CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Number: sy0-601
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: v223f

Exam SY0-601
v223f

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Exam A

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION -
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues
browsing websites.

INSTRUCTIONS - Firewall rules have already been set on the firewall, but you need to make changes
according to the requirements below

Click on each firewall to do the following:

1. Deny cleartext web traffic.
2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
A. Correct Answer: See explanation below.
Firewall 1:
DNS Rule - ANY --> ANY --> DNS --> PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound 10.0.0.1/24 "€ ? --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
Management - ANY --> ANY --> SSH --> PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
HTTP Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTP --> DENY
Firewall 2: No changes should be made to this firewall
Firewall 3:
DNS Rule - ANY --> ANY --> DNS --> PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound 192.168.0.1/24 "€ ? --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
Management - ANY --> ANY --> SSH --> PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
HTTP Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTP --> DENY

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT -
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with
its remediation.

INSTRUCTIONS -

Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Hot Area:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
A.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
*Keylogger - Implement 2FA using push Notifications

*Backdoor - Conduct a Code Review

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT -

The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default.

INSTRUCTIONS - Firewall rules have already been set on the firewall, but you need to make changes
according to the requirements below

Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication:

The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default
HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

 The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default
SCP port.
The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default
TFTP port.

The firewall will process rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match. The port number must be typed in
and only one port number can be
entered per rule.

Type ANY for all ports.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Hot Area:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f
A.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP -
A security engineer is setting up passwordless authentication for the first time.

INSTRUCTIONS -
Use the minimum set of commands to set this up and verify that it works. Commands cannot be reused.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The task requires only the minimum set of commands.
1. ssh-keygen -t rsa (creating the key-pair)
2. ssh-copy-id -i /.ssh/id_rsa.pub user@server (copy the public-key to user@server)
3. ssh -i ~/.ssh/id_rsa user@server (login to remote host with private-key)

What the -i command does in Linux ssh

https://www.ssh.com/academy/ssh/command#ssh-command-in-linux

https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_cloudforms/4.6/html/appliance_hardening_guide/ssh-
security

QUESTION 5
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-
logic controllers, running a backend
LAMP server and OT systems with human-management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a
web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged
corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD
culture while also protecting the company's data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
A Chief Security Office's (CSO's) key priorities are to improve preparation, response, and recovery practices to
minimize system downtime and
enhance organizational resilience to ransomware attacks. Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO's
objectives?

A. Use email-filtering software and centralized account management, patch high-risk systems, and restrict
administration privileges on fileshares.
B. Purchase cyber insurance from a reputable provider to reduce expenses during an incident.
C. Invest in end-user awareness training to change the long-term culture and behavior of staff and executives,
reducing the organization's susceptibility to phishing attacks.
D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and
validation of full backups.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless
computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and
computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the
following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey

B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A security administrator suspects an employee has been emailing proprietary information to a competitor.
Company policy requires the administrator to capture an exact copy of the employee's hard disk. Which of the
following should the administrator use?

A. dd
B. chmod
C. dnsenum
D. logger

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
dd is most certainly a great cloning tool, it will create a 100% replica simply by using the following command.

dd if=/dev/sda of=/dev/sdb bs=32M

Be aware that while cloning every byte, you should not use this on a drive or partition that is being used.
Especially applications like databases can't cope with this very well and you might end up with corrupted data.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data
processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Phishing and spear-phishing attacks have been occurring more frequently against a company's staff. Which of
the following would MOST likely help mitigate this issue?

A. DNSSEC and DMARC

B. DNS query logging
C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS
D. The addition of DNS conditional forwarders

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose two.)

A. Data accessibility
B. Legal hold
C. Cryptographic or hash algorithm
D. Data retention legislation
E. Value and volatility of data
F. Right-to-audit clauses

Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining
business operations?

A. Investigation
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Lessons learned

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A security auditor is reviewing vulnerability scan data provided by an internal security team. Which of the
following BEST indicates that valid credentials were used?

A. The scan results show open ports, protocols, and services exposed on the target host
B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs
C. The scan produced a list of vulnerabilities on the target host
D. The scan identified expired SSL certificates

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which of the following BEST explains the difference between a data owner and a data custodian?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. The data owner is responsible for adhering to the rules for using the data, while the data custodian is
responsible for determining the corporate governance regarding the data
B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is
responsible for implementing the protection to the data
C. The data owner is responsible for controlling the data, while the data custodian is responsible for
maintaining the chain of custody when handling the data
D. The data owner grants the technical permissions for data access, while the data custodian maintains the
database access controls to the data

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company's headquarters to access the
Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate network, but it should require
guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the following should the
engineer employ to meet these requirements?

A. Implement open PSK on the APs

B. Deploy a WAF
C. Configure WIPS on the APs
D. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
A security analyst has been asked to investigate a situation after the SOC started to receive alerts from the
SIEM. The analyst first looks at the domain controller and finds the following events:

To better understand what is going on, the analyst runs a command and receives the following output:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Based on the analyst's findings, which of the following attacks is being executed?

A. Credential harvesting
B. Keylogger
C. Brute-force
D. Spraying

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?

A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. DaaS

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
A network administrator needs to build out a new datacenter, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of
the following would BEST meet this objective?
(Choose two.)

A. Dual power supply

B. Off-site backups
C. Automatic OS upgrades
D. NIC teaming
E. Scheduled penetration testing
F. Network-attached storage

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
A researcher has been analyzing large data sets for the last ten months. The researcher works with colleagues
from other institutions and typically connects via SSH to retrieve additional data. Historically, this setup has
worked without issue, but the researcher recently started getting the following message:

Which of the following network attacks is the researcher MOST likely experiencing?

A. MAC cloning
B. Evil twin
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
An organization is developing an authentication service for use at the entry and exit ports of country borders.
The service will use data feeds obtained from passport systems, passenger manifests, and high-definition video
feeds from CCTV systems that are located at the ports. The service will incorporate machine- learning
techniques to eliminate biometric enrollment processes while still allowing authorities to identify passengers
with increasing accuracy over time. The more frequently passengers travel, the more accurately the service will
identify them. Which of the following biometrics will MOST likely be used, without the need for enrollment?
(Choose two.)

A. Voice
B. Gait

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Vein
D. Facial
E. Retina
F. Fingerprint

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service
accounts. Requirements for the project include:

Check-in/checkout of credentials
The ability to use but not know the password
Automated password changes
Logging of access to credentials

Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

A. OAuth 2.0
B. Secure Enclave
C. A privileged access management system
D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Page 248 Sybex ebook

PAM:
Privileged access management (PAM)
• Managing superuser access
– Administrator and Root
– You don’t want this in the wrong hands

• Store privileged accounts in a digital vault

– Access is only granted from the vault by request
– These privileges are temporary

• PAM advantages
– Centralized password management
– Enables automation
– Manage access for each user
– Extensive tracking and auditing

https://www.cyberark.com/what-is/privileged-access-management/

QUESTION 23
Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security
manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee's workstations. The security
manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the
following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have
breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly available and has been
reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical. Which of the following should the network
security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review?

A. The vulnerability scan output

B. The IDS logs
C. The full packet capture data
D. The SIEM alerts

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its
customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting
blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the
secure application without compromising the organization's security posture?

A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII

B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable
during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance's vulnerable state?

A. The system was configured with weak default security settings.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. The device uses weak encryption ciphers.
C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.
D. The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
A company's bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several
weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company's forensics team to assist
in the cyber-incident investigation. An incident responder learns the following information:

The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based
purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs.
All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection
of encrypted traffic of the hardwired network.
Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL inspection
occurs, were unaffected.

Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?

A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites

B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM
C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges
D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and
update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly
accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module

B. A host-based firewall
C. A DLP solution
D. Full disk encryption
E. A VPN
F. Antivirus software

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 29
A company is implementing MFA for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA to be
non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use when
implementing MFA?

A. One-time passwords
B. Email tokens
C. Push notifications
D. Hardware authentication

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Unlike OTP, push notifications utilize smartphone notifications to assert authentication. In doing so, end users
simply have to press a button on their phone to approve or deny access. If an unauthorized party attempts to
access their account, they can deny them outright. End users generally find this method of MFA to be
convenient. Additionally, push notification-based MFA provides increased levels of security compared to SMS
MFA while avoiding the hassles of implementing physical keys.

https://jumpcloud.com/blog/push-notification-mfa

QUESTION 30
The CSIRT is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered
throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following
recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the future?

A. Install a NIDS device at the boundary.

B. Segment the network with firewalls.
C. Update all antivirus signatures daily.
D. Implement application blacklisting.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company
information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy?

A. Mobile device management

B. Full-device encryption
C. Remote wipe
D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 32
A development team employs a practice of bringing all the code changes from multiple team members into the
same development project through automation. A tool is utilized to validate the code and track source code
through version control. Which of the following BEST describes this process?

A. Continuous delivery
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous validation
D. Continuous monitoring

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-
drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Raid 1 (with more than 2 disks) can handle any two drive failure just as Raid 6, however since the question
mentions that this is for a critical server, the preference should include parity and striping, which Raid 6 has.

QUESTION 34
Which of the following BEST explains the reason why a server administrator would place a document named
password.txt on the desktop of an administrator account on a server?

A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.

B. The document is a backup file if the system needs to be recovered.
C. The document is a standard file that the OS needs to verify the login credentials.
D. The document is a keylogger that stores all keystrokes should the account be compromised.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
A small company that does not have security staff wants to improve its security posture. Which of the following
would BEST assist the company?

A. MSSP
B. SOAR

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. IaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
An MSSP (Managed Security Services Provider) provides a range of security services to help organizations
improve their security posture, such as 24/7 monitoring and management of security devices, threat
intelligence, incident response, and vulnerability management. This would allow the small company to
outsource their security operations to a trusted provider who has the expertise and resources to identify and
respond to security threats.

SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, which is a technology platform used to
automate and streamline security operations. While this can be helpful in improving security, it may not be the
best option for a small company that does not have the security staff to manage it.

From Comptia Student Guide

"Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP)—a means of fully outsourcing responsibility for information
assurance to a third party. This type of solution is expensive but can be a good fit for an SME that has
experienced rapid growth and has no in-house security capability. Of course, this type of outsourcing places a
huge amount of trust in the MSSP. Maintaining effective oversight of the MSSP requires
a good degree of internal security awareness and expertise. There could also be significant challenges in
industries exposed to high degrees of regulation in terms of information processing."

SOAR implies there's at least some security capability in-house

QUESTION 36
An organization's help desk is flooded with phone calls from users stating they can no longer access certain
websites. The help desk escalates the issue to the security team, as these websites were accessible the
previous day. The security analysts run the following command: ipconfig /flushdns, but the issue
persists. Finally, an analyst changes the DNS server for an impacted machine, and the issue goes away. Which
of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the original DNS server?

A. DNS cache poisoning

B. Domain hijacking
C. Distributed denial-of-service
D. DNS tunneling

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss
how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario
and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic
cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes
what the manager is doing?

A. Developing an incident response plan

B. Building a disaster recovery plan
C. Conducting a tabletop exercise

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Running a simulation exercise

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
A RAT that was used to compromise an organization's banking credentials was found on a user's computer.
The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights to the system
as part of a remote management tool set. Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this
from reoccurring?

A. Create a new acceptable use policy.

B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.
C. Enforce application whitelisting.
D. Implement DLP at the network boundary.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
A security analyst is reviewing a new website that will soon be made publicly available. The analyst sees the
following in the URL:

http://devsite.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=77276554&loc=us

The analyst then sends an internal user a link to the new website for testing purposes, and when the user clicks
the link, the analyst is able to browse the website with the following URL:

http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=98988475&loc=us

Which of the following application attacks is being tested?

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Session replay
C. Object deference
D. Cross-site request forgery

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A network administrator has been asked to install an IDS to improve the security posture of an organization.
Which of the following control types is an IDS?

A. Corrective

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. Physical
C. Detective
D. Administrative

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Which of the following should be put in place when negotiating with a new vendor about the timeliness of the
response to a significant outage or incident?

A. MOU
B. MTTR
C. SLA
D. NDA

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Common agreements
• Service Level Agreement (SLA)
– Minimum terms for services provided
– Uptime, response time agreement, etc. – Commonly used between customers and service providers

• Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) – Both sides agree on the contents of the memorandum
– Usually includes statements of confidentiality – Informal letter of intent; not a signed contract

NDA - Non Disclosure

MTTR - Mean Time To Repair

QUESTION 42
A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platforms to stand up a corporate infrastructure and build
out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide security,
manageability, and visibility into the platforms?

A. SIEM
B. DLP
C. CASB
D. SWG

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is the BEST solution to provide security, manageability, and visibility into
the SaaS and IaaS platforms used by the startup company.

CASBs are security solutions that sit between cloud service users and the cloud service provider to enforce
security policies and ensure data protection. CASBs provide a single point of control to manage the security of

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

multiple cloud services and provide visibility into the activity and access to the cloud services. CASBs provide
security features such as threat protection, identity and access management, data loss prevention, and
compliance enforcement. This can help the startup company ensure that their customer-facing web application
is secure, manageable, and visible.

Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

Data Loss Prevention

Security Event and Incident Management (SEIM) refers to cyber security products and services that provides
real time analysis of security alerts generated by an an application or network device.

QUESTION 43
A root cause analysis reveals that a web application outage was caused by one of the company's developers
uploading a newer version of the third-party libraries that were shared among several applications. Which of the
following implementations would be BEST to prevent the issue from reoccurring?

A. CASB
B. SWG
C. Containerization
D. Automated failover

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Containerization is defined as a form of operating system virtualization, through which applications are run in
isolated user spaces called containers, all using the same shared operating system (OS).

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is the BEST solution to provide security, manageability, and visibility into
the SaaS and IaaS platforms used by the startup company.

Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

QUESTION 44
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the
following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Autopsy
D. DNSEnum

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of the
following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs
B. Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy
C. Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files
D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After determining it
is not a routing or DNS issue, the
administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the following output:

Which of the following is the router experiencing?

A. DDoS attack
B. Memory leak
C. Buffer overflow
D. Resource exhaustion

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The
company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When
configuring the MDM, which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device
approach?

A. The most common set of MDM configurations will become the effective set of enterprise mobile security
controls.
B. All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen
architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries.
C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address
the delta between device vendors.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need to be
installed and configured.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or
data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?

A. SED
B. HSM
C. DLP
D. TPM

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
SED (Self-Encrypting Drive) is the MOST acceptable solution in this scenario. SEDs are hard drives with built-in
encryption that automatically encrypts all data on the drive, providing an easy and cost-effective way to secure
sensitive data. SEDs do not require any additional software to be installed or user interaction to encrypt the
data, making them ideal for organizations with a low tolerance for user inconvenience. In case of loss or theft,
the data remains secure because the encryption key is stored on the drive itself, making it difficult for
unauthorized users to access the data without the proper key.

A HSM hardware security module (HSM) is a security device you can add to a system to manage, generate,
and securely store cryptographic keys.

(DLP) techniques and technologiesto prevent data loss. They can block the use of USB flash drives and control
the use of removablemedia.

(TPM) is a chip included with many laptops and some mobile devices and it provides full disk encryption, a
secure boot process, and supports remote attestation. TPMs have an encryption key burned into them that
provides a hardware root of trust.

QUESTION 49
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only
used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?

A. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.

B. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
C. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the
application.
D. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation?

A. A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application.
B. A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a natural
disaster.
C. A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department and
the information technology department.
D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to
monitor, not block, any traffic.
E. A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
The IT department's on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is
released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST help
the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?

A. Limit the use of third-party libraries.

B. Prevent data exposure queries.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Obfuscate the source code.
D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users'
passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
An analyst needs to identify the applications a user was running and the files that were open before the user's
computer was shut off by holding down the power button. Which of the following would MOST likely contain that
information?

A. NGFW
B. Pagefile
C. NetFlow
D. RAM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
A remote user recently took a two-week vacation abroad and brought along a corporate-owned laptop. Upon
returning to work, the user has been unable to connect the laptop to the VPN. Which of the following is the
MOST likely reason for the user's inability to connect the laptop to the VPN?

A. Due to foreign travel, the user's laptop was isolated from the network.
B. The user's laptop was quarantined because it missed the latest path update.
C. The VPN client was blacklisted.
D. The user's account was put on a legal hold.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed?

A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Blockchain

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users' credentials.
Which of the following will BEST ensure the site's users are not compromised after the reset?

A. A password reuse policy

B. Account lockout after three failed attempts
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
D. A geofencing policy based on login history

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal
electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the organization determine to be
the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this policy?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. The theft of portable electronic devices
B. Geotagging in the metadata of images
C. Bluesnarfing of mobile devices
D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
A security analyst is using a recently released security advisory to review historical logs, looking for the specific
activity that was outlined in the advisory. Which of the following is the analyst doing?

A. A packet capture
B. A user behavior analysis
C. Threat hunting
D. Credentialed vulnerability scanning

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following would MOST likely support the integrity of a voting machine?

A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Blockchain
C. Transport Layer Security
D. Perfect forward secrecy

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Sec+ Ebook pg 220

QUESTION 61
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards for
data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand before writing the
policies?

A. PCI DSS
B. GDPR
C. NIST
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
The IT department at a university is concerned about professors placing servers on the university network in an
attempt to bypass security controls. Which of the following BEST represents this type of threat?

A. A script kiddie
B. Shadow IT
C. Hacktivism
D. White-hat

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
A commercial cyber-threat intelligence organization observes IoCs across a variety of unrelated customers.
Prior to releasing specific threat intelligence to other paid subscribers, the organization is MOST likely obligated
by contracts to:

A. perform attribution to specific APTs and nation-state actors.

B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data.
C. add metadata to track the utilization of threat intelligence reports.
D. assist companies with impact assessments based on the observed data.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
anonymize meaning of the word
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/anonymize
watch professor messer video below
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/threat-intelligence/
do this it will all come together.

QUESTION 64
While checking logs, a security engineer notices a number of end users suddenly downloading files with the
.tar.gz extension. Closer examination of the files reveals they are PE32 files. The end users state they did not
initiate any of the downloads. Further investigation reveals the end users all clicked on an external email
containing an infected MHT file with an href link a week prior. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.

B. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server.
C. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers.
D. A fireless virus is spreading in the local network environment.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:
In this scenario, it appears that the end users' workstations were compromised after clicking on an infected
email attachment. The fact that they are suddenly downloading .tar.gz files and PE32 files, and that the
downloads were not initiated by the end users, suggests that a RAT has been installed on their workstations.
The RAT is likely transferring additional malicious tools to the compromised workstations, and the security
engineer should take immediate steps to contain and remove the threat.

"A remote access Trojan (RAT) is a type of malware that allows attackers to control systems from remote
locations. It is often delivered via drive-by downloads or malicious attachments in email. Once installed on a
system, attackers can then access the infected computer at any time and install additional malware if desired.
A growing trend is for attackers to deliver trojans as Portable Executable (PE) files in 32-bit (PE32) and 64-bit
(PE64) formats. They often compress the PE files using compression tools, such as tar (sometimes called
tarball). Tar files have the .tar.gz file extension."

QUESTION 65
An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of the
following plans is the organization MOST likely developing?

A. Incident response
B. Communications
C. Disaster recovery
D. Data retention

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
Which of the following is the purpose of a risk register?

A. To define the level or risk using probability and likelihood

B. To register the risk with the required regulatory agencies
C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures
D. To formally log the type of risk mitigation strategy the organization is using

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across
all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random
intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day,
impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi
network are not impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected. Later that day, the edge-router
manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit the SIP protocol handling on devices,
leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads. Which of the following BEST describe this type of attack?
(Choose two.)

A. DoS

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. SSL stripping
C. Memory leak
D. Race condition
E. Shimming
F. Refactoring

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
A company recently set up an e-commerce portal to sell its product online. The company wants to start
accepting credit cards for payment, which requires compliance with a security standard. Which of the following
standards must the company comply with before accepting credit cards on its e-commerce platform?

A. PCI DSS
B. ISO 22301
C. ISO 27001
D. NIST CSF

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
Which of the following BEST describes a security exploit for which a vendor patch is not readily available?

A. Integer overflow
B. Zero-day
C. End of life
D. Race condition

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of an insurance company received an email from Ann, the company's Chief
Executive Officer (CEO), requesting a transfer of $10,000 to an account. The email states Ann is on vacation
and has lost her purse, containing cash and credit cards. Which of the following social-engineering techniques
is the attacker using?

A. Phishing
B. Whaling
C. Typo squatting
D. Pharming

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71
An organization wants to implement a third factor to an existing multifactor authentication. The organization
already uses a smart card and password. Which of the following would meet the organization's needs for a third
factor?

A. Date of birth
B. Fingerprints
C. PIN
D. TPM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72
An employee has been charged with fraud and is suspected of using corporate assets. As authorities collect
evidence, and to preserve the admissibility of the evidence, which of the following forensic techniques should
be used?

A. Order of volatility
B. Data recovery
C. Chain of custody
D. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73
A company wants to deploy PKI on its Internet-facing website. The applications that are currently deployed are:

www.company.com (main website)

contactus.company.com (for locating a nearby location)
quotes.company.com (for requesting a price quote)

The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future
applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. Which of the following
certificate types would BEST meet the requirements?

A. SAN
B. Wildcard
C. Extended validation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Self-signed

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the amount of PII that is stored locally on each
salesperson's laptop. The sales department has a higher-than- average rate of lost equipment. Which of the
following recommendations would BEST address the CSO's concern?

A. Deploy an MDM solution.

B. Implement managed FDE.
C. Replace all hard drives with SEDs.
D. Install DLP agents on each laptop.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a security safeguard that protects all data stored on a hard drive from
unauthorized access using disk-level encryption

https://www.educause.edu/focus-areas-and-initiatives/policy-and-security/cybersecurity-program/resources/
information-security-guide/hot-topics/full-disk-encryption

QUESTION 75
A user contacts the help desk to report the following:

Two days ago, a pop-up browser window prompted the user for a name and password after connecting to
the corporate wireless SSID. This had never happened before, but the user entered the information as
requested.

The user was able to access the Internet but had trouble accessing the department share until the next day.

The user is now getting notifications from the bank about unauthorized transactions.

Which of the following attack vectors was MOST likely used in this scenario?

A. Rogue access point

B. Evil twin
C. DNS poisoning
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 76
A host was infected with malware. During the incident response, Joe, a user, reported that he did not receive

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

any emails with links, but he had been browsing the Internet all day. Which of the following would MOST likely
show where the malware originated?

A. The DNS logs

B. The web server logs
C. The SIP traffic logs
D. The SNMP logs

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77
A recently discovered zero-day exploit utilizes an unknown vulnerability in the SMB network protocol to rapidly
infect computers. Once infected, computers are encrypted and held for ransom. Which of the following would
BEST prevent this attack from reoccurring?

A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports.
B. Ensure endpoint detection and response systems are alerting on suspicious SMB connections.
C. Deny unauthenticated users access to shared network folders.
D. Verify computers are set to install monthly operating system, updates automatically.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
If its' zero day there is no prepared IDS v IPS solutions; hence the most ssecure to block all SMB traffic (might
be problematic, but this might be only temporary solution until zero-day stop being zero-day)

QUESTION 78
Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name,
mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe's identity before sending him the
prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?

A. Spear phishing
B. Whaling
C. Phishing
D. Vishing

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
Which of the following refers to applications and systems that are used within an organization without consent
or approval?

A. Shadow IT
B. OSINT

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Dark web
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
A manufacturer creates designs for very high security products that are required to be protected and controlled
by the government regulations. These designs are not accessible by corporate networks or the Internet. Which
of the following is the BEST solution to protect these designs?

A. An air gap
B. A Faraday cage
C. A shielded cable
D. A demilitarized zone

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by
utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the company to
implement?

A. Discretionary
B. Rule-based
C. Role-based
D. Mandatory

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of failure
in the company's IT/security operations?

A. Least privilege
B. Awareness training
C. Separation of duties
D. Mandatory vacation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83
Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and
hotspots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
A user enters a password to log in to a workstation and is then prompted to enter an authentication code.
Which of the following MFA factors or attributes are being utilized in the authentication process? (Choose two.)

A. Something you know

B. Something you have
C. Somewhere you are
D. Someone you know
E. Something you are
F. Something you can do

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 85
When selecting a technical solution for identity management, an architect chooses to go from an in-house
solution to a third-party SaaS provider. Which of the following risk management strategies is this an example
of?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 86
A website developer is working on a new e-commerce website and has asked an information security expert for
the most appropriate way to store credit card numbers to create an easy reordering process. Which of the
following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?

A. Salting the magnetic strip information

B. Encrypting the credit card information in transit
C. Hashing the credit card numbers upon entry
D. Tokenizing the credit cards in the database

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87
A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who was
charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this breach?

A. A firewall
B. A device pin
C. A USB data blocker
D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 88
An analyst visits an Internet forum looking for information about a tool. The analyst finds a thread that appears
to contain relevant information.
One of the posts says the following:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following BEST describes the attack that was attempted against the forum readers?

A. SQLi attack
B. DLL attack
C. XSS attack
D. API attack

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
XSS Attack:

Cross-site scripting attacks may occur anywhere that possibly malicious users are allowed to post unregulated
material to a trusted website for the consumption of other valid users. The most common example can be
found in bulletin-board websites which provide web based mailing list-style functionality.

https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/xss/

QUESTION 89
A network administrator would like to configure a site-to-site VPN utilizing IPsec. The administrator wants the
tunnel to be established with data integrity, encryption, authentication, and anti-replay functions. Which of the
following should the administrator use when configuring the VPN?

A. AH
B. EDR
C. ESP
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 90
Users have been issued smart cards that provide physical access to a building. The cards also contain tokens
that can be used to access information systems. Users can log in to any thin client located throughout the
building and see the same desktop each time. Which of the following technologies are being utilized to provide
these capabilities? (Choose two.)

A. COPE
B. VDI
C. GPS
D. TOTP
E. RFID
F. BYOD

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) at a major hospital wants to implement SSO to help improve security in the
environment and protect patient data, particularly at shared terminals. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is
concerned that training and guidance have not been provided to frontline staff, and a risk analysis has not been
performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the CRO's concerns?

A. SSO would simplify username and password management, making it easier for hackers to guess accounts.
B. SSO would reduce password fatigue, but staff would still need to remember more complex passwords.
C. SSO would reduce the password complexity for frontline staff.
D. SSO would reduce the resilience and availability of systems if the identity provider goes offline.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 92
A smart switch has the ability to monitor electrical levels and shut off power to a building in the event of power
surge of power surge or other fault situation. The switch was installed on a wired network in a hospital and is
monitored by the facilities department via a cloud application. The security administrator isolated the switch on
a separate VLAN and set up a patching routine. Which of the following steps should also be taken to harden
the smart switch?

A. Set up an air gap for the switch.

B. Change the default password for the switch.
C. Place the switch in a Faraday cage.
D. Install a cable lock on the switch.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 93
A cybersecurity administrator has a reduced team and needs to operate an on-premises network and security
infrastructure efficiently. To help with the situation, the administrator decides to hire a service provider. Which of
the following should the administrator use?

A. SDP
B. AAA
C. IaaS
D. MSSP
E. Microservices

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
A security assessment determines DES and 3DES are still being used on recently deployed production servers.
Which of the following did the assessment identify?

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Default settings
C. Open permissions
D. Weak encryption

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95
Which of the following types of controls is a turnstile?

A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Technical

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96
Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?

