CHAPTER # 10

GENREAL WAVES PROPERTIES

Q1. Define the term transverse wave and longitudinal wave.
Ans. Transverse waves :
Transverse waves are wave that travel in direction perpendicular to the direction of
waves motion.
Longitudinal wave :
Longitudinal waves are are waves that travel in a direction parallel to the direction of
wave motion.
Q2. Write a short note on the mechanical wave.

ANS. Mechanical waves :

A mechanical wave is a wave that is an oscillation of matter and is responsible for the
transfer of energy through a medium.
The distance of the wave’s propagation is limited by the medium of transmission. In this
case, the oscillating material moves about a fixed point, and there is very little
translational motion.
Q3. How can you say that mechanical waves are also material waves?

Ans. Sound waves are mechanical waves because they need a material medium for
propagation, like air or liquids like water, or metals like silver. There are two basic types
of wave motion for mechanical waves: longitudinal waves and transverse waves.

Q4. Waves are means of energy transfer without matter. Justify this statement with
the help of everyday life example.
Ans. Waves can transfer energy over distance without moving matter the entire
distance.
For example :
An ocean wave can travel many kilometers without the water itself moving many
kilometers. The water moves up and down—a motion known as a disturbance. It is the
disturbance that travels in a wave, transferring energy.

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Q5. Define the following the following terms of a waves.

Amplitude:
Amplitude is the maximum displacement moved by a point on a vibrating body from the
rest or mean position.
Frequency (f) :
The number of complete waves produced by a source per unit time .

Formula : f = 1 / T , Unit : Hertz (Hz)

Time period (T) :

The time taken for any one point on the wave to complete one oscillation.
Formula : T = 1 / f , Unit : Second (s).

Wavelength (
The distance between two successive crest or trough is called wavelength.
Formula : = V / f , Unit : meter (m) .

Crest :
The highest surface part of wave is called crest.

Trough:
The lowest part of a wave is called trough.
Compression :

Compression is a region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are closest together.
Rarefaction

A rarefaction is a region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are furthest apart.
Ripple tank:
A ripple tank is a shallow glass tank of water used to demonstrate the basic properties
of waves.
Waves :

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A method transport of energy from one point to to the another point without transfer
of matter is called waves.

Reflection :
Bouncing back of waves into same medium by striking other medium surface is called
reflection.
Wave speed :
The distance traveled by a given point on the wave, such as a crest in a given interval of
tine.
Wave front :
Wave front is an imaginary line on a wave that joins all point that are in same phase.
Periodic motion:
A motion repeating itself in an equal interval is referred to as periodic or oscillatory
motion.
Diffraction:

The spreading of the waves near the obstacle is called diffraction.

Damped system:

An oscillating system in which friction has an effect is a damped system.

Damped oscillation:

The oscillations of a system in the presences of some resistive force are damped
oscillation.

Q6. What is simple harmonic motion.

Ans. When an object oscillates about a fixed position its acceleration is directly
proportional to its displacement from the mean position and is always directed towards
the mean position
aα-x
Q7. What are the necessary condition for a body to execute SHM ?
Ans. Condition for a body to execute SHM :
(i) There must be an elastic restoring force acting on the system,
(ii) (ii) the system must have inertia

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(iii) (iii) the acceleration of the system should be directly proportional to its
displacement and is always directed to mean position.

Q8. With the help of diagram, explain SHM in the

pendulum.

Ans. A simple pendulum has a heavy point mass

(known as bob) suspended from a rigid support by a
massless and inextensible string. When the bob from
its mean position is pulled to one side and then
released, the pendulum is set to motion and the bob
moves alternately on either side of its mean position.
Q9. The period of simple pendulum executing the formula gives SHM

T=2 √

What will be the effect of the period if there is an increase in its

i) Length ii) Mass
Ans. MASS :

Simple pendulum period is effected by length and gravity acceleration. The period is
independent of mass and amplitude.
Ans. Length :
The time period of a pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of the length
of the pendulum. So, if the length increases, the time period of the pendulum increases
accordingly.
Q10. With the help of diagram , explain SHM in the ball and bowl system.
Ans. Motion of a ball and bowl system:
Consider a ball is placed at the bottom of a bowl O, 'at equilibrium' position as shown in
figure. When the ball is at the bottom of the bowl
its weight mg is equal to the reaction R so net
force is zero
When a ball is gently displaced from the center of
a bowl it start oscillation about the center due to
force of gravity which act as a restoring force.

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Once the ball is place at the position A and then released, It will accelerate towards the
mean position under its weight. At the mean piston it again maximum velocity and
momentum so its moves up-to the position B due to inertia. At B it has zero velocity so
zero kinetic energy but maximum potential energy.
Again from point B it will move towards O under the restoring Force having maximum
velocity at O but does not stop at O due to inertia and will go up to A. In this way the
ball will continue to oscillate between the points A and B about the point O, it has
simple harmonic motion.
Q11. Why the motion of a ball in the bowl executing SHM is maximum at its
equilibrium position?
Ans. The motion of a ball in the bowl executing SHM is maximum at its equilibrium
position because the kinetic energy is maximum at the middle position and zero at
extreme position, while the potential energy is zero at the middle position and
maximum at extreme position.

Q12. How does damping progressively reduce the amplitude of oscillation?

Ans. In damping, oscillation decreases due to the energy loss from the system in
overcoming external forces like friction or air resistance and other resistive forces.

Q13. A boy is swinging in the swing. Explain, why its amplitude reduce progressively
with time?

Ans. . A boy is swinging in the swing, its amplitude reduce progressively with time, due
to the energy loss from the system in overcoming external forces like friction or air
resistance and other resistive forces.
Q14. Write the difference between mechanical and electromagnetics waves?

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15Q. What is a ripple tank, and explain its working?
Ans) Ripple tank: A ripple tank is a shallow glass tank of water used to demonstrate
the basic properties of waves. Working of ripple tank: Waves in ripple tank: We
can produce water waves with the ripple tank. In the ripple tank, a small vibrator
moves up and down the water surface, resulting in the water particles at the
surface that are in contact with the dipper being made to move up and down. This
up and down motion soon spread to other parts of the water surface in the tank
in the form of ripples. Here the water is the medium through which the ripples
travel or propagate.
16Q. Write the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves?

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Q. Derive the formula of wave speed, v=f λ
Ans) Derivation:
Speed = Distance travelled /time taken.
Let us consider for a wave, Distance travelled = λ and time is taken = T,
Then
v=λ/T
Since, 1/T = f

v=fλ

CHAPTER # 11
SOUND
Q1. How is sound is produce ?

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Ans. Sound is produced by vibrating source placed in a medium.
Q2. With the help of diagram, describe
how compression and rarefaction are
produced in the air near a source of
sound?

Ans. When a vibrating object moves

forward, it pushes and compresses the
air in front of it creating a region of
high pressure. This region is called
compression. This compression starts
to move away from the vibrating object. When the vibrating object moves backward, it
creates a region of low pressure called rarefaction. As the object moves back and forth
rapidly, a series of compressions and rarefactions are created in the air.

Q3. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves ?

Ans. The sound waves are called mechanical waves because they need a material
medium( like solid, liquid or gas ) for their propagation. The sound wave involve the
vibrations of the particles of the medium through which they travel .
Q4. Sound required a material medium for its propagation. Give an experiment to
prove this statement.

Ans. Electric Bell Jar Experiment :

An electric bell is suspended in the bell jar with the help of two
wires connected to a power supply. By setting ON the power
supply, electric bell will begin to ring. We can hear the sound of
the bell. Now start pumping out air from the jar by means of a
vacuum pump. The sound of the bell starts becoming more and
more feeble and eventually dies out, although bell is still ringing.
When we put the air back into the jar, we can hear the sound of
the bell again. From this activity, we conclude that sound waves
can only travel/propagate in the presence of air (medium).

Q5. Distinguish between musical sound and noise?

Musical Sound Noise

It is a pleasant sound It is unpleasant sound

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It has a regular wavelength It has an irregular wavelength
It has constant pitch It has constantly varying pitch
Source : Musical Instrument and voice of Source : Loudspeaker , Industrial Activity
human etc
Unit : Hertz (Hz) Unit : decibel ( dB)

Q6. Explain how noise is harmful to human?

Ans. Noise pollution impacts millions of people on a daily basis. The most common
health problem it causes is Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL). Exposure to loud noise
can also cause high blood pressure, heart disease, sleep disturbances, and stress. These
health problems can affect all age groups, especially children.

Q7. Define quality or timbre of the sound?

Ans. Quality or Timbre :

The characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between two sounds of the
same loudness and pitch.

Q9. Is it possible that two or more waves from different musical instrument combine
to form a single wave?
Interference is an effect that occurs when two or more waves interact with each other
and combine to form a new wave. If we strike two tuning forks with exactly the same
frequency, in this case 256hz, the resulting sound waves will reinforce each other, and
become louder.
Q10. Why is speed of the sound greater in solids than in liquid or gases?

Ans. The speed of the sound greater in solids than in liquid or gases because the
molecules/ particles of solid are very close to each other, as compare to liquid and gas.
Q11. Explain the effect of the following factors on the speed of sound in the air

i) Temperature ii) Humidity

Ans. Temperature :
Molecules at higher temperatures have more energy and can vibrate faster and allow
sound waves to travel more quickly. The speed of sound at room temperature air is 346
meters per second. This is faster than 331 meters per second, which is the speed of
sound in air at freezing temperatures.
Ans. Humidity :

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The speed of sound in air increases with the increase in humidity, because the density of
humid air is less than the density of dry air. As the density of the medium decreases, the
speed of sound in the medium increases. Hence, the speed of sound is faster in humid
air than the dry air.
Q12. Define the following.

Quality :
The characteristics of sound by which we can distinguish between two sound of the
same loudness and pitch.
Pitch :

The quality of sound that distinguish between a shrill and a flat sound
Sound intensity or Acoustic intensity :

The power carried by sound waves per unit area in a direction perpendicular to that
area.

Ultrasound :
The sound with frequencies above the upper limit of the human range of audibility is
known as ultrasound.
Infrasound :

The sound with frequencies below the lower limit of the human range of audibility is
known as infrasound.
Audible frequency :
The range of frequencies of sound that a person can hear is called the range of audibility
or audible frequency.
Echo :
The repetition of the sound after reflection is known as an echo.

Q13. Explain the working and application of SONAR.

