LOGICAL REASONING &

READING COMPREHENSION TIPS

LSAT

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 FACTS vs. ARGUMENTS
 Determine if the passage is a fact or an argument
 Answer the question: “is there a point the author is trying to make?”

FACTS ARGUMENTS
made up of declarative statements supports a claim
no conclusion includes a final statement
no attempt to persuade uses premise and conclusion indicators

EXAMPLES:

1. Smoking in bed has long been the main cause of home fires. Despite a
significant decline in cigarette smoking in the last two decades, however,
there has been no comparable decline in the number of people killed in
home fires. (Facts)

2. Maria won this year’s local sailboat race by beating Sue, the winner in
each of the four previous years. We can conclude from this that Maria
trained hard. (Argument)

3. The United States ranks far behind countries such as Sweden and Canada
when it comes to workplace safety. In all three countries, joint labor-
management committees that oversee workplace safety conditions have
been very successful in reducing occupational injuries. In the United
States, such committees are found only in the few companies that have
voluntarily established them. However, in Sweden and several Canadian
provinces, joint safety committees are required by law and exist in all
medium-sized and large workplaces. (Facts)

4. In his book, published in 1892, Grey used the same metaphor that Jordan
used in her book, which was published in 1885. The metaphor is so unusual
that there is little chance that two different people independently
created it. Therefore, it is highly likely that Grey read Jordan’s book.
(Argument)

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 BASIC CONCEPTS
Premise
 A statement that supports or provides a reason for accepting the
conclusion
 Answers the question “why?”

Conclusion
 A statement that is supported or established by the premises
 The main conclusion does not support any other sentence
 INTERMEDIATE CONCLUSION (SUB-CONCLUSION): supported by the
premises but also supports the main conclusion

PREMISE INDICATORS CONCLUSION INDICATORS

sufficient necessary
since so
as therefore
for hence
because thus
when/whenever relies on
due to will
unless/until/if not always
after all implies
given that consequently
as indicated by we may infer
may be inferred from it follows that
for the reason that accordingly
without as a result
each/any/every for this reason
all/no it can be concluded that
the only only/only if

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 SUFFICIENT NECESSARY
CONDITIONS UNIVERSALS GUARANTEES REQUIREMENT
 only
 if  all
 ensures  only if
 when  no
 implies  unless
 whenever  every
 will  must
 where  each
 leads to  requires
 the only  any
 depends on
 necessitates

Assumption
 An unstated premise in the argument
 Connects two variables in the argument

EXAMPLE:

Premise: Renee is a singer.

Conclusion: Renee has exceptional talent.

Assumption: Singers have exceptional talent.

DEDUCTIVE ARGUMENTS: CATEGORICAL PROPOSITIONS

TYPE FORM PROPOSITION EXAMPLE

A All S is P All singers are talented.
Universal
E No S is P No singers are talented.
I Some S is P Some singers are talented.
Particular
O Some S is not P Some singers are not talented.

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 Distribution

A-type
 distributes the subject

All [SUBJECT] is [PREDICATE]

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 E-type
 distributes both the subject and predicate
No [SUBJECT] is [PREDICATE]
subject -> ~predicate

All [SUBJECT] is not [PREDICATE]

I-type
 distributes both the subject and predicate
 some = at least one

Some [SUBJECT] is [PREDICATE]

 most = at least 50%

o with an overlap but can only conclude “some”
o overlap inferences = cannot conclude something stronger than
“some” (all or most) unless it specifies the underlying group (middle
term of the argument)
Most X are Y All X are Y
Most X are Z All X are Z
Some Y are Z All X are both Y and Z

O-type
 distributes the predicate

Some [SUBJECT] is not [PREDICATE]

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 Errors in Categorical Syllogism
Illicit Major
 Major term is not distributed in the premises but distributed in the
conclusion (predicate of the conclusion)

All ladies are humans (undistributed)

Some men are not ladies
Some men are not humans (distributed)

Illicit Minor
 Minor term is not distributed in the premises but is distributed in the
conclusion (subject of the conclusion)

No sharks are dolphins

All dolphins are fish (undistributed)
No fish are sharks (distributed)

Undistributed Middle
 distributes the predicate
 middle term does not appear in the conclusion

All apples are fruits (undistributed)

All bananas are fruits (undistributed)
All apples are bananas

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 Exclusive Premises
 Both premises CANNOT be negative

No animals are insects

Some insects are not dogs
Some dogs are not animals

Affirmative Conclusion from a Negative Premise

 Conclusion is positive but at least one premise is negative

All mammals are animals

No unicorns are mammals
Some unicorns are animals

Existential Fallacy
 Two universal premises cannot have a particular conclusion

All students are humans

All humans are people
Some students are people

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 DEDUCTIVE ARGUMENTS: CONDITIONAL STATEMENTS
e.g. if there is a storm, then the roads are flooded

PREMISE: there is a storm

CONCLUSION: the roads are flooded

 type of deductive argument

 hypothetical statement
 if the premise is true, then the conclusion must
 also be true

INVERSE
 inverse error!
 not necessarily true
 negate the premise and conclusion
 e.g. if there is NO storm, then the roads are NOT flooded

CONVERSE
 converse error!
 not necessarily true
 exchange the premise and conclusion
 e.g. if the roads are flooded, then there is a storm

CONTRAPOSITIVE
 always true!
 exchange premise and conclusion then
 negate both
 e.g. if the roads are NOT flooded, then there is NO storm

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 FORMS OF CONDITIONAL STATEMENTS
ANTECEDENT CONSEQUENT
Premise Conclusion
Sufficient statement Necessary statement
“if” “then”

NOTE: Reverse forms for the following but still following “If P then Q”
 None but Q is P
 Q alone are P
 Only Q is P

NOTE: “Some” is a bi-conditional statement while “most” is a conditional

statement

 Some apples are seedless:

 Most fruits are healthy:

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 RULES OF INFERENCE
1. MODUS PONENS

PQ
P
̴ ∴Q

2. MODUS TOLLENS

PQ
~Q
̴ ∴~P

3. HYPOTHETICAL SYLLOGISM

PQ
QR
̴ ∴P  R

4. DISJUNCTIVE SYLLOGISM

PvQ
~P
∴Q

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 5. CONSTRUCTIVE DILEMMA

(P  Q) ⦁ (R  S)
PvR
∴Q v S

6. ABSORPTION

P Q
∴P  (P ⦁ Q)

7. SIMPLIFICATION

P⦁Q
∴P

8. CONJUCTION

P
Q
∴P ⦁ Q

9. ADDITION

P
∴P v Q

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 10. DE MORGAN’S THEOREMS

~(P ⦁ Q) ≡ (~P v ~Q)

~(P v Q) ≡ (~P ⦁ ~Q)

11. COMMUTATION

(P v Q) ≡ (Q v P)
(P ⦁ Q) ≡ (Q ⦁ P)

12. ASSOCIATION

[P v (Q v R)] ≡[(P v Q) v R]
[P ⦁ (Q ⦁ R)] ≡[(P ⦁ Q) ⦁ R]

13. DISTRIBUTION

[P ⦁ (Q v R)] ≡[(P ⦁ Q) v (P ⦁ R)]

[P v (Q ⦁ R)] ≡[(P v Q) ⦁ (P v R)]

14. DOUBLE NEGATION

P ≡ ~~P

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 15. TRANSPOSITION

(P  Q) ≡ (~Q  ~P)

16. MATERIAL IMPLICATION

(P  Q) ≡ (~P v Q)

17. MATERIAL EQUIVALENCE

⦁
(P≡Q) ≡ [(P ⦁ Q) v (~P ⦁ ~Q)]

18. EXPORTATION

[(P ⦁Q)  R] ≡ [P  (Q R)]

19. TAUTOLOGY

P ≡ (P v P)
P ≡ (P ⦁ P)

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 CRITICAL REASONING

Question Stem

TYPES OF QUESTIONS
1. Strengthen
“Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest
additional support for the conclusion?”