A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment, then to systems in a staging environment, and finally
to production systems.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then
apply them to the production systems.
C. Test the patches in a test environment, apply them to the production systems, and then apply them to a
staging environment.
D. Apply the patches to the production systems, apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them
in a testing environment.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
A security analyst is investigating an incident that was first reported as an issue connecting to network shares
and the Internet. While reviewing logs and tool output, the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following attacks has occurred?

A. IP conflict
B. Pass-the-hash
C. MAC flooding
D. Directory traversal
E. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98
After entering a username and password, an administrator must draw a gesture on a touch screen. Which of
the following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?

A. Multifactor authentication
B. Something you can do
C. Biometrics
D. Two-factor authentication

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99
An organization suffered an outage, and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there
was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within
60 minutes. Which of the following is the 60-minute expectation an example of?

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100
Joe, a user at a company, clicked an email links that led to a website that infected his workstation. Joe was
connected to the network, and the virus spread to the network shares. The protective measures failed to stop
this virus, and it has continued to evade detection. Which of the following should a security administrator
implement to protect the environment from this malware?

A. Install a definition-based antivirus.

B. Implement an IDS/IPS
C. Implement a heuristic behavior-detection solution.
D. Implement CASB to protect the network shares.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101
An organization is concerned that its hosted web servers are not running the most updated version of the
software. Which of the following would work BEST to help identify potential vulnerabilities?

A. hping3 -S comptia.org -p 80
B. nc -l -v comptia.org -p 80
C. nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sV
D. nslookup -port=80 comptia.org

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 102
A retail executive recently accepted a job with a major competitor. The following week, a security analyst
reviews the security logs and identifies successful logon attempts to access the departed executive's accounts.
Which of the following security practices would have addressed the issue?

A. A non-disclosure agreement
B. Least privilege
C. An acceptable use policy
D. Offboarding

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
A security analyst is performing a forensic investigation involving compromised account credentials. Using the
Event Viewer, the analyst was able to detect the following message: "Special privileges assigned to new logon."
Several of these messages did not have a valid logon associated with the user before these privileges were
assigned. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely being detected?

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Buffer overflow
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Session replay

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 104
A systems administrator needs to implement an access control scheme that will allow an object's access policy
to be determined by its owner. Which of the following access control schemes BEST fits the requirements?

A. Role-based access control

B. Discretionary access control
C. Mandatory access control
D. Attribute-based access control

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
A cybersecurity analyst reviews the log files from a web server and sees a series of files that indicate a
directory-traversal attack has occurred. Which of the following is the analyst MOST likely seeing?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. http://sample.url.com/<script>Please-Visit-Our-Phishing-Site</script>
B. http://sample.url.com/someotherpageonsite/../../../etc/shadow
C. http://sample.url.com/select-from-database-where-password-null
D. http://redirect.sameple.url.sampleurl.com/malicious-dns-redirect

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106
A company has limited storage space available and an online presence that cannot be down for more than four
hours. Which of the following backup methodologies should the company implement to allow for the FASTEST
database restore time in the event of a failure, while being mindful of the limited available storage space?

A. Implement full tape backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m. and perform nightly tape rotations.
B. Implement differential backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m. and nightly incremental backups at 8:00 p.m.
C. Implement nightly full backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m.
D. Implement full backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m. and nightly differential backups at 8:00 p.m.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Page 261 Sybex ebook

QUESTION 107
An organization has a growing workforce that is mostly driven by additions to the sales department. Each newly
hired salesperson relies on a mobile device to conduct business. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is
wondering if the organization may need to scale down just as quickly as it scaled up. The CIO is also concerned
about the organization's security and customer privacy. Which of the following would be BEST to address the
CIO's concerns?

A. Disallow new hires from using mobile devices for six months.
B. Select four devices for the sales department to use in a CYOD model.
C. Implement BYOD for the sales department while leveraging the MDM.
D. Deploy mobile devices using the COPE methodology.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108
A malicious actor recently penetrated a company's network and moved laterally to the datacenter. Upon
investigation, a forensics firm wants to know what was in the memory on the compromised server. Which of the
following files should be given to the forensics firm?

A. Security
B. Application

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Dump
D. Syslog

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 109
A public relations team will be taking a group of guests on a tour through the facility of a large e-commerce
company. The day before the tour, the company sends out an email to employees to ensure all whiteboards are
cleaned and all desks are cleared. The company is MOST likely trying to protect against:

A. loss of proprietary information.

B. damage to the company's reputation.
C. social engineering.
D. credential exposure.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110
The manager who is responsible for a data set has asked a security engineer to apply encryption to the data on
a hard disk. The security engineer is an example of a:

A. data controller.
B. data owner.
C. data custodian.
D. data processor.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide glossary:
data custodian - An individual who is responsible for managing the system on which data assets are stored,
including being responsible for enforcing access control, encryption, and backup/recovery measures.

QUESTION 111
A network engineer is troubleshooting wireless network connectivity issues that were reported by users. The
issues are occurring only in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot. Users are intermittently
experiencing slow speeds when accessing websites and are unable to connect to network drives. The issues
appear to increase when laptop users return to their desks after using their devices in other areas of the
building. There have also been reports of users being required to enter their credentials on web pages in order
to gain access to them.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. An external access point is engaging in an evil-twin attack.

B. The signal on the WAP needs to be increased in that section of the building.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. The certificates have expired on the devices and need to be reinstalled.
D. The users in that section of the building are on a VLAN that is being blocked by the firewall.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 112
A security administrator needs to create a RAID configuration that is focused on high read speeds and fault
tolerance. It is unlikely that multiple drives will fail simultaneously. Which of the following RAID configurations
should the administrator use?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 113
A company's Chief Information Officer (CIO) is meeting with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to
plan some activities to enhance the skill levels of the company's developers. Which of the following would be
MOST suitable for training the developers?

A. A capture-the-flag competition
B. A phishing simulation
C. Physical security training
D. Basic awareness training

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
A security analyst needs to generate a server certificate to be used for 802.1X and secure RDP connections.
The analyst is unsure what is required to perform the task and solicits help from a senior colleague. Which of
the following is the FIRST step the senior colleague will most likely tell the analyst to perform to accomplish this
task?

A. Create an OCSP
B. Generate a CSR.
C. Create a CRL.
D. Generate a .pfx file.

Correct Answer: B

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 115
Under GDPR, which of the following is MOST responsible for the protection of privacy and website user rights?

A. The data protection officer

B. The data processor
C. The data owner
D. The data controller

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116
A small business just recovered from a ransomware attack against its file servers by purchasing the decryption
keys from the attackers. The issue was triggered by a phishing email and the IT administrator wants to ensure it
does not happen again. Which of the following should the IT administrator do FIRST after recovery?

A. Scan the NAS for residual or dormant malware and take new daily backups that are tested on a frequent
basis.
B. Restrict administrative privileges and patch all systems and applications.
C. Rebuild all workstations and install new antivirus software.
D. Implement application whitelisting and perform user application hardening.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 117
A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at others.
Which of the following would be BEST to help the organization's executives determine their next course of
action?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan
C. A disaster recovery plan
D. A business continuity plan

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 118
Which of the following describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS?

A. Fog computing
B. VM escape
C. Software-defined networking
D. Image forgery
E. Container breakout

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 119
After a ransomware attack, a forensics company needs to review a cryptocurrency transaction between the
victim and the attacker. Which of the following will the company MOST likely review to trace this transaction?

A. The public ledger

B. The NetFlow data
C. A checksum
D. The event log

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 120
During an incident response, a security analyst observes the following log entry on the web server:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack the analyst is experiencing?

A. SQL injection
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Pass-the-hash
D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 121
Which of the following ISO standards is certified for privacy?

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 27002
C. ISO 27701
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
ISO/IEC 27701:2019 (formerly known as ISO/IEC 27552 during the drafting period) is a privacy extension to
ISO/IEC 27001. The design goal is to enhance the existing Information Security Management System (ISMS)
with additional requirements in order to establish, implement, maintain, and continually improve a Privacy
Information Management System (PIMS). The standard outlines a framework for Personally Identifiable
Information (PII) Controllers and PII Processors to manage privacy controls to reduce the risk to the privacy
rights of individuals.

ISO/IEC 27701 is intended to be a certifiable extension to ISO/IEC 27001 certifications. In other words,
organizations planning to seek an ISO/IEC 27701 certification will also need to have an ISO/IEC 27001
certification.

QUESTION 122
A document that appears to be malicious has been discovered in an email that was sent to a company's Chief
Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the following would be BEST to allow a security analyst to gather information
and confirm it is a malicious document without executing any code it may contain?

A. Open the document on an air-gapped network.

B. View the document's metadata for origin clues.
C. Search for matching file hashes on malware websites.
D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 123
A security analyst is running a vulnerability scan to check for missing patches during a suspected security
incident. During which of the following phases of the response process is this activity MOST likely occurring?

A. Containment
B. Identification
C. Recovery
D. Preparation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 124
Which of the following is a team of people dedicated to testing the effectiveness of organizational security
programs by emulating the techniques of potential attackers?

A. Red team
B. White team
C. Blue team
D. Purple team

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125
A security analyst discovers that a company's username and password database was posted on an Internet
forum. The usernames and passwords are stored in plain text. Which of the following would mitigate the
damage done by this type of data exfiltration in the future?

A. Create DLP controls that prevent documents from leaving the network.
B. Implement salting and hashing.
C. Configure the web content filter to block access to the forum.
D. Increase password complexity requirements.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 126
Which of the following are requirements that must be configured for PCI DSS compliance? (Choose two.)

A. Testing security systems and processes regularly

B. Installing and maintaining a web proxy to protect cardholder data
C. Assigning a unique ID to each person with computer access
D. Encrypting transmission of cardholder data across private networks
E. Benchmarking security awareness training for contractors
F. Using vendor-supplied default passwords for system passwords

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 127
A security analyst needs to be proactive in understanding the types of attacks that could potentially target the
company's executives. Which of the following intelligence sources should the security analyst review?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Vulnerability feeds
B. Trusted automated exchange of indicator information
C. Structured threat information expression
D. Industry information-sharing and collaboration groups

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 128
A security audit has revealed that a process control terminal is vulnerable to malicious users installing and
executing software on the system. The terminal is beyond end-of-life support and cannot be upgraded, so it is
placed on a protected network segment. Which of the following would be MOST effective to implement to
further mitigate the reported vulnerability?

A. DNS sinkholing
B. DLP rules on the terminal
C. An IP blacklist
D. Application whitelisting

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129
A user recently entered a username and password into a recruiting application website that had been forged to
look like the legitimate site. Upon investigation, a security analyst identifies the following:

The legitimate website's IP address is 10.1.1.20 and eRecruit.local resolves to this IP.
The forged website's IP address appears to be 10.2.12.99, based on NetFlow records.
All three of the organization's DNS servers show the website correctly resolves to the legitimate IP.
DNS query logs show one of the three DNS servers returned a result of 10.2.12.99 (cached) at the
approximate time of the suspected compromise.

Which of the following MOST likely occurred?

A. A reverse proxy was used to redirect network traffic.

B. An SSL strip MITM attack was performed.
C. An attacker temporarily poisoned a name server.
D. An ARP poisoning attack was successfully executed.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DNS (server cache) poisoning is also referred to as a "Redirection Attack" per the official CompTIA Certmaster
study guide. The user was redirected to a website that looked like the legitimate one.

QUESTION 130

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

An organization has hired a security analyst to perform a penetration test. The analyst captures 1Gb worth of
inbound network traffic to the server and transfers the pcap back to the machine for analysis. Which of the
following tools should the analyst use to further review the pcap?

A. Nmap
B. cURL
C. Netcat
D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 131
A company uses wireless for all laptops and keeps a very detailed record of its assets, along with a
comprehensive list of devices that are authorized to be on the wireless network. The Chief Information Officer
(CIO) is concerned about a script kiddie potentially using an unauthorized device to brute force the wireless
PSK and obtain access to the internal network. Which of the following should the company implement to BEST
prevent this from occurring?

A. A BPDU guard
B. WPA-EAP
C. IP filtering
D. A WIDS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 132
A vulnerability assessment report will include the CVSS score of the discovered vulnerabilities because the
score allows the organization to better:

A. validate the vulnerability exists in the organization's network through penetration testing.
B. research the appropriate mitigation techniques in a vulnerability database.
C. find the software patches that are required to mitigate a vulnerability.
D. prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities based on the possible impact.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133
A security engineer is reviewing log files after a third party discovered usernames and passwords for the
organization's accounts. The engineer sees there was a change in the IP address for a vendor website one
week earlier. This change lasted eight hours. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Spear phishing
C. Evil twin
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 134
A company recently moved sensitive videos between on-premises, company-owned websites. The company
then learned the videos had been uploaded and shared to the Internet. Which of the following would MOST
likely allow the company to find the cause?

A. Checksums
B. Watermarks
C. Order of volatility
D. A log analysis
E. A right-to-audit clause

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135
A large industrial system's smart generator monitors the system status and sends alerts to third-party
maintenance personnel when critical failures occur. While reviewing the network logs, the company's security
manager notices the generator's IP is sending packets to an internal file server's IP. Which of the following
mitigations would be BEST for the security manager to implement while maintaining alerting capabilities?

A. Segmentation
B. Firewall whitelisting
C. Containment
D. Isolation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 136
Which of the following allows for functional test data to be used in new systems for testing and training
purposes to protect the real data?

A. Data encryption
B. Data masking
C. Data deduplication

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Data minimization

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 137
A consultant is configuring a vulnerability scanner for a large, global organization in multiple countries. The
consultant will be using a service account to scan systems with administrative privileges on a weekly basis, but
there is a concern that hackers could gain access to the account and pivot throughout the global network.
Which of the following would be BEST to help mitigate this concern?

A. Create different accounts for each region, each configured with push MFA notifications.
B. Create one global administrator account and enforce Kerberos authentication.
C. Create different accounts for each region, limit their logon times, and alert on risky logins.
D. Create a guest account for each region, remember the last ten passwords, and block password reuse.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 138
A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on
a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is
conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 139
A security analyst is configuring a large number of new company-issued laptops. The analyst received the
following requirements:

The devices will be used internationally by staff who travel extensively.