Ans. working and application of a SONAR :

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The term SONAR stands for Sound Navigation And Ranging. It is a device used for
measuring distance using ultrasonic waves .Sound waves of ultrasound frequencies are
sent and received over a distance. By calculating the time it takes for sound to travel,
they calculate the distance from where the sound got reflected. This technique is also
called Echo-ranging .The sonar technique is used to determine the depth of the sea and
to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarine, icebergs, sunken ship etc.
Q14. How can defect in a metal block be detected using ultrasound? Explain with the
help of diagram.
Ans. Quality Control :

Ultrasound has higher penetrating power

due to its very high frequency. Thus
ultrasound are also used to detect cracks,
cavities and flaws in metal and concrete
blocks. These invisible cracks or cavity
inside the blocks reduce the strength of
structure. Ultrasound waves pass through
the metal block and detector are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is any
defect, the ultrasound will be reflected indicating the presence of the defect.

Q14. Explain two applications of ultrasound that are used in hospitals for
medical imaging. Ans) Echocardiography:

Echocardiography is a painless and non-invasive medical imaging procedure. A

transmitter sends out pulses of very high frequency. The transducer is positioned on the
chest at specific locations and angles, the pulses move across the skin and other body
tissues to the heart tissues, where the pulses bounce or echo of the heart structures.
These pulses are then transmitted to a computer to create moving images of the heart
and valves. The image produced is called an echocardiogram.

Ultrasonography:

It is a technique that uses an instrument ultrasound scanner. A sonologist visualize the

organs of the patient, such as the liver, gallbladder, and kidney etc. It helps the doctor to
identify abnormalities, such as stones in the gallbladder and kidney or tumors and
abnormalities in different organs. In this technique, the sound waves penetrate the
body and hit a boundary between tissues, e.g., between fluid and soft tissue, bone and
soft tissue, and get reflected from an area where their tissue density changes. The

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instrument calculates the distance from the probe to the tissue or organ boundaries
using the speed of sound in tissue and the time of the return of each echo. These pulses
are then converted into electrical signals used to create two-dimensional images of the
organ.

Q15. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Ans. Cleansing :

Ultrasound is commonly used to clean many objects even in hard- to- reach places,
including jewelry , dental and surgical instrument , musical instrument . In this process
objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution, and ultrasonic waves are send
into the solution. Due to its high frequency dust, grease, and contamination particles
detached and dropped. The objects thus get thoroughly cleansed.

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 CHAPTER # 12
ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM
Q1. Define dispersion of light?
Ans. Dispersion of light :
Splitting white light into its constituent colors when it passes through a glass prism is
called dispersion of white light.
Q2. Describe dispersion of light when passing through the glass prism.
Ans. When white light is passed through a glass prism it splits into its spectrum of colors
(in order violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red) and this process of white
light splitting into its constituent colors is termed as dispersion.
Q3. Explain how the rainbow is produced on a rainy day?

Ans. When sunlight hits a rain droplet, some of the light is reflected. The
electromagnetic spectrum is made of light with many different wavelengths, and each is
reflected at a different angle. Thus, spectrum is separated, producing a rainbow.

Q4. Explain how the color related to distinct frequency or wavelength?

Ans. All light travels at the same speed, but each color has a different wavelength and
frequency. It is their different wavelengths that cause the different colors of light to
separate and become visible when passing through a prism.

Following are the table to show different color have different wavelength.

Color Wavelength / nm
Red 650
Orange 625
Yellow 575
Green 525
Blue 450
Indigo 425
Violet 400
Q5.What is electromagnetic waves?
Ans. waves that are created as a result of vibrations between an electric field and a
magnetic field.

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Q6. List the main component of electromagnetic spectrum in decreasing order of their
wavelength?

Ans. The electromagnetic spectrum is generally divided into seven regions, in order of
decreasing wavelength:

Radio waves
Microwaves
Infrared rays
Visible rays

Ultraviolet rays
X-rays

Gamma rays.
Q7. Ultraviolet rays have a higher frequency than radio waves can UV rays travel
faster in a vacuum?
Ans. All forms of light (radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, etc.) travel at the same speed
in a vacuum, regardless of their wavelengths and frequency.
Q8. Compare the properties of ultraviolet ray and radio signals.

a) Which one travels at a faster speed?

Ans. All forms of light (radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, etc.) travel at the same speed
in a vacuum, regardless of their wavelengths and frequency.
b) Which wave has a greater frequency?
c) Which wave has a greater wavelength?
Ans. radio waves have lower frequency but longer wavelength than the ultraviolet
waves and ultraviolet waves higher frequency and shorter wavelength than the radio
waves.

Q9. What are the main source of radio waves?

Ans. Radio waves can be generated by natural sources such as lightning or astronomical
phenomena; or by artificial sources such as broadcast radio towers, cell phones,
satellites and radar.

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Q10. What are the main advantages of using radio waves in communication?

Ans. Radio waves

Radio waves are used for communication such as television and radio.
Radio waves are transmitted easily through air. They do not cause damage if absorbed
by the human body, and they can be reflected and refracted to change their direction.
These properties make them ideal for communications.
Q11. Why are microwaves preferred in satellite communication?

Ans. The microwaves are preferred in order to communicate with the artificial satellites
which are orbiting the earth at a particular height from the surface of the earth. The
microwaves are preferred because they can penetrate through the Earth's atmosphere
very easily and reach the target satellite.
Q12. How do the molecules emit infrared radiation.

Ans. Infrared radiation is emitted or absorbed by molecules when changing rotational-

vibrational movements. It excites vibrational modes in a molecule through a change in
the dipole moment, making it a useful frequency range for study of these energy states
for molecules of the proper symmetry.

Q13. On what principle do optical fibers work?

Ans. Optical Fiber works on the principle of total internal reflection for its operation.
Q14. Reference the daily life application of optical fiber in telecommunication.

Ans. Application of optical fiber in telecommunication :

These cables are used to transmit high-definition television signals which have greater
bandwidth and speed. Optical Fiber is cheaper compared to the same quantity of
copper wires. Broadcasting companies use optical fibers for wiring HDTV, CATV, video-
on-demand and many applications.

Q15. What are the uses of optical fiber in the medical industry?
Ans. Optical fiber in the medical industry :
Optical fiber is extremely flexible and thin. Therefore, they are used for biomedical
research, endoscopy and microscopy. It is used to view internal organs by inserting the
cable into the body.

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Q16. Exposure to sunlight can damage the skin. Exposure to sunlight does not damage
thw skin . State the posible reason?
Ans. The sun's ultraviolet light can cause major damage to the skin. The outer layer of
the skin has cells that contain the pigment melanin. Melanin protects skin from the
sun's ultraviolet rays. These can burn the skin and reduce its elasticity, leading to
premature aging.

Q17. Define the following

Spectrum of light :

The color pattern produced in the dispersion is called a spectrum of light.

Fluorescent :

When absorbed in ultraviolet, some materials convert their energy into light and glow.
This phenomenon is called fluorescent.

Q18. X-Rays are used to detect cracking in metals. Explain how?

Ans. The long-wavelength or low-frequency X-rays are highly penetrating that can pass
through flesh but not bones. In the medical imaging field, radiologists use low-frequency
X-rays to produce the x-ray images to diagnose the fracture in the bones or even tooth
decay, tumors, and abnormal masses inside the body.

Q19. Where do gamma rays comes from

Ans. Gamma rays come from radioactive materials. They are produced when the nuclei
of unstable atoms decay into a stable nucleus or loss energy. They tend to have high
energy than X- rays.
Q20. How are gamma radiations used in radiosurgery for destroying cancerous cell?
Ans. Gamma rays are used to treat cancer. These high energy rays are directed at the
cancerous tumor to kill cancer cell in oncology.

Q21. Explain the application of gamma rays used in hospitals for medical imaging?
Ans. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) is a functional medical imaging method. In a
PET scan, a short-lived positron-emitting radioactive sampling taken suitable for a
particular function (e.g., brain function) is injected into the body. Radiated positrons
quickly fuse with nearby electrons and lead to two gamma rays of 511-keV traveling in
opposite directions. After detecting the gamma rays, a computer generates an image
that highlights the location of the biological process being examined.

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 CHAPTER # 13
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
Q1.What do you understand by the term reflection of light?
Ans) A phenomenon of returning light from the surface of an object when the light is incident on it is
called reflection of light.
Q2. Outline a diagram to illustrate reflection at a plane surface.
DIAGRAM
Q3. Describe the following terms used in reflection:
i. Normal ii. The angle of incidence iii. The angle of reflection.
i. Normal: The line that is created when a perpendicular is made between two rays on a reflecting
surface.
ii. The angle of incidence: The angle of incidence is the angle between a ray incident on a
reflecting surface and the line perpendicular to the surface at the point of incidence, called the normal.
iii. The angle of reflection: The angle between a reflected ray and the normal drawn at the point
of incidence to a reflecting surface
Q4. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
a. Side/rearview mirror of a vehicle.
Ans) Convex mirror.
b. To locate the blind spots on roads of the hilly side.
Ans) Convex mirror.
c. Dentist mirror Support your answer with reason.
Ans) Concave mirror.

Q5.Define the refraction of light.

Ans) The bending effect of light as it passes from one transparent medium to another is
refraction of light
Q6.Outline the passage of light through a parallel-sided glass slab.

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Q7.Define the following terms used in refraction:
i) The angle of incidence ii. The angle of refraction
Ans) i. The angle of incidence: The angle formed at the point of incidence between
the incident ray and the normal is called the angle of incidence.
ii. The angle of refraction: The angle formed between the refracted ray and the
normal is called the angle of refraction.
Q8. What do you understand by the refractive index of a material?
Ans) The refractive index can be defined as the ratio of the sign of the angle of incidence
to the sign of the angle of refraction when the ray of light enters from one medium to
another.
Q9. Cite experimentation on how you can determine the refractive index of a parallel-
sided glass slab?
Ans) A ray AO strikes the face PQ at an angle of incident ∠i. As it enters the slab of glass,
it takes a little bend to the right, travelling along OB at a refraction angle of ∠r.

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Q10.Which physical quantity remains unaffected when refraction of light occurs?
Ans) Frequency of light.

Q11.What is the glass prism?

Ans) The prism is a triangular transparent block of glass or plastic. It is a solid structure
having three rectangular and two triangular surfaces

Q12. Describe the passage of monochromatic light rays through a glass prism.
Ans) At surface AB, the ray of light enters and bends towards the normal on refraction. At surface AC,
the ray of light bends away from the normal as it travels from one medium to the other medium.

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Q13.Suppose a ray of light approaches the surface of the prism. What happens when it
enters the glass at the angle of?
i. 0° with the normal
ii. ii. 30° with the normal. Answer in terms of its change in the quantities of
frequency, speed, wavelength, and direction.
Ans)
i. 0° with the normal:
frequency= No change
speed= No change
wavelength= No change
direction= No change
ii. 30° with the normal:
frequency= No change
speed= Change
wavelength= Change
direction= Change
Q14. What is the lens?
Ans) The lens is a piece of transparent material such as glass or plastic.