“Which one of the following is an assumption on which the

argument depends?”

“Which one of the following is an assumption that would allow

the conclusion to be properly drawn?”

 Necessary assumption  find the similarity between two

variables in question
 Not necessarily to prove the argument

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  Strengthen the causal relationship (show that a potential
alternate cause cannot be the actual cause)
 Strengthen with different topics in the evidence and
conclusion (show how the topic in evidence is related to the
topic in the conclusion)
 Complete the sentence: “additionally…”/ “moreover…”

2. Methods/Errors in Reasoning
“The advertisement employs which one of the following
argumentative strategies?”

“The argument proceeds by _____”

“Which one of the following is an error of reasoning contained in

the argument?”

“Which one of the following describes a flaw in the reasoning

underlying the foundation’s conclusion?”

COMMON FLAWS IN REASONING

 Causal flaws
o overlooking the possibility of a third unknown factor
o overlooking the possibility of a reverse causal relationship
o mistakes correlation vs. causation (includes a curious fact)
 Necessary vs. Sufficient
o usually for conditional logic (inverse or converse error)
 Sampling error
o not representative
o comparison of samples is not appropriate or biased
 Ad Hominem
 Part vs. Whole
 Quantity vs. Percent
 Relative vs. Absolute
o e.g. “The Eiffel Tower is shorter than the Empire State Building. Thus,
the Eiffel Tower is short.”
 Lack of evidence as proof of argument validity
 False dichotomy
o overlooking the possibility of third and/or fourth option

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  Possible vs. Certain
o e.g. “Last year, we didn’t have enough budget for employee rates.
This year, there’s plenty of money in the budget so it’s clear that the
company will give out raises this year.”
 Circular reasoning
o author is convinced of own conclusion without an actual argument
o presupposes the truth of the claim that it is trying to establish
 Equivocation
o Use of an ambiguous term
 Overall value judgments
o lacking pros and cons
o irrelevant responses to arguments
 Internal Contradiction
o some evidence is inconsistent with other evidence
 Evidences
o Appeal to the masses (what others say)
 one expert (lower validity) vs. population (higher validity)
 is the source an actual expert?
 relying on sympathy
 opinion vs. fact
o Using the past
 assuming that things have not changed
 current situation vs. recommended situation
o Analogy
 are the two situations comparable?
 necessary assumption is that they are similar
o Unproven vs. Proven
 inadequate evidence does not imply truth or falsity
 absence of evidence vs. evidence of absence
o Intent vs. Outcome

3. Weaken
“Which one of the following statements, if true, casts doubt on
the argument?”

“Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the

argument?”

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  Not necessarily to disprove the argument
 Destroy the link between the variables in the premise and the
conclusion
 Find an alternative premise or a different cause
 identify the gaps in the argument
o weaken the causal relationship (show an alternate
cause or an inverse relationship)
o weaken a conclusion based on an irrelevant sample
 “STRENGTHEN EXCEPT”  find an argument that will weaken
the conclusion or one that will have no effect on the
conclusion

4. Principle
“The reasoning above most closely conforms to which one of the
following principles?”

“Which one of the following principles, if accepted, most strongly

justifies drawing the conclusion above?”

 Principle can be more general or specific

 Restate the given situation/argument
 Match the choice with any part of the passage
 Find the key words in the argument
 Illustrate the principle using a conditional statement
 Common incorrect choices:
o Could be true but does not necessarily conform
o Principles that stray from the situation

5. Paradox
“Which one of the following, if true, most helps explain the
discrepancy?”

“Which one of the following, if true, does the most to resolve the
apparent paradox?”

 Provide a new reason to explain the paradox

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  Phrase the situation as a question that connects the two
variables then find the answer choice that answers the
question created
 Look for a contrast keyword (but, yet, however, nonetheless)
if you don’t immediately see the conflict
 Avoid irrelevant answer choices or those with the opposite
effect

6. Main Point
“Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main
point of the argument?”

“The main point of the argument is that _____”

 Use conclusion and premise indicators to identify the role of

each claim in the argument
 What is the author trying to make you believe?
 Avoid answer choices that state something that can be
inferred rather than taken from the argument itself
 Make sure the answer choices is of the same degree (strong
vs. weak keywords) as the claim in the argument

7. Argument Exchange/Disputes
 Both parties must have an opinion
 One party must be for and the other must be against
 Common wrong choice: statements in which not enough
information is given

Point of Agreement
“If person A and person B are both sincere in what they say, then
it can properly be concluded that they agree that _____”

“Person A’s and person B’s statements most strongly support the
claim that both of them would agree with which one of the
following?”

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 Point at Issue

“Which one of the following is a point at issue between person A

and person B?”

“The main issue in dispute between person A and person B is

_____”

Misinterpretation

“Person A’s response shows that they interpret person B’s

statement to imply that _____”

“Person A has interpreted person B’s remarks to mean that _____”

8. Parallel/Flawed Parallel Reasoning

“Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning
in the argument above?”

“The pattern of reasoning displayed above most closely parallels

that displayed in which one of the following arguments?”

“The flawed reasoning in the argument above most closely

parallels which one of the following?”

“Which one of the following arguments contains flawed

reasoning parallel to that in the argument above?”

 See common errors

 What is the argument based on?
 What is the structure of the conclusion?
o Definite vs. Indefinite
o Strong vs. Weak
 What is the cause/effect of the action?
 “object to the argument” or find an argument of the possible
opposing side to find out the flaw/error in reasoning

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 9. Argument Structure
“The statement [--] plays which one of the following roles in the
argument?”

“Which of the following most accurately describes the role

played by the claim that [--]?”

 Parts of an argument:
o Support: acts as evidence for another claim
 Answers the question: why should I believe the
claim?
o Conclusion: claim backed by support but does not
support any other claim
o Background: statement that provides contextual
information but doesn’t play a role in the argument
 Focus on the meaning of the statement in the given passage
 Identify what the conclusion of the argument is
 Separate the conclusion from the support
10. Entailment/Must Be True
“If the statements above are true, which one of the following
must also be true?”

“Which one of the following logically follows from the statements

above?”

“Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the

statements above?”

 Break the passage down into individual claims

 Identify and diagram conditional statements
 Test the answer choice by asking if it is possible that it could
be false?

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 11. Argument Evaluation
“Clarification of which one of the following issues would be most
important to an evaluation of the argument?”

“Which one of the following would it be most relevant to

investigate in evaluating the conclusion of the argument?”

 Determine if the question stem is asking for a sufficient or a

necessary assumption
 Assumption = an unstated truth in the argument
 Take note of the gaps and overlooked possibilities that lead
to the conclusion
 Types of Conclusions:
o Comparisons
o Causation
o Assessments (implying a subjective value)
 “The sun is a joyful sight”  assessment
 “The sun is made up of several gases”  fact
o Recommendations
o Predictions
o Simple Beliefs

JUSTIFY THE CONCLUSION

 Find the sufficient assumption
 Must meet the minimum information required to link two
variables but can contain additional, non-essential elements
 Premise + Answer Choice = Conclusion
FIND THE ASSUMPTION
 Find the necessary assumption
 Answer choice must be exactly the link between two
variables
 Assumption = Conclusion + Premise

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 ANSWERING LOGICAL REASONING QUESTIONS

Determine
Determine
the Check the
the tone of
conclusion answer
the
vs. the choices
argument
evidence

1. Conclusion vs. Evidence

 Are there unnecessary statements?
 Is the argument a prediction, recommendation, or basic
belief?

