1. Basis of brackishwater aquaculture. c.

floc and precipitates

a. milkfish culture
b. sea bass culture 16. A milkfish pond layout consisting of 1% NP, 9% FP,
c. oyster culture 80% RP and 10% for dikes and canal.
2. A type of water system that needs new and fresh a. conventional pond lay-out
water, it is also the most expensive because it needs b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
ample water supply. c. radiating pond lay-out
a. closed water system 17. A milkfish pond lay-out consisting of 4%NP, 6%FP,
b. open water system 80% RP and 10% for dikes and canal and usually
c. semi-closed water system being adopted to produce uniform size of fish.
3. A type of water system wherein part or half of the a. conventional pond lay-out
water will be and the other half must fresh. b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
a. closed water system c. radiating pond lay-out
b. open water system 18. A milkfish pond layout consisting of 10%FP, 80% RP
c. semi-closed water system and 10% for dikes and canals.
4. The ultimate goal of aquaculture. a. conventional pond lay-out
a. to diminish food shortage and food security b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
b. poverty alleviation c. radiating pond lay-out
c. rural livelihood 19. Scientific name of milkfish.
5. Major contributor in terms of aquaculture in South a. Channos channos
East Asia. b. Chanos chanos
a. Thailand , Philippines, Indonesia 20. Milkfish belong to order _____
b. Taiwan, Philippines, Indonesia a. Siluriformes
c. Indonesia, Myanmar, Thailand b. Chanidae
d. Indonesia, Philippines, Vietnam c. Gonorynchiformes
6. Organisms with wide range of salinity tolerance. d. Bangusidae
a. euryhaline 21. Temperature tolerance limits of milkfish
b. eurythermal a. 15-40OC
c. stenohaline b. 10-45 OC
d. stenothermal c. 18-35 OC
7. Organisms with narrow range of salinity tolerance. d. 20-33 OC
a. euryhaline 22. Optimum temperature for milkfish culture.
b. eurythermal a. 15-40OC
c. stenohaline b. 10-45 OC
d. stenothermal c. 18-35 OC
8. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity d. 20-33 OC
ranges is between 0.5-3 ppt. 23. The most common system for the culture of milkfish.
a. mesohaline a. brackishwater coastal pond
b. oligohaline b. freshwater ponds or stocked in lakes and
c. polyhaline reservoirs
9. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity c. fish pen and cages
ranges is between 10-17 ppt. 24. A method that is composed of complex association of
a. mesohaline small bottom dwelling organisms such as diatoms,
b. oligohaline blue-green algae and other organisms like bacteria
c. polyhaline green algae, protozoans, flatworms, copepods,
10. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity decapods and polychaete worms.
ranges is between 3-10 ppt. a. Lumut method
a. mesohaline b. Lablab method
b. oligohaline c. Plankton method
c. polyhaline 25. A method that is composed of filamentous or grass
11. First step in developing aquaculture project. green algae, Cladophora spp., Enteromorpha,
a. site selection Chaetomorpha and was considered to be the best
b. site evaluation natural food to be raised in ponds, it requires a soft
12. Suitable area for brackishwater aquaculture. bottom and wet season to grow well.
a. coastal area a. Lumut method
b. mangrove swamps b. Lablab method
13. Basis of establishing the pond bottom. c. Plankton method
a. 0 datum plane 26. Also known as the deep-water method requiring a
b. mean lower low water water level of 70-100 cm., soft bottom and grows well
c. mean higher high water during rainy season.
14. A soil that is suitable or aquaculture. a. Lumut method
a. peaty soil b. Lablab method
b. with 20% clay c. Plankton method
c. sandy
d. loam
15. Occurs when the pond bottom of brackishwater ponds
are exposed to sunlight.
a. cracked soil
b. acid sulfate soil
27. A milkfish disease caused by sudden lowering of 13. A fish population living at a single location as a self-
temperature in shallow ponds, the symptoms are sustaining interbreeding unit, maintained either
milky discoloration of the skin and sluggish naturally or artificially.
movement. a. broodstock
a. milk disease b. breeder
b. catching cold 14. The identification and discarding of inferior animals
c. ich (Ichthyophthirius multifilis) from a breeding stock.
a. selection
1. The science that combines the methods and findings b. culling
of cytology and genetics 15. Condition wherein one allele partly or completely
a. cytogenetics masks the expression of its alternative allele when
b. molecular genetics they are in the heterozygous state.
c. quantitative genetics a. recessiveness
d. qualitative genetics b. dominance
e. Mendelian genetics 16. the hereditary unit that occupies a fixed chromosomal
2. A group of genetically identical cells (individuals) location (locus), which through a specific function
descended from a single or common ancestral cell by produces a specific effect on phenotype.
mitosis. a. gene
a. clone b. chromosome
b. offspring 17. The differential responses of a genotype in different
c. progeny environments.
3. The female parent in animal breeding a. Genotype-Environment interaction
a. sire b. Phenotype-Environment interaction
b. dame c. Genotype-Phenotype interaction
4. A cross between individuals that differ with respect to 18. The genetic constitution of an individual.
two specific gene pairs or two traits. a. genotype
a. monohybrid cross b. phenotype
b. dihybrid cross 19. The observable properties of an individual.
c. normally pigmented rainbow trout X albino a. genotype
rainbow trout b. phenotype
5. A cross between parents that differ with respect to a 20. The law stating that both gene frequencies and
single specified pair of allele. genotype frequencies will remain constant from
a. monohybrid cross generation to generation in large population that mate
b. dihybrid cross at random provided that there is no selection,
c. normally pigmented rainbow trout X albino migration or mutation.
rainbow trout a. Hardy-Weinberg Law
6. A physical or chemical agent that increases the b. Law of Independent Assortment
frequency of mutation. c. Law of Segregation
a. mutagen 21. A measure of the degree to which a phenotype is
b. antigen genetically influenced and can be modified by
7. Sudden heritable change in a gene or in the selection.
chromosome structure of an organism. a. heritability
a. gigantism b. probability
b. dwarfism 22. A progeny of a cross between genetically unlike
c. mutation parents.
8. The selection pressure applied on population by the a. inbred
environment to adapt it for survival in that b. hybrid
environment. 23. Any natural or artificial process that favors the survival
a. artificial selection and reproduction of certain individuals.
b. natural selection a. hybridization
9. Mating together of individuals that are related to each b. selection
other by common ancestry 24. The separation of homologous chromosomes at
a. inbreeding meiosis and the consequent separation of alleles and
b. out breeding their phenotypic differences as observed in the
10. Reductions in mean performance of a trait in an progeny.
inbred population and are measured as the differential a. segregation
performance of inbred and out bred groups. b. assortment
a. inbreeding coefficient 25. Mating combinations in which the sources of male
b. inbreeding depression and female gametes are reversed.
11. The male parent in animal breeding. a. reciprocal cross
a. sire b. line cross
b. dame 26. Condition where the probability of anyone mating is
12. A fish population that exhibits reproducible equal to the probability of any other mating within the
physiological, morphological, or cultural performance population.
characteristics that is significantly different from those a. assortative mating
of other fish populations of the same species or a b. random mating
broodstock that is derived from such a population.
a. strain
b. species
27. A group of organisms of the same species living 42. BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL, the newly developed strain
within a prescribed geographic area. of tilapia is a product of what kind of breeding?
a. population a. selective breeding
b. strain b. outbreeding
28. Complete set of genetic information carried by c. inbreeding
individuals within a population. 43. Tilapia strain that was introduced in 1992 through the
a. genetic load GIFT project implemented by the ICLARM.
b. gene pool a. African strain
b. Egypt strain
29. Proportion of individuals having the particular c. Kenya strain
genotype. 44. Parent line of BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL
a. genotype frequency a. Kenya strain, African strain, Egypt strain, 8th
b. phenotype frequency Generation of GIFT strain
c. allele frequency b. Kenya strain, FaST strain, Egypt strain, 8th
30. Proportion of alleles that is of specified type. Generation of GIFT strain
a. genotype frequency c. Egypt strain, Kenya strain, 8th Generation of
b. phenotype frequency GIFT strain, 13th Generation of FaST
c. allele frequency d. 8th Generation of GIFT strain, African strain,
31. Proportion of genotypes that are heterozygous. 13th Generation of FaST
a. heterozygotes 45. EXCEL implies for
b. heterozygosity a. Excellent strain that has comparable
32. Refers to mating in which partners are non-random advantage with other tilapia strain for
with respect to phenotype. entrepreneurial livelihood and projects.
a. assortative mating b. Excellent strain that has comparable
b. random mating advantage with other tilapia strain for
33. A DNA containing linear structure of the cell nuclei entrepreneurial livelihood projects in support
responsible for the determination and transmission of to aquaculture for rural development.
hereditary characteristics. c. Exemplary strain that has comparable
a. gene advantage with other tilapia strain for
b. chromosome entrepreneurial livelihood and projects.
34. The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome d. Exhilarating strain that has comparable
such that it is stably maintained in a heritable manner. advantage with other tilapia strain for
a. transgenesis entrepreneurial livelihood projects in support
b. electrophoresis to aquaculture for rural development.
35. When the average of the P (Parent) for a trait is 46. Launching date of BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL.
exceeded by the average of their offspring a. October 16, 2002
a. heterosis or hybrid vigor b. October 18, 2002
b. heterozygosity c. November 19, 2002
36. Process in which both sets of chromosomes in an d. August 3, 2002
individual are derived from the male parent only. 47. A result of crosses between GIFT, FaST, O. aureus,
a. gynogenesis O. mossambicus and O. spilurus.
b. androgenesis a. saline tolerant tilapia
37. Synthetic tilapia of African and Asian strain and a b. cold tolerant tilapia
result of collaborative partnership of BFAR-NFFTC, c. jewel tilapia
CLSU-FAC, Norway Institute of Aquaculture d. red tilapia
Research (AKVAFORK), UP MSI, coordinated by the 48. A result of crosses between GIFT, FaST, and O.
ICLARM from 1987-1997. aureus
a. GIFT strain a. saline tolerant tilapia
b. FaST b. cold tolerant tilapia
38. Developed by crossing the best performing genetic c. jewel tilapia
groups from 8 diverse Nile tilapia strains. d. red tilapia
a. 8th Generation of FAC Selected Tilapia 49. A tilapia hybrid which is a result of a cross between
b. 8th Generation GIFT Strain female O. mossambicus and male O. urolepsis
c. African Strain hornorum,
d. Kenya Strain a. saline tolerant tilapia
39. A product of within family selection (based on weight) b. cold tolerant tilapia
of O. niloticus in a rotational mating scheme. c. jewel tilapia
a. African strain d. red tilapia
b. Egypt strain 50. Tilapia that was obtained by cross breeding a female
c. 13th Generation of FAC Selected Tilapia hybrid of T. mossambica X T. hornorum with a strain
(FaST) of T. nilotica or by crossing a mutant reddish-orange
d. GIFT strain female of T. mossambica with a normal colored gray
40. GIFT stands for? male T. nilotica.
a. Genetic Improvement of Farmed Tilapia a. saline tolerant tilapia
b. Genetically Improved Farmed Tilapia b. cold tolerant tilapia
41. Strains of tilapia that gave birth to BFAR 2000. c. jewel tilapia
a. GIFT and Kenya strain d. red tilapia
b. GIFT and FaST
c. FaST and Kenya strain
 51. Androgen used in masculinizing tilapia. ______ 6. Fishes that feed on other animals.
a. ethyl testosterone
b. methyl testosterone (17-"- a) Herbivore b) Detrivore c) Carnivore d)Omnivore
methyltestosterone)
c. progesterone
______ 7. Fishes that feed on decaying plants and animals.
52. A process or raising the level of male steroid in the
blood stream of sexually undifferentiated fry.
a. YY technology a) Detrivore b) Omnivore c) Herbivore d) Carnivore
b. Sex Reversal
53. Has been developed with the main objective of ______ 8. Weight gain per day
producing males with a YY genotype.
a. YY technology
a) Absolute growth b) Relative growth
b. Sex Reversal
c)Growth Efficiency d) Growth rate
54. Age of tilapia fry suitable for sex reversal.
a. 17-21 days
b. 17 days ______9. Feed consumed over weight gain
c. less than 17 days
d. 21 days a) Feed conversion ratio (FCR) b) Growth
55. Effective treatment duration for sex reversal to rate c) Growth Efficiency d) Relative growth
produce more than or equal to 95% male tilapia.
a. 20 days
b. 10-15 days ______ 10. Feed efficiency means
c. 3-4 weeks
56. Optimum temperature for sex reversal. a) weight gain over consumed feed b) weight gain over
a. less than 32OC consumed feed times 100 c) growth efficiency d) weight gain
b. more than 32OC over culture period times 100
c. 36OC
57. Sex reversal can be accomplished by ______ 11. The process of putting together various feed
a. dietary treatment ingredients, vitamins, minerals plus additives at the correct
b. immersion technique proportions to have a nutritionally balance diet for fish or
c. all of the above shrimps.