Occasional personal use is acceptable due to the travel requirements.
Users must be able to install and configure sanctioned programs and productivity suites.
The devices must be encrypted.
The devices must be capable of operating in low-bandwidth environments.

Which of the following would provide the GREATEST benefit to the security posture of the devices?

A. Configuring an always-on VPN

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. Implementing application whitelisting
C. Requiring web traffic to pass through the on-premises content filter
D. Setting the antivirus DAT update schedule to weekly

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Configuring an always-on VPN would provide the greatest benefit to the security posture of the devices as it
would ensure that all data transmitted between the device and the corporate network is encrypted and secure,
even when the device is used on public Wi-Fi networks in low-bandwidth environments. This would help protect
sensitive data from eavesdropping and tampering while in transit.

QUESTION 140
An organization has decided to host its web application and database in the cloud. Which of the following BEST
describes the security concerns for this decision?

A. Access to the organization's servers could be exposed to other cloud-provider clients.

B. The cloud vendor is a new attack vector within the supply chain.
C. Outsourcing the code development adds risk to the cloud provider.
D. Vendor support will cease when the hosting platforms reach EOL.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 141
An organization that is located in a flood zone is MOST likely to document the concerns associated with the
restoration of IT operations in a:

A. business continuity plan.

B. communications plan.
C. disaster recovery plan.
D. continuity of operations plan.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 142
A user received an SMS on a mobile phone that asked for bank details. Which of the following social-
engineering techniques was used in this case?

A. SPIM
B. Vishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Smishing

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 143
Company engineers regularly participate in a public Internet forum with other engineers throughout the industry.
Which of the following tactics would an attacker MOST likely use in this scenario?

A. Watering-hole attack
B. Credential harvesting
C. Hybrid warfare
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 144
Which of the following will provide the BEST physical security countermeasures to stop intruders? (Choose
two.)

A. Alarms
B. Signage
C. Lighting
D. Mantraps
E. Fencing
F. Sensors

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 145
A security analyst is looking for a solution to help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the
organization's vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST meet this need?

A. CVE
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. CVSS

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 146
A security incident may have occurred on the desktop PC of an organization's Chief Executive Officer (CEO). A
duplicate copy of the CEO's hard drive must be stored securely to ensure appropriate forensic processes and
the chain of custody are followed. Which of the following should be performed to accomplish this task?

A. Install a new hard drive in the CEO's PC, and then remove the old hard drive and place it in a tamper-
evident bag.
B. Connect a write blocker to the hard drive. Then, leveraging a forensic workstation, utilize the dd command
in a live Linux environment to create a duplicate copy.
C. Remove the CEO's hard drive from the PC, connect to the forensic workstation, and copy all the contents
onto a remote fileshare while the CEO watches.
D. Refrain from completing a forensic analysis of the CEO's hard drive until after the incident is confirmed;
duplicating the hard drive at this stage could destroy evidence.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 147
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization would like staff members to have the flexibility to work
from home anytime during business hours, including during a pandemic or crisis. However, the CEO is
concerned that some staff members may take advantage of the flexibility and work from high-risk countries
while on holiday or outsource work to a third-party organization in another country. The Chief Information
Officer (CIO) believes the company can implement some basic controls to mitigate the majority of the risk.
Which of the following would be BEST to
mitigate the CEO's concerns? (Choose two.)

A. Geolocation
B. Time-of-day restrictions
C. Certificates
D. Tokens
E. Geotagging
F. Role-based access controls

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 148
In the middle of a cyberattack, a security engineer removes the infected devices from the network and locks
down all compromised accounts. In which of the following incident response phases is the security engineer
currently operating?

A. Identification
B. Preparation
C. Lessons learned
D. Eradication
E. Recovery

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

F. Containment

Correct Answer: F
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 149
The SOC is reviewing processes and procedures after a recent incident. The review indicates it took more than
30 minutes to determine that quarantining an infected host was the best course of action. This allowed the
malware to spread to additional hosts before it was contained. Which of the following would be BEST to
improve the incident response process?

A. Updating the playbooks with better decision points

B. Dividing the network into trusted and untrusted zones
C. Providing additional end-user training on acceptable use
D. Implementing manual quarantining of infected hosts

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 150
A security analyst is reviewing the following attack log output:

Which of the following types of attacks does this MOST likely represent?

A. Rainbow table
B. Brute-force
C. Password-spraying
D. Dictionary

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 151
A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to
authenticate devices using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A. A captive portal
B. PSK
C. 802.1X
D. WPS

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 152
Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable
code in a software company's final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 153
A recent audit uncovered a key finding regarding the use of a specific encryption standard in a web application
that is used to communicate with business customers. Due to the technical limitations of its customers, the
company is unable to upgrade the encryption standard. Which of the following types of controls should be used
to reduce the risk created by this scenario?

A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Compensating

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 154
An organization just experienced a major cyberattack incident. The attack was well coordinated, sophisticated,
and highly skilled. Which of the following targeted the organization?

A. Shadow IT
B. An insider threat
C. A hacktivist
D. An advanced persistent threat

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 155
A security analyst has received an alert about PII being sent via email. The analyst's Chief Information Security
Officer (CISO) has made it clear that PII must be handled with extreme care. From which of the following did
the alert MOST likely originate?

A. S/MIME
B. DLP
C. IMAP
D. HIDS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 156
An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to conduct penetration testing on its network and applications.
The firm has been given all the developer's documentation about the internal architecture. Which of the
following BEST represents the type of testing that will occur?

A. Bug bounty
B. White-box
C. Black-box
D. Gray-box

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 157
A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

approaches are the MOST secure? (Choose two.)

A. Password and security question

B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 158
A security analyst needs to determine how an attacker was able to use User3 to gain a foothold within a
company's network. The company's lockout policy requires that an account be locked out for a minimum of 15
minutes after three unsuccessful attempts. While reviewing the log files, the analyst discovers the following:

Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?

A. Dictionary
B. Credential-stuffing
C. Password-spraying
D. Brute-force

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Credential stuffing is a risky option because it could cause numerous authentication failures and account
lockouts, depending on the organization's login failure policies

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1110/004/

QUESTION 159
Which of the following technical controls is BEST suited for the detection and prevention of buffer overflows on
hosts?

A. DLP
B. HIDS
C. EDR
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

Host Intrusion Detection System

Data Loss Prevention

Network Intrusion Prevention System

QUESTION 160
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about the organization's ability to continue business
operations in the event of a prolonged DDoS attack on its local datacenter that consumes database resources.
Which of the following will the CISO MOST likely recommend to mitigate this risk?

A. Upgrade the bandwidth available into the datacenter.

B. Implement a hot-site failover location.
C. Switch to a complete SaaS offering to customers.
D. Implement a challenge response test on all end-user queries.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 161
A local coffee shop runs a small WiFi hotspot for its customers that utilizes WPA2-PSK. The coffee shop would
like to stay current with security trends and wants to implement WPA3 to make its WiFi even more secure.
Which of the following technologies will the coffee shop MOST likely use in place of PSK?

A. WEP
B. MSCHAP
C. WPS
D. SAE

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)... its the latest password encryption that goes hand in hand with
WPA3. Simultaneous Authentication of Equals replaces WPA's 4-way handshake authentication and
association mechanism with a protocol based on Diffie-Hellman key agreement.

WEP- Wired Equivalent Privacy was the original Wi-Fi security standard. Despite revisions to the protocol and
increased key size, various security flaws were discovered in the WEP standard over time.

MS-CHAP - Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol, one authentication option in Microsoft's

implementation of the PPTP protocol for virtual private networks

WPS - Wi-Fi Protected Setup (originally, Wi-Fi Simple Config) is a network security standard to create a secure
wireless home network. A major security flaw revealed in December 2011 affects wireless routers with the
WPS PIN feature, which most recent models have enabled by default. The flaw allows a remote attacker to
recover the WPS PIN in a few hours with a brute-force attack and, with the WPS PIN, the network's WPA/
WPA2 pre-shared key (PSK). Users have been urged to turn off the WPS PIN feature, although this may not be
possible on some router models.

QUESTION 162
A company is designing the layout of a new datacenter so it will have an optimal environmental temperature.
Which of the following must be included? (Choose two.)

A. An air gap
B. A cold aisle
C. Removable doors
D. A hot aisle
E. An IoT thermostat
F. A humidity monitor

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
page 275 Sybex ebook

QUESTION 163
Which of the following will MOST likely cause machine-learning and AI-enabled systems to operate with
unintended consequences?

A. Stored procedures
B. Buffer overflows
C. Data bias
D. Code reuse

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 164
The process of passively gathering information prior to launching a cyberattack is called:

A. tailgating.
B. reconnaissance.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. pharming.
D. prepending.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 165
During a routine scan of a wireless segment at a retail company, a security administrator discovers several
devices are connected to the network that do not match the company's naming convention and are not in the
asset inventory. WiFi access is protected with 256-bit encryption via WPA2. Physical access to the company's
facility requires two-factor authentication using a badge and a passcode. Which of the following should the
administrator implement to find and remediate the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Check the SIEM for failed logins to the LDAP directory.

B. Enable MAC filtering on the switches that support the wireless network.
C. Run a vulnerability scan on all the devices in the wireless network.
D. Deploy multifactor authentication for access to the wireless network.
E. Scan the wireless network for rogue access points.
F. Deploy a honeypot on the network.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
An organization has various applications that contain sensitive data hosted in the cloud. The company's leaders
are concerned about lateral movement across applications of different trust levels. Which of the following
solutions should the organization implement to address the concern?

A. ISFW
B. UTM
C. SWG
D. CASB

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is the BEST solution to provide security, manageability, and visibility into
the SaaS and IaaS platforms used by the startup company.

Secure Web Gateway (SWG)

QUESTION 167
A security engineer at an offline government facility is concerned about the validity of an SSL certificate. The
engineer wants to perform the fastest check with the least delay to determine if the certificate has been
revoked. Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. RA
B. OCSP
C. CRL
D. CSR

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

QUESTION 168
A small retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm
caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed
order processing. The business owner now needs to ensure two things:

Protection from power outages

Always-available connectivity in case of an outage

The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment. Which of the following
would BEST fulfill the owner's second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.

B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability.
D. Replace the business's wired network with a wireless network.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 169
A user reports constant lag and performance issues with the wireless network when working at a local coffee
shop. A security analyst walks the user through an installation of Wireshark and gets a five-minute pcap to
analyze. The analyst observes the following output:

Which of the following attacks does the analyst MOST likely see in this packet capture?

A. Session replay
B. Evil twin

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Bluejacking
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 170
Which of the following would be BEST to establish between organizations to define the responsibilities of each
party, outline the key deliverables, and include monetary penalties for breaches to manage third-party risk?

A. An ARO
B. An MOU
C. An SLA
D. A BPA

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171
Users at an organization have been installing programs from the Internet on their workstations without first
receiving proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized
programs. However, some users have administrative access on their workstations to enable legacy programs
to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address
this issue?

A. Application code signing

B. Application whitelisting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 172
A security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy.
The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following
requirements must be met:

Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.

A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).
Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.

Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Choose two.)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Containerization
B. Storage segmentation
C. Posturing
D. Remote wipe
E. Full-device encryption
F. Geofencing

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental
systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the following would BEST address this
security concern?

A. Install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.

B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental systems network.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 174
A security analyst is reviewing information regarding recent vulnerabilities. Which of the following will the
analyst MOST likely consult to validate which platforms have been affected?

A. OSINT
B. SIEM
C. CVSS
D. CVE

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 175
A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external
networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Choose two.)

A. VPN
B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File-level encryption

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

E. USB blocker
F. MFA

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 176
An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN. Most users are remote and connect into a corporate
datacenter that houses confidential information. There is a firewall at the Internet border, followed by a DLP
appliance, the VPN server, and the datacenter itself. Which of the following is the WEAKEST design element?

A. The DLP appliance should be integrated into a NGFW

B. Split-tunnel connections can negatively impact the DLP appliance's performance
C. Encrypted VPN traffic will not be inspected when entering or leaving the network
D. Adding two hops in the VPN tunnel may slow down remote connections

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 177
After consulting with the Chief Risk Officer (CRO), a manager decides to acquire cybersecurity insurance for
the company. Which of the following risk management strategies is the manager adopting?

A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk transference
D. Risk mitigation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 178
A company's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the
company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial opinion article in a national
newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks. Which of the following would be BEST for the security
manager to use in a threat model?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 179
A database administrator needs to ensure all passwords are stored in a secure manner, so the administrator
adds randomly generated data to each password before storing. Which of the following techniques BEST
explains this action?

A. Predictability
B. Key stretching
C. Salting
D. Hashing

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180
The website http://companywebsite.com requires users to provide personal information, including security
question responses, for registration. Which of the following would MOST likely cause a data breach?

A. Lack of input validation

B. Open permissions
C. Unsecure protocol
D. Missing patches

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181
An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security changes
now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources. Which of the following would BEST
maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN?

A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminations closer to end users

B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted
C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand
D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 182
An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network. After performing a port
scan, the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports. Which of the
following BEST describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for replacing
them? (Choose three.)

A. SFTP, FTPS
B. SNMPv2, SNMPv3
C. HTTP, HTTPS
D. TFTP, FTP
E. SNMPv1, SNMPv2
F. Telnet, SSH
G. TLS, SSL
H. POP, IMAP
I. Login, rlogin

Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 183
A security analyst is reviewing output of a web server log and notices a particular account is attempting to
transfer large amounts of money:

Which of the following types of attack is MOST likely being conducted?