Q15. What happens if a light ray parallel to the principal axis enters a convex lens?
Ans) If a light ray parallel to the principal axis enters a convex lens, it is refracted by the
lens and after refraction passes through focal point.
Q16. The convex lens is considered a converging lens. Explain why?
Ans) Consider a monochromatic ray of light travelling parallel to the principal axis of the
double convex lens. When the ray enters the lens, the lens refract the light at each
interface, i.e. air to glass and glass to air boundaries. The net effect of the refraction, the
light ray, has changed its directions. Because of its special geometric shape, it converges
the ray to the focal point. That’s why it is considered a converging lens.

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Q17. Describe the power of a lens and its units.
Ans) Power Definition: The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal
length.
Unit: The SI unit of power of a lens is 'diopter'.
It is denoted by the letter D (1D=1m-1 ).
Q18. Define critical angle.
Ans) The angle of incidence that causes the refracted ray in the rare medium to bend
through 90° is called the critical angle.

Q19. What do you understand by the term total internal reflection?

Ans) If a ray passes from a dense medium to a rare medium and its angle of incidence is
greater than the critical angle, the incident ray is reflected into the dense medium. This
phenomenon is called total internal reflection.

Q20. State the conditions required for a total internal reflection.

Ans) A ray passes from a dense medium to a rare medium and its angle of incidence is
greater than the critical angle.

Q21. Give some practical examples of a total internal reflection in everyday life.
Ans) Some practical examples of total internal reflection in everyday life are the
formation of a mirage, shining of empty test-tube in water, shining of crack in a glass-
vessel, sparkling of a diamond, transmission of light rays in an optical fiber, etc.
Q22. Determine the critical angle of light in a diamond? The refractive index of the
diamond is 2.41.
Ans)
Data:
Given:
∠r= 90 °
n= 1.33 To
find:
∠c= ?
Solution:
n=sin∠i / sin∠r
For critical angle
n=sin∠r / sin∠i
n=sin ∠90° / sin∠c
n= 1/ sin ∠c
sin∠c= 1/n
sin∠c= 1/2.41
sin∠c= 0.415
∠c=sin-1 (0.415)

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∠c= 24.52°

Q23. What are optical fibers?

Ans) a thin flexible fiber with a glass core through which light signals can be sent with
very little loss of strength.

Q24. Describe how total internal reflection is used in an endoscope?

Ans) An endoscope is a long tube consisting of optical fiber. The core and cladding of
the fiber are made by such materials that cause all the light to be reflected if the angle
of light is greater than critical angle. We call that ‘total internal reflection’ .

Q25. Draw the ray diagram of a magnifying glass.

Q26. How can you use a thin converging lens as a magnifying glass?
Ans) We can use a thin converging lens as a magnifying glass if object is placed such that
its distance is less than the focal length,
i.e., p<f

Q27. Give the magnification of magnifying glass.

Ans) The magnification of magnifying glass is the ratio of image height h1 to object
height h2.
M = h1/h2

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Q27. With the help of a ray diagram, give the magnifying powers of the following
optical instruments:
i. Simple microscope or magnifying glass
ii. Compound microscope
iii. Refracting telescope
Ans) i. Magnifying power of simple microscope:
Let θ2 be the angle subtended at the eye by a tiny object when placed at the near point
of the eye. If the object is brought closer to the eye, the angle will increase and become
θ1, but the eye cannot see it. To see the object, we place a convex lens between the
object and the eye within the focal length so that the lens makes a magnified virtual
image of the object at the near point of the eye. The magnifying power, in such a case,
will be

It can be shown that the relation gives the magnifying power

Where d is the near point of accommodation, for a normal human eye, it is 25 cm. This
relation indicates that a lens of a shorter focal length will have the greater magnifying
power.

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 II) Magnifying power of compound microscope:
When rays of light from a point on a nearby object pass through an objective lens. The
objective lens forms a small image I1 on the inside focal length of the eyepiece. This
image behaves as an object for the eyepiece, and the larger image I2 is formed at the
near point of the normal human eye. This final magnified virtual image makes an angle
θi at the eyepiece. The magnification of a compound microscope is given by

Where L is the length equal to the distance between the objective and eyepiece, fo and
fe are the focal lens of the objective and eyepiece, respectively.

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iii. Magnifying power of refracting telescope:
When parallel rays from a point on a distant object pass through the objective
lens, a real image I1 is formed at the focal point f of the objective lens. This
image behaves as an object for the eyepiece. The eyepiece forms a magnified
virtual image I2 a considerable distance from the objective lens. This enlarged
virtual image makes an angle θi at the eyepiece. The magnification of a telescope
is given by the formula

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Q28. What is meant by the terms?
i. short-sight, and ii. long-sight
Ans) i. Short-sight: A person with short sight can see nearby objects clearly but
cannot see distant objects distinctly.

ii. Long-sight: A person with long-sight can see distant objects clearly but cannot
see nearby objects distinctly.
Q29. How can these defects be corrected?
i. short-sight, and ii. long-sight
Ans) i. Correction of short-sight: By placing a concave lens or contact of appropriate
power in front of the eye. A concave lens of suitable power will bring the image back
onto the retina, and thus can correct the defect.
ii. Correction of long-sight: By placing a convex lens or contact of suitable power in
front of the eye. A convex lens of suitable power provides the additional focusing
power required for forming the image on the retina. Thus, the defect can be
corrected
Q29. Why is a normal eye not able to see the objects put closer than 25 cm?
Ans) A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm because the eye is not
able to decrease the focal length beyond a limit since ciliary muscle are most strained,
beyond that they do not strain.

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 CHAPTER # 14
ELECTROSTATICS
Q1 Explain how electric charge can be generated and measured in very simple
experiment?
Ans. Take a plastic rod. Rub it with fur and suspend it horizontally by a silk thread Now
take another
Plastic rod and rub it with fur and bring near to the suspended rod. We will observe that
both the rods will repel each other. It means during the rubbing both the rods were
charged.
Q2. Explain how an electroscope is built and how it operates?

Ans.Construction and Working of electroscope :

An electroscope is made up of a metal detector knob on
top, which is connected to a pair of metal leaves hanging
from the bottom of the connecting rod. When no charge is
present, the metal leaves hang loosely downward. But,
when an object with a charge is brought near an
electroscope, one of the two things can happen.
When the charge is positive, electrons in the metal of the
electroscope are attracted to the charge and move upward
out of the leaves. This results in the leaves having a
temporary positive charge, and because like charges repel,
the leaves separate. When the charge is removed, the electrons return to their original
positions, and the leaves relax.
When the charge is negative, the electrons in the metal of the electroscope repel and
move toward the leaves on the bottom. This causes the leaves to gain a temporary
negative charge, and because like charges repel, the leaves again separate. Then when
the charge is removed, the electrons return to their original position, and the leaves
relax.

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Q3. State and explain Coulomb’s Law.
Ans. Colomb’s Law :
Statement :

Coulomb's Law: The force of attraction or repulsion

between two point charges is directly proportional to the
product of the magnitude of charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Explanation :
Consider two bodies of masses m1 and m2, having magnitude of their charges q1 and q2
the distance between their centers is “r” and “F” is the force between the two charges.
F ------- (i)

F ------- (ii)

Combine equation ( i ) and ( ii )

F / r2

Where K is the constant of proportionality

K=

Q4. Write the method of charge formation.

Ans. Method of charge formation:
i) Induction :
It is the charging method in which a neutral object is charged without actually
touching another charge object.
ii) Conduction:
It is the charge by contact where charge is transferred to the object.

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 iii) Friction:
The imbalance of electrons and protons can be easily created by friction when
two objects rubbing over one another. This processes is charging is called
charging by friction.
Q5. Define the following.

Ans. Electric field

A region around the charge particle or object within which a force would be exerted on
other charged particles or object.
Electric field intensity

Electric field intensity at a point is the force experienced by a positive test charge. If the
test charge experience a force “F” then intensity of electric field “E” is given

E=F/Q
Electric charge :

The physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force when place in an
electromagnetic field .
Electrostatic induction :
The formation of charge through the influence of a nearby object, rather than the actual
object, called electrostatic induction .

Electroscope :
An electroscope is a scientific instrument for detecting the presence of an electric
charge on a body.
One Ampere :
The amount of electric charge that flows through a cross- section of a conductor in one
second .

Electrostatic potential :
The amount of work that is done in order to transport a unit charge from a reference
point to a given location within the field without causing acceleration .
Volt :
The potential difference that exists across a resistance of one ohm while a current of
one ampere is flowing through it .

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Potential Difference :
It is the work done per unit charge to move a unit charge from one point to another in
an electric field . Electric potential difference is usually referred as Voltage difference.
Q6. Provide an example of when static electricity could cause harm, as well as the
measures taken to prevent injury?
Ans. Why Static Electricity is dangerous :
The danger of static electricity comes when the transfer of charge is so great that it
creates a spark. One of the most common occurrences of static electricity dangers is
refueling a vehicle. The driver may be carrying excess electrons, which may create a
spark when you touch the fuel pump. Exposing the spark to volatile gasoline may create
an unexpected combustion.
Tips To Prevent Damage By Static Electricity

Here are some effective tips to make sure that risks caused by static electricity are
minimized:

Avoid wearing rubber-soled footwear: Rubber is an excellent insulator, and so wearing

rubber-soled shoes may create a significant amount of static in your bod .
Apply grounding in your home appliances: Some of the devices in your house may
collect static electricity over time, if there’s no way to discharge them. Make sure that
your appliances have a grounding mechanism in order to release the excess static.
Ground yourself: If you think you may be carrying some static electricity, touch an inert
metal object to discharge the electricity.
Keep indoor air humid: Dry air increases the risk of static electricity buildup in your
home. The best way to address this is to keep the relative humidity above 30%. A
humidifier may do the trick.
Keep skin moisturized: If your skin is dry, it has a higher likelihood of developing static
electricity. You may apply lotion or moisturizer on your hands and skin.
Q7. Define capacitor, capacitance and one farad , write the factors on which
capacitance depends?

Ans. Capacitor :
Capacitor is a device which is used for storing electric charges.
Capacitance :

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The ability of storing charges in a capacitor is known as Capacitance.
One Farad :

The capacitance of a capacitor is one farad when one coulomb of electricity changes the
potential between the plates by one volt.
Factors on which capacitance depends :
Capacitance depends on these factors:
Area of the plates : Capacitance increases if area of the plate increases.

Hence CαA.
Distance between the plates: Capacitance increases if the separation between the
plates decreases.

Hence Cα

Dielectric medium between plates : Dielectric constant increases if insulating medium

of high dielectric constant is used. Hence C α .

