Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Index

COMPARISON OF RANK …………………………………….. 1

SITTING ARRANGEMENT …………………………………….. 9
COMPLEX ARRANGEMENT …………………………………….. 22
BLOOD RELATIONS …………………………………….. 32
CODING DECODING …………………………………….. 38
SYLLOGISM …………………………………….. 52
MISCELLANEOUS ANALYTICAL TEST …………………………………….. 59
FAMILY TREE …………………………………….. 63
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS …………………………………….. 71
CONDITIONS AND GROUPING ……………………………………..80
DIRECTION SENSE TEST …………………………………….. 93
CALENDAR …………………………………….. 100
CLOCKS …………………………………….. 102
CUBES …………………………………….. 104
LETTER SERIES AND LETTER ANALOGIES …………………………………….. 106
NUMBER ANALOGIES …………………………………….. 113
NUMBER SERIES …………………………………….. 119
ODD MAN OUT (CLASSIFICATION) …………………………………….. 125
SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS …………………………………….. 130
TRUTH TELLER AND LIAR …………………………………….. 135
ROUTES AND NETWORK …………………………………….. 140

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Comparison Of Rank

Question- 1 to 10
1.Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju Rahul scored more than
Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest ?
(a) Manju (b) Yamuna (c) Lokita (d) Rahul

2.Roshan is taller than Hardik who is shorter than Susheel. Niza is taller than Harry but shorter then Hardik Susheel is shorter
then Roshan. Who is the tallest ?
(a) Roshan (b) Susheel (c) Hardik (d) Harry

3.Among five boys ,Vasnt is taller than Manohar, but not as tall as Raju. Jayant is taller than Dutta ,but shorter than Manohar.
Who is the tallest in the group ?
(a) Raju (b) Manohar (c) Vasant (d) Cannot be determined

4. Among A,B,C and D, B is heavier than A and C but C is taller than him. D is not as tall as C, while A is shorter than C, C is
not heavy as A, D is heavier than B but shorter than him. Who is the heaviest?
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C

5. In the above question, who is the smallest?

(a) D (b) C (c) Either A or D (d) Cannot be determined

6. Mukesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter then Amar. Who among them is
the shortest with regard to height ?
(a) Mukesh (b) Suresh (c) Harish (d) Cannot be determined

7. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter then Suresh. Manish is shorter then Anil but taller than Raghu. Who among them is the
shortest having regard to height?
(a) Anil (b) Manish (c) Raghu (d) Cannot be determined

8. Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter then Vinay. Who among
them is the tallest?
(a) Ramesh (b) Karan (c) Vinay (d) Cannot be determined

9. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Reena is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them
is the tallest ?
(a) Manish (b) Pushpa (c) Namita (d) Nageena

10. Among five friends, Neelu is younger than Vibha but elder than Pooja. Pooja is younger than Asha and Anupam. Asha is
elder than Vibha but younger than Anupam. Who is ranked fourth in the ascending order of the age ?
(a) Anupama (b) Asha (c) Neelu (d) Pooja.

Question11 to 13
Seven boys are made to stand in a row in a order of increasing heights (shortest boy first). Their names are Ram, Shyam, Rohan,
Rohit, Mohan, Anup and Akash.

Following statement give information about their positions in the row:

 Shyam is the tallest boy.
 Anup is exactly between Ram and Rohit.
 There are exactly three boys between Rohit and Akash.
 Rohan comes right after Shyam in height.

11. According to the information given, how many arrangements are possible ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

12. How many boys take the same position in the row in all the possible arrangements’?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

13. If it is given that Anup is taller than Mohan, then who is the shortest boy?
(a) Rohit (b) Mohan (c) Akash (d) Can’t be determined

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Question14 to 18
There are five friends- Shailenhdra, Keshav, Madhav, Ashish and Rakesh. Shailendra is shorter then Keshav but taller than
Rakesh. Madhav is the tallest. Ashish is little shorter than Keshav and a little taller than Shailendra.

14. Who is the shortest?

(a) Rakesh (b) Shailendra (c) Ashish (d) Keshav

15. If they stand in order of their heights, who will be in the middle?
(a) Keshav (b) Rakesh (c) Shailendra (d) Ashish

16. If they stand in order of increasing heights, who will be the second?
(a) Ashish (b) Shailendra (c) Rakesh (d) Keshav

17. Who is the second tallest ?

(a) Shailendra (b) Keshav (c) Ashish (d) Rakesh

18. Who is taller than Ashish but shorter than Madhav?

(a) Madhav (b) Keshav (c) Rakesh (d) Ashish

Question 19 to23
6 people A,B,C,D,E and F have the following attributes:
 ‘A’ is richer than ‘B’, but shorter than ‘F’
 ‘B’ is richer than ‘E’, but taller than ‘F’
 ‘C ’is poorer than ‘D’, and taller than ‘A’
 ‘D’ is poorer as well as shorter than ‘E’
 ‘E’ is poorer as well as shorter than ‘A’
 ‘F’ is richer than A and taller than ‘C’
19. Who is the richest ?
(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) Insufficient data

20. Who is the shortest ?

(a) A (b) D (c) E (d) Insufficient data

21. When arranged in ascending order of riches and descending order height, who has the same rank?
(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) None of them

22. In order to rank according to riches, which of the given statements is redundant?
(a) II (b) III (c) V (d) All are required.

23. If the ranks obtained after arranging in descending order of height and riches are added up for each person, who has the
highest total?
(a) E (b) C (c) D (d) A

Questions 24to29
Eight student A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H appeared in an examination. They were ranked on the basis of their performance.
Following observations were on the basis of their performance.
 No 2 student share the same rank
 A has a better rank compared to H
 C is exactly one rank better than G
 There is only one student ranked between B and F this student has lower rank than A
 D and G have a better rank than A
 E tops the ranking

24. which of the following have the lowest rank?

(a) B (b) F (c) H (d) Either B or F

25. Who is the rank fifth ?

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(a) G (b) D (c) A (d) Insuficient data

26. How many position can G occupy?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

27. From the given data, how many rank are definitely determined ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

28. If H is ranked 7th what is D’s rank?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) Data Insufficient

29. Which of the following arrangements is valid?.

(a) EDGCHABF (b) ECGDAFHB (c) EDCGBAFH (d) EDBCGAFH

Question 30to34
 There is a group of persons of six persons living in a four-storied building. The persons are A,B,C,D,E, and F. Each
storey of the building has two flats; thus there are eight flats in all, two of them being empty.
 The heaviest of the group lives on top floor while the lightest lives on the ground floor.
 C is heavier than B, who, in turn, is heavier than F.
 E is lighter than D.
 One of the flats on the first floor is vacant while one on the second floor is also vacant.
 A is neither the heaviest nor the lightest.
 There are only two people heavier than C, A is not one of them.
 B shares the floor with the heaviest of the group while C shares it with the lightest.

30. Who among the following is the heaviest of the group ?

(a) D (b) C (c) A (d) None of these

31. Who does C share the floor with?

(a) F (b) E (c) A (d) Cannot say

32.On which floor does A live?

(a) Ground (b) First (c) Second (d) Cannot say

33. E and A live:

(a) On the same floor (b) On two continuous floors
(c) With one floor between their floors (d) With two floors between their floors

34. Starting from the heaviest of the group, what is the rank of A in order of Weight ?
(a) Fourth (b) Fifth (c) Six (d) Cannot say

Question 35to39
A certain musical scale consists of exactly six notes : F, G, H, I, J, and K. The notes are arranged from the lowest (the first note
of the scale)to the heighest (the sixth note of the scale). Each note appears once in the scale, and the intervals between the notes
are all equal.
 J is lower than K.
 G is a higher than F.
 I is somewhere between F and G
 H is the highest note of scale

35.Which of the following can not be true of the scale.

(a) G is the second note (b) G is the third note (c) I is the second note (d) I is the fourth note

36. If J the fourth note of the scale, Which of the following must be true?
(a) F is the third note (b) F is the fifth note (c) I is the fourth note (d) I is the second note

37. If exactly two notes separate F and I then which of the following must be true.?
(a) F is the lowest note (b) K is the fifth note
(c) K is the higher then I (d) J is somewhere between G and I
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38. If J is second note, then G and I could be which of the following respectively ?
I. 4 and 3 II. 5and 3 III. 5 and 4
(a) I only (b) III only (c) I and II only (d)I II and III only

39. If F and I are separated by exactly one note, which of the following must be true?
(a) G is note 4 (b) K is note 5 (c) J is lower than I (d) I is lower than K

Question to 40 to 44
There are six members in a club :A,B,C,D,E, and F.
 A is not the heaviest while E is not the most intelligent.
 The lightest of the group is the most intelligent of the group.
 B is more intelligent then D, who is more intelligent than F.
 A is less intelligent than D but is heavier than D
 B is heavier than C but lighter than F.
 F is more intelligent than A, while D is heavier than F.

40. Who is heaviest of the group?

(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) Cannot be determined

41. What is the rank of B in the descending order of weight?

(a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Cannot say

42. Who is most intelligent?

(a) B (b) E (c) C (d0 D

43. What is the rank of E in descending order of intelligent?

(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) cannot say

44. What is the rank of D in descending order of intelligence?

(a) Fourth (b) Fifth (c) Cannot say (d) Sixth

Question 45to50
A blacksmith has five iron articles A,B,C,D and E, each having a different weight?
 A weighs twice as much as B.
 B weighs four-and-a-half times as much as C.
 C weighs half as much as D.
 D weighs half as much as E.
 E weighs less than A but more than C.

45. Which of the following is the lightest in weight?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

46. E is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles:

(a) A,B (b) D,C (c) A,C (d) D,B

47. Which of the above given statement is not necessary to determine the correct order of articles according to their weights?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these

48. E is heavier than which of the following two articles?

(a) D,B (b) D,C (c) A,C (d) A,B

49. Which of the following articles is the heaviest in the weight.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d)D

50. Which of the follwing represents the descending order of weights of articles?
(a) A,B,E,D,C (b) B,A,D,B,E (c) E,C,D,A,B (d) C,A,D,B,E,

Question 51to54
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Among A, B, C, D and E, E is taller than D, but not as fat as D.C is taller than A but shorter than B. A is fatter than D but not as
fat as B. E is thinner than C who is thinner than D. E is shorter than A.

51. Who is the most thin person?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E

52. Who is the big giant among the lot?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

53. If all the persons stood in a line according to their height, who would be in the middle?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

54. Which person is taller than two but thinner than the remaining two ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Question 55to56
Ellee is three times older than Yogesh. Zaheer is half the age of Wahida. Yogesh is older than Zaheer.

55. Which of the following can be inferred?

(a) Yogesh is older than Wahida (b) Elle is older than Wahida
(c) Elle may be younger than Wahida (d) None of these

56. Which of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Ellee’s age?
(a) Zaheer is 10 years old
(b) Both Yogesh and Wahida are older than Zaheer by the same number of years.
(c) Both 1 and 2 above
(d) Non of the above

Question 57 to 61
The age and height of six children in a class are as follows:
 Amit is taller and older than Tanu but shorter and younger than Shruti.
 Bharat is taller than Chandar who is not as tall as Tanu.
 The oldest is the shortest.
 The youngest would be fourth if the children stood in a line according to their height and one started counting from the
tallest.
 Bharat is younger than Ritu but older than Chander who is older than Shruti.

57. Who among them is the tallest?

(a) Tanu (b) Chandar (c) Shruti (d) Data inadequate

58. Who is older than Tanu but younger than Shruti ?

(a) Ritu (b) Bharat (c) Amit (d) Data inadequate

59. Which is the following statement is definitely true?

(a) Bharat is the most old person (b) Tanu has the max. height
(c) Amit is older than Bharat (d) Ritu is the shortest

60. Which of the following is the correct order of height in descending order?
(a) Amit, Shruti, Bharat, Tanu, Chandar, and ritu
(b) Ritu, Bharat ,Chandar ,Shruti , Amit, and Tanu
(c) Bharat, Shruti, Amit, Tanu, Chander, and Ritu
(d) Data inadequate

61. Whose rank in height cannot be positioned definitely?

(a) Tanu (b) Bharat (c) Shruti (d) Chander

Question 62to65
Sunita is taller than Seema and Renu. Renu is shorter than Radha and Gauri. Bina is taller than Radha and Shorter than Sunita.
Sunita is not the tallest and Renu is not the Shortest.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
62. Who is the tallest?
(a) Sunita (b) Bina (c) Gauri (d) Data inadequate

63. Who is the shortest?

(a) Radha (b) Renu (c) Bina (d) None of them

64.What is the position of Radha from the shorter end?

(a) Fourth (b) Second (c) Third (d) Data inadequate

65. Which of the statements is definitely correct

(a) Bina occupies the third position from the top? (b) Seema is taller than Radha
(c) Gouri is shorter than Radha (d) Seema is the tallest

Question 66to71
Six compounds are being tested for possible use in a new anti-poison, “Sweet ‘N’ Deadly”.
 U is sweeter than V and more deadly than Z
 V is sweeter than Y and less deadly than Z
 W is less Sweet than X and less deadly than U
 X is less Sweet and more deadly than Y
 Y is less sweet and more deadly than U
 Z is sweeter then U and less deadly than W

66. Which is the sweetest ?

(a) U (b) W (c) X (d) Z

67. Which of the following is/are both sweeter and more deadly than V?
(a) U only (b) W only (c) Z only (d) U and Z only

68. Which of the following adds no new information about sweetness to the statements that precede it?
(a) I (b) III (c) IV (d) V only

69. Which of the following is/are sweeter than Y and more deadly than W?
(a) U only (b) V only (c) Z only (d) U and V only

70.Which is the least deadly?

(a) U (b) V (c) W (d) Y

71. Which is the most deadly?

(a) Z (b) W (c) U (d) X

Question 72 to77
 Seven student P,Q,R,S,T,U and V, take a series of tests.
 No two student get similar marks.
 V always scores more than P.
 P always scores more than Q.
 Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the least, or alternatively S scores the highest and Uor Q scores the
least.

72. If V is ranked fifth, Which of these must be true?

(a) S scores the highest (b) R is ranked second (c) T is ranked third (d) Q is rank fourth

73. if R gets the most, V should be ranked not lower than :

(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth

74. If S is ranked second, Which of the following can be true?

(a) P gets more than R (b) V gets more than Q (c) P gets more than S (d) U gets more than V

75. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, Which of the following can be true?
(a) V is ranked fifth or fourth (b) R is ranked second or third

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(c) P is ranked second or fifth (d) U is ranked third or fourth

76. If R is ranked second and Q is ranked fifth, Which of these must be true?
(a) S is ranked third (b) P is ranked third (c) V is ranked fourth (d) T is ranked sixth

77. Information given in which of the statement is superfluous?

(a) (II) (b) (I) (c) (IV) (d) None is superfluous

Question 78 to 82
In a study of five brands of pain relieving tablets, P,Q,R,S and T, the brand were tested and ranked against each other as more or
less effective per dose. The following results were obtained.
 P was more effective than Q.
 The effectiveness of R was less than that of S.
 T was the least effective brand tested.
 Q and R were equally effective.
 The effectiveness of S was greater than that of Q.

78. If the above statement are true, which of the following must also be true?
(a) P and S were equally effective (b) P was the most effective
(c) S was the most effective (d) R was less effective than P

79.All the information in the results given above can be derived from which of the following groups of statements?
(a) Statement I,II,III (b) Statement I,III,IV (c) Statement II,III,IV (d) Statement I,II,III,IV

80. If a sixth brand M is tested and found to be more effective than S, then Which of the following must be true if the findings of
the study are correct?
(a) M is most effective of all six brand tested
(b) At least four of the six brands tested are less effective than M
(c) M is more effective than P
(d)M is less effective than P

81. If R is more expensive per dose than P, and T is less expensive per dose than R, which of the following must be true,
according to the study ,for a consumer, who wishes to buy a pain reliever with the greatest effectiveness for the amount spend
per dose?
(a) P should be purchased instead of R (c) P should be purchase instead of T
(c) T should be purchase instead of R (d) Q should be purchase instead of R if Q is of the same
price as S

82. If Q contains the same amount of an ingredient x as S does and more ingredient than T does, which of the following is
consistent with the results of the study?
(a) The relative effectiveness of the 5 brands of pain reliever is due to the amount of X brand contains.
(b) R does not contain X and brand of pain reliever in which X is absent do not have any measurable effectiveness.
(c) The absent of X in R would amount for R’s being more effective than T,Q and S
(d) The presence of X contributes to the effectiveness of T, Q and S in relieving pain.

Answers

1 C 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 C 51 D 61 B 71 D 81 A
2 A 12 B 22 C 32 D 42 C 52 B 62 C 72 A 82 D
3 A 13 C 23 C 33 B 43 D 53 A 63 D 73 C
4 C 14 A 24 D 34 D 44 C 54 C 64 C 74 D
5 C 15 D 25 C 35 A 45 C 55 B 65 A 75 D
6 D 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 A 56 C 66 D 76 D
7 C 17 B 27 A 37 A 47 D 57 D 67 D 77 D
8 D 18 B 28 D 38 D 48 B 58 C 68 D 78 D
9 A 19 C 29 B 39 C 49 A 59 D 69 A 79 D
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 B 50 A 60 D 70 B 80 B

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Sitting Arrangement
Circular Arrangement
Direction for Q.1 to Q.3
Six Girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is sitting right of Radhika but left of Deepti. Monika
is sitting left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting right of Sonia and left of Monika. Now Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika
mutually exchange their places.
Q.1 Who will be sitting opposite to Sonia ?
Q.2 Who will be sitting left to Kamini?
Q.3 Who will be sitting left of Deepti?

Linear Arrangement

Direction for Q.4 to Q.6

Six girls A,B,C,D,E and F are standing in a row. B is between D and F. A does not stand next to either F or D. C does not stand
next to D. E stands between A and C
Q.4 F stands between
Q.5 Who occupy the extreme ends of the row
Q.6 C stands between

Direction for 7-9

Five persons are standing in a queue One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is a businessman. An
advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The student is between the professor
and the advocate

Q.7 Counting from the left the author is at which place

Q.8 Who is in the middle of the queue
Q.9 If advocate and businessman exchange their positions also the author and the student, then who will be standing to the left of
the student

Direction for 10 – 12
 A to H are standing in a row facing North
 B is not neighbour of G
 F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E
 G is not at the extreme end
 A is sixth to the left of E
 H is sixth to right of C

Q.10 Who among the following are neighbour

(a) AB (b)CG (c) FH (d)CA

Q.11 Which one of the following defines the position of D

(a) Fourth to the right of H (b) Third to the right of A (c) Neighbor of B and F (d) To the immediate left of B

Q.12 Which of the following is true?

(a) C is to the immediate left of A (b) D is neighbor of B and F
(c) G is to the immediate right of D (d) A and E are at the extreme ends

Direction for 13-17

Six friends are sitting around a circular table at equal distance from each other. Sita is sitting two places right of Gita who is
exactly opposite to Nita. Nita is on immediate left of Lata, who is exactly opposite to Rita. Mita is also sitting at the table

Q.13 Who is the only person sitting between Gita and Sita ?
(a) Rita (b)Mita (c) Lata (d)Nita

Q.14 Sita is not sitting at equal distance from

(a) Rita and Nita (b) Lata and Gita (c) Mita and Lata (d)All of these

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Q.15 Gita is sitting to the
(a) left of Mita (b)right of Rita (c) left of Rita (d) right of Nita

Q.16 The angle subtended by Mita and Nita at the end of the table is
(a) 60 0 (b)120 0 (c) 90 0 (d)180 0

Q.17 Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(a) Mita and Sita are exactly opposite to each other
(b) Rita and Mita are at equal distance from Gita
(c) Angle Subtended by Rita and Mita is same as the angle subtended by Sita and Lata at the center of the Table
(d) Mita is on the immediate left of Lata.

Direction 18-19
Six children B D C M J and K are split in two groups of three each and are made to stand in two rows in such a way that a child
in one row is exact facing a child in the other row
M is not at the end of any row and is to the right of J, who is facing C. K is to the left of D, who is facing M

Q.18 Which of the following group of children is in the same row ?

(a) BMD (b)MJK (c) BDC (d)None of these

Q.19 Who is to the immediate left of B ?

(a) M (b)D (c) J (d)Data Inadequate

Direction 20-22 :
1. There are five friends.
2. They are standing in a row facing south.
3. Jayesh is to the immediate right of Alok.
4. Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh.
5. Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.

Q.20 Who is at the exetreme left end?

(a) Alok (b)Bhagat (c) Subodh (d)Data Inadequate

Q.21 Who is in the middle ?

(a) Bhagat (b)Jayesh (c) Pramod (d)Subodh

Q.22 To find answers of the above two questions, which of the following given statement can be dispensed with ?
(a) None (b)(v) only (c) (iii) only (d)(ii) only

Direction 23-27
 A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east
 C is on the immediate right of D
 B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour
 G is between E and F
 D is sitting third from the south end

Q.23 Who is sitting to the right of E ?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) None of these

Q.24 Which of the following pairs of people is sitting at the extreme ends?
(a) AB (b) AE (c) CB (d) FB

Q.25 Name the person who should change places with C so that he gets the third place from the north end
(a) E (b)F (c) G (d) D

Q.26 Immediately between which of the following pairs of people is D sitting?

(a) AC (b)AF (c) CE (d) CF

Q.27 Which of the conditions (i) to (v) given above is not required to find out the place in which A is sitting?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) All are required

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Q.28 Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju is to the right of Reena. Rita is
between Reena and Manju. Who would be the second from the left in the photograph?
(a) Reena (b) Shikha (c) Maju (d) Rita

Q.29 There are five different houses A to E in a row A is to the right of B E is to the left of C and right of A; B is to the right of
D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E

Q.30 In a March past, Seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing to the left of R and to the right of P. O is standing to the
right of N and to the left of P. Similarly, S is standing to the right of R and to the left of T. Who is standing in the middle?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) O

Q.31 Five Children are sitting in a row S is sitting next to P but not next to T. K is sitting next to R who is sitting to the extreme
left, and T is not sitting next to K who is/are sitting adjacent to S?
(a) K and P (b) R and P (c) only P (d) P and T

Q.32 Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is
adjacent to Monika. Monika is seated in the middle of the row. Then to whom is Anuradha adjacent in the following choices?
(a) Rashi (b) Sulekha (c) Abha (d) Monika

Q.33 On a seven members panel sitting in a row, A is in between D and F, C is in between F and G. G is between C and E, and D
is in between B and A. Find the person sitting right in the middle
(a) D (b) C (c) A (d) F

Q.34 Six persons are sitting around a circular table. Ajay is facing Hemant who is sitting to the left of Arvind and right of
Sanjay. Suman is to the right of Arvind. If Hemant and Manoj, Arvind and Sanjay mutually exchange their positions, who is now
sitting to the right of Manoj?
(a) Arvind (b) Ajay (c) Suman (d) None of these

Q.35 Five persons are sitting facing center of a circle. Pramod is sitting to the right of Rajan. Raju is sitting between Brijesh and
Naveen. Raju is to the left of Brijesh. Who is sitting to the left of Naveen?
(a) Pramod (b) Raju (c) Brijesh (d) Rajan

Q.36 Five boys are standing in a row facing west. Mohan is standing between Umesh and Suresh. Prakash is standing to the
immediate right of Umesh. Anand is standing at one of the ends of the row. Who is standing at the other end of the row
(a) Prakash (b) Suresh (c) Mohan (d) Suresh or Prakash

Direction 37-39
 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting in a circle
 F is 2nd to the right of G
 B is neighbour of F but not of E
 E is neighbour of C, is 4th to the right of G
 D is between E and A

Q.37 Who is fourth to the left of G?

(a) D (b) E (c) C (d) Can’t be Determined

Q.38 Who is to the left of G?

(a) A (b) C (c) B (d) Can’t be Determined

Q.39 Who are neighbours of F?

(a) E and C (b) F and B (c) A and B (d) C and B

Direction for 40-41

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the center. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left
of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A and G and B and E are not sitting opposite to each other.

Q.40 Who is third to the left of D?

(a) F (b) E (c) A (d) Can’t be Determined

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Q.41 Which of the following statements is not correct

(a) D and A are sitting opposite to each other
(b) C is third to the right of D
(c) E is sitting between F and D
(d) A is sitting between C and F

Directions For 42-44

 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a circle facing the center
 D is between B and G and F is between A and H
 E is second to the right of A

Q.42 Which of the following is A’s position?

(a) Left of F (b) Right of F (c) Between E and F (d) Can’t be Determined

Q.43 Which of the information/statement are not required to ascertain the position of C?
(a) (i) above (b) Either (ii) or (iii) (c) (iii) above (d) All are required

Q.44 Which of the following is C’s position?

(a) Between E and F (b) Between G and E
(c) Second to the left of B (d) None of these

Direction for 45-46

Eight friends P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are sitting around a circular table facing center. Q is sitting between V and S. W is third to
the left of Q and second to the right of P. R is sitting between P and V. Q and T are not sitting opposite to each other.

Q.45 Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) S and P are sitting opposite to each other
(b) V and Q are not sitting opposite to each other
(c) R and T are sitting opposite to each other
(d) None of these

Q.46 Who is the third to the left of S?

(a) U (b) P (c) T (d) S

Direction (47-50)
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench.
 A is sitting next to B
 C is sitting next to D
 E is on the left end of the bench.
 C is on second position from right.
 A is on the right side of B and to the right side of E
 A and C are sitting together
D is sitting together
Q. 47. At what position is A sitting?
(a) Between B and C (b) Between D and C (c) Between E and D (d) Between C and E

Q. 48. Who is sitting at the centre?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Q. 49. what is the position of B?

(a) Second from right (b) Centre (c) Extreme left (d) Second from left

Q. 50. What is the position of D?

(a) Extreme left (b) Extreme right (c) Third from left (d) Second from left

Direction (51-53)
Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows
 E and F have one letter between them.
 G is to the right of A

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

 B is to the immediate left of f

 There is one letter between D and A
 D is not G’s neighbour.
 G and F have two letters between them.

Q. 51. Which letter is second to the left of letter A?

(a) C (b) B (c) D (d) E

Q. 52. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series so obtained?
(a) D (b) A (c) E (d) None of these

Q. 53. Which pair of letters is adjacent to the letter B?

(a) AC (b) GE (c) EF (d)CA

Directions (54-55)
Seven boys A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a line
 G is between A and E
 F and A have one boy between them.
 E and C have two boys between them.
 D is to the right of B
 C and B have three boys between them.

Q. 54. Who is second from left?

(a) C (b) G (c) E (d) A

Q. 55. C is standing between:

(a) A and F (b) D and G (c) A and D (d) F and G

Direction (56-59)
 Six flats on a floor in two rows-three on each row. Facing north and south are allotted to P,Q,R,S,T and U
 Q gets a north facing flat and is not next to s
 S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
 R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a north facing flat.

56. Whose flats is between Q and S?

(a) T (b) U (c) R (d) P

57. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) PT (b) QP (c) QR (d) TS

58. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U?
(a) Q (b) T (c) P (d) R

59. Which of the combinations get south facing flats?

(a) URP (b) UPT (c) QTS (d) Data inadequate

Direction (60-64)
 Eight persons E,F,G,H,I ,J,K and L are seated around a square table-two on each side.
 There are three lady members and they are not seated next to each other.
 J is between L and F
 G is between I and F
 H, a lady member, is second to the left of J
 F, a male member, is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
 There is a lady member between F and I

60. Who among the following are the three lady members?
(a) E,H and J (b) E, G and J (c) G,H and J (d) None of these

61. Which of the following is true about J?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) J is a male member. (b) J is a female member.
(c) Sex of J cannot be determined. (d) Position of J cannot be determined.

62. Who among the following is seated between E and H?

(a) I (b) J (c) F (d) None of these

63. Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?

(a) G (b) J (c) I (d) Cannot be determined

64. How many persons are seated between K and F?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Cannot be determined

65. There are six houses in a row. Mr. Lal has Mr. Bhasin and Mr. Sachdeva as neighbours. Mr. Bhatia has Mr. Gupta and Mr.
Sharma as neighbours. Mr. Gupta’s house is not next to Mr. Bhasin or Mr. Sachdeva and Mr. Sharma do not live next to Mr.
Sachdeva. Who are Mr. Bhasin’s next door neighbours?
(a) Mr. Lal and Mr. Bhasin (b) Mr. Lal and Mr. Sachdeva
(c) Mr. Sharma and Mr. Lal (d) Only Mr. Lal

Direction (66-69)
Six person are sitting in two rows in such a way that three persons sitting in each row is facing the persons of the other row,
 Manindra is not sitting in the beginning of any row.
 Jeevan is second to the left of Anoop.
 Mukul, who is neighbour of Manindra, is sitting diagonally opposite to Anoop.
 Abhishek is neighbour of Jeevan.
 Varun is sitting to the immediate left of Manindra.

66. Who is sitting in front of Abhishek?

(a) Varun (b) Mukul (c) Manindra (d) Varun or Mukul

67. Who among the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) Anoop, Varun (b) Anoop, Manindra (c) Mukul, Abhishek (d) Jeevan, Varun

68. If Varun and Jeevan exchange their positions mutually then who will become the new neighbours of Jeevan?
(a) Anoop and Abhishek (b) Only Abhishek (c) Only Manindra (d) Manindra and Mukul

69. Who among the following are in the same row?

(a) Mukul, Abhishek (b) Varun, Manindra (c) Manindra, Abhishek (d) Anoop, Varun

70. Five girls are sitting in a row. Kalpita is to the left of Mradula. Megha is to the right of Arpana Sangeeta is in the middle of
Megha and kalpita. Who among the following is to the extreme right of the row?
(a) Mradula (b) Arpana (c) Kalpita (d) Cannot be determined

Direction 71 – 72
 Seven books are placed one above the other in a particular way.
 The history book is placed directly above the civics books.
 The geography books is fourth from the bottom and the English book is fifth from the top.
 There are two books in between the civics and economics books.

71. To find the number of books between the Civics and the science books, which other extra piece of information is required
from the following?
(a) There are two books between the geography and the science books
(b) There are to books between the mathematics and the geography books
(c) There is one book between the English and the science books
(d) The civics books is placed before two books above the economics book

72. To know which three books are kept above the English book, which of the following information, if any, is required?
(a) The economics book is between the English and the science books
(b) there are two books between the English and the history books
(c) The geography book is above the English book.
(d) No other information is required

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Corridor

The plan above shows on office block of six officers A, B, C, D, E, and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the
corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite
sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner
office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s but on the same side.

73. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

74. Whose office faces A’s office?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E

75. Who is/are F’s neighbour(s)?

(a) A Only (b) A and D (c) C Only (d) B and C

76. D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To whose room was he trying to
direct that person?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F

Seven variety basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are to be hounoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated
on the dias in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extream right. B will receive the most
valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate persentation. C and D are bitter rivals and, therefore, must be
seated as far apart as possible.

77. Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?

(a) C (b) D (c) F (d) G

78. Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?

(a) B and D (b) C and F (c) D and G (d) E and A

79. Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?
(a) F and d (b) D and E (c) E and G (d) C and F

Directions (80-83)
A to D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together, also B cannot be at the third Place

80. Which of the following must be false?

(a) A is at the first place (b) A is at the second place
(c) A is at the third place (d) A is at the fourth place

81. If A is not at the third place, then C has which of the following options?
(a) The first place only (b) The third place only
(c) The first and third place only (d) Any of the places

82. If A and B are together, then which of the following must be necessarily true?
(a) C is not at the first place (b) A is at the third place
(c) D is at the first place (d) C is at first place

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83. Six persons are playing a card game. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is to the left of Ajay and to the right of pramod. Ajay is
to the left of Dhiraj. yogendra is to the left of pramod. If Dhiraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and pramod exchanges with
Raghubir, who will be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?
(a) Yogendra (b) Raghubir (c) Suresh (d) Ajay

Directions (84-88)
 Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in a row of the class facing the teacher.
 D, who is to the immediate left of F, is second to the right of C.
 A is second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.
 J is the immediate neighbour of A and B and third to the left of G.
 H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I

84. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

(a) C (b) I (c) B (d) G

85. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting to the right of G?