A. SQLi
B. CSRF
C. Session replay
D. API

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/csrf#:~:text=Cross%2DSite%20Request%20Forgery%20
(CSRF,which%20they're%20currently%20authenticated.&text=If%20the%20victim%20is%20an,compromise%
20the%20entire%20web%20application

QUESTION 184
A privileged user at a company stole several proprietary documents from a server. The user also went into the
log files and deleted all records of the incident. The systems administrator has just informed investigators that
other log files are available for review. Which of the following did the administrator MOST likely configure that

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

will assist the investigators?

A. Memory dumps
B. The syslog server
C. The application log
D. The log retention policy

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 185
The following are the logs of a successful attack:

Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?

A. Password history
B. Account expiration
C. Password complexity
D. Account lockout

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/a/accolock.htm#:~:text=Account%20lockout%20keeps%20the%
20account,log%20into
%20your%20account%20again

QUESTION 186
A security administrator currently spends a large amount of time on common security tasks, such as report
generation, phishing investigations, and user provisioning and deprovisioning. This prevents the administrator
from spending time on other security projects. The business does not have the budget to add more staff
members. Which of the following should the administrator attempt?

A. DAC
B. ABAC
C. SCAP

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. SOAR

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/SOAR

QUESTION 187
A company just developed a new web application for a government agency. The application must be assessed
and authorized prior to being deployed. Which of the following is required to assess the vulnerabilities resident
in the application?

A. Repository transaction logs

B. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
C. Static code analysis
D. Non-credentialed scans

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 188
A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security
assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file. After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review
the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string. Which of the
following would be BEST to use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. head
B. tcpdump
C. grep
D. tail
E. curl
F. openssl
G. dd

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
grep is used to search

tail looks at the bottom, which would be the FIRST transaction

Reference:
https://science.hamptonu.edu/compsci/docs/iac/packet_sniffing.pdf

QUESTION 189
A company is upgrading its wireless infrastructure to WPA2-Enterprise using EAP-TLS. Which of the following
must be part of the security architecture to achieve AAA? (Choose two.)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. DNSSEC
B. Reverse proxy
C. VPN concentrator
D. PKI
E. Active Directory
F. RADIUS

Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://docs.aerohive.com/330000/docs/guides/EAP-TLS_NPS_RADIUS_Server.pdf

QUESTION 190
A university is opening a facility in a location where there is an elevated risk of theft. The university wants to
protect the desktops in its classrooms and labs. Which of the following should the university use to BEST
protect these assets deployed in the facility?

A. Visitor logs
B. Cable locks
C. Guards
D. Disk encryption
E. Motion detection

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 191
Which of the following BEST describes the MFA attribute that requires a callback on a predefined landline?

A. Something you exhibit

B. Something you can do
C. Something you know
D. Something you are

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 192
A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following
scan types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 193
A worldwide manufacturing company has been experiencing email account compromises. In one incident, a
user logged in from the corporate office in France, but then seconds later, the same user account attempted a
login from Brazil. Which of the following account policies would BEST prevent this type of attack?

A. Network location
B. Impossible travel time
C. Geolocation
D. Geofencing

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 194
A network administrator has been asked to design a solution to improve a company's security posture. The
administrator is given the following requirements:

The solution must be inline in the network.

The solution must be able to block known malicious traffic.
The solution must be able to stop network-based attacks.

Which of the following should the network administrator implement to BEST meet these requirements?

A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 195
A security administrator checks the table of a network switch, which shows the following output:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following is happening to this switch?

A. MAC flooding
B. DNS poisoning
C. MAC cloning
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://cisco.num.edu.mn/CCNA_R&S2/course/module2/2.2.2.1/2.2.2.1.html

QUESTION 196
A critical file server is being upgraded, and the systems administrator must determine which RAID level the new
server will need to achieve parity and handle two simultaneous disk failures. Which of the following RAID levels
meet this requirement?

A. RAID 0+1
B. RAID 2
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.promax.com/blog/the-best-raid-for-performance-and-redundancy

QUESTION 197
A security engineer needs to implement the following requirements:

All Layer 2 switches should leverage Active Directory for authentication.

All Layer 2 switches should use local fallback authentication of Active Directory is offline.
All Layer 2 switches are not the same and are manufactured by several vendors.

Which of the following actions should the engineer take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Implement RADIUS.
B. Configure AAA on the switch with local login as secondary.
C. Configure port security on the switch with the secondary login method.
D. Implement TACACS+.
E. Enable the local firewall on the Active Directory server.
F. Implement a DHCP server.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 198
A security analyst is preparing a threat brief for an upcoming internal penetration test. The analyst needs to
identify a method for determining the tactics, techniques, and procedures of a threat actor against the
organization's network. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to accomplish the objective?

A. A tabletop exercise
B. NIST CSF
C. MITRE ATT&CK
D. OWASP

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://digitalguardian.com/blog/what-mitre-attck-framework

QUESTION 199
A security analyst needs to make a recommendation for restricting access to certain segments of the network
using only data-link layer security. Which of the following controls will the analyst MOST likely recommend?

A. MAC
B. ACL
C. BPDU
D. ARP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200
Which of the following types of controls is a CCTV camera that is not being monitored?

A. Detective
B. Deterrent
C. Physical
D. Preventive

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/detective-control

QUESTION 201
A company is setting up a web server on the Internet that will utilize both encrypted and unencrypted web-
browsing protocols. A security engineer runs a port scan against the server from the Internet and sees the
following output:

Which of the following steps would be best for the security engineer to take NEXT?

A. Allow DNS access from the Internet.

B. Block SMTP access from the Internet.
C. Block HTTPS access from the Internet.
D. Block SSH access from the Internet.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 202
A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of
errors that correlate with users' reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely
indicates the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rate
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/crossover-error-rate#:~:text=Crossover%20error%
20rate%20(CER),accuracy%20of%20a%20biometric%20system

QUESTION 203
A forensics examiner is attempting to dump password cached in the physical memory of a live system but
keeps receiving an error message. Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the error?

A. The examiner does not have administrative privileges to the system.

B. The system must be taken offline before a snapshot can be created.
C. Checksum mismatches are invalidating the disk image.
D. The swap file needs to be unlocked before it can be accessed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204
Which of the following is the BEST reason to maintain a functional and effective asset management policy that
aids in ensuring the security of an organization?

A. To provide data to quantify risk based on the organization's systems

B. To keep all software and hardware fully patched for known vulnerabilities
C. To only allow approved, organization-owned devices onto the business network
D. To standardize by selecting one laptop model for all users in the organization

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 205
A cybersecurity department purchased a new PAM solution. The team is planning to randomize the service
account credentials of the Windows servers first. Which of the following would be the BEST method to
increase the security on the Linux servers?

A. Randomize the shared credentials.

B. Use only guest accounts to connect.
C. Use SSH keys and remove generic passwords.
D. Remove all user accounts.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Use SSH keys and remove generic passwords - better answer because it involves authentication. https://
jumpcloud.com/blog/what-are-ssh-keys

QUESTION 206
Which of the following would cause a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) the MOST concern regarding

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

newly installed Internet-accessible 4K surveillance cameras?

A. An inability to monitor 100% of every facility could expose the company to unnecessary risk.
B. The cameras could be compromised if not patched in a timely manner.
C. Physical security at the facility may not protect the cameras from theft.
D. Exported videos may take up excessive space on the file servers.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 207
Which of the following would BEST identify and remediate a data-loss event in an enterprise using third-party,
web-based services and file-sharing platforms?

A. SIEM
B. CASB
C. UTM
D. EDR

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/casb-cloud-access-security-broker

QUESTION 208
A security analyst receives the configuration of a current VPN profile and notices the authentication is only
applied to the IP datagram portion of the packet. Which of the following should the analyst implement to
authenticate the entire packet?

A. AH
B. ESP
C. SRTP
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/zos/2.2.0?topic=ipsec-ah-esp-protocols

QUESTION 209
During an incident, a company's CIRT determines it is necessary to observe the continued network-based
transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following
techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the
adversary would notice any changes?

A. Physically move the PC to a separate Internet point of presence.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. Create and apply microsegmentation rules.
C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment.
D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 210
An organization's Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to validate the business's involvement in the incident
response plan to ensure its validity and thoroughness.
Which of the following will the CSO MOST likely use?

A. An external security assessment

B. A bug bounty program
C. A tabletop exercise
D. A red-team engagement

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.redlegg.com/solutions/advisory-services/tabletop-exercise-pretty-much-everything-you-need-to-
know

QUESTION 211
Which of the following scenarios would make DNS sinkhole effective in thwarting an attack?

A. An attacker is sniffing traffic to port 53, and the server is managed using unencrypted usernames and
passwords.
B. An organization is experiencing excessive traffic on port 53 and suspects an attacker is trying to DoS the
domain name server.
C. Malware is trying to resolve an unregistered domain name to determine if it is running in an isolated
sandbox.
D. Routing tables have been compromised, and an attacker is rerouting traffic to malicious websites.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DNS sinkhole is an effective method to thwart the attack where routing tables have been compromised and an
attacker is rerouting traffic to malicious websites.

In this scenario, the DNS sinkhole can be configured to block traffic to malicious domains by redirecting it to a
safe IP address. By doing so, the attacker's attempt to reroute traffic to a malicious website is thwarted, as the
sinkhole intercepts and redirects the traffic to a safe location.

DNS sinkhole is not effective with the other options as the attacker is not attempting to manipulate DNS
resolution in these cases.
One scenario - the attacker is sniffing traffic to port 53, which does not involve DNS resolution.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

One scenario - excessive traffic on port 53 could be due to a variety of reasons and not necessarily an attempt
to DoS the domain name server.
One scenario - the malware is trying to resolve an unregistered domain name to determine if it is running in an
isolated sandbox, and this does not involve an attack on the DNS resolution process.

QUESTION 212
Which of the following provides the BEST protection for sensitive information and data stored in cloud-based
services but still allows for full functionality and searchability of data within the cloud-based services?

A. Data encryption
B. Data masking
C. Anonymization
D. Tokenization

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.mcafee.com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/cloud/tokenization-vs-encryption.html

QUESTION 213
An attacker is trying to gain access by installing malware on a website that is known to be visited by the target
victims. Which of the following is the attacker MOST likely attempting?

A. A spear-phishing attack
B. A watering-hole attack
C. Typo squatting
D. A phishing attack

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Sybex ebook pg 69

QUESTION 214
A network engineer needs to create a plan for upgrading the wireless infrastructure in a large office. Priority
must be given to areas that are currently experiencing latency and connection issues. Which of the following
would be the BEST resource for determining the order of priority?

A. Nmap
B. Heat maps
C. Network diagrams
D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 215

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A company has three technicians who share the same credentials for troubleshooting system. Every time
credentials are changed, the new ones are sent by email to all three technicians. The security administrator has
become aware of this situation and wants to implement a solution to mitigate the risk. Which of the following is
the BEST solution for company to implement?

A. SSO authentication
B. SSH keys
C. OAuth authentication
D. Password vaults

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

QUESTION 216
A security analyst sees the following log output while reviewing web logs:

Which of the following mitigation strategies would be BEST to prevent this attack from being successful?

A. Secure cookies
B. Input validation
C. Code signing
D. Stored procedures

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 217
When used at design stage, which of the following improves the efficiency, accuracy, and speed of a database?

A. Tokenization
B. Data masking
C. Normalization
D. Obfuscation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=30646

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 218
A company has determined that if its computer-based manufacturing machinery is not functioning for 12
consecutive hours, it will lose more money than it costs to maintain the equipment. Which of the following must
be less than 12 hours maintain a positive total cost of ownership?

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. MTTR

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.fiixsoftware.com/mean-time-between-fail-maintenance/

QUESTION 219
A security analyst discovers several .jpg photos from a cellular phone during a forensics investigation involving
a compromised system. The analyst runs a forensics tool to gather file metadata.
Which of the following would be part of the images if all the metadata is still intact?

A. The GPS location

B. When the file was deleted
C. The total number of print jobs
D. The number of copies made

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

Exif (exchangeable image file format) is basically a standard used by devices which handle images and audio
files, such as video recorder, smartphone cameras etc., It contains data like the image resolution, the camera
used, color type, compression etc. Most of the smartphones today contain a camera, a GPS (global positioning
system) device, and internet connectivity. In many of the smartphones when we click a picture it automatically
tracks our geolocation using the GPS device and embeds that information into the picture just clicked. We
being active on social networks share these pictures with the whole world.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/exchangeable-image-file-format

QUESTION 220
A company has decided to move its operations to the cloud. It wants to utilize technology that will prevent users
from downloading company applications for personal use, restrict data that is uploaded, and have visibility into
which applications are being used across the company. Which of the following solutions will BEST meet these
requirements?

A. An NGFW
B. A CASB
C. Application whitelisting
D. An NG-SWG

Correct Answer: C

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 221
A large enterprise has moved all its data to the cloud behind strong authentication and encryption. A sales
director recently had a laptop stolen, and later enterprise data was found to have been compromised from a
local database. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause?

A. Shadow IT
B. Credential stuffing
C. SQL injection
D. Man in the browser
E. Bluejacking

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 222
A security analyst needs to complete an assessment. The analyst is logged into a server and must use native
tools to map services running on it to the server's listening ports. Which of the following tools can BEST
accomplish this task?

A. Netcat
B. Netstat
C. Nmap
D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://techtalk.gfi.com/scan-open-ports-in-windows-a-quick-guide/

QUESTION 223
Which of the following environments minimizes end-user disruption and MOST likely to be used to assess the
impacts of any database migrations or major system changes by using the final version of the code?

A. Staging
B. Test
C. Production
D. Development

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Reference:
https://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/definition/staging-environment#:~:text=A%20staging%
20environment%20(stage)%20is,like%20environment%20before%20application%20deployment

QUESTION 224
An attacker is attempting to exploit users by creating a fake website with the URL www.validwebsite.com. The
attacker's intent is to imitate the look and feel of a legitimate website to obtain personal information from
unsuspecting users. Which of the following social-engineering attacks does this describe?

