BCOR260 Tutorial 2 Answers
BCOR260 Tutorial 2 Answers
In thousands
Taxable Life 3
Equipment Cost 75
NWC 0
Rve (Sales) 60
Oper. Exp 25
Required r N/A
Tax T 0.35 1 2 3 4
Depr. MACRS Rates 0.33 0.45 0.15 0.07 100%
Salavage 0 Depr 24.75 33.75 11.25 5.25
Cash outflow 0 1 2 3 4
FCInv -75
+ NWC 0
= Total Outflow -75 0 0 0 0
Cash inflow 0 1 2 3 4
Sales 60 60 60 60
- Opr Exp -25 -25 -25 -25
= EBITDA 35 35 35 35
- Dep -24.75 -33.75 -11.25 -5.25
= EBIT 10.25 1.25 23.75 29.75
-T -3.59 -0.44 -8.31 -10.41
Answer
Exercise 2
In millions
Equipment Cost 20 Net Salvage = Salv - (Salv- BVT)*T
Depreciation status 75% (25% left to depreciate)
Salvage 6 BV = (1-0,75)*Equipment cost =
Tax T 0.4
Net Salv =
5 to 10
5
60
-25
35
35.00
-12.25
22.75
0.00
22.75
0
0
22.75
22.75
Exercise 3
In thousands
e = Salv - (Salv- BVT)*T Project Life 3 Operating CF:
Equipment Cost 65 CF = (S - E - D)*(1-T) +D
(1-0,75)*Equipment cost = 5 NWC 10
Rve (Sales) 70 Net Salvage
6 - (6 - 5)*0,4 = 5.6 Oper. Exp 25 Salv - (Salv- BVT)*T
Required r 0.1
Tax T 0.35
Depr. SL 21.67
Salavage 0
NPV = -𝐼_0 +
∑24_1^𝑛▒ 〖𝐶𝐹〗
〖 (1+𝑟) 〗 ^𝑡
r= 0.1
0 1 2
CFs -75.00 36.83 36.83
Disc CFs -75.00 33.48 30.44
Cumul Dis CFs -75.00 -41.52 -11.07
breakeven
Extra: DPB = 2 + (11,07/35,19) = 2
Interpretation: It takes 2.315 years to b
Cash inflow 0 1 2 3
Sales 70 70 70
- Opr Exp -25 -25 -25
= EBITDA 45 45 45
- Dep -21.67 -21.67 -21.67
= EBIT 23.33 23.33 23.33
- T (=0,35) -8.17 -8.17 -8.17
= NOPAT 15.17 15.17 15.17
+ Dep 21.67 21.67 21.67
= OCF 36.83 36.83 36.83
+ NWC 10
+ Net Salvage 0
= Total Inflow 0 36.83 36.83 46.83
IN - OUT = Total Cash Flow -75.00 36.83 36.83 46.83
Cash outflow 0 1 2 3
FCInv 4
+ NWC 0.9 0.054 0.057 We needed 6% more every BEGIN
= Total Outflow 4.9 0.054 0.057 0
Cash inflow 0 1 2 3
Sales
- Opr Exp
= EBITDA 2 2.1 2.205
- Dep -1.32 -1.80 -0.60
= EBIT 0.68 0.30 1.605
3 4
0.15 0.07 100%
0.6 0.28
per year
We needed 6% more every BEGINNING of year of the NWC to continue financing the project
^1 +
/ 〖 1,1 〗
Exercise 5 Replacement: Using the difference betwe
In thousands
Project Life 3
New Equip. Cost 14 Initial Outlay = FCInv + NWC - [Salv. Of Old Equip. - T
NWC 0 = 14 + 0 - [1,5 - 0,4*(1,5 - 3)]
Salvage of old equip. 1.5 11.9
BVold 3
Changes in:
Rve (Sales) 0 1
Oper. Exp -7 Rates 0.33
Depr New Equip. Depr (MACRS) 4.62
Old Equip. Depr (SL) 1
Change in depr 3.62
Required r 0.16
Tax T 0.4 Net Salvage = Salv - (Salv- BVT)*T
Salavage of new equip. 2 = 2 - (2 - 0,98)*0,4
1.592
Cash outflow 0
FCInv 11.9
+ NWC 0
= Total Outflow 11.9
Cash inflow 0
ΔS
- ΔE
= ΔEBITDA
- ΔDep
= ΔEBIT
-T
= ΔNOPAT
+ ΔDep
= ΔOCF
+ NWC
+ Net Salvage
= Total Inflow 0
IN - OUT = Total Cash Flow -11.900
2 3 4
0.45 0.15 0.07 100%
6.3 2.1 0.98
1 1
5.3 1.1 0.98
- (2 - 0,98)*0,4
1 2 3
In replacement projects, we need to think in terms of change:
Difference between new and old
0 0 0 ΔOCF = Δ(S - E - D)*(1-T) + ΔD
1 2 3
0 0 0
7 7 7
7 7 7
-3.62 -5.30 -1.10
3.38 1.70 5.90
-1.35 -0.68 -2.36
2.03 1.02 3.54
3.62 5.30 1.10
5.65 6.32 4.64
0
1.592
5.65 6.32 6.23
5.648 6.320 6.232
Regular Payback for A: Number of years just before Cumul CF turns positive
+ % of how much we took from the next CF to
= 3 + (0,07/0,33)
0 1 2 3
CFB -1 0.5 0.3 0.2
Cumul. CFB -1 -0.5 -0.2 0
Regular Payback for A: Number of years just before Cumul CF turns positive
+ % of how much we took from the next CF to
=3 + 0 =
Project B takes less time to recover. Therefore, we should pick project B!