2. Tone of the Argument

 Take note of the degree of the conclusion
KEYWORDS
STRONG ARGUMENT WEAK ARGUMENT
must probably/possibly/perhaps
will/should might/could
all most/more
none some
definitely likely/unlikely
always/every rarely/seldom/often
exactly almost/nearly

3. Check the Answer Choices

 Is there a possibility that the answer choice is wrong?

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 BEWARE OF TRAP ANSWER CHOICES!
 SCOPE
o out of scope
o half scope

 LOGIC
o premise support vs. conclusion support
o reverse (invers/obverse error)

 DEGREE
o answer choice is too weak
o answer choice is too strong
o choice must be same degree as the conclusion

READING COMPREHENSION

What is the What is the

What is the
topic of the author's
framework?
passage? position?

Topic of the Passage

 What is the passage talking about?
 Common subject areas:
o Science
o Law
o Humanities
o Society

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 Frameworks
 How is the passage written?
 Common frameworks
o Old vs. New
o Problem vs. Solution
o Highlight Noteworthy
o Challenge a Position
o Present a Debate
o Defend Against a Criticism
o Illustrate a Generalization
o Explain Something Curious

TOP FIVE FRAMEWORKS

FRAMEWORK TOPIC/S CLUE WORDS MAIN IDEA
Old vs. New science “recently” Implications of
“traditionally” the New
Problem vs. Solution law “difficulties” Solution
“recommendations”
Highlight Noteworthy humanities feels like a Evolution,
descriptive article Importance, or
Style
Challenge a Position society/law “commonly Signified by “but”,
thought” “yet”, and
“mistakenly “however”
assumed”
Present a Debate society/science “proponents” could be neutral,
“opponents” synthesis, or a
new opinion

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 Author’s Voice
 What is the opinion of the author?
 What is the main idea of the passage?
 Use of pivot words:
o but
o yet
o however
 Distinguish between big ideas vs. supporting details

*QUALIFYING A CLAIM: narrowing the scope of an argument (exceptions)

e.g.
o UNQUALIFIED CLAIM: “The last ‘Lord of the Rings’ movie was
amazing!’”
o QUALIFIED CLAIM: “Other than the ridiculously too-long ending, the
last ‘Lord of the Rings’ movie was amazing!”

Question Types
1. Main Point
 Common wrong answer choices are too narrow, too strong/weak,
out-of-scope, or directly conflicts with the given information
2. Recognition
 Eliminate what you can and look for keywords
3. Clarifying Meaning
 Understand a word or phrase in the context of the passage
4. Purpose of Reference
 Why did the author say that statement?
 Read around the reference and predict an answer choice
5. Organizing information
 Observe relationships between passages
 Read the first and last sentence of each paragraph

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 6. Inferences about views
 What is the opinion of the author?
 Be wary of the degree of strength in the answer choice
7. Inferences about information
 What does the statement suggest?
 Be wary of out-of-scope answer choices
8. Inferences about author’s attitude
 Charge each paragraph if the author’s attitude is + or -
9. Applying new contexts
 Understanding a word or phrase in the context of the passage
10. Primary Purpose
 Try to say it in your own words before reading the answer choices

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 PRACTICE TEST
LOGICAL REASONING
30 ITEMS | 35 MINUTES

1. As an experienced labor organizer and the former head of one of the nation’ s
most powerful labor unions, Grayson is an excellent choice to chair the new
council on business-labor relations.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?
A. The new council must have the support of the nation’s labor leaders if it is
to succeed.
B. The chair of the new council must be a person who can communicate
directly with the leaders of the nation’s largest labor unions.
C. An understanding of the needs and problems of labor is the only
qualification necessary for the job of chairing the new council.
D. Most of the other members of the new council will be representatives of
business management interests.

2. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

Monarch butterflies, whose average life span is nine months, migrate from the
Midwestern United States to selected forests outside Mexico City. It takes at least
three generations of monarchs to make the journey, so the great-great-
grandchildren who finally arrive in the Mexican forests have never been there
before. Yet they return to the same trees their forebears left. Scientists theorize
that monarchs, like homing pigeons, map their routes according to the Earth’s
electromagnetic fields. As a first step in testing this theory, lepidopterists plan to
install a low-voltage transmitter inside one grove of “butterfly trees” in the
Mexican forests. If the butterflies are either especially attracted to the grove with
the transmitter or especially repelled by it, lepidopterists will have evidence
that______
A. monarch butterflies have brains, however miniscule
B. monarch butterflies are sensitive to electricity
C. low-voltage electricity can affect butterflies, whether positively, or
adversely
D. monarch butterflies map their routes according to the earth’s magnetic
fields

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 3. In the years since the city of London imposed strict air-pollution regulations on
local industry, the number of bird species seen in and around London has
increased dramatically. Similar air-pollution rules should be imposed in other
major cities.

Each of the following is an assumption made in the argument above EXCEPT:

A. In most major cities, air-pollution problems are caused almost entirely by
local industry
B. Air-pollution regulations on industry have a significant impact on the
quality of the air.
C. The air-pollution problems of other major cities are basically similar to
those once suffered by London.
D. An increase in the number of bird species in and around a city is
desirable.

4. Below is an excerpt from a letter that was sent by the chairman of a corporation to the stockholders:
A number of charges have been raised against me, some serious, some trivial.
Individuals seeking to control the corporation for their own purposes have
demanded my resignation. Remember that no court of law in any state has
found me guilty of any criminal offense whatsoever. In the American tradition, as
you know, an individual is considered innocent until proven guilty. Furthermore,
as the corporation’ s unbroken six-year record of growth will show, my conduct
of my official duties as chairman has only helped enhance the success of the
corporation, and so benefited every stockholder .

Which of the following can be properly inferred from the excerpt?

A. The chairman believes that all those who have demanded his resignation
are motivated by desire to control the corporation for their own purposes.
B. Any misdeeds that the chairman may have committed were motivated
by his desire to enhance the success of the corporation.
C. The chairman is innocent of any criminal offense.
D. The corporation has expanded steadily over the past six years.

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 5. Linda: In the 1800s, it was found that one in every six women who gave birth in
hospitals died of a fever they had contracted after delivering the child and that
the mortality was not as high if they gave birth at home with the help of a mid-
wife. It was found that the doctors had a poorer sense of hygiene and that their
dirty hands and instruments were leading to pathogens entering a woman's
bloodstream. Thankfully, hygienic conditions today are much better and women
are safer.

Fiona: But doctors today are so overworked that a number of doctors, while
aware of the need for better hygiene, barely find the time to wash their hands.
The likelihood of infections caused by doctors is probably not any better.

Which of the following can be used by Fiona to further establish that Linda need
not be correct in her reasoning?
A. It is reported that around 50,000 people die every year in our country from
hospital acquired infections.
B. Compulsory hand cleansing is strictly adhered to by all doctors and nurses
before every major surgical procedure.
C. During a study, doctors handling newborn babies self-reported a hand
cleansing rate of 90%.
D. A nationwide survey found that doctors, especially experienced ones, are
more prone to the belief that they could not possibly be carrying
pathogens.

6. Filipinos are not corrupt and they are never indolent too.

Which of the following can be concluded?

A. Only Filipinos are not corrupt and indolent.
B. Filipinos are not corrupt if and only if they are indolent.
C. If Filipinos are corrupt, then they are indolent
D. Filipinos are not corrupt.