(a) IBJA (b) ICHDF (c) CHDF (d) CHDE

86. In the above sitting arrangements, which of the following statements is superfluous?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) None of superfluous

87. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements ?
(a) There are three students sitting between D and G
(b) G and C are neighbours sitting immediate right of H
(c) B is sitting between J and I
(d) K is sitting between A and J
88. If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following pairs of students is sitting at
the end?
(a) D and E (b) E and F (c) D and K (d) K and F

Directions (89-93)
Ten students A to J are sitting in a row facing west
 B and F are not sitting on either of the edges.
 G is sitting to the left of the D and H is sitting to the right of J
 There are four persons between E and A
 I is to the north of B and F is to the south of D
 J is in between A and D and G is in between E and F
There are two person between H and C.
89. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from left?
(a) H (b) C (c) J (d) Either H or C

90. Who among the following is deternitely sitting at one of the ends?
(a) C (b) H (c) E (d) Cannot be determined

91. Who are immediate neighbours of I?

(a) BC (b) BH (c) AH (d) Cannot be determined

92. Who is sitting second left of D?

(a) G (b) F (c) E (d) J

93. If G and A interchange their positions, then who become the immediate neighbours of E?
(a) G and F (b) F only (c) a only (d) J and H

Directions (94-98)
 Eight rooms P,Q,R,S, T, U,V and w are located adjacent to one another in two different rows, four on each row.
 Doors of the rooms of one row open to the doors of the rooms of another row.
 No rooms of consecutive letter is either adjacent or opposite to each other
 P and Q are the rooms located at the end of two different rows
 R is just left of T and is located in the same row in which p is located

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

 U is just left of Q

94. Which room is just opposite to P?

(a) S (b) U (c) W (d) Cannot be determined

95. Which room is diagonally opposite to S?

(a) Q (b) W (c) U (d) None of these

96. Which room is just opposite to R?

(a) U (b) W (c) Q (d) Cannot be determined

97. Which room/(s) is / are adjacent to W?

(a) R (b) U-S (c) Q-U (d) Cannot be determined

98. Which of the following rooms is not located at either ends?

(a) Q (b) V (c) S (d) W

Directions (99-102)
Mr. Bankatlal acted as a judge for a beauty contest. There were four participants, viz.Ms Andhara Pradesh Ms Uttar Pradesh Ms
West Bengal , Ms. Maharastra. Mrs. Bankatlal, who was very anxious about the result asked him about it as soon as he was back
home. Mr. Bankatlal just told that the one who was wearing the yellow saree won the contest. When Mrs. Bankatlal pressed for
further details, he elaborated as follows:
 All of them were sitting in a row
 All of them were sarees of different colours, viz., green, yellow, white and red
 There was only one runner-up and she was sitting beside Ms. Maharashtra.
 The runner-up was wearing the green saree.
 Ms. West Bengal was not sitting at the ends and was not the runner-up.
 The winner and the runner-up were not sitting adjacent to each other.
 Ms. Maharashtra was wearing the White saree
 Ms. Andhra Pradesh was not wearing the green saree
 Participants wearing yellow saree and White saree were at the ends

99. Who wore the red saree?

(a) Ms. Andhra Pradesh (b) Ms. West Bengal (c) Ms. Uttar Pradesh (d) Ms. Maharashtra
100. Ms. West Bengal was sitting adjacent to:
(a) Ms. Andhra Pradesh and Ms. Maharashtra (b) Ms. Uttar Pradesh and Ms. Maharashtra
(c) Ms. Andhra Pradesh and Ms. Uttar Pradesh (d) Ms. Uttar Pradesh only

101. Which saree was Worn by Ms. Andhra Pradesh?

(a) Yellow (b) Red (c) Green (d) White

102. Who was the runner-up?

(a) Ms. Andhra Pradesh (b) Ms. West Bengal (c) Ms. Uttar Pradesh (d) Ms. Maharashtra

Directions (103-106)
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses, each of different colour. Each person has a
different favourite drink. The following additional information is also Known:
 The Englishman lives in the red house
 The Italian drinks tea
 The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left
 In the second house from the right, they drink milk
 The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house
 The Spaniard drinks fruit juice
 Tea is drunk in the blue house
 The white house is to the right of the red house

103. Milk is drunk by:

(a) Norwegian (b) Englishman (c) Italian (d) None of these

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104. The Norwegian’s drinks:

(a ) milk (b) cocoa (c) tea (d) fruit juice

105. The colour of the Norwegian’s house is:

(a) Yellow (b) White (c) Blue (d) Red

106. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Milk is drunk in the red house (b) Italian lives in the blue house
(c) The Spaniard lives in a corner house (d) The Italian lives next to the Spaniard

Directions (107-110)
Each of seven objects – T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z is placed either on the lower, middle, or top shelf of the three shelf book case
that contains no other objects.
 At least two objects are on the top self
 No more than four objects are on any shelf
 T and U are on different shelves
 V is either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on
 W is either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on

107. If V and W are the only objects on one of the shelf and four objects are on the middle shelf, which of the following must be
true?
(a) T is on the middle shelf (b) U is on the bottom shelf
(c) X is on the bottom shelf (d) Z is on the middle shelf

108. If all the objects are on two shelves, which of the following must be true?
(a) At least three objects are on the top shelf
(b) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf
(c) T, V and W are on the top shelf
(d) U is on the top shelf

109 If V and T are the only objects on one of the selves, which of the following must be true?
(a) W is on the top shelf
(b) X is on the bottom self
(c) U is on either the middle or top shelf
(d) If U and Y are on different shelves, Z is on the top self
(e) If Y is on the bottom shelf , Z is on the middle shelf

110. If T, V, Y and Z are on the same shelf, which of the following must be true?
(a) U is not on the middle self (b) W is not on the middle self
(c) X is alone on a self (d) If U is on the top self, W is also on the top self

Direction (111-114)
In a sports meet, six different runners from India A, B, C, D, E and F participated in the race. The following statements are all
true about the result of the race.
 There were no ties
 A did not finish last
 E finished tired
 B finished either immediately before or immediately after D

111. Which of the following is the possible order of the race from first place to last place?
(a) A, E, B, D, F, C (b) B, D, E, F, C, A (c) D, A, E, B, C, F (d) C, A, E, F, D, B

112. All of the following are possible orders of the racers at the finish line, from first place to last place except:
(a) A, B, D, E, C, F (b) C, F, E, A, D, B (c) F, A, E, B, D, C (d) D, B, A, E, F, A, C

113. If E finishes before B, which of the following must be false?

(a) A finishes 1st (b) A finishes 5th (c) F finishes 2nd (d) C finishes 6th

114. If D finishes before A, which of the following must be true?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) A finishes either 4th or 5th (b) C finishes 6th
(c) A finishes 6th (d) F finishes 2nd

Directions (115-118)
 A, B, C, D, E, and F are family members. They are to be seated in a row in 6 chairs for the photograph.
 C sits only after A such that nobody sits between them.
 B is a 2 year old child and should only be seated on someone’s lap.
 D and C always sit next to one another.
 A is the grandfather and will take the seat on extreme end only.
 Nobody sits on the either side of A

115. What are the total possible arrangements as of above?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12

116. If B sits on A’s lap then E may take seat number:

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) either (a) or (b)

117. Which seat cannot be taken by B?

(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) None of these

118. D always takes seat number:

(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) None of these

Directions (119- 122)

A building has six floors, referred to as 1-6 from lowest to highest. Six companies L, M, N O, P and Q occupy the six floors, not
necessarily in that order, with one company on one floor.
(i) N is the same number of floors from M as M is from L
(ii) P and Q are not on adjacent floors
(iii) Q is on higher floor than O
(iv) L is on floor 5

119. Which of the following is (are) true?

1. M must be either floor 3 or floor 4.
2. O must be either floor 1 or floor 2.
3. Q must be on either floor 4 or floor 5.
(a) 1 only (b) 2only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

120. Which of the following must be true if N is on floor 1?

(a) L and P are on adjacent floors (b) M and P are on adjacent floors
(c) O is on floor higher than floor 2 (d) Q is on a floor higher than floor3

121. If O and Q are not on adjacent floors, which of the following is true?
(a) M must be on floor 3 (b) N must be on floor 3
(c) O must be on floor 2 (d) None of the above

122. Which of the following must be true if N is on floor 3?

(a) M must be two floors lower than L (b) N must be on a floor between L and M
(c) O must be one floor lower than Q (d) None of the above

Directions (123-125)
Five of India’s leading models are posing for a photograph promoting ‘Y’ know, world peace and understanding. But then
Rakesh shreshta, the photographer, is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to
stand next to Sushmita for Sushmita has said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand
together because they are ‘such good friends, Y ‘know’. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because
there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet . Anu believes her friendly astrologer,
who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a
beautiful picture of five girls smiling in a straight line promoting world peace.

123. If Aishwarya is standing to the extreme left, who is standing in the middle?
(a) Manpreet (b) Sushmita (c) Rachel (d) Cannot say

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124. If Aishwarya stands to the extreme left, who stands second from left?
(a) Cannot say (b) Sushmita (c) Rachel (d) Manpreet

125. If Anu’s astrologer tells her to stand second from left and Aishwarya decides to stand second from right, then who is
standing on the extreme right?
(a) Rachel (b) Sushmita (c) Cannot say (d) Manpreet

Directions (126-129)
A leading socialite decides to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the
opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre. requisite for the seating arrangement was that
each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite of Shobha. who is
not the hostess. Ratan has woman on his right and is sitting opposite of a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess’s right, next to
Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai
and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.

126. The eighth person present, Jackie must be:

I. The host II. Seated to Shobha’s right III. Seated opposite of Urmila
(a) I only (b) III only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only

127. Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of the same sex?
(a) Maqbool (b) Madhuri (c) Jakie (d) Shobha

128. If Ratan would have exchanged seats with a person four places to his left, which of the following would have been true after
the exchange?
I. No one was seated between two persons of the opposite sex (e.g., no man was seated between two women.)
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of same sex.
III. Either the host or the hostess changed their seats.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only

129. If each person is placed directly opposite of her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married?
(a) Ratan and Monisha (b) Madhuri and Dhirubhai
(c) Urmila and Jackie (d) Ratan and Madhuri

Directions (130-134)
Seven dignitaries- F, G, H, I, N, O and P are to be seated together at a diplomatic ceremony. They will be seated in a row of
seven chairs, numbered from 1 to 7, from front to back. Any seating is acceptable as long as all seven dignitaries are seated, one
in each chair, and the sitting arrangement conforms to the following rules:
(i) F must sit in the chair immediately behind O’s chair.
(ii) G cannot sit in the chair immediately in front and immediately behind N’s chair.
(iii) There must be exactly two chairs of H and P.
(iv) There must be at least one chair between the chairs of I and P.
(v) N must sit in chair 3.

130. Which of the following seating arrangements, from chair 1 through chair 7, conforms to the rules?
(a) F, I, N, P, G, O, H (b) G, P, N, I, H, O, F
(c) I, G, N, P, O, F, H (d) I, H, N, P, O, F, G

131. If F sits in chair 6 and H sits in chair 7, which of the following dignitaries must sit in chair 2?
(a) G (b) I (c) N (d) O

132. If the seating arrrangment, from chair 1 through chair 7, is G, I, N, H, O, F, P, which of the following pairs of dignitaries
can exchange seats without violating the rules?
(a) F and G (b) G and H (c) G and I (d) H and P
133. If O sits in chair 1 and H sits in chair 7, then the number of chairs between F’s chair and I’s chair must be:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

134. If H sits in chair 4 and F sits in chair 6, then the dignitaries in chairs 1 and 7, respectively, must be:
(a) G and O (b) G and P (c) I and P (d) O and I

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Answers
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 C 51 C 61 A
2 A 12 C 22 A 32 A 42 B 52 D 62 D
3 A 13 A 23 D 33 D 43 D 53 C 63 B
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 D 44 D 54 A 64 C
5 B 15 C 25 C 35 A 45 D 55 A 65 C
6 C 16 B 26 D 36 D 46 A 56 A 66 C
7 D 17 D 27 D 37 C 47 A 57 B 67 D
8 B 18 D 28 A 38 A 48 A 58 D 68 C
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 D 49 D 59 A 69 B
10 D 20 A 30 B 40 A 50 B 60 D 70 A

71 C 81 C 91 D 101 A 111 D 121 D 131 B

72 D 82 B 92 A 102 C 112 A 122 D 132 D
73 C 83 C 93 C 103 B 113 B 123 B 133 D
74 D 84 B 94 A 104 B 114 A 124 D 134 B
75 A 85 C 95 D 105 A 115 C 125 D
76 B 86 D 96 A 106 D 116 D 126 C
77 C 87 C 97 B 107 D 117 A 127 D
78 D 88 C 98 D 108 A 118 D 128 A
79 C 89 D 99 B 109 B 119 A 129 A
80 A 90 C 100 C 110 D 120 D 130 B

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Complex Arrangement
Question 1 to10
Six scientists A, B, C, D, E and F have to demonstrate their subjects namely Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Physics, Geology and
Maths. One scientist will demonstrate only one day. Demonstration will start from Monday and will end on Sunday. There will
be a day of rest.
(l) Chemistry will immediately follow geology.
(ll) A, who is a mathematician, will demonstrate either on second or last day.
(lll) C will demonstrate on third day. Physics will be on the fifth day.
(lV) E, who is zoologist, demonstrates on second day.
(V) B has demonstrated on Monday and the rest day will be immediately after F’s demonstration day.

Q.1 On which of the following days no demonstration will take place?

(a) Friday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) None of these
Q.2 On which day Botany will be demonstrated?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) none of these
Q. 3. Chemistry is immediately preceded by which of the following subject?
(a) Zoology (b) Maths (c) Botany (d) none of these
Q. 4. Who demonstrates physics?
(a) B (b) cannot be determined (c) D (d) F
Q. 5. Who among following demonstrates just after B and just before C?
(a) E (b) A (c) D (d)can’t be determined

Questions (6-10)
The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th of a month.19th being a Wednesday. During that period six
games-Cricket (C). Badminton (B). Table Tennis (T). Kho-Kho (K). Hockey (H) and Football (F) were played, one game on
each day. Further information is:
 Hockey was not played on the closing day i.e., on 26th
 Table-Tennis was played on the previous day of cricket
 Football was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday
 No game was played on Thursday and Sunday
 Kho-Kho was played on Monday
 There was a gap of two days between cricket and football

Q.6. The sports week started with which game?

(a) Table-tennis (b) Cricket (c) Kho-kho (d) Hockey
Q. 7. How many days gap is there between hockey and football?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Two
Q. 8. Which pair of games was played on Wednesday?
(a) Hockey and Badminton (b) Hockey and Cricket (c) Cricket and Tennis (d) Cannot be Det.
Q. 9. Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho ?
(a) Hockey (b) Football (c) Cricket (d) None of these
Q. 10. Table-Tennis follows which game?
(a) Hockey (b) Cricket (c) Tennis (d) None of these

Questions(11-15)
A training college has to conduct a refresher course for teachers of seven different subjects-
Mechanics,Psychology,Philosophy,Sociology,Economics,Science and Engineering from 22nd july to 29th july.
 Course should start with psychology
 23rd july, being Sunday should be a holiday
 Science subject should be on the previous day of Engg. Subject.
 Course should end with Mechanics subject
 Philosophy should be immediately after holiday.
 There should be a gap of one day between Economics and Engg.
 There should be a gap of two days between Sociology and Economics

Q. 11.the refresher course will start with which one of the following subjects?
(a) Psychology (b) Mechanics (c) Philosophy (d) Economics
Q. 12. Which subject will be on Tuesday?

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(a) Mechanics (b) Engineering (c) Economics (d) None of these
Q.13. which subject is followed by science?
(a) Psychology (b) Philosophy (c) Economics (d) Engineering
Q. 14. Which subject precedes mechanics?
(a) Economics (b) Engineering (c) Philosophy (d) None of these
Q. 15. How many days gap is there between science and philosophy?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) No gap

Questions(16-18) Out of four persons Arun, Bharat, Chandu and Dharma, two are interested in hockey, two in cricket, two are
painters, one is a singer and one is dancer. Each young man has one outdoor Interest and one hobby concerned with fine arts.
 Arun is not a painter nor does he play hockey
 Bharat does not dance
 The dancer plays hockey
 Bharat and Dharma do not play cricket

Q. 16. Who among the following plays cricket and is interested in painting?
(a) Arun (b) Bharat (c) Chandu (d) Arun and Chandu
Q. 17. Who among the following is a singer?
(a) Dharma (b) Arun (c) Chandu (d) None of these
18. Which pair shows the correct relationship of the game and hobby of dharma?
(a) Cricket, Singing (b) Cricket, Painting (c) Cricket, Dancing (d) Hockey, Dancing

Questions (19-23) Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be staged. One on each day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule of
the plays is to be in accordance with the following informations.
 A must be staged a day before E
 C must not be staged on Tuesday
 B must be staged on the day following the day on which F is staged
 D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B
 E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.

Q. 19. Which of the following plays is staged immediately after E?

(a) B (b) D (c) E (d) F
Q. 20. Which of the following plays is played on Monday?
(a) E (b) F (c) C (d) B
Q. 21. Play D is between which of the following pair of plays?
(a) B and E (b) E and F (c) A and E (d) C and E
Q. 22. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday?
(a)E,A,B,F,D,C (b)A,F,B,E,D,C (c)A,F,B,C,D,E (d) none of these
Q. 23. Play C cannot be definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Friday (d) Thursday

Question 24 to 27
Four young men Anil, Mukesh, Piyush and Yogesh are lovingly called Munna, Babboo, Prince and pappoo by everyone. They
are married to Madhu, Sunanda, Jyoti and Arti.
 Arti and Madhu are not married to Piyush or Anil nor is their husband called Babboo.
 Babboo is not married to Sunanda and his name is not piyush.
 Sunanda is not married to Munna.
 Mukesh is neither Munna nor Prince nor is married to Madhu.

Q. 24. Which of the following pair of husband-wife is not correct?

(a) Munna, Madhu (b) Babboo, Jyoti (c) Pappoo, Jyoti (d) None of these
Q. 25. What is the nickname of Mukesh?
(a) Babboo (b) Pappoo (c) Munna (d) Prince
Q. 26. Who is the husband of Sunanda?
(a) Anil (b) Mukesh (c) Piyush (d) Prince
Q. 27. Yogesh is married to whom?
(a) Sunanda (b) Arti (c) Madhu (d) Jyoti

Question 28 to 31

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 P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of family, each of family, each of them engaged in a different profession – Doctor,
Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse and Manager.
 Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday to Saturday.
 The Lawyer in the family remains at home on Thursday.
 R remains at home on Tuesday.
 P, a Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday.
 S is neither the Doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday.
 Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

Q. 28. Which of following combinations is not correct?

(a) R- Teacher (b) Q- Engineer (c) T- Manager (d)All correct.
Q. 29.Which of the following Combination is correct?
(a) Lawyer- Tuesday (b) Teacher- Wednesday (c) Manager- Friday (d) Nurse- Friday
Q. 30. Who is the Nurse?
(a) S (b) R (c) U (d) Data inadequate
Q. 31.who among them remains at home on the following days on which R stays at home?
(a) Q (b) Q or T (c) S (d) Can not be Det.

Question 32 to 36
The members of a Bank are Mr. A, Mr. B, Mrs. C, Miss D, Mr. E, and Miss F. The positions they occupy are Manager, Asstt.
Manager, Cashier, Steno, Teller and a clerk though not necessarily in order. The Asstt. Manager is Manager’s grandson, Cashier
is Stenographer’s son-in-law. Mr. A is bachelor. Miss D is teller’s step-sister and Mr. E is managers neighbor Mr. B cannot have
a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 20 year old.

Q. 32. Who is the manager?

(a) Mr. A (b) Mrs. C (c) Mr. E (d) None
Q. 33. Who is Asstt. Manager ?
(a) Mr.A (b) Miss F (c) Mrs. C (d) Mr. B
Q. 34. Who is Teller?
(a) Miss F (b) Mrs. C (c) Mr. A (d) Miss D
Q. 35. Who is clerk?
(a) Mr. B (b) Miss D (c) miss F (d) None
36. Who is the Cashier?
(a) Either Mr.A or Mr.B (b) Miss F (c) Mr.A (d) None.

Question 37 to 40
A, B, C, D and E are five cities of which three are industrial cities. Two are port cities, one hill station and three cities, one
hill station and three cities have universities.
 Hill city has universities but not port.
 The industrial cities with universities do not have port.
 Two industrial cities have universities and C and D are not industrial cities.
 D is not a port city. No port city has university and B is port city.
 None of the industrial cities has hill station. D is a hill station and E has university.

Q. 37. Which city has industry as well as port but does not have university?
(a) A and D (b) D and B (c) B (d) C
Q. 38. Which two cities have ports?
(a) B and D (b) D and C (c) D and E (d) None of these
Q. 39. Which industrial city does not have University?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
40. Which city neither has industry nor university nor is a hill city?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Question 41to 45
Five women Madhu, Kanchan, Chandni, Sheela and Rekha are married to Doctor, Naval officer, Lawyer, Sales Manager and
Engineer. The ladies are Account, Teacher, and Doctor by profession, while two are housewives.
 One husband and wife have the same profession.
 Madhu and Kanchan are not housewives nor they are married to Doctor or Lawyer.
 Sheela and Rekha not Teacher or Accountant and their husbands are not Engineer or in Navy.

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 The Sales manager is not Madhu’s or Chandni’s husband. His wife is an Accountant.
 Rekha is not a Doctor.
 Chandni is not a teacher and the Teacher’s husband is naval officer.

Q. 41. Who among following is engaged in Doctor’s profession with her husband?
(a) Sheela (b) Rekha (c) Madhu (d) Chandni
Q. 42. Which of the following pair is the correct match of husband – wife?
(a) Naval Officer, Kanchan (b) Sales Manager, Madhu
(c) Lawyer, Sheela (d) Engineer, Chandni
Q. 43. Who among the followings are house wives?
(a) Chandni, Rekha (b Sheela, Chandni
(c) Madhu, Rekha (d) Chandni, Madhu
Q. 44. Who is the wife of Engineer?
(a) Teacher (b) Accountant (c) House wife (d) Doctor
Q. 45. Naval officer is the husband of which lady?
(a) Kanchan (b) Rekha (c) Chandni (d) Madhu

Question 46 to 49
 A, B, C, D and F are six members in the family. There are two pair of couples in the group.
 There are two Engineers, one Teacher, one Sociologist and two Artists. Both the Engineers are of the same sex.
 A and C are in the same profession.
 The teacher is married to the Engineer and the Artist is married to lady Sociologist.
 A is an Artist. E is a male Engineer. Both of them are unmarried.
 F is B’s husband.

Q. 46. Who is married with the Teacher?

(a) F (b) C (c) E (d) B
Q. 47. Who is Sociologist by Profession?
(a) B (b) F (c) C (d) None
Q. 48. What of the followings are the pairs of couples?
(a) FD and BD (b) CD and FB (c) CD and FD (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 49. What is the profession of B?
(a) Engineer (b) Teacher (c) Sociologist (d) Artist

Question 50 to 54
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six students procuring their master’s degree in six different subject English, History, Philosophy, Physics,
Statistics and Maths.
 Two of them stay in hostels. Two stay as paying guests and the remaining two stay at their home.
 R does not stay as paying guest and studies philosophy.
 The students studying Statistics and History don’t stay as paying guest.
 T studies Maths and S studies Physics.
 U and S stay in hostel. T stays as paying guest and Q stays at home.
Q. 50. Which of the following pair of student stay one each at hostel and at home?
(a) U, S (b) S, R (c) Q, R (d) Data inadequate
Q. 51. Who studies English?
(a) P, Q (b) Q, R (c) R, S (d) None.
Q. 52. Which of the following pair of students stay at home?
(a) P,Q (b) Q,R (c) R,S (d) S,T
Q. 53. Which of the following combination of subjects & place of stay is not correct?
(a) Physics- Hostel (b) English- Hostel (c) Philosophy- Home (d) Maths- P.G.
Q. 54. Which subject does Q studies?
(a) History (b) Statistics (c) History or Statistics (d) Data inadequate

Questions 55to 59
There are five persons P, Q, R, S, and T. One is football player, one is chess player, one is hockey player. P and S are unmarried
ladies and do not Participate in any game, None of the ladies plays chess or football. There is a married couple in which T is the
husband. Q is the brother of R and is neither a chess player nor a hockey player.
Q. 55. Who is the football player?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

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Q. 56. Who is the hockey player?
(a) T (b) S (c) R (d) Q
Q. 57. Who is the chess player?
(a) S (b) P (c) T (d) R
Q. 58. Who is the wife of T?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Q. 59.Which of the following is the correct group of ladies?
(a) P, Q and R (b) Q, R and S (c) P,Q and S (d) P, R and S

Questions 60 to 64
 There are five teacher A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
 B teaches Psychology and is Ph.D. D teaches Sociology and he is also Ph.D.
 Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
 Teacher, who teaches Anthropology, is Ph. D and he is a man.
 A and C are not Ph.D and A does not teach Education.

Q. 60. Who teaches Management?

(a) E (b) D (c) A (d) Either B or C
Q. 61. Who teacher Education?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E
Q. 62. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Both ladies are Ph.D. (b) The persons who teaches Management, is Ph.D.
(c) All male members are Ph.D. (d) The teacher, who teaches Sociology, is a man.
Q. 63. Who teaches Anthropology?
(a) A (b) D (c) E (d) B
Q. 64. Who are the male members?
(a) ABC (b) BCD (c) ACB (d) None of these

Questions 65 to 68
 Five friends A, B, C, D, and E wore shirts of green, yellow, Pink, Red and Blue colours and shorts of Black, White,
Grey, Blue and Green colours.
 Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.
 D wore blue shirt and C wore green shorts.
 The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.
 A wore white short and pink shirt.
 E did not wear red shirt.

Q. 65. Which colour shirt did C wear?

(a) Yellow (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Pink
Q. 66. Which colour short did B wear?
(a) Grey (b) Blue (c) White (d) Black
Q. 67. Who wore white short?
(a) E (b) B (c) C (d) A
Q. 68. Who wore black short?
(a) C (b) E (c) B (d) D
Questions 69 to 71
 There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D, and E.
 One of them is a Horticulturist, one is Physicist, one is journalist and one is an industrialist and is an Advocate.
 Tree of them A, C and the Advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them-B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.
 The Industrialist, D and A are friend of one another but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
 The Horticulturist is C’s brother.

Q. 69. Who is an Industrialist?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q. 70. Which of the following groups include a person who likes tea but is not an Advocate?
(a) ACE (b) BCE (c) DE (d) None of these
Q. 71.Who is the person who likes coffee but is not the journalist?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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Questions 71to76
Three are four persons A, B, C, and D. One of them is lecturer and plays football and Cricket. A and B are Accountants. A plays
Badminton. Both the Accountants are swimmers. D is Bank Clerk. One Accountant also plays Tennis. The Bank clerk plays
Carrom and is a Swimmer. All the four persons plays two games each and follow one profession.

Q. 72. Who is the lecturer?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q. 73. Who can not swim?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q. 74. Who play Tennis?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q. 75.Who plays Badminton and is an Accountant?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q. 76. who plays Tennis and is an Accountant ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Questions 77to79
The annual gathering of a school was organised on a day in the morning hours. Six different item, viz., drama, singing, mimicry,
speech, story-telling and dance are to be performed by six children A B C D E and F not necessarily in the same order. The
programme beings with song not sung by B and ends with dance. C performs mimicry immediately after speech. E performs
drama just before dance. D or F is not available for the last performance. Speech is not given by A. An interval of 30 minutes is
given immediately after mimicry with three more items remaining to be performed. D performs immediately after interval.

Q. 77. Which item is performed by F?

(a) Drama (b) Song (c) Speech (d) Either Song or Speech
Q. 78. Who performed dance?
(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) Data inadequate
Q. 79. Who was the first performer?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Data inadequate

Questions 80to 82
Five course A,B,C,D and E each of one month duration, are to be taught from January to May one after the other, though not
necessarily in the same order, by lecturers P,Q,R,S, and T.
 P teaches course B but not in the month of April or may,
 Q teaches course A in the month of March.
 R teaches in the month of January but does not teach course C or D.

Q. 80. Which course is taught by S?

(a) C (b) E (c) Either C or D (d) D
Q. 81. Which lecturer’s course follows course B immediately?
(a) Q (b) P (c) S (d) T
Q. 82. Which course is taught in the month of January?
(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) Data inadequate

Question 83 to 86
6 picture cards A, B, C, D, E and F are printed in six different coloured ink- Blue, Red, Green, Grey, Yellow, and Brown –
and are arranged from left to right (not necessarily in the same order and colour as given).
 The pictures were of King, Princess, Queen, Palace, joker, and Prince.
 The picture of palace was in blue colour but it was not printed on card D.
 Card ‘A’ which was bearing Queen’s picture printed in Brown ink, was at the extreme right.
 The picture of princess was neither on card D nor on E and was not printed in either green or yellow ink. Card ‘C’ had
picture of king printed in ‘Grey’ ink and it was fifth from right and next to Card B having picture of prince.

Q. 83. If the Princess’s card is between the cards of the palace and prince, then at which number the joker’s card is placed from
left?
(a) First (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Second
Q. 84. Which of the following Combinations of card and colour is true for picture of princess?
(a) E-Yellow (b) F-Red (c) B-Green (d) Data inadequate
Q. 85. In which colour was the picture of joker printed ?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) Data inadequate (b) Yellow (c) Red (d) Green
Q. 86. Picture of palace was printed on which of the following cards?
(a) E (b) F (c) D (d) Either D or E

Questions 87to 89
 An institute was planning to organise 8 lectures A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H (not necessarily in the same order)for 3 subject
X, Y and Z on 3 successive days.
 Subject X was to be conducted first in 3 lectures followed by Z and then subject Y in 2 lectures.
 Lectures A, C and D have to be organised on separate days.
 Lectures B and F have to be kept on separate days but lecture can not be clubbed with A or G or D.
 Lecture G and H should be covered on one day.

Q.87. Which of the following pairs of lectures can go along with lecture A on subject ‘X’?
(a) B, C (b) G, H (c) D, E (d) Data inadequate
Q.88. Which combination of lectures was arranged on the second day of the series?
(a) C, G, H (b) B, D, E (c) C, A, G (d) Data inadequate
Q.89. Which of the following lectures were held for subject Y?
(a) D, F (b) G, H (c) B, C (d) Data inadequate

Questions 90 to 94
 M and N are good at hockey and volleyball. O and M are good at hockey and base ball. P and N are good at cricket and
volleyball. O, P and Q are good at football and baseball

Q. 90 Who among the following is a good at four games?

(a) Q (b) P (c) O (d) N
Q.91 Who is good at cricket, baseball & volleyball?
(a) Q (b) P (c) O (d) N
Q.92 Who is a good at cricket, volleyball and hockey?
(a) Q (b) P (c) O (d) N
Q.93 Who is good at baseball, hockey and volleyball?
(a) Q (b) P (c) N (d) M
Q.94 Who is good at the largest number of games?
(a) Q (b) P (c) O (d) N

Questions 95 to 98
The six chapters in a printed text book are inadvertently bound together in the wrong order by a book binder. As a result
of error, the following situation exists:
 Any two chapters, which ordinarily would be adjacent. Are no longer so.
 Exactly one of the chapters is currently occupying its correct position in the text.
 Chapter 1 occurs after chapters 6 and exactly one other chapter separates them.
 Chapter 4 is not last.
 Chapter 5 occurs before chapter 2.

Q. 95. Which of the following must be false?

(a) Chapter 3 comes before chapter 2 (b) Chapter 3 comes before chapter 4
(c) Chapter 5 comes before chapter 1 (d) Chapter 3 occurs last
Q. 96. Which chapter cannot occur among the last 3 chapter?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) None of these (d) 4
Q. 97. Which chapter might be in their original position?
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 4 and 5 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3 and 5
Q. 98. Which of the following could possibly be true?
i. Chapter 6 comes after chapter 2
ii. Chapter 4 comes after chapter 5
iii. Chapter 6 comes after chapter 4.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All three
Question 99to103
 Six friend Ashok, Nishikant, Chandra, Shekhar, Pranab Sinha, Sunil Jha and Digvijay Pathak work in different
companies, namely ‘Tisco’, ‘Telco’, ‘ Wipro’, ‘HCL’, ‘Mecon’, and ‘Usha Martin’. Each one reads a different
newspaper, i.e., Economic Times, Times of India, The Hindu, The Hindustan Times, Indian Express and The Pioneer,
though not necessarily in the same order.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

 The one reading the pioneer works in ‘HCL’ and the one reading Times of India works in ‘Tisco’
 Sunil Jha does not work in ‘Wipro’ or ‘Mecon’.
 Ashok, who works in Telco, reads The Hindu.
 Digvijay Pathak does not work in ‘Mecon’ and the one who works in ‘Wipro’, does not read The Hindustan Times.
 Nishikant Works in ‘Usha Martin’.
 Neither Digvijay Pathak nor Pranab Sinha works in ‘HCL’.
 The one who works in ‘Mecon’ reads neither ‘The Hindustan Times’ nor Indian Express’.
 Chndra Shekhar works in ‘Tisco’.