COMBONATION OF CAPACITOR
PARALLEL PLATE COMBONATION :

In this combination, the left plate of each capacitor is connected to the positive terminal
of the battery by a

conducting wire. In the same way, the right plate of each capacitor is connected to the
negative terminal of the battery
This type of combination has the
following characteristics:
i ) Each capacitor connected to a battery
of voltage V has the same potential
difference V across it. i.e.,

ii) The charge developed across the plates of each capacitor will be different due to
different value of Capacitances .

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iii) The total charge Q supplied by the battery is divided among the various capacitors.
Hence,

We know that Q = CV

+
+ )

+
)

SERRIES PLATE COMBONATION :

In this combination, the capacitors are connected side by side i.e., the right plate of one
capacitor is connected to the left Plate of the next capacitor. This type of Combination
has the following characteristics:

i) . Each capacitor has the same charge across it. If the Battery
supplies + Q charge to the left plate of the capacitor C1,
Due to induction – Q charge is induced on its right plate and +Q
charge on the left plate of the capacitor C2

ii). The potential difference across each capacitor is different

due to different values of capacitances.
iii). The voltage of the battery has been divided among the
various capacitors. Hence

We know that Q = C V
V=Q/C

= + +

= + +

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 = + +

Q8. Define Dielectric form a capacitor?

Ans. Dielectric form a capacitor :

Two conductors of any shape carrying equal and opposite charges, separated from each
other by an insulating material medium called Dielectric form a capacitor.
Q9. Derive Q = C V

Ans. When a capacitor is connected to

a battery of V volt, one one plate
drawn positively charge and other
plate drawn negative charge from the
battery till the potential difference
between the plates also become V volt.
Charge Q which resides on any one of the plate is directly proportional to potential
difference between the plates.
QαV

Q=CV
C is called Capacitance of the capacitor, and this equation is called equation of
capacitor.
Q9. Does a series connection between capacitor always result in an equal amount of
charge being stored in each capacitor ?
Ans. A series connection between capacitor always
results in an equal amount of charge being stored in
each capacitor. If the Battery supplies + Q charge to the
left plate of the capacitor C1, Due to induction – Q
charge is induced on its right plate and +Q charge on
the left plate of the capacitor C2

Q10. Write the uses of capacitor?

Ans. Uses of Capacitor
Capacitors are a basic component of electronics and are an integral accessory to a host
of applications. The most common use for capacitors is energy storage, power
conditioning, electronic noise filtering, remote sensing and signal coupling/decoupling.
Q11. Describe the concept of electrostatic potential.

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Ans) Electrostatic potential Definition:

The amount of work that is done in order to transport a unit charge from a reference
point to a given location within the field without causing an acceleration.
Unit: The SI unit of electrostatic potential is volt.
Factors on which electrostatic potential depends:
The magnitude of electrostatic potential depends on the amount of work done in
moving the object from one point to another against the electric field as shown in figure
below.
Q12. Describe potential difference as energy transfer per unit charge
Ans) Potential difference:

It is the work done per unit charge to move a unit charge from one to another in an
electric field. Electric potential difference is usually referred as voltage difference.
Unit: The SI unit of potential difference is volt.
Q13.Give some examples of where capacitors are used in different kinds of electrical
devices.
Ans)
1. They are utilized to run table fans, ceiling fans, exhaust fans, air conditioner, motors,
coolers, washing machines, and many other appliances to keep them running at a high
efficiency.
2. It is also common to find capacitors in the electronics circuitry of computers and
other products like smartphones.
3. It is possible to utilize capacitors to distinguish between high and low frequency
signals, which makes them valuable in electronics circuits. For instance, resonant
circuits, which are responsible for tuning radios to specific frequencies, require the use
of variable capacitors.

Q14. In what direction will a positively charged particles move in an electric field?
Ans) A positive charge placed in an electric field will tend to move in the direction of the
electric field lines.

Q15. Does a series connection between capacitors always result in an equal amount
of charge being stored in each capacitor?

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Ans) Two or more capacitors in series will always have equal amounts of coulomb
charge across their plates

CHAPTER # 15
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q1. Define the following
Electronic Current :

When current flow from the negative terminal to the positive terminal of battery.
Conventional Current :

When current flow from the positive terminal to the negative terminal of battery.
TYPES OF ELECTRIC CURRENT :

i) Direct Current :
A current that always flows in one direction only is called direct current.
ii) Alternating Current :
A current that reverses its direction periodically is called alternating current.
Electromotive Force (EMF):

The amount of energy required to move the charge from lower potential to higher
potential of the battery is called EMF.
Resistance :
The property of the conductor which opposes the flow of electric current. It is denoted
by R . The unit of resistance is ohm (Ω).
One ohm :

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One ohm is defined as that resistance of an object when a current of 1 ampere flows
through an object having a potential difference of 1 Volt.

Current :
The rate of flow of electric charge through any cross-sectional area is called current.
Electric power :
The amount of energy supplied by current in unit time is known as electric power.
Power Dissipation :

The rate at which the heat dissipated is called power dissipation.

One Watt :
A body is said to have one watt of power if it can perform one joule of work in one
second.
Kilowatt- hour :

The amount of energy delivered by a power of one kilowatt in one hour is called
kilowatt-hour.

Galvanometer:
An Instrument for measuring a small electrical current or a function of the current by
deflection of a moving coil.

Voltmeter:

An instrument used for measuring the potential difference, or voltage, between two
points in an electrical or electronic circuit.
Ammeter:

An instrument for measuring either direct (DC) or alternating (AC) electric current, in
amperes.
COMBINATION OF RESISTORS
(i) Series combination (ii) Parallel combination

Resistors can be connected in two ways.

(i) Series Combination:

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In series combination, resistors are connected end to end
and electric current has a single path through the

circuit. This means that the current passing through each

resistor is the same.

Equivalent Resistance of Series Circuit

i) The total voltage in a series circuit divides
among the individual resistors so the sum of the voltage across the resistance
of each individual resistor is equal to the total voltage supplied by the source.
Thus, we can write as
V= V1 +V2 +V3

ii) where V is the voltage across the battery, and V1 , V2 , V3 are the voltages
across resistors R1 , R2 and R3 respectively. If” I “ is the current passing
through each resistor, then from Ohm's law
V = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
We can replace the combination of resistors with a single resistor called the equivalent
resistance Rs
I Rs = IR1 + IR2 + IR3

I Rs = I (R1 + R2 + R3)

Rs = (R1 + R2 + R3)
ii) Parallel combination :
i ) In parallel combination one end of each resistor is connected with positive terminal of
the battery while the other end of each resistor is connected with the negative terminal
of the battery. Therefore, the voltage is same across each resistor which is equal to the
voltage of the battery i.e.
V = V1 = V2 = V3
Equivalent Resistance of Parallel Circuit In
parallel circuit

ii) The total current is equal the sum of the

currents in various resistances i.e.
I = I1 + I2 + I3

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where V is the voltage across the battery, and V1 , V2 , V3 are the voltages across
resistors R1 , R2 and R3 respectively. If

” I “ is the current passing through each resistor, then from Ohm’s law

I= +

We can replace the combination of resistors with a single resistor called the equivalent
resistance Rs

= +

=V( +

=( +

Q2. Why should we in connect the equipment in parallel rather than series, and what
are the benefits of this configuration?
Ans. Connect the Equipment in Parallel Rather Than Series :
We connect the equipment in paeallel rather than in series because the circuit receives
large amount of cuerrent than series
Advantages of Parallel Combination Over Series Combination are:
Advantages of parallel combination over Series combination are:
(i) In parallel combination each appliance gets the full voltage.

(ii) If one appliance is switched on, others are not affected.

(iv) The parallel circuit divides the current through the appliances. Each appliance
gets proper current depending on its resistance.
(v) iv If one electrical appliance stops working due to a problem the other appliance
will continue to function

Q3. Does a circuit need a potential difference in order for current to flow through it?

Ans. Charge will not flow in a circuit unless there is an energy source capable of
creating an electric potential difference and unless there is a closed conducting loop
through which the charge can move.
Q4.Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series?

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Ans. Connecting an electric light bulb and an electric heater in series is impractical
because they will not receive the currents and voltages that they require.

The resistances of the heater and the bulb differ, and the potential drop will increase as
the resistances increases.

If they are used in series the effective resistance will increase as a result the current will
fall, and therefore the power through each device will also drop.
Q5 when a fuse is used in a circuit does it control the current or the potential
difference?
Ans. A fuse is one of the most single-use devices controlling the current in the circuit.

Q6.Explain what influence the resistance of a metal conductor and how you measure
it?

Ans. The resistance of a conductor depends on the cross sectional area of the
conductor, the length of the conductor, and its resistivity. It is important to note that
electrical conductivity and resistivity are inversely proportional, meaning that the more
conductive something is the less resistive it is.

The resistance of a conductor can be calculated at a temperature of 20°C using:[3]

R= LA
where:

R is the resistance, in ohms (Ω)

ρ is the resistivity of the material in ohm meters (Ω m)
L is the length of the conductor in meters (m)
A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor in meters squared (m2)

Q7. Describe Ohm’s Law and its limitation?

Ans. Statement:
The current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential
difference across the two ends of a conductor, provided the physical state (Dimension,
Temperature, etc) of the conductor remains same.

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Mathematically:
According to ohm's law

I∝V
I = KV
Where K is constant of proportionality called conductance or physical state of
conductor. Conductance is opposite to resistance.
Thus,

K = 1/R
I = V/R

V=IR
Where R is the constant called resistance.

Limitations :
i) Ohm’s Law is found true for maximum experiments but not for all.
ii) Some materials are non-ohmic under a weak electric field.
iii) As long as current flow, greater will be the temperature of the conductor.
iv) Heat produced in a conductor can be calculated by Joule’s heat law H = I2Rt.
v) Ohm’s Law is not applicable to in-network circuit.
vi) Ohm’s Law does not apply directly to capacitor circuits and Inductor circuit.
Q8. State Joule’s Law and explain the process of energy dissipation in a resistance?
Ans. Joule’s Law :
The amount of heat generated in a resistance due to flow of charges is equal to the
product of square of current I, resistance R and the time duration t.
The Process of Energy Dissipation In a Resistance:

Energy is dissipated when a particular amount of power is dissipated over a period of

time. Energy is measured in a joule, and the energy dissipated by a component or circuit
can be estimated by including time (t) in the power formula Energy Dissipated = P t or V
I t or V2 t/R
Q9. Explain the role of the live, neutral and earth wires in standard home electrical
system?

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Ans. The electric power enters our house through three wires. One is called earth wire
or ground wire (E). This carries no electricity. The earth wire is connected to a large
metal plate buried deep in the ground near the house. The other wire is maintained at
zero potential by connecting it to the Earth at the power station itself and is called
neutral wire (N). This wire provides the return path for the current. The third wire is at a
high potential and is called livewire (L). The potential difference between the livewire
and the neutral wire is 220V.
Q10. Explain the risk associated with electrical current ( damage insulation,
overheating of cables and damp condition)?