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 7. It’s time we stopped searching for new statistics to suggest that we are not
spending enough on education. In fact, education spending increased 30
percent overall during the last decade.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
A. Despite increased spending on education, enrollment in our elementary
and secondary schools declined about 4 percent during the last ten
years.
B. Our spending on gasoline increased more than 100 percent during the
last decade.
C. When adjusted for inflation, our per-pupil expenditure on education this
year is less than it was ten years ago.
D. Eleven other economically developed nations spend more on education
than we do.

8. In the effort to fire a Civil Service employee, his or her manager may have to
spend up to ₱500,000 of tax money. Since Civil Service employees know how
hard it is to fire them, they tend to loaf. This explains in large part why the
government is so inefficient.

It can be properly inferred on the basis of the statements above that the author
believes which one of the following?
I. Too much job security can have a negative influence on workers.
II. More government workers should be fired.
III. Most government workers are Civil Service employees.
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II only
D. I, II and III

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 9. Alan: In the last 15 years, most of the criminals who were convicted of theft or
murder were from the lower income classes and had not completed high school.
Therefore, the government has to spend more money on reducing poverty and
increase funding to education. Because terrorism is the most severe of all crimes,
such measures would bring down overall crime rate and reduce threat from
terrorism.

Dylan: A study that was conducted in a country known to produce a number of

terrorists showed that on average the terrorists were better educated than the
overall population and that they did not necessarily come from lower income
classes. This is probably because crimes such as theft are committed for personal
gain while terrorism is for political or religious gain.

Which of the following best describes Dylan's response to Alan?

A. Dylan changes the direction of the argument entirely by discussing the
scenario in a different country.
B. Dylan partially agrees with Alan’s reasoning but refutes his
recommendation to the government.
C. Dylan converts a casual argument made by Alan into a generalization
applicable universally.
D. Dylan challenges Alan’s reasoning by explaining why two situations that
Alan perceives as similar are not.

10. A survey conducted recently in the city indicated that most college welfare-aid
applicants understate the number of luxury items - such as cars and TVs – that
their family owned, in an effort to maximize the amount of aid they can claim
from the city. Paradoxically, the same study also found that many applicants
claimed that they had running water and a gas connection even when they did
not.

Which of the following best explains the apparent paradox?

A. The city does not pay welfare unless the applicants have at least some
things working for them.
B. While the applicants may be willing to accept that they don’t have
certain things, they felt embarrassed having to accept that they don’t
have most things.
C. Historically, at least 30% of the claims have had people understating what
they have while only 22% overstated what they had.
D. Claiming that they do not have a car or a TV ensures that the city looks at
the applicant more favorably.

32
 11. In 1986, the city of Los Diablos had 20 days on which air pollution reached
unhealthful amounts and a smog alert was put into effect. In early 1987, new air
pollution control measures were enacted, but the city had smog alerts on 31
days that year and on 39 days the following year. In 1989, however, the number
of smog alerts in Los Diablos dropped to sixteen. The main air pollutants in Los
Diablos are ozone and carbon monoxide, and since 1986 the levels of both have
been monitored by gas spectrography.

Which of the following statements, assuming that each is true, would be LEAST
helpful in explaining the air pollution levels in Los Diablos between 1986 and
1989?
A. The 1987 air pollution control measures enacted in Los Diablos were put
into effect in November of 1988.
B. In December of 1988, a new and far more accurate gas spectrometer
was invented.
C. In February of 1989, the Pollution Control Board of Los Diablos revised the
scale used to determine the amount of air pollution considered
unhealthful.
D. Excess ozone and carbon monoxide require a minimum of two years to
break down naturally in the atmosphere above a given area.

12. In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major
experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there
are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art
movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the
twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither
the critic nor the general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them:
indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed
goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these
artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no
longer art.

Which one of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the

conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?
A. Beauty is a defining quality of art.
B. Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does
the general public.
C. The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist
who created it.
D. All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses
to the movements of the first half of the century.

33
 13. In order to combat Carville’s rampant homeless problem, Mayor Bloomfield
recently proposed a ban on sleeping outdoors in the city’s many parks. He
claims that such a measure will force the homeless to either leave Carville or to
find means other than sleeping in public parks.

Which one of the following, if true, suggests that Mayor Bloomfield’s plan will be
successful?
A. Many homeless tend to congregate underneath Carville’s numerous
overpasses.
B. Adjacent cities have even tougher measures on the homeless sleeping
outdoors
C. Until the ban, the city’s many homeless shelters were at less than fifty
percent occupancy.
D. Mayor Jonesmith, Mayor Bloomfield’s predecessor, had been far more
tolerant towards the city’s homeless population.

14. Extract from lease: The tenant should record all preexisting damage on the
preexisting damage list, because the tenant need not pay for preexisting
damage recorded there. The tenant must pay for damage that was not
recorded on the preexisting damage list, except for any damage caused by a
circumstance beyond the tenant’s control.

In which one of the following instances does the extract from the lease most
strongly support the view that the tenant is not required to pay for the damage?
A. a hole in the wall that was not recorded on the preexisting damage list
and that was a result of an even within the tenant’s control
B. a crack in a window caused by a factor beyond the tenant’s control and
not recorded on the preexisting damage list
C. a tear in the linoleum that was not preexisting but that was caused by one
of the tenant’s children
D. paint splatters on the carpet that should have been recorded on the
preexisting damage list but were not

34
 15. A strong correlation exists between what people value and the way they act. For
example, those who value wealth tend to choose higher-paying jobs in
undesirable locations over lower-paying jobs in desirable locations. Thus, knowing
what people value can help one predict their actions.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion of the
argument?
A. What people value can be a reliable indicator of how they will act.
B. Knowing how people behave allows one to infer what they value.
C. People’s claims concerning what they value are symptomatic of their
actions.
D. People who value wealth tend to allow their desire for it to outweigh other
concerns.

16. Classical Roman architecture is beautiful, primarily because of its use of rounded
arches and its symmetry. Postmodern architecture is dramatic, primarily because
of its creative use both of materials and of the surrounding environment. An
architectural style that combines elements of both classical Roman and
postmodern architecture would therefore be both beautiful and dramatic.

The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that it _____

A. presumes, without providing justification, that for an architectural style to
have certain qualities, its components must have those qualities
B. fails to justify its presumption that because postmodern architecture is
dramatic, that is its most salient feature
C. neglects to specify how the drama of an architectural style contributes to
its beauty
D. neglects to consider that an architectural style combining elements of
two other architectural styles may lack certain qualities of one or both of
those styles

17. No investment bankers are risk-takers. Some risk-takers are business owners.

Which of the following can be concluded?

A. Some business owners are not investment bankers
B. All business owners are risk-takers
C. All investment bankers are business owners
D. No investment bankers are business owners

35
 18. Climate change is one of the biggest problems facing the world today. Many
human activities contribute to recurrent, oftentimes severe changes in the
climates of various countries. If drastic climate changes continue, then heavy
floods and severe droughts will be frequently experienced. If heavy floods and
severe droughts are frequently experienced, then people’s daily lives will be
seriously disrupted.

Which of the following can be concluded?

A. If heavy floods and severe droughts are frequently experienced, then
drastic climate changes will continue. If drastic climate changes continue,
then people’s daily lives will be seriously disrupted.
B. If drastic climate changes do not continue, then heavy floods and severe
droughts will not be frequently experienced. If heavy floods and severe
droughts are not frequently experienced, then people’s daily lives will not
be seriously disrupted.
C. If drastic climate changes continue, then people’s daily lives will be
seriously disrupted.
D. If people’s daily lives are seriously disrupted, then heavy floods and severe
droughts will be frequently experienced. If heavy floods and severe
droughts are frequently experienced, then drastic climate changes will
continue.