A. Information elicitation
B. Typo squatting
C. Impersonation
D. Watering-hole attack

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

QUESTION 225
A security operations analyst is using the company's SIEM solution to correlate alerts. Which of the following
stages of the incident response process is this an example of?

A. Eradiction
B. Recovery
C. Identification
D. Preparation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://digitalguardian.com/blog/five-steps-incident-response

QUESTION 226
To reduce and overhead, an organization wants to move from an on-premises email solution to a cloud-based
email solution. At this time, no other services will be moving. Which of the following cloud models would BEST
meet the needs of the organization?

A. MaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://rubygarage.org/blog/iaas-vs-paas-vs-saas#:~:text=In%20fact%2C%20email%20services%

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

20such,Pod)%2C%20and%20so%20on

QUESTION 227
A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output:

Which of the following is the analyst observing?

A. ICMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
the same physical address is listed for multiple IP addresses

QUESTION 228
A security analyst is reviewing logs on a server and observes the following output:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following is the security analyst observing?

A. A rainbow table attack

B. A password-spraying attack
C. A dictionary attack
D. A keylogger attack

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/brute-force-attack/

QUESTION 229
A symmetric encryption algorithm is BEST suited for:

A. key-exchange scalability.
B. protecting large amounts of data.
C. providing hashing capabilities.
D. implementing non-repudiation.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.thesslstore.com/blog/symmetric-encryption-algorithms/

QUESTION 230
An engineer wants to access sensitive data from a corporate-owned mobile device. Personal data is not
allowed on the device. Which of the following MDM configurations must be considered when the engineer
travels for business?

A. Screen locks
B. Application management
C. Geofencing
D. Containerization

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 231
An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to facilitate penetration testing on its network and applications.
The firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability that is discovered. Which of the following BEST represents the
type of testing that is being used?

A. White-box
B. Red-team
C. Bug bounty
D. Gray-box
E. Black-box

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bug_bounty_program

QUESTION 232
An organization blocks user access to command-line interpreters, but hackers still managed to invoke the
interpreters using native administrative tools. Which of the following should the security team do to prevent this
from happening in the future?

A. Implement HIPS to block inbound and outbound SMB ports 139 and 445.
B. Trigger a SIEM alert whenever the native OS tools are executed by the user.
C. Disable the built-in OS utilities as long as they are not needed for functionality.
D. Configure the AV to quarantine the native OS tools whenever they are executed.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Disabling the built-in OS utilities that are not needed for functionality can help prevent attackers from accessing
and using these tools to exploit vulnerabilities or perform malicious activities on the systems. This approach can
reduce the attack surface and minimize the risk of unauthorized access to the organization's sensitive
information. The security team should also monitor the systems regularly to detect any unauthorized access
attempts and respond promptly to any security incidents.

QUESTION 233
A manufacturing company has several one-off legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a newer
OS due to software compatibility issues. The OSs are still supported by the vendor, but the industrial software is
no longer supported. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has created a resiliency plan for these
systems that will allow OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment, while also creating backups
of the systems for recovery. Which of the following resiliency techniques will provide these capabilities?

A. Redundancy
B. RAID 1+5
C. Virtual machines
D. Full backups

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 234
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server TMs
certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 235
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address.
The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security
analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 236
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their
employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be
implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?

A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:
http://archive.oreilly.com/pub/a/wireless/2005/01/01/authentication.html

QUESTION 237
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor
diversity?

A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 238
In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has
requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand.
Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

A. Elasticity
B. Scalability
C. High availability
D. Redundancy

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Elasticity is defined as the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by provisioning and
de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each
point in time the available resources match the current demand as closely as possible

QUESTION 239
A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a
form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the
following certificate formats should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format?

A. PFX
B. PEM
C. DER
D. CER

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 240

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?

A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.netscout.com/what-is-ddos

QUESTION 241
A root cause analysis reveals that a web application outage was caused by one of the company's developers
uploading a newer version of the third-party libraries that were shared among several
applications. Which of the following implementations would be BEST to prevent the issue from recurring?

A. CASB
B. SWG
C. Containerization
D. Automated failover

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 242
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the
following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Autopsy
D. DNSEnum

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 243
A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of the
following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media?

A. Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs

B. Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy
C. Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files
D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 244
A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After determining it
is not a routing or DNS issue, the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the
following output:

Which of the following is the router experiencing?

A. DDoS attack
B. Memory leak
C. Buffer overflow
D. Resource exhaustion

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 245
A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The
company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When
configuring the MDM, which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device
approach?

A. The most common set of MDM configurations will become the effective set of enterprise mobile security
controls.
B. All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen
architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries.
C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address
the delta between device vendors.
D. MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need to be
installed and configured.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 246
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?

A. SED
B. HSM
C. DLP
D. TPM

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 247
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only
used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following
application log:

Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?

A. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.

B. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
C. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the
application.
D. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 248
In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation?

A. A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application.
B. A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a natural
disaster.
C. A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department and
the information technology department.
D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to
monitor, not block, any traffic.
E. A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 249
The IT department's on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is
released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the
following would BEST help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?

A. Limit the use of third-party libraries.

B. Prevent data exposure queries.
C. Obfuscate the source code.
D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 250
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users'
passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 251
An analyst needs to identify the applications a user was running and the files that were open before the user's
computer was shut off by holding down the power button. Which of the following would MOST likely contain that
information?

A. NGFW
B. Pagefile
C. NetFlow
D. RAM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 252
A remote user recently took a two-week vacation abroad and brought along a corporate-owned laptop. Upon
returning to work, the user has been unable to connect the laptop to the VPN. Which of
the following is the MOST likely reason for the user's inability to connect the laptop to the VPN?

A. Due to foreign travel, the user's laptop was isolated from the network.
B. The user's laptop was quarantined because it missed the latest path update.
C. The VPN client was blacklisted.
D. The user's account was put on a legal hold.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 253
In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed?

A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Blockchain

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 254
To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users' credentials.
Which of the following will BEST ensure the site's users are not compromised after the reset?

A. A password reuse policy

B. Account lockout after three failed attempts
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
D. A geofencing policy based on login history

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 255
In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Mitigation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 256
An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal
electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the
organization determine to be the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this policy?

A. The theft of portable electronic devices

B. Geotagging in the metadata of images
C. Bluesnarfing of mobile devices
D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 257
A security analyst is using a recently released security advisory to review historical logs, looking for the specific
activity that was outlined in the advisory. Which of the following is the analyst doing?

A. A packet capture
B. A user behavior analysis
C. Threat hunting
D. Credentialed vulnerability scanning

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 258
Which of the following would MOST likely support the integrity of a voting machine?

A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Blockchain
C. Transport Layer Security
D. Perfect forward secrecy

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 259
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards for
data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand
before writing the policies?

A. PCI DSS
B. GDPR
C. NIST
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 260
The IT department at a university is concerned about professors placing servers on the university network in an
attempt to bypass security controls. Which of the following BEST represents this type of threat?

A. A script kiddie
B. Shadow IT
C. Hacktivism
D. White-hat

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 261
A security administrator is analyzing the corporate wireless network. The network only has two access points
running on channels 1 and 11. While using airodump-ng. the administrator notices other access points are
running with the same corporate ESSID on all available channels and with the same BSSID of one of the
legitimate access points. Which of the following attacks is happening on the corporate network?

A. Man in the middle

B. Evil twin
C. Jamming
D. Rogue access point
E. Disassociation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evil_twin_(wireless_networks)

QUESTION 262
Which of the following BEST describes a social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested?

A. Whaling
B. Spam
C. Invoice scam
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.mpa.com/blog?p=types-of-phishing-attacks-whaling-deceptive-pharming-190525#:~:text=Whaling
%20is%20the%20act% .
20of,to%20high%2Dlevel%20company%20information.&text=Pharming%20is%20a%20method%20of,traffic%
20to%20a%20fake%20site

QUESTION 263
A major political party experienced a server breach. The hacker then publicly posted stolen internal
communications concerning campaign strategies to give the opposition party an advantage. Which of the
following BEST describes these threat actors?

A. Semi-authorized hackers
B. State actors
C. Script kiddies
D. Advanced persistent threats

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.baesystems.com/en/cybersecurity/feature/the-nation-state-actor#:~:text=The%20Nation%20State
%20Actor%20has% .
20a%20'Licence%20to%20Hack'.,incidents%20that%20have%20international%20significance

QUESTION 264
Which of the following BEST describes the method a security analyst would use to confirm a file that is
downloaded from a trusted security website is not altered in transit or corrupted using a verified checksum?

A. Hashing
B. Salting
C. Integrity
D. Digital signature

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 265
Which of the following would satisfy three-factor authentication?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Password, retina scanner, and NFC card
B. Password, fingerprint scanner, and retina scanner
C. Password, hard token, and NFC card
D. Fingerprint scanner, hard token, and retina scanner

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 266
The human resources department of a large online retailer has received multiple customer complaints about
the rudeness of the automated chatbots it uses to interface and assist online shoppers. The system, which
continuously learns and adapts, was working fine when it was installed a few months ago. Which of the
following BEST describes the method being used to exploit the system?

A. Baseline modification
B. A fileless virus
C. Tainted training data
D. Cryptographic manipulation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
?

QUESTION 267
While reviewing the wireless router, a systems administrator of a small business determines someone is
spoofing the MAC address of an authorized device.

Given the table below:

Which of the following should be the administrator's NEXT step to detect if there is a rogue system without
impacting availability?

A. Conduct a ping sweep.

B. Physically check each system.
C. Deny Internet access to the ?€UNKNOWN ?€ hostname.
D. Apply MAC filtering.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 268
An organization that has a large number of mobile devices is exploring enhanced security controls to manage
unauthorized access if a device is lost or stolen. Specifically, if mobile devices are more than 3mi (4.8km) from
the building, the management team would like to have the security team alerted and server resources restricted
on those devices. Which of the following controls should the organization implement?

A. Geofencing
B. Lockout
C. Near-field communication
D. GPS tagging

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.npws.net/blog/attract-customers-with-beacons-geotagging-geofencing/#:~:text=Geo%2Dtagging%
3A%20The%20method% .
20consists,for%20a%20promotion%20or%20coupon

QUESTION 269
A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over
SSL. Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?

A. A reverse proxy
B. A decryption certificate
C. A split-tunnel VPN
D. Load-balanced servers

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
?

QUESTION 270
When implementing automation with IoT devices, which of the following should be considered FIRST to keep
the network secure?

A. Z-Wave compatibility
B. Network range
C. Zigbee configuration
D. Communication protocols

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 271
A security researcher is attempting to gather data on the widespread use of a zero-day exploit. Which of the
following will the researcher MOST likely use to capture this data?

A. A DNS sinkhole
B. A honeypot
C. A vulnerability scan
D. CVSS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 272
A systems administrator needs to install the same X.509 certificate on multiple servers. Which of the following
should the administrator use?

A. Key escrow
B. A self-signed certificate
C. Certificate chaining
D. An extended validation certificate

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 273
After a hardware incident, an unplanned emergency maintenance activity was conducted to rectify the issue.
Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during this period of time. Which of the following BEST explains
what happened?

A. The unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules, generating multiple alerts.
B. Multiple alerts were generated due to an attack occurring at the same time
C. An error in the correlation rules triggered multiple alerts.
D. The SIEM was unable to correlate the rules, triggering the alerts.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
?

QUESTION 274
Which of the following is a risk that is specifically associated with hosting applications in the public cloud?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Unsecured root accounts
B. Zero-day
C. Shared tenancy
D. Insider threat

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 275
A security analyst has been reading about a newly discovered cyberattack from a known threat actor. Which of
the following would BEST support the analyst's review of the tactics, techniques, and protocols the threat actor
was observed using in previous campaigns?

A. Security research publications

B. The MITRE ATT&CK framework
C. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
D. The Cyber Kill Chain

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.rapid7.com/fundamentals/mitre-attack/

QUESTION 276
An incident, which is affecting dozens of systems, involves malware that reaches out to an Internet service for
rules and updates. The IP addresses for the Internet host appear to be different in each case. The organization
would like to determine a common IoC to support response and recovery actions. Which of the following
sources of information would BEST support this solution?

A. Web log files

B. Browser cache
C. DNS query logs
D. Antivirus

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 277
Which of the following cryptographic concepts would a security engineer utilize while implementing non-
repudiation? (Choose two.)

A. Block cipher
B. Hashing
C. Private key

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Perfect forward secrecy
E. Salting
F. Symmetric keys

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 278
A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random inputs without
crashing. Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?

A. Code signing
B. Fuzzing
C. Manual code review
D. Dynamic code analysis

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 279
A security analyst is reviewing a penetration-testing report from a third-party contractor. The penetration testers
used the organization's new API to bypass a driver to perform privilege escalation on the organization's web
servers. Upon looking at the API, the security analyst realizes the particular API call was to a legacy system
running an outdated OS. Which of the following is the MOST likely attack type?

A. Request forgery
B. Session replay
C. DLL injection
D. Shimming

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 280
Entering a secure area requires passing through two doors, both of which require someone who is already
inside to initiate access. Which of the following types of physical security controls does this describe?

A. Cameras
B. Faraday cage
C. Access control vestibule
D. Sensors
E. Guards

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 281
The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is BEST known as:

A. federation.
B. a remote access policy.
C. multifactor authentication.
D. single sign-on.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.okta.com/identity-101/federated-identity-vs-sso/#:~:text=The%20key%20difference%20between%
20SSO,of% 20applications%20across%20various%20enterprises

QUESTION 282
Which of the following should a technician consider when selecting an encryption method for data that needs to
remain confidential for a specific length of time?

A. The key length of the encryption algorithm

B. The encryption algorithm's longevity
C. A method of introducing entropy into key calculations
D. The computational overhead of calculating the encryption key

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 283
Which of the following types of attacks is specific to the individual it targets?

A. Whaling
B. Pharming
C. Smishing
D. Credential harvesting

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 284

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Several large orders of merchandise were recently purchased on an e-commerce company's website. The
totals for each of the transactions were negative values, resulting in credits on the customers' accounts. Which
of the following should be implemented to prevent similar situations in the future?