Q.2
NPVA = -1 + 0,3/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^1 +
0,31/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^2 + 0,32/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^3 +
NPVA〖 1,1
0,33/ 〗 ^4 + 0,34/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^5
0.206
= NPV(rate,range of values)+investment
Or = Sum of all discounted CFs
0.206
Verdict NPVA > 0 A can be considered
Project A
Rate NPV
17% 0.01383
IRR 0
18% -0.0955
(18%−17%)/
(−0,0955−0,01383) =
(𝐈𝐑𝐑−17%)/(0−0,01383
IRR A17.13%
)
(18%−17%)/
(−0,0955−0,01383) =
(𝐈𝐑𝐑−17%)/(0−0,01383
) Any which way we go is fine! We just need to follow the
Question? What happens if NPV and IRR show different results in case we compare 2 mutuall
For instance:
NPV results tells us to pick A
IRR results tell us to pick B
before Cumul CF turns positive Discounted Payback for A: Number of years just before Cumul of Disc. CF t
much we took from the next CF to Breakeven + % of how much we took from the ne
= 3.21 years = 4 + (0,005/0,211)
= 4.02 years
Extra: r = 0.1
4 5 0 1 2 3
0.1 0.1 Disc CFB -1 0.455 0.248 0.150
0.1 0.2 Cum. Dis. CFB -1 -0.545455 -0.297521 -0.147258
before Cumul CF turns positive Notice that the Cumul of Disc CFs never turned positive. Project was not able
much we took from the next CF to Breakeven Bad sign !!
3.00 years
e should pick project B!
IRRB 9.08%
investment) = IRR(range of values including initial i
Project B
Rate NPV
10% -0.01687
IRR 0
9% 0.00149
(9%−10%)/(0,00149−
(−0,01687)) =
(𝐈𝐑𝐑−10%)/(0−(−0,01687))
IRR 9.08%
B
is fine! We just need to follow the same direction !!
Required r 0.12
4 5 Tax T 0.4
0.068 0.062 -0.017 Depr. SL (6y) 0.25
-0.078956 -0.016864 Salavage 0.5
NPV old 0.41
tive. Project was not able to breakeven NWC = Receivables + Inventories - Payables
Cash outflow 0
FCInv 1.5
+ NWC 0.4
,1 〗 ^1 + = Total Outflow 1.9
0,2/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^3 +
0,1/ 〖 1,1 〗 ^5 Cash inflow 0
ange of values)+investment Sales
discounted CFs - Opr Exp
= EBITDA
B cannot be considered - Dep
= EBIT
-T
= NOPAT
of values including initial investment) + Dep
= OCF
+ NWC Q.1
+ Net Salvage
= Total Inflow 0.00
IN - OUT = Total Cash Flow -1.90
NPV -0.008
= NPV(rate,range of values)+investment
IRR 11.91%
= IRR(range of values including initial inves
Verdict NPV<0
IRR<12%
The discounting of early CFs have less effect than the discountin
Early CFs are discounted at lower powers
Later CFs are discounted at heavier powe
When D goes up, we will have larger early CFs, then the later on
If early CFs are heavier, and discounted a
Long method
Cash outflow 0
FCInv 1.26
+ NWC 0.4
= Total Outflow 1.66
Cash intflow
Sales
- Opr Exp
= EBITDA
- Dep
= EBIT
-T
= NOPAT
+ Dep
= OCF
+ NWC
+ Net Salvage
= Total Inflow
IN - OUT = Total Cash Flow -1.66
NPV 0.166
NPVold -0.008
Net Salvage = Salv - (Salv- BVT)*T
0.300
Initial Outlay = FCInv + NWC - [Salv. Of Old Equip. - T*(Salv of Old Equip. - BV old)]