19. Industrial and automobile pollution have long been thought to contribute to
global warming. However, researchers have identified that the carbon dioxide
and carbon monoxide released into the atmosphere are not as potent as the
methane emitted by cud-chewing animals such as cows when they fart or
belch. Therefore, if you drive a hybrid electric car to the grocery, any favor that
you would do to the environment would be offset if you end up buying beef.

Which of the following best describes the author’s reasoning?

A. The author establishes a point by drawing an analogy.
B. The author uses an illustration to support a new school of thought that is
contrary to a popular school of thought
C. The author disproves a popular notion by providing evidence that is
contrary to it.
D. The author presents a new theory in response to an existing well-
established theory.

36
 20. There are several scientific studies and research findings that are constantly
discussed and publicized in the news media. Some of these are contrary to other
research studies that are published. This conflict in information makes people
believe that either science is inaccurate or that they can ‘choose’ which
scientific result they want to believe in. However, neither of these beliefs is
accurate. Science is not inaccurate or subjective. Most of the time, scientific
studies show inconsistent results either because of inaccuracies in methodology
adopted or because of misrepresentation of actual results by the news media.
For example, a recent study done on just 15 women showed that eating
chocolate was not necessarily harmful during pregnancy and the media
reported that chocolate was actually beneficial to the fetus.

Which of the following best further corroborate the author’s argument?

A. A study result that shows that the effect of automobile pollution on global
warming is marginal.
B. A new study that further collaborates an earlier finding that the
consumption of some types of berries lower the risk of heart failure.
C. The news media highlighting the fact that a study had clearly proven that
effects of certain drugs on rats need not be the same as on humans.
D. An unverified study gaining popularity because it seemingly showed that
red wine reduces the risk of cancer on a very small control group.

21. If and only if you present your permit, will you be allowed to take the test.

Which of the following can be concluded?

A. If you do not present your permit, you will not be allowed to take the test.
B. You present your permit or you do not present your permit.
C. You can present your permit and be allowed to take the test or you do
not present your permit and not be allowed take the test.
D. Either your present your permit or you will be allowed to take the test.

22. If it’s a sci-fi movie, then it is not boring.

Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?

A. Some boring movies are sci-fi movies
B. Not all sci-fi movies are boring
C. All sci-fi movies are not boring
D. Only sci-fi movies are not boring

37
 23. It seems that medical care is constantly improving and is far better today than it
was a few years ago. New medicines are being developed, and at a lower cost.
Technological advancements are being made and new treatments are devised.
However, hospital care has not improved as much as expected. Most hospitals
do not have a large enough ER that can handle a sudden influx of patients and
the number of people who die in a hospital due to reasons other than what they
got admitted for is staggeringly high.

All of the following underscore the author’s argument EXCEPT:

A. In smaller cities, the ambulance service is on a voluntary basis and the
response time for calls is much lower than the national average, leading
to a higher loss of life.
B. Most hospitals require doctors to do so much paperwork that they spend
insufficient time on direct patient care.
C. A number of doctors in private hospitals are not held accountable by the
administration for the loss of patients.
D. Doctors in most private hospitals have performance appraisals based on
how much money they have brought in for the hospital rather than based
on how effectively they treated patients.

24. Current farm policy is institutionalized penalization of consumers. It increases food

prices for middle- and low-income families and costs the taxpayer billions of
pesos a year.

Which of the following statements, if true, would provide support for the author’s
claims above?
I. Farm subsidies amount to roughly ₱20 billion a year in payouts and ₱12
billion more in higher food prices.
II. According to a study by the Department of Agriculture, each ₱50 of
benefits provided to farmers for ethanol production costs consumers and
taxpayers ₱200.
III. The average full-time farmers have an average net worth of over
₱800,000.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

38
 25. Lorenzo will either choose to marry Grace or he will choose to become a priest.

Which of the following can be concluded?

A. If Lorenzo does not become a priest, he will not marry Grace.
B. If Lorenzo does not marry Grace, then he will become a priest.
C. If Lorenzo marries Grace, he will marry Grace or become a priest.
D. Lorenzo will become a priest.

26. Anderson maintains that travel writing has diminished in quality over the last few
decades. Although travel writing has changed in this time, Anderson is too harsh
on contemporary travel writers. Today, when the general public is better
traveled than in the past, travel writers face a challenge far greater than that of
their predecessors: they must not only show their readers a place but also make
them see it anew. That the genre has not only survived but also flourished shows
the talent of today’s practitioners.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the
argument by the statement that the general public is better traveled today than
in the past?
A. It is part of a purported explanation of why readers are disappointed with
today’s travel writers.
B. It is claimed to be a result of good travel writing.
C. It is cited as a condition that has transformed the task of the travel writer.
D. It is cited as a reason that travel writing flourishes more today than it has in
the past.

39
 27. Warm air tends to be humid, and as humidity of air increases, the amount of
rainfall also increases. So, the fact that rainfall totals for most continents have
been increasing over the past five years is strong evidence that the air
temperature is increasing as well.

Which one of the following has a flawed pattern of reasoning most similar to the
flawed pattern of reasoning in the argument above?
A. Food that is fresh tends to be nutritious, and the more nutritious one’s diet,
the healthier one is. People today are generally healthier than people
were a century ago. So it is likely that people today eat food that is fresher
than the food people ate a century ago.
B. Your refusal to make public your personal finances indicates some sort of
impropriety on your part, for people who do not reveal their personal
finances generally are hiding some sort of financial impropriety.
C. People tend not to want to travel on mass transit when they are carrying
bags and packages, and the more bags and packages one carries, the
more awkward travel on mass transit becomes. Therefore, people who
carry bags and packages tend to use automobiles rather than mass
transit.
D. People tend to watch only those television programs that they enjoy and
appreciate. Since there are more television viewers today than there
were ten years ago, it must be the case that viewers today are satisfied
with at least some of the programs shown on television.

28. Columnist: It is sometimes claimed that the only factors relevant to determining
moral guilt or innocence are the intentions of the person performing an action.
However, external circumstances often play a crucial role in our moral judgment
of an action. For example, a cook at a restaurant who absentmindedly put an
ingredient in the stew that is not usually in the stew would ordinarily be regarded
as forgetful, not immoral. If, however, someone eating at the restaurant happens
to be severely allergic to that ingredient, eats the stew, and dies, many people
would judge the cook to be guilty of serious moral negligence.

Which of the following principles is best illustrated by the columnist’s statements?

A. It is sometimes fair to judge the morality of other’s actions even without
considering all of the circumstances under which those actions were
performed.
B. We sometimes judge unfairly the morality of other people’s actions.
C. The intentions of the person performing an action are rarely a decisive
factor in making moral judgments about that action.
D. People are sometimes held morally blameworthy as a result of
circumstances some of which were outside their intentional control.

40
 29. Megalimpet is a nationwide owner of office space. They have major office
buildings in the downtowns of several cities in the 48 lower states, and rent this
space to individual companies. Megalimpet office spaces vary from small office
to large suites, and every space has custom-designed wall-to-wall carpeting.
The carpet in several Megalimpet facilities needed replacing. The winning bid
for the nationwide carpet replacement was submitted by Bathyderm Carpet
Company (BCC). The bid contract involves all delivery costs, all installation, and
any ongoing maintenance and upkeep while the carpet is under the three-year
warranty. Both BCC executives and independent consultants they hired felt BCC
would be able to perform all these services for far less than their bid price; these
circumstances would allow BCC to reap a considerable profit.