Q. 99. The man, who works be in ‘Wipro’, reads:

(a) It can’t be determined (b) The Pioneer (c) The Hinustan Times (d) None of these
Q. 100. Which of the following ‘newspaper-company-person’ combination is correct?
(a) Digvigay Pathak-Wipro-The Indian Express (b) Pranab Sinha- Tisco-The Economic Times
(c) Nishkant-Usha Martin-The Hindu (d) Sunil jha-HCL-Times of India
Q. 101. Which of the following is true?
(a) Sunil Jha works in Mecon. (b) Pranab Sinha works in Tisco.
(c) Nishikant reads The Hindustan Times. (d) Ashok reads the Times of India
Q. 102.Which of the following sequences of companies represents Digvijay Pathak, Nishikant, Chandra Shekhar, Ashok, Pranab
Shinha and Sunil jha in the same order ?
(a) Wipro, HCL, Telco, Tisco, Mecon, Usha Martin (b) Wipro,Usha Martin,Telco,Tisco,Mecon,HCL
(c) Usha Martin,Wipro,Tisco,Telco,HCL,Mecon (d) None of these
Q. 103. Who read Economic Times?
(a) Sunil jha (b) Pranab Sinha (c) Nishikant (d) Can’t be determine

Questions 104to107
 An examination board has organised examinations for ten subject, viz, A, B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I, and J on six days of the
week with a holiday on Sunday not having more then two paper on any of the days.
 Exams beings on Wednesday with subject F.
 D is accompanied by some other subject but not on Thursday. A and G are on the same day immediately after holiday.
 There is only one paper on last day and Saturday. B is immediately followed by H, which in turn is immediately
follower by l.
 C is on Saturday. H is not on the same day as j.

Q. 104. Examination for which of the following pairs of subjects is on Thursday?

(a) HE (b) DB (c) FD (d) Data inadequate
Q. 105. Examination for which of the following subject is on the next day of D?
(a) B (b) C (c) I (d) H
Q. 106. Examination for which of the following subjects is on the last day?
(a) B (b) E (c) J (d) Data inadequate
Q. 107. Which of the following subject’s examination is on the same day, as that of F?
(a) E (b) D (c) I (d) B

Questions 108to114
Six person work in an editorial department of a leading publishing house. No member of the editorial team can go on leave in the
first half of the year (April- March). No two of them can take leave simultaneously. but they have managed to take their leaves
one by one from October to March for a month each ofn their respective festivals.
Shayam Rajak will take his leave neither on SARHUL nor on DIPAWALI. Ajay Tigga will go on leave neither in October nor in
January. Nurullah Khan will take his leave either on DURGA PUJA or on ID-UL-FITAR. DIWALI and DURGA PUJA will be
celebrated either in October or November,though not respectively. Manoj Kacchap will take his leave in January, but he will not
celebrate HOLI. DK Ghosh and Vimal Jain will celebrate DURGA PUJA and DIPAWALI though not respectively. Nurullah
khan will go on leave immediately after Manoj kacchap but not before Ajay tigga. CHRISMAS will be celebrated in December
immediately after DIPAWALI.
Q. 108. who will tack his leave in March ?
(a) Vimal Jain (b) Ajay tigga (c) Shyam Rajak (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 109. Ajay Tigga will take his leave on:
(a) HOLI (b) SARHUL (c) CHRISTMAS (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 110. ID-UL-FITAR will be celebrated in the month of :
(a) January (b) February (c) March (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 111. DIPAWALI will be celebrated by:
(a) Vimal jain (b) DK Ghose (c) Ajay Tigga (d) Can’t be determined
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Q. 112. Who will be celebrate SARHUL?
(a) Manoj kacchap (b) Shyam Rajak (c) Ajay Tigga (d) Can’t be determined Q.
113. DK GHOSE will take his leave in:
(a) November (b) December (c) October (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 114. Which of the following is a true combination?
(a) Shyam Rajak-SARHUL-March (b) Ajay tigga- CHRISTMAS-january
(c) Manoj Kacchap-HOLI-March (d) None of these

Questions 115to119
 Seven friends Kishore, Rahul, Ajay, Sujata, Preeti, Madhukar, and Harish Chandra are studying in seven different
Schools, Viz., Hansraj Model School, Modern School, ,Airforce Bal Bharti, Kendreya Vidyalaya, Ramjas Public
School, Prabhu Dayal Public School and Springdale Public School. But no student reads in that school, whose name
starts whith the first letter of his/her name.
 Rahul and Preeti study in modern School and Airforce Bal Bharti respectively.
 Ajay studies neither in Springdale Public School nor in Prabhu Dayal Public School.
 Sujata and Harish Chandra do not study in Prabhu Dayal Public School or Ramjas Public School or Springdale Public
School.
Q. 115. Kishore studies in which of the following schools?
(a) Prabhu Dayal Public School (b) Springdale Public School
(c) Kendriya Vidyalaya (d) Cannot be determined
Q. 116. Who studies in Ramjas Public School ?
(a) Sujata (b) Ajay (c) Either Ajay or Sujata (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 117. Madhukar studies in which of the following schools?
(a) Sprigdale public School. (b) Prabhu Dayal Public School.
(c) Either Springdale or Prabhu Dayal (d) Cannot be determined.
Q. 118. Who reads in Kendriya Vidyalay?
(a) Harish Chandra (b) Madhukar (c) Rahul (d) Can’t be determined
119. Who studies in Prabhu Dayal Public School?
(a) Kishore (b) Madhukar (c) Cannot be determined (d) Either Kishore or
Madhukar

Question120to125
Six person A,B,C,D,E, and F, experts in six different fields P,Q,R,S,T and U (not respective).won different prizes-Kalinga
award, Gandhi peace prize. Vyas Samman, Kabir Samman Iqbal Samman and Saraswati Samman though not respectively,for the
year 2000.
C and F have not won Gandhi peace and Iqbal Samman. The winner of Kabir Samman is expert in the field S But he is certainly
not E and B. D and A have won Kalinga award and Kabir Sammer though not respectively. The experts of the field Q and E have
won Gandhi Peace Prize and Iqbal Samman though not respectively, A is expert in field P. and Winner of Iqbal Samman is
expert in the field T.
Q. 120.Who has won the Vyas Samman?
(a) B (b) C (c) F (d) Either C of f
Q. 121. The winner of the Saraswati Samman is an expert in the field.
(a) R (b) U (c) Either R or U (d) Data Inadequte
Q. 122. D has expertise in which of the following fields ?
(a) S (b) Q (c) T (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 123. who is the winner of Gandhi peace prize?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Can’t be determined
Q. 124. The person who is expert in the field P has won.
(a) Saraswati samman (b) Kabir samman (c) Vyas Samman (d) Non of these
Q. 125. Which of the following combinations is definetely true?
(a) E-Q-Iqbal Samman (b) A-P-Kalinga award (c) D-S- Kalinga award (d) E-T-Gandhi Peace Prize

Question 126-129
 Seven friend P,Q,R,S,T,U and W have gathered at Mumbai airport. Five of them are Scheduled to go to five
different places Delhi, Chennai, Lucknow, Bangalore and Calcutta.
 Five of them are executives, each specialising in administration, Human Resource Management, Marketing
System and Finance.
 T, an executive, is going to Chennai and is neither from finance nor marketing.
 W is a system specialist and is leaving for Delhi. U is an executive but is not going to one of the five places.
 Q is an executive from HRM but has comes at the airport to see his friends.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

 P is an executive but not from marketing and is flying to one of the destinations but not to Bangalore or
Calcutta.
Q. 126. The one who is going to fly to Chennai is:
(a) Not an executive (b) From administration (c) S (d) From finance
Q. 127. Who among the following specializes in marketing?
(a) S (b) P (c) U (d) Data inadequate
Q. 128. ‘R’ has specialisation in which of the following fields?
(a) Finance (b) Marketing
(c) Either Marketing or Finance (d)None of the above
129. Who is going to fly to Bangalore?
(a) Data inadequate (b) R (c) S (d) P

ANSWERS
1 C 11 A 21 D 31 B 41 A 51 D 61 C
2 A 12 C 22 D 32 B 42 D 52 B 62 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 A 53 B 63 C
4 D 14 D 24 C 34 A 44 C 54 C 64 D
5 A 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 D 55 B 65 A
6 D 16 C 26 C 36 D 46 A 56 C 66 B
7 C 17 B 27 C 37 C 47 D 57 C 67 D
8 A 18 D 28 E 38 D 48 B 58 C 68 B
9 D 19 B 29 D 39 B 49 B 59 D 69 B
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 B 60 C 70 D

71 B 81 A 91 B 101 C 111 D 121 C

72 C 82 C 92 D 102 D 112 A 122 A
73 C 83 A 93 D 103 B 113 D 123 B
74 B 84 B 94 B 104 A 114 D 124 D
75 A 85 A 95 D 105 B 115 D 125 B
76 B 86 A 96 D 106 C 116 B 126 B
77 E 87 B 97 C 107 D 117 C 127 C
78 D 88 D 98 D 108 C 118 A 128 D
79 D 89 D 99 D 109 C 119 D 129 A
80 C 90 B 100 A 110 B 120 D

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Blood Relations

Problems on Blood Relations involve analysis of information showing blood relationship among members of a family. In the
questions, a chain of relationship is given in the form of information and on the basis of these information relation between any
two members of the chain is asked from the candidate. Candidates are supposed to be familiar with the knowledge of different
relationship in a family. Some examples to illustrate the patterns of sum questions are given below:

For the easy understanding of the candidates a able containing few main relations is given hereunder. The study of the table will
prove to be very useful for the students in solving questions on Blood relations.

1. Grandfather’s son: Father or Uncle.

2. Grandmother’s son: Father or Uncle.
3. Grandfather’s only son: Father
4. Grandmother’s only son: Father.
5. Mother’s or Father’s mother: Grandmother
6. Mother’s or Father’s father: Grandfather
7. Grandfather’s only daughter – in –law: Mother
8. Grandmother’s only daughter – in – law: Mother
9. Mother’s or Father’s daughter : Sister
10. Mother’s or Father’s daughter: Sister
11. Mother’s or Father’s brother: Uncle
12. Mother’s or Father’s sister: Aunt
13. Husband’s or wife’s sister: Sister-in-law
14. Husband’s or wife’s brother: Brother - in - law
15. Son’s wife: Daughter – in – law
16. Daughter’s husband: Son – in – law
17. Brother’s son : Nephew
18. Brother’s daughter: Niece
19. Uncle our Aunt’s son or daughter: Cousin
20. Sister’s husband ; Brother – in – law
21. Brother’s wife : Sister – in – law

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Blood Relations

1. Introducing a girl, Vipin said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Vipin related to the girl?
(a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Brother (d) Husband
2. Showing the lady in the park, Vineet said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is Vineet related to that
lady?
(a) Brother (b) Cousin (c) Father (d) Uncle
3. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady related to the man?
(a) Daughter (b) sister (c) Granddaughter (d) Mother
4. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How is that man related to the woman?
(a) Husband (b) Brother (c) Father-in-law (d) Maternal-uncle
5. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?
(a) Q is T’s son (b) T is Q’s father (c) S is P’s mother (d) P is S’s son
6. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Cousin (c) Niece (d) Aunt
7. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife.” How is lady related to the man?
(a) Mother’s sister (b) Grandmother (c) Sister of father-in-law (d) Mother-in-law
8. If B says that his mother is the only daughter of A’s mother, how is A related to B?
(a) Son (b) Father (c) Brother (d) Uncle
9. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s daughter.” How is the man related to woman?
(a) Cousin (b) Son (c) Brother-in-law (d) Nephew
10. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, “His mother the only daughter of your father.” How is Neha related to the person?
(a) Aunt (b) Mother (c) Daughter (d) Wife
11. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the
woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Daughter
12. Amit said,“This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” How is Amit related to the girl?
(a) Father (b) Father-in-law (c) Grandfather (d) Husband
13. Pointing to a man in a photograph Reena said, “His mother’s only daughter is my mother.” How is Reena related to that
man?
(a) Nephew (b) Sister (c) Niece (d) Wife
14. Pointing to a man in the park, Naman said, “His son is my son’s uncle.” How is the man related to Naman?
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Uncle (d) Grandfather
(e) None of these
15. A told B, “yesterday, I met the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother.” Whom did A meet?
(a) Cousin (b) Brother (c) Nephew (d) Father
16. Neelam, who is Rohit’s daughter, says to Indu, “Your mother Reeta is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child
of Sohanji.” How is Sohanji related to Indu?
(a) Maternal-uncle (b) Father (c) Grandfather (d) Father-in-law
17. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Nephew (b) Son (c) Cousin (d) Uncle
18. Pointing to a photograph, a person says to his friend, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of my father.” How is the
girl in the photograph related to the man?
(a) Niece (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law
19. A x B means A is the sister of B, A / B means A is the daughter of B, A-B means A is the son of B. On the basis of this
information you have to tell, how is P related to S in the relationship P-Q x R /S?
(a) Brother (b) Son (c) Grandson (d) Daughter’s son
20. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Raman said, “She is the only daughter of the mother of my brother’s sister.” How
is that person related to Raman?
(a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Mother (d) Cousin
21. If Neha says, “Amruta’s father Raj is the only son of my father-in-law Mahesh.” Then how Bindu, who is the sister of
Amruta is related to Mahesh?
(a) Daughter (b) Wife (c) Daughter-in-law (d) None of these
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
22. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.” How is the gentleman related
to Deepak?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Brother-in-law (d) Uncle
23. Q’s mother is the sister of R and daughter of S. N is the daughter of R and sister of M. How is M related to S?
(a) Son (b) Son’s Son (c) Brother (d) Data inadequate
24. Pointing towards a woman in a photograph, Vijay said, “She is the daughter of the father of the sister of my brother.” How is
the lady in photograph related to Vijay?
(a) Daughter (b) Wife (c) Mother (d) None of these
25. Poonam said to her friend, “Yesterday, I attended the birthday party of the son of the only son-in-law of my mother’s
mother.” How is Poonam related to the man, whose birthday party she attended?
(a) Niece (b) Daughter (c) Sister (d) Mother
26. Pointing towards a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, “The mother of his father is the wife of your grandfather (Mother’s father)”.
How Pushpa is related to that boy?
(a) Sister (b) Niece (c) Cousin Sister (d) Wife
27. The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On the basis of
this information, how is M related to B?
(a) Grandfather (b) Grandmother (c) Data inadequate (d) Grandmother’s Mother
28. A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. To establish a relationship between B and C, which of the following information
is required?
(I) Sex of C (II) Sex of B
(a) Only I is required (b) Only II is required (c)Both I and II are required(d) Neither I nor II is required
29. Introducing a man, Neeraj said, “His wife is the only daughter of my wife." How is Neeraj related to that man?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Father-in-law (d) son
30. Shyama says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How is Shyama related to Rajiv?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Bua (Father’s sister) (d) Niece
31. Pointing to Raman in the photograph, Aditi said, “The only son of his mother is my father.” How is Aditi related to Raman?
(a) Mother’s sister (b) Bua (Father’s sister) (c) Daughter (d) Niece
32. Pointing towards a lady, a man said, “The father of his brother is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the lady related to
that man?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter (c) Bua (Father’s sister) (d) Mother-in-law
33. A man said to a woman, “The only sister of your brother is my mother.” How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Father (b) son (c) Husband (d) Brother
34. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, Archana said, “He is the son of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the man
related to Archana?
(a) Cousin (b) Nephew (c) Brother (d) Son
35. Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, “The only daughter of her grandfather is my wife.” How is Rajesh
related to that woman?
(a) Uncle (Fufa) (b) Father (c) Maternal uncle (d) Brother
36. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, a lady said, “The father of his brother is the only son of my mother.” How is the
man related to the lady?
(a) Brother (b) Son (c) Cousin (d) Nephew
37. A+B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A/B means ‘A is the father of B’ and A x B means ‘A is the sister of B’. Which of the
following means ‘M’ is the uncle of ‘P’?
(a) M/N x P (b) N x P/M (c) M+S/R+P (d) M+K/T x P
38. ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’. ‘P – Q, means P, is the mother of Q’.and P x Q means P, is the sister of Q. Which of the
following means that M is the maternal-uncle of R?
(a) M – R + K (b) M+K – R (c) M+K x Q (d) no such symbol
39. If S x T means ‘S is brother of T’, S + T means ‘S is the father of T’, which of the following shows O is the cousin of R ?
(a) R x T + O (b) R + T x O (c) R x O x T (d) None of these
40. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’. ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’, ‘P /Q’ means
‘P is the father of Q’. Which of the following means M is the maternal-uncle of R?
(a) M x T – R (b) M/T x R (c) M + T/K – R (d) M/N + J

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
41. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘Ax B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A/B’ means ‘A
is the mother of B’, ‘A=B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. Which of the following represents P is the maternal-uncle of Q?
(a) R x P/Q (b) P x R/Q (c) P + R/Q (d) P + R x Q

Directions (42-45)
(i) ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
(ii) ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.
(iii) ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
(iv) ‘A/B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
42. If P/R + S + Q , which of the following statements is true?
(a) P is the daughter of Q (b) Q is the aunt of P
(c) P is the aunt of Q (d) P is the mother of Q
43. If P – R + Q, which of the following statements is true?
(a) P is the mother of Q (b) Q is the daughter of P
(c) P is the aunt of Q (d) P is the sister of Q
44. If P x R/Q, which of the following is true?
(a) P is the uncle of Q (b) P is the father of Q (c) P is the brother of Q (d) P is the son of Q
45. If ‘P x R – Q’, which of the following is true?
(a) P is the brother-in-law of Q (b) P is the brother of Q
(c) P is the uncle of Q (d) P is the father of Q

Answers
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 C 41 B
2 A 12 B 22 D 32 A 42 C
3 B 13 C 23 D 33 B 43 A
4 A 14 B 24 D 34 C 44 D
5 A 15 D 25 C 35 A 45 A
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 D
7 C 17 C 27 C 37 D
8 D 18 A 28 B 38 B
9 A 19 D 29 C 39 D
10 B 20 D 30 C 40 A

1. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A/B’ means
‘A is the mother of b’ and ‘A = B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. On the basis of this information, what does P + Q – R means?
(a) P is the father-in-law of R (b) P is the son of R (c) P is the uncle of R (d) P is the brother of R
2. On the basis of the information given in question 1, what does P x Q/R means?
(a) P is the brother of Q (b) P is the father of R
(c) P is the maternal-uncle of R (d) P is the nephew of R
3. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Aruna said, ‘He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother’. How is that
person related to Aruna?
(a) Maternal-uncle (b) Mother (c) Father (d) None of these
4. ‘P Q ‘ means ‘P is the mother of Q’, ‘P# Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’. Which of the following represents ‘M is the
daughter of R’?
(a) R # M N (b) R N # M (c) R # M # N (d) Data inadequate
5. To find the answer to the above question, which of the statements can be dispensed with?
(a) Only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) or (ii) (d) Only (iii)
6. Sandip’s mother is the only daughter of Rekha’s father. How is Rekha’s husband related to sandip?
(a) Uncle (b) Brother (c) Grandfather (d) Father
7. ‘P Q’ Means ‘P is the brother of Q’, ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’, ‘P o Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’. Which of the
following would mean ‘R is the son of M’?
(a) M R#S (b) M # S o R (c) M O R # S (d) M # S # R
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
8. To arrive at the answer to the above question, which of the statements can be dispensed?
(a) Only A (b) A or C (c) A or B (d) Only B
9. Pointing to a man in the photograph a woman says, “He is the son of my brother’s grandfather’s son.” How is the man related
to the woman?
(a) Brother (b) uncle (c) Father (d) Brother-in-law
10. P is Q’s sister. P is R’s sister. To find out how is Q related to R, which of the following is the minimum further information
necessary, if any?
I. R’s sex II. Q’s sex
(a) Only I is necessary (b) Only II is necessary
(c) Either I or II is necessary (d) Both I and II are needed
11. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B, ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the brother of B, ‘A/B’ means
‘A is the daughter of B’. Which of the following means “P is the Aunt of Q”?
(a) P + R – S + Q (b) P/R –S + Q (c) P/R x S + Q (d) P – R/S + Q
12. Using the notation as in previous question if P x Q - Q, which of the following is true?
(a) P is brother-in-law of Q (b) P is the uncle of Q
(c) P is the niece of Q (d) P is the father of Q
13. Pointing to a boy, a woman says, “He is the son of the mother of his only sister.” How is the boy related to the woman?
(a) Son (b) Cousin (c) Nephew (d) Cannot be determined
14. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, and ‘A /B’
means ‘A is the daughter of B’. If S/ T x U + Z, which of the following is true?
(a) S is the daughter of Z (b) Z is the aunt of S (c) S is the aunt of Z (d) S is the Mother of Z
15. Using the notation as in previous question if S – T + Z, which of the following statements is true?
(a) S is the mother of Z (b) Z is the wife of S (c) S is the aunt of Z (d) S is the sister of Z
16. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’, ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’, ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’, ‘P/Q’ means ‘P is
the mother of Q’ and ‘P = Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’. Then what does X + Y – Z mean?
(a) Z is the father of X (b) Z is the son of X (c) Z is the uncle of X (d) Z is the brother of X
17. Using the information as in previous question what does X x Y/Z means?
(a) X is the brother of Y (b) X is the father of Z
(c) X is the maternal-uncle of Z (d) X is the nephew of Z
18. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’, ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’, ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’, ‘P/Q’ means ‘P
is the mother of Q’ and ‘P = Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’. What does A + B – C mean?
(a) C is the father of A (b) C is the son of A (c) C is the uncle of A (d)C is the brother of A
19. What does A x B/C mean?
(a) A is the brother of C (b) A is the father of C
(c) A is the maternal-uncle of C (d) A is the nephew of C
20. Pointing to a photograph, Prabhat tells his friend, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of my father.” How is the
girl in the photograph related to Prabhat?
(a) Niece (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Sister-in-law
21. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A/B’ means
‘A is the daughter of B’. Which of the following means that P is the sister-in-law of Q?
(a) R –P x Q (b) R + P x Q (c) P – R x Q (d) P – R/Q
22. Using the notation as in previous question if P x R + Q, Which of the following is true?
(a) P is the father of Q (b) P is the grandfather of Q
(c) P is the uncle of Q (d) P is the brother-in-law of Q
23. ‘S – T’ means ‘S is the mother of T’, ‘S/T’ means ‘S is the father of T’, ‘S x T’ means ‘S is the brother of T’. Which of the
following represents ‘M is the son of Q’?
(a) M/R x Q (b) M/Q – R (c) Q/M x R (d) Q x M/R
24. To find the answer to the above question, which of the following statements can be dispensed with?
(a) a and b (b) a and c (c) b only (d) a only
25. Soni, who is Dubey’s daughter, says to Preeti, “Your mother Shyama is the youngest sister of my father, who is third child of
Prabhat.” How is Prabhat related to Preeti?
(a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Grandfather (d) Father-in-law

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
26. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’, ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’, ‘P/Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’. Which of
the following means R is the uncle of S?
(a) R x P + S (b) R x S + P (c) R/P +S (d) R + P x S
27. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His father-in-law’s father is my father-in-law”. How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Husband (b) Son (c) Nephew (d) son-in-law
28. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, “his mother is the only daughter of your father.” How is the person related to
the woman?
(a) Grandson (b) Son (c) Husband (d) Brother
29. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “The daughter of his father is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the husband of that
woman is related to that man?
(a) Sister’s husband (b) Father (c) Son-in-law (d) Son
30. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man said, “The son of his sister’s father is the maternal-uncle of my son.” How is the
sister of that woman is related to the son of that man?
(a) Mother (b) Mother’s sister
(c) Mother or mother’s sister (d) Aunt
31. A woman said to a man, “The sister of your only brother is my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Daughter (c) Sister (d) Niece
Answers
1 A 11 C 21 C 31 D
2 C 12 A 22 A
3 D 13 D 23 C
4 A 14 C 24 B
5 D 15 A 25 C
6 D 16 A 26 D
7 C 17 C 27 D
8 A 18 A 28 B
9 A 19 C 29 A
10 B 20 A 30 C

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

CODING DECODING
Coding is a method of transmitting a message from one place to the other place. Decoding is the ability to decipher a certain
code.
In these types of questions, certain code values are assigned to a word or a group of words and you have to find out the original
words.
Here are some useful points on the basic knowledge required for these tests.
1. FORWARD ORDER OF LETTERS
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
2. REVERSE ORDER OF LETTERS
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
3. OPPOSITE LETTERS
A-Z H-S B-Y I-R C-X J-Q D–W
K-P E-V L-O F-U M-N G-T
Various types of coding-decoding questions are asked in the examinations, which are given below under various types.
To arrive quickly at the position of the alphabet we use the concept of E J O T Y Here if we remember
5 10 15 20 25
EJOTY then we can arrive at the position of the other alphabets very quickly which is very
much required in solving these types of questions.
Type –I
Solved Examples
In this type of questions, you have to find out the correct answer code from the given alternatives.
Example 1: If NUMERICAL is written MVLFQJBBK, then how would ASTROLOGY be written in this code?
(a) BRSTMNNHX (b) ZTSSNMNHX (c)ZTUSPMPEZ (d) BRSSNKNHX
Solution: First, third, fifth, seventh and ninth letters have preceding letters as their code and the remaining ones have
next letter as their code. Hence, the answer is (b).
Example 2: IF IMPORT is written USPQNJ, then how will CAPITAL be written in this code?
(a) MBUJQBD (b) KZSHOZB (c) MUBJBDQ (d) MBQJUBD
Solution: Reverse the word and use next letters as codes. Hence, the answer is (a).
Exercise
Directions for questions 1 to 24: In each of the questions, certain code values are assigned to a word and you have to find out
the code which will be used for the given word, from the given options.
1. If MAN is written NZM, then how will GIRL be written in this code?
(a) HHQK (b) RTIO (c) HJLM (d) GIKL
2. If COBRA is written BOCAR, then how will GROUP be written in this code?
(a) ORPGU (b) OGRPU (c) ORTAU (d) ORGPU
3. If the code for ALLOWANCE is ZMKPVBMDD, the word DEARNESS would be coded as
(a) CFBAODTR (b) EDZQMFRT (c) CDZTMFTR (d) CFZSMFRT
4. If RESCUE is coded as SDTBVD, then EROSION would be
(a) FSPTJMO (b) FQPRJNO (c) DSRPHPM (d) FQPRJPM
5. If SPECIAL is coded as KZHBDOR, then ORDINARY would be
(a) ZQBMHCSX (b) XQZOHCQN (c) XQZMHCQN (d) ZQBHOBQZ
6. If GOOD is written HQRH, how will you write DREAM?
(a) ESPBN (b) ETHER (c) ETHPQ (d) ESHDR
7. If CONSULTS is written OCSNLUST, then ADVICE will be written as
(a) DRIVCE (b) DAVCEI (c) DAVICE (d) DAIVEC
8. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then ELEPHANT would be coded as
(a) LEPEHATN (b) LEPEAHTN (c) LEEPAHTN (d) LEPEAHNT
9. If FERTILE is coded as FMJUSFG, then PRINT would be
(a) UOJDP (b) UOJSQ (c) USJMQ (d) QSJOU
10. If MERCHANT is NDSBIZOS, then CANCER would be
(a) BZMBDQ (b) BBMBDQ (c) DBODFS (d) DZOBFQ
11. In a certain code, PAINTER is written NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as
(a) PCYQMN (b) PGYQMN (c) PGYUMP (d) PGYUPM

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
12. If in a certain code SOCIAL is TQFMFR, then DIMPLE would be
(a) EKPTQK (b) EKPQPJ (c) EKPSPJ (d) EKPSOH
13. If TRIANGLE is coded as SSHBMHKF, then SQUARE would be
(a) RRIASF (b) RPVBSF (c) RRTBQF (d) RPVBSD
14. If JAPAN is coded as KCSES, then the code for CASTLE will be
(a) DIJOB (b) DJKRD (c) DKMSG (d) DCVXQK
15. If HOUSE is coded as KRXVH, the code for CASTLE will be
(a) FDWVOH (b) FDVWNH (c) FDVWNG (d) FDVWOH
16. If TRAIN is coded as RPYGL, the code for SCOOTER would be
(a) QAMMRCP (b) QBNNRCP (c) QAMMSBP (d) QBNNSBP
17. If CAUTIOUS is BBTUHPTT, then NEGLIGENT is
(a) MFFMHHFOS (b) MFHMMDMU (c) MFFMHHDOS (d) MFFMHJDOS
18. If RADIO is written PYBGM, then how would SCHOOL be written in that code?
(a) USQOON (b) QAFMMJ (c) PTFNNO (d) QYFMMT
19. If PEARL is written MBXOI then how would DIAMOND be written in that code?
(a) AFXJLKA (b) AFXJKLA (c) AFXKLNA (d) BGYKMKB
20. In a certain code, BODY is written APCZ. How would DELHI be written in that code?
(a) CFKGI (b) BFKGI (c) CFKIH (d) CFKHI
21. If MENTAL is written LNDFMOSUZBKM, then how would TEST be written in that code?
(a) UVFGTIIV (b) RSCDQRRS (c) SUDFQRSM (d) SUDFRTSU
22. RATION is OPJUBS, then ANSWER is
(a) SFXTOB (b) BORXDS (c) SGXUOD (d) XJURNT
23. THRICE is UJUMHK, then EQUALS is
(a) FRVBMT (b) FPVZMU (c) FSXEQY (d) FRWDPX
24. NUMBER is OTNAFQ, then STUDENT is
(a) TSVCDMU (b) TUVEFOU (c) RUVCFMS (d) TSVCFMU
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________

TYPE – II
Solved Examples
In these types of questions, either numerical code values are assigned to a word or alphabetical code values are assigned
to the numbers. You have to analyses the code as per the directions.
Example 1: If in a certain language, A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, and so on. How will FADCCBM coded in that coed?
(a) 61433213 (b) 13233416 (c) 6243313 (d) 51433123
Solution: As given the letters are coded as:
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
So in FADCCBM, F is coded as 6, A as 1, D as 4, C as 3, B as 2 and M as 13. Thus, FADCCBM is coded as
614332123. Hence, the answer is (a).
Short cut: As F=6, (b) and (d) are eliminated. Then check the remaining two choices’ next number which gives the right
answer as it is different in the two choices. Therefore, (a) is the answer.
Example 2: If in a certain code BEAUTIFUL is coded as 573041208, BUTTER as 504479, how is FUTURE coded in that
code?
(a) 201497 (b) 204097 (c) 704092 (d) 204079
Solution: As given the letters are coded as:
B E A U T I F L R
5 7 3 0 4 1 2 8 9
So in FUTURE, F is coded as 2, U as 0, T as 4, R as 9, and E as 7. Therefore, FUTURE is coded as 204097.
Hence, the answer is (b).
Short cut: As F= 2, (c) is eliminated. Again as the second digit of the other three choices is same, then check for the third,
fourth and fifth digit which gives (b) as the answer.
Example 3: In a certain code, 5 is coded as Z, 7 as E, 2 as S, 9 as T, and 4 as W. How is 977452 coded in that code?
(a) SEEWZT (b) TEEWZS (c) ZEEWST (d) WEEZST
Solution: 977452 is coded as TEEWZS. Hence, the answer is (b).
Example 4: In a certain code, 98602 is coded as MANGO, 0139867 as GERMANY, then how is 9868013 coded as
(a) MANEGER (b) MENEGER (c) MENAGAR (d) MANAGER
Solution: As given the numbers are coded as:
9 8 6 0 2 1 3
M A N G O E R
Thus, 9868013 is coded as MANAGER. Hence, the answer is (d).

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Example 5: If CAT is coded as 24, what will be the code number for BAT?
(a) 32 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 42
Solution: The logic is that the positions of the alphabets are added to get the result i.e.
=CAT =C (3) + A (1) + T (20)  24.
Add up the position numbers – B-2, A-1, T-20. Total = 23 Hence, the answer is (c).