1.9
Q.2
es - Payables
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1
0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25
0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35
_1^𝑛▒ 〖𝐶
〗 ^𝑡
e,range of values)+investment
Under MACRS
100
30 When we incur more Depr expenses, OCF goes up.
70 Why?
28 Let's suppose Depr goes up by a: Let's suppose Depr falls by a:
42 Sales
30 - Exp. -
72 - (D + a) -
= EBIT - a =
eased by 4 (=72-68) * (1-T) *
e amount of Tax savings made = EBIT*(1-T) - a*(1-T) =
10)*0,4 = 4 + (D + a) +
= EBIT*(1-T) - a*(1-T) + (D + a) =
= EBIT*(1-T) + (D + a) - a*(1-T) =
= OCFbefore + aT =
Tax savings
ave less effect than the discounting of the farther CFs down the time line
s are discounted at lower powers
s are discounted at heavier powers
Lower Depreciable base 1.26 DeprNew 0.21 per year for the first 6 years
(=1,5-0,24) (=1,26/6)
Short method
1- Lower Equip. Cost means immediate increase of NPV by 0,24 billion
1 to 6 7 to 11 12 2- When Depr falls, the OCF will fall by the Tax Savings amount
D fell by 0,04 (=0,25 - 0,21), in the first 6 years
The OCF from year 1 to 6 will fall by 0,04*T = 0,016
0 0 0
Therefore:
0.1 0.1 0.1 NPVnew = NPVold + 0,24 - 0,016* ("(1-"
0.25 0.25 0.25
0.35 0.35 0.35
〖 1,12 〗 ^(−6) ")" )/0,12
-0.21 0.17422
0.14 0.35 0.35
-0.056 -0.14 -0.14
0.084 0.21 0.21
0.21
0.294 0.21 0.21
0.4
0.300
0.294 0.21 0.91
0.294 0.21 0.91
9 10 11 12
0 0 0 0
9 10 11 12
0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1
0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25
0.35 0.35 0.35 0.35
Q.2
〗 ^4 + 0,31/
2 〗 ^9 +
〗 ^4 +
〖 1,12 〗 ^9 +
〗 ^4 +
〖 1,12 〗 ^9 +
Tax loss
Original D 0.25
16* ("(1-"
project's IRR. So, if r is 10%, and NPV = 0, then the discounting rate (that happens to be 10%) is the project's IRR (=10%)
V considers all the CFs and time value of money. The Discounted Payback also consider the time value of money, but not all CFs. It is o
means that there is a chance that project A's cost might be recovered earlier. It does not say that it might better or worse, because it do
oject is not providing the (minimum) required return. Remember that we're discounting at r. So, if we're discounting at a higher rate t
ve projects, we pick the one with the highest NPV.
ose the highest NPV
other <0, we pick the positive NPV
always pick the project with higher NPV no matter what the signs are (i.e. if both NPV<0, but one is closer to zero, so we pick it, NO!) T
V>0 enjoys an IRR than can more than satisfy the potential investors' required (minimum) r. therefore, a succesful investment with an
ject's IRR (=10%)
of money, but not all CFs. It is only interested in the CFs 'Discounted CFs) that are needed to cover the initial outlay. The additional CF
ht better or worse, because it does not consider CFs after the breakeven, nor it does consider the time value of money (so we can rule
're discounting at a higher rate than IRR. With IRR, we will have NPV=0. With higher rate than IRR, the NPV will become negative (high
ser to zero, so we pick it, NO!) They are both negative so we drop them both. We pick the project with the largest and positive NPV
a succesful investment with an NPV>0, will definitely generate an IRR>r !
initial outlay. The additional CFs that come after are not considered.
value of money (so we can rule out any affiliation to NPV)
NPV will become negative (higher discounting, lower value of NPV). Therefore, when IRR<r, NPV<0.