Which of the following, if true, most calls in question the argument that BCC will
make a large profit from this contract with Megalimpet?
A. All the carpets will have to be transported by train from BCC factory in
Louisville, KY, to Megalimpet’s locations from coast to coast.
B. BCC has already supplied carpets to a number of restaurant chains, and
some of those spaces are as large as Megalimpet’s largest office spaces.
C. The material in BCC carpets degrades rapidly when it comes into contact
with standard toner, found in most laser printers and photocopiers; the
degraded sections are unsightly and smell bad, so they often need to be
replaced.
D. The carpet installation teams will have to cut different sizes of the carpets
for the different size office suites in the Megalimpet buildings.

30. The committee on sexual discrimination in the workplace has highlighted

Supremo Company as a chief offender. Of the twenty senior executives in the
firm, only one is a woman. And of the forty junior executives, only five are female.

Supremo could best defend itself against the charges by showing that _____
A. male and female executives at the same level have the same
qualifications
B. all job applicants who were rejected had fewer qualifications that those
accepted
C. ten times more men than women apply for jobs with the company
D. they pay the same salary to senior men and senior women

---------------------- E N D ----------------------

41
 PRACTICE TEST
READING COMPREHENSION
25 ITEMS | 35 MINUTES

The use of computer-generated visual displays in courtrooms is growing as

awareness of their ability to recreate crime scenes spreads. Displays currently in use
range from still pictures in series that mimic simple movement to sophisticated
simulations based on complex applications of rules of physics and mathematics. By
making it possible to slow or stop action, to vary visual perspectives according to
witnesses’ vantage points, or to highlight or enlarge images, computer displays provide
litigators with tremendous explanatory advantages. Soon, litigators may even have
available graphic systems capable of simulating three dimensions, thus creating the
illusion that viewers are at the scene of a crime or accident, directly experiencing its
occurrence. The advantages of computer-generated displays derive from the greater
psychological impact they have on juries as compared to purely verbal presentations;
studies show that people generally retain about 85 percent of visual information but
only 10 percent of aural information. This is especially valuable in complex or technical
trials, where juror interest and comprehension are generally low. In addition, computers
also allow litigators to integrate graphic aids seamlessly into their presentations.
Despite these benefits, however, some critics are urging caution in the use of
these displays, pointing to a concomitant potential for abuse or unintentional misuse,
such as the unfair manipulation of a juror’s impression of an event. These critics argue
further that the persuasive and richly communicative nature of the displays can
mesmerize jurors and cause them to relax their normal critical faculties. This potential for
distortion is compounded when one side in a trial does not use the technology –often
because of the considerable expense involved—leaving the jury susceptible to
prejudice in favor of the side employing computer displays. And aside from the risk of
intentional manipulation of images or deceitful use of capacities such as stop-action
and highlight, there is also the possibility that computer displays can be inherently
misleading. As an amalgamation of data collection, judgment, and speculation, the
displays may in some instances constitute evidence unsuitable for use in a trial
To avoid misuse of this technology in the courtroom, practical steps must be
taken. First, counsel must be alert to the ever-present danger of its misuse; diligent
analyses of the date that form the bases for computer displays should be routinely
performed and disclosed. Judges, who have the discretion to disallow displays that
might unfairly prejudice one side, must also be vigilant in assessing the displays they do
allow. Similarly, judges should forewarn jurors of the potentially biased nature of
computer-generated evidence. Finally, steps should be taken to ensure that if one side
utilizes computer technology, the opposing side will also have access to it. Granting
financial aid in these circumstances would help create a more equitable legal arena in
this respect.

42
 1. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the
passage?
A. Those involved in court trials that take advantage of computer-generated
displays as evidence need to take steps to prevent the misuse of this
evidence.
B. The use of computer-generated displays has grown dramatically in recent
years because computer aids allow litigators to convey complex
information clearly.
C. The persuasive nature of computer-generated displays requires that the
rules governing the use of these displays be based on the most
sophisticated principles of jurisprudence.
D. Any disadvantages of computer-generated visual displays can be
eliminated by enacting a number of practical procedures to avoid their
intentional misuse.

2. Which one of the following most accurately describes the organization of the
passage?
A. The popularity of a new technology is lamented; criticisms of the
technology are voiced; corrective actions to stem its use are
recommended.
B. A new technology is endorsed; specific examples of its advantages are
offered; ways to take further advantage of the technology are presented.
C. A new technology is described in detail; arguments for and against its use
are voiced; recommendations for promoting the widespread use of the
technology are advanced.
D. A new technology is introduced as useful; potential problems associated
with its use are identified; recommendations for preventing these
problems are offered.

3. As described in the passage, re-creating an accident with a computer-

generated display is most similar to which of the following?
A. using several of a crime suspect’s statements together to suggest that the
suspect had a motive
B. using detailed geological evidence to design a museum exhibit depicting
a recent volcanic eruption
C. using an author’s original manuscript to correct printing errors in the
current edition of her novel
D. using a video camera to gather opinions of passersby for use in a
candidate’s political campaign advertisements.

43
 4. Based on the passage, with which one of the following statements regarding the
use of computer displays in courtroom proceedings, would the author be most
likely to agree?
A. The courts should suspend the use of stop-action and highlighting
techniques until an adequate financial aid program has been
established.
B. Computer-generated evidence should be scrutinized to ensure that it
does not rely on excessive speculation in depicting the details of an
event.
C. Actual static photographs of a crime scene are generally more effective
as displays than are computer displays.
D. Verbal accounts by eyewitnesses to crimes should play a more vital role in
the presentation of evidence than should computer displays.

5. The author states which one of the following about computer displays used in
trial proceedings?
A. Despite appearances, computer displays offer few practical advantages
over conventional forms of evidence.
B. Most critics of computer-generated evidence argue for banning such
evidence in legal proceedings.
C. Judges should forewarn jurors of the potentially biased nature of
computer-generated displays.
D. Litigators who utilize computer-generated displays must ensure that the
opposing side has equal access to such technology.

6. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of using computer

displays in courtroom proceedings EXCEPT:
A. They prevent litigators from engaging in certain kinds of unjustified
speculation.
B. They enable litigators to slow and stop action.
C. They can aid jurors in understanding complex or technical information.
D. They allow litigators to integrate visual materials smoothly into their
presentations.

44
 Passage A
Leaders and managers of nonprofits face a variety of challenges. One of the
most important is to keep the mission in mind in all decision making. Nonprofits must
operate to fulfill their mission and are limited in their engagement in activities far afield
from it. In addition they must keep in mind that the real owner of a nonprofit is the
public.
It is the public to whom they are ultimately accountable.
There are no designated shareholders or owners to please. Nonprofits are subject
to the claims, and possible control, of many stakeholders, including donors, clients,
board members, staff, volunteers, government at all levels, and community members.
The expectations of these stakeholders can vary widely and leaders must balance
competing demands.
Lester Salamon and others describe a number of additional challenges. Many
nonprofits face fiscal difficulties, some starting with government cutbacks in the 1980s in
areas where nonprofits were active. Government assistance has become more
targeted and tied to stricter requirements. Not all nonprofits experiencing losses in
government funding have been able to offset those losses with growth in private giving
or earned income.
There is growing competition as more for-profits move into areas traditionally
served by nonprofits, such as health care, higher education, and employment training.
The rise of B corporations, which are required to make decisions good for society, not
just their shareholders, adds to the continuing erosion of sector boundaries.
In addition nonprofits are under pressure from funders who are demanding more
evidence that the nonprofits they fund are making a measurable positive impact, with
some funders seeing themselves as investors with rights to influence strategic decisions.

Passage B
Nonprofits are not immune from damage that can be caused by unscrupulous
and fraudulent solicitors, financial improprieties, and executives and board members
who care more about their own financial welfare than the mission of the organization.
Problems, when they do arise, are particularly disturbing because of the nature
of nonprofits themselves — organizations created to provide some public benefit. Most
people are familiar with the mechanisms that safeguard the integrity of government
and business.