REVIEW QUESTIONS (AQUACULTURE) a) feed mixing b) feed formulation c) feed combination

d) feed pelleting
Choose the correct answer of the following by writing the letter
only on the space provided for. ______ 12. Feed added to the pond when natural food can not
maintain maximum fish growth.
A. Fish nutrition
a) supplemental feed b) complete feed c) whole
______ 1. Chemicals components known as nutrients to feed d) live food
supply energy, builds and repair body tissues and regulate
body processes. ______ 13. Provision of a nutritionally complete, high quality
diet in intensive system.
a) Feeds b) Nourish c) Diet d) ration
a) supplemental feed b) complete feed c) whole
.______ 2. An indispensable nutrient for growth and feed d) live food
maintenance of animals like fish.
______14. Amount of feed given daily to the cultured stock
a) Carbohydrates b) Fats c) Lipids d) Proteins expressed as % of fish or shrimps biomass.

______ 3. An important determinant of the over-all nutritional a) feeding b) feeding rate c) feeding
value of feedstuffs. efficiency d) feed conversion ratio

a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Vitamins d) Fats ______ 15. Total weight of fish/shrimp per unit area at a
particular time and is usually expressed as kg/ha. a)
______ 4. A cheaper source of energy compared to proteins. density b) biomass c) body weight d) weight per unit area

a) Vitamins b) Minerals c) Carbohydrates d) Fats. ______16. Feeder activated by electric timer set at
predetermined intervals to released feed from predetermined
time. a) demand feeder b) automatic feeder c) charge
______ 5. Necessary ingredients to make the fish ration feeder d) mechanical feeder
complete.
______ 17. Feeder which a fish can obtain food by touching a
a) Vitamins and minerals b)Fats and Vitamins c)Proteins and trigger.
Fats d) Fats and carbohydtrates
 a. demand feeder b) automatic feeder c)charge ______ 29. Physical property important for fish feeds.
feeder d) mechanical feeder
a) pelletability b) floatability c) attractability d) stability
______ 18. A diet with which one can compare response to
experimental design and dietary treatments. ______ 30. Animals obtaining food materials from the mud.

a) purified diet b) complete diet c)reference a) suckers b) filter feeder c) grazers d) strainers
diet d) practical diet
______ 31. Recommended feeding rate for tilapia fry using 35-
______ 19. Diet formulated from natural ingredients such as 40%CP.
serial grains, oil, seed meals, fishmeal, etc.
a) 5% b) 3% c) 10% d) 15%
a) purified diet b) complete diet c) reference diet d)
practical diet
______ 32. Recommended feeding rate for fin-fish breeders
using 20-25% CP.
______ 20. Diet made out of refined ingredients with precisely
defined compositions.
a) 2-4% b) 4-6% c) 6-8% d) 8-10%
a. reference diet b) practical diet c) purified diet d)
complete diet ______ 33. Stomach present in fishes that eat large food
particles like other fish.
______ 21. Diet containing nutrients in amounts and
proportions fulfilling the physiological needs of animals. b) Y shapes b) U shaped c) straight d)
no stomach
a) reference diet b) purified diet c) practical diet d)
balanced diet ______ 34. Stomach present in carps and other cyprinids

______ 22. Feeds having the same caloric density. a) no stomach b) Y shaped c) J shaped d) traight

a) isomeric b) isocaloric c) ______ 35. Percentage costs of feeds in shrimp farming over
isonitrogenous d)isocyclic the operating costs per hectare per operation.

______ 23. Feeds having the same protein level. a) 10-20% b) 30-40% c) 50-60% d) 70-80%

a) isonitrogenous b) isocaloric c) isomeric d)isocyclic ______ 36. Feeding practice in tilapia culture at high stocking
density in clear water system with aeration.

a) semi-intensive b) intensive c) supplement

d)extensive
______ 24. Animal protein obtained by boiling skin, tendons,
ligaments and bones with water.
______ 37. A feed concentrates containing male hormone for
the inducement of sex reversal.
a) gelatin b) colloids c) casein d) collagen
a) hormone feed b) SRT premix c) estrogen mix
______ 25. Protein present in corn. d) androgen mix

a) maize b) zein c) sein d) casein ______ 38. The most expensive component in a formulated
diets.
______ 26. Ingredient added to feeds to prevent or delay
rancidity in fats. a) protein b) carbohydrate c) vitamins & Minerals d)
Lipids
a) antioxidant b) antifats c) antilipids d) oxidants
______ 39. Growth stimulant of phytoplankton or natural food.
______ 27. Feed ingredient that improves the water stability of
feeds. a) sunlight b) oxygen c) fertilizer d) water

a) Shrimp head meal b) Corn meal c) Fish meal d) ______ 40. Initial food of young abalones.
Flour
a) brine shrimps b) Artemia salina c)copepods d)
______ 28. Toxic substance present in ipil-ipil leaf meal. diatoms

a) gossypol b) urease c) mimosine d) aflatoxin

______ 41. Best food for prawn nauplii. Rice bran 8

a) micro algae b) tetraselmis c) cyst d) yolk Corn meal 11

______ 42. A group of fat soluble compounds found in tissue Fish meal and shrimp head meal are protein sources
of plants and animals. while rice bran and corn meal are carbohydrate
sources. Assume that the proportion of 3 parts fish
a) lipids b) cholesterols c) carotene d) adenine meal to 1 part shrimp head meal, and a proportion of
2 parts rice bran to 1 part corn meal.
______ 43. Feeds pelleting thru extrusion process, so as to
expand rather than compressing the various ingredients. a) Fish meal _____ Rice Bran ______
grinding b) pelleting c) crumbling d)floating
Shrimp Head Meal ______ Corn Meal ______
______ 44. Reduction of particle size of feed ingredients to
improve ease of handling and storability. ______ 52.Determine the efficiency of the feed
utilized, if the feed consumed is 1 kg and the weight
a) cooking b) grinding c) crumbling d) pelleting gain after I month is 250 g.

______ 45. Transformation of digested nutrients into an a) 10% b) 25% c) 15% d) 20%
integral part and homogenous part of the organism.
B. Scientific name of commercially cultivable fishes.
a) assimilation b) digestion c) excretion d) utilization
______ 53. Nile tilapia a) Tilapia nilotica b) Tilapia niloticus c)
______ 46. The transformation of a soft, dusty feed by Oreochromis niloticus d) Oreochromis nilotica
compression, extrusion and adhesion.
______ 54.GET EXCEL Tilapia a) Tilapia nilotica b) Tilapia
a) grinding b) pelleting c) crumbling d) cooking niloticus c) Oreochromis niloticus d) Oreochromis nilotica

______ 47. Novel diet for aquaculture. ______ 55. Mosambique tilapia a) Oreochromis mosambicus
b) Tilapia mosambica c) Oreochromis mossambicus d)
Oreochromis mozambica
a) floating b) pelleting c) encapsulated d) sinking
______ 56. Native catfish a) Clarias macrocephalus b) Clarias
______ 48. Most commonly used algal food for prawn in the batrachus c) Clarias gariepinus d) Ictalurus punctatus
hatchery and nursery stage.
______ 57.Thai catfish a) Clarias macrocephalus b) Clarias
a) Tetraselmis b) yolk c) lablab d) rotifers batrachus c) Clarias gariepinus d) Ictalurus punctatus

______ 49. Compute the daily feed allowance of a 70,000 ______ 58.African catfish a) Clarias macrocephalus b) Clarias
tilapia stocked in a one hectare pond. The average weight after batrachus c) Clarias gariepinus d) Ictalurus punctatus
45 days is 100 g. The estimated survival is 90% . The feeding
rate is 3%.
______ 59.Giant freshwater prawn a) Penaeus monodon b)
Penaeus japonicus c) Macrobrachium rosenbergii d)
a) 187 kg/day b) 198 kg/day c) 189 kg/day d) 188 Macrobrachium rosenbergi
kg/day
______ 60. Sugpo a) Penaeus monodon b) Penaeus
______ 50. Referring to no. 49 how many bag of feeds are japonicus c) Macrobrachium rosenbergii d) Macrobrachium
needed for 2 months culture period and how much is the total rosenbergi
cost of feeds if 1 bag costs P425.
______ 61.Giant gouramy a) Osphronemus goramy b)
a) 453.6 bags, P192 780.00 b) 452.6 bags, Trichogaster pectoralis c) Trichogaster goramy d) Anabas
P192 355.00 c) 450 bags, P191 250.00 d) testudinaeus
456.23, P193 906.25
______ 62.Climbing perch a) Trichogaster pectoralis b)
______ 51. Formulate a diet that contains 30% protein using Osphronemus goramy c) Anabas testudinaeus d)
the following ingredients: Ophicephalus striatus

Ingredients Protein content (%) ______ 63. Mudfish a) Trichogaster pectoralis b)

Osphronemus goramy c) Anabas testudinaeus d)
Fish meal 60 Ophicephalus striatus

Shrimp head meal 40

______ 64. Common carp a) Ctenopharyngodon idelus b) a) black spot disease b) red disease c) chronic soft
Cyprinus carpio c) Ciprinus carpio d) Carpio carpio shelling d) molting

______ 65. Sea bass a) Lates calcarifer b) Lates carcalifer c) ______ 78. Disease caused by heavy siltation in shrimp ponds.
Lates argentimaculatus d) Lates spinus
a) red gill disease b) black gill disease c) soft shelling
______ 66. Brine shrimp a) Artemia cyst b) Artemia salina c) d)microsporidiosis
Artemia viridis d) Artemia perna
______ 79. Disease caused by the presence of aflatoxin in
______ 67.Bangus a) Cahanos chanos b) Chanus feeds.
chanus c) Chanus chanos d) Chanos chanos
a) red disease b) black gill disease c) Necrosis d)
______ 68. Grass carp a) Ctenopharyngodon idelus b) black spot disease
Ctenopharyngodon idellus c) Tenopharyngodon idellus d)
Ctenofaryngodon idelus ______ 80. Abnormalities caused by stressful environmental
conditions like low oxygen levels, temperature or salinity shock
______ 69. Oyster a) Crassostrea iredelei b) Crassostrea and over crowding.
iradeli c) Crasostrea idelus d) Crasostrea iredelei
a) mycosis b) muscle necrosis c) red disease d) black
______ 70. Green mussel a) Perna viridis b) Perma viridis c) spot disease
Perna biridis d) Perna virridis
______ 81. Syndrome caused by low water and soil pH in
______ 71. Mud crab a) Sylla serata b) Scylla serrata c) shrimp ponds.
Scylla serata d) Syla serrata
a) microsporidian infestation b)hypoxia c)
asphyxation d) acid sulfate disease
C. Fish/Shrimp Diseases
______ 82. Disease caused by fungi.
______ 72. Virus that causes destruction of the
hepatopancreas and digestive tract of shrimps. a) mycosis b) muscle necrosis c) red disease d) black
spot disease
a) Monodon baculovirus b) Picorna
virus c) Parvovirus d) Vibrio ______ 83. Host in which the larval stage of the parasite
develop.
______ 73. Disease caused by Vibrio harveyi.
a) primary host b) secondary host c) intermediate
a) Black spot disease b) Luminous bacterial host d) tertiary host
disease c) Filamentous bacterial disease d)
Larval mycosis ______ 84. A state wherein the cells and the tissue are of
lower activity and eventually die.
______ 74. Shrimps exhibit pale bluish-gray to dark blue-black
coloration. a) body cramp b) necrosis c) hypoxia d) blue shell
syndrome
a) Black spot disease b) Luminous bacterial
disease c) Filamentous bacterial disease d) ______ 85. A disease causing organisms.
Monodon baculovirus disease
c) virus b) fungus c) pathogen
______ 75. Shrimps exhibit a gross sign of reddish to brown d)bacteria
gills.
______ 86. Parasites living inside the body of the host.
a) Black spot disease b) Luminous bacterial
disease c) Protozoan infestation d) Monodon
baculovirus disease a) ectoparasites b) exoparasites c intersporidia d)
endoparasites
______ 76. Disease of shrimps showing tissues and organs
opaque white. ______ 87. Place for restrictions of animals entering or leaving
premises.
a. Microsporidiosis b) Luminous
bacterial disease c) Filamentous a) disinfected area b) isolation area c)quarantine area
bacterial disease d) Larval mycosis d) treatment area