Ans. Insulation Damage :

All electrical wires are well insulated with some plastic cover for the purpose of safety.
But when electrical current exceeds the rated current carrying capacity of the
conductor, it can produce excess current that can damage insulation due to overheating
of cables. This results into a short circuit which can severely damage electrical devices or
persons.

Damp Conditions :

Dry human skin has a resistance of 100, 000 ohms or more! But under damp conditions
(wet environment) resistance of human skin is reduced drastically to few hundred ohms.
Therefore, never operate any electrical appliance with wet hands. Also keep switches,
plugs, sockets and wires dry.
Overheating of Cables :
When a very high current is passed through the cable, there is possibility that the wire
will overheat as a result of the excessive amount of energy. Because of the overheating ,
there is a risk of electrical fires.
Q11. Explain how safety precaution are used in home electricity?
Ans. Safety Precaution are Used in Home Electricity :
Fuse:
A fuse is a safety device that is connected in series with the livewire in the circuit to
protect the equipment’s when excess current flows. It is short and thin piece of metal
wire that melts when large current passes through it. If a large, unsafe current passes
through the circuit, the fuse melts and breaks the circuit before the wires become very
hot and cause fire.

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Circuit Breaker:
The circuit breaker acts as a safety device in the same way as a fuse. It disconnects the
supply automatically if current exceeds the normal value. When the normal current
passes through the livewire the electromagnet is not strong enough to separate the
contacts. If something goes wrong with the appliance and large current flows through
the livewire, the electromagnet will attract the iron strip to separate the contacts and
break the circuit.
Earth wire:
Sometimes, even the fuse cannot capture the high currents coming from the livewire
into the household appliance. Earthing further protects the user from electric shock by
connecting the metal casing of the appliance to Earth (a wired connection to the bare
ground). Many electrical appliances have metal cases, including cookers, washing
machines and refrigerators.
Q12. Write the effects of electrical current on human body?

Ans. Effects of Electrical Current on Human Body

i) Electric current of 0.001 A can be felt
ii) Electric current of 0.005 A can be painful for human body
iii) If electric current is of 0.010 A , resulting in the contraction in an
uncontrollable manner.
iv) Electric shock of 0.015 A can leads to lack of control over the muscles.
Q13. How can we convert a Galvanometer
into Ammeter and Voltmeter.
Ans. Conversion of Galvanometer into
Ammeter:

A Galvanometer can be converted into an

Ammeter by connecting a low shunt resistance in parallel to the Galvanometer. A
Ammeter using a circuit always in series.

Ans. Conversion of Galvanometer

into Voltmeter:
A Galvanometer can be converted
into a Voltmeter by connecting a
high resistance in series to the
Galvanometer.
Q14. Write advantages and disadvantages of series combination of resistor.

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Ans. Advantages:
i) It's employed when a large number of bulbs or lights need to be used at the
same time.
ii) Because the circuit receives less current, it is safer.
ii) Because all the bulbs, lights, and appliances are connected together, it's easier to
turn them on or off.
Disadvantages:
i) Because all electrical appliances have only one switch, no single appliance may be
turned off separately.
ii) The second component of the circuit will not function if one component is fused or
quits operating.

iii) Because the voltage is distributed in series or combinations, not all of the
components receive the same voltage.

Q15. Write advantages and disadvantages of parallel combination of resistor.

Ans. Advantages:
i) Each appliance can be turned on or off independently.

ii) The voltage of each electrical appliance is the same as the power supply line.
iii) If one electrical appliance stops working due to a problem, the other appliances
will continue to function.
Disadvantages:
i) Because the circuit can carry higher current, it is less safe.
ii) If hundreds of appliances or lamps need to be turned on or off at the same time, this
method is difficult to apply.
Q16. Explain what influences the resistance of a metal conductor and how you
measured it.
Ans) Factor affecting the resistance:

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 Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and
inversely proportional to the cross sectional area (A). It is given by the following relation.
R = ρL/A
Where ρ is the resistivity of the material measured in Ωm.

 Electrical resistance is inversely proportional to the temperature of metallic

conductors.
Measurement of resistance: Parallel to the conductor whose resistance is required,
connect a Voltmeter.

In line with the conductor connect an Ammeter.

Apply a voltage, the smallest which gives adequate readings. Register the difference in
potential, V, across the conductor with the Voltmeter (in Volts), and the current, I,
through the Ammeter (in Amperes). The required resistance (in Ohms) is:
R = V/I

Q17. Explain the roles of the live, neutral and earth wires in a standard home
electrical system.
Ans) Roles of the neutral wire:

 The cable, known as neutral wire, is grounded to the earth within the power plant
itself to keep its voltage constant (N). The current flows back through this wire.

 The neutral wire along with live wire is used to connect all of the equipment in a
home.

Roles of the live wire:  The live wire along with neutral wire is used to connect all of
the equipment in a home.

Roles of the Earth wire:  Earthing is used to protect you from an electric shock
Q18. How Does AC Work?

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Ans) As the liquid refrigerant inside the evaporator coil converts to gas, heat from the
indoor air is absorbed into the refrigerant, thus cooling the air as it passes over the coil.
The indoor unit's blower fan then pumps the chilled air back through the home's
ductwork out into the various living areas.

CHAPTER # 16
ELECTROMAGNETISM
Q1.A conductor wire generates a voltage while moving through a magnetic field. In
what direction should the wire be moved, relative to the field to generate the
maximum voltage?
Ans. When we place a conductor wire in a magnetic field then it will experience a
magnetic force in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field. To generate the
maximum voltage (emf) in the conductor we must move the wire in such a way that
angle between velocity or wire and magnetic field must be 900.

Q2. Can a transformer operate on direct current?

Ans.Transformer does not work on DC. Direct current doesn’t have a variable magnetic
field induced if fed through the primary winding of a transformer. Thus, only a constant
magnetic field will act on secondary and shall not induce any voltage across the
terminals of the same.

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Q3.Explain how the force works on a current carrying conductor that is perpendicular
to the magnetic field?

Ans. Force on current carrying conductor in a magnetic field

When a conductor of length L carrying current, I andplaced in a magnetic field B at an
angle
F = I (l x B)
F= BIL Sin

B=

We know that current in a conductor is due to the directional drift of free electrons
along the conductor so when a conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field B and if
the current, l 1s passed, the conductor experiences a force as mentioned above.
When a conductor carries an electric current, a magnetic field is produced around it .
The magnetic field has an equal and opposite effect on the conductor carrying the
current. The direction of the external magnetic field and the direction of the current in
the conductor are responsible for this attractive and repulsive forces. The direction of
the force acting on the conductor will be perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic
field and the electric current if they are perpendicular to each other.

Q4. State that a current carrying coil in a magnetic field will experience a torque?

Ans. A current-carrying coil kept in a magnetic field experiences a torque, which is the
cross product of the magnetic moment and the field vector. Hence, the torque is
maximum when the dipole moment is perpendicular to the field, and zero when it's
parallel or antiparallel to the field. When the dipole moment is parallel to the field, the
dipole is in stable equilibrium. When it's antiparallel, it's in an unstable equilibrium
state.
Q5.describe an experiment that demonstrates the induction of e.m.f in a circuit by
varying magnetic field?

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Ans. The phenomenon of generation of
electric current by causing a variation
in the magnetic field is electromagnetic
induction. Faraday conducted an
experiment in which a coil connected
to a galvanometer is placed near a bar
magnet. The movement of the bar
magnet towards or away from the coil causes the generation and flow of electric current
in the coil.
Q6. Explain that the direction of an induced e.m.f. opposes the charge causing it and
relate this phenomenon to conservation of energy?
Ans. Lenz's law states that when an e.m.f is generated by a change in magnetic flux
according to Faraday's Law, the polarity of the induced e.m.f is such, that it produces an
current that's magnetic field opposes the change which produces it.
The negative sign used in Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, indicates that the
induced emf (ϵ) and the change in magnetic flux ( δ ϕB ) have opposite signs. =

“B” is the magnetic field, “N” is number of turns in coil, “ is Induced e.m.f, “ is
change is magnetic flux.

Lenz's law obeys the law of conservation of energy and if the direction of the magnetic
field that creates the current and the magnetic field of the current in a conductor are in
same, then these two magnetic fields would add up and produce the current of twice
the magnitude creating more magnetic fields. This will cause more current and leads to
violation of the law of conservation of energy.
Q7.Explain how is A.C generator
work in its most simplest form?
Ans. AC generators work on the
principle of Faraday’s law of
electromagnetic induction. When the
armature rotates between the
magnet’s poles upon an axis
perpendicular to the magnetic field,
the flux linkage of the armature changes continuously. Due to this, an emf is induced in
the armature. As a result, an electric current flows through the galvanometer and the
slip rings and brushes.
Q8.What factors do the generated EMF in an alternator depend upon?

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The generated EMF depends on the number of armature coil turns, magnetic field
strength, and the rotating field’s speed.

Q9.What are some advantages of AC generators over DC generators?

AC generators can be easily stepped up and stepped down through transformers. Losses
in AC generators are relatively lesser than in DC machines.
Q10. Recognize that a transformer is based on the concept of mutual induction ?
Ans. Mutual inductance is where the magnetic flux of two or more inductors are
“linked” so that voltage is induced in one coil proportional to the rate-of-change of
current in another.

A transformer is a device made of two or more inductors, one of which is powered by

AC, inducing an AC voltage across the second inductor.

Q11. Explain what role transformer play in alternating current circuit?

Transformers are used in electric circuits to change the voltage of electricity flowing in
the circuit. It is used to increase the voltage (called 'stepping up') or decrease the
voltage ('stepping down') in AC circuits
Q12.Determine the function of transformer in the process of moving electrical current
from the power plant to your home?

Ans.The purpose of using a transformer in power supply is to make electrical power

accessible as it travels from a power utility to an office, home, worksite or other
location. Energy is lost when it travels along transmission wires from a power plant to a
customer. Utilities use a very high voltage to lose less energy.
Q13. Compile a list the uses of transformer in daily life?
Ans. Uses of Transformers in Daily Lie:
1. Alternating Current Regulation 2. Charging Batteries

3. Steel Manufacturing 4. Electrolysis

5. Controlling the flow of Electricity through a circuit 6. Audio Transformer

7. Coolant 8. Ammeters or Current
Transformers

9. Impedance Matching or Impedance Transferring Device 10. Air Conditioner

11. Stabilizers 12. Rectifiers

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13. Optimize the Voltage Levels 14. Isolators
15. Voltmeters 16. DC Blocker

17. Power Transmission and Distribution Applications

Q14 Define the following?
Magnetic Field:

the region around a magnetic material or a moving electric charge within which the
force of magnetism acts.