45
 Disenchanted voters can throw politicians out of office, and the branches of
government view each other with watchful eyes. Businesses have shareholders or
owners and are monitored by government agencies such as the Securities and
Exchange Commission and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The
media monitor both sectors and are quick to point out cases of corruption and poor
performance.
Far fewer people understand how nonprofits are monitored and regulated. For
much of its history, the nonprofit sector has operated outside the realm of harsh public
scrutiny. No government agency exists exclusively to monitor the activities of nonprofits,
most nonprofits aren’t required to hold public meetings, and few journalists report on
nonprofits with the same depth and focus devoted to business and government.
Nevertheless, nonprofits have many lines of defense against fraud and corruption.
For example, all nonprofits are governed by a board of directors or trustees (there’s no
real difference) — a group of volunteers that is legally responsible for making sure the
organization remains true to its mission, safeguards its assets, and operates in the public
interest. The board is the first line of defense against fraud and abuse.

7. The authors of the two passages share a concern that _____

A. for-profit business are moving in on areas traditionally served by nonprofit
organizations
B. no government or regulatory agency exists with the sole purpose of
monitoring the activities of nonprofit organizations
C. investors desire to see measurable results from the money they commit to
nonprofit organizations
D. nonprofits may face difficulties staying true to their overall mission

8. Which of the following titles would most appropriately fit both passages?
A. Managing the Nonprofit Sector: An overview
B. The Funding Crisis within the Nonprofit Sector
C. Balancing the Mission of a Nonprofit with the Mission of Funders
D. A Brief History of the Nonprofit Sector

9. Which of the following claims about nonprofit management is NOT made by the
author of Passage B?
A. There are very few individuals who are familiar with the controls that
govern nonprofits.
B. There is no legitimate distinction between a director who sits on a
nonprofit board and a trustee.
C. Nonprofits lack a strong defense against corruption and fraud.
D. Nonprofits are not governed by a major regulating body or bodies as
most businesses are.

46
 10. Which of the following provides a statement with which the authors of both
passages would agree?
A. Nonprofits are dealing with an influx of for-profit agencies occupying roles
once traditionally served by the nonprofit sector.
B. Many nonprofits that have experienced a loss of government funding
have been unable to offset those losses with earned income or private
donations.
C. Fiscal difficulties for many nonprofits stem from a period of heavy
government cutbacks that took place in the 1980s.
D. The public should hold managers, leaders, and boards of nonprofit
organizations liable for their decisions.

While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely government-controlled

economy into a free one, the experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly
shows one approach that works: privatization, in which state-owned industries are sold
to private companies. By 1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned industries
were running at about £3 billion a year. By selling many of these industries, the
government has decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over £34 billion from
the sales, and now receives tax revenues from the newly privatized companies. Along
with a dramatically improved overall economy, the government has been able to
repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a two-year period.

In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual industries and a whole
economy headed for disaster, but also raised the level of performance in every area.
At British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity per employee has risen by 20
percent. At Associated British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970’s and early
1980’s have now virtually disappeared. At British Telecom, there is no longer a waiting
list—as there always was before privatization—to have a telephone installed.

Part of this improved productivity has come about because the employees of
privatized industries were given the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies.
They responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares: at British Aerospace, 89 percent
of the eligible workforce bought shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at
British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal stake in something, they
think about it, care about it, work to make it prosper. At the National Freight
Consortium, the new employee-owners grew so concerned about their company’s
profits that during wage negotiations they actually pressed their union to lower its wage
demands.
Some economists have suggested that giving away free shares would provide a
needed acceleration of the privatization process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine’s point
that “what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly.” In order for the far- ranging
benefits of individual ownership to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries,
employees and other individuals must make their own decisions to buy, and they must
commit some of their own resources to the choice.

47
 11. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers labor disruptions to
be _____
A. an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
B. a positive sign of employee concern about a company
C. a predictor of employee reactions of a company’s offer to sell shares to
them
D. a deterrence to high performance levels in an industry

12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the privatization
process in the United Kingdom?
A. It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on individual ownership of
shares.
B. It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas Paine’s prescription for
business ownership.
C. It is taking place more slowly than some economists suggest is necessary.
D. It was originally conceived to include some giving away of free shares.

Surviving sources of information about women doctors in ancient Greece and Rome
are fragmentary; some passing mentions by classical authors, scattered references in
medical works, and about 40 inscriptions on tombs and monuments. Yet even from
these fragments, we can piece together a picture. The evidence shows that in ancient
Greece and Rome, there were, in fact, female medical personnel who were the
ancient equivalent of what we now call medical doctors. So the history of women in
medicine by no means begins in 1849 with Dr. Elizabeth Blackwell, the first woman to
earn an M.D. in modern times, or even in 1321 with Francesca de Romana’s licensure to
practice general medicine, the earliest known officially recorded occurrence of this
sort.
The very nature of the scant evidence tells us something. There is no list of
women doctors in antiquity, no direct comment on the fact that there were such
people. Instead, the scattering of references to them indicates that, although their
numbers were probably small, women doctors were an unremarkable part of ancient
life. For example, in The Republic (21 B.C.), the earliest known source attesting to the
existence of women doctors in Greece, Plato argues that, for the good of the state,
jobs should be assigned to people on the basis of natural aptitude, regardless of
gender. To support his argument, he offers the example that some women, as well as
some men, are skilled in medicine, while others are not. Here, Plato is not trying to
convince people that there ought to be women doctors. Rather, he is arguing for an
ideal distribution of roles within the state by pointing to something that everyone could
already see—that there were female doctors as well as male.

48
 Moreover, despite evidence that some of these women doctors treated mainly
female patients, their practice was clearly not limited to midwifery. Both Greek and
Latin have distinct terms for midwife and doctor, and important texts and inscriptions
refer to female practitioners as the latter. Other references provide evidence of a
broad scope of practice for women doctors. The epitaph for one named Domnina
reads: “You delivered your homeland from disease.” A tribute to another describes her
as “savior of all through her knowledge of medicine.”
Also pointing to a wider medical practice are the references in various classical
medical works to a great number of women’s writings on medical subjects. Here, too,
the very nature of the evidence tells us something, for Galen, Pliny the elder, and other
ancient writers of encyclopedic medical works quote the opinions and prescriptions of
male and female doctors indiscriminately, moving from one to the other and back
again. As with the male doctors they cite, these works usually simply give excerpts from
the female authority’s writing without biographical information or special comment.

13. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the
passage?
A. There is a range of textual evidence indicating that the existence and
professional activity of women doctors were an accepted part of
everyday life in ancient Greece and Rome.
B. Some scholars in ancient Greece and Rome made little distinction in their
writings between learned women and learned men, as can especially be
seen in those scholar’s references to medical experts and practitioners.
C. Although surviving ancient Greek and Roman texts about women doctors
contain little biographical or technical data, important inferences can be
drawn from the very fact that those texts pointedly comment on the
existence of such doctors.
D. Ancient texts indicate that various women doctors in Greece and Rome
were not only practitioners but also researchers who contributed
substantially to the development of medical science.