______ 77. Shrimps showing a soft-shelled. ______ 88. A poison. a) toxin b) lethal c) disease d)bacteria
______ 89. Minute infectious agent which can only be resolved a) disease b) illness c)stress
in high powered microscope. d)necrosis

a) parasites b) bacteria c) virus d) fungus ______ 101. Pathogen that causes cotton-wool disease or
columnaris disease.
______ 90. Disease caused by a very low level of oxygen.
a) Flexibacter b) Microsporidia c) Vorticella
a) hypoxia b) gas bubble c) necrosis d) anorexia d)Zoothamnium

______ 91. A deviation from normal or good health of a fish. ______ 102. Shrimps possessing bluish skin due to presence
of large quantities of deoxygenated blood in the minute
vessels.
a) vigor b) disease c) sickness d) ailing
a) anoxia b) hypoxia c) anorexia d) cyanotic
___C___ 92. A white spot disease in fishes.
______ 103. A disease causing organism that cause infection
a) trichodiniasis b) mycobacteriosis c)icthypthiriasis only after the host has been weakened by other causes.
d) tripanomiasis
a) Secondary infection b) Intermediate host
______ 93. A common problem of fresh and marine fish c) secondary pathogen d) primary infection
associated with poor pond management, poor quality and high
stocking rates.
______ 104. The adverse effect of pollutants to the organism.
a) trichodiniasis b) mycobacteriosis c) icthypthiriasis
d) tripanomiasis a) disease b) mortality c) toxicity d) virulent

______ 94. A blood flagellates found in the blood of perch, ______ 105. The presence in the environment of significant
trout and carp. amounts of unnatural substances that cause undesirable
effects to the organisms.
a) trichodiniasis b) mycobacteriosis c) icthypthiriasis
d) tripanomiasis a)contamination b)pollution c)uncleanness
d)deterioration
______ 95. Disease having a major symptoms of rotten and
damaged caudal fin. ______ 106. The use of beneficial bacteria to fight pathogenic
bacteria.
a) gill rot b) fin rot c) tail rot d) cramped tail
a) pathogens b) antibiotics c)probiotics d)anabiotics
______ 96. Virus that causes enlargement of liver and
pancreas in prawn. ______ 107.Prevention and control for viral disease of
prawn/shrimps.
b) MBV b) IHHNV c) HPV d)HPPV
a) probiotics b) sanitation c) proper nutrition d)good
pH
______ 97. A condition describing the presence of a
pathogenic organism in a host.
______ 108. Abnormal condition affecting growth, function or
appearance of the animal.
a) ailment b) infection c) sickness d) healthness
a) mortality b) disease c) healthiness d)vigorness
______ 98. Best way to prevent diseases.
______ 109. A condition chracterize by loss of conciousness
due to lack of oxygen and too much carbon dioxide in the
a) disinfect b) immunostimulant c)proper blood.
nutrition d) best management practice
a) gas bubble disease b) anorexia c)hyperoxia d)
______99. Synonymously known as fish leprosy or fish anoxia
tuberculosis.
______ 110. Disease associated with supersaturation of the
a) mycobacteriosis b) Trichodiniosis c)Icthypthiriasis water with air.
d) Tripanomiasis
a) gas bubble disease b) anorexia c)hyperoxia d)
______100. A stage produced by environmental and other anoxia
factors which extends the adaptive responses of an animal
beyond the normal range.
D. Aquaculture Engineering a) Main gate b) tertiary gate c) secondary gate d)Sluice
gate
______ 111. Range of water velocities in pond canals.
______ 123. The vertical distance of a ground point from the
a) 0.5 – 0.7 m/sec. b) 0.5 – 0.7 cm/s c) 0.5-0.7 ft/s d) reference datum.
0.5 –0.7 sq m/s
a) Slope b) elevation c) height d) angles
______ 112. Side slope of the cross section of pond canals.
______ 124. Water depth suitable for the culture of tilapia and
a) 1:1 b) 1:1.5 c) 2: 1.5 d) 0.5:1 other fresh water species.

______ 113. Canal that start from the main gate and a) 80 - 100 mm b) 0.80 – 1.0 m c) 0.5-1.0 m d)
transverse the central portion of the farm. 1.0 – 1.5 m

a) main canal b) tertiary canal c) drainage canal d) ______ 125. The largest dike of a pond.
secondary canal
a) Tertiary dike b) perimeter dike c) secondary
______ 114. Canal that is recommended in intensive culture dike d) main dike
system to effect flow through system.
______ 126. Standard water depths of nursery ponds.
a) main canal b) tertiary canal c) drainage canal d)
secondary canal a) 0.5 m b) 0.5 cm c) 1.5 m d) 0.75 m

______ 115. Dike that is usually along the river banks or on the ______ 127. The ratio of the horizontal width to the vertical rise
seaward side. of the pond dikes.

a) Tertiary dike b) perimeter dike c) a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:3 d) 1:4

secondary dike d) main dike
______ 128. Structures that convey water across roads.
______ 116. Standard elevation of gate’s floor above the
canal. a) canal b) pipes c) tubes d) culvert

a) 0.5 m b) 15 cm c) 15 m d) 20cm ______ 129. Dikes used to retain water for fish farming
operation.
______ 117. Part of the gate that controls the amount of water
flowing through the gate. a) Tertiary dike b) perimeter dike c) secondary
dike d) main dike
a) screen b) floor c) flashboard d) wing
______ 130. A pond usually smaller than rearing pond.
______ 118. Part of a gate that prevents the entry of unwanted
organisms going into the pond. a) hatchery pond b) nursery pond c) grow-out pond b)
breeding pond
a) screen b) floor c) flashboard d) wing
______ 131. Length of a straight line connecting most remote
______ 119 Part of a gate that serves as the foundation of the extremities along which wind and wave action occur without
gate’s structure. any kind of land interruption.

a) screen b) floor c) flashboard d) wing a) maximum length b) max. affective length

c) max. effective length d) min. length
_______120. Data needed in brackish pond lay-outing and
designing. ______ 132. A length of line connecting the two most remote
extremities of a lake.
a) topography b) slope c) soil d) tides
a) maximum length b) max. affective
______ 121. Bases for pond height or bottom elevation. length c) max. effective length d) min.
length
a) 0 datum b) tides c) rainfall d) floods

______ 122. Gate that controls water to and from the main
canal and into the different pond compartments.
______ 133. Compute the total height of the main dike above ______ 140. Calculate the volume of the water in the pond if
the ground using the following data: the pond area is 75m x 50 m and the average depth is 1.0 m

1. highest astronomical tide – 1.25 m a) 3755 m3 b) 3756 m3 c) 3750 m3 d) 3850 m3

2. elevation of the ground surface – 1.0 m
3. Maximum flood level -- 15 cm ______ 141. Calculate the water flow of the canal having a
4. Allowance for free board – 30 cm velocity of 0.425 m/s, a width of 1.0 m and a depth of 0.5 m. a)
5. Shrinkage and settlement – 25% 0.21 m3/sec b) 0.22 m3/sec c) 0.23 m3/sec d) 0.24 m3/sec

a) 0.72 m b) 0.75 m c) 0.70m d) 0.85 m ______ 142. Determine the number of fingerlings required per
ha if the survival rate at harvest is 80%, size at harvesting is
______ 134. If the mean high spring tide above zero datum is 0.75kg/pc and the total harvest is 5,000 kg.
1.5 m, the ground elevation at the side of the dike is 1.1 m and
maximum 24 hour rainfall in the locality for 10 year interval is a) 4686 pcs b) 4688 pcs c) 4687 pcs d) 4689 pcs
10 cm. Determine the height of secondary dike needed.
Provide 25% allowance for shrinkage and 30 cm free board.
______ 143. A system where the pond water instead of being
discharged to the outside environment, is reused after
a) 0.72 m b) 0.75 m c) 0.70m d)0.85 m undergoing filtration in a settling pond.

______ 135. Determine the height of the tertiary dike if the a) open recirculation system b) closed
desired water level in the pond is 1.5m from 0 datum and the recirculating system c) filtering system d)
ground elevation is 0.9 m. The maximum 24 hour rainfall is 10 circulating system
cm. Allowance and shrinkage is 20% and freeboard is 25 cm.
______ 144. An enclosure which is either stationary or floating,
a) 1.05 m b) 1.0 m c) 0.95 d) 0.85 m made up of nets fastened together and installed in the water
and held in place by a wooden/bamboo posts or various types
______ 136. Determine the volume of flow (R) in each of anchors and floats.
segment of the stream using the data given below and after
which determine the total flow rate of the stream. a) fish nets b) fish pens c) fish hapas d) fish cage

Stream description Site ______ 145. An artificial enclosure constructed within a body
of water for culturing fish and fishery/aquatic products.
-------------------------------------------------
a) fish nets b) fish pens c) fish hapas d) fish cage
Segment A : Segment B : Segment C
______ 146. A land based structure for fish for breeding and
Width (m) 10 15 12 fish seed production.

Midpoint depth (m) 7 12 10 a) pond grow-out b) pond nursery c) pond hatchery d)

pond rearing
Mean velocity (m/sec) 5 4 6
______ 147. An artificial impoundment.
a) 1793 cu m/sec b) 1790 cu m/sec c) 1792 cu
m/sec d) 1872 cu m/sec a) reservoir b) dam c) pond d) embankment

______ 137. Determine the penetration of light in pond using ______148. Pond designed for the settling of heavily loaded
the limit of visibility method where the depth at which Secchi particles before disposal to the sea.
disk disappears is 0.85 cm and the depth at which Secchi disk
reappears is 0.78 cm. a) head pond b) catchment pond c) settling pond d)
transitory pond
a) 0.35 m b)0.31m c)0.33m d)0.34 m
______ 149. Required buffer zone from the sea to the main
______ 138. What would be the most efficient cross section or dike for typhoon prone areas for brackishwater ponds.
canal bed if the water depth inside a canal that has a side
slope of 1:1 is 1.0 m. a) 100 m b) 200 m c) 150 m d) 50 m

a) 1.45 m b) 1.50 c) 1.6m d) 1.46 ______ 150. Required buffer zone along the river banks for
typhoon prone areas for brackish water ponds.
______ 139. Determine the bottom width of the water canal
with water depth of 0.75 m and a side slope of 1.5:1. a) 100 m b) 200 m c) 150 m d) 50m

a) 0.45 m b) 0.50m c) 0.6m d) 0.46m

______ 151. Required buffer zone from the sea to the main ______ 163. Factor that determine the location, shape and
dike for non-typhoon prone areas for brackish water pond. size of a pond.

a) 100 m b) 30m c) 50 m d) 20 m a) slope b) water c) soil d) topography

______ 152. Required buffer zone along river banks for non- ______ 164. Factor that determine the location of the drainage
typhoon prone areas for brackish water pond. structure of the pond.

a) 100 m b) 30m c) 50 m d) 20 m a) slope b) water c) soil d) topography

______ 153. Required buffer zone from the embankment to ______ 165. Instrument used for measuring horizontal and
minimize flood risk and related environmental hazard for vertical angles, distances and elevation.
typhoon prone areas and non-typhoon prone areas
respectively. a) compass b) stadia rod c) transit d) measuring tape

a) 100 m b) 30m c) 50 m d) 20 m ______ 166. Instrument used in establishing a “line of sight”,

marked with graduations in meters and decimals.
______ 154. Required distance of fish cages between units.
a) compass b) stadia rod c) transit d) measuring tape
a) 1m b) 1.5 m c) 2 m d) 2.5 m
E. General Aquaculture
______ 155. Required distance of fish cages between clusters
to provide water exchange. ______ 167. A compound usually having a sour taste,
containing hydrogen which can be replaced by a metal or an
a) 10 m b) 30m c) 50 m d) 20 m electro positive radical to form a salt.

______ 156. Required distance between fishpens. a) base b) alkali c) acid d) neutral

a) 100 m b) 200m c) 250 m d) 50 m ______ 168. To habituate or to become habituated to a new

climate or environment.
______ 157. The horizontal plane from which heights and
depths are measured. a) adapt b) adopt c)accustom d) acclimate

a) Height b) elevation c) datum level d) back sight ______ 169. To charge or treat with air or gas especially with
oxygen.
______ 158. A rectangular net like an inverted mosquito net
used to contain fry or fish seeds at initial stocking in nurseries. a) aerate b) oxydize c) aerobate d) aerify

a) cage b) hapa c) pen d) fish net ______ 170. Organisms requiring the presence of oxygen.

______ 159. A structure with a gate or closure for regulating a) anaerobic b) aerobic c) photic d) aphotic
flow of water.
______ 171. Freshwater or marine chlorophyll-bearing plants
a) sluice gate b) front gate c) gate’s floor d) gate’s wall ranging in size from a few micron to many meters in length.

______ 160. Tide of maximum amplitude or height occurring a) plankters b) algae c) aquatic weeds d) aquatic fauna
during new and full moon.
______ 172.A compound of hydrogen and oxygen with one of
a) neap tide b) spring tide c) high tide d) low tide the elements sodium, potassium, cesium or ammonium radical.