Exercise
1. In a certain language, if A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, and so on, how is STAR coded in that code?
(a) 1810291 (b) 9120118 (c) 1920118 (d) 1920811
2. In a certain language, if P is coded as 7, T as 3, O as 4, R as 9 and A as 2, how PARROT coded in that code?
(a) 372994 (b) 723349 (c) 279943 (d) 729943
3. In certain code, if A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, and so on, how is COUNTRY coded in that code?
(a) 31521142182 (b) 351211420182 (c) 3152114201825 (d) 2515211420183
4. In a certain language, if T is coded as 9, G as 7, R as 1, I as 0 and E as 3, how is TIGER coded in that code?
(a) 90731 (b) 19037 (c) 91073 (d) 71903
5. In a certain language, if Z is coded as 0, Y as 5, O as 2, G as 7, and L as 6, how is ZOOLOGY coded in that code?
(a) 0006070 (b) 0226275 (c) 7502262 (d) 2026275
6. In a certain code, if BOX is coded as 213, BITTER as 207749, how is BOXER coded in that code?
(a) 21359 (b) 23159 (c) 23149 (d) 21349
7. In a certain code, if TREE is coded as 7100, FROG as 2159, how is FREE coded in that code?
(a) 2100 (b) 3100 (c) 1003 (d) 1002
8. In a certain code, if BETTER is coded as 027729, and BUT as 017, how BUTTER coded in that code?
(a) 107729 (b) 017729 (c) 107792 (d) 017792
9. In a certain code, if GUN is coded as 309, DEAR as 1498, how is UNDER coded in that code?
(a) 90148 (b) 39148 (c) 09148 (d) 49138
10. In a certain code, if SCHOOL is coded as 123445, TEAM as 6078, how is HOTEL coded in that code?
(a) 34605 (b) 43605 (c) 60734 (d) 34785
11. In a certain code, 1 is coded as S, 7 as E, 9 as H, 6 as L, 0 as T and 2 as O. How is 921076 coded in that code?
(a) LEBAC (b) HOSTEL (c) HOSLET (d) TOSHEL
12. In a certain code, 9 as coded as C, 0 as B, 5 as E, 7 as A, and 3 as L. How is 97035 coded in that code?
(a) LEBAC (b) CEBLA (c) BACLE (d) CABLE
13. In a certain code, C is coded as 0, E as 7, T as 4, I as 9, P as 1, R as 3, U as 5. How is 1904537 coded in that code?
(a) PICTRUE (b) PICTURE (c) RICTPUE (d) PCTUREI
14. In a certain language, if 1 is coded as A, 2 as B, 3 as C, and so on how is FLOWER coded in that code?
(a) 6121523518 (b) 6121823515 (c) 6211523518 (d) 6218123515
15. In a certain language, if 1 is coded as A, 2 as B, 3 as C and so on, how is LEMON coded in that code?
(a) 12513014 (b) 125131514 (c) 145131512 (d) 14013125
16. In a certain code, 23 is coded as OX, 529 as FOR, and 0229 as DOOR, how is 235290 coded?
(a) DOXFOR (b) FORDOX (c) OXFORD (d) FOXORD
17. In a certain code, 2468 is code as PART, 8136 as TOUR, how is 246618 coded?
(a) PORRAT (b) TARROP (c) PARROT (d) RAPORT
18. In a certain code, 01234 is coded COUNT, 4765 as TRAY, how is 0123475 coded?
(a) COUNTRY (b) TRYCOUN (c) RYCOUNT (d) YRCOUNT
19. In a certain code, 13352 is coded as OFFER, 795 as ICE, how is 1337952 coded?
(a) FICEROF (b) CIFFOER (c) OICFFER (d) OFFICER
20. In a certain code, 1223 is coded as BOOK, 627962 as TOMATO, how is 126627 coded?
(a) BOTTOM (b) MOTTOB (c) TOBOMT (d) BOMOTT
21. If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN?
(a) 53 (b) 33 (c) 35 (d) 43
22. If TOWER is coded as 81, what will be the code number for POWER?
(a) 75 (b) 55 (c) 18 (d) 77
23. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 38 (d) 50
24. If FOX is coded as 45, what will be the code number for BOX?
(a) 41 (b) 49 (c) 55 (d) 60
25. If MAN is coded as 28, what will be the code number for CHILD?
(a) 25 (b) 36 (c) 49 (d) 64
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Type – III

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Solved Examples
In these types of questions, some particular objects are assigned code names and then a question is asked, that is to be
answered in the code language.
Example 1: If ‘orange’ is called ‘butter’, ‘butter’ is called ‘soap’, ‘soap’ is called ‘ink’, ‘ink’ is called ‘honey’ and ‘honey’
is called ‘orange’, which of the following is used for washing clothes?
(a) Honey (b) Butter (c) Orange (d) Ink
Solution: Clearly, ‘soap’ is used for washing clothes. As given that soap is called ‘ink’, then ‘ink’ is used for washing
clothes. Hence, the answer is (d).
Example 2: If ‘water’ is called ‘food’, ‘food’ is called ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’, on which of the following
does a ‘fruit’ grow?
(a) Water (b) Food (c) Tree (d) Sky
Solution: Clearly, a fruit grows on a ‘tree’. As given that ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, a fruit grows on ‘sky’. Hence, the answer
is (d).
1. If ‘light’ is called ‘dark’, ‘dark’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘white’
and ‘white’ is called ‘yellow’, what is the color of blood?
(a) Red (b) Dark (c) White (d) Yellow
2. In a certain language, if ‘water’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘tree’, ‘tree’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘rain’,
‘rain’ is called ‘pink’, and ‘pink’ is called ‘fish’, what will the color of the sky be called in that language?
(a) Blue (b) Fish (c) Rain (d) Pink
3. If ‘black’ means ‘white’, ‘white’ means ‘red’, ‘red’ means ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ means ‘blue’, ‘blue’ means ‘green’,
‘green’ means ‘violet’, and ‘violet’ means ‘orange’, what is the color of the sky?
(a) Green (b) Violet (c) Orange (d) Yellow
4. If ‘rains’ is called ‘pink’, ‘pink’ is called ‘cloud’, ‘cloud’ is called ‘water’, ‘water’ is called ‘breeze’, and breeze is
called ‘moon’, what do you wash your hands with?
(a) Water (b) Rain (c) Breeze (d) Moon
5. If the animals which can walk are called ‘swimmers’, animals which crawl are called ‘flying’, those which live in water
are called ‘snakes’, and those which fly in the sky are called ‘hunters’, then what will a ‘lizard’ be called?
(a) Swimmer (b) Snake (c) Hunter (d) Flying
6. If ‘cloud’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘rain’, ‘rain’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘air’, ‘air’ is called ‘blue’,
and ‘blue’ is called ‘water’, where do the birds fly in?
(a) Air (b) Cloud (c) White (d) Blue
7. If ‘air’ is called ‘water’, ‘water’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘dust’, ‘dust’ is called ‘yellow’, and ‘yellow’ is called
‘cloud’, which of the following does fish live in?
(a) Air (b) Water (c) Green (d) Dust
8. If ‘pen’ is called ‘pencil’, ‘pencil’ is called ‘scale’, ‘scale’ is called ‘bag’ and ‘bag’ is called ‘book’, which is used to
carry the books?
(a) Scale (b) Pen (c) Book (d) Bag
9. If ‘room’ is called ‘house’, ‘house’ is called ‘roof’, ‘roof’ is called ‘floor’ and ‘floor’ is called ‘terrace’, where will a
person stand on?
(a) Floor (b) Terrace (c) Roof (d) Room
10. If ‘paper’ is called ‘eraser’, ‘eraser’ is called ‘bag’, ‘bag’ is called ‘scale’, ‘scale’ is called ‘pencil’ and ‘pencil’ is called
‘paper’, what will a person write with?
(a) Pencil (b) Paper (c) Eraser (d) Bag
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________

Type – IV
In these types of questions, few complete messages are given in the coded language and the code for a particular word or
sentence is asked.
Example: In a certain code, ‘nee po tam’ means ‘boys are studying’, ‘me tam sam’ means ‘grapes are sour’ and ‘ism po
me’ means ‘boys eat grapes’. Which of the following is the code for ‘sour’ in that language?
(a) ism (b) tam (c) me (d) None of these
Solution: We are required to find the code for ‘sour’. For this we try to find out the code for ‘grapes’ and ‘are’ first, and
then eliminate the corresponding codes for them. The remaining code would be the representative code for
‘sour’.
On comparing the codes ‘nee po tam’ and ‘me tam sam’ we get ‘tam’ as the code for the word ‘are’. Similarly,
on comparing codes ‘me tam sam’ and ‘ism po me’, we get ‘me’ as code for ‘grapes’. Now as ‘grapes are sour’
coded as ‘me tam sam’ and ‘me’ and ‘tam’ represent ‘grapes’ and ‘are’, then ‘sam’ represents the code
four’sour’.
Exercise

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
1. In a certain code language, ‘col tip mot’ means ‘singing is appreciable’, ‘mot baj min’ means ‘dancing is good’ and ‘tip
nop baj’ means ‘singing and dancing’, which of the following means ‘good’ in that code language?
(a) mot (b) min (c) baj (d) Cannot be determined
2. In a certain code, ‘down sky’ is written ‘zoc pun’ and ‘on top sky’ is written ‘pun ta rop’. How will ‘down on’ be
written in that code?
(a) zoc ta (b) pun rop (c) rop zoc (d) Cannot be determined
3. In a certain code language, ‘dom pul ta’ means ‘bring hot food’, ‘pul tir sop’ means ‘food is good’, and ‘tak da sop’
means ‘good bright boy’. Which of the following does mean ‘hot’ in that language?
(a) dom (b) pul (c) ta (d) Cannot be determined
4. In a certain code language, ‘ken poti’ means ‘good morining’, ‘hu shang’ means ‘come on’, and ‘hu ken sue’ means
‘come for good’. Which word in that language does mean ‘for’?
(a) shang (b) ken (c) sue (d) hu
5. In a certain code language, ‘pul tir fin’ means ‘good sweet fruit’, ‘tie dip sig’ means ‘beautiful red rose’, ‘sig lon fin’
means ‘rose and fruit’. Which of the following does stand for ‘and’ in that language?
(a) pul (b) tir (c) lon (d) sig
6. In a certain code language, ‘pul ta nop’ means ‘fruit is good’, ‘nop ko tir’ means ‘tree is tall’ and ‘pul ho sop’ means
‘eat good food’. Which of the following does mean ‘fruit’ in that language?
(a) pul (b) ta (c) nop (d) Data inadequate
7. In a certain code, ‘XZM’ means ‘He is bright’, TCZO means ‘Every lawn is green’, and OQCN’ means ‘Every wall was
green’. Which of the following does mean “Every lawn is bright’ in that code?
(a) ZTOM (b) CXZT (c) XOTZ (d) Cannot be determined
8. In a certain code language, if ‘mxy das zci’ means ‘good little frock’, ‘jmx cos zci’ means ‘girl behaves good’, ‘nvg drs
cos’ means ‘girl makes mischief’ and ‘das ajp cos’ means ‘little girl fell’, which word in that language does stand for
‘frock’?
(a) zci (b) das (c)nvg (d) None of these
9. In a certain code language, ‘tir me sac’ means ‘green and tasty’, ‘dic sac for’ means ‘tomato is green’, ‘voc tir for’
means ‘food is tasty’. Which of the following does mean ‘tomato is tasty’ in that code?
(a) for tir dic (b) dic for sac (c) tir me for (d) None of these
10. In a certain code language, ‘pre not biz’ means ‘smoking is harmful’, ‘vog dor not’ means ‘avoid harmful habit’ and
‘dor biz yel’ means ‘please avoid smoking’. Which of the following does mean ‘habit’ in that language?
(a) vog (b) not (c) dor (d) Cannot be determined
11. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’, ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not eternal’, ‘9a, 4d,
2b 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following does mean ‘Eternal’ in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 2b (c) 7c (d) Cannot be determined
12. In a certain code language, ‘Ka Bi Pu’ means ‘You are intelligent’ ‘Ya Lo Ka Wo’ means ‘They seem very intelligent,
‘Lo Pu Le’ means ‘You can see’ and ‘Sun Pun Yun ya’ means ‘How intelligent she is’. In that language which of the
following means ‘are’?
(a) Ka (b) Bi (c) Le (d) Pu
13. In a certain code language, “Tink Log Se’ means ‘Fruits are ripe’, ‘Se Thao Hay Tink’ means ‘Mangoes are not ripe’,
‘Hay Se Cue Tink’ means ‘Bananas are not ripe.’ Which word in that language means ‘Mangoes’?
(a) Tink (b) Log (c) Se (d) Thao
14 In a certain code, ‘pim to suk’ means ‘red beautiful flower’, ‘suk tom ho’ means ‘white and red’ and ‘dom to huk’
means ‘cloth is beautiful’. Which word in that language means ‘flower’?
(a) pim (b) to (c) suk (d) tom
15. In a certain code language, ‘cul max dir’ means ‘nice little boxes’, ‘sut med bix’ means ‘well arranged row’, ‘bix fac
dir’ means ‘row of boxes’. Which of the following stands for ‘of’ in that language?
(a) max (b) bix (c) fac (d) sut
16. In a certain code language, ‘pit nae tom’ means ‘apple is green’, nae ho tap’ means ‘green and white’ and ‘ho tom ka’
means ‘shirt is white’. Which of the following represents ‘apple’ in that language?
(a) nae (b) tem (c) pit (d) ho
17. In a certain code language, ‘lee su jak’ means ‘he eats apples’, ‘je tic’ means ‘sweet orange’ and ‘lee kee jo tic’ means
‘Mohan eats sweet bananas’. In that language, which of the following means ‘orange’?
(a) tic (b) je (c) kee (d) Cannot be determined
18. In a certain code language, ‘Sau Pey Te’ means ‘Doctor Bonod Kumar’, ‘Ting Pu Sau’ means ‘Satish is Doctor’, ‘Ping
Pong Ting’ means ‘Satish and Ram’. Which word in that language means ‘is’?
(a) Sau (b) Pey (c) Pu (d) Ting
19. In a certain code language, ‘Alpha-Beta-Phai’ means ‘Machine is running’, ‘Phai-Kappa-Theata-Alpha’ means ‘Bus is
not running’ and ‘Theata-Phai-Gamma-Alpha’ means ‘Car is not running’. Which word in that language means ‘Bus’?
(a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Phai (d) Kappa

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
20. In a certain code language, ‘guda buka’ means ‘clear water’, ‘pin gola’ means ‘overcast sky’ and ‘pin saf buka’ means
‘clear blue sky’. Which word in that language means ‘blue’?
(a) guda (b) buka (c) pin (d) saf
21. In a certain code language, ‘tim nac’ means ‘blue shirt’, ‘pit mit tim’ means ‘shirt and pant’ and ‘nac pit’ means ‘blue
pant’. Which word in that language means ‘and’?
(a) tim (b) pit (c) nac (d) mit
22. In a certain code language, ‘Pat Zoo Sim’ means ‘Eat Good Mangoes’. ‘Pus Sim Tim’ means ‘Mangoes and Sweets’
and ‘Tim Zoo Kit’ means ‘Purchase Good Sweets’. Which word in the language means ‘Good’?
(a) Zoo (b) Pus (c) Sim (d) Tim
23. In a certain code language, ‘kew xas huma deko’ means ‘she is eating apples’. ‘kew tepo qua’ means ‘she sells toys’ and
‘sut time deko’ means ‘I like apples’. Which words in the language mean ‘she’ and ‘apples’, in that order?
(a)‘xas’ and ‘deko’ (b) ‘deko’ and ‘tepo’ (c) ‘kew’ and ‘deko’ (d) ‘xas’ and ‘kew’
24. In a certain code, ‘they are fools’ means ‘plane is risky’, ‘we are wise’ means ‘train is fast’ and ‘wise never fools’
means ‘fast always risky’. Which of the following stands for ‘train’?
(a) they (b) we (c) never (d) fools
25. In a certain code language, ‘lim suk ta’ means ‘boys are clever’ and ‘pu ne ta’ means ‘boys and girls’. Which word in
that language means ‘boys’?
(a) lim (b) suk (c) ta (d) pu

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________

Type – V
Solved Examples
In this type of questions, few complete messages are given in the coded language and the code for a particular word or
sentence is asked.
Example: In a certain code, ‘289’ mean ‘read from paper’, ‘276’ means ‘tea from field’ and ‘85’ means ‘wall paper’.
Which of the following is the code for ‘paper’?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) Cannot be determined
Solution: From (a) and (c), 8= paper.
Hence, the answer is (b).
Exercise
1. In a certain code language, ‘246’ means ‘He is cool’, ‘653’ means ‘Cool and bright’ and ‘849’ means ‘India is hot’.
Then code for ‘is’ in that language would be
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8
2. In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘hot filter coffee’, ‘356’ means ‘very hot day’ and ‘589’ means ‘day and night’.
Which digit in that language means ‘very’?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 5
3. In a certain code, ‘721’ means ‘good college life’, ‘526’ means ‘you are good’ and ‘257’ means ‘life are good’. Which
digit stands for ‘you’ in the code?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (c) Cannot be determined
4. In a certain code, ‘357’ means ‘get me toy’, ‘843’ means ‘bring good toy’ and ‘746’ means ‘bring me water’. Which of
the following digits represents ‘good’ in that code?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) Data inadequate
5. In a certain code, ‘786’ means ‘bring me apple’, ‘958’ means ‘peel green apple’ and ‘645’ means ‘bring green fruit’,
which of the following is the code for ‘me’?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) None of these
6. In a certain code, ‘786’ means ‘study very hard’, ‘958’ means ‘hard work pays’ and ‘645’ means ‘study and work’.
Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) Cannot be determined
7. In a certain code, ‘37’ means ‘which class’ and ‘583’ means ‘caste and class’. What is the code for ‘caste’?
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) Either 5 or 3 (d) Either 5 or 8
8. In a certain code, ‘247’ means ‘spread red carpet,’ ‘256’ means ‘dust one carpet’, and ‘234’ means ‘roll red carpet’.
Which digit in that code means ‘dust’?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined
9. In a certain code language, ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’, ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’, and ‘436’ means ‘colour is fun’. Which
digit in that language means ‘fun’?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
10. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’, and ‘245’ means ‘white colour
chalk’. What digit in that code does mean ‘white’?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined

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11. In a certain code, ‘467’ means ‘leaves are green’, ‘485’ means ‘green is good’ and ‘639’ means ‘they are playing’.
Which digit stands for ‘leaves’ in that code?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 3
12. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘Boys are good’, ‘637’ means ‘Amar is good’, and ‘348’ means ‘Lata is bad’. Which
digit means ‘Amar’ in that code?
(a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
13. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘you are good’, ‘637’ means ‘we are bad’, and ‘358’ means ‘good and bad’. Which of the
following does represent ‘and’ in that code?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 3
14. In a certain code, ‘253’ means ‘books are old’, ‘546’ means ‘man is old’, ‘378’ means ‘buy good books’. What does
‘are’ mean in that code?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6
15. In a certain code, ‘678’ means ‘how are you’, ‘347’ means ‘how is daddy’, and ‘569’ means ‘you were wonderful’.
Which numerical in that language means ‘you’?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
16. In a certain code language, ‘743’ means ‘Mangoes are good’, ‘657’ means ‘Eat good food’ and ‘934’ means ‘Mangoes
are ripe’. Which digit means ‘ripe’ in that language?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) 7
17. In a certain code language, ‘134’ means ‘good and tasty’, ‘478’ means ‘see good pictures’, and ‘279’ means ‘pictures
are faint’. Which of the following numeral symbol stands for ‘see?
(a) 9 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) None of these
18 In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘bright little boy’, ‘145’ means ‘tall big boy’, and ‘637’ means ‘beautiful little
flower’. Which numeral in that language means ‘bright’?
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) None of these
19. In a certain code, ‘123’ means ‘speed and accident’, ‘345’ means ‘speed is cause’ and ‘146’ means ‘accident is effect’.
Which of the following numeral symbols stands for ‘cause’?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
20. In a certain code, ‘678’ means ‘how are they’, ‘347’ ‘how is life’, and ‘569’ means ‘they were wonderful’. Which
numeral in that language means ‘they’?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 3

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Coding and Decoding

Type 1
1 a 6 b 11 c 16 a 21 d
2 d 7 d 12 a 17 c 22 a
3 d 8 b 13 c 18 b 23 c
4 b 9 b 14 d 19 a 24 d
5 c 10 d 15 d 20 c

Type 2
1 c 6 d 11 b 16 c 21 c
2 d 7 a 12 d 17 c 22 d
3 c 8 b 13 b 18 a 23 d
4 a 9 c 14 a 19 d 24 a
5 b 10 a 15 b 20 a 25 B

Type 3
1 c 3 d 5 d 7 c 9 B
2 c 4 c 6 d 8 c 10 B

Type 4
1 b 6 b 11 d 16 c 21 D
2 d 7 d 12 b 17 b 22 A
3 d 8 d 13 d 18 c 23 C
4 c 9 a 14 a 19 d 24 B
5 c 10 a 15 c 20 d 25 C

Type 5
1 c 6 c 11 c 16 c
2 b 7 d 12 b 17 d
3 a 8 d 13 c 18 d
4 c 9 b 14 a 19 c
5 c 10 b 15 b 20 a

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Series
Generally, two kinds of series are asked in the examination. One is series based on numbers and the other is the series based on
the letters of English alphabet.
In questions based on series, some numbers of letters are arranged in a particular sequence. You are to decipher that particular
sequence of number or letters and on the basis of that deciphered sequence, find out the next of the series. Although there is no
limit of logics which can be used to build a series but here are some important examples given which highlight the type of series
asked in the examination.
Number Series
(1) Where the difference between two consecutive terms involve various arithmetic operations.

i 2, 5, 8, 11, …
The common difference is +3.

ii 33, 25, 17, 9, …

The common difference is -8.

iii 4, 4, 8, 24, …
Here the series is  1, 2,3,...

iv 52, 26, 13, …

The series is based on the rule that every number is divided by 2.

(2) Where the difference between two consecutive numbers are in some progression, i.e. AP or GP.

I 7, 18, 34, 55, …

Here the difference between the terms is +11, +16, +21, which are in AP

Ii 8, 9, 12, 21, 48, 129, …

Here the difference between the terms is +1, +3, +9, +27, +81.
Here these terms are in GP.

(3) Where series numbers differ by each other by perfect squares of cubes or they themselves are perfect squares of
cubes.

i. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, …

The common difference between the terms of the series is + (1)2 + (2)2 + (3)2 + (4)2

Ii 7, 8, 16, 43, 107, … 107 43 16 8 7

The common difference between the terms of the series is - (4)3 - (3)3 - (2)3 - (1)3

Iii 1, 4, 9, 16, …
The terms of the series are

Iv 27, 64, 125, 216, …

The terms of the series are
(3)3, (4)3, (5)3, (6)3

Letter Series
The letter series are almost based on the similar patterns as in case of numbers, except the numbers are replaced by the letters in
these series.

Important points

1. Letters in the alphabet are represented by following numbers in the series.

A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4 E→5 F→6 G→7
H→8 I→9 J→10 K→11 L→12 M→13 N→14
O→15 P→16 Q→17 R→18 S→19 T→20 U→21
V→22 W→23 X→24 Y→25 Z→26

2. The numbering continues in the following manner:

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
to to
A  Z  A
i.e. If we want to know the alphabet representing 28, then it will be B, as Z=26, A=27, B=28 here.

Example 1: Which of the following letters would come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
C, F, I, L, O,?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Solution: Here, each letter differs by three places in the forward direction. Therefore, next letter after O would be R.
Hence, (c) is the answer.

Example 2: Which of the following letters would come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
AD, EI, JO, PV, ?
(a) VD (b) WC (c) WD (d) VE
Solution: The first letter of subsequent groups have a difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively, whereas the second
letter of the subsequent groups has a difference of 5, 6 and 7 places respectively. Therefore, on following the
same pattern, we get ‘WD’ as the next term which would replace the question mark.

Example 3: Find the term which would replace the question mark?
XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET,?
(a) GFU (b) FUG (c) FZU (d) FGU
Solution: Here first two terms of every group of letters are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the third letter of
each group is again in forward continuation, i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the question mark would
be FGU. Hence, (d) is the answer.

Exercise – Number Series

Directions for question 1 to 50: In this type of question, usually a sequence of figures is given. The candidate should carefully
read the sequence and find out the particular order followed by the numbers. And then, based on the deciphered pattern, mark the
right option which should come in place of the question mark.

1. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912

(a) 3610 (b) 1644 (c) 1026 (d) 516

2. 2, 7, 10, 11, 22, 17, 46, 25,?

(a) 58 (b) 69 (c) 86 (d) 94

3. 14, 316, 536,764, ?

(a) 981 (b) 1048 (c) 8110 (d) 9100

4. 11, 30, 22, 41, 33, ?

(a) 44 (b)52 (c) 56 (d) 60

5. 7, 11, 16, 23,25, 35, ?

(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 42

6. 4, 16, 36, ?, 100, 144

(a) 72 (b) 68 (c) 81 (d) 64

7. 2, 5, 10, 17, ?
(a) 34 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 26

8. 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, ?

(a) 14 (b) 19 (c) 15 (d) 21

9. 11, 13, 17, 19, ? 25, 29

(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 20 (d) 22

10. 2, 5, 7, 12, 15, 17, 22, ?

(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28

11. 4, 25, 64, 121, 196, ?

(a) 384 (b) 256 (c) 225 (d) 289

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

12. 0, 1, 8, 27, 64, ?

(a) 91 (b) 125 (c) 128 (d) 256

13. 5, 14, 27, 44, 65, ?

(a) 88 (b) 90 (c) 109 (d) 130

14. 0, 5, 22, 57, 116, ?

(a) 205 (b) 216 (c) 192 (d) 207

15. 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, ?

(a) 21 (b) 19 (c) 26 (d) 24

16. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

(a) 44 (b) 40 (c) 36 (d) 42

17. 512, 64, 16, 8, 8, 16, ?

(a) 17 (b) 32 (c) 40 (d) 64

18. 3, 4, 10, 33, 136,?

(a) 240 (b) 430 (c) 685 (d) 820

19. 6, 6, 9, 18, 45, ?

(a) 67.5 (b) 81 (c) 54 (d) 135

20. 7, 24, 75, 228, ?

(a) 684 (b) 686 (c) 688 (d) None of these

21. 17, 17, 68, 612, ?

(a) 9792 (b) 9700 (c) 9820 (d) None of these

22. 1, 4, 12, 30, ?

(a) 60 (b) 62 (c) 64 (d) 68

23. 1, 2, 5, 10, 13, ?

(a) 16 (b) 26 (c) 39 (d) 29

24. 5, 15, 35, 75, 155, ?

(a) 275 (b) 300 (c) 310 (d) 315

25. 84, 64, 46, 30, ?

(a) 14 (b)16 (c) 18 (d) 20

26. 17, 21, 29, 45, ?

(a) 49 (b) 53 (c) 61 (d) 77

27. 4, 7, 12, 19, ?

(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28

28. 2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 8, 8, ?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16

29. 3, 9, 36, 180, ?

(a) 1080 (b) 900 (c) 720 (d) None of these

30. 8, 8, 10, ?, 20, 28

(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) None of these

31. 1, 8, 9, 64, 25, 216, ?, ?

(a) 49, 64 (b) 343, 64 (c) 49, 512 (d) 343, 512

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

32. 4, 13, 53, 160, 641, ?

(a) 1923 (b) 1282 (c) 2564 (d) None of these

33. 81, 72, 63, ?, 45

(a) 56 (b) 54 (c) 52 (d) None of these

34. 7, 13, 21, ?, 43, 57

(a) 23 (b) 27 (c) 31 (d) 35

35. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143

(a) 63 (b) 77 (c) 69 (d) 81

36. 0, 7, 26, ?, 124, 215

(a) 51 (b) 37 (c) 63 (d) 16

37. 3, 8, 35, 48, ?, 120

(a)72 (b) 64 (c) 80 (d) 99

38. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132

(a) 58 (b) 42 (c) 90 (d) 120

39. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ? 17
(a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 10 (d) 12

40. 9, 11, 15, 23, ?

(a) 25 (b) 21 (c) 39 (d) 31

41. 4, 5, 6, 9, 8, 13, 10, ?

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 17

42. 8, 15, 28, 53, ?

(a) 98 (b) 106 (c) 100 (d) 102

43. 0, 6, 20, 42, ?

(a) 64 (b) 72 (c) 80 (d) 84

44. 16, 54, 495, ?

(a) 780 (b) 802 (c) 816 (d) 824

45. 1, 3, 7, 25, 103, ?

(a) 526 (b) 521 (c) 515 (d) 509

46. 4, 28, 7, 21, 3, 18, ?

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 21 (d) 15

47. 4, 11, 7, 14, 10, 17, ?

(a) 24 (b) 13 (c) 20 (d) 21

48. 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

(a) 56 (b) 66 (c) 76 (d) 94

49. 5, 9, 15, ?, 33, 45, 59

(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 23

50. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 17, ?

(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 26

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Exercise – Letter Series
Directions for questions 1 to 25: Find the choice that would replace the question mark in the uestion.

1. A, C, E, G, I, ?
(a) H (b) J (c) K (d) L
2. Y, W, U, S, Q, ?
(a) A (b) P (c) O (d) B
3. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(a) F (b) K (c) G (d) E
4. A, H, N, S, W, ?
(a) A (b) Y (c) B (d) Z
5. C, F, K, R, ?
(a) N (b) O (c) B (d) D
6. X, A, D, G, J, ?
(a) N (b) O (c) M (d) P
7. T, V, Z, B, F, ?
(a) G (b) H (c) K (d) J
8. Z, X, U, S, P, ?
(a) L (b) M (c) N (d) K
9. Q, V, Y, A, ?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) F
10. H, L, P, T, X, ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
11. AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?
(a) VE (b) UE (c) EU (d) EV
12. AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
(a) SX (b) RY (c) SY (d) TX
13. LO, IL, FI, CF, ?
(a) ZB (b) AB (c) ZC (d) ZO
14. AH, DL, GP, JT, ?
(a) MY (b) NX (c) MX (d) NY
15. AF, EJ, IN, OT, ?
(a) UX (b) UY (c) UN (d) UZ
16. TYU, NSO, HMI, ?
(a) AGC (b) CGC (c) GBC (d) BGC
17. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?
(a) VZZ (b) ZVX (c) VWZ (d) VZX
18. CIR, GMV, KQZ, OUD, ?
(a) YSH (b) SHR (c) SYH (d) SRY
19. KTE, SBM, AJU, IRC, ?
(a) KZQ (b) ZRL (c) QZK (d) LYJ
20. YZX, BAZ, DCB, FED, ?
(a) GHF (b) FGH (c) FFG (d) HGF
21. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
(a) HDC (b) CHI (c) HCD (d) DIC
22. HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ?
(a) MOR (b) PNS (c) PMR (d) NPT
23. YAL, TCP, OET, JGX, ?
(a) EIC (b) FIA (c) EJD (d) EIB
24. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(a) ELS (b) FMR (c) GKS (d) FLR
25. ATL, BUM, CVN, DWO, ?
(a) EZP (b) EYQ (c) EFP (d) EXP

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Series
1 A 11 D 21 A 31 C 41 D
2 D 12 B 22 D 32 D 42 D
3 D 13 B 23 B 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 A 24 D 34 C 44 D
5 A 15 C 25 B 35 A 45 B
6 D 16 D 26 D 36 C 46 B
7 D 17 D 27 D 37 D 47 B
8 B 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 D
9 B 19 D 29 A 39 B 49 D
10 A 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 B

Letter Series
1 C 6 C 11 D 16 D 21 C
2 C 7 B 12 C 17 C 22 C
3 A 8 C 13 C 18 C 23 D
4 D 9 C 14 C 19 C 24 D
5 B 10 B 15 D 20 D 25 D

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Syllogism
Directions for questions 1 to 10: You are required to choose one from among the given four diagrams– (a), (b), (c) and (d) –
that best illustrates a relationship among the three given classes in the questions.

1. Eatables, Meat, Venison 2. Criminals, Thieves, Murderers

3. Bachelors, Doctors, Husbands 4. Food, Spaghetti, Oven

5. Food Rice, Belt 6. Beverages, Liquor, Juice

7. Matter, Solid, Gas 8. Chair, Table, Furniture

9. Cutlery, Spoon, Chair 10. Croissants, Baked eatables, Brown bread

Directions for questions 11 to 50: In each question, two statements are followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to take
the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known, facts. Read the conclusions are
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Mark the answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if both I and II follow.
(d) if none follows.

11. Statements: Some clouds are thunder.

All clouds are rain.
Conclusions: I. Those clouds which are not thunder, are also rain.
II. Those clouds which are not thunder, are not necessarily rain.

12. Statements: Some tins are pens.

Some pens are rods.
Conclusions: I. No rod is tin.
II. Some tins are rods.

13. Statements: Some sabres are bombs.

Key is a sabre.
Conclusions: I. Some bombs are. sabres
II. Some keys are. bombs.

14. Statements: All lenses are horns.

No horn is colourful.
Conclusions: I. Some lenses are colourful.
II. No lens is colourful.

15. Statements: All flirts are smart.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
All smart are rotten.
Conclusions: I. All rotten are flirts.
II. All smarts are flirts.

16. Statements: All puppies are dogs.

All dogs are trained.
Conclusions: I. Some trained are puppies.
II. All trained are puppies.

17. Statements: All advocates are obese.

Some obese are priests.
Conclusions: I. Some advocates are priests.
II. Some priests are advocates.

18. Statements: Some psychiatrists are singers.

All singers are tall.
Conclusions: I. Some psychiatrists are tall.
II. All psychiatrists are tall.

19. Statements: All coins are crows.

Some crows are pens.
Conclusions: I. No pen is coin.
II. Some coins are pens.

20. Statements: All magicians are dumb.

Some magicians are educated.
Conclusions: I. Some dumb are magicians.
II. Some educated are dumb.

21. Statements: All cots are tablets.

Some chimps are tablets.
Conclusions: I. Some cots are chimps.
II. Some chimps are cots.

22. Statements: All willows are nettles.

Some trees are willows.
Conclusions: I. Some trees are nettles.
II. Some trees are not nettles.

23. Statements: Some dolls are blink.

All dolls are burble.
Conclusions: I. Those dolls which are not blink, are also burble.
II. Those dolls are not blink, are not necessarily burble.

24. Statements: Some fools are intelligent.

Some fools are great.
Conclusions: I. Some intelligent are great.
II. All great are intelligent.

25. Statements: Some pumpkins are fat.

Some fat are purple.
Conclusions: I. Some fat are purple and pumpkins.
II. Some purple are pumpkins.