D.C Motor:
D.C Motor is an electromechanical device that convert the electrical energy into
mechanical energy

Q16. Write the factor affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f

Ans.Factors affecting the maguitude of an induced e.m.f.
 The factors involved in the induced emf of a coil are The induced e.m.f. is directly
proportional to N the total number of turns in the coil.
 The induced e.m.t. 1S directly proportional to A, the area of cross-section of the
coil.
 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to B, the strength of the magnetic field
in which the coil is rotating
 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to ' ’ the angular velocity of the coil.
 The induced e.m.f. also varies with time and depends on instant 't.
 The induced e.m.f. is maximum when the plane of the coil is parallel to magnetic
field B and e.m.f. is Zero when the plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic
field B.
Q17. What does Faraday’s First Law of Electromagnetic Induction state?
Ans. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction states, “Whenever a conductor is
placed in a varying magnetic field, an electromotive force is induced. Likewise, if the
conductor circuit is closed, a current is induced, which is called induced current.”
Q18. What does Faraday’s Second Law of Electromagnetic Induction state?
Ans. Faraday’s first second law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced emf
in a coil is equal to the rate of change of flux linkage.
Q19. What does the negative sign indicate in Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
induction formula?

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Ans. The negative sign indicates that the direction of the induced emf and change in the
direction of magnetic fields have opposite signs.

Q20. What is meant by EMF?

Ans. Electromotive force or emf is a measurement of the energy that causes current to
flow through a circuit.
Q21. A wire in a magnetic field generates voltage. To generate maximum voltage,
move the wire in what direction relative to the field?
Ans) The conductor wire and magnetic field should be perpendicular to each other to
generate the maximum voltage.

Q22. Can a transformer operate on direct current?

Ans) The transformers work according to the Faraday's Law of electromagnetic
induction. The Direct Current does not produce variable magnetic field and when
primary coil of transformer is connected to DC then constant magnetic field lines pass
through secondary coil and will not induce any voltage in the secondary coil. Therefore,
transformer cannot be operated on the direct Current.
Q23. Demonstrate through an experiment how an electric current in a conductor
generates a magnetic field in its vicinity.
Ans) Pass a current-carrying conductor through a cardboard sheet. Small compasses
should be placed near the conductor. Then, the compasses will point in the direction of
the magnetic lines of force generated from current carrying conductor

Q24. Explain how a force works on a current-carrying conductor that is perpendicular

to the magnetic field.
Ans) The magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire in a direction given by
the Flemings right hand rule. This force can easily be large enough to move the wire,
since typical currents consist of very large numbers of moving charges.
Q25. State that, a current carrying coil in a magnetic field will experience a torque.

Ans) When a current passes through the coil, equal and opposite parallel forces act
respectively on the sides of the coil beside the poles of the permanent magnet. This pair

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of forces produces a turning effect to rotate the coil until it is supported by the control
springs.

26. Describe an experiment that demonstrates the induction of e.m.f. in a circuit by a

varying magnetic field.

Ans) Changing magnetic field can induce e.m.f in a circuit Electromagnetic Induction by
a Moving Magnet: Faraday demonstrates that magnetic fields can create currents as
illustrated in figure below. When the magnet shown below is moved "towards" the coil,
the Galvanometer's pointer or needle will deflect away from its center position in one
direction only. When the magnet stops moving and is held stationary with respect to the
coil, the needle of the galvanometer returns to zero as there is no physical movement of
the magnetic field. Similarly, when the magnet is moved "away" from the coil, the
galvanometer needle deflects in the opposite direction, indicating a change in polarity.
By moving the magnet back and forth towards the coil, the needle of the galvanometer
will deflect left or right, positive or negative, relative to the magnet's motion.
Electromagnetic Induction by a Moving Coil: For Faraday's law to be valid, either the
coil or the magnetic field (or both) must be in "relative motion" with one another for the
induced emf or voltage.
If you keep the magnet stationary and move only the coil toward or away from the
magnet, the needle on the galvanometer will also move in either direction. A voltage is
induced in a coil when the coil is moved through a magnetic field, and the magnitude of
this voltage is proportional to the speed at which the coil is moved
Q27. Give some examples of what could increase or decrease the strength of an
induced emf.
Ans) Factors affecting the magnitude of an induced e.m.f:

 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to N, the total number of turns in the coil.

 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to A, the area of cross-section of the coil.

 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to B, the strength of the magnetic field in
which the coil is rotating.

 The induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to '', the angular velocity of the coil.

 The induced e.m.f. also varies with time and depends on instant 't'.

 The induced e.m.f. is maximum when the plane of the coil is parallel to magnetic field
B and e.m.f. is zero when the plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field B.

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Q28. Explain that the direction of an induced e.m.f opposes the change causing it and
relate this phenomenon to conservation of energy.

Ans) Below illustration showing that, if magnetic field "B" is increasing, the induced
magnetic field will oppose it in

As illustrated in figure (b), the induced magnetic field will once again oppose the
magnetic field "B" when "B" is decreasing. This time, "in opposition" suggests it's acting
to increase the field by opposing the decreasing rate of change

Q29. Explain how an A.C. generator works in its most simple form.
Ans) A.C generator: An AC generator is an electric generator that converts mechanical
energy into electrical energy in the form of alternative emf or alternating current. An AC
generator works on the principle of "Electromagnetic Induction".

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 CHAPTER # 17
INTRODUCTORY ELECTRONICS
Q1. Give an example showing that the word is shifting from low-tech electrical
appliance to high-tech electronic appliance?
Ans. The word is shifting from low-tech electrical appliance to high-tech electronic
appliance
For Example

A digital Voltmeter has following advantages over electrical voltmeter

i) High accuracy
ii) High resolution
iii) Greater speed
iv) No parallax error
v) Reduced human error
vi) Compatibility with other digital equipment’s
Above reason made the modern word, the word of digital electronics.

Q2. Write Advantages of digital electronics devices over Analog electronics devices
Ans. Advantages of digital electronics devices over Analog electronics devices
i) They have greater speed
ii) They are very sensitive
iii) They display are easily readable
iv) They are very accurate
v) They have batter resolution
vi) They can monitor remote signals.

Q3.What is the function of ADC and DAC?

Ans. ADC takes an analog signal and converts it into a binary one, while a DAC converts
a binary signal into an analog value

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Q4. Demonstrate the process of thermionic emission by diagram?
Ans.

Q5.Will the process of thermionic emission still occurs, if

air is in the tube instead of having vacuum in it?

Ans. Thermionic emission will still occurs, if air is in the tube instead of having vacuum
in it
Q6. Why cathodes repel electrons?

Ans. The anode is positively charged so attracts negative charge ( electrons) while the
cathode is negatively charged so repels negatively charges( electrons)

Q7. Write Important Properties of Cathode Rays?

Ans. Properties of Cathode Rays

i) Cathode rays travel in a straight line and can cast sharp shadows.

ii) Cathode rays are negatively charged.

iv) Electric field and magnetic field deflect cathode rays.
v) They are produced at the cathode (negatively charged electrode) and travel
towards the anode (positively charged electrode) in a vacuum tube.
vi) Speed of cathode rays is slower than light.
vii) The objects hit by cathode rays get heated.
viii) They can penetrate through thin metal plates.
ix) Gas gets ionized by cathode rays.
x) Cathode rays are 1800 times lighter than hydrogen, the lightest element.
Q8). Will there will be any change in the properties of cathodes rays if the gas in the
tube is change?
OR
Will there be any change in the properties of cathodes rays if the metals used is
cathodes is change?
Ans. The properties of cathodes rays are independent of the choice of gas in the tube
and also the metal used as cathodes.

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Q9.Cathodes rays lead the discovery of which partials?
Ans. An electron gun made the electrons to travel in straight lines like a beam called
"Cathode rays". These
Invisible rays were coming to found from the cathode. This leads to discovery of
electron.
Q10. State and explain the phenomenon of the production of an electron beam by an
electron gun?
Ans. An electron gun is used to produce a continuous flow of electrons. The electrons
are emitted from the hot filament. The cathode is a metal plate warmed by the
filament. The cathode is held at a negative potential compared with the anode. The
anode is held at high positive potential. The difference of potential between cathode
and anode is about thousands of volts. The electrons emitted from the hot filament are
then accelerated by this large potential difference between cathode and anode. This
produces fast moving electrons. As the electrons are negatively charged therefore they
are repelled by cathode and attracted towards anode. So the electrons are not slowed
down by colliding with air molecules hence a beam of fast moving electrons is
produced.
Q11. Is there any changes occurs in direction of an electron beam when it passes
through an electric field. Explain?

Ans. Electrons can be deflected by electric fields, the deflection of an electron passing
through a uniform electric field at 90° to the direction of motion of electron. This field is
generated by parallel charged plates. The two plates are oppositely charged. Force
acting on electron is constant and towards the positive plate as a result electron follows
a curved path towards the positive plate.

Q12. How the electron beam produced by the electron gun can be directed to a
specific target?

Ans. Effect of electric field on an electron beam:

The beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a specific target.
This could be done efficiently by:
(i) Keeping the gun itself remains fixed.

(ii) The beam of electrons to be deflected after it has been produced.

This could be done by deflecting the beam of electrons by an electric field. This field is
provided by two oppositely charged metal plates. The effects of deflection of electron
beam by an electric field are:

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i) The beam bends and changes direction.
ii) The beam follows a parabolic (curved) path in the electric field.

iii) The beam of electron changes direction millions of times each second.
iv) The energy and speed of electron beam increases.
v)The beam continues to move in a straight line after passing through the electric field.

Q13. Demonstrate by diagram the deflection of electron beam by an electric field?

Ans.

Q14. What happen to the energy of electron beam when it passes through a magnetic
field?
Ans. The energy of electron beam does not change when passes through the magnetic
field

Q15. Is there any changes in the speed of electron beam as it passes through a
magnetic field?
Ans. The speed of electron beam does not change when it passes through the magnetic
field.
Q16. Write effect of magnetic field on an electron beam?
Ans. Effect of magnetic field on an electron beam:
The effects of deflection of electron beam by a magnetic field are:
i)The beam bends and changes direction.
ii) The beam follows a circular path in the magnetic field.
iii)The energy of electron beam does not change in the magnetic field.
iv) The speed of electron beam does not change in a magnetic field.
Q16. Define the role of vacuum tube in electronics.

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Ans) Electron tube, also called vacuum tube, is used in electronic circuitry to control a
flow of electrons. Among the common applications of vacuum tubes are amplification of
a weak current, rectification of an alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC),
generation of oscillating radio frequency (RF) power for radio and radar, and creation of
images on a television screen or computer monitor.