______ 161. A line on a map connecting points of equal a) metallic cpd. b) acid c) alkaline d) neutral
elevation which show the configuration or changes in elevation
of the ground in a topographic map. ______ 173. Portion of any body of water beyond the reach of
light.
a) contour line b) contour map c) topographic map d)
graphic line a) aphotic b) photic c) light compensation level d)
abyssal
______ 162. Best type of soil for fishpond.

a) clay b) sandy c) sandy loam d) clay loam

______ 174. The culture of commercial species of plants and ______ 186. An immature stage of animal.
animals in inland bodies of water like ponds, rivers, streams,
lakes or reservoirs. a) fry b) larvae c) juveniles d) fingerling

a) agriculture b) aquasilviculture c) aquaculture d) ______ 187. Sea farming of plants and animals.
mariculture
a) mariculture b) aquaculture c)aquasilviculture d) sea
______ 175. Any mixture of sea and fresh water salinity less ranching
than 30 ppt. ______ 188. Change of shape as when the larvae of prawn
change from nauplius to mysis to post larva.
a) brine water b) brackishwater c) freshwater d) marine
water a) molting b) growing c) metamorphose d)
transformation
______ 176. Flesh eating animals.
______ 189. To shed the outer covering like the exoskeleton
a) carnivore b) cannibal c) herbivore d) omnivore of shrimps and crabs.

______ 177. Formation of organic compounds from inorganic a) molting b) shedding c)

constituents by energy derived from chemical changes. metamorphose d)transformation

a) biosynthesis b) biokinetics c) chemosynthesis d) ______ 190. The first larval stage, usually characterized by
biomechanics unsegmented body and a few appendages of shrimp.

_____ 178. Removing or reducing an oxygen. a) mysis b) nauplius c) larvae d) protozoea

a) deoxygenation b) carbonation c) oxygenation d) ______ 191. The last larval stage of crustaceans before they
aeration transform to young juveniles.

______ 179. Animals occurring everyday. a) mysis b) nauplius c) larvae d) protozoea

a) daily b) nocturnal c) diurnal d) ephemeral ______ 192. Tide of minimum amplitude or height occurring
during the 1st and last quarter of the moon. a) high tide b) low
______ 180. A condition of balance among the forces acting tide c) spring tide d) neap tide
within the body or material system.
______ 193. Reproduction by means of unfertilized eggs or
a) equivalent b) equipoise c) stability d) equilibrate production of a new individual from a virgin female without the
intervention of a male usually occurring in
psuedocoelomates/aschelminthes.
______ 181. The intertidal beach zone between high and low
water marks.
a) parthenogenesis b) oogenesis c) biogenesis d)
spermatogenesis
a) foreshore b) offshore c) inshore d) nearshore
______ 194. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
_______ 182. A place for artificial spawning and hatching of concentration in grams per liter of solution. a) OH b) pH c)
fish or shellfish. acid d) base

a) nursery b) hatchery d) incubator d) breeding ______ 195. A condition or degree producing the best result.

_______ 183. Area of the foreshore lying between low water a) minimum b) maximum c) optimum d) abc
spring tides and high water spring tides. a) Tidal zone b)
intertidal zone c) limnetic zone b) abyssal zone
______ 196. The condition past the larval stages of growth,
when the juvenile resemble the adult except for some
_______ 184. Young stages of fishes, between postlarval characteristics.
stage to the time they mature sexually.
a) juvenile b) protozoea c) mysis d) post larva
a) yearlings b) fingerlings c) juveniles d) post larva
______ 197. The act of an animal eating another.
______ 185. The name used in the Philippines for the
complex growth of aquatic plants and small animals like algae,
bacteria, protozoans and diatoms. a) predation b) prey c) cannibalism d) parasitism

a) algae b) plankton c) diatoms d) lablab

______ 198. he quality of being transparent, admitting passage ______ 209. Refers to the potential maximum production of a
of light and clear view of objects beyond. a) turbidity b) species by naturally available food resources within the area.
transparency c) penetration d) illumination
a) holding capacity b) environmental capacity c)
______ 199. The cloudy condition of water caused by carrying capacity d) area capacity
impurities.
______ 210. It is reached when fish growth ceases due to
a) siltation b) cloudiness c) turbidity d) opaqueness insufficient food, low supply of oxygen and high levels of
metabolites.
______ 200. The larval stage of arthropods like shrimps and
crabs. a) holding capacity b) environmental capacity c)
carrying capacity d) area capacity
a) larva b) mysis c) juvenile d) zoea
______ 211. The extent to which the environment is able to
______ 201. Parts per thousand, sometimes written as o/oo. accommodate a particular activity without an acceptable
impact and is the rate at which nutrients are added without
triggering eutrophication.
a) ppt b) ppm c) g/kg d) mg/kg
a) holding capacity b) environmental capacity c)
______ 202. Best method in seaweed farming in brackishwater carrying capacity d) area capacity
ponds.
______ 212. Organic matter from an uneaten food plus feces
a) fixed monoline b) raft monoline c) broadcast d) and metabollic excretion.
hanging
a) organic load b) waste load c) impurities d) noxious
______ 203. Culture area for seaweed farming in coastline
flats protected by reef breakers at the fringe of the coast, with
high salinity water. ______ 213. Very essential factor to maintain during the entire
larval rearing process of sugpo.
a) protected bays b) open sea c) mangrove areas d)
offshore a) oxygen b) lighting c) shelter d) food

______ 204.Culture area for seaweed farming along coastlines ______ 214. Dormant stage of brine shrimps where eggs have
and within coastal mangroves, with little freshwater influence. a hard, thick protective layer.

a) protected bays b) open sea c) mangrove areas d) a) spore b) embryo c) cystic d) cyst
offshore
______ 215. Actual volume of water that a container can hold.
______ 205. Seaweed farming method where monofilament
lines are tied between two opposite posts fixed at the bottom. a) affective volume b) effective volume c) adequate
volume d) active volume
a) raft monoline b) fixed bottom monoline c)
broadcast d) net enclosure ______ 216. Most practical way of inducing maturation of
sugpo.
______ 206. Seaweed farming method where bamboo rafts
are constructed and bouyed up the lines with seaweeds. a) feeding b) change in pH c) ablation d) starvation

a) raft monoline b) fixed bottom monoline c) ______ 217. Integration of rearing aquatic organisms like
broadcast d) net enclosure mudcrabs or shrimps or mollusks and maintenance of healthy
mangroves.
______ 207. The number of seed stock per unit water surface
with due consideration to the size or age group of the stocking a) mariculture b) aquasilviculture c) aquaculture d)
material. integrated aquaculture

a) stocking density b) stocking rate c) biomass d) ______ 218. The transformation of two or more inputs by
population combining resources to create valuable goods. a) production
b) yield c) harvest d) crop
______ 208. Refers to the richness of an ecosystem
______ 219. The physical and mental effort or energy used in
a) wealthiness b) net primary production c) production.
productivity d) fertility
a) management b) manager c) labor d) capital
______ 220. Human element that initiate modifies and ______ 231. Report the sources and uses of the business
maintain the production process through decision making and cash resources reflecting both the changes in cash and the
risk bearing. timing of when the cash was spent or received.

a) management b) manager c) labor d) capital a) cash flow budget b) income statement c)annual
report d) cash report
______ 221. Resources that can not be changed throughout
the production period. ______ 232. Organisms which ingest impurities from the water
making the pond’s meet the required optimum physical and
a) variable resources b) different microbiological parameters for the culture species.
resources c) changing resources d) fixed
resources a) biofilter b) biofeeder c) bacteria d) microorganisms

______ 222. Resources that can be changed or varies for the ______ 233. A code prescribing principles and standards for
whole production period. responsible practices with the result of ensuring the effective
conservation, management and development of aquaculture.
a) variable resources b) different
resources c) changing resources d) fixed a) Code of conduct b) R. A 8550 c) Code of Practice d)P.D
resources 704

______223. Seeds of oysters. a) cyst b) spat d) spot d) egg ______ 234. Species restricted or native to a particular region

______ 224. Ripe, ready to spawn. a) exotic b) endemic c) foreign d) introduced

a) pregnant b) mature c) gravid d) immature ______ 235 Species that are introduced or foreign species.

______ 225. Refers to the deteriorative changes that a) exotic b) endemic c) foreign d) native
accompanying aging characterized by a slow growth in length,
acceleration in mortality rate and gradual lose in reproductive
capacity.
______ 236. Determine the number of eggs spawned by each
individual 5 spawners of prawn stocked in a spawning tank
a) old age b) over maturing c) scenescence d)senility with a capacity of 250 liters. The total number of eggs
produced is 3.5 x 10 5 .
______ 226. Tanks used for the culture of algae.
a) 72,000 eggs b) 70,000 eggs c) 75,000 eggs d)79,000
a) kitchen tank b) diatom tank c) food tank d)algal tank eggs

______ 227. Written statement or collection of facts and ______ 237. In reference to no. 236, compute for the hatching
figures on a subject for a definite purpose. It is also the best rate if the number of nauplii is 3.0 x 105
source of economic data.
a) 85.71% b) 85.75% c) 85.00% d) 80.00%
a) farm record b) input record c) out put record d)record
book ______ 238. In reference to no. 237, at mysis stage the
survival is only 70%, determine the number of organisms
______ 228. Records that could be either variable or fixed. survived.

a) farm records b) input records c) out put record s a) 215,000 pcs b) 200,000 pcs c) 210,000 pcs d)200,500
d)income statement pcs

______ 229. Records which include date of harvesting, ______ 239. In the larval rearing of prawn, the newly hatched
species harvested and disposition of the product. nauplii are stocked at a density of 500 nauplii/liter in the 2.5 ton
larval rearing tank with fresh filtered seawater filling up to 75%
a) farm records b) input records c) out put records d)income of the tank capacity. What would be the number of stock?
statement
a) 937,500 pcs b) 900,000 pcs c) 950,000 pcs d) 940,000
______ 230. Report the amount of profit the business pcs
generates on an annual basis.