A. Ensure input validation is in place to prevent the use of invalid characters and values.
B. Calculate all possible values to be added together and ensure the use of the proper integer in the code.
C. Configure the web application firewall to look for and block session replay attacks.
D. Make sure transactions that are submitted within very short time periods are prevented from being
processed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 285
A security engineer obtained the following output from a threat intelligence source that recently performed an
attack on the company's server:

Which of the following BEST describes this kind of attack?

A. Directory traversal
B. SQL injection
C. API
D. Request forgery

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 286
After installing a Windows server, a cybersecurity administrator needs to harden it, following security best
practices. Which of the following will achieve the administrator's goal?
(Choose two.)

A. Disabling guest accounts

B. Disabling service accounts
C. Enabling network sharing
D. Disabling NetBIOS over TCP/IP
E. Storing LAN manager hash values
F. Enabling NTLM

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 287
A web server administrator has redundant servers and needs to ensure failover to the secondary server when
the primary server goes down. Which of the following should the administrator implement to avoid disruption?

A. NIC teaming
B. High availability
C. Dual power supply
D. IaaS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 288
After a phishing scam for a user's credentials, the red team was able to craft a payload to deploy on a server.
The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session. Which of the
following types of attacks has occurred?

A. Privilege escalation
B. Session replay
C. Application programming interface
D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 289
If a current private key is compromised, which of the following would ensure it cannot be used to decrypt all
historical data?

A. Perfect forward secrecy

B. Elliptic-curve cryptography
C. Key stretching
D. Homomorphic encryption

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://avinetworks.com/glossary/perfect-forward-secrecy/#:~:text=Perfect%20Forward%20Secrecy%20

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

(PFS)%2C,of%20sensitive% 20data%20is%20exposed

QUESTION 290
Following a prolonged datacenter outage that affected web-based sales, a company has decided to move its
operations to a private cloud solution. The security team has received the following requirements:

There must be visibility into how teams are using cloud-based services.
The company must be able to identify when data related to payment cards is being sent to the cloud.
Data must be available regardless of the end user's geographic location.
Administrators need a single pane-of-glass view into traffic and trends.

Which of the following should the security analyst recommend?

A. Create firewall rules to restrict traffic to other cloud service providers.

B. Install a DLP solution to monitor data in transit.
C. Implement a CASB solution.
D. Configure a web-based content filter.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
?

QUESTION 291
Which of the following is the MOST secure but LEAST expensive data destruction method for data that is
stored on hard drives?

A. Pulverizing
B. Shredding
C. Incinerating
D. Degaussing

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.protondata.com/blog/data-security/what-is-degaussing/#:~:text=The%20National%20Security%
20Agency%20has,from% .
20a%20piece%20of%20technology.&text=While%20degaussing%20is%20the%20only,data%20erasure%
20methods%20with%20crushing

QUESTION 292
Which of the following should a data owner require all personnel to sign to legally protect intellectual property?

A. An NDA
B. An AUP
C. An ISA
D. An MOU

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 293
A new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems was recently discovered, but no patches are
currently available to resolve the issue. The security administrator is concerned that servers in the company's
DMZ will be vulnerable to external attack; however, the administrator cannot disable the service on the servers,
as SMB is used by a number of internal systems and applications on the LAN. Which of the following TCP ports
should be blocked for all external inbound connections to the DMZ as a workaround to protect the servers?
(Choose two.)

A. 135
B. 139
C. 143
D. 161
E. 443
F. 445

Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Reference:

https://www.varonis.com/blog/smb-port/#:~:text=SMB%20uses%20either%20IP%20port,top%20of%20a%
20TCP%20stack

QUESTION 294
An enterprise needs to keep cryptographic keys in a safe manner. Which of the following network appliances
can achieve this goal?

A. HSM
B. CASB
C. TPM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/hardware-security-module-HSM

QUESTION 295
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is dissatisfied with the level of service from the company's new service
provider. The service provider is preventing the CEO from sending email from a work account to a personal
account. Which of the following types of service providers is being used?

A. Telecommunications service provider

B. Cloud service provider
C. Master managed service provider
D. Managed security service provider

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 296
During an incident, an EDR system detects an increase in the number of encrypted outbound connections from
multiple hosts. A firewall is also reporting an increase in outbound connections that use random high ports. An
analyst plans to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. Which of the following tools will
BEST assist the analyst?

A. A vulnerability scanner
B. A NGFW
C. The Windows Event Viewer
D. A SIEM

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 297
Which of the following distributes data among nodes, making it more difficult to manipulate the data while also
minimizing downtime?

A. MSSP
B. Public cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Fog computing

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 298
Ann, a forensic analyst, needs to prove that the data she originally acquired has remained unchanged while in
her custody. Which of the following should Ann use?

A. Chain of custody
B. Checksums
C. Non-repudiation
D. Legal hold

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 299
An organization's RPO for a critical system is two hours. The system is used Monday through Friday, from 9:00
a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Currently, the organization performs a full backup every Saturday that takes four hours to
complete. Which of the following additional backup implementations would be the MOST efficient way for the
analyst to meet the business requirements?

A. Incremental backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m. and differential backups hourly
B. Full backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m. and incremental backups hourly
C. Incremental backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m. and full backups hourly
D. Full backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m. and differential backups hourly

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 300
Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to be motivated by ideology?

A. Business competitor
B. Hacktivist
C. Criminal syndicate
D. Script kiddie
E. Disgruntled employee

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.redlegg.com/blog/cyber-threat-actor-types

QUESTION 301
An analyst needs to set up a method for securely transferring files between systems. One of the requirements
is to authenticate the IP header and the payload. Which of the following services would BEST meet the criteria?

A. TLS
B. PFS
C. ESP
D. AH

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/transport-layer-security

QUESTION 302
A network administrator is concerned about users being exposed to malicious content when accessing

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

company cloud applications. The administrator wants to be able to block access to sites based on the AUP.
The users must also be protected because many of them work from home or at remote locations, providing on-
site customer support. Which of the following should the administrator employ to meet these criteria?

A. Implement NAC.
B. Implement an SWG.
C. Implement a URL filter.
D. Implement an MDM.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 303
A security administrator needs to inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII, credit card
data, and classification words. Which of the following would be the BEST to use?

A. IDS solution
B. EDR solution
C. HIPS software solution
D. Network DLP solution

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 304
A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the
boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted. Which of the following resiliency techniques
was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 305
An organization recently acquired an ISO 27001 certification. Which of the following would MOST likely be
considered a benefit of this certification?

A. It allows for the sharing of digital forensics data across organizations.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. It provides insurance in case of a data breach.
C. It provides complimentary training and certification resources to IT security staff.
D. It certifies the organization can work with foreign entities that require a security clearance.
E. It assures customers that the organization meets security standards.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.iso.org/standard/54534.html

QUESTION 306
A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following
BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration

B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 307
Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?

A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases
insurance and is no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.
B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy
to train users on a more secure method of operation.
C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company performs regular
audits to determine if violations have occurred.
D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer
decides to sign off on the risk.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 308
A company just implemented a new telework policy that allows employees to use personal devices for official
email and file sharing while working from home. Some of the requirements are:

Employees must provide an alternate work location (i.e., a home address).

Employees must install software on the device that will prevent the loss of proprietary data but will not
restrict any other software from being installed.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Which of the following BEST describes the MDM options the company is using?

A. Geofencing, content management, remote wipe, containerization, and storage segmentation

B. Content management, remote wipe, geolocation, context-aware authentication, and containerization
C. Application management, remote wipe, geofencing, context-aware authentication, and containerization
D. Remote wipe, geolocation, screen locks, storage segmentation, and full-device encryption

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 309
An organization would like to remediate the risk associated with its cloud service provider not meeting its
advertised 99.999% availability metrics. Which of the following should the organization consult for the exact
requirements for the cloud provider?

A. SLA
B. BPA
C. NDA
D. MOU

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 310
A company is implementing a new SIEM to log and send alerts whenever malicious activity is blocked by its
antivirus and web content filters. Which of the following is the primary use case for this scenario?

A. Implementation of preventive controls

B. Implementation of detective controls
C. Implementation of deterrent controls
D. Implementation of corrective controls

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 311
A user must introduce a password and a USB key to authenticate against a secure computer, and
authentication is limited to the state in which the company resides. Which of the following authentication
concepts are in use?

A. Something you know, something you have, and somewhere you are
B. Something you know, something you can do, and somewhere you are
C. Something you are, something you know, and something you can exhibit

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Something you have, somewhere you are, and someone you know

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 312
A global company is experiencing unauthorized logins due to credential theft and account lockouts caused by
brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third-party identity provider to help mitigate
these attacks. Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective
vendors?

A. IP restrictions
B. Multifactor authentication
C. A banned password list
D. A complex password policy

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 313
A systems administrator is considering different backup solutions for the IT infrastructure. The company is
looking for a solution that offers the fastest recovery time while also saving the most amount of storage used to
maintain the backups. Which of the following recovery solutions would be the BEST option to meet these
requirements?

A. Snapshot
B. Differential
C. Full
D. Tape

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://aceits.net/types-of-backup-and-what-data-should-be-backed-up/

QUESTION 314
The lessons-learned analysis from a recent incident reveals that an administrative office worker received a call
from someone claiming to be from technical support. The caller convinced the office worker to visit a website,
and then download and install a program masquerading as an antivirus package. The program was actually a
backdoor that an attacker could later use to remote control the worker's PC. Which of the following would be
BEST to help prevent this type of attack in the future?

A. Data loss prevention

B. Segmentation
C. Application whitelisting

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Quarantine

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 315
Which of the following environments would MOST likely be used to assess the execution of component parts of
a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics?

A. Test
B. Staging
C. Development
D. Production

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 316
An organization regularly scans its infrastructure for missing security patches but is concerned about hackers
gaining access to the scanner's account. Which of the following would be BEST to minimize this risk while
ensuring the scans are useful?

A. Require a complex, eight-character password that is updated every 90 days.

B. Perform only non-intrusive scans of workstations.
C. Use non-credentialed scans against high-risk servers.
D. Log and alert on unusual scanner account logon times.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 317
A security analyst wants to verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic. Which
of the following should the analyst use?

A. openssl
B. hping
C. netcat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 318
A multinational organization that offers web-based services has datacenters that are located only in the United
States; however, a large number of its customers are in Australia, Europe, and China. Payments for services
are managed by a third party in the United Kingdom that specializes in payment gateways. The management
team is concerned the organization is not compliant with privacy laws that cover some of its customers. Which
of the following frameworks should the management team follow?

A. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard

B. Cloud Security Alliance Best Practices
C. ISO/IEC 27032 Cybersecurity Guidelines
D. General Data Protection Regulation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 319
Which of the following is the correct order of volatility from MOST to LEAST volatile?

A. Memory, temporary filesystems, routing tables, disk, network storage

B. Cache, memory, temporary filesystems, disk, archival media
C. Memory, disk, temporary filesystems, cache, archival media
D. Cache, disk, temporary filesystems, network storage, archival media

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 320
After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments. Which
of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?

A. A DMZ
B. A VPN
C. A VLAN
D. An ACL

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 321
Which of the following would be BEST for a technician to review to determine the total risk an organization can
bear when assessing a "cloudfirst" adoption strategy?

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A. Risk matrix
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk register
D. Risk appetite

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Risk appetite would be the BEST for a technician to review to determine the total risk an organization can bear
when assessing a cloud-first adoption strategy.

Risk appetite refers to the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals and
objectives. It defines the organization's threshold for accepting risks and provides a basis for risk management
decisions. In the context of cloud-first adoption, reviewing the risk appetite will help the technician understand
the organization's tolerance for potential security, privacy, data loss, or other risks associated with moving to a
cloud-based infrastructure. With this understanding, the technician can prioritize and implement the appropriate
security measures to minimize the risks to an acceptable level.

QUESTION 322
A bank detects fraudulent activity on user's account. The user confirms transactions completed yesterday on
the bank's website at https:/www.company.com. A security analyst then examines the user's Internet usage
logs and observes the following output:

Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. Replay attack
B. SQL injection
C. SSL stripping
D. Race conditions

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 323
An organization plans to transition the intrusion detection and prevention techniques on a critical subnet to an
anomaly-based system. Which of the following does the organization need to determine for this to be
successful?

A. The baseline
B. The endpoint configurations

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

C. The adversary behavior profiles
D. The IPS signatures

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 324
A developer is building a new portal to deliver single-pane-of-glass management capabilities to customers with
multiple firewalls. To improve the user experience, the developer wants to implement an authentication and
authorization standard that uses security tokens that contain assertions to pass user information between
nodes. Which of the following roles should the developer configure to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Identity processor
B. Service requestor
C. Identity provider
D. Service provider
E. Tokenized resource
F. Notarized referral

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 325
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the volume and integrity of sensitive information that is
exchanged between the organization and a third party through email. The CSO is particularly concerned about
an unauthorized party who is intercepting information that is in transit between the two organizations. Which of
the following would address the CSO's concerns?

A. SPF
B. DMARC
C. SSL
D. DKIM
E. TLS

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) is a protocol that allows an organization to take responsibility for
transmitting a message by signing it in a way that mailbox providers can verify. DKIM record verification is
made possible through cryptographic authentication.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) encrypts data sent over the Internet to ensure that eavesdroppers and hackers
are unable to see what you transmit which is particularly useful for private and sensitive information such as
passwords, credit card numbers, and personal correspondence

QUESTION 326

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Despite having implemented password policies, users continue to set the same weak passwords and reuse old
passwords. Which of the following technical controls would help prevent these policy violations? (Choose two.)

A. Password expiration
B. Password length
C. Password complexity
D. Password history
E. Password lockout

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 327
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from an IPS:

Given this output, which of the following can be concluded? (Choose two.)

A. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.22.