Q17. Is there any change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes
through an electric field. Explain?
Ans) There is a change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes
through an electric field. The beam bends and changes direction. The beam follows a
parabolic (curved) path in the electric field. The beam of electron changes direction
millions of times each second. The beam continues to move in a straight line after
passing through the electric field.

Q18. How the beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a
specific target?

Ans) The beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a specific
target by using magnets on both sides.
Q19. Demonstrate by a diagram the deflection of electron beam by an electric field.

Ans) There is a change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes
through an electric field. The beam bends and changes direction. The beam follows a
parabolic (curved) path in the electric field. The beam of electron changes direction
millions of times each second. The beam continues to move in a straight line after
passing through the electric field.

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Q20. What happens to the energy of electron beam when it passes through a
magnetic field?

Ans) The energy of electron beam does not change when it passes through a magnetic
field.

Q21. Is there any change in the speed of electron beam as it passes through a
magnetic field?

Ans) The speed of electron beam does not change as it passes through a magnetic field

Q22. Give any three effects of deflection of electron beam by a magnetic field.

Ans)
(i) The beam bends and changes direction.
(ii) The beam follows a circular path in the magnetic field.
(iii) The energy of electron beam does not change in the magnetic field

Q23. Explain the function of following parts of a cathode-ray oscilloscope.

(a) The fluorescent screen. (b) The cathode. (c) The anode. (d) The Y-plate.

Ans)
a) The fluorescent screen: When this electron beam strikes the fluorescent screen a
bright spot is created on the screen.
b) The cathode: The electron gun emits a beam of electrons (i.e. cathode-ray) which is
produced by the cathode.
c) The anode: The anode at (+ve) potential and is used to accelerate the electrons and
to focus them into a fine beam. d) The Y-plate: Y-plates cause deflection in vertical
direction (up and down) when voltage is applied across them. The vertical deflection of
the electron beam can be changed by varying the voltage across the Y- plates.

Q24. Explain how the beam of electrons is produced inside the cathode-ray
oscilloscope.

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Ans) The electron gun emits a beam of electrons (i.e. cathode-ray) which is produced by
the cathode. The anode at (+ve) potential and is used to accelerate the electrons and to
focus them into a fine beam.

Q25.Explain what makes the electrons accelerate from the cathode towards the
anode?

Ans) Yes. The anode plate (which is at around +20kV (20000 volts) or even more, while
the filament is usually around OV (compared to earth). This huge difference between
potentials accelerates the electrons from the filament (which is heated to give off
electrons) towards the front of the screen

Q26. Explain the term "LOGIC" by giving a suitable example?

Ans) Logic: Logic is defined as a system that aims to draw reasonable conclusions based
on given information.

Q27. Name the component which implements logic in digital electronics.

Ans)
1. AND Gate
2. OR Gate
3. NOT Gate
4. NAND Gate
5. NOR Gate

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Q28. Explain is there any intermediate state possible?

Ans) Digital electronics based devices uses discrete signals. A digital signal represents
two opposite states. These signals either represents a (ON, OFF, HIGH, LOW, OPEN,
CLOSE, UPPER, LOWER, PLUS, MINUS, TRUE, FALSE, MAX, MIN) states of a system. There
is no intermediate state is possible (allowed).

Example: A block diagram of a security alarm which operates through two switches is
shown in figure below.

Q29. Give the symbol of a NAND gate.

Ans)
A single dot or full stop symbol, (.) with an Overline, (‾)

Q30. Give the truth table for AND gate.

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Q31. Describe the logic operation of an inverter?
Ans) The NOT operates complement or invert of any input.

Q32. Produce the truth table for an OR gate?

Q33. Which two logic gates will give an output of 1 with inputs of 1 and 0?
Ans) OR and NAND.

Q34. Give the symbol of a NOR gate?

Ans) A plus symbol, (+) with a compliment, (‘) or overline, (‾)

Q35. Give the truth table of a NOR gate?

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 CHAPTER # 18
INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
Q1. What is difference between data and information?
Ans.

Data Information
i Data is a collection of facts Information puts those facts into contex.
ii Data does not depend on information Information depends on data
iii Data is raw and unorganized Information is organize
iv Data typically comes in the form of Information is typically presented through
graph, numbers etc words, language etc
Q2. What do you understand by information and communication Technology?
Ans. An electronic based system of transmitting, receiving. Processing and retrieving
information is known as Information and Communication Technology (ICT).
Q3. What are the components of information technology? Clearly indicate the
function of each component?

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Ans. COMPONENTS OF COMPUTER BASED INFORMATION SYSTEM (CBIS)
Five components must come together to create a CBIS. Now we will briefly discuss
them.
1. Hardware is machinery: This comprises the CPU and its supporting hardware.
Input/output, storage, and communication devices are examples of essential
equipment.
2. Software: Software includes computer applications. They tell the CBIS's hardware
how to process data and turn it into meaningful information. Programs are usually
saved on a chips or tape.
3. Data: Programs utilize data to provide helpful information. It might be a phrase,
picture, or figure that has special significance. Data, like programmer, are usually saved
on chips or tape until needed by the computer.
4.Procedures: The guidelines for creating and using information systems. These are
in user manuals and papers. From time to time, these rules or techniques may be
revised. In order to accommodate these adjustments, the information system must be
adaptable

5. People: A CBIS is useless without individuals who can impact the success or failure
of information systems. People develop and maintain the software, enter data, and
construct the hardware that makes a CBIS work. People write the processes and
ultimately decide the CBIS's effectiveness.
Q4. What are the primary and secondary memory?
Ans.

Primary memory Secondary memory

i Primary memory are also called main Secondary memory is also known as
memory or internal memory external memory
ii Data operate and stored in uniform Data stored is not uniform manner
manner
iii Data is directly accessed by the Data is first transmitted to main memory
processing unit and then routed to processing unit.
iv Example: RAM, ROM etc. Example: Magnetic tape, optical disk etc.
Q5. Explain briefly the transmission of radio waves through space?
Ans. A radio wave is generated by a transmitter and then detected by a receiver. An
antenna allows a radio transmitter to send energy into space and a receiver to pick up
energy from space. Transmitter and receiver are typically designed to operate over a
limited rang frequencies.

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Q6. How light signals are sent through optical fiber?
Ans. Light travels down a fiber optic cable by bouncing off the walls of the cable
repeatedly. Each light particle (photon) bounces down the pipe with continued internal
mirror-like reflection.

The light beam travels down the core of the cable. The core is the middle of the cable
and the glass structure.
Q7. what is computer what are the role of computer in everyday life?
Ans. Computer: An electronic device for storing and processing data, typically in binary form,
according to instructions given to it in a variable program.

Role of computer in everyday life: To store, access, manipulate, calculate, analyze data
and information we use software application only with the help of these computer
machines. All our daily life activities are based on online services and products which
can only be possible via computers.
Q8. What is word processor?

Ans. Word Processing refers to the act of using a computer to create, edit, save and
print documents. In order to perform word processing, specialized software (known as a
Word Processor) is needed. One example of a Word Processor is Microsoft Word, but
other word processing applications are also widely used.
Q9. What is the difference between hardware and software?

Ans.

Software Hardware
i Software is the set of instruction that Hardware is physical parts of computer
tells a computer exactly what to do that cause processing of data
ii Software cannot be touched Hardware can be seen and touched.
iii Software is reinstalled if the problem Hardware is replaced if the problem is not
is not solved solve
iv Example: keyboard, mouse etc. Example: O.S, MS. Office etc.
Q10. Why optical fiber is more useful tool for communication process?

Ans. The benefit of optical fiber is that it can be used to transmit very large amounts of
data across great distances with little loss of quality. This characteristic of fiber optics
separates it from wire-based systems. Whenever electrical signals are transferred across
wires, the signal loss rises in direct proportion to the increase in data rate delivered. As
a result, the signal's range is reduced.
Q11. which is more reliable floppy disk or hard disk?

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Ans. Advantages of the hard disk over floppy disk: The hard disk provides far larger
storage capacities and much faster access time than floppy disks. The hard disk is
cheaper than the floppy disk per megabyte. The hard disk is usually more reliable than a
floppy disk. The hard disk is more durable compared to a floppy disk. Hard disk store
more data compared to a floppy disk. The hard disk is universal while floppy disk drive
can only be used on obsolete machines

Q12. What is difference between RAM and ROM?

Q13.What is the role of information technology in education?

Ans.The role of technology in education is immense. The learning process for the
students becomes easier as the technology progresses. Technologies that are used in

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schools and colleges such as having computer labs, and using high-end devices and
instruments make it easy for students to understand the concepts.
Q14. Write different information storage device and describe their uses
Ans. Magnetic strip: Magnetic tape drive stores video and audio using magnetic tape,
like tape and video tape recorders.
Hard drive: An internal hard drive is the main storage device in a computer. An external
hard drive is also known as removable hard drive. It is used to store portable data and
backups.
Flash Memory Device: is now replacing magnetic storage device as it is economical,
more functional and dependable.
Memory card: An electronic flash memory device used to store digital information and
commonly used in mobile electronic devices.
Memory stick: A memory card that is removable.
SSD – Solid State Drive: A flash memory device that uses integrated circuit assemblies
to save data steadily.
USB flash drive, jump drive or thumb drive: A small, portable storage device connected
through the USB port.
Q15. What is Internet? Internet is a useful source of knowledge and information.
Discuss.
Ans) Internet: Internet is a network of networks, which spreads all across the globe.

Internet is a useful source of knowledge: Since the Internet is full of knowledge, most
students use both correct and incorrect data in their education. In fact, there are now
even online programs and courses available, which students can easily access to study.
This will help them to make their education successfully.
Internet is a useful source of information: Internet sources can be many things but
most basically it is the information found on web pages. The internet sources are online
databases that are available through the many library websites, newspapers, journals,
magazines, television and documentaries.

Q16. Why optical fibre is more useful tool for the communication process?

Ans) There are two reasons for optical fibre is more useful tool for the communication
process.

1. Visible light waves are substantially higher in frequency than radio waves. This
implies that light beams can convey information faster than radio waves or microwaves.
An optical fibre was employed as a transmission path.
2. The benefit of optical fibre is that it can be used to transmit very large amounts of
data across great distances with little loss of quality. This characteristic of fibre optics
separates it from wire-based systems. Whenever electrical signals are transferred across

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wires, the signal loss rises in direct proportion to the increase in data rate delivered. As
a result, the signal's range is reduced

CHAPTER # 19
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Q1. Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?
Ans. The nucleus is the center part of the atom and contains the protons and neutron,
which are collectively called nucleons.
Q2. What is the structure of the atom?

Ans. Atoms consist of three basic particles: protons,

electrons, and neutrons. The nucleus (center) of the
atom contains the protons (positively charged) and the
neutrons (no charge). The outermost regions of the
atom are called electron shells and contain the

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electrons (negatively charged).