a) farm record b) input record c) out put record d)income

statement
______ 240. Compute the needed fertilizer, 18-46-0 to grow 7. Is any premises for the production of live finfish or
lablab in 1.5 ha. At prestocking, 200 kg is applied and is crustaceans (fish) intended for human consumption,
followed by 100 kg/ha a week before stocking. At post stocking including the supporting inner infrastructure and
time, 25 kg/ha is applied a week after stocking and is repeated surroundings under the control of the same
every 15 days interval up to harvest. Culture period is 4 management.
months. How much is the cost of fertilizer used for the culture a. aquaculture agency
operation if one bag costs P540.00 b. aquaculture establishment
c. aquaculture building
a) 15.2 bags, P7,000.00 b) 14.63 bags, P7,897.50 c) 14.63 d. aquaculture office
bags, P7,500.00 d) 14 bags, P7,000.00 8. Means any specified substance in food, agricultural
commodities, or animal feed resulting from the use of
a pesticide. The term includes any derivatives of a
REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR AQUACULTURE© pesticide, such as conversion products, metabolites,
reaction products and impurities.
(MMSU-CASAT) a. pesticide residue
b. residue
1. Includes any substance either natural or synthetic c. precipitate
which can affect the live fish, its pathogens, the water, d. substrate
equipment used for production or the land within the
aquaculture establishment; such substances include 9. Are defined as those practices of the aquaculture
pesticides, therapeutic chemicals, disinfectants, sector that are necessary to produce quality food
anesthetics, hormones, dyes, detergents, antifoulants products conforming to food laws and regulations.
and fertilizers. a. good aquaculture
a. chemotherapeutants b. better aquaculture
b. chemicals c. best aquaculture
c. disinfectants d. absolutely the best aquaculture
d. drug/medicine 10. Means freshwater, estuarine, brackish and marine
2. Means obtaining specifically colored fish flesh by areas used for aquaculture establishments, including
incorporating into the fish food a natural or artificial surroundings under the control of the same
substance or additive approved for this purpose by management.
agency having jurisdiction.
a. additives a. rearing unit
b. food color b. growing unit
c. dyes c. rearing area
d. coloring d. growing area
3. Means impervious material that is free from pits,
crevices and scale, is non-toxic and unaffected by
water (or seawater), ice, slime or any other corrosive 11. Means those operations that start with taking the fish
substance with which it is likely to come in contact. Its from the water and end with the transport of live or
surfaces must be smooth and it must be capable of fresh fish for human consumption to the market.
withstanding exposure to repeated cleaning, including
the use of detergents and disinfectants. a. harvesting
a. antifouling materials b. fishing-out
b. corrosion-resistant materials c. picking-out
c. anticorrosion material d. collecting
d. resistant material
4. Means a fish on or in which pathological changes or 12. In relation to an establishment includes any person for
other abnormalities are apparent. the time being responsible for the management of the
a. stressed fish establishment.
b. poor health
c. diseased fish
d. acute syndrome a. boss
5. Means utensils such as nets, conveyers, sorting b. manager
tables or machines, buckets, dip nets, pumps, c. president
transportation tanks, vehicles, etc., used during d. head
fishing out, sorting, loading and transportation of fish
to market. 13. Means the official authority or authorities charged by
a. paraphernalia the government with the control of food hygiene
b. instrument (sometimes referred to as the competent authority) as
c. materials well as/or with sanitation in aquaculture.
d. equipment
6. Means fodder intended for fish in aquaculture a. administration
establishments, in any form and of any composition. b. judge
a. fish feed c. administrative order
b. d. official agency having jurisdiction
c.
d. copra meal
e. protein
f. carbohydrates
 d. optimum level
22. Means any substance applied or administered to any
14. Refers to liquid waste discharged from homes, food producing animal, such are meat or milk
commercial premises, and similar sources to producing animals, poultry, fish or bees, whether use
individual disposal system or to municipal sewers, foe therapeutic, prophylactic, diagnostic purposes or
and consists mainly of excreta and used water. for modification of physiological functions or behavior.
a. chemotherapeutants
b. prohibited drugs
a. effluents c. fishery drugs
b. wastewater d. veterinary drugs
c. pollutants 23. Is the period of time between the administration of a
d. dirty water veterinary drug to fish, or exposure of fish to
chemical, and harvesting of the fish to ensure that the
15. Means substances originating from human activities concentration of the drug or chemical in the edible
and not from natural causes, which can contaminate flesh of the fish complies with the maximum permitted
the fish or impair the quality of the way in which they concentration of the drug or chemical in fish for
are grown. human consumption.
a. dirt a. withdrawal time
b. poison b. drawback period
c. chemical c. pullback time
d. pollutants d. removal time
16. Is the water space in which fish are confined for the 24. Means transferring harvested fish that are fit for
purpose of aquaculture by any construction material. human consumption into other ponds, tanks or cages
a. rearing unit of the same aquaculture establishment in order to
b. rearing pond clean the gut, recover from stress or acclimatize to
c. rearing environment different conditions before transport of the live
d. growing area product.
17. In an aquaculture establishment means an adequate a. acclimatization
aqueous confinement space for a certain biomass; b. fishing
this term includes a pond, storage pond, tank, c. conditioning
raceway, or cage. d. harvesting
a. rearing unit 25. Means any substance intended for preventing,
b. rearing pond destroying, attracting, repelling or controlling any pest
c. rearing environment including unwanted species of plants or animals
d. rearing tanks during the production, storage, transport, distribution
and processing of food, agricultural commodities, or
18. Means collecting or harvesting of fish out of rearing animal feeds or which may be administered to
units for their transfer to another rearing unit. animals for the control of ectoparasites. The term
a. harvesting normally includes fertilizers, plant and animal
b. fishing-out nutrients, food additives and veterinary drugs.
c. gleaning a. chemicals
d. picking out b. pesticide
c. poison
d. drug
19. Means any foreign substances including their 26. The science that combines the methods and findings
metabolites, which remain fish prior to harvesting as a of cytology and genetics
result of either application or accidental exposure. a. cytogenetics
Examples of such substances are antibiotics, b. molecular genetics
anthelminthics, chemotherapeutics, disinfectants, fish c. quantitative genetics
food additives, growth promoters, hormones, d. qualitative genetics
hormone-like substances, heavy metals, pesticides, e. Mendelian genetics
tranquilizers and radioactive materials. 27. A group of genetically identical cells (individuals)
a. pesticide residue descended from a single or common ancestral cell by
b. residue mitosis.
c. precipitate a. clone
d. substrate b. offspring
20. Means chemicals other than nutrients for fish, which c. progeny
are approved for addition to fish feed. 28. The female parent in animal breeding
a. premix a. sire
b. antioxidant b. dame
c. feed additives 29. A cross between individuals that differ with respect to
d. preservatives two specific gene pairs or two traits.
a. monohybrid cross
21. Refers to residue levels of a chemical that are b. dihybrid cross
permitted by the official agency having jurisdiction in c. normally pigmented rainbow trout X albino
food for human consumption. rainbow trout
a. forbearance
b. tolerance
c. allowance
30. A cross between parents that differ with respect to a a. genotype
single specified pair of allele. b. phenotype
a. monohybrid cross 45. The law stating that both gene frequencies and
b. dihybrid cross genotype frequencies will remain constant from
c. normally pigmented rainbow trout X albino generation to generation in large population that mate
rainbow trout at random provided that there is no selection,
31. A physical or chemical agent that increases the migration or mutation.
frequency of mutation. a. Hardy-Weinberg Law
a. mutagen b. Law of Independent Assortment
b. antigen c. Law of Segregation
32. Sudden heritable change in a gene or in the 46. A measure of the degree to which a phenotype is
chromosome structure of an organism. genetically influenced and can be modified by
a. gigantism selection.
b. dwarfism a. heritability
c. mutation b. probability
47. A progeny of a cross between genetically unlike
33. The selection pressure applied on population by the parents.
environment to adapt it for survival in that a. inbred
environment. b. hybrid
a. artificial selection 48. Any natural or artificial process that favors the survival
b. natural selection and reproduction of certain individuals.
34. Mating together of individuals that are related to each a. hybridization
other by common ancestry b. selection
a. inbreeding 49. The separation of homologous chromosomes at
b. out breeding meiosis and the consequent separation of alleles and
35. Reductions in mean performance of a trait in an their phenotypic differences as observed in the
inbred population and are mejasured as the progeny.
differential performance of inbred and out bred a. segregation
groups. b. assortment
a. inbreeding coefficient
b. inbreeding depression 50. Mating combinations in which the sources of male
36. The male parent in animal breeding. and female gametes are reversed.
a. sire a. reciprocal cross
b. dam b. line cross
37. A fish population that exhibits reproducible 51. Condition where the probability of anyone mating is
physiological, morphological, or cultural performance equal to the probability of any other mating within the
characteristics that is significantly different from those population.
of other fish populations of the same species or a a. assortative mating
broodstock that is derived from such a population. b. random mating
a. strain 52. A group of organisms of the same species living
b. species within a prescribed geographic area.
38. A fish population living at a single location as a self- a. population
sustaining interbreeding unit, maintained either b. strain
naturally or artificially. 53. Complete set of genetic information carried by
a. broodstock individuals within a population.
b. breeder a. genetic load
39. The identification and discarding of inferior animals b. gene pool
from a breeding stock. 54. Proportion of individuals having the particular
a. selection genotype.
b. culling a. genotype frequency
40. Condition wherein one allele partly or completely b. phenotype frequency
masks the expression of its alternative allele when c. allele frequency
they are in the heterozygous state.
a. recessiveness 55. Proportion of alleles that is of specified type.
b. dominance a. genotype frequency
41. the hereditary unit that occupies a fixed chromosomal b. phenotype frequency
location (locus), which through a specific function c. allele frequency
produces a specific effect on phenotype. 56. Proportion of genotypes that are heterozygous.
a. gene a. heterozygotes
b. chromosome b. heterozygosity
42. The differential responses of a genotype in different
environments.
a. Genotype-Environment interaction
b. Phenotype-Environment interaction
c. Genotype-Phenotype interaction 57. Refers to mating in which partners are non-random
43. The genetic constitution of an individual. with respect to phenotype.
a. genotype a. assortative mating
b. phenotype b. random mating
44. The observable properties of an individual.
58. A DNA containing linear structure of the cell nuclei b. Excellent strain that has comparable
responsible for the determination and transmission of advantage with other tilapia strain for
hereditary characteristics. entrepreneurial livelihood projects in support
a. gene to aquaculture for rural development.
b. chromosome c. Exemplary strain that has comparable
59. The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome advantage with other tilapia strain for
such that it is stably maintained in a heritable manner. entrepreneurial livelihood and projects.
a. transgenesis d. Exhilarating strain that has comparable
b. electrophoresis advantage with other tilapia strain for
60. When the average of the P (Parent) for a trait is entrepreneurial livelihood projects in support
exceeded by the average of their offspring to aquaculture for rural development.
a. heterosis or hybrid vigor 71. Launching date of BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL.
b. heterozygosity a. October 16, 2002
61. Process in which both sets of chromosomes in an b. October 18, 2002
individual are derived from the male parent only. c. November 19, 2002
a. gynogenesis d. August 3, 2002
b. androgenesis 72. A result of crosses between GIFT, FaST, O. aureus,
62. Synthetic tilapia of African and Asian strain and a O. mossambicus and O. spilurus.
result of collaborative partnership of BFAR-NFFTC, a. saline tolerant tilapia
CLSU-FAC, Norway Institute of Aquaculture b. cold tolerant tilapia
Research (AKVAFORK), UP MSI, coordinated by the c. jewel tilapia
ICLARM from 1987-1997. d. red tilapia
a. GIFT strain 73. A result of crosses between GIFT, FaST, and O.
b. FaST aureus
63. Developed by crossing the best performing genetic a. saline tolerant tilapia
groups from 8 diverse Nile tilapia strains. b. cold tolerant tilapia
a. 8th Generation of FAC Selected Tilapia c. jewel tilapia
b. 8th Generation GIFT Strain d. red tilapia
c. African Strain 74. A tilapia hybrid which is a result of a cross between
d. Kenya Strain female O. mossambicus and male O. urolepsis
64. A product of within family selection (based on weight) hornorum,
of O. niloticus in a rotational mating scheme. a. saline tolerant tilapia
a. African strain b. cold tolerant tilapia
b. Egypt strain c. jewel tilapia
c. 13th Generation of FAC Selected Tilapia d. red tilapia
(FaST) 75. Tilapia that was obtained by cross breeding a female
d. GIFT strain hybrid of T. mossambica X T. hornorum with a strain
65. GIFT stands for? of T. nilotica or by crossing a mutant reddish-orange
a. Genetic Improvement of Farmed Tilapia female of T. mossambica with a normal colored gray
b. Genetically Improved Farmed Tilapia male T. nilotica.
66. Strains of tilapia that gave birth to BFAR 2000. a. saline tolerant tilapia
a. GIFT and Kenya strain b. cold tolerant tilapia
b. GIFT and FaST c. jewel tilapia
c. FaST and Kenya strain d. red tilapia
76. Androgen used in masculinizing tilapia.
67. BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL, the newly developed strain a. ethyl testosterone
of tilapia is a product of what kind of breeding? b. methyl testosterone
a. selective breeding c. progesterone
b. outbreeding 77. A process or raising the level of male steroid in the
c. inbreeding blood stream of sexually undifferentiated fry.
68. Tilapia strain that was introduced in 1992 through the a. YY technology
GIFT project implemented by the ICLARM. b. Sex Reversal
a. African strain 78. Has been developed with the main objective of
b. Egypt strain producing males with a YY genotype.
c. Kenya strain a. YY technology
69. Parent line of BFAR GET 2002 EXCEL b. Sex Reversal
a. Kenya strain, African strain, Egypt strain, 8th 79. Age of tilapia fry suitable for sex reversal.
Generation of GIFT strain a. 17-21 days
b. Kenya strain, FaST strain, Egypt strain, 8th b. 17 days
Generation of GIFT strain c. less than 17 days
c. Egypt strain, Kenya strain, 8th Generation of d. 21 days
GIFT strain, 13th Generation of FaST
d. 8th Generation of GIFT strain, African strain, 80. Effective treatment duration for sex reversal to
13th Generation of FaST produce more than or equal to 95% male tilapia.
70. EXCEL implies for a. 20 days
a. Excellent strain that has comparable b. 10-15 days
advantage with other tilapia strain for c. 3-4 weeks
entrepreneurial livelihood and projects.
 c. men higher high water
96. A soil that is suitable or aquaculture.
81. Optimum temperature for sex reversal. a. peaty soil
a. less than 32OC b. with 20% clay
b. more than 32OC c. sandy
c. 36OC d. loam
82. Sex reversal can be accomplished by 97. Occurs when the pond bottom of brackishwater ponds
a. dietary treatment are exposed to sunlight.
b. immersion technique a. cracked soil
c. all of the above b. acid sulfate soil
83. Basis of brackishwater aquaculture. c. floc and precipitates
a. milkfish culture 98. A milkfish pond layout consisting of 1% NP, 9% FP,
b. sea bass culture 80% RP and 10% for dikes and canal.
c. oyster culture a. conventional pond lay-out
84. A type of water system that needs new and fresh b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
water, it is also the most expensive because it needs c. radiating pond lay-out
ample water supply. 99. A milkfish pond lay-out consisting of 4%NP, 6%FP,
a. closed water system 80% RP and 10% for dikes and canal and usually
b. open water system being adopted to produce uniform size of fish.
c. semi-closed water system a. conventional pond lay-out
85. A type of water system wherein part or half of the b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
water will be and the other half must fresh. c. radiating pond lay-out
a. closed water system 100.A milkfish pond layout consisting of 10%FP, 80% RP
b. open water system and 10% for dikes and canals.
c. semi-closed water system a. conventional pond lay-out
86. The ultimate goal of aquaculture. b. modular or progressive pond lay-out
a. to diminish food shortage and food security c. radiating pond lay-out
b. poverty alleviation 101.Scientific name of milkfish.
c. rural livelihood a. Channos channos
87. Major contributor in terms of aquaculture in South b. Chanos chanos
East Asia. 102.Milkfish belong to order _____
a. Thailand , Philippines, Indonesia a. Siluriformes
b. Taiwan, Philippines, Indonesia b. Chanidae
c. Indonesia, Myanmar, Thailand c. Gonorynchiformes
d. Indonesia, Philippines, Vietnam d. Bangusidae
88. Organisms with wide range of salinity tolerance. 103.Temperature tolerance limits of milkfish
a. euryhaline a. 15-40OC
b. eurythermal b. 10-45 OC
c. stenohaline c. 18-35 OC
d. stenothermal d. 20-33 OC
89. Organisms with narrow range of salinity tolerance. 104.Optimum temperature for milkfish culture.
a. euryhaline a. 15-40OC
b. eurythermal b. 10-45 OC
c. stenohaline c. 18-35 OC
d. stenothermal d. 20-33 OC
90. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity 105.The most common system for the culture of milkfish.
ranges is between 0.5-3 ppt. a. brackishwater coastal pond
a. mesohaline b. freshwater ponds or stocked in lakes and
b. oligohaline reservoirs
c. polyhaline c. fish pen and cages
91. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity 106.A method that is composed of complex association of
ranges is between 10-17 ppt. small bottom dwelling organisms such as diatoms,
a. mesohaline blue-green algae and other organisms like bacteria
b. oligohaline green algae, protozoans, flatworms, copepods,
c. polyhaline decapods and polychaete worms.
92. A type of water based on salinity wherein the salinity a. Lumut method
ranges is between 3-10 ppt. b. Lablab method
a. mesohaline c. Plankton method
b. oligohaline 107.A method that is composed of filamentous or grass
c. polyhaline green algae, Cladophora spp., Enteromorpha,
93. First step in developing aquaculture project. Chaetomorpha and was considered to be the best
a. site selection natural food to be raised in ponds, it requires a soft
b. site evaluation bottom and wet season to grow well.
94. Suitable area for brackishwater aquaculture. a. Lumut method
a. coastal area b. Lablab method
b. mangrove swamps c. Plankton method
95. Basis of establishing the pond bottom.
a. 0 datum plane
b. mean lower low water
108.Also known as the deep-water method requiring a a. Ictalurus punctatus
water level of 70-100 cm., soft bottom and grows well b. Clarias batrachus
during rainy season. c. Silurus glanis
a. Lumut method
b. Lablab method 120.Genera of tialpia that are paternal or biparental
c. Plankton method mouthbrooder
109.A milkfish disease caused by sudden lowering of
temperature in shallow ponds, the symptoms are
milky discoloration of the skin and sluggish a. Tilapia
movement. b. Sarotherodon
a. milk disease c. Oreochromis
b. catching cold c. ich
110.Catfishes belong to family 121.Genera of tilapia that are substrate spawner
a. Claridae, Ictaluridae. Pangasidae, Siluridae
b. Clarias, Ictalurus, Pangasius, Silurus a. Tilapia
c. Clarias macrocephalus, Ictalurus punctatus, b. Sarotherodon
Pangasius sutchi, Silurus glanis c. Oreochromis
111.The species of catfish considered synonymous with
Clarias gariepinus
a. Clarias batrachus 122.Genera of tilapia that are maternal mouthbrooder
b. Clarias lazera
c. Silurus glanis a. Tilapia
112.Brackishwater species of catfish b. Sarotherodon
a. Ictalurus punctatus c. Oreochromis
b. Silurus spp.
c. Chrysichthys spp.
123.Blue tilapia
113.Native catfish
a. Clarias macrocephalus
b. Clarias batrachus a. O. mossambicus
c. Silurus glanis b. O. hornorum
c. O. aureus
114.Accessory feeding structures of catfishes
1. Flaps 124.A ciliate that is particularly associated with
2. barbells mouthbrooders
3. taste buds
a. Tribodina
115.Changing the fish’s internal regulating factors for b. Trichodina
spawning with injected hormones or other substances c. Tribodinella