B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71.
C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert.
D. The attacker sent a malformed TCP packet, triggering the alert.
E. The TTL value is outside of the expected range, triggering the alert.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 328
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Shared

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

D. Session

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/key-escrow-3/

QUESTION 329
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's
certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 330
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address.
The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security
analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 331
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their
employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the
organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?

A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
http://archive.oreilly.com/pub/a/wireless/2005/01/01/authentication.html

QUESTION 332
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor
diversity?

A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 333
In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has
requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following
characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

A. Elasticity
B. Scalability
C. High availability
D. Redundancy

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by provisioning Elasticity is defined as and
de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each point in time the available resources
match the current demand as closely as possible

QUESTION 334
A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a
form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the following certificate formats
should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format?

A. PFX
B. PEM
C. DER
D. CER

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

QUESTION 335
Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?

A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.netscout.com/what-is-ddos

QUESTION 336
A security analyst is hardening a server with the directory services role installed. The analyst must ensure
LDAP traffic cannot be monitored or sniffed and maintains compatibility with LDAP clients. Which of the
following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA.

B. Install and configure an SSH tunnel on the LDAP server.
C. Ensure port 389 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
D. Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
E. Remote the LDAP directory service role from the server.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 337
Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company's proprietary information to gain a
market edge and reduce time to market?

A. Competitor
B. Hacktivist
C. Insider
D. Organized crime.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 338
A penetration tester is crawling a target website that is available to the public. Which of the following represents
the actions the penetration tester is performing?

A. URL hijacking

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. Reconnaissance
C. White box testing
D. Escalation of privilege

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 339
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Choose
two.)

A. Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.

B. Rainbow tables must include precomputed hashes.
C. Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D. Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 340
Which of the following best describes routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed
from a string?

A. Error handling to protect against program exploitation ·

B. Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks.
C. Input validation to protect against SQL injection.
D. Padding to protect against string buffer overflows.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 341
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all traffic to the FTP server is
unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modern FTP client software. The security
analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of
the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.

B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 342
Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their
customers to download over the Internet?

A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.

B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch.
C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value.
D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 343
Refer to the following code:

Which of the following vulnerabilities would occur if this is executed?

A. Page exception
B. Pointer deference
C. NullPointerException
D. Missing null check

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 344
Multiple employees receive an email with a malicious attachment that begins to encrypt their hard drives and
mapped shares on their devices when it is opened. The network and security teams perform the following
actions:

Shut down all network shares.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Run an email search identifying all employees who received the malicious message.
Reimage all devices belonging to users who opened the attachment.
Next, the teams want to re-enable the network shares.

Which of the following BEST describes this phase of the incident response process?

A. Eradication
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Lessons learned

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 345
An organization has determined it can tolerate a maximum of three hours of downtime. Which of the following
has been specified?

A. RTO
B. RPO
C. MTBF
D. MTTR

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 346
Which of the following types of cloud infrastructures would allow several organizations with similar structures
and interests to realize the benefits of shared storage and resources?

A. Private
B. Hybrid
C. Public
D. Community

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 347
A company is currently using the following configuration:

IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP

Unencrypted authentication via PAP

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:
PAP authentication method
PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication

Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Choose two.)

A. PAP
B. PEAP
C. MSCHAP
D. PEAP- MSCHAP
E. EAP
F. EAP-PEAP

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 348
An auditor wants to test the security posture of an organization by running a tool that will display the following:

Which of the following commands should be used?

A. nbtstat
B. nc
C. arp
D. ipconfig

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 349
A company determines that it is prohibitively expensive to become compliant with new credit card regulations.
Instead, the company decides to purchase insurance to cover the cost of any potential loss. Which of the
following is the company doing?

A. Transferring the risk

B. Accepting the risk
C. Avoiding the risk
D. Migrating the risk

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 350
A company is using a mobile device deployment model in which employees use their personal devices for work
at their own discretion. Some of the problems the company is encountering include the following:

There is no standardization.
Employees ask for reimbursement for their devices.
Employees do not replace their devices often enough to keep them running efficiently.

The company does not have enough control over the devices. Which of the following is a deployment model
that would help the company overcome these problems?

A. BYOD
B. VDI
C. COPE
D. CYOD

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 351
A botnet has hit a popular website with a massive number of GRE-encapsulated packets to perform a DDoS
attack. News outlets discover a certain type of refrigerator was exploited and used to send outbound packets to
the website that crashed. To which of the following categories does the refrigerator belong?

A. SoC
B. ICS
C. IoT
D. MFD

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 352
Users report the following message appears when browsing to the company's secure site: This website cannot
be trusted. Which of the following actions should a security analyst take to resolve these messages? (Choose
two.)

A. Verify the certificate has not expired on the server.

B. Ensure the certificate has a .pfx extension on the server.
C. Update the root certificate into the client computer certificate store.
D. Install the updated private key on the web server.

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

E. Have users clear their browsing history and relaunch the session.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 353
When trying to log onto a company's new ticketing system, some employees receive the following message:
Access denied: too many concurrent sessions. The ticketing system was recently installed on a small VM with
only the recommended hardware specifications. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error
message?

A. Network resources have been exceeded.

B. The software is out of licenses.
C. The VM does not have enough processing power.
D. The firewall is misconfigured.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 354
Joe, an employee, wants to show his colleagues how much he knows about smartphones. Joe demonstrates a
free movie application that he installed from a third party on his corporate smartphone. Joe's colleagues were
unable to find the application in the app stores. Which of the following allowed Joe to install the application?
(Choose two.)

A. Near-field communication.
B. Rooting/jailbreaking
C. Ad-hoc connections
D. Tethering
E. Sideloading

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 355
Which of the following can be provided to an AAA system for the identification phase?

A. Username
B. Permissions
C. One-time token
D. Private certificate

Correct Answer: A

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 356
Which of the following implements two-factor authentication?

A. A phone system requiring a PIN to make a call

B. At ATM requiring a credit card and PIN
C. A computer requiring username and password
D. A datacenter mantrap requiring fingerprint and iris scan

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 357
Malicious traffic from an internal network has been detected on an unauthorized port on an application server.
Which of the following network-based security controls should the engineer consider implementing?

A. ACLs
B. HIPS
C. NAT
D. MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 358
A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing. Which of the following
should the administrator implement?

A. DMZ
B. NAT
C. VPN
D. PAT

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 359
A security administrator is developing controls for creating audit trails and tracking if a PHI data breach is to
occur. The administrator has been given the following requirements:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

 All access must be correlated to a user account.
All user accounts must be assigned to a single individual.
User access to the PHI data must be recorded.
Anomalies in PHI data access must be reported.
Logs and records cannot be deleted or modified.

Which of the following should the administrator implement to meet the above requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Eliminate shared accounts.

B. Create a standard naming convention for accounts.
C. Implement usage auditing and review.
D. Enable account lockout thresholds.
E. Copy logs in real time to a secured WORM drive.
F. Implement time-of-day restrictions.
G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
1. (Eliminate shared accounts.) since each transaction must be correlated to a user. If we have shared
accounts it will be harder to know which user did what.
2. (Implement usage auditing and review.) since we are concerned with usage rather than permissions. If a
person has access permissions to a file he can delete it. The deletion action is tracked by usage auditing.
3. (Copy logs in real time to a secured WORM drive.) since you want the logs not to be modified, a WORM can
fulfil that role.

QUESTION 360
Which of the following encryption methods does PKI typically use to securely protect keys?

A. Elliptic curve
B. Digital signatures
C. Asymmetric
D. Obfuscation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 361
An organization is using a tool to perform a source code review. Which of the following describes the case in
which the tool incorrectly identifies the vulnerability?

A. False negative
B. True negative
C. False positive
D. True positive

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 362
A department head at a university resigned on the first day of the spring semester. It was subsequently
determined that the department head deleted numerous files and directories from the server-based home
directory while the campus was closed. Which of the following policies or procedures could have prevented this
from occurring?

A. Time-of-day restrictions
B. Permission auditing and review
C. Offboarding
D. Account expiration

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 363
A database backup schedule consists of weekly full backups performed on Saturday at 12:00 a.m. and daily
differential backups also performed at 12:00 a.m. If the database is restored on Tuesday afternoon, which of
the following is the number of individual backups that would need to be applied to complete the database
recovery?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 364
Which of the following security controls does an iris scanner provide?

A. Logical
B. Administrative
C. Corrective
D. Physical
E. Detective
F. Deterrent

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 365
As part of a new industry regulation, companies are required to utilize secure, standardized OS settings. A
technical must ensure the OS settings are hardened.
Which of the following is the BEST way to do this?

A. Use a vulnerability scanner.

B. Use a configuration compliance scanner.
C. Use a passive, in-line scanner.
D. Use a protocol analyzer.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 366
A user has attempted to access data at a higher classification level than the user's account is currently
authorized to access. Which of the following access control models has been applied to this user's account?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. ABAC

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 367
A security consultant discovers that an organization is using the PCL protocol to print documents, utilizing the
default driver and print settings. Which of the following is the MOST likely risk in this situation?

A. An attacker can access and change the printer configuration.

B. SNMP data leaving the printer will not be properly encrypted.
C. An MITM attack can reveal sensitive information.
D. An attacker can easily inject malicious code into the printer firmware.
E. Attackers can use the PCL protocol to bypass the firewall of client computers.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 368
An organization finds that most help desk calls are regarding account lockout due to a variety of applications
running on different systems. Management is looking for a solution to reduce the number of account lockouts

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

while improving security. Which of the following is the BEST solution for this organization?

A. Create multiple application accounts for each user.

B. Provide secure tokens.
C. Implement SSO.
D. Utilize role-based access control.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 369
A user suspects someone has been accessing a home network without permission by spoofing the MAC
address of an authorized system. While attempting to determine if an authorized user is logged into the home
network, the user reviews the wireless router, which shows the following table for systems that are currently on
the home network.

Which of the following should be the NEXT step to determine if there is an unauthorized user on the network?

A. Apply MAC filtering and see if the router drops any of the systems.
B. Physically check each of the authorized systems to determine if they are logged onto the network.
C. Deny the unknown host because the hostname is not known and MAC filtering is not applied to this host.
D. Conduct a ping sweep of each of the authorized systems and see if an echo response is received.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 370
When performing data acquisition on a workstation, which of the following should be captured based on
memory volatility? (Choose two.)

A. USB-attached hard disk

B. Swap/pagefile
C. Mounted network storage
D. ROM

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

E. RAM

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 371
Ann, a security administrator, has been instructed to perform fuzz-based testing on the company's applications.
Which of the following best describes what she will do?

A. Enter random or invalid data into the application in an attempt to cause it to fault ·
B. Work with the developers to eliminate horizontal privilege escalation opportunities ·
C. Test the applications for the existence of built-in- back doors left by the developers ·
D. Hash the application to verify it won't cause a false positive on the HIPS

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 372
An attacker compromises a public CA and issues unauthorized X.509 certificates for Company.com. In the
future, Company.com wants to mitigate the impact of similar incidents. Which of the following would assist
Company.com with its goal?

A. Certificate pinning
B. Certificate stapling
C. Certificate chaining
D. Certificate with extended validation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 373
A systems administrator is attempting to recover from a catastrophic failure in the datacenter. To recover the
domain controller, the systems administrator needs to provide the domain administrator credentials. Which of
the following account types is the systems administrator using?

A. Shared account
B. Guest account
C. Service account
D. User account

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 374
A security administrator has found a hash in the environment known to belong to malware. The administrator
then finds this file to be in in the preupdate area of the OS, which indicates it was pushed from the central patch
system.

File: winx86_adobe_flash_upgrade.exe
Hash: 99ac28bede43ab869b853ba62c4ea243

The administrator pulls a report from the patch management system with the following output:

Given the above outputs, which of the following MOST likely happened?

A. The file was corrupted after it left the patch system.

B. The file was infected when the patch manager downloaded it.
C. The file was not approved in the application whitelist system.
D. The file was embedded with a logic bomb to evade detection.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 375
A network administrator at a small office wants to simplify the configuration of mobile clients connecting to an
encrypted wireless network. Which of the following should be implemented in the administrator does not want
to provide the wireless password or he certificate to the employees?

A. WPS
B. 802.1x
C. WPA2-PSK
D. TKIP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 376
When connected to a secure WAP, which of the following encryption technologies is MOST likely to be
configured when connecting to WPA2-PSK?

A. DES

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

B. AES
C. MD5
D. WEP

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 377
A company has a data classification system with definitions for `Private` and `Public`. The company's security
policy outlines how data should be protected based on type. The company recently added the data type
`Proprietary`. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the company added this data type?

A. Reduced cost
B. More searchable data
C. Better data classification
D. Expanded authority of the privacy officer

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 378
When configuring settings in a mandatory access control environment, which of the following specifies the
subjects that can access specific data objects?

A. Owner
B. System
C. Administrator
D. User

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 379
A high-security defense installation recently begun utilizing large guard dogs that bark very loudly and excitedly
at the slightest provocation. Which of the following types of controls does this BEST describe?

A. Deterrent
B. Preventive
C. Detective
D. Compensating

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 380
A company's user lockout policy is enabled after five unsuccessful login attempts. The help desk notices a user
is repeatedly locked out over the course of a workweek. Upon contacting the user, the help desk discovers the
user is on vacation and does not have network access. Which of the following types of attacks are MOST likely
occurring? (Select two.)

A. Replay
B. Rainbow tables
C. Brute force
D. Pass the hash
E. Dictionary

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 381
Ann, an employee in the payroll department, has contacted the help desk citing multiple issues with her device,
including:

Slow performance
Word documents, PDFs, and images no longer opening
A pop-up

Ann states the issues began after she opened an invoice that a vendor emailed to her. Upon opening the
invoice, she had to click several security warnings to view it in her word processor. With which of the following
is the device MOST likely infected?

A. Spyware
B. Crypto-malware
C. Rootkit
D. Backdoor

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

CompTia Sec+ SY0-601 v223f