26. Statements: Some bosses are punctual.

Some punctual are genial.
Conclusions: I. No genial is a boss.
II. Some bosses are genial.

27. Statements: Some sea-men are foolish.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Some sea-men are illiterate.
Conclusions: I. All illiterate are foolish.
II. No sea-men are foolish.

28. Statements: All boys are heroes.

Sandy is a hero.
Conclusions: I. Sandy is a boy.
II. All heroes are boys.

29. Statements: All great scientists are college dropouts.

Some criminals are college dropouts.
Conclusions: I. Some criminals are great scientists.
II. All great scientists are criminals.

30. Statements: Sampras is a good sportsman.

Sportsmen are strong.
Conclusions: I. All strong persons are sportsmen.
II. Sampras is strong.

31. Statements: All of my classmates are intelligent.

Ravinder is not intelligent.
Conclusions: I. Ravinder is not my classmate.
II. Ravinder needs to sharpen up his brains.

32. Statements: All hippopotamus have skin.

Rojo is a hippopotamus.
Conclusions: I. Rojo has skin.
II. Animals other than hippopotamus do not have skin.

33. Statements: Some sunglasses are blue.

Ray-Ban is a sunglass.
Conclusions: I. Some blue are sunglasses.
II. Some Ray-Bans are blue.

34. Statements: Some men are broadminded.

Broad-minded people are educated.
Conclusions: I. All educated people are broadminded.
II. Some men are educated.

35. Statements: Some pious people are priests.

Joseph is a priest.
Conclusions: I. Some priests are pious.
II. Joseph is pious.

36. Statements: All laborers are hard-working.

No hard-working person is clumsy.
Conclusions: I. Some laborers are clumsy.
II. No laborer is clumsy.

37. Statements: All women are darlings.

No darling is weird.
Conclusions: I. No woman is weird.
II. No weird is darling.

38. Statements: All Labradors are kennels.

No kennel is shy.
Conclusions: I. No labrador is shy.
II. All shy are labradors.

39. Statements: All young men are open minded.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
No open minded man is stingy.
Conclusions: I. No young men is open minded.
II. No young man is stingy.

40. Statements: All people are tall.

No tall one is good.
Conclusions: I. Some people are good.
II. Those people who are not tall are good.

41. Statements: No mat is cat.

Some cubes are mats.
Conclusions: I. No cube is mat.
II. Some cats are cubes.

42. Statements: Some skirts are beautiful.

No beautiful is black.
Conclusions: I. Some skirts are black.
II. Some black are beautiful.

43. Statements: Some bills are parcels.

No parcel is packed.
Conclusions: I. Some bills are packed.
II. No bill is packed.

44. Statements: No wizard are vote.

Some wizards are politicians.
Conclusions: I. Politicians, who are not wizards, are vote.
II. Some politicians are wizards.

45. Statements: Some boys are thin.

No thin one is round.
Conclusions: I. Some boys are round.
II. Some boys are not round.

46. Statements: All bubbles are dazzles.

Some dazzles are crystals.
Conclusions: I. Some crystals are not dazzles.
II. All dazzles are not bubbles.

47. Statements: Many brigadiers are rock climbers.

All rock climbers are civilians.
Conclusions: I. Some brigadiers are civilians.
II. No rock climber is a brigadier.

48. Statements: Most comedians are folk singers.

Some folk singers are women.
Conclusions: I. Some women are folk singers.
II. Some comedians are women.

49. Statements: No monkey is a donkey.

Rajan is a monkey.
Conclusions: I. Rajan is not a donkey.
II. All monkeys are not Rajan.

50. Statements: All professors are gypsies.

Some bankers are professors.
Conclusions: I. All gypsies are bankers.
II. Some bankers are not gypsies.

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Directions for questions 510to 65: In each questions, three statements 1, 2 and 3 are followed by four conclusions I, II, III, IV.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then
decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark out an appropriate
answer choice that you think is correct.

51. Statements: 1. All bibs are red.

2. All red are flowers.
3. No followers are tablets.
Conclusions: I. Some flowers are bibs.
II. No tables are bibs.
III. Some red are bibs.
IV. Some tables are red.
(a) I, II and III follow (b) II, III and IV follow
(c) Only I and II follow (d) Only I and III follow

52. Statements: 1. Some books are bibs.

2. All biscuits are pencils.
3. No bibs are biscuits.
Conclusions: I. Some books are not biscuits.
II. Some bibs are not pencils.
III. Some books are not pencils.
IV. Some pencils are not bibs.
(a) I, and VI follow (b) II, and IV follow
(c) I and III follow (d) II and III follow

53. Statements: 1. All big are novels.

2. Some novels are willows.
3. No willows is pencil.
Conclusions: I. Some willow are big.
II. Some novels are pencils.
III. No willow is big.
IV. Some novels are not pencils.
(a) I, and either II or VI follow (b) I, III, and IV follow
(c) I, II and III follow (d) Either I, or III and IV follows

54. Statements: 1. Some whites are Canadians.

2. Some Americans are whites.
3. No Americans is a black.
Conclusions: I. Some Canadians are Americans.
II. Some whites are blacks.
III. Some blacks are not whites.
IV. Some whites are not blacks.
(a) I and VI follow (b) II, and III follow
(c) Only III follow (d) Only IV follows

55. Statements: 1. All knots are tight.

2. No collar is tight.
3. Some bush-shirts are knots.
Conclusions: I. Some bush-shirts are collars.
II. Some bush-shirts are tight.
III. Some collars are not bush-shirts.
IV. Some bush-shirts are not collars.
(a) Only II and III follow (b) Only II and VI follow
(c) Either I or IV follows (d) Only IV follows

56. Statements: 1. All crooked are spades.

2. All big jaded.
3. Some big are crooked.
Conclusions: I. Some jaded are crooked.
II. Some spades are crooked.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
III. Some crooked are jaded.
IV. Some spades are big.
(a) I, II or III follow (b) II, III, and IV follow
(c) I, III and IV follow (d) All follow

57. Statements: 1. Some people are nice.

2. No foreigners is Canadian.
3. Some foreigners are people.
Conclusions: I. Some foreigners are nice.
II. Some people are Canadians.
III. Some foreigners are not nice.
IV. Some people are not Canadians.
(a) Either I or II, and II follow (b) Either I or III, and IV follow
(c) Either II or IV, and I follow (d) Either II or IV, and III follow

58. Statements: 1. All goats are boxes.

2. Some goats are flowers.
3. No chocolates are boxes.
Conclusions: I. Some flowers are chocolates.
II. No goats are chocolates.
III. Some flowers are boxes.
IV. Some flowers are not chocolates.

(a) II,III and VI follow (b) I,III, and IV follow

(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III and either I or IV follow

59. Statements: 1. Some Indians are not Americans.

2. All Americans are Asians.
3. Some Asians are Americans.
Conclusions: I. Some Indians are not Asians.
II. Some Indians are not Americans.
III. All Americans are Americans.
IV. Some Americans are Indians.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follow (d) Either II or IV follows

60. Statements: 1. Some candies are papers.

2. All papers are vanillas.
3. Some vanillas are trams.
Conclusions: I. Some candies are trams.
II. Some papers are trams.
III. Some trams are papers.
IV. Some vanillas are candies.
(a) Only II and III follow (b) I and IV follow
(c) Only IV follows (d) II, III or IV follow

61. Statements: 1. No foods are mangoes.

2. No oranges are potatoes.
3. All mangoes are oranges.
Conclusions: I. Some foods are not oranges.
II. Some oranges are not foods
III. No mangoes are potatoes.
IV. Some oranges are foods.
(a) Only III and I follow (b) Only II and IV follow
(c) Either II or IV follow (d) Only II and III follow

62. Statements: 1. Some cots are docks.

2. All cots are clocks.
3. No frocks are clocks.
Conclusions: I. All cots are clocks.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
II. No frocks are cots.
III. Some docks are not frocks.
IV. Some docks are frocks.
(a) Either III or IV follow (b) Only I and II follow
(c) II and III follow (d) I, II and either III or IV follow

63. Statements: 1. Some tumblers are capsules.

2. No capsules are medicines.
3. All medicines are syrups.
Conclusions: I. Some tumblers are not medicines.
II. No medicines are capsules.
III. Some syrups are medicines,
IV. Some syrups are not capsules.
(a) I, II or III follow (b) I, III, and IV follow
(c) II, III and IV follow (d) All follow

64. Statements: 1. All coats are paints.

2. No paints are shirts.
3. Some shirts are vests.
Conclusions: I. Some vests are shirts.
II. Some coats are shirts.
III. No coat is a shirt.
IV. Some vests are not coats.
(a) I, II or III follow (b) I, and IV follow
(c) I and III follow (d) I, III and IV follow

65. Statements: 1. All chimps are monkeys.

2. No monkeys are mammals.
3. Some horses are mammals.
Conclusions: I. Some horses are not chimps.
II. Some horses are not monkeys.
III. Some horses are not monkeys.
IV. No chimp is a mammal.
(a) I, II or IV follow (b) II, III and IV follow
I II and IV follow (d) I, II and IV follow

Answers
1 a 11 a 21 d 31 a 41 d 51 a 61 d
2 b 12 d 22 a 32 a 42 d 52 a 62 c
3 d 13 a 23 a 33 a 43 d 53 d 63 d
4 c 14 b 24 d 34 b 44 b 54 d 64 d
5 c 15 d 25 d 35 a 45 b 55 b 65 d
6 b 16 a 26 d 36 b 46 c 56 d
7 b 17 d 27 d 37 c 47 a 57 b
8 b 18 a 28 d 38 a 48 a 58 a
9 c 19 d 29 d 39 b 49 c 59 d
10 b 20 c 30 b 40 d 50 d 60 c

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Miscellaneous Analytical Test

1. If the second half of the following alphabets is arranged in the reverse order, which letter will be ninth letter to the right of the
ninth letter counting from the left end?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) I (b) F (c) V (d) W (e) None of these

2. If the first half of the alphabets is written in the reverse order, which letters will be exactly midway between the ninth letter
from the left and the tenth letter from the right end?
(a) B (b) A (c) N (d) D (e) None of these

3. If the second half of the following alphabets is written in the reverse order, which will be the tenth letter to the left of ninth
letter counting from your right end?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) I (b) C (c) J (d) H (e) None of these

4. How many 9’s are there in the following number series which are immediately preceded by 3 and followed by 6 questions?
39693939396363956956939639
(a) Nil (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 (e) None of these

5. In the following number series, how many 8’s are there which are immediately preceded by a number which does not divide it
but followed by a number which divides it?
2 8 2 8 3 8 5 8 8 5 3 2 8 2 3 8 47 7 1 5 8 3 8 2 8 6
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these

Direction: Question from 6 to 8 are based on the following signals (figures, letters and signs)
A B @ * $ d 1 2 f G h 9 Z U V n M N Q O ? £ 4 8

6. Out of the five alternatives given below. four are similar on the basis of their position in the above series and thus from a
group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) *1 G (b) d @ f (c) 2 $ B (d) V N ? (e) N ? 8

7. In the following series, what should come in place of the question mark?
1n£, 2NO, fOM, ?, h82
(a) G£Z (b) G£9 (c) 3&Z (d) G?Z (e) None of these

8. If the first half part in the above series is written in reverse order, then which signal will be the eleventh to the left of the 21 st
signal counting from left?
(a) G (b) h (c) * (d) @ (e) None of these

9. In the following series, how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5, then followed by odd numbers
and then also followed by even numbers?
12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21,45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56
(a) Zero (b) Four (c) One (d) Two (e) Five

10. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SEQUENTIAL which have as many letters between them (from both sides)
as are in the alphabets?
(a) Zero (b) Four (c) One (d) Two (e) Five

11. How many pairs of letters are there in the word CONTEMPORARY, which have as many letters between them in the word
as in the alphabets?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None of these

12. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth and the eleventh letters of the word the fifth, the
sixth and the eleventh letters of the word COURAGEOUSLY which of the following will be third letter of that word? If no such
word can be made, given ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, given ‘M’ as the answer?
(a) O (b) A (c) G (d) X (e) H

Direction: Answer the question from 13 to 17 based on the letter number sequence given below:
EKM3P5 7RTVZ9DIFQX46GHI28W

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13. Which of the following letters/numbers will be seventh to the left of the sixteenth letter/Number from the left end?
(a) W (b) T (c) J
(d) There is no such letter/number in the above sequence (e) none of these

14. If the first twelve letters/numbers in the above sequence are written in the reverse order, which of the following will be to the
left of eight of the thirteenth letter/number from the right end?
(a) 3 (b) T (c) R (d) P (e) None of these

15. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the seventh letter/number from the left end and the ninth
letter/number from the right end of the above sequence?
(a) D (b) 9 (c) 1 (d) There is no such letter/number
(e) None of these

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regard to their position in the above sequence. Which is the one that
does not belong to the other four?
(a) 9T (b) Q6 (c) H4 (d) R9 (e) 4F

17. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter-number aeries with reference to the above
sequence?
K3, ST, ZF, ?
(a) XJ (b) XH (c) 42 (d) QH (e) None of these

18. How many such letters are there in the word ‘CREATIVE’ which has as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabet?
(a) 1 (b 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these

19. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the fourth, the seventh and the eleventh letters of the word
‘INTERPRETATION’, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made,
given ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed, given ‘X’ as the answer.
(a) T (b) I (c) R (d) X (e) M

Directions: Answer the following questions based on the letter number sequence given below:
B3 KG5PD79ERJIMT6ZHQ3W2A
20. Which of the following letters is exactly in the middle between the ninth letter/number from the left end and seventh
letter/number from the right end?
(a) I (b) R (c) M (d) J (e) None of these

21. Which of the following letters is in the seventh position to the right of the eighteenth position from the right end?
(a) I (b) K (c) J (d) M (e) None of these

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way with regard to their positions in the above sequence. Which is one that
does not belong to the other four?
(a) 3GD (b) IR7 (c) M6Q (d) 6HW (e) P7R

23. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter/number series with reference to the sequence?
3GP, D9R, JM6, ?
(a) ZQW (b) ZHW (c) Z82 (d) ZQ2 (e) None of these

24. If the first twelve letter/numbers in the above sequence are written in the reverse order, which of the following letter/number
will be the 7th letter/number to the left of 9th letter/number from your right?
(a) K (b) P (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) None of these

25. How many pairs of letters in word “DABBLE” have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabets?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these

26. Which letter will be the 5th from right if the first and second, the third and the fourth and so on are interchanged from the
word COMPANIONATE?
(a) I (b) O (c) A (d) N (e) None of these

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27. Which letter will be the 6th to the right of third letter from left of the letter which is exactly in the middle of the letter in the
series given below?
A B C D E Z Y X W V Q R S T U F G H I J K L M N O P A
(a) R (b) Q (c) F (d) G (e) None of these

Direction: Answer the question based on the following alphabets:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
28. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following sequence?
BZA, DYE, GXI, KWM, ?
(a) OVT (b) NUQ (c) PVQ (d) QVA (e) None of these

29. If you pick up from the alphabet, the sixth and the fourteenth letters from your right and then pick up the fifth and the
twentieth letters from your left and form a meaningful word, what is the first letter of that word?
(a) M (b) E (c) No meaningful word can be formed
(d) More than one word can be formed (e) none of these

30. If every letter beginning from ‘B’ is replaced by consecutive odd number beginning with 3, which number/letter will be third
to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right question?
(a) M (b) S (c) 23 (d) 11 (e) None of these

31. If the alphabet is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting with Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly
in the middle in the remaining letters of alphabets?
(a) M (b) O (c) M or O (d) N (e) None of these

32. How many even numbers are there in the following series of numbers, each of which is immediately preceded by odd
number, but not immediately followed by an even number?
5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 5 3 2 9 8 7 3 5
(a) Nil (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) None of these

33. Vijay is ranked 14th in a class of 43. What is his rank from the bottom?
(a) 30th (b) 28 th (c) 29th (d) 31st (d) None of these

34. Jaya ranks 5th class of 53. What is her rank from the bottom in the class?
(a) 49th (b) 48th (c) 47th (d) 50th (e) None of these

35. Dilip’s position from the left in a row of students is 10 th and Jagdish’s position is 20th from the right. Both of them
interchange their positions and Jagidsh becomes 23rd from the right. How many students are there in the row?
(a) 33 (b) 44 (c) 42 (d) 41 (e) 32

36. Jaya’s position from the left in a row of students is 12th and Rekha’s position from the right is 20th. After interchanging their
positions, Jaya becomes 22nd from the left. How many students are there in the row?
(a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 41 (d) 34 (e) None of these

37. Samant remembers that his brother’s birthday is after fifteenth but before eighteenth of Feb, whereas his sister remembers
that her brother’s birthday is after sixteenth but before nineteenth of Feb. On which date in Feb. is Samant’s brother’s birthday?
(a) 16th (b) 18th (c) 19th (d) 17th (e) None of these

38. Rohan ranked eleventh from the top and twenty seventh from the bottom among the students who passed the annual
examinations in a class. If the number of students who failed in the exams was 12, how many students did appear the
examinations?
(a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

39. Amit ranks 12th from the top and Ravi is 15th from bottom in a class of 35 students. How many students are these between
Amit and Ravi?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these

40. Ajay is positioned 8th from the left and Amit is positioned 9th from the right in a row of 15 students. How many students are
there in between them?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 0 (e) Cannot be
determined

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41. How many pairs of letters in the word are as far from each other as they are in the alphabets in the word ‘RELATIONSHIP’?
(a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4

42. How many sets of two letters have as many letters between them as they have in the alphabetical order in the word
“PRUDENT”?
(a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4

43. If Rahul finds that he is 12th from the right in line of boys and 4th from the left, how many boys should be added to the line
such that there are 28 boys in the line?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 20 (d) 13 (e) None of these

44. From the word ‘LAPAROSCOPY’, how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the
order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these

45. If in the word ‘DISTURBANCE’, the first letter is interchanged with the last letter, the second letter is interchanged with the
tenth letter and so on, which letter would come after the letter T in the newly formed word?
(a) I (b) U (c) N (d) S (e) T

Direction 46-48: Questions from (46-48) are based on the letters used in the word ‘DISOBEDIENCE’.

46. How many sets of two letters are as much apart from each other as they are in the alphabetical order?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these

47. Is it possible to form a popular word with 2nd, 6th, 10th, 11th and 12th letters of the word? If such word can be formed, which
would be the fourth letter of that word?
(a) I (b) E (c) N (d) C (e) No word can be
formed

48. If the word was to be written in reverse order, which letter would be exactly in the middle of 9th letters from the right end and
8th letter from the left end?
(a) D (b) I (c) E (d) B (e) None of these

49. In a class, the names of boys are arranged alphabetically. Gourav and Saurabh have 14th boys between them. If the Gourav is
37th from the bottom, Sourabh would be at what position from the top?
(a) 25th (b) 28th (c) 27th (d) can’t be determined (e) None of these

50. How many 6’s in the series are preceded by 5 but not followed by 9?
568676565685965696865568659569568
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) None of these

51. Which letter will be tenth to the left of the fifteenth letter from the left end of the following sequences?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) E (b) F (c) G (d) H (e) None of these
Answers

1 C 11 E 21 A 31 D 41 A 51 A
2 B 12 D 22 B 32 D 42 C
3 D 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 D
4 B 14 C 24 C 34 A 44 B
5 C 15 B 25 E 35 E 45 D
6 B 16 D 26 A 36 C 46 E
7 A 17 E 27 D 37 D 47 D
8 D 18 C 28 C 38 B 48 A
9 D 19 E 29 A 39 A 49 D
10 B 20 A 30 E 40 D 50 D

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Family Tree
Directions (1-2)
A, C, D, E, F and G are six members of a family. A is father of C but C is not his son. D is sibling of C. E is D’s brother-in-law.
F is G’s grandson. G is D’s mother.
1. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) either (4) or (3)
2. D is:
(a) F’s uncle (b) C’s sister (c) G’s grandchild (d) Either (a) or (b)

Directions (3-8)
There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu, Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12 members. There are few married couples
in the family and none of the grand-children are married. Sunil is married into the family. Rohan, Mahesh and Jatin have a
nephew Dipesh who is the only son of Rashmi. Ravi is the paternal grandfather of Nisha. Ritu is the daughter-in-law of Shalini.
Renu is the first cousin of Dipesh. Shalini has only three grandchildren. Mahesh has two brothers and only one sister Rashmi and
a sister-in-law Divya. Dipesh’s only unmarried maternal uncle, Jatin is the brother-in-law of Sunil. Rohan is the paternal uncle of
Nisha. Ritu has two daughters one of whom is Nisha.
3. How many married couples are there in the second generation?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
4. Dipesh is:
(a) Mahesh’s son (b) Ravi’s grandson (c) Rohan’s son (d) Sunil’s nephew
5. Nisha is:
(a) Rohan’s daughter (b) Jatin’s mother (c) Renu’s cousin (d) None of these
6. Which one of the following is a married couple?
(a) Rohan and Ritu (b) Shalini and Mahesh (c) Renu and Sunil (d) Mahesh and Ritu
7. Rashmi is:
(a) Mahesh’s wife (b) Renu’s aunt (c) Nisha’s mother (d) None of these
8. Which of the following is true?
(a) Dipesh is Mahesh’s son (b) Ravi has only two married children
(c) Ravi is the paternal grandfather of Renu (d) None of these

Directions (9-13)
A family consists of seven members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V. There are three married couples. Q is an engineer and father of T. U is
grandfather of T and is a contractor. R is daughter-in-law of S who is a nurse by occupation, V is T’s uncle who is a professor.
There is one student, one housewife and one doctor in the family. The student is unmarried and R is the sister-in-law of Q.
9. Who is R’s husband?
(a) V (b) Q (c) T (d) R
10. Who is T’s aunt?
(a) S (b) P (c) R (d) None of these
11. What is the profession of P?
(a) Housewife (b) Nurse (c) Doctor (d) (a) or (c)
12. Which of the following are married couples?
(a) PV, QR,US (b) VT, PQ, US (c) PQ, RV and US (d) None of these
13. Which of the following is definitely a group of female members?
(a) PRST (b) PRT (c) PRS (d) None of these

Directions (14-18)
(i) There is a family of six persons – L, M, N, O, P and Q. They are professor, businessman, chartered accountant, bank manager,
engineer and medical representative, not in that order.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iii) O, the bank manager, is married to the lady professor.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M and brother of P.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter-in-law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered accountant.
(vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(viii) L is the grandmother of Q.
14. How is P related to Q?
(a) Brother (b) Sister
(c) Cousin (d) Either brother or sister
15. Which of the following is the profession of M?
(a) Professor (b)Chartered Accountant
(c) Businessman (d)Medical representative
16. Which of the following is the profession of L?
(a) Professor (b)Chartered Accountant
(c) Businessman (d) Medical representative
17. Which of the following is one of the couples?
(a) QO (b) OM (c) PL (d) None of these
18. How is O related to Q?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Uncle (d) Brother
19. In a family gathering, there are two males who are grandfathers and four males who are fathers. In the same gathering, there
are two females who are grandmothers. There is atleast one grandson or a granddaughter present in the gathering. There are two
husband-wife pairs in this group and four females who are mother. These can either be grandfather and a grandmother or a father
or mother. The single grandfather (whose wife is not Present) has two grandson and a son present. The single grandmother
(whose husband is not present) has two granddaughters and a daughter present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with
their spouse does not have any grandson or granddaughter present. What is the minimum number of people present in this
gathering.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16

Directions (20-22)
A, B, C, D, E and F are group of friends, There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer
in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the
group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E
is not a housewife.

20. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

(a) A and B (b) B and E (c) D and E (d) A and D
21. What is E’s profession?
(a) Engineer (b) Lawyer (c) Professor (d) Accountant
22. How many members of group are males?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d)Can’t be determined

Directions (23-26)
M, N, O, P, Q and R are two sets of triplets, not necessarily in the order given.
(i) None of the six is married to a sibling or to someone of the same sex.
(ii) Four of the six are male and two are female.
(iii) Neither set of triplets contains 3 siblings of the sameone of the same sex.
(iv) M and P are married to each other.
(v) N is Q’s only brother.
23. Who cannot be sister and brother?
(a) M and Q (b) O and R (c) P and R (d) R and Q
24. R must be a female if:
(a) M and Q are siblings (b) P and Q are sibling
(c) O is P’s sister-in-law (d) O is P’s brother-in-law
25. Which of the following statements must be false?
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) O is P’s sister-in-law (b) Q is P’s sister-in-law
(c) N is P’s brother-in-law (d) Q is P’s brother-in-law
26. If Q and R married to each other, which of the following must be true?
(a) O is a male (b) R is a male (c) M is a female (d) N is a female

Directions (27-31)
There are seven family members P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. four of whom are females. The family runs into three generations. The
family consist of two married couples. three daughters and two mothers. S is the brother of R. R is the brother of R. R is the
mother of U. V is Q’s son-in-law. P is the father of R.
27. Who is the husband of R?
(a) Q (b) U (c) V (d) T
28. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Q is the mother of R (b) T may be the sister of S
(c) V is the father of T (d) T and V are married
29. How many children does P have?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) either (b) or (c)
30. How is Q related to U?
(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Grandmother (d) Grandfather
31. T and U are:
(a) Sister (b) Aunt-niece (c) Uncle-niece (d) either (a) or (b)

Directions (32-35)
In a gathering of 5 siblings, viz., A, B, C, D and E and 3 friends P, Q and R, there are 2 married couples. Among three brothers
and two sister and friends, atleast one brother, one sister and a friend is single. There cannot be a married couple with in the
siblings. Both the brothers A and E are single. C and D are married to their boy friend and girl friend respectively, viz., P and R.
32. Whose gender among the following is not definitely known?
(a) D (b) B (c) R (d) All known
33. Who among the following is not single?
(a) D (b) B (c) Q (d) Both (b) and (c)
34. What percentage of gathering is males?
(a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 37.5% (d) Either (a) or (b)
35. If B is married to Q, then the percentage of females in the gathering is:
(a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 37.5% (d) Either (a) or (b)

Directions (36-39)
There is a family of six person P,Q,R,S,T and U. They are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher Salesman, Manager and Lawyer.
1 There are two married couples in the family.
2 The Manager is the grandfather of U, who is an Engineer.
3 R, the salesman, is married to the lady Teacher.
4 Q is the mother of U and T.
5 The Doctor S, is married to the manager.
36. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Data inadequate
37. How P is related to T?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Mother (d) Grandmother
38. What is the profession of P?
(a) Lawyer (b) Lawyer or Teacher (c) Manager (d) None
39. Who are the two married couples in the family?
(a) PQ and SR (b) RU and ST (c) PT and SR (d) PS and RQ

Directions (40-44)
Six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are Psychologist, Manager, Advocate, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer but not in the
same order.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(i) Doctor is the grandfather of F and he is a psychologist.
(ii) Manager D is married to A.
(iii) C, who is a jeweler, is married to Advocate.
(iv) B is the mother of F and E.
(v) There are two married couples in the family.
40. What is the profession of E?
(a) Manager (b) Psychologist (c) Engineer (d) Doctor
41. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d)Can`t be determined
42. How A is related to E?
(a) Father (b) Grandmother (c) Wife (d) Grandfather
43. What is the profession of A?
(a) Manager (b) Engineer (c) Advocate (d) None
44. Who are the two couples in the family?
(a) AD and CB (b) AB and CD (c) AE and DE (d) AC and BD

Directions (45-48)
In a family of six, there are three men L, M and N and three women R, S and T. The six are Architect, Lawyer, C.A., Professor,
Doctor and Engineer by profession but not in same order.
(i) There are two married couples and two unmarried persons.
(ii) N is not R’s husband.
(iii) The Doctor is married to a Lawyer. R’s grandfather is Professor.
(iv)M is not L’s son, nor he is an Architect or Professor.
(v) The Lawyer is T’s daughter-in-law.
(vi)N is T’s son and the Engineer’s father.
(vii) L is married to CA.
45. Which among the following is the correct pair of married couples?
(a) LS and NT (b) LR and NM (c) LT and NS (d) SM and NR
46. Who among the following are two unmarried person?
(a) Ls (b) LM (c) LT (d) RM
47. Who is an Architect?
(a) R (b) M (c) N (d) L
48. How T is related to M?
(a) Mother (b) Grandmother (c) Wife (d) Daughter

Directions (49-54)
(i) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are residing in the same apartment.
(ii) Out of six persons, three are Judges, one Painter and one Dramatist.
(iii) In the group there are two married couples. No male member in the group is a Painter or Dramatist.
(iv) U is in his old age and he lives with his married son R.
(v) Among the three Judges, husband of S, with whom his old aged father lives, earns more than T, who in turn gets more pay
than Q.
(vi) The wife of one of the Judges is a Dramatist.
(vii) The Painter earns less than her husband, who is turn earns least among the Judges.
(viii) The Dramatist earns least in the group.
49. Who is unmarried Judge in the group?
(a) Q (b) T
(c) R (d) Cannot be determined
50. Who is the husband of Dramatist?
(a) U (b) Q (c) T (d) R
51. Who among the following gets the highest salary?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
52. Who is the Dramatist in the group?
(a) P (b) R
(c) S (d) Cannot be determined
53. Which of the following is a pair of female members in the group?
(a) PQ (b) QR (c) RS (d) PS
54. Which of the following is one of the married couples?
(a) PT (b) QS (c) RS (d) PR

Directions (55-59)
(i) There is a family of six members A, B, C, D, E and F.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family and the family members represent three generations.
(iii) Each member has a distinct choice of a colour amongst green, yellow, black, red, white and pink.
(iv) No lady member likes either green or white.
(v) C, who likes black colour, is the daughter-in-law of E.
(vi) B is the brother of F and son of D and likes pink.
(vii) A is the grandmother of F and F does not like red.
(viii) The husband has a choice of green colour, his wife likes yellow.
55. Which of the following is true about F?
(a) Brother of B (b) Sister of B
(c) Either sister or brother of B (d) Daughter of C
56. Which of the following is one of the married couples?
(a) CD (b) DA (c) AC (d) Cannot be determined
57. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined
58. Which of the following is the colour combination of one of the couples?
(a) Yellow-Red (b) Green-Black (c) Red-Yellow (d) Yellow-Green
59. Which of the following is the colour preference of A?
(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Either Yellow or Red (d) Cannot be determined

Directions (60-64)
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family in which there are two married couples.
(ii) R, A male member, is neither lightest nor the heaviest in the family.
(iii) T is lighter than R, P, the grandmother in the family, is the lightest.
(iv) S is the sister of U. Both S and U are heavier than Q.
(v) Q is the mother of S, and heavier than T.
60. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) Data inadequate (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three
61. How is T related to U?
(a) Grandfather (b) Sister (c) Mother (d) Data inadequate
62. Which of the R related to S?
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Uncle (d) None of these
63. Which of the following is a pair of married couple?
(a) PS (b) QR (c) PQ (d) None of these
64. Who among the following will be at the second place, if all the members in the family are arranged in the descending order
of their weight?
(a) S (b) P (c) R (d) Data inadequate

Directions (65-69)
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. Out of six members, three are male members.
(ii) There are two married couples among them.
(iii) R is the father of P and U, and T is the mother of R.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(iv) P is the granddaughter of Q.
65. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
(a) TU (b) QS (c) TQ (d) PU
66. Who is the husband of T?
(a) Q (b) R (c) U (d) Data inadequate
67. How Q is related to U?
(a) Brother (b) Grandfather (c) Husband (d) Data inadequate
68. How is U related to P?
(a) Sister (b) Son (c) Daughter (d) None of these
69. Which of the following is a group of male members?
(a) QST (b) PUQ (c) SRU (d) QRU

Directions (70-73)
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a group of which three are female.
(ii) Three are two Engineers, two Lawyers, one Teacher and one Doctor in the group.
(iii) Q, T, P and R two married couples and no person in this group has the same profession.
(iv) T, a teacher with blue dress, is married to a male lawyer with brown dress.
(v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of wives is the same.
(vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green.
(vii) P is a male Engineer and his sister S is also an Engineer and Q is a Doctor.
70. What is the colour of U’s dress?
(a) Black (b) Green (c) Black or Green (d) Data inadequate
71. Which of the following is a pair of married ladies?
(a) QT (b) PR (c) TS (d) Data inadequate
72. Which of the following is a group of female members?
(a) QSU (b) QSR (c) QST (d) UST
73. Who is the wife of P?
(a) R (b) T (c) S (d) Q

Directions (74-78)
(i) There is a family of six persons representing three generations.
(ii) There are two married couples and both the wives are housewives and both have two children.
(iii) Pratap, the Lawyer, is father of Prashant and has two grandchildren.
(iv) Pooja, the Doctor, is the sister of the Teacher.
(v) Madhu’s daughter-in-law Sumati is married to a Teacher.
(vi) Bindu, granddaughter of one of the housewives, is studying in 9th standard.
74. What is the profession of Prashant?
(a) Student (b) Teacher
(c) Lawyer (d) Cannot be determined
75. Who among the following is one of the married couples?
(a) Pratap-Bindu (b) Madhu-Pratap
(c) Prashant-Bindu (d) Cannot be determined
76. Who are the children of Madhu?
(a) Pooja and Prashant (b) Sumati and Pooja
(c) Prashant and Sumati (d) Cannot be determined
77. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Doctor is the sister-in-law of the housewife.
(b) Pratap has two grandchildren.
(c) Madhu has one son and one daughter.
(d) Prashant has two children.
(e) Sumati has one son and one daughter.
78. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined

Directions (79-83)
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F six members of a family.
(ii) There are two married couples among them.
(iii) C is the mother of A and F
(iv) E is the father of D
(v) A is the grandson of B
(vi) The total number of female members in the family is three.
79. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couple?
(a) EF (b) BD (c) EB (d) AF
80. Who is the wife of E?
(a) B (b) C (c) F (d) Data inadequate
81. How is B related to F?
(a) Sister (b) Grandmother (c) Wife (d) Data inadequate
82. How is F related to A
(a) Brother (b) Daughter (c) Son (d) None of these
83. Which of the following is a group of female members?
(a) BDE (b) AFB (c) DCF (d) BCF

Directions (84-88)
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a club. Each of them plays a different game of Carrom, Chess, Cards, Table-Tennis,
Badminton, and Volleyball.
(ii) D plays Chess and is married to B.
(iii) One out of two couples in the group plays Cards and Table-Tennis.
(iv) No lady plays either Badminton or Volleyball or Chess.
(v) C plays Volleyball and F plays Badminton.
(vi) A is the brother of F
84. Who plays Table-Tennis?
(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) None of these
85. How is F related to E?
(a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Father (d) Brother-in-law
86. Which game does B play?
(a) Table – Tennis (b) Chess (c) Charrom (d) Data inadequate
87. Which of the following pairs is a couple?
(a) AE (b) BE (c) BF (d) DE
88. How many male members are there in the group?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Data inadequate

Directions (89-93)
(i) In a family of six persons, there are people from three generations. Each person has separate profession and also they like
different colours. There are two couples in the family.
(ii) Mohan is a C.A. and his wife is neither a Doctor nor likes green colour.
(iii) Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a Teacher.
(iv) Mohini is mother-in-law of savita and she likes orange colour.
(v) Deepak is grandfather of Titu, and Titu, who is a principal, likes black colour.
(vi) Neeru is granddaughter of Mohini and she likes blue colour. Neeru’s mother like White coloure.

89. Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?

(a) Deepak-Mohini and Mohan-Neeru (b) Mohan-Savita and Titu-Neeru
(c) Mohan-Deepak and Titu-Neeru (d) Cannot be determined
90. Who is an Engineer?
(a) Mohini (b) Savita (c) Neeru (d) None of these
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
91. How many ladies are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined
92. What is the profession of Savita?
(a) Doctor (b) Teacher
(c) Engineer (d) Cannot be determined
93. Which colour is liked by C.A.?
(a) Green (b) White
(c) Either green or White (d) Cannot be determined

Directions (94-99)
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a family.
(ii) There are two Doctors, two Teachers, two Professors and one Lawyer.
(iii) No lady is either Teacher or Lawyer.
(iv) Teacher’s wife is a Professor and Lawyer’s wife is also a Professor.
(v) C is daughter-in-law of F and mother of E.
(vi) B, a Doctor, is son of G, and E, who is not a professor, is the daughter of Lawyer.
(vii) A’s husband is a Teacher and A is mother-in-law of C and grandmother of B.
(viii) F is grandfather of B and D.

94. These family members belong to how many generations?

(a) Four (b) Two (c) Either two or three (d) None of these

95. Which of the following is one of the married couple?

(a) GC (b) FC
(c) GA (d) Cannot be determined
96. How is D related to A?
(a) Granddaughter (b) Son
(c) Grandson (d) Cannot be determined
97. What is D to C?
(a) Daughter-in-law (b) Son-in-law (c) Daughter (d)None of these
98. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Cannot be determined
99. Which of the following is the profession of D?
(a) Doctor (b) Professor (c) Lawyer (d) None of these

Answers
1 D 11 D 21 A 31 D 41 D 51 C 61 D 71 A 81 B 91 D
2 D 12 C 22 B 32 C 42 D 52 C 62 D 72 C 82 D 92 D
3 C 13 C 23 D 33 A 43 D 53 D 63 D 73 D 83 D 93 D
4 B 14 D 24 D 34 D 44 A 54 C 64 D 74 B 84 D 94 D
5 D 15 C 25 C 35 C 45 C 55 C 65 C 75 D 85 D 95 A
6 D 16 A 26 A 36 D 46 D 56 A 66 A 76 A 86 C 96 C
7 B 17 D 27 C 37 B 47 A 57 D 67 B 77 D 87 A 97 D
8 C 18 B 28 D 38 C 48 B 58 D 68 D 78 A 88 C 98 C
9 A 19 B 29 D 39 D 49 B 59 B 69 D 79 C 89 C 99 D
10 C 20 D 30 C 40 C 50 D 60 A 70 C 80 A 90 D

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Quantitative Analysis
Directions (1-2)
The house number in my lane starts with natural numbers, i.e., 1, 2, 3, …………Sum of all the house numbers on the left side of
my house is equal to sum of all the house numbers on the right side of my house. There are more than 100 but less than 3,000
houses on the right side of my house.
1. What is my house number?
(a) 204 (b) 6,929 (c) 288 (d) 7,014
2. How many houses are there in the lane?
(a) 9,885 (b) 288 (c) 9,801 (d) Data inadequate

Directions (3-6)
At the end of the soccer season, every player had scored a prime number of goals and the average of the 11 players was also a
prime number. No player’s individual tally was the same as anyone else’s or as the average. Nobody had scored more than 45
goals.
3. What was the average of their goals scored?
(a) 27 (b) 23 (c) 29 (d) 31
4. What was the maximum number of goals scored by a single player?
(a) 43 (b) 41 (c) 37 (d) 29
5. What was the minimum number of goals scored by a single player?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 13
6. How many players had scored above 20 goals individually?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) None of these

Directions (7-9)
Raghav and Mohit are friends. Raghav has three sons while Mohit has two. Product of the ages of Mohit’s sons is equal to the
product of the age of Raghav’s sons. The maximum and minimum age differences between any two of Raghav’s son’s are 2
years and 1 year respectively. The age difference between the sons of Mohit is 1 year. One of Mohit’s sons had fallen sick when
he was nine year old. Mohit had got married on Feb. 29th, 19 years back. Ages of all the sons of Raghav and Mohit are integers.
7. What is the age of the youngest son of Raghav?
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) None of these
8. What is the age of the eldest son of Raghav?
(a) 9 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) Data inadequate
9. What is the age of Mohit’s eldest son?
(a) 13 years (b) 14 years (c) Data inadequate (d) None of these

Directions (10-11)
I went on a holiday with a group of friends. It rained for 13 days. But when it rained in the morning, the afternoon was absolutely
dry. And when it rained in the afternoon, it followed a clear morning. During our holiday, we had 11 very nice morning and 12
very nice afternoons.
10. How many days our holiday last?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) None of these
11. On how many days did it rain in the morning as well as in the afternoon?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) None of these

Directions (12-15)
Three friends A, B and C have Rs. 155, Rs. 180, Rs. 160. They started playing a game in which a person who has maximum
money gives other two persons an amount equal to one-fifth of their own respective amount. The game stops when each of them
has given money at least once.
12. What is the approximate amount left with A at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 155 (b) Rs. 169 (c) Rs. 159 (d) Rs. 162
13. What is approximate amount left with B at the end of the game?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) Rs. 175 (b) Rs. 154 (c) Rs. 168 (d) Rs. 182
14. What is approximate amount left with C at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 158 (b) Rs. 155 (c) Rs. 151 (d) Rs. 145
15. In how many steps does the game end?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

Directions (16-19)
Four sisters – Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the money of each of the other
players from her share.They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical order. At the end of fourth game,
each sister had Rs. 32.
16. How many rupees did Suvarna start with?
(a) Rs. 60 (b) Rs. 34 (c) Rs. 66 (d) Rs. 28
17. Who started with the lowest amount?
(a) Suvarna (b) Tara (c) Uma (d) Vibha
18. Who started with the highest amount?
(a) Suvarna (b) Tara (c) Uma (d) Vibha
19. What was the amount with Uma at the end of the second round?
(a) 36 (b) 72 (c) 16 (d) None of these
Directions (20-25)
In a 15 minute science quiz, there are ten questions to be answered. Each correct answer gets 3 points. For each wrong answer, 2
points are subtracted from the score. For every questions left unanswered, 1 point is subtracted from the score. All students
taking the quiz start with a score of 5.
20. The minimum possible final score for a student taking the test is:
(a) 5 (b) 0 (c) -5 (d) -15
21. If in a test, a student got the highest final score of 19 and if no student got the same final score, the highest possible score for
the student who came third would be:
(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 15 (d) 11
22. If a student has answered at least 5 questions correctly, left at least 1 question unanswered and answered at least 1 question
incorrectly, then what are the minimum and maximum possible final scores?
(a) 11 and 17 (b) 11 and 26 (c) 14 and 17 (d) 14 and 22
23. What is the minimum number of questions a student has to answer correctly to get a final score of more than 20?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
24. If a student taking a test got a final score of 0, what is the maximum possible number of incorrect answers he or she could
have got ?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
25. If in a test only two questions are left unanswered, then which of the following digits cannot occur in the final score?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 7

Directions (26- 27)

A numerical machine accepts the following set of instructions and generates the results accordingly.
Step I : input(x,y,z)
Step II : x = x2
Step III : y = xy
Step III : z = yz
Step V : If y> 100 than STOP, else go to step II.
26. If x= 1, y =2 and z = 3, then how many steps happen for the above module?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) Infinite
27. If x = 2, y = 3 and Z = 4, then how many steps happen for the above module?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Directions (28- 32)

On a rolling 6 dice, it is found that
1. Three of the dice show the same number.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
2. Only one die shows 6.
3. Not more than 3 dice show 4 or more.
28. What is the minimum possible total numbers on the faces, if the three dice having same number show 2?
(a) 14 (b) 22 (c) 11 (d) 9
29. What is the maximum total if 4 of the dice show less than 4?
(a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 17 (d) 22
30. What would be the maximum total if 3 dice are faulty and have only 5 on all faces?
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined
31. If only one die shows 1, what is the maximum number of dice with numbers greater than 4 ?
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined
32. What is the maximum number that can be on the face of the 3 dice which shows the same number?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
Directions (33- 37)
A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then, it updates these values as X =XY and Y = Y + 1 in every step The
machine stops at X >N
33. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
34. In the above question, what is the final value of X?
(a) 6 (b) 20 (c) 72 (d) 360
35. In the above question, what is the final value of y?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 20
36. If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final value of X in the above question?
(a) 360 (b) 500 (c) 560 (d) 2,160
37. If X = 3 and Y = 2, what should be the minimum value of N such that final value of Y is 7?
(a) 300 (b) 360 (c) 720 (d) 860
Directions (38-39)
Three thieves loot a treasure in the night. The booty consisted of only gold coins. The three carried it to a safer place and decided
to divide it in the morning. All of them go to sleep. After an hour, the first thief gets up. He takes half the gold coins form the
loot for himself and goes to sleep. After another hour, the second thief gets up, takes half the gold coins for himself and goes to
sleep. After another hour, the third thief gets up and does the same thing. In the morning. all of them got up, divided the loot
equally among themselves. The total coins with the third thief is 400.
38. What was the total number of gold coins in the loot?
(a) 2,800 (b) 2,400 (c) 4,000 (c) 4,800
39. The first thief had got how many gold coins more than the total of the other two?
(a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 500

Directions (40-42)
Three friends A, B and C have Rs. 160, Rs. 120 and Rs. 80. They started playing a game in which the person who has the
maximum money gives to both the persons an amount equal to half the difference between the amount and the respective persons
an amount. The game stops when the amount any two of them has. is less than Rs. 5
40. What would be the difference between the amount with A at the end of the game?
(a) 117.5 (b) 122.5 (c) 120 (d) 125
41. What would be the amount with B at the end of the game?
(a) 115 (b) 117.5 (c) 120 (d) 122.5
42. What would be the amount with c at the end of the game?
(a) 115 (b) 117.5 (c) 120 (d) 122.5
Directions (43-47)
Four friends A, B, C and D are playing a card game called ‘FLASH’, in which 3 cards are dealt to each player. The card value of
each card is the number written on it. The face cards Jack, Queen and King have value 11, 12 and 13 respectively. The Ace card
has value one. The players cannot see each other’s cards. Once a player takes a look at his cards, he can decide whether to
continue or quit the game. If the value of each of his cards is less than or equal to 5, he has to quit from the game. The remaining
players continue the game in which there could be more than one round. There is a showdown (i.e., the cards are shown to the
other players) in which the player with maximum card value is declared the winner. A player quitting the game in any round
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
does not have to pay any penalty. A player can demand for a showdown in any round. If no one calls for a showdown, the game
proceeds into the next round. In the showdown, the losers have to pay penalty to the winner. If the showdown is in the first
round, the losers have to pay the winner an amount equal to their total card value. But, if the showdown is in the second round,
the losers have to pay the winner an amount twice their total card value and so on.
43. In the game, A and B quit in the first round while C and D go into the second round, C decided to have a showdown, in
which D is declared the winner. What is the maximum amount that D could receive from C?
(a) Rs. 37 (b) Rs. 74 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 76
44. In a game, where no one quits, the showdown is in the first round and B is declared the winner. What is in the first round and
B is declared the winner. What is the minimum amount that B can win?
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 26
45. In a game, A quits as soon as he takes a look at his cards. The total value of C’s cards is double that of B’s total card value. D
is declared the winner. What is the maximum total card value that B can have?
(a) 36 (b) 19 (c) 18 (d) 15
46. In the game, only A quits. The total card value of D is twice that of C and the total card value of C is twice that of B. Which
one of the following could be C’s total card value?
(a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 16 (d) 12
47. In the game, only B quits, as his cards did not fulfil the basic requirement whereas A, C and D proceed to the third round. In
the third round, C calls for a showdown. D who had a total of 30 points, wins the game. None of players had any face card. Two
players had two cards of value 9 each and D won a total of 141. What are the cards with A if C has a card of value one.
(a) 9,9,6 (b) 9,9,5 (c) 9,9,1 (d) 9,9,10
48. I have a total of Rs. 1,000. Item A costs Rs. 110, item B costs Rs. 90, item C costs Rs. 70, item D costs Rs. 40
and item E costs Rs. 45. For every item D that I purchases, I must also buy two of item B. For every A, I must buy one of my
item C. For every item E, I mustalso buy two of item D and one of item B. For every A, I must buy one of item C. For every
item E. I must also buy two of item D and one of item B. For every item purchased I earn 1,000 points for every rupee not spent,
I earn a penalty of 1,500 points. My objective is to maximize the points I earn. What is the number of items that I must purchases
to maximize my points?
(a) 13 (b)14 (c) 15 (d) 16
49. Four friends Ashok, Bashir, Chirag and Deepak are out for shopping. Ashok has less money than three times the amount that
Bashir has. Chirag has more money than Bashir. Deepak has an amount equal to difference of amounts with Bashir and Chirag.
Ashok has three times the money with Deepak. They each have to buy at least one shirt or one shawl, or one sweater or on jacket
that are priced Rs. 200, Rs. 400, Rs. 600 and Rs. 1000 a piece, respectively. Chirag borrows Rs. 300 from Ashok and buys a
jacket. Bashir buys a sweater after borrowing Rs. 100 from Ashok and is left with no money. Ashok buys three shirts. What is
the costliest item that Deepak could buy with his own money?
(a) A shirt (b) A shawl (c) A sweater (d) A jacket

Directions (50-52)
The seven basis symbols in a certain numerical system and their respective values are as follows:
I = 1, V = 5, X = 10, L = 50, C = 100, D = 500 and M = 1000
In general, the symbols in the numerical system are read from left to right, starting with symbol representing the largest value;
the same symbol cannot occur continuously more than three times, the value of the numerical is the sum of the values of the
symbols.
For example, XXVII = 10 + 10 +5 + 1+ 1 = 27. An exception to the left to right reading occurs when a symbol is followed
immediately by a symbol of greater value; then, the smaller value is subtracted from the large. For example, XLVI = (50-10) + 5
+ 1 = 46.
50. The value of the numerical MDCCLXXXVII is:
(a) 1,687 (b) 1,787 (c) 1,887 (d) 1,987
51. The value of the numerical MCMXCIX is:
(a) 1,999 (b) 1, 899 (c) 1,989 (d) 1,889
52. Which of the following can represent the numerical for 1995?
I. MCMLXXV II. MCMXCV III. MVD IV. MVM
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III and IV (c) Only II and IV (d) Only IV

Directions (53-57)
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has
arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts
have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their
answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her”sources”. If the person has
two sources, then he/she compares the answer keys obtain from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is
identical, it is copied, otherwise, it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answer into his/her
copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answer (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing
wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and tabulated the following
data. These data represent question numbers.
Name Wrong Answer (s) Blank Answer (s)

A 46 -
B -96 46, 90, 25
C 27, 56 17, 46, 90
D 17 -
E 46,90 -
F 14,46 92,90

G 25 -

H 46,92 -
I 27 17, 26, 90

53. Which one among the following must have two sources?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
54. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
55. Both G and H were sources to:
(a) F (b) B (c) A (d) none
56. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27 (b) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46
© F introduced the wrong answer to question 14 (d) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46
57. Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?
(I) A, D and G (II) E and H
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Neither (I) nor (II) (d) Both (I) and (II)

Directions (58-61)
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of world cup hockey , play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three
points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero point. The two teams with the highest point quantify for semifinals. In case
of a tie the team with the highest goal difference (goal for - goal against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked
as shown below.
Teams Games Won Drawn Lost Goals Goals Points
Played For Against
Germany 2 2 0 0 3 1 6

Argentina 2 2 0 0 2 0 6

Spain 2 1 0 1 5 2 3

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Pakistan 2 1 0 1 2 1 3

New Zealand 2 0 0 2 1 6 0

South Africa 2 0 0 2 1 4 0

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round
matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth matches.
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth matches by 1 goal to 0.
58. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
(a) Pakistan beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1
(b) Argentina beat Pakistan by 1goals to 0
(c) Germany beat Pakistan by 2 goals to 1
(d) Germany beat Spain by 2 goals to 1
59. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
(a) Germany beat New Zealand by 1 goal to 0
(b) Spain beat New Zealand by 4 goals to 0
(c) Spain beat South Africa by 2 goals to 0
(d) Germany beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1
60. Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?
(a) Argentina (b) Germany (c) Spain (d) cannot be determined
61. If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from pool A, which was the other team that qualified?
(a) Argentina (b) Germany (c) Spain (d) cannot be determined

Directions (62-63)
Eighty-five children went to an amusement park where they could ride on the Marry-go-round, Roller coaster and Ferris wheel.
It was known that 20 of them took all three rides, and 55 of them took at least two of the three rides. Each ride costs Rs. 1 and the
total receipts of the amusement park were Rs. 145.
62. How many children took exactly one ride?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
63. How many children did not try any of the rides?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
64. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10 m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle
stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A men carried out the job starting with the stone in the middle, carrying
stones in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stones is:
(a) 35 (b) 15 (c) 29 (d) 31
65. On a straight road XY, 100 metres long, five heavy stones are placed two metres apart beginning at the end X. A worker,
starting at X, has to transport all the stones to Y, by carrying only one stone at a time. The minimum distance he has to travel (in
metres) is:
(a) 472 (b) 422 (c) 744 (d) 844
66. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not want anybody to know about him. One day his wife asked, “ How
many gold coins do we have”? After pausing a moment, he replied, “ Well! if I divide the coins into two unequal numbers, then
48 times the difference between the two numbers equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers.” The wife
looked puzzled. Can you help the merchant’s wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant has?
(a) 96 (b) 53 (c) 43 (d) None of these

Directions (67-69)
A young girl Roopa leaves home with x flowers, goes to the bank of a nearby river. On the bank of the river, there are four
places of worship, standing in a row. She dips all the x flowers into the river, the number of flowers doubles. Then, she enters the

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
first place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of
flowers doubles. She goes to the second place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flower into the
river and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of worship offer Y flowers to the deity. She dips the
remaining flowers into the river and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the fourth place of worship offers to the
deity. Now she has no flowers in hand.
67. If Roopa leaves home with 30 flowers, the number of flowers she offers to each deity
(a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 32 (d) 33
68. The minimum number of flowers that could be offered to each deity is:
(a) 0 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) cannot be determined
69. The minimum number of flowers with which Roopa leaves home is:
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 0 (d) cannot be determined
70. The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some
diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave ½ of the diamonds he had then, and 2
more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How many did he steel originally:
(a) 40 (b) 36 (c) 25 (d) None of these

Directions (71-73)
Four people A, B, C and D have together got Rs. 100 with them. A and B have got as much money as C and D put together. A
has got more money with B. C has half as money as D has A has Rs. 5 more than D.
71. Who has got the most money?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) cannot be determined
72. How much money does B have?
(a) Rs. 11.60 (b) Rs. 13.50 (c) Rs. 32.30 (d) Rs. 10.30
73. Who has got the second biggest sum?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Directions (74-76)
The figure alongside represents a perfectly matched multiplication operation where each alphabet represents a different number
from 0 to 9.
A A
x B C
-------------------------------------------------
B 9 7
+ D D E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
9 5 7
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
74. What is the value of A?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 9
75. What is the square of D?
(a) 4 (b) 36 (c) 64 (d) 81
76. What is the value of DE – AB + B?
(a) AE (b) DB (c) BE (d) CE

Directions (77-81)
Five school children went to a chocolate shop and bought some chocolates.
I. Number of chocolates bought by them were 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 not necessarily in that order.
II. Price of any chocolate that the shop sells is a whole number.
III. There are two children related to each other and they paid the same price for each Chocolates that they bought and the other
double that price for each of the items that they bought.
IV. The two children who were related together bought more chocolates than the other three. And together paid Rs15 less as
compared to the other three.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
77. What is the price per chocolate at which the two children bought the chocolates?
(a) Rs. 5 (b) Rs. 8 (c) Rs. 10 (d) Rs. 15
78. How many chocolates were bought at the higher price?
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
79. What was the total amount paid by the five children?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 105 (c) Rs. 120 (d) Rs. 130
80. If the two related children had paid Rs. 27 less as compared to others, then what could have been the price paid by others for
each?
(a) Rs. 12 (b) Rs. 15 (c) Rs. 18 (d) Not possible
81. In the above question, what would have been the total amount paid by the five children?
(a) Rs. 198 (b) Rs. 189 (c) Rs. 178 (d) Not possible

Directions (82-87)
Hundred cards are distributed between seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G. G got 5 cards less than the others.
I. A took 5 cards from E
II. D received cards from two of his friends.
III. B gave 3 cards to D and received one card from the one who got less cards.
IV. Two of them did not give any cards and 3 did not receive any card.
V. F is involved in one transaction only and has received two cards.
VI. Finally, A has 20 cards and D and F have equal number of cards.
VII. There are in all five transactions.
82. Who has the least number of cards finally?
(a) C (b) G (c) C or G (d) None of the above
83. What is the difference in number of cards between the person who has the maximum cards and the person who has the
maximum cards and the person with the least number of cards?
(a) 11 (b) 20 (c) 9 (d) 8
84. How many cards did G have initially?
(a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 10 (d) 9
85. Who has less number of cards than B?
(a) C and D (b) D and F (c) D and F and A (d) E and G
86. From whom did D receive the cards?
(a) A, C (b) B, C (c) C, E (d) C, F
87. After the five transactions, if A distributes maximum possible cards equally among his friends what will be the difference
between D and A?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 18 (d) 20

Directions (88-91)
A man goes to a market. He spends Rs. 4 on the Bus fare. He decides to spend as much on each item as the number of items he
has to buy. He buys the first item and meets a man whom he owes Rs. 13. He pays him that amount. Again he spends as much on
each of the items as the number of items that he has to buy and is left with no money.
88. What is the initial amount with the man when he went to the market?
(a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 445 (c) Rs. 680 (d) Rs. 845
89. How much did he spend on the first item that he bought?
(a) Rs. 13 (b) Rs. 14 (c) Rs. 21 (d) Rs. 27
90 How much did he spend on the item that he bought at the end.
(a) Rs. 13 (b) Rs. 14 (c) Rs. 21 (d) Rs. 27
91. If after paying Rs. 13 to the man, he decides to keep Rs. 26 aside for taxi fare, then what could be amount spent on each of
the remaining items if he decides to spend the money equally?
(a) Rs. 14 (b) Rs. 13 (c) Rs. 12 (d) Rs. 11
Directions (92-94)
There are five teams P, Q, R, S and T playing in a tournament here each team plays against every other team. Each match can
result in a draw where each team gets 2 points or a team winning where it gets 3 points and the other team gets 1 point.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
92. If P has won all the matches and T has lost all the matches and all the remaining three teams get equal points, how many
points each of three got?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 5 or 7
93. What is the sum of the points achieved by all the five teams in the tournament?
(a) 43 (b) 40 (c) Non of these (d) Data insufficient
94. What is the number of point scored by each team if all the five team have an equal scored?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c)Not possible (d) Data insufficient

Directions (95-97)
The following is a set of instructions that are fed to the computer:
Step I : Input a, b, c, n
Step II : a = ac
Step III : b = ab
Step IV : c = bc
Step V : a=a+b+c
Step VI : If a> n, go to step VIII, otherwise go to step VII
Step VII : Go to step II
Step VIII : STOP
95. If a = 1, b = 1, c = 1 and n = 40, what is the value of ‘a’ when the program stops?
(a) 351 (b) 81 (c) 27 (d) 9
96. If in above question, value of n is changed to 80 and other things remain the same, how many times is the step VII executed?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
97. If in the given instruction set, step 5 is changed to a = abc, then what will be the number of steps in question?
(a) 100 (b) 40 (c) 23 (d) infinite

Answers
1 B 11 d 21 b 31 c 41 d
2 C 12 b 22 b 32 c 42 c
3 B 13 c 23 c 33 c 43 b
4 A 14 a 24 d 34 d 44 d
5 A 15 a 25 c 35 c 45 c
6 B 16 c 26 d 36 d 46 c
7 D 17 d 27 b 37 c 47 d
8 C 18 a 28 a 38 b 48 b
9 D 19 b 29 d 39 a 49 b
10 A 20 d 30 d 40 a 50 b

51 A 61 c 71 a 81 b 91 d
52 C 62 c 72 a 82 b 92 c
53 B 63 c 73 d 83 a 93 c
54 C 64 d 74 c 84 c 94 b
55 D 65 d 75 b 85 d 95 a
56 C 66 d 76 a 86 b 96 a
57 D 67 c 77 a 87 c 97 d
58 B 68 c 78 c 88 a 98 a
59 D 69 b 79 b 89 b 99 b
60 C 70 b 80 c 90 a 100 d

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Conditions and grouping

Directions (1-6)
Five Ships J, K, L, M and N are to be unloaded on 5 consecutive days beginning from Monday to Friday.
(I) Each ship takes exactly one day to unload.
(II) K must be unloaded on the day, preceding the day on which M and N are unloaded.
(III) L cannot be unloaded on Tuesday.
(IV) M is the second ship to be unloaded after J is unloaded.
1. If M is unloaded on Friday, which one of the following is true?
(a) J is unloaded on Wednesday
(b) K is unloaded on Tuesday
(c) L is unloaded on Monday
(d) L is unloaded on Thursday
(e) N is unloaded on Thursday
2. If K, M and N are to be unloaded one immediately after the other, the two days on which J can be unloaded are:
(a) Monday and Tuesday
(b) Monday and Friday
(c) Tuesday and Wednesday
(d) Wednesday and Friday
(e) Thursday and Friday
3. If L is unloaded immediately after J, which of the following is true?
(a) J is unloaded on Wednesday
(b) K is unloaded on Monday
(c) L is unloaded on Thursday
(d) M is unloaded on Friday
(e) None of these
4. If J is unloaded on Monday, then which of the following must be true?
(a) L is unloaded before K
(a) L is unloaded before M
(b) K is unloaded on Tuesday
(c) L is unloaded on Thursday
(d) N is unloaded on Thursday
5. N can be unloaded on any day of the week except:
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday (e) Friday
6. On which of the following days, any one of the five ships can be unloaded?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday (e) Friday

Directions (7-9)
A combination of three fabrics is to be chosen out of seven fabrics – F, G, H, J, K, L and M to decorate the room according to the
following conditions:
(I) If F or G is chosen, the other must also be chosen.
(II) H and J cannot be chosen together.
(III) Either H or F or both must be chosen.
7. Which of the following confirms to the conditions?
(a) F, H, J (b) F, K, L (c) G, H, M (d) M, J, L (e) H, K, M
8. If J is chosen, which of the following could also be chosen?
(a) F,G (b) F, M (c) G, H (d) H, K (e) K, L
9. If K is chosen, which of the following could be chosen?
(a) F, H (b) F, L (c) G, H (d) H, L (e) L, M

Directions (10-14)
There are 6 soccer teams A, B, C, D, E and F in the soccer league game. All the 6 team play each Saturday during the season
must play against each of the other teams once and only once during the seasons.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(I) Team A plays against team D first and team F second.
(II) Team B plays against team E first and team C third.
(III) Team C plays against team F first.
10. On the first Saturday, which of the following pairs of teams play against each other?
(a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and B, C and E, D and F (c) A and C, B and E, D and F
(d) A and D, B and C, E and F (e) None of these
11. Which of the following team must B play second with?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) Either E or A (e) Either A or D
12. What is the total number of games that each team must play during the season?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these
13. If D wins 5 games, which of the following must be true?
(a) A loses 5 games (b) A wins 4 games (c) A wins its first game (d) B loses at least 1 game (e) None of these
14. The last set of games could be between:
(a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and C, B and F, D and E
(c) A and D, B and C, E and F (d) A and E, B and C, D and F (e) None of these
Directions (15-19)
Nine professors – G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are to appear on a series of three panels. Each panel will consist of three professor
and each professor will appear exactly once. The panel must be arranged according to the following conditions:
(I) I and N must be on the same panel.
(II) K and L must be on the same panel.
(III) O and J cannot be on the same panel.
(IV) M must appear on the second panel.
(V) Either J or M or both must appear on the panel with H.
15. Which of the following professors could appear on a panel together?
(a) G, L, O (b) G, J, M (c) K, I, M (d) N, I, J (e) O, I, U
16. Which of the following cannot be true?
(a) I appears on the second panel (b) H appears on the third panel
(c) O appears on the third panel (d) J appears on the first panel, and H appears on the third.
(e) G appears on the first panel and K appears on the third.
17. The third panel could consist of all the following except:
(a) K, L, O (b) K, L, J (c) G, H, J (d) G, I, N (e) G, J, I
18. All the following could appear on the same panel as K, except:
(a) G (b) I (c) J (d) M (e) O
19. If J and K appear on the third panel, which of the following professors must appear on the second?
(a) G (b) H (c) I (d) L (e) O

Directions (20-24)
From amongst five doctors A, B, C, D and E, four engineers G, H, K and L and six teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R, some teams
are to be selected, Of these, A, B, G, H, O, P and Q are females and the rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the
following conditions:
(I) Whenever there is a male doctor, there will be no female teacher.
(II) Whenever there is a male engineer, there will be no female doctor.
(III) There shall not be more than two male teachers in any team.
20. If the team consists of two doctors, two female teachers and two engineers, all the following teams are possible except:
(a) OPGHAB (b) ABGHPQ (c) ABGHOQ (d) ABKLPQ
21. If the team consists of two doctors, three female teachers and two engineers, the member of the team are
(a) CDOPQGH (b) ABOPQGH (c) CDKLOPQ (d) DEGHOPQ
22. If the team consists of three doctors, two male engineers and two teachers, the members of the team could be:
(a) CDEKLMN (b) ABCKLMR (c) CDKELPR (d) BCDKLNR
23. If the team consists of two doctors, one engineers and four teachers, all the following teams are possible except:
(a) ABGMNOP (b) ABKNRPQ (c) ABHMOPQ (d) ABHMRPQ
24. If the team consists of two doctors, two engineer and two teachers, all the following teams are possible except:
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) CEKLMN (b) ABGHMN (c) CDKLOP (d) ABGHOP