a. induced spawning 125.In Oreochromis how long does oral incubation takes
b. natural spawning place?
c. forced spawning
a. 10-30 days
116.The internal mechanism that regulates the process of b. 6-10 days c. 1-5 days
reproduction in fish.
A key problem for tilapia hatchery producers
a. brain-pituitary-gonad-chain a. uncontrolled spawning
b. brain-thalamus-pituitary-gonad chain b. asynchronous breeding
c. brain-hypothalamus-pituitary gonad chain - c. lack of buyers
127.A key problem for tilapia grow out producers
a. uncontrolled spawning
117.Ictalurus punctatus
b. asynchronous breeding
c. lack of buyers
a. African catfish
b. Thai catfish
128.Volume range of O. niloticus eggs
c. channel catfish
a. 2.80-11.20 mm3
b. 2.85-11.15 mm3
118.A collective name for species that have accessory c. 2.85-11.20 mm3
respiratory organ and can live out of water for long 129.Tilapia belongs to family
period a. Channidae
b. Cichlidae
a. lungfish c. Cyprinidae
b. catfish
c. live fish

119.Known as the sheatfish, wels or European catfish 130.Giant freshwater prawn

 a. M. rosenbergii 141. The most common grow-out practice for shrimps in which
b. P. merguiensis ponds are stocked once or several times a year and are never
c. P. monodon drained except for repairs
d. P. vannamei a. continuous culture
b. batch culture
131.Banana shrimp c. community culture method
a. P. kerathurus d. clearwater system
b. P. stylirostris 142.Consist of stocking a pond and allowing the stock to
c. P. vannamei grow and attain marketable size after which the ponds
d. P. merguiensis are drained and the whole stock is harvested
132.Tiger shrimp a. continuous culture
a. P. penicillatus b. batch culture
b. P. duorarum c. community culture method
c. P. monodon d. clearwater system
d. P. chinensis 143.A spawned female shrimp/prawn
133.Fastest growing species of shrimp used un a. had spawned
aquaculture in Asia b. gravid
a. M. rosenbergii c. berried
b. P. merguiensis d. spent
c. P. monodon 144.Resemble juvenile prawns and rest or crawl at the
d. P. vannamei tank surface
134.Temperature tolerance of Penaeid shrimp a. protozoea
a. 10-20 ppt b. mysis
b. 10-30 ppt c. nauplii
c. 10-40 ppt d. post larvae
d. 10-50 ppt 145.Stalked eyes
135.Helps in speedy maturation and better spawning rates a. Stage I
of shrimp which do not mature in captivity b. Stage II
a. ligation c. Stage III
b. cautery d. Stage IV
c. eyestalk ablation 146.Sessile eyes
d. pinching a. Stage I
136.A larval stage wherein the shrimp/prawn subsist on its b. Stage II
own yolk material c. Stage III
a. protozoea d. Stage IV
b. nauplii 147.Two teeth on the dorsal rostrum
c. post larvae a. Stage III
d. mysis b. Stage IV
137.Syntheses of these substances do not take place in c. Stage V
crustaceans that is why they are included in shrimp d. Stage IX
diets 148.Kuruma shrimp
a. glycerol and fatty acids a. P. aztecus
b. sterols and fatty acid b. P. vannamei
c. sterols and phospholipids c. P. japonicus
d. fatty acids and sphingolipids d. P. stylirostris
138.An environmental disease of shrimps/prawn caused 149.A viral disease of P. monodon wherein the
by supersaturation of atmospheric gases and oxygen hepatopancreatic tubule epithelium is affected and
a. air bubble disease does not have an external sign requiring histological
b. gas bubble examination
c. bubble disease a. Baculoviral midgut gland necrosis
d. gas bubble disease b. Infectious hypodermal and
haematopoietic necrosis
c. Baculovirus penaei
139.Female shrimp/prawn carrying eggs d. Vibrio harveyi
a. spent 150.Farming and husbandry of aquatic organisms such as
b. pregnant plants, finfish and shellfish under controlled and semi-
c. berried controlled condition
d. ready to spawn a. fisheries
140.The system developed for high density larval culture b. aquaculture
with total water exchange and the water quality is c. fishery industry
maintained by chlorination and dechlorination by d. fish culture
sunlight and strong aeration
a. clearwater system
b. geenwater recirculating system 151.Fertilization only
c. community culture method a. extensive culture
d. continuous culture b. semi-intensive
c. semi-extensive
d. intensive
152.Complete feeding
a. extensive
 b. semi-intensive c. secondary productivity
c. intensive d. tertiary productivity
d. unltraintensive 165.The position an organism occupies in the food web
153.Fertilization + supplemental feeding a. ecological niche
a. extensive b. trophic level
b. semi-intensive c. herbivore
c. semi-extensive d. carnivore
d. intensive 166.Culture chamber that is usually long and narrow,
154.Rearing of single species of fish in a pond water enters one end and exits the other end in most
a. mono-stocking cases
b. monoculture a. recirculating system
c. monospecies culture b. tanks
d. monofish culture c. raceway
155.Stocking two species of fish in the same pond but in d. pond
different period 167.The biomass present in a body of water at a particular
a. double cropping time
b. multi-species stocking a. biomass
c. double culture b. carrying capacity
d. multi-stage stocking c. present crop
156.Recommended water hardness for most freshwater d. standing crop
species 168.The amount of elemental oxygen present in a solution
a. 20-150 mg/l a. dissolved oxygen
b. 20-80 mg/l b. oxygen
c. 20-85 mg/l c. carbon dioxide
d. 20-100 mg/l d. carbon monoxide
157.Ammonia that is highly toxic to fish
a. ionized ammonia REVIEW QUESTIONS IN AQUACULTURE III©
b. un-ionized ammonia Is any premises for the production of live finfish or
158.Maximum acceptable level of hydrogen sulfide for crustaceans (fish) intended for human consumption,
excellent fish health including the supporting inner infrastructure and
a. 0.001 mg/l surroundings under the control of the same
b. 0.002 mg/l management.
c. 0.003 mg/l
d. 0.004 mg/l
159.Simplest way to measure water transparency is by a. aquaculture agency
using b. aquaculture establishment
a. siko disc c. aquaculture building
b. scchi disc d. aquaculture office
c. filter paper 2. Includes any substance either natural or synthetic
d. secchi disc visibility which can affect the live fish, its pathogens, the water,
160.A management technique used to enhance the equipment used for production or the land within the
productivity of the water aquaculture establishment; such substances include
a. biofiltration pesticides, therapeutic chemicals, disinfectants,
b. liming anesthetics, hormones, dyes, detergents, antifoulants
c. fertilization and fertilizers.
d. aeration a. chemotherapeutants
161.The total weight of organisms contained in a sample b. chemicals
or expressed on the basis of weight of organic c. disinfectants
material present per unit area of volume d. drug/medicine
a. biomass 3. Means obtaining specifically colored fish flesh by
b. carrying capacity incorporating into the fish food a natural or artificial
c. average weight d. substance or additive approved for this purpose by
average/mean agency having jurisdiction.
162.The rearing of one sex of fish a. additives
a. monoculture b. food color
b. monosex culture c. dyes
c. monofish culture d. coloring
d. single sex culture 4. Means transferring harvested fish that are fit for
163.The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion human consumption into other ponds, tanks or cages
concentration of the same aquaculture establishment in order to
a. total harness clean the gut, recover from stress or acclimatize to
b. alkalinity different conditions before transport of the live
c. pH product.
d. acidity a. acclimatization
b. fishing
c. conditioning
164.The rate at which tissue is elaborated by primary d. harvesting
producers 5. Means impervious material that is free from pits,
a. productivity crevices and scale, is non-toxic and unaffected by
b. primary productivity
 water (or seawater), ice, slime or any other corrosive b. manager
substance with which it is likely to come in contact. Its c. president
surfaces must be smooth and it must be capable of d. head
withstanding exposure to repeated cleaning, including 15. Means the official authority or authorities charged by
the use of detergents and disinfectants. the government with the control of food hygiene
a. antifouling materials (sometimes referred to as the competent authority) as
b. corrosion-resistant materials well as/or with sanitation in aquaculture.
c. anticorrosion material a. administration
d. resistant material b. judge
6. Means a fish on or in which pathological changes or c. administrative order
other abnormalities are apparent. d. official agency having jurisdiction
a. stressed fish 16. Means any substance intended for preventing,
b. poor health destroying, attracting, repelling or controlling any pest
c. diseased fish including unwanted species of plants or animals
d. acute syndrome during the production, storage, transport, distribution
7. Means utensils such as nets, conveyers, sorting and processing of food, agricultural commodities, or
tables or machines, buckets, dip nets, pumps, animal feeds or which may be administered to
transportation tanks, vehicles, etc., used during animals for the control of ectoparasites. The term
fishing out, sorting, loading and transportation of fish normally includes fertilizers, plant and animal
to market. nutrients, food additives and veterinary drugs.
a. paraphernalia a. chemicals
b. instrument b. pesticide
c. materials c. poison
d. equipment d. drug
8. Means chemicals other than nutrients for fish, which 17. Means any specified substance in food, agricultural
are approved for addition to fish feed. commodities, or animal feed resulting from the use of
a. premix a pesticide. The term includes any derivatives of a
b. antioxidant pesticide, such as conversion products, metabolites,
c. feed additives reaction products and impurities.
d. preservatives a. pesticide residue
9. Means fodder intended for fish in aquaculture b. residue
establishments, in any form and of any composition. c. precipitate
a. fish feed d. substrate
b. copra meal 18. Means substances originating from human activities
c. protein and not from natural causes, which can contaminate
d. carbohydrates the fish or impair the quality of the way in which they
are grown.
10. Means collecting or harvesting of fish out of rearing a. dirt
units for their transfer to another rearing unit. b. poison
a. harvesting c. chemical
b. fishing-out d. pollutants
c. gleaning 19. Is the water space in which fish are confined for the
d. picking-out purpose of aquaculture by any construction material.
11. Are defined as those practices of the aquaculture a. rearing unit
sector that are necessary to produce quality food b. rearing pond
products conforming to food laws and regulations. c. rearing environment
a. good aquaculture d. growing area
b. better aquaculture
c. best aquaculture 20. In an aquaculture establishment means an adequate
d. absolutely the best aquaculture aqueous confinement space for a certain biomass;
12. Means freshwater, estuarine, brackish and marine this term includes a pond, storage pond, tank,
areas used for aquaculture establishments, including raceway, or cage.
surroundings under the control of the same a. rearing unit
management. b. rearing pond
a. rearing unit c. rearing environment
b. growing unit d. rearing tanks
c. rearing area
d. growing area
13. Means those operations that start with taking the fish
from the water and end with the transport of live or
fresh fish for human consumption to the market.
