacefull embrece.

2. The clear blue waters of the lagoon called to me, inviting me to dive into its peaceful embrace.

3. The clear blue waters of the lagoon caled to me, inviting me to dieve into its peacefull embrace.

4. The clear blue waters of the laggon called to me, inviting me to dieve into its peaceful embrece.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

She met my cousin, whose she later married.

Ans 1. she later married

2. No substitution required

3. whom she later married

4. which she later married

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Shanky said, 'I'll be disposing of the old iPhone next Wednesday'.

Ans 1. Shanky said that he will have been disposing off the old iPhone the following Wednesday.

2. Shanky said that he would be disposing of the old iPhone the following Wednesday.

3. Shanky said that he would have been disposing of the old iPhone the following Wednesday.

4. Shanky said that he would be disposing off the old iPhone the following Wednesday.
Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The child was testing the patience of her mother.
Ans 1. The patience of her mother was being tested by the child.

2. The patience of her mother was tested by the child.

3. Her mother was tested by the patient child.

4. The patience of her mother had been tested by the child.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

One answer to the ________ of air pollution is to build a car that does not pollute.
Ans 1. basis

2. measure

3. resolution

4. problem

Q.12 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Netaji, a hero of Modern India, is remembered for his contribution in the establishment of Indian Army.
Ans 1. India, is remembered for

2. Netaji, a hero of Modern

3. establishment of Indian Army.

4. his contribution in the

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Rekha asked me what I was doing.
Ans 1. Rekha said to me, “What was you doing?”

2. Rekha said to me, “What are you doing?”

3. Rekha said to me, “What are I doing?”

4. Rekha said to me, “’What were you doing?”

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Midhuna was nineteen years old, too young to buy the farm.
Ans 1. Possess anything

2. Stop living

3. Spend money

4. Own a property

Q.15 Select the sentence that has NO spelling errors.

Ans 1. Despite his youthfull apearance, the wise old man posessed a wealth of knowledge and experience.

2. Despite his youthful appearance, the wise old man possessed a wealth of knowledge and experience.

3. Despite his youthfull appearence, the wise old man possessed a wealth of knowledge and experience.

4. Despite his youthful apearance, the wise old man posessed a wealth of knowledge and experince.
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between _____1_____ parts of the world. The name
‘silk routes’ points to the _____2______ of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk
routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and _____3______ Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are
known to have existed since before the Christian Era and _____4_____ almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also
_______5_____ the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. indifferent

2. distant

3. further

4. indirect

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. insignificance

2. importance

3. consequence

4. emphasis

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. linking

2. dividing

3. collecting

4. sharing
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. retreated

2. thrived

3. languished

4. radiated

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. migrated

2. travelled

3. stayed

4. walked

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

Once, an old farmer named John lived in a village. Despite the arrival of young farmers with modern techniques, John stuck to
traditional methods, believing in hard work and patience. One day, a group of young farmers came to the village and started using
modern farming techniques and equipment. They boasted about their high yields and profits, and many of the villagers were
impressed. Over time, the young farmers struggled while John’s farm thrived, showcasing healthy crops and well-cared-for animals.
Recognising his wisdom, the villagers sought John’s guidance, and he became a respected elder. He taught them the importance of
respecting nature, working with it, and embodying values like perseverance and hard work. John’s farm became a model for
sustainable and ethical practices, leaving a lasting legacy. He was remembered as a wise and humble man who dedicated his life to
the land and community.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 What would be an appropriate title for this story?
Ans 1. The Wisdom of Traditional Farming

2. The Importance of Patience in Farming

3. The War Between Old and New Farmers

4. The Rise of Modern Farming Techniques

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Why did John remain steadfast in his traditional farming methods?
Ans 1. He didn’t have enough money to invest in modern equipment.

2. He was afraid of changing and could not invest.

3. He believed that hard work and patience were the keys to success.

4. He was too old to learn new techniques.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 What was the name of the old farmer in the story?
Ans 1. John

2. Joe

3. Jack

4. James

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 What can we infer about John’s character from the story?
Ans 1. He was wise and humble.

2. He was dishonest and deceitful.

3. He was lazy and unproductive.

4. He was arrogant and stubborn.

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 What did the young farmers do when they came to the village?
Ans 1. They left the village soon after arriving.

2. They started using traditional farming methods.

3. They started a new business in the village.

4. They started using modern farming techniques and equipment.

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