Directions (25-30)
One wedding card, two graduation cards, three anniversary cards and four birthday cards are to be arranged in a triangular
display with one card in the first row two card in the second row, three card in the third row and four card the fourth row. The
arrangement is subject to the following conditions:
(I) There is to be no birthday card in the fourth row.
(II) There are to be no more than two cards of any type in any of the rows.
(III) No birthday card is to be next to and in the same row as an anniversary card.
25. An acceptable arrangement can include which of the following ?
(a) A birthday card in every row.
(b) An anniversary card in the first, second and third row.
(c) All the birthday cards in the second and third rows.
(d) Two anniversary cards in the third row.
26. Which of the following must make up the second row?
(a) Two birthday cards (b) Two anniversary cards
(c) A birthday and an anniversary card (d) A wedding card and a graduation card.
27. Which of the following can make up the third row?
(a) An anniversary card and two birthday cards
(b) A graduation card and two birthday cards
(c) A graduation card and two anniversary cards
(d) A wedding card, a birthday card and a graduation card.
28. If all the birthday cards are in the second and third rows, which of these must be true?
(a) There is a wedding card between two birthday cards.
(b) There is an anniversary card in the second row.
(c) There is graduation card next to and in the same row as an anniversary card in the fourth row.
(d) There is a graduation card in the third row.
29. If there is an anniversary card in the third row. Which of the following can be true?
(a) A anniversary card next to and in the same row as a graduation card in the third row.
(b) A anniversary card is in the middle of the third row.
(c) A anniversary card is in the first row.
(d) Two anniversary cards are in the second row.
30. Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the rows in which both graduation cards can be placed together?
(a) The second (b) The third (c) The fourth (d) The third and the fourth

Directions (31-34)
M, N, O, P, Q and R are two sets of triplets, not necessarily in the order given.
(a) None of the six is married to a sibling or to some one of the same sex.
(b) Four of the six are males and two are females.
(c) Neither set of triplets contains three sibling of the same sex.
(d) M and P are married to each other.
(e) N is Q’S only brother.
31. Who cannot be sister and brother?
(a) M and Q (b) O and R (c) P and Q (d) R and P (e) R and Q
32. R must be female if:
(a) M and Q are siblings (b) O and R are siblings (c) P and Q are siblings
(d) O is P’s sister-in-law (e) O is P’s brother-in-law
33. Which of the following statements must be false?
(a) O is P’s sister-in-law (b) Q is P’s sister-in-law (c) N is P’s brother-in-law
(d) O is P’s brother-in-law (e) Q is P’s brother-in-law
34. If Q and R are married to each other, which of the following must be true?
(a) O is a male (b) R is a male (c) M is a female (d) N is a female (e) P is a female

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Directions (35-39)
At an Electronic Data processing unit, five out of the eight programme sets P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are to be operated daily. On
any one day. Except for the first day of the month, only three of the programme set be the ones that were operate on the previous
day. The program must operation must also satisfy the following conditions:
(I) If programme P is to be operated on a day, V cannot be operated on that day.
(II) If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the proggrammes to be operated after Q.
(III) If R is to be operated on a day, V must be one of the programmes to be operated after R.
(IV) The last programme to be operated on any day must be either S or U.
35. Which of the following is true of any day’s valid programme set operation?
(a) P cannot be operated at third place (b) Q cannot be operated at third place
(c) T cannot be operated at third place (d) R cannot be operated at fourth place
(e) U cannot be operated at fourth place
36. If the programme sets R and W are to be operated on the first day, which of the following could be the other programmes on
that day?
(a) P, T, U (b) Q, S, V (c) Q, T, V (d) T, S, U (e) T, S, V
37. If the programmes sets operated on a day are P, Q, W, T, U, then each of the following could be the next day’s programme
set except:
(a) Q, R, V, T, U (b) Q, T, V, W, S (c) W, T, U, V, S (d) W, R, V, T, U (e) W, T, S, P, U
38. Which of the following could be the set of programme to be operated on the first day of a month?
(a) P, R, V, S, U (b) Q, S, R, V, U (c) T, U, R, V, S (d) U, Q, S, T, W (e) V, Q, R, T,S
39. If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be the second programme in that sequence?
(a) Q (b) S (c) T (d) U (e) W

Directions (40-43)
There are five identically looking boxes having different objects in it and every box has a label indicating their contents.
The following is the description of the contents and the label of each box:
Contents Label
Two pins PP
Two balls BB
Two clips CC
One pin and one clip PC
One ball and one clip BC
Somebody has mischievously interchanged these labels in such a way that no box contains the label correctly explaining its
content.
40. If the first box opened contained label PP and second box opened contained label PC and out of the combined four items, one
item was a ball, which of the following will be definitely true?
(a) Other three items will not contain any clip (b) Other three items will contain at least one clip
(c) Other three items will not contain two pins (d) Other three items will not contain two balls
(e) None of the above
41. If the first box, containing the label BC, was opened and it was found that one item is a ball, which of the following would
definitely be true?
(a) The other item will not be a ball (b) The other item will also be a ball
(c) The other box with BB label will contain a ball and a clip (d) The other item may either be a ball or a clip
(e) None of the above
42. If the information is available that box PC does not contain either any pin or any clip and box PP does not contain any pin
and box CC contains one clip and one ball, which of the following will definitely be true if only one of the remaining boxes is
opened?
(a) It will have at least one clip (b) It will have at least one pin (c) It will have two pin
(d) It will have one pin and one clip (e) None of the above
43. If the box PP contained two clips, the box CC contained two pins and the box BB contained at least one ball, which of the
following will definitely be not true?
(a) The box PC contains two balls (b) The box BB contains one clip (c) The box BC contains two balls
(d) The box BC contains one pin and one clip (e) The box BB contains one ball and one clip
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Directions (44-47)
A building has six floors, referred to as floors 1-6, from lowest to highest. Six companies L, M, N, O, P and Q occupy the six
floor, not necessarily in the same order, with only one company to a floor.
(I) N is the same number of floor apart from M as M is from L.
(II) P and Q are not on adjacent floors.
(III) Q is on a higher floor than O.
(IV) L is on the floor 5.
44. Which of the following is/are true?
(I) M must be either on floor 3 or floor 4.
(II) O must be either on floor 1 or floor 2.
(III) Q must be either on floor 4 or floor 5.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and III only (e) II and III only
45. Which of the following must be true if N is on floor 1?
(a) L and P are on adjacent floors (b) M and P are on adjacent floors
(c) O is on a floor higher than floor 2 (d) P is on a floor higher than floor 2
(e) Q is on a floor higher than floor 3
46. If O and Q are not on adjacent floors, which of the following is true?
(a) M must be on floor 3 (b) N must be on floor 3
(c) O must be on floor 2 (d) P must be on floor 6 (e) None of these
47. Which of the following can be true if N is on floor 3?
(a) M must be two floors lower than L. (b) N must be on a floor between L and M
(c) O must be one floor lower than Q (d) Q must be on a higher floor than N
(e) None of these

Directions (48-54)
A sales representative plans to visit each of six companies – M, N, P, Q, R and S exactly once during the course of one day. She
is setting up her schedule for the day according to the following conditions:
(I) She must visit M before N and before R.
(II) She must visit N before Q.
(III)The third company she visits must be P.
48. Which of the following could be the order in which sales representative visits the six companies?
(a) M, R, N, Q, P, S (b) M, S, P, N, R, Q (c) P, R, M, N, Q, S (d) P, S, M, R, Q, N (e) Q, N, P, R, S, M
49. Which of the following must be true of the sales representative’s schedule for the day?
(a) She visits M before Q (b) She visits N before R
(c) She visits P before M (d) She visits P before R (e) She visits Q before R
50. If the sales representative visits S first, which company must she visit second?
(a) M (b) N (c) P (d) Q (e) R
51. Which of the following could be true of the sales representative’s schedule?
(a) She visits M third (b) She visits N sixth (c) She visits P first (d) She visits Q second (e) She visits R sixth
52. If the sales representative visits Q immediately before R and immediately after S, she must visit Q:
(a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) Fifth (e) Sixth
53. If the sales representative visits S sixth, which of the following could be her first and Second visits, respectively?
(a) M and Q (b) M and R (c) N and M (d) Q and P (e) Q and R
54. If the sales representative could visit any of the following companies immediately after P except:
(a) M (b) N (c) Q (d) R (e) S

Directions (55-58)
Seven persons N, Q, R, S, T, U and W are present at a party. All of them join distinct conversational groups that
Form during the party and a group consists of two, three or four persons at a time. At any time during the party, each of the
persons present is considered to a member of exactly one of the conservational groups. During the party the following conditions
are satisfied:
N can never be in the same conversational group as S.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
T must be in a conversational group that includes either S or W, but cannot be in a conversational group with both S and W.
W must be in a conversational group that consists of exactly three persons.
55. Which of the following lists three conversational groups that can exist at the same time during that can exist at the same time
during the party?
(a) N and S Q, T and W R and U
(b) N and T R and S Q, U and W
(c) N and U R and S Q, T and W
(d) N and W S and U Q, R and T
(e) N, U and W S and Q R and T
56. If, at a certain point during the party, R, T and W are members of three distinct conversational groups, S must, at that point,
be in a conversational group that includes:
(a) Q (b) R (c) T (d) U (e) W
57. If, at a certain point during the party, a group of three persons and a group of four persons have formed and W is in the same
conversational group as U, which of the following must, at that point, be in a conversational group as U, which of the following
must, at that point, be in the group with W and U?
(a) N (b) Q (c) R (d) S (e) T
58. If, at a certain point during the party, one of the conversational groups consists only of Q, R and W, at that point N must be a
part of the group of exactly:
(a) two persons, whose other member is T (b) two persons, whose other member is U
(c) four persons, whose other members include S (d) four persons, whose other members is
include T
(e) four persons, whose other members include U

Directions (59-62)
Three adults – Roberto, Sarah and Vicky – will be traveling in a van with five children Freddy, Hilary, Jonathan, Luke and
Marta. The van has a driver’s seat and one passenger seat in the van has a driver’s seat and one passenger seat in the front and
two benches behind the other. Each bench has room for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench and
seating is subject to the following restriction:
An adult must sit on each bench. Either Roberto or Sarah must sit in the driver’s seat, Jonathan must sit immediately beside
Marta.
59. Which of the following can sit in the front passenger seat?
(a) Jonathan (b) Luke (c) Roberto (d) Sarah (e) Vicky
60. Which of the following groups of three can sit together on a bench?
(a) Freddy, Jonathan and Marta (b) Freddy, Jonathan and Vicky
(c) Freddy, Sarah and Vicky (d) Hilary, Luke and Sarah (e) Luke, Marta and Roberto
61. If Freddy sits immediately beside Vicky, which of the following cannot be true?
(a) Jonathan sits immediately beside Sarah. (b) Luke sits immediately beside Vicky
(c) Hilary sits in the front passenger seat (d) Freddy sits on the same bench as Hilary
(e) Hilary sits on the same bench as Roberto
62. If Sarah sits on a bench that is behind where Jonathan is sitting, Which of the following must be true?
(a) Hilary sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of the where Marta is sitting
(b) Luke sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where Freddy is sitting
(c) Freddy sits on the same bench as Hilary
(d) Luke sits on the same bench as Sarah
(e) Marta sits on the same bench as Vicky

Directions (63-67)
Three desk drawers I, II and III are being stocked with seven types of articles. Hand computers, ink-pens, labels, markers, rulers,
stationery and tapes are to be placed in the drawers so that articles belonging to any given types are all in one drawer contains
more than three type of articles. The arrangement of articles is subject to the following constraints:
(I) Hand computer and rulers must be in a drawer together
(II) Neither ink – pens nor markers can be in the same drawer as labels
(III) Neither ink- pens nor markers can be in the same drawer as stationary
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(IV) The stationary must be either in drawer I or drawer II
(V) Each type of article must be in same drawer or other
63. Which of the following is an acceptable arrangement?
Drawer I Drawer II Drawer III
(a) Ink-pens Markers, stationary, tapes Hand computers, labels, rulers
(b) Ink-pens, labels, stationary Markers, tapes Hand computers, rulers
(c) Labels, stationary, tapes Hand computers, ink-pens, marker Rulers
(d) Labels, stationary, tapes Ink-pens, markers Hand computers, rulers
(e) Labels, tapes Ink-pens, markers Hand computers, rulers,
Stationary
64. If Labels are in I and stationary is in II, which of the following must be true?
(a) Hand computers are in I (b) Hand computers are in II (c) Hand computers are in III
(d) Ink-pens are in II (e) Ink-pens are in III
65. If Labels are in II and stationary is in I, any of the following can be true except:
(a) Hand computers are in II (b) Hand computers are in III (c) Ruler are in II (d) Tapes are in III
66. If hand computers, rulers and tapes are in I, which of the following must be true?
(a) Ink-pens are in II (b) Labels are in I (c) Labels are in III
(d) Markers are in II (e) Markers are in III
67. If rulers are in II, which of the following is acceptable?
(a) Hand computers are in I and tapes are in II
(b) Ink-pens are in I and markers are in II
(c) Ink-pens are in I and markers are in III
(d) Markers are in I and tapes are in II
(e) Stationary is in I and Labels are in II
Directions (68-71)
A contractor will build five houses in a certain town in a street that currently has no houses on it. The contractor will select from
seven different models of house T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. The town’s planning board has placed the following restrictions on the
contractor:
No model can be selected for more than one house. Either model W must be selected or model Z, but both cannot be selected.
If model Y is selected, model V must also be selected.
If model U is selected, model W cannot be selected.
68. If model U is one of the models selected for the street, which of the following models must also be selected?
(a) T (b) W (c) X (d) Y (e) Z
69. If T, U and X are three of the models selected for the street, which of the following must be the other two models selected?
(a) V and W (b) V and Y (c) V and Z (d) W and Y (e) Y and Z
70. Which of the following is an acceptable combination of models that can be selected for the street?
(a) T, U, V, X,Y (b) T, U, X, Y, Z (c) T, V, X, Y, Z (d) U, V, W, X, Y (e) V, W, X, Y, Z
71. If model Z is one model not selected for the street, the other model NOT selected must be which of the following:
(a) T (b) U (c) V (d) W (e) X

Directions (72-76)
A researcher is experimenting with varying arrangements of exactly six units that are electrical conductors – G, J, K, M,P and S,
in a loop containing eight positions, each capable of containing one conductor. In each arrangement, each conductor is at one of
the eight positions and two positions are empty. In devising arrangements, the researcher must obey the following restrictions:
G must be directly adjacent to J.
P must be directly adjacent to S.
M must be directly adjacent to S on one side and to an empty position on the other.
A signal can be transferred from one conductors directly to another, when the two conductor directly adjacent to each other. A
signal can be transferred either way around the loop, from one conductor to another, until it reaches an empty position. A signal
cannot be transferred across an empty position.
72. If a signal can be transferred, either directly or indirectly, from J to K, it must be true that a signal can be transferred, either
directly or indirectly, from:
(a) G to K (b) G to M (c) J to P (d) J to M (e) J to S
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73. If K is directly adjacent to P, any of the following could be true except:
(a) G is directly adjacent to K (b) J is directly adjacent to k (c) J is directly adjacent to P
(d) G is directly adjacent to an empty position (e) J is directly adjacent to an empty position
74. If P is directly adjacent to an empty position, which of the following is the greatest number of conductor, including starting
and ending conductors, that can be used in the transfer of a single signal?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e) Six
75. If there is one conductor that is directly adjacent to both of the empty positions, that conductor must be:
(a) J (b) K (c) M (d) P (e) S
76. If a signal can be transferred from G to S, any of the following conductors could be directly adjacent to an empty position
except:
(a) G (b) J (c) K (d) M (e) P

Directions (77- 80)

Seven children – Frank, Joan, Kate, Manual, Rose, Sam and Theresa – are eligible to enter a spelling contest. From these seven,
two teams must be formed, a red team and a green team, each team consisting of exactly three of the children. No child can be
selected for more than one team, Team selection is subject to the following restrictions:
(I) If Manual is on the red team, Kate must be selected for the green team.
(II) If Frank is on the red team, Rose, if selected, must be on the green team.
(III) Rose cannot be on the same team as Sam.
(IV) Joan cannot be on the same team as kate.
77. Which of the following can be the three members of the red team?
(a) Frank, Joan and Kate (b) Frank, Rose and Theresa (c) Joan, Kate and Theresa
(d) Kate, manual and Rose (e) Manual, Rose and Theresa
78. If both Manual and Frank are on the red team, the green team can consist of which of the following?
(a) Joan, Kate and Rose (b) Joan , Sam and Theresa (c) Kate, Rose and Sam
(d) Kate, Rose and Theresa (e) Rose, Sam and Theresa
(79) If manual is on the red team , which of the following selected must also be on the red team ?
(a) Frank (b)Joan (c) Rose
(d) Sam (e) Theresa
80. If Frank is selected for the red team and Theresa is not selected for either team, then which of the following cannot be a
member of the green team?
(a) Joan (b) Kate (c) Manual (d) Rose (e) Sam

Directions (81-86)
In a telecommunications – cable assembly plant, cables are assembled by twisting plastic coated wires together. There are wires
of exactly six different solid colours red, yellow, violet, green, White and black. Wires must be assembled into single cables
according to the following rules:
Each cable must contain at least three wires and at least three different colours.
(I) At the most two wires in a cable can be black.
(II) At the most two wires in a single cable can be white.
(III) There can be at the most one wire of each of the other colours in a single cable.
(IV) If one wire is red, one wire must be yellow.
(V) If one wire is violet, no wire can be green.
81. Which of the following could be the complete set of wires in an acceptable cable?
(a) A green wire, a white wire, and a violet wire
(b) A violet wire, a black wire, and a white wire
(c) A red wire, a black wire, and a green wire
(d) A yellow wire and exactly two black wires
(e) Exactly two black wires and exactly two white wires.
82. The maximum number of wires that can be used in an acceptable cable is:
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5 (e) 4
83. If exactly one black wire and exactly one white wire are used in an assembled cable, which of the following must be true?
(a) The cable contains no more than five wires.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(b) The cable contains exactly six wires.
(c) The cable contains a yellow wire.
(d) The cable does not contain a red wire.
(e) The cable does not contain a violet wire.
84. If a white wire and a violet wire must be among the wires chosen for a particular cable, any of the following pairs of wires
could complete the cable except a:
(a) Black wire and a second white wire
(b) Yellow wire and a second white wire
(c) Yellow wire and a black wire
(d) Red wire and a yellow wire
(e) Red wire and a black wire
85. If an assembled cable consists of exactly five wires, each of different colour, it could be true that a colour not used is:
(a) Black (b) White (c) Green (d) Red (e) Yellow
86. If there is an additional requirement that violet must be used if yellow is used, which of the following must be true?
(a) No cable contains less than six wires.
(b) No cable contains more than five wires.
(c) Green is never used if red is used.
(d) Red is always used if violet is used.
(e) Black is used exactly once if yellow is used.

Directions (87-89)
A book club holds two discussion sessions each summer. The discussion leader of the club is selecting two groups of books –
Group 1 and Group 2 for the sessions. She is choosing amongst seven books T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. Group 1 will contain four
of the books and Group 2 will contain the other three books. The Leader must selected the books, for each group, according to
the following restrictions:
(I) T cannot be in the same group as U.
(II) If X is in Group 2, Z must also be in Group 2.
(III) If Z is in Group 1, W must be in Group 1.
87. If T and Z are in Group 2, any of the following books can also be in Group 2 except:
(a) U (b) V (c) W (d) X (e) Y
88. If Z is in Group 1, which of the following must be true?
(a) T is in Group 1 (b) V is in Group 2 (c) X is in Group 2 (d) U is in the same group as V
(e) W is in the same group as Y.
89. If X is in Group 2, which of the following must be true?
(a) T is in Group 1 (b) U is in Group 2 (c) W is in Group 1 (d) Y is in the same group as Z
(e) Z is in the same group U.
Directions (90-92)
Packing labels identify individual packages by means of a four-symbol identification code running from left to right. The
symbols used are the four digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 and the four letters W, X, Y and Z.
Each code consists of two digits and two digits and two letters. The two digits must be next to each other, and the two letter
must be next to each other of the two digits, the one to the left must be less than the one to the right. The two letters must be
different letter.
90. Which of the following could be the third symbol in a code in which the fourth symbol is 3?
(a) W (b) X (c) Z (d) 1 (e) 4
91. Which of the following must be true of any code in which the letter W occurs?
(a) The letter X also occurs in that code. (b) The letter Y also occurs in that code.
(c) The letter Z also occurs in that code. (d) The letter W occurs in that code exactly once.
(e) The letter W occurs in that code exactly twice.
92. If the first symbol in a code is 2, any one of the following symbols could occur in one of the following symbols could occur
in one of the remaining three positions EXCEPT the:
(a) digit 1 (b) digit 3 (c) digit 4 (d) letter Y (e) letter Z

Directions (93-97)
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Four woman G, H, I and J and four men R, S, T and U are the eight people to be seated at a rectangular table.
Three of the people are to sit on one side of the table, three are to sit on the other side of the table,one is to sit at the head of the
table, one is to sit at the foot of the table. The following restrictions on seating arrangement must be observed.
Persons of the same sex cannot sit next to each other on the same side of the table.
The person seated at the foot of the table cannot be of the same sex as the person seated at the head of the table.
T cannot be seated on the same side of the table as I. U cannot be seated on the same side of the table as J.
93. If U is seated at the head of the table and I is seated in the middle seat on one side of the table, which of the following must
be true?
(a) J is seated at the foot of the table.
(b) R is seated at the foot of the table.
(c) G is seated on the same side of the table as I.
(d) S is seated on the opposite side of the table from I.
(e) T is seated on the opposite side of the table from I.
94. If J is to be seated at the head of the table, each of the following could be seated at the foot of the table except:
(a) H (b) R (c) S (d) T (e) U
95. If S is seated at the foot of the table. U is seated in an end seat on one side of the table, and I is seated in an end seat on the
table, Where must T be seated?
(a) At the head of the table.
(b) In the middle seat on the side of the table as U.
(c) In an end seat on the same side of the table as U.
(d) In the middle seat on the same side of the table as I.
(e) In an end seat on the same side of the as R.
96 If T is seated at the head of the table, R is seated in the middle of the table, and I is seated in the middle seat on the other side
of the table, which of the following can be true?
(a) G is seated at the foot of the table. (b) H is seated on the same side of the table as I
(c) J is seated on the same side of the table as I (d) S is seated on the same side of the table as I
(e) U is seated on the same side of the table as R
97. If T is seated at foot of the table, U is seated in the middle seat on one side of table, and I is seated in the middle seat on the
other side of the table, and I is seated in the middle seat on the table, which of the following must be seated at the head of the
table?
(a) G (b) H (c) J (d) R (e) S

Directions (98-103)
Exactly five persons – J, K, L, M and O have gathered to play a game called Trios. In each round of the game, exactly three of
these persons must play. The following are all the rules that affect the order of participation in, and the length of, an individual
game.
No person can play in three consecutive rounds.
No person can sit out two consecutive rounds.
In any game, each of the five persons must play in exactly three rounds.
98. If J, k and L play in a first round, which of the following could be the trio who play in that game’s second round?
(a) J, K, M (b) J, K, O (c) J, L, M (d) K, L, O (e) K, M, O
99. If, in an individual game, K, L and M play in the first round and J, L and M play in the third round, the players in the second
round must be:
(a) J, K, L (b) J, K, M (c) J, K, O (d) K, L, O (e) K, M, O
100 If, in an individual game, L and O do not play in the first round, which of the following must be true?
(a) L plays in rounds three and four. (b) O plays in rounds three and five.
(c) Both L and O play in round four. (d) Both L and O play in round five.
(e) Both M and O play in round four.
101. If, in an individual game, J, L and M play in the first round, and K, M, and O play in the second round, which of the
following must play in the fourth round?
(a) J (b) K (c) L (d) M (e) O
102. If, in an individual game, J, M and O play in the first round, and if M and K play in the fourth round, which of the following
cannot play in the third round?
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(a) J (b) K (c) L (d) M (e) O
103. If, in an individual game J, K and M play in the first round, and K,M and O play in third round, which of the following can
not play in Fourth round and must play in fifth round?
(a) J (b) K (c) L (d) M (e) O

Directions (104-110)
Two male signers, P and S, and two female singer, R and V two male comedians, T and W, and two female comedians, Q and U,
are the eight entertainers who are to perform at the Stuart Theatre on a certain night. Each entertainer is to perform alone and
only once that night. The entertainer is to perform in any order that confirms to the following restrictions:
The performance by singers and the performance by comedians must alternate throughout the evening.
The first performance that evening must be by a female entertainer, and the second performance by a male entertainer.
The final performance that evening must be by a male singer.
104. Which of the following could be the last of the entertainers to perform?
(a) R (b) S (c) T (d) V (e) W
105. Which of the following could be the first of the entertainers to perform?
(a) P (b) R (c) U (d) V (e) W
106. If R is to perform fourth, which of the must perform sixth?
(a) Q (b) R (c) S (d) T (e) V
107. If U is perform seventh, which of the following must perform second?
(a) Q (b) R (c) S (d) T (e) V
108. If P is to perform eighth, which of the following must perform second?
(a) R (b) S (c) T (d) V (e) W
109. If T is to perform third, W must perform:
(a) First or fifth (b) second or fifth (c) fourth or seventh (d) fifth or seventh (e) Sixth or seventh
110. If Q is to perform third, V fourth, and W fifth, which of the following must perform sixth?
(a) P (b) R (c) S (d) T (e) U

Directions (111- 115)

A fabric designer is selecting colours for a striped pattern with a wide stripe, then a medium – width stripe, then three narrow
stripes. Immediately after the narrow stripes, the pattern repeats, with the same colours as follows.
The colours from among which the designer will choose are as follows.
Light colours: lavender and white
Intermediate colours: red and orange
Dark Colour : brown and green
Adjacent stripes in the fabric must be of different colours from each other. Adjacent stripes in the fabric must also be of different
levels of darkness (light, intermediate or dark) from each other, except that the medium-width stripe and the narrow stripe
adjacent to it can be the same level as each other.
111. Which of the following, beginning with the wide stripe, is an order of colours that the designer can select?
(a) Lavender, white, red, brown, orange (b) White, red, orange, brown, green
(c) Red, lavender, white, orange, brown (d) Orange, green, white, red, orange
(e) Brown, white, brown, white, lavender
112. Which of the following is true, if both lavender and white are used for the pattern?
(a) The two colours must each be used for a narrow stripe.
(b) The two colours must be used, in either order, for the medium-width stripe and the narrow stripe and the narrow stripe
adjacent to it.
(c) If lavender is used for the middle of the medium-width stripe.
(d) If white is used for any of the narrow stripe, lavender must be used for the wide stripe and can be used for another one of the
narrow stripe and can be used for another one of the remaining stripes as well.
(e) If lavender is used for the wide stripe, white must be used for the middle of the three narrow stripes.
113. Which of the following, beginning with the wide stripe, is an order of colours that the designer can select?
(a) Green, white, lavender, brown, orange (b) Lavender, green, brown, orange, white
(c) Red, orange, green, brown, lavender (d) Orange, white, green, lavender, red
(e) Brown, lavender, white, orange, green.
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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
114. If green is used for the middle of the three narrow stripes and for one other stripe, and red and orange are the only other
colours used, which of the following is true?
(a) The medium-width stripe must be green
(b) The medium-width stripe can be green, but if it is, the two remaining narrow stripes must be of the same colour as each other.
(c) The wide stripe must be green.
(d) The wide stripe can be green, but if it is, the two remaining narrow stripes must be of the same colour as each other.
(e) The wide stripe can be green, but if it is, the two remaining narrow stripes must be of the same colour as each other.
115. If at least two of the stripe will be red and at least two others will be white, which of the following is true?
(a) Lavender cannot be used for the wide stripe.
(b) Brown cannot be used for the medium-width stripe.
(c) Green cannot be used for the narrow stripe.
(d) Orange can be used for the middle of the three narrow stripes.
(e) Lavender can be used for the narrow stripe after which the pattern repeats.

Directions (116-119)
F, G and H are insurance companies and Q, R, S and T are private detectives. Each works for at least one of the insurance
companies.
Q always works for F and at least one of the other companies. Some of the time G employs only one of these detectives, the rest
of the time it employs exactly two of them. F and H each employ exactly two of these detectives all the time.
116. If R works for H only, and if S works for G and H only, T works for:
(a) F only (b) G only (c) H only (d) both F and G (e) Both F and H
117. If Q and R both work for the same two insurance companies, T must work for:
(a) Both F and G (b) Both F and H (c) Either F or G but not both (d) Either F or H but not both
(e) Either G or H but not both
118. Whenever only S works for G, which of the following must be true?
(a) R works for either F or G but not both (b) T works for either G or H but not both
119. Whenever G employs only one detective, which of the following must be true?
I. R works for two insurance companies.
II. T works for G.
III S works for only one insurance company.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II only (e) II and III only.