a. harvesting
b. fishing-out
c. picking-out
d. collecting 21. Means any foreign substances including their
14. In relation to an establishment includes any person for metabolites, which remain fish prior to harvesting as a
the time being responsible for the management of the result of either application or accidental exposure.
establishment. Examples of such substances are antibiotics,
a. boss
 anthelminthics, chemotherapeutics, disinfectants, fish 13. Sexual maturity of tilapia ___________.
food additives, growth promoters, hormones, 14. Average number of eggs produced per gram female
hormone-like substances, heavy metals, pesticides, _________.
tranquilizers and radioactive materials.
a. pesticide residue 15-19. In the reproductive cycle of Oreochromis tilapias
b. residue how long does:
c. precipitate
d. substrate
22. Refers to residue levels of a chemical that are a. Nest building and courtship takes place?
permitted by the official agency having jurisdiction in _________
food for human consumption. b. Ovulation and spawning takes place?
a. forbearance _________
b. tolerance c. Oral incubation takes place? ________
c. allowance d. Nursing takes place? ________
d. optimum level e. Feeding and recovery takes place?
23. Means any substance applied or administered to any ___________
food producing animal, such are meat or milk
producing animals, poultry, fish or bees, whether use 20. A key problem for tilapia hatchery producers using
foe therapeutic, prophylactic, diagnostic purposes or Oreochromis is ________________.
for modification of physiological functions or behavior.
a. chemotherapeutants 21. A key problem for tilapia grow out producers
b. prohibited drugs ___________________.
c. fishery drugs
d. veterinary drugs
24. Refers to liquid waste discharged from homes, 22. Age difference between O. niloticus fry that could
commercial premises, and similar sources to induce cannibalism ___________.
individual disposal system or to municipal sewers,
and consists mainly of excreta and used water. 23. Volume range of O. niloticus eggs __________.
a. effluents
b. wastewater
24. Relationship of female size of O. niloticus and O.
c. pollutants
mossambicus to the size of eggs produce
d. dirty water
______________________.
25. Is the period of time between the administration of a
25. Relationships of female size to the number of eggs
veterinary drug to fish, or exposure of fish to
produce _________________.
chemical, and harvesting of the fish to ensure that the
26. Relationship of egg size to the size of the fry that will
concentration of the drug or chemical in the edible
be developed ________________.
flesh of the fish complies with the maximum permitted
27. How many egg batches can a female tilapia produce
concentration of the drug or chemical in fish for
in one year? ________________.
human consumption.
28. Relationship of female size to spawning frequency
a. withdrawal time
__________________.
b. drawback period
29. Relationship of female size to egg incubation
c. pullback time
___________________.
d. removal time
30. Approximated growth of female tilapia per day
____________.
TILAPIA CULTURE 31. Nile tilapia eggs take about _____ days to hatch at
1. Tilapia belongs to family Cichlidae. 28oC.
2. Genera of tilapia that are substrate spawners Genus 32. Fry having yolk sac __________.
Tilapia. 33. How long is the yolk sac absorption at 28oC? _______
3. Genera of tilapia that are paternal or biparental mouth 34. Major problem in tilapia broodstock ponds used for fry
brooders Genus Sarotherodon. production ______________.
4. Genera of tilapia that are maternal mouth brooders 35. Tilapia fry of the same age that is much larger that the
Genus Oreochromis. others are called _______________.
5. Tilapia originated in what country? 36. Example of carnivorous species that consume tilapia
__________________ fry __________________.
6. Tilapia was first introduced here in the Philippines 37. A ciliate that is particularly with mouth brooders
during the year 1972. ______________.
7. Species of tilapia that was first introduced in the 38. Weight range of size#24 tilapia (BFAR) _________
Philippines. Nile Tilapia 39. Weight range of size#22 tilapia (BFAR) _________
8. Widely recognized and the most important species of 40. Weight range of size#17 tilapia (BFAR) _________
tilapia and known as the “aquatic chicken” Nile 41. Weight range of size#14 tilapia (BFAR) _________
Tilapia. 42. Optimum water level for grow out culture (FAC and
9. Also known as the blue tilapia Oreochromis niloticus BFAR) ___________
(Nile Tilapia). 43. Culture period for grow out production of tilapia
10. Also known as the Mozambique tilapia Oreochromis __________
mossambicus (African Tilapia). 44. Best time for harvesting ____________
11. Characteristics of mouth brooder tilapias wherein they 45. Stocking rate for extensive culture of tilapia _______
don’t have permanent partners _________________. 46. Stocking rate for semi-intensive culture of tilapia
12. Nesting area of female tilapia _____________. ________
47. Stocking rate for intensive culture of tilapia _______
48. The most common and widely practiced culture 21-25. Enumerate the purposes of induced spawning
system/chamber of tilapia ___________
49. One of the biological control of recruits in pond culture a.
is by stocking a certain number of predators like
snakeheads, catfish, etc. These species are stocked
for how many per cent of the tilapia stock? b.
___________
50. Feeding habit of tilapia species ____________ c.
51. In grow out culture of tilapia, why are males more
preferred than females? not prolific d.
52. Commonly used species for cage culture of tilapia
_________ , __________, _________.
53. Cages are mainly used for what kind of production? e.
_____________
54. Stocking rate in floating cages when the size of the 26-35. Environmental factors affecting fish’s
fish is 3-4 cm. _________ reproductive cycle
55. Stocking rate of T. nilotica in fixed cages
____________
a.
56. Major operating expense in cage culture
______________
57. In rice fish culture integrated farming, what is the b.
major product? Rice
58. Examples of organisms that can be cultured together c.
with tilapia. Prawn, __________, ____________,
___________, _____________
d.

Catfish Culture
e.

1. Catfishes belong to family Ictaluridae, Clariidae,

f.
Pimelodidae, Plotosidae.
2. A collective name for species that have accessory
respiratory organs and can live out of water for long g.
periods labyrinth organ
3. Accessory feeding structures of catfishes barbels h.
4. The most important aquaculture species of catfish in
USA. Channel catfish
5. Catfish that is more tolerant to crowding, higher i.
temperature and low oxygen levels. Clarias
gariepinus j.
6. Scientific name of blue catfish which grow more
uniformly, dresses out better and have farming 36-41. Substances used for hormone-induced
potential Ictalurus furcatus spawning of catfish and other fish
7. Slow growing species of catfish eel catfish
8. Also known as the native catfish Clarias
macrocephalus a.
9. The species of catfish that has received greater
attention in Africa ____________ b.
10. The species of catfish in #9 is considered
synonymous with C. gariepinus known also as c.
__________________
11. Brackish water species of catfish _______________
12. Known as the sheatfish, wels, or European catfish d.
______________
13. The most common culture of catfish in all parts of the e.
world ______________
14. Freshwater catfish Janitor fish 42-44. Different methods of taking the spawn
15. Feeding habits of catfishes ____________
16. Sexual maturity of catfish (C. macrocephalus)
______________ a.
17. Number of eggs produce per gram BW (body weight)
of female C. macrocephalus ___________ b.
18. The final event of reproductive cycle
_____________________
c.
19. Changing the fish’s internal regulating factors for
spawning with injected hormones or other substances
__________________ 45. Method used to take the spawns of female C.
20. The internal mechanism that regulates the process of macrocephalus ________________
reproduction in fish ____________
46. Method used to take sperm or milt of male C.
macrocephalus ________________
47. Larval foods of catfish (live natural food organisms)
_____________, _______________,
_______________
48. Percent of formulated diets after weaning (SEAFDEC) 26-35. Environmental factors affecting fish’s
_____________ reproductive cycle
49. Particle size of formulated diet suitable for catfish
larvae ___________ a.

REVIEW QUESTIONS IN AQUACULTURE IV b.

Catfish Culture c.

1. Catfishes belong to family Clariidae, ____________, d.

____________, __________
2. A collective name for species that have accessory e.
respiratory organs and can live out of water for long
periods. lungfish
3. Accessory feeding structures of catfishes Barbels f.
4. The most important aquaculture species of catfish in
USA. _______________ g.
5. Catfish that is more tolerant to crowding, higher
temperature and low oxygen levels.
h.
_______________
6. Scientific name of blue catfish which grow more
uniformly, dresses out better and have farming i.
potential ________________
7. Slow growing species of catfish eel-like catfish j.
8. Also known as the native catfish Clarias
macrocephalus
9. The species of catfish that has received greater
attention in Africa ____________
36-41. Substances used for hormone-induced
10. The species of catfish in #9 is considered
spawning of catfish and other fish
synonymous with C. gariepinus known also as
__________________
11. Brackish water species of catfish _______________ a.
12. Known as the sheatfish, wels, or European catfish
______________ b.
13. The most common culture of catfish in all parts of the
world ______________
14. Freshwater catfish Janitor fish c.
15. Feeding habits of catfishes ____________
16. Sexual maturity of catfish (C. macrocephalus) d.
______________
17. Number of eggs produce per gram BW (body weight) e.
of female C. macrocephalus ___________
18. The final event of reproductive cycle
_____________________ 42-44. Different methods of taking the spawn
19. Changing the fish’s internal regulating factors for
spawning with injected hormones or other substances a.
__________________
20. The internal mechanism that regulates the process of b.
reproduction in fish ____________
c.
21-25. Enumerate the purposes of induced spawning
45. Method used to take the spawns of female C.
a. macrocephalus ________________

b. 46. Method used to take sperm or milt of male C.

macrocephalus ________________
c. 47. Larval foods of catfish (live natural food organisms)
_____________, _______________,
d. _______________
48. Percent of formulated diets after weaning (SEAFDEC)
_____________
e.
 49. Particle size of formulated diet suitable for catfish abalone of its small size (maximum shell length 1of 10-11 cm),
larvae ___________ it is the fastest growing abalone the world.

SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS A. Haliotis asinina

(Source: PRC-Fisheries Board of Examiners) B. Haliotis rufescens

1. Some farmers feed their fish to satiation to maximize growth, C. Haliotis diversicolor
this may, result to:
D. Haliotis varia
A. Water quality deterioration in ponds
Shrimps and Prawn
B. All of these
1. Marine water species ___________.
C. High FCR caused by more uneaten feeds 2. Freshwater forms ____________.