14. Which of the following does the author mention in the passage?
A. a specialized field of medicine that was not practiced by women in
ancient Greece and Rome
B. a scholar who has argued that Francesca de Romana was the first female
doctor in any Western society
C. the extent to which medical doctors in ancient Greece and Rome were
trained and educated
D. ancient writers whose works refer explicitly to the writings of women

49
 15. The primary function of the third paragraph of the passage is to _____
A. provide additional support for the argument presented in the first
paragraph
B. suggest that the implications of the argument presented in the first
paragraph are unnecessarily broad
C. acknowledge some exceptions to a conclusion defended in the second
paragraph
D. emphasize the historical importance of the arguments presented in the
first two paragraphs

16. Which one of the following could most logically be appended to the end of the
final paragraph?
A. So it is only by combining the previously mentioned fragments of ancient
writings that historians have been able to construct a fairly complete
account of some of these women’s lives.
B. That there were women doctors apparently seemed unremarkable to
these writers who cited their works, just as it did to Plato.
C. Although the content of each of these excerpts is of limited informative
value, the very range of topics that they cover suggests that Plato’s claims
about women doctors should be reevaluated.
D. These texts indicate that during a certain period of ancient Greek and
Roman history, there were female medical scholars, but it is unclear
whether at that time there were also female medical practitioners.

17. Which one of the following most accurately describes the author’s attitude
toward the sources of information mentioned in the first sentence?
A. wary that they might be misinterpreted due to their fragmentary nature
B. optimistic that with a more complete analysis they will yield answers to
some crucial lingering questions
C. hopeful that they will come to be accepted generally by historians as
authentic documents
D. confident that they are accurate enough to allow for reliable factual
inferences

18. The tribute quoted in the second paragraph is offered primarily as evidence that
at least some women doctors in ancient times were _____
A. acknowledged as authorities by other doctors
B. highly educated
C. very effective in treating illness
D. engaged in general medical practice

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 19. The passage most strongly supports which one of the following inferences about
women in ancient Greece and Rome?
A. Those who became doctors usually practiced medicine for only a short
time.
B. Those who were not doctors were typically expected to practice
medicine informally within their own families.
C. There is no known official record that any of them were licensed to
practice general medicine.
D. There is no reliable evidence that any of them who practiced general
medicine also worked as a midwife.

Until recently, biologists were unable to explain the fact that pathogens—disease-
causing parasites—have evolved to incapacitate, and often overwhelm, their hosts.
Such behavior is at odds with the prevailing view of host-parasite relations—that, in
general, host and parasite ultimately develop a benign coexistence. This view is based
on the idea that parasites that do not harm their hosts have the best chance for long-
term survival: they thrive because their hosts thrive. Some biologists, however, recently
have suggested that if a pathogen reproduced so extensively as to cause its host to
become gravely sick, it could still achieve evolutionary success if its replication led to a
level of transmission into new hosts that exceeded the loss of pathogens resulting from
the host’s incapacitation. This scenario suggests that even death-causing pathogens
can achieve evolutionary success.

One implication of this perspective is that a pathogen’s virulence—its capacity to

overcome a host’s defenses and incapacitate it—is a function of its mode of
transmission. For example, rhinoviruses, which cause the common cold, require physical
proximity for transmission to occur. If a rhinovirus reproduces so extensively in a solitary
host that the host is too unwell to leave home for a day, the thousands of new
rhinoviruses produced that day will die before they can be transmitted. So, because it is
transmitted directly, the common cold is unlikely to disable its victims.

The opposite can occur when pathogens are transported by a vector—an organism
that can carry and transmit an infectious agent. If, for example, a pathogen capable
of being transported by a mosquito reproduces so extensively that its human host is
immobilized, it can still pass along its genes if a mosquito bites the host and transmits this
dose to the next human it bites. In such circumstances, the virulence is likely to be more
severe, because the pathogen has reproduced to such concentration in the host that
the mosquito obtains a high dose of the pathogen, increasing the level of transmission
to new hosts.

51
 While medical literature generally supports the hypothesis that vector-borne
pathogens tend to be more virulent than directly transmitted pathogens—witness the
lethal nature of malaria, yellow fever, typhus, and sleeping sickness, all carried by biting
insects—a few directly transmitted pathogens such as diphtheria and tuberculosis
bacteria can be just as lethal. Scientists call these “sit and wait” pathogens, because
they are able to remain alive outside their hosts until a new host comes along, without
relying on a vector. Indeed, the endurance of these pathogens, many of which can
survive externally for weeks or months before transmission into a new host—compared,
for instance, to an average rhinovirus life span of hours—makes them among the most
dangerous of all pathogens.

20. Which one of the following most accurately summarizes the main idea of the
passage?
A. A new hypothesis about the host-incapacitating behavior of some
pathogens suggests that directly transmitted pathogens are just as virulent
as vector-borne pathogens, due to the former’s ability to survive outside a
host for long periods of time.
B. A new hypothesis about the host-incapacitating behavior of some
pathogens suggests that pathogen virulence is generally a function of
their mode of transmission, with vector-borne pathogens usually more
virulent than directly transmitted pathogens, except for those directly
transmitted pathogens able to endure outside their hosts.
C. A new hypothesis about the host-incapacitating behavior of some
pathogens suggests that, while most pathogens reproduce so extensively
as to cause their hosts to become gravely sick or even to die, some
eventually develop a benign coexistence with their hosts.
D. A new hypothesis about the host-incapacitating behavior of some
pathogens suggests that they are generally able to achieve reproductive
success unless their reproduction causes the death of the host.

21. According to the passage, the prevailing view of the host-parasite relationship is
that, in general, _____
A. the host is ultimately harmed enough to prevent the parasite from thriving
B. a thriving parasite will eventually incapacitate its host
C. the parasite eventually thrives with no harm to its host
D. ultimately, the host thrives only if the parasite thrives

52
 22. With which one of the following statements about the prevailing view of host-
parasite relations would the biologists mentioned in the first paragraph
(underlined) be most likely to agree?
A. The view contradicts most evidence of actual host-parasite relations.
B. The view suggests that even death-causing pathogens can achieve
evolutionary success.
C. The view presumes the existence of a type of parasite behavior that does
not exist.
D. The view ignores the possibility that there is more than one way to achieve
evolutionary success.

23. The examples of diphtheria and tuberculosis bacteria provide the most support
for which one of the following conclusions about the dangerousness of
pathogens?
A. The most dangerous pathogens are those with the shortest life spans
outside a host.
B. Those pathogens with the greatest endurance outside a host are among
the most dangerous.
C. Those pathogens transported by vectors are always the most dangerous.
D. The least dangerous pathogens are among those with the longest life
spans outside a host.

24. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously challenge the positon of
the biologists mentioned in the first paragraph (underlined)?
A. Most pathogens transmitted from incapacitated hosts are unable to
reproduce in their new hosts.
B. Most pathogens capable of causing their hosts’ deaths are able to
achieve reproductive success.
C. Most pathogens transmitted from incapacitated hosts into new hosts are
unable to overwhelm the new hosts.
D. Most pathogens that do not incapacitate their hosts are unable to
achieve reproductive success.

25. The primary purpose of the passage is to _____

A. compare examples challenging the prevailing view of host-parasite
relations with examples supporting it
B. argue that the prevailing view of host-parasite relations is correct but is
based on a mistaken rationale
C. offer a modification to the prevailing view of host-parasite relations
D. examine the origins of the prevailing view of host-parasite relations

---------------------- E N D ----------------------

53
 ANSWER KEY
LOGICAL REASONING
1. C 6. D 11. B 16. D 21. C 26. C
2. B 7. C 12. A 17. A 22. C 27. A
3. A 8. A 13. C 18. C 23. A 28. D
4. D 9. D 14. B 19. B 24. D 29. C
5. D 10. B 15. A 20. D 25. B 30. B

READING COMPREHENSION
1. A 6. A 11. B 16. B 21. C
2. D 7. D 12. C 17. D 22. D
3. B 8. A 13. A 18. D 23. B
4. B 9. C 14. D 19. C 24. A
5. C 10. D 15. A 20. B 25. C

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