Q3. How does the atomic number distinguish one element from another?
Ans. The number of protons determines an element's atomic number (Z) and
distinguishes one element from another. For example, carbon's atomic number (Z) is 6
because it has 6 protons. The number of neutrons can vary to produce isotopes, which
are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons.
Q4. Give the Rutherford model of an atom.

Ans. According to the Rutherford atomic model:

 The positive charge and most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in an

extremely small volume. He called this region of the atom as a nucleus.
 Rutherford’s model proposed that the negatively charged electrons surround
the nucleus of an atom. He also claimed that the electrons surrounding the
nucleus revolve around it with very high speed in circular paths. He named
these circular paths as orbits.
 Electrons being negatively charged and nucleus being a densely concentrated
mass of positively charged particles are held together by a strong electrostatic
force of attraction.

Q5. Why did Rutherford conclude that the atom was mostly empty space?

Ans. Because the vast majority of the alpha particles had passed through the gold, he
reasoned that most of the atom was empty space. In contrast, the particles that were
highly deflected must have experienced a tremendously powerful force within the atom.

Q6. What is the atomic number?

Ans. The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

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Q7. What is meant by the symbol of an atom explain with example?

Ans. Symbol of an element is a one or two letter notation that is used for denoting the
chemical element. Each element has its own particular symbol. For example, carbon is
denoted by the symbol C, sodium by Na, Potassium by K, and chlorine by Cl.

Q8. What are the isotopes? Explain with example.

Ans. ) Isotopes: Two or more species of atoms of an element with the same atomic
number(Z) but have different atomic mass(A) are called Isotopes. The hydrogen atom
(atomic number 1) has three isotopes with atomic masses 1, 2, and 3

Q9. Why chemical properties of isotopes are same and physical properties are
different?

Ans. They have similar chemical properties because isotopes of an element have the
same number of electrons as an atom of that element. The electron arrangement is the
same owing to same chemical properties. However they have different numbers of
neutrons, which affects the mass number. Mass number determines the physical
properties such as boiling/melting/density etc.

Q10. Cite the Geiger Marsden experiment with the help of a diagram.

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 Ans) Geiger Marsden experiment: Geiger and Marsden used a beam of positively
charged α- particles to bombard a thin gold foil placed in a vacuum surrounded by a
ringshaped fluorescent screen. After bombarding the foil, the scattered α-particles were
detected using a rotating detector. When α-particles hit the screen of light was
observed through the detector; Figure below.

Observations:

 The most of the α- particles were not deflected or only a few deflected through small
angles.

 A small number of the α-particles were deflected through considerable large angles of
more than 90°.

 A few of the α-particles were even deflected back through nearly 180°

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 CHAPTER # 20
NUCLEAR STRUCTURE
Q1. Define the term radioactivity.

Ans) The emission of α, β and γ radiation with the release of energy is known as
radioactivity.

Q2. What do you mean by the term stable nucleus?

Ans) Stable nucleus is the nucleus that does not spontaneously emit any kind of
radiation.

Q3. Why are some elements radioactive, but some are not?

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Ans) When the atoms of an element have extra neutrons or protons it creates extra
energy in the nucleus and causes the atom to become unbalanced or unstable.

Q4. The uranium isotope 92U 238 with atomic mass (nucleon number) 238 and atomic
number 92

a) State the nucleon number.

Ans) The number of protons and neutrons is known as nucleon number or atomic
mass.

Example: The nucleon number of uranium is 238.

b) Uranium-238 nuclide decays to form a thorium nuclide (symbol Th) by emission

of an alpha particle. State
i. The proton number of an alpha particle,

Ans) 2

ii. The nucleon number of an alpha particle,

Ans) 4

iii. The proton number of thorium

Ans) 90

iv. The nucleon number of thorium isotopes formed.

Ans) 234

c) Complete the nuclear equation of the uranium decay

Q3. A radioactive rock emits gamma rays. A demonstrator plans to experiment to

show that the emission of gamma rays is random.

a) State the random nature of radioactive decay.

Ans) A random decay is a process in which the exact time of decay of a nucleus cannot
be predicted.

b) Describe what is meant by a gamma-ray.

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 Ans) Gamma radiations are photons that are electromagnetic radiations of ultra-high
frequency.

Relative ionizing effects of gamma-ray: The ionization power of gamma rays is less than
that of beta particles and α particles.

Relative penetrating abilities of gamma-ray: Gamma-ray has more penetrating ability

than other rays.

i. State two safety measures that the researcher must take.

Ans) 1. Keep all radioactive sources at a safe distance from the body.

2. Minimize the time spent near radioactive materials.

ii. Describe how the experiment is performed.

Ans) Experiment: A detector like a Geiger-Muller (GM) tube can demonstrate the
random nature by observing the count rate of radioactive disintegration. When a GM
tube is placed near a radioactive source, the counts are irregular. Each count
represents a decay of an unstable nucleus. The variation of count rate over time of a
sample radioactive source is plotted on the graph. You can see the fluctuations in
count rate against time; figure below that provides evidence for the random nature
of radioactive decay over time.

Conclusion:

It can be concluded from the experiment that the time of each decay cannot be
predicted

Q4. The nuclide notation for two isotopes of carbon is 6C 12 and 6C 14. Carbon-14
decays by beta emission to a stable isotope of nitrogen.

a) Which nuclide of the carbon is? State with a reason.

i. Stable isotope
Ans) Stable isotope is 6C 12 because it contains the same number of protons and
neutrons.
ii) Radioisotope

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Ans) Radioisotope is 6C 14 because there of the difference in their proton and neutron
munbers

b) What is meant by a beta particle?

Ans) A beta particle, also called beta ray or beta radiation (symbol B), is a high-energy,
highspeed electron or positron emitted by the radioactive decay of an atomic nucleus
during the process of beta decay
Q5. Write the nuclear equation of carbon-14 decay to a nitrogen-14 by beta decay.

Ans) When a slow-moving neutron hits a 92U 235 nucleus, it splits into the nucleus of
barium 56Ba141 and the nucleus of krypton 36Kr92 and emits three neutrons energy is
released.

a) State name of the nuclear process.

Ans) Nuclear Fission.
b) Which of the two isotopes of U-235 and U-236 have a shorter half-life.
Ans) U-236 has shorter half-life.
c) How can we make radioisotopes artificially? Describe a suitable example.
Ans) The stable and non-radioactive elements can also be transmuted into radioactive
elements by exposing them to neutrons, or alpha particles. Here is an example of the
production of radioisotopes:

c) For the given process, state its one application in our daily lives.
Ans) Nuclear fission produces an enormous amount of energy which is used to
produce electricity.

Q6. The reaction that takes place at the center of the sun can be represented as 2 1P 1
+2 on 1  2He4 + energy a) State the name of this type of reaction.
Ans) Nuclear fusiom.

b) Also, define the reaction.

Ans) Nuclear fusion occurs when two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus
with the release of energy.

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Q7. A Nuclear fusion reaction is a more reliable and sustainable energy source than
nuclear fission chain reaction. Justify this statement with suitable arguments.

Ans)
1. Nuclear fusion does not generate radioactive nuclear wastes as nuclear fission does.
2. Nuclear fusion cannot lead to disastrous powerplant explosions as nuclear fission
does.
3. More energy is generated during nuclear fusion than in nuclear fission.
Q8. What do you understand by the half-life of a radioactive element?

Ans) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken for half of the nuclei present
in any given sample to decay
a) When a Radium-226 undergoes alpha decay, Radon-222 is produced

Q9. Define the terms

i. Parent nuclide

Ans) The original nucleus before decay is called the parent nucleus.
ii. Daughter nuclide
Ans) The nucleus formed after decay is called the daughter nucleus.
Q10. Describe uses of radioisotopes in
a) medicine,

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Ans) Radiotracers:
Radioisotopes are used as radiotracers in medicine.

For example, a patient drinks a liquid containing radio iodine-131, a gamma emitter, to
check thyroid function. Over the next 24 hours, a detector measures the activity of the
tracer to find out how quickly it becomes concentrated in the thyroid gland.
Also,for the diagnosis of brain tumors, the phosphorous-32 isotope is used.
Curing various diseases:
In nuclear medicines, radioisotopes are used for curing various diseases. For example,
cobalt-60 is a strong gamma emitter. These rays can penetrate in-depth into the body
and kill the malignant tumor cells in the patient.Treatment like this is called
radiosurgery

b) industry,

Ans) Radiotracers:

Radioisotopes are used as radiotracers in industry. A small amount of short-lived

radioactive substances is used in various processes and scanned the flow rates of
various materials, including liquids, powders, and gases, to locate leakages.
Radiotracers are also used in the oil and gas industry to detect and estimate the extent
of oil fields.
Crack Testing:

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 Gamma rays have high penetrating power, so they can photograph metals to check
cracks. A cobalt-60 is a natural gamma rays source and does not need electrical power
like an x-ray tube

Q11. What are the common radiation hazards?

Ans) Radiation Hazards:

The prolonged exposure to radioactive radiations (α,β,γ and Xrays) can produce deep-
sited burns, damage to cells or tissues, and the mutations of the cells that can lead to
genetic changes. Radioactive exposure can also cause cancerous growth in specific body
tissues.

Hazards of α-particles:

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 The danger from α particles because of their lower penetration power is minimal. If
sources of α particles are lodged into the body, through the air, or we cat, it can damage
our body tissues.

Hazards of β-particles:

The β particles are more penetrating and can damage the body surface tissues. Sources
of these particles that enter the body can be quite damaging.

Hazards of γ-particles:

The γ rays are highly penetrating and the most dangerous of all other radioactive
radiations.

c) Why is an alpha source more harmful when lodged into the body?

Ans) If sources of α particles are lodged into the body, through the air, or we eat, it can
damage our body tissues.

d) Which type of radiation is more hazardous than other radiations? Explain why?

Ans) The most dangerous of all other radioactive radiations are γ rays because they are
highly penetrating.

e) Describe briefly the safety measures that are taken against them.

Ans) Safety Measures: While working in the radiology department in hospitals, nuclear
reactors, and research laboratories, should take the following safety measures to avoid
any risk of radiation hazards:

1. Keep all radioactive sources at a safe distance from the body.

2. Minimize the time spent near radioactive materials.

3. Wear personal protective equipment, including a laboratory coat, gloves, safety

glasses, and close toed shoes.

4. Lapel the dosimeter badge always and monitor regularly.

5. Do not eat, drink, smoke or touch exposed areas of skin while working in a room
where radioisotopes are handled.

6. Use tongs to handle radioactive sources.

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7. After use, must return the source immediately to its lead boxes.

8. All radioactive sources should be kept in thick lead containers.

9. Dispose of all radioactive waste under permitted regulation or statutory control.

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