D. Inefficient digestion and nutrient assimilation in fish Match column A with column B
2. A giant freshwater prawn farmer stocked 5, 000 PL in a B
pond with initial average weight of 0.10 g/PL. At harvest the
survival rate was 60% and the average size of prawn was 20 A
pieces per kg. Nine bags (25kg/bag) of feeds were consumed 3. Giant freshwater prawn a a. M. rosenbergii
during the culture period. What is the estimated FCR of the 4. Tiger shrimp b b. P. monodon
produced prawn? 5. Banana shrimp c. P. merguiensis
6. Green tiger or bear shrimp d. P. semisulcatus
A. 1.50 7. Oriental shrimp e. P. chinensis
8. Red tailed shrimp f. P. penicillatus
B. 1.53 9. Triple grooved shrimp g. P. kerathurus
10. White leg shrimp H h. P. vannamei
C. 1.60 11. Blue shrimp i. P. stylirostris
12. Brown shrimp J j. P. aztecus
D. 1.48 13. Pink shrimp k. P. duorarum
14. Common or white shrimp L l. P. satiferus
3. Which of the following management measures should NOT 15. Southern white shrimp m. P. schmitti
be instituted in case the seaweed farm is affected by 16. Water salinity requirement of Penaeid shrimp
epiphytes? ______________.
17. Temperature tolerance of Penaeid shrimp
A. Use the infected seaweed for planting _______________.
18. Harvest size of shrimp based on the commercial size
____________
B. Stop in using the affected area temporarily 19. Male M. rosenbergii can attain a size of about
___________
C. Never take seedlings from infected stocks 20. Female M. rosenbergii can attain a size of about
__________
D. Use the total harvest of the stocks 21. Larval rearing salinity for M. rosenbergii larvae
___________
22. A hardy species of shrimp but cannot tolerate low
4. Phytoplankton constitutes the major portion of the plankton salinity or high temperature ______________
group in ponds. Through photosynthesis phytoplankton 23. Fastest growing species of shrimp used in
manufacture its own food, thus they are referred to as aquaculture in Asia _____________
____________ producers. 24. Tiger shrimp are considered euryhaline species and
can tolerate almost freshwater conditions but the
A. Secondary optimum salinity requirement is _____________
25. Temperature tolerance range of tiger shrimp
B. Tertiary __________
26. Species of shrimps that exhibits preference for sandy
substrate, also known as the Indian shrimp
C. Super Dissolved Oxygen _____________
27. Species of shrimp that exhibits a preference for
D. Primary muddy substrate _____________

5. Which of this species of abalone with a good foreign market 28-29. Species of shrimp that require higher salinities
and locally known as "lapas" or "sobra-sobra" called cocktail of 20-30 ppt for good growth and cannot tolerate
 salinities outside the range of 5-40 ppt, the lethal 53. Water depth for pen culture of shrimp
temperature is 34oC _______________.
54. Syntheses of these substances do not take place in
__________________, __________________ crustaceans that is why they are included in shrimp
diets, ____________ and _______________ of the
linoleic and linolenic series.
30. Species of shrimp that are highly euryhaline and 55. A virus attacking P. japonicus that causes mid-gut
can withstand salinities ranging from 0-50 ppt and and gland necrosis occurring mainly in the post larval
temperature ranging from 22oC-32oC or early juvenile stage
_______________ ____________________________________
56. A viral disease of P. monodon wherein the
31. Helps in speedy maturation and better spawning rates hepatopancreatic tubule epithelium is affected and
of shrimp which do not mature in captivity like P. aztecus, P. does not have an external sign requiring histological
duorarum, P. monodon, P. chinensis ___________________ examination. ____________________
57. A recently discovered viral disease in P. stylirostris
32. The removal of either eye or the partial or total (later also found in P. monodon) causing massive
removal of the eyestalk by cutting with surgical destruction of the cuticular hypodermis and often of
scissors, cautery, ligation, squeezing or crushing the haematopoietic organs, glial cells in the nerve cord
eyestalk tissue or manual pinching. Eyestalk ablation and loose connective tissues can be observed.
33. A culture method suitable for spawning a large Carriers of this virus can transmit them to their
number of spawners at a time and for rearing the offspring. ______________________
resultant hatchlings ________________ 58. Bacterial disease in shrimps characterized by
34. Minimum age of spawning for P. aztecus localized pits in the cuticle affecting all life stages.
______________ _________________
35. Minimum age of spawning for P. indicus 59. A fungal disease in P.japonicus caused by fungus
_______________ Fusarium solani and no effective methods of
36. Minimum age of spawning for P. japonicus prevention and cure are known at present.
_____________ __________________
37. Minimum age of spawning for P. merguiensis 60. A non-infectious disease caused by epibionts, that
____________ occurs in adult and juvenile shrimps, attaching to gills
38. Minimum age of spawning for P. monodon and body thus affecting respiration, feeding, and
____________ locomotion and moulting. ____________________
39. Minimum age of spawning for P. orientalis 61. Denotes a group of diseases caused by at least four
____________ species of microsporidians (protozoa), signs are
40. Minimum age of spawning for P. stylirostris opaque musculature and ovaries and dark blue or
____________ blackish coloration due to expanded chromatophores
41. Minimum age of spawning for P. vannamei in the cuticle. _____________________
_____________ 62. An environmental disease of Penaeid shrimp
42. Type of fertilization in shrimp ________________ characterized by whitish opaque areas in the striated
43. Larval stage wjhich passes through 3-6 sub stages musculature especially in the distal segments of the
and subsist on its own yolk material for about 2-3 abdomen. Caused by severe stress from
days ____________ overcrowding, sudden temperature and salinity
44. A stage during which the larvae starts feeding on changes and low dissolved oxygen or rough handling.
unicellular algae with three sub stages and last for 3-6 __________________
days ______________ 63. Chronic and typically septic form of muscle necrosis
45. Stage wherein the larvae retains the filtering when the abdomen or its appendages becomes
mechanism for feeding on algal cells with three sub completely necrotic, red in color and begins to
stages ______________ decompose. ______________
64. Also an environmental disease that generally occurs
during summer and characterized by a dorsal flexure
45. At this stage the larvae ceases to be a filter feeder of the abdomen that is rigid and cannot be
and becomes capable of capturing and eating straightened. The condition is brought about by
zooplankton ________________ elevated water and air temperature and stress due to
46. Denotes the post larval stage in days ___________ handling. __________________
47. Size of shrimp suitable for stocking in production 65. An environmental disease caused by supersaturation
ponds _____________ of atmospheric gases and oxygen
48. Important phytoplankters suitable as food for shrimjp __________________
larvae _____________, _______________, 66. Occurs in P. monodon in brackish water ponds with
______________ poor soil and water conditions, the affected shrimps
49. The most common grow out system for shrimp show high levels calcium and phosphorous in the
____________ hepatopancreas and lower levels of phosphorous in
50. Stocking rate of shrimp for grow-out culture in ponds the exoskeleton. ____________________
_____________ 67. The best times of harvesting shrimps
51. Intensive culture of shrimp can be carried out using _________________, ________________
__________ and ____________ of 0.5-1 ha size with 68. A shrimp behavior wherein they are attracted to light
60-150 cm water depth. _____________________.
52. Stocking rate for pen culture 69. A method of harvesting P. japonicus because of their
____________________. characteristic behavior that they burrow at the bottom
_______________________
70. Female M. rosenbergii carrying eggs Larval stage
_________________
Distinguishing characteristics
71. Color of almost ripe eggs of M. rosenbergii
_________________ 90. Sessile eyes a. I
72. Preferable broodstock size for M. rosenbergii
_________________ 91. Stalked eyes b. II
73. Sex of M. rosenbergii distinguished by the presence 92. Telson, exopod with setae, endopod c. III
of a lump or hard point in the center of the ventral side rudimentary
of the first segment of the abdomen _________
93. Two teeth on dorsal rostrum d. IV

75. Recommended pH range for larvae of M. rosenbergii 94. Telson, posterior margin of uropod e. V
__________ narrow and elongated
76. Optimum temperature for M. rosenbergii __________ 95. Pleopod buds only f. VI
77. Optimum nitrite and nitrate levels M. rosenbergii
96. Pleopod biramous, bare g. VII
_____________
78. Why are larval tanks usually painted with dark colors? 97. Pleopods, exopods with setae h. VIII
___________________ 98. Pleopod, exopod and endopod with i. IX
79. Involves the production of mixed phytoplankton setae
culture dominated by Chlorella at a cell density of
750,000-1,500,00 cells/ml. ____________________ 99. 3-4 teeth on the anterior edge of the j. X
80. The salinity of the system in #79 ___________ rostrum
81. The system developed for high density larval culture 100. Many teeth on the dorsal rostrum k. XI
with total water exchange and the water quality is
maintained by chlorination and dechlorination by
sunlight and strong aeration ___________________
82. Takes place between hard-shelled males and ripe 101. A prepared larval feed by cooking scrambled whole
soft-shelled females which have completed the pre- chicken eggs and passing it through stainless steel sieves of
mating moult _______________ the required mesh size ___________________
83. Sperms of male M. rosenbergii are released from
________________ 102. Preferred size of pond for grow-out culture of M.
84. How long is the incubation period at temperatures of rosenbergii ___________
about 28OC ________
85. Eggs that can be produced by a one year old female
spawner of M. rosenbergii ___________ 103. Average water depth for grow-out culture of M.
86. Color of eggs that will hatch within 2-3 days rosenbergii _________
____________
87. A spawned female M. rosenbergii __________ 104. High growth range may be obtained at what temperature
88. Resemble juvenile prawns and rest or crawl on the range? _________
tank surface ____________
89. M. rosenbergii undergo 11 stages during larval 105. The most common grow-out practice in which the ponds
development and the time taken for a batch of larvae are stocked once or several times a year and are never
to metamorphose varies according to temperature drained except for repairs. __________________
and feeding conditions. Under favorable conditions
post-larval stage is reached within how many days?
_______________ 106. Consist of stocking a pond and allowing the stock to grow
and attain marketable size after which the ponds are drained
and the whole stock is harvested. _______________

107. Dietary protein requirement of prawns_______

108. A disease of juvenile and adult M. rosenbergii recognized

by the presence of brown to black ulcerative to raised lesions
on the body surface or appendages ________________

109. A larval disease wherein the affected larvae are not able
to free their periopods, anterior appendages, eyes or rostrum
from the exuvia. _________________

Match column A with column B AQUACULTURE

I. Principles of Aquaculture Polyculture

1. Primary Productivity II. Freshwater Aquaculture

Photosynthesis 1. Hatchery and Nursery

Measure of Productivity Engineering Designs

Organisms Capable of Primary Productivity Broodstock Development

2. Food Chain Fertilization and Hatching

Trophic Levels Larval rearing to Fry

Energy Transfers/Loss Nursery Operations to Fingerlings

Maximization of Energy Efficiency Genetic Improvement

3. Carrying Capacity 2. Fish Growout Culture

Definition Engineering Designs

Importance and Application Culture Techniques in Ponds

4. Nutrition and Fertilizer Culture Techniques in Cages

Nutrients and Production Culture Techniques in Pens

Fertilizers - Type and Application Fertilization

5. Growth and Production Feeding

Growth Curve Determination Marketing of Produce

Factors Affecting Growth 3. Genetic Advances on Tilapia and Other Species

New Strains

6. Feeds Species Used in Developing New Strains

Types 4. Culture of Invertebrates

Quality and Maintenance Macrobrachium rosenbergii

Feed Conversion Ration/Factor Others

Organic Pollution 5. Ornamental Fishes and Aquarium Industry

7. Water Quality Ornamental Fishes in the Philippines

Diseases Aquarium Designs to Maintain Water Quality

Stress Feeding

Fish Physiology
III. Brackishwater
8. Culture Methods
1. Hatchery and Nursery
Monoculture
 Milkfish/Bangus - Life History and Biology 4. Zoning of Mariculture in Bays/Coastal Waters

Prawn (Peneaus spp.)

Sea Bass (Lates calcarifer)

Broodstock Development

Fertilization and Incubation

Larval Culture

Diseases

Feeds

Water Quality

Culture of Fry/Fingerlings

2. Grow-Out Culture (Ponds, Cages, Pens)

Engineering Designs

Culture Techniques in Ponds, Cages, and Pens

Harvesting and Marketing

3. Genetic Advances and Development

4. Culture of Invertebrates and Plants (Prawn, Seaweeds)

Seaweed Culture - Caulerpa sp.

Prawn Culture (Grow-out) in Ponds

5. Diseases and pathogens

6. Engineering and Water Quality

IV. Marine Culture/Mariculture

1. Hatchery/Nursery

2. Fish Grow-Out Culture (Cages/Pens)

Engineering Designs

Stock Density

Feeding

3. Seaweeds Culture

Eucheuma, Kappaphycus

Genetic Improvement/Selection