Directions (120-123)
A pet strone owner is setting up several fish thanks, each to contain exactly six fish so chosen from species F, G, H, I, J, K and L
that none of the fish in any given tank will fight. Fish of any of the species mentioned above can be placed in a tank together,
except for the following resrictions:
I. Fish of species F will fight with fish of species H, J and K.
II. Fish of species I will fight with fish of species G and K.
III. If three or more fish of species I are in one tank, they will fight with each other.
I. Fish of species J will fight with fish of species L.
II. If a fish of species G is to be in a tank, at least one fish of species k must be in the same tank.
120. If a tank is to contain fish of exactly three different species, these species could be:
(a) F, G and I (b) F, I and K (c) G, H and I (d) H, I and J (e) I, J and L
121. If there are to be exactly two species represented in a tank, and three fish of species J are to be in the tank, the other three
fish in that tank could be from which of the following species?
(a) F (b) G (c) H (d) I (e) L
122. If a tank is to contain fish of exactly four different species, it cannot contain fish of species:
(a) F (b) G (c) H (d) J (e) L
123. Fish of which of the following species would be put into a tank with fish of species G?
(a) F and I (b) F and J (c) H and I (d) H and K (e) I and K

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1 A 11 E 21 B 31 E 41 B 51 E
2 A 12 E 22 A 32 E 42 B 52 D
3 B 13 D 23 B 33 B 43 C 53 B
4 C 14 E 24 C 34 A 44 A 54 A
5 A 15 D 25 C 35 D 45 E 55 C
6 C 16 D 26 A 36 E 46 E 56 C
7 E 17 E 27 B 37 E 47 E 57 A
8 A 18 B 28 C 38 C 48 B 58 B
9 D 19 B 29 C 39 A 49 A 59 B
10 E 20 D 30 C 40 E 50 A 60 D

61 E 71 B 81 B 91 D 101 D 111 C
62 E 72 A 82 B 92 D 102 B 112 E
63 D 73 C 83 A 93 E 103 E 113 A
64 E 74 B 84 E 94 A 104 B 114 C
65 B 75 B 85 C 95 C 105 C 115 A
66 E 76 E 86 C 96 D 106 D 116 A
67 E 77 E 87 A 97 C 107 A 117 E
68 E 78 D 88 B 98 E 108 B 118 E
69 C 79 B 89 C 99 C 109 D 119 C
70 C 80 E 90 D 100 D 110 B 120 D

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Direction Sense Test

1 . Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 m he turns to the left and walks 25 m straight. Again he turns to
the left and walks a distance 40 m straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 m. How far is he from the starting
point?
(a)140 (b) 35 (c) 115 (d) 25

2 . Arun started walking towards north. After walking 30 m, he turned left and walked 40m. He then turned left and walked 30m.
He again turned left and walked 50m. How far was he from his original position.
(a)50 m (b) 40m (c) 10m (d) 20m

3 . Ramu went 15 kms to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked 25 kms
and finally turning left covered 20 kms. How far was he from his house?
(a) 5km (b) 10km (c) 40 km (d) 80 km

4 . Rekha who is facing south turns to her left and walks 15 m, then she turns to her left and walks 7 metres, then facing west she
walks 15m. How far is she from her original position?
(a) 22m (b) 37 m (c) 44 m (d) 7 m

5 . Going 50 m to the south of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20m. Then turning to the north, she goes 30m. and
then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she walking now?
(a) North-West (b) North (c) South-East (d) East

6 . Shailesh and Mohan starts from a fixed point. Shailesh moves 3 km northward, turns right and then covers 4 km. Mohan
moves 5
km westwards, turns right and walks 3 km . The distance between Shailesh and Mohan now is
(a) 10 km (b) 9 km (c) 8 km (d) 6 km

7 . A man walks 30 metres towards south. Then, turning to his r ight, he walks 30 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 20
metres. Again, he turns to his left and walks30 metres. How far is he from his initial position?
(a) 30 m (b) 20 m (c) 50 m (d) 60 m

8 . Suresh starts from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 30 m, he turned towards right and walked 20 metres.
He then turned left and moving a distance of 10 metr es, turned to his left again and walked 40 metres. He now turns to the left
and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West

9 . A man walks 10 km towards north. From there he walks 6 km towards south.Then he walks 3 km towards east. How far and
in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
(a) 7 km east (b) 5 km west (c) 5 km north East (d) 7 km west

10 . One morning after sunrise, Sumesh and Ratheesh were standing on a lawn with their backs towards each other. Sumesh's
shadow
fell exactly towards left hand side. Which direction was Ratheesh facing?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South

11 . A watch reads 4. 30 if the minute hand points East, in what direction will the hour hand point?
(a) North (b) North- West (c) South East (d) North east

12 . Five students A,B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, D is on the right of E. B is on the left of E but is on the right of A. D is on
the left of C. Who is sitting on the extreme left?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

13 . Facing the east, Rajesh turned left and walked 10 metres, then he turned to his left again and walked 10 m. He then turned
450 towards his right and went straight to cover 25 metres. In which direction from his starting point is he ?
(a) South-west (b) South-east (c) North-west (d) North-east

14 . Shyam travels 5 km towards east and then he turns left and moves 6km further. He then turns right and moves 9 km. Finally
he turns once again to his right and moves 6 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 6 km (b) 21 km (c) 14 km (d) 9 km

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15 . A man travels 2 km to the north and turns east and travels 10 km and again he turns north and travels 3 km and again turns to
east and travels 2 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 10 km (b) 13 km (c) 15 km (d) 17 km

16 . Reena travelled from point A to a distance of 10 ft east at point B. She then turned r ight and walked 3 ft. Again she turned
right and walked 14 ft. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 4 ft (b) 5 ft (c) 24 ft (d) 27 ft

17 . A starts and walks towards south. He then turns to his right and walks 3 km and then again turns left and walks 5 km. In
which direction is he from the starting point?
(a) West (b) South-West (c) North-East (d) East

18. A man travels 12 km west, then 3 km towards south and then 8 km towards east.How far is he from the start?
(a) 23 km (b) 20 km (c) 15 km (d) 5 km

19 . Which of the following turning sequences will make one who started walking towards East, walk towards South?
(a) Left, Left, Left (b) Left, Left, Right (c) Right, Right, Right (d) Left, Right Left

20 . Raj starts from his office facing west and walks 100 metres straight, then takes a right turn and walks 100 metres. Further he
takes a left turn and walks 50 metres. In which direction is Raj now from the starting point?
(a) North-east (b) South-west (c) North (d) North-west

21 . One day John left home and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and
turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kms will he have to cycle to r each his home straight?
(a) 10 km (b) 15 km (c) 20 km (d) 25 km

22 . A rat runs 20' towards East and turns to right runs 10' and turns to right runs 9' and again turns to left runs 5' and then turns
to left runs 12' and finally turns to left and runs 6'. Now which direction is the rat facing?
(a) East (b) North (c) West (d) South

23 . I travelled 3 km southwards, then turned right and travelled 5 km. Then again turned right and travelled 7 km. In which
direction
was I travelling last?
(a) South (b) East (c) North (d) West

24 . After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. In the
end,I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my journey?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West

25 . Arun started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After some time, he turned left, then turned right and then
towards the left again. In which direction is he going now?
(a) East or South (b) West or North (c) North or South (d) South or West

Answers
1 . (b) 2 . (c) 3 . (b) 4 . (d) 5 . (a) 6 . (b) 7 . (c) 8.(a) 9 . (c) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16.(b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19.
(a) 20.(d) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c)

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Direction Sense
Exercise 1

1. A person travels a distance of 4 m northwards, that travels 3 m westwards, then travels 12 meters leftwards and finally travels
15 meters rightwards. What is the approximate distance of the place he reached from his original place?
a. 17 m b. 42 m c. 20 m d. 34 m

2. A person travels a distance of 12 m northwards and then travels a distance of 5 m westwards, then a distance of 3 m leftwards,
and again 6 m leftwards and finally travels 15 m towards the south. What is the present horizontal distance from the place he had
started? Is he to the west or east of the starting point?
a. 7 m towards east b. 1 m towards west c. 7 m towards south d. 1 m towards east

3. A person starts from his house, travels a distance of 12 m westwards, then travels a distance of 10 m northwards, then a
distance of 10 m southwards. What is his distance from his house presently?
a. 22 m b. 2 m c. 12 m d. 8 m

4. A person starts from his house and travels a distance of 10 m southwards and then travels a distance of 12 m rightwards, then
travels a distance of 10 m rightwards and finally travels a distance of 10 m in the eastern direction. At what horizontal distance is
he from his house?
a. 2 m b. 32 m. c. 22 m d. 12 m

5. A person starts from his office and goes towards his house. To reach his house, he has to follow the following directions:
Travel 5 km towards north-east from the office followed by 5 km towards south-east; then travel 5 km towards south-west
followed by 5 km towards north-west. Approximately how far is the office from his house?
a. 5 m b. 10 m c. 0 d. 20 m

6. A person, starting from his house, travels 5 km to the west, then travels 7 km to the right and then travels 4 km to the left after
which he travels 2 km southwards and finally travels 3 km westwards. How far has he travelled from his house?
a. 14 km b. 13 km c. 10 km d. 15 km

7. A person travels 12 km towards the east and then travels 5 km towards the left. How far and in what direction is he from the
original point?
a. 17 km towards north-east b. 13 km towards north-east
c. 17 km south-west d. 13 km towards south-west

8. A person travels 5 km towards the west and the travels 21 km towards the left; then he travels 5 km to the right and then
travels 6 km towards the left and finally travels 2 km towards the east. How far is he from the starting point in vertical direction?
a. 7 km b. 21 km c. 15 km d. 27 km

9. A person travels 4 km north and then travels 5 km eastwards. He then travels 10 km rightwards, and then 3 km to the left and
finally 5 km northwards, how far is he approximately from his original destination and in what direction?
a. 13.5 km towards south-east b. 15 km towards south
c. 8 km towards south-east d. 18 km towards south

10. A person travels 10 km towards south. He then turns left and travels 2 km and then turns right and travels 4 km and finally
travels 2 km towards the east. What is his position (in horizontal and vertical directions) with reference to the starting point?
a. 4 km to the east, 14 km to the south b. 14 km to south, 4 km to the east
c. 18 km to the south, 14 km to the east d. 18 km to the south, 8 km to the east

11. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5 km to the right and then travels 15 km towards the right
and finally travels 5 km towards the east. How far is he from the starting place?
a. 28.5 km b. 11.5 km c. 3 km d. 5 km

12. A person starts from his house and travels 10 km towards south and then travels 4 km rightwards. He then travels 7 km
leftwards, again travel 7 km leftwards and finally travels 17 km to the left. How far is he from his original place?
a. 35 km b. 6 km c. 31 km d. 3 km

13. A person travels 6 km towards west , then 5 km towards north, and finally travels 6 km towards west. How far is he from his
original place ad in what direction?
a. 13 km to the north-west b. 8 km to the north-west c. 11 km to the west d. 17 km to the west

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14. A person travels 7 km towards east, then 9 km towards south, then travels 1 km towards left and then 9 km towards north,
and finally travels 11 km towards west. How far is he from his original place and in what direction?
a. 4 km to the west b. 17 km to the east c. 3 km to the west d. 16 km to the east

15. A person travels 5 km towards west, then 10 km southwards, then travels 3 km towards east, and then 10 km northwards and
finally goes 5 km westwards. How far is he from the starting place?
a. 10 km b. 7 km c. 8 km d. 12 km

16. A man goes northwards and travels 5 km and then goes 5 km towards the east, then travels 15 km towards the right and
finally travels 17 km towards the right. Approximately how far is he from original place?
a. 22.8 km b. 8 km c. 12 km d. 15.6 km

17. A person starts from his house and goes 15 km northwards, then travels 4 km to the left, and then 5 km towards the left, then
again travels 10 km towards the left, and then 18 km towards the right. How far is he from his house and in what direction?
a. 19 km to the south-east b. 10 km to the south-east
c. 19 km to the north-west d. 10 km to the north-west

18. A person travels 20 km in the northwards direction, then 4 km the eastwards direction, and then 10 km in the eastwards
direction again, then travel 3 km in the eastward direction and finally travels 6 km in the southward direction. How far is he from
the starting point?
a. 23 km b. 25 km c. 37 km d. 34 km

19. A person travels 7 km towards the east, then turns right and travels 7 km, then travels 15 km towards the left, then goes 12
km towards the left again and finally goes 5 km towards the north. How far is he from his original place in the horizontal
direction?
a. 24 km b. 8 km c. 22 km d. 17 km

20. A person starts from his house, then travels 6 km the east, 12 km towards the left, 6 km towards the right, 7 km to the south,
4 km towards the left, 12 km towards the left and finally travels 6 km towards the right in the given order. Where is he now in
with reference to the starting point?
a. 25.6 km to the north-east b. 44 km to the north
c. 27.8 km to the north-east d. 32 km to the south-west

21. Gita walks 10 km from north to south and turns left and again walks 5 km, then she turns left and walks 8 km. in which
direction is she positioned now with reference to the starting point?
a. East b. South-East c. North d. North-East

22. Sailaja travelled straight from a point “P” to “Z”, which is at a distance of 100 m. she turned right and walked 60 m, then
again turned right and walked 80 m. Finally, she turned right and walked 60 m. How far is she from the starting point?
a. 20 m b. 30 m c. 10 m d. 40 m

23. Two cars start from opposite points, which are 235 km apart on a main road. The first car runs for 60 km and takes a right
turn and then runs for 30 km. it then turns left and runs for another 20 km and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In
the meantime, due to a puncture, the other car has run only 45 km along the main road. What would be the distance between the
2 cars at this point?
a. 90 km b. 105 km c. 110 km d. 125 km

24. After walking 10 km, I turned right and walked 5 km, then turned left and walked 1 km. now, I am moving towards South.
From which direction did I start mu journey?
a. North b. South-West c. East d. West

25. A man went to office, which is 6 km westwards from home. His wife went to market which is 8 km northwards. If the
husband and wife started at the same time, at the same place along the shortest route between the market and the office, then
route between the market and the office, then where will they meet?
a. 5 km from the office b. 5 km from the market c. None d. Both (a) and (b)

26. Smitha moved a distance of 85 mts towards south, then turned to right and walked for 15 m. She turned to right again and
walked 60 m. Finally, she turned right at an angle of 450 and continued walking. In which direction was she moving ultimately?
a. South-East b. North-West c. North d. North-East

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27. A’s dog Pluto runs 25 meters towards south and turns right, runs 15 meters and turns right, runs 5 meters and turns left, runs
8 meters and then turns right, runs 1 meter and turns left, runs 15 meters, finally turns right and runs 5 meters. Now, which
direction is Pluto facing?
a. North b. East c. West d. South

28. Santhi started from her house and walked 10 meters towards west, where her brother joined her. Both of them turned right,
and walked 10 meters. There was a quarrel between the two and they got separated. Santhi turned left and her brother Sarath
turned right. Santhi walked 10 meters and turned right. Sarath walked 15 meters and turned right. Santhi walked 5 meters to the
right. Finally she turned right again, walked 3 meters and reached her friend’s house. Sarath who turned right walked 5 meters
and finally he turned right, walked 2 meters and reached his friends house. Which direction is Sarath facing now?
a. North b. East c. West d. South

29. Ram started walking towards north to his office which is 3 km from his house. From there he turns 135 0 in the anti-clock
wise direction and then 1800 in the clock-wise direction. Which direction is he facing now from his office?
a. North-West b. North-East c. North d. South-West

Direction for question 30 to 34: The following questions are based on the diagram given below showing four persons stationed
at four corners of a square piece of plot as shown. There is a boundary around the plot.

E S

C D
N W

B
30. A starts walking straight towards B and midway he turns to his left and after covering half of the distance he takes a 45 0 turn
in the clock-wise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a. East b. West c. South d. South-West

31. C start walking straight towards A and midway he takes a 900 turn clock-wise and starts walking again. After he covers half
the distance he turns to his left. Which direction is he facing now?
a. South b. North c. West d. East

32. If A and D interchange their places and then D starts walking along the boundary in the clock-wise direction and stops after
walking one and a half side around the plot, then he is in which direction from A?
a. North-East b. South c. North d. None of these

33. C and B exchange their positions and move to the next corner, each clock-wise anti-clock-wise respectively. From there if A
and D again move to the next corner each clock-wise and anti-clock-wise respectively, what is the new configuration in
clockwise direction starting from A?
a. ADBC b. ACBD c. ABCD d. ADCB

34. After the movements in Q.33, who is facing east as per the directions given in the question?
a. A b. B c. Both A and B d. None

35. One evening A was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his left. Which direction was he facing?
a. South-East b. South c. North d. East

36. A clock is so placed that at 2 p.m. the minute hand points towards north-west. In which direction does the hour hand point at
6.00 p.m.?
a. North-West b. West c. North-East d. South-East

37. A watch shows 8.30. if the minute hand points towards east, in what direction will the hour hand point?

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a. South-West b. South-east c. West d. North-West

38. A compass had been damaged (in an accident and its needle turned in such a manner that the pointer which was showing
west, started showing south. One person went in the wrong direction on the basis of the compass thinking it to be east. In what
direction is he actually travelling?
a. South b. West c. North d. East

39. One evening, two friends Swapna and Keerthi were talking to each other with their backs towards each other. If Swapna’s
shadow was exactly to the right of her, which direction was Keerthi facing?
a. South b. North c. East d. West

40. My school is to the east of my hostel while my office is to the south-west of the market and the market is to the market and
the market is to the north-west of my school. If the distance between my school and hostel, hostel and market, office and market
and office and hostel are equal, then in which direction is the office with respect to my school?
a. West b. East c. South d. South-East

41. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its hour hand points towards north-east. In what direction does the minute hand point at
4.00 clock?
a. South-East b. South-West c. North-East d. North-West

42. Sunil walks 15 km towards south and from there he walks 5 km towards north. Then, he walks 5 km towards west. In which
direction is he with reference to his starting point?
a. South-West b. North-West c. North-West d. North-East

43. A man going 50 m to the south of his house, turns left and goes another 20 m then turning to the north, he goes 30 m and then
starts walking to his house. In which direction is he walking now?
a. North-West b. North c. South-East d. West

44. Starting from point A, ‘Raj’ walked 30 meters towards south. He turned left and walked 32 meters. He then turned left and
walked 15 meters. He again turned left and walked 40 meters and reached point B. How far (approximately) and in which
direction is point B from Point A?
a. 20 m west b. 10 m east c. 10 m west d. 17 m south-west

45. From his office, Ram Raju went 15 km to the north, then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then, he turned south, covered
5 km and finally turning to east, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his office?
a. South b. North c. West d. East

46. A watch shows 4.30. If the minute hand points to east, in what direction will the hour hand point?
a. North-West b. South-East c. North-East d. North

47. One evening two friends Anita and Vijaya were talking to each other face to face. If Vijaya’s shadow was exactly to her right
side, which direction was Anita facing?
a. North b. South c. West d. Data inadequate

48. From his house a person walks 20 meters towards north. He then turns left and walks 40 meters. He again turns left and
walks 20 meters. Further he moves 20 meters after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?
a. 20 m b. 30 m c. 50 m d. 60 m

49. Raju who is facing east, turns 1000 in the clock-wise direction and then 1450 in the anti-clock-wise direction. Which direction
is he facing now?
a. Norht-East b. North c. South-West d. East

50. After walking 6 kms, I turned right and travelled a distance of 2 Kms, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. in the
end I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start mu journey?
a. North b. South c. South-West d. North-East

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Answer Key
1 c 11 C 21 b 31 a 41 c

2 d 12 D 22 a 32 c 42 a

3 b 13 A 23 c 33 c 43 a

4 a 14 C 24 a 34 d 44 d

5 c 15 B 25 d 35 b 45 b

6 b 16 D 26 d 36 d 46 c

7 b 17 B 27 a 37 b 47 b

8 d 18 B 28 c 38 c 48 d

9 c 19 C 29 b 39 a 49 a

10 a 20 C 30 b 40 a 50 b

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Calendar
Exercise

Directions for questions 1 to 20: Choose the correct alternative from the given choices.

1. If 8th March, 1985 was a Friday, then what day of the week, was 26th July, 1985?
a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Friday

2. If 30th June, 1991 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was 7th April, 1992?
a. Sunday b. Monday c. Tuesday d. None of these

3. If 19th September, 1995 was a Tuesday, then what day of the week was 16th November, 1997?
a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Friday d. Sunday

4. If 10th August, 1991 was a Saturday, then what day of the week will this day be after 3 years?
a. Wednesday b. Thursday c. Friday d. None of these

5. If 4th May, 1992 was a Monday, then what day of the week was 1 st January, 1991?
a. Friday b. Thursday c. Tuesday d. Monday

6. If 1st January, 1997 WAS A Wednesday, then what day of the week was 1st January, 1996?
a. Sunday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Monday

7. If 31st July, 1997 was a Thursday, then what day of the week was 30th June, 1996?
a. Friday b. Sunday c. Wednesday d. None of these

8. If 16th January, 1980 was a Wednesday, then what day of the week was 16th January, 1981?
a. Saturday b. Friday c. Tuesday d. Sunday

9. On what day of the week did India celebrate its first Republic Day, i.e., 26 th January, 1950?
a. Sunday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. None of these

10. If holidays are declared only on Sundays and 17th April in a particular year was a holiday, is 24th December a holiday that
year?
a. Yes, 24th December is a holiday b. No, 24th December is not a holiday
th
c. 24 December is a holiday only if it is a leap year. d. Cannot be determined

11. If today is Monday, what day will it be 350 days from today?
a. Sunday b. Monday c. Tuesday d. None of these

12. If today is Tuesday, what day will it be after 1 year and 150 days from today?
a. Monday b. Wednesday
c. Friday d. Can’t be determined

13. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week was 1st January, 1996?
a. Thursday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Friday

14. What day of the week will 1st January, 2008 be given that 1st January 2000 is a Saturday?
a. Sunday b. Wednesday c. Tuesday d. None of these

15. The calendar for the year 1984 is the same as that for the year
a. 2012 b. 2004 c. 1987 d. 1988

16. The last day of century cannot be a

a. Sunday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Friday

17. What day of the week was 18th March, 1924 given that 1st October, 1987 was a Thursday?
a. Sunday b. Friday c. Saturday d. None of these

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18. My wife and I went out for a dinner on April 10 which was a Sunday. I promised to take her out after about 3 months but
only on Sunday. On which of the following dates could I take her out?
a. 10th July b. 19th July c. 21st July d. 30th July

19. I met one of my school friends in America on 16th August, 1997 which was a Saturday and promised to meet him again in
the month of December, 1999 – but only on a Sunday. On which of the following dates could I meet my friend?
a. 24th December, 1999 b. 26th December, 1999 c. 27th December, 1999 d. None of these

20. Vijay met Suraj at The Taj on 25th December, 1987 which was a Friday. Vijay reminded Suraj that their last meeting was
also at the Taj on 6th January, 1984. On which day of the week was 6th January, 1984?
a. Sunday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Friday

Answer Key

1 D 6 D 11 b 16 b

2 C 7 B 12 d 17 d

3 D 8 B 13 a 18 a

4 A 9 C 14 c 19 b

5 C 10 B 15 a 20 d

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Clocks
Exercise

Directions for questions 1 to 25: Choose the correct alternative from the given choices.

1. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock, when the clock shows 4.30 p.m.?
a. 15o b. 30o c. 45o d. None of these

2. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock, when the time is 3.40 a.m.?
a. 60o b. 90o c. 110o d. 130o

3. At what time between 6 O’clock and 7 O’clock, are the hands of a clock together?
a. 6hrs. 087/11 min. b. 6hrs. 328/11 min. c. 6hrs. 368/11 min. d. 6hrs. 489/11 min.

4. At what time between 9 O’clock and 10 O’clock are the hands of a clock in the opposite direction?
a. 9hrs. 178/11 min. b. 9hrs. 219/11 min. c. 9hrs. 239/11 min. d. None of these

5. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 30 minutes past 6?

a. 71/2o b. 111/2o c. 15o d. 23o

6. At what time between 6 O’clock and 7 O’clock are the two hands of a clock opposite in direction?
a. 6hrs. 514/14 min. b. 6hrs. 1511/14 min. c. 6hrs. 5011/14 min. d. None of these

7. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 50 minutes past 8?

a. 15o b. 221/2o c. 35o d. 45o

8. The angle between the two hands of a clock is 100o, when the four hands is between 4 and 5. What time does the watch show?
a. 4hrs. 30 min. b. 4hrs. 40 min. c. 4hrs. 45 min. d. None of these

9. What time does the watch show when the hour hand is between 8 and 9 and the angle between the two hands of the clock is
35o?
a. 8hrs. 45 min. b. 8hrs. 30 min. c. 8hrs. 50 min. d. 8hrs. 56 min.

10. At what time between 11 O’clock and 12 O’clock, will the hands of a clock be at an angle of 82 1/2o?
a. 11hrs. 45 min. b. 11hrs. 36 min. c. 11hrs. 30 min. d. 11hrs. 15 min.

11. A watch, which gains uniformly, was observed to be 5 minutes slow at 12 noon on a Sunday. On the subsequent Wednesday
at 6 p.m. it was noticed that the watch was 5 minutes fast. When did the watch did the watch show the correct time?
a. On Monday at 12 noon b. On Monday at 3 a.m.
c. On Tuesday at 3 a.m. d. On Tuesday at clock midnight

12. A watch which gains uniformly, was observed to be 6 minutes slow at 6 p.m. on Monday. It was noticed 12 minutes fast at 6
a.m. the following Monday morning. When did the watch show the correct time?
a. Wednesday 10 p.m. b. Thursday 10 a.m. c. Tuesday 10 p.m. d. None of the above

13. A watch showed 5 past 5 O’clock on Wednesday evening when the correct time was 5 p.m. it loses uniformly and was 5
minutes slow after two days, at 7 p.m. when did the watch show the correct time?
a. Thursday 5 p.m. b. Thursday 6 a.m. c. Thursday 6 p.m. d. Thursday 6.30 p.m.

14. A clock is set to show the correct time at 9 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in a day. What will be the true time when the
watch indicates 2 p.m. the next day?
a. 48 minutes past 1 p.m. b. 12 minutes past 1 p.m. c. 48 minutes past 10 a.m. d. None of these

15. A clock is set to show the correct time at 6 a.m. The clock loses 12 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the
clock indicates a 5 a.m. after 3 days?
a. 57 minutes past 3 days b. 3 minutes past 6 a.m. c. 48 minutes past 5 a.m. d. 12 minutes past 6 a.m.

16. A watch which loses uniformly was observed to be 10 minutes fast at 8 a.m. on the 17th of a month. It showed 20 minutes
less than the correct time at 8 p.m. on the 24th of the same month. When did the watch show the correct time?
a. On 19th at 8 p.m. b. On 21st at 8 a.m. c. On 20th at 9 a.m. d. None of these

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17. A clock is set to show the correct time at 11 a.m. The clock gains 12 minutes in 12 hours. What will be the true time when
the watch indicates 1 p.m. on the 6th day?
a. 10 a.m. b. 11 a.m. c. 12 noon d. None of these

18. A clock is set to show the correct time at 4 p.m. The clock loses 12 minutes in 48 hours. What will be the true time when the
clock indicates 6 p.m. the next day?
a. 6.06 p.m. b. 6.10 p.m. c. 6.20 p.m. d. 6.12 p.m.

19. There are two clock on a wall, both set to show the correct time at 5 a.m. One clock loses one minute in an hour while the
other gains one minute in an hour. By how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 10 p.m.?
a. 30 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 17 minutes d. 34 minutes

20. There are two clocks on a wall, both set to show the correct time at 10 a.m. Both the clocks gain 1/2 and 1 minute
respectively in an hour. If the clock which gains 1/2 minute in 1 hour shows 10 p.m., what time does the other watch show?
a. 9.48 p.m. b. 9.56 p.m. c. 10.06 p.m. d. None of these

21. A watch which gains 10 seconds in 5 minutes was set right at 9 a.m. when the watch indicated 20 minutes past 7 O’clock the
same evening, the true time is
a. 7 p.m. b. 7.40 p.m. c. 7.10 p.m. d. 8 p.m.

22. A watch which loses 1 second in 10 minutes was right at 10 p.m. when the watch indicated 58 minutes past 7 O’clock, the
next morning, the true time is
a. 7 a.m. b. 8 a.m. c. 7.50 a.m. d. None of these

23. A boy observes the reflection of a wall clock in a mirror. The time observed by the boy in the mirror is 3 hours 45 minutes.
What is the actual time shown in the clock?
a. 8 hours 45 minutes b. 9 hours 45 minutes
c. 8 hours 15 minutes d. 9 hours 15 minutes

24. Ramu asks Shamu, if a wall clock shows 9 hours 30 minutes, what time does it show in the mirror?
a. 2 hours 30 minutes b. 3 hours 30 minutes
c. 9 hours 30 minutes d. None of the above

25. When the reflection of a wall clock is seen in a mirror, the time appeared to be 2 hours 10 minutes. What I the time shown in
the clock when its reflection is not observed in the mirror?
a. 10 hours 10 minutes b. 10 hours 50 minutes
c. 9 hours 10 minutes d. 9 hours 50 minutes
Answer Key

1 C 6 d 11 c 16 a 21 a

2 D 7 c 12 a 17 b 22 b

3 B 8 b 13 c 18 a 23 c

4 D 9 c 14 a 19 d 24 a

5 C 10 a 15 c 20 c 25 d

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CUBES
Directions for questions 1 to 14: Answer the following questions:

Q. 1 What is the number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by three cuts in one direction, six cuts in the second direction
and seven cuts in the third direction?
Q. 2 What is the number of pieces into which a cube can be cut, by five cuts in one direction and seven cuts in another direction?
Q. 3 Find the number of pieces obtained when a cube is cut by 15 cuts?
Q. 4 What is the maximum number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by 13 cuts?
Q. 5 What is the maximum number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by 10 cuts?
Q. 6 What is the maximum number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by 18 cuts?
Q. 7 What is the maximum number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by 16 cuts?
Q. 8 What is the maximum number of pieces into which a cube can be cut by 19 cuts?
Q. 9 How many cuts are required to cut a cube into 512 pieces?
Q. 10 What is the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 294 pieces?
Q. 11 What is the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 150 pieces?
Q. 12 What is the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 210 pieces?
Q. 13 What is the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 343pieces?
Q. 14 What is the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 324 pieces?

Directions for questions 15 to 18: A cube is painted and cut into 343 smaller but identical pieces by the minimum possible
number of cuts:

Q. 15 How many smaller pieces have exactly three painted faces?

Q. 16 How many smaller pieces have exactly two painted faces?
Q. 17 How many smaller pieces have exactly one painted faces?
Q. 18 How many smaller pieces have no painted face?

Directions for questions 19 to 22: A cube is painted and cut into 729 smaller but identical pieces by making the minimum
possible number of cuts:

Q. 19 How many smaller pieces have exactly three painted faces?

Q. 20 How many smaller pieces have exactly two painted faces?
Q. 21 How many smaller pieces have exactly one painted faces?
Q. 22 How many smaller pieces have no painted face?

Directions for questions 23 to 28: A pair of opposite faces of a cube is painted yellow, another pair of opposite faces orange and
the remaining two faces are painted white. The cube is then cut into 343 smaller but identical cubes:

Q. 23 How many of the smaller cubes have all the three colors on them?
Q. 24 How many of the smaller cubes have only white and orange on them?
Q. 25 How many of the smaller cube have exactly two colors on them?
Q. 26 How many of the smaller cube have only white colors on them?
Q. 27 How many of the smaller cubes have exactly one colors on them?
Q. 28 How many of the smaller cubes have no colors have no color on them?

Directions for questions 29 to 36: A pair of adjacent faces of a cubes are painted orange, second pair of adjacent faces yellow,
and a third pair of adjacent faces white. The cubes is then cut into 343 smaller but identical cubes.

Q. 29 How many of the smaller cubes have all the three colors on them?
Q. 30 How many of the smaller cubes have only orange and white on them?
Q. 31 How many of the smaller cubes have exactly two colors on them?
Q. 32 How many of the smaller cubes have exactly two painted surfaces in two different colors?

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Q. 33 How many of the smaller cubes have exactly one color on them?
Q. 34 How many of the smaller cubes have exactly one painted surface in exactly one color?
Q. 35 How many of the smaller cubes do not have white color on them?
Q. 36 How many of the smaller cubes have yellow or orange but no white color on them?

Directions for questions 37 to 40: Answer the following questions:

Q. 37 A cube is to be painted in blue or green. In how many different ways can it be done?
Q. 38 343 smaller and identical cubes are placed together to form a big cube. How many more such smaller cubes are required to
cover the big cube?
i. Completely?
ii. When it is placed on the table?
iii. When it is placed in the corner of a room such that three mutually adjacent sides are covered by the floor and two walls
of the room?
Q. 39 How many cuboids of the dimensions, 4 cm x 5 cm x 8 cm are required to form a cube of the least possible size?
Q. 40 A cube has been cut into cuboids of size 2 cm x 3 cm. What is the least possible length of the edge of the cube and how
many such cuboids can be obtained from this cube?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

Letter Series and Letter Analogies

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Consider all the letters of the alphabet written in order from left to right.

1. The letter which is fifth on the right of the letter which is fourth on the right from D is
a. O b. L c. N d. M

2. The letter which is 2nd to the right of the letter which is 5th to the right of M is
a. T b. O c. S d. R

3. The letter which is 5th to the right of the letter which is 7th to the right of D is
a. R b. Q c. P d. O

4. The letter which comes second to the left of a letter which is fifth to the right of N is
a. Q b. S c. R d. P

Directions for questions 5 to 8: Consider all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right – starting with Z and
going to A.

5. What is the fourth letter to the right of the letter third to the right of the letter J?
a. F b. E c. D d. C

6. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of W?
a. R b. O c. M d. Q

7. What is the letter, which is two places to the right of the letter which is third letter to the left of the letter M?
a. J b. L c. H d. N

8. What is the letter, which is four places to the left of a letter which is four places to the right of Q?
a. T b. R c. Q d. P

Directions for questions 9 to 20: In each question, a series of letters satisfying a certain pattern are given. Identify the pattern and then
find the letter/letters that will come in place of the blank/blanks.

9. A, E, I, M, Q, U, ___, ___
a. B, F b. Y,C c. G, I d. K, O

10. AY, BZ, CW, DX, ___, ___

a. GU b. FV c. EV d. EU

11. KP, LO, MN, ____

a. NM b.NP c. OP d. PQ

12. AD, EI, JO, PV, ____

a. WC b. VC c. WD d. SX

13. BD, EG, HJ, KM, ____

a. NQ b. NP c. OP d. NM

14. ABY, CDW, EFU, GHS, ____

a. IJK b. IJR c. IKP d. IJQ

15. ABC, ZYX, DEF, WVU, ____

a. GHI b. TSR c. IHG d. STR

16. QON, MKJ, IGF, ____

a. ECA b. ECB c. BCE d. EBC
17. XCD, WDE, ____, UFG
a. VEF b. VFG c. VUF d. VFE

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

18. AXE, FSJ, KNO, ____

a. PRI b. PRU c. PSV d. PIT

19. AIU, CKW, ____, GOA

a. ENY b. EMY c. EKY d. EGS

20. TGS, RIQ, ____, NMM

a. POK b. KOP c. PKO d. OPK

Directions for questions 21 to 25: In each of the following questions an alphabetical series is given, but some of the letters are missing in
the series. Find out form the given choices, which letters should fit in the series.

21. a ___ ba ___ b ___ b ____ a ___ b

a. aabba b. bbabb c. abbab d. aabaa

22. ab ___ d ___ bc ___ a ___ c ___ ab ___ d

a. abbcdd b. caddbc c. cadbdc d. cabbcd

23. a ___ b ___ cc ___ dd ___ ___ eeee

a. abcdd b. bcddd c. bcdee d, bcdde

24. ab ___ d ___ cd ___ abd ___ b ___

a. cbadac b. dbacba c. cbadca d. cbacad

25. a ___ c ___aa ___ ___ c___ d___ aaabb ___

a. bdbdccb b. bdbbcdb c. bdbbcbd d. baddbbc

Directions for questions 26 to 32: In each of the following questions a series of letters id given. Find out the next letter in the series.

26. Y, W, U, S, Q, O, M, ___
a. X b. S c. U d. None of these

27. E, V, G, T, I, R, K, P, ____
a. G b. T c. R d. M

28. H, I, K, L, N, O, Q, R, ____
a. T b. S c. K d. None of these

29. I, G, E, D, B, Z, Y, ____
a. V b. D c. W d. None of these

30. M, O, N, N, O, M, P, L, Q, K, R, J, ___
a. Z b. I c. J d. S

31. D, N, O, S, A, J, J, M, ___, ___

a. K S b. H J c. N D d. AM

32. X, C, H, S, V, E, M, ____
a. L b. N c. P d. S

Directions for questions 33 to 50: In each of the following questions a series of letter/ letters is given which follow a particular logic.
Find the next or missing letter/letters in the series.

33. a, b, f, x, p, ___
a. z b. k c. r d. o

34. d, h, p, f, l, x, ____
a. k b. g c. y d. v

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
35. a, b, e, c, I, d, o, ___, u, g
a. m b. f c. t d. e

36. c, a, d, e, I, n, w, ___
a. k b. p c. z d. l

37. g, h, j, m, q, v, ___
a. d b. f c. b d. z

38. h, j, n, t, b, l, ___
a. s b. x c. p d. m

39. b, d, g, l, s, d, q, ___
a. u b. h c. p d. r

40. s, h, y, r, m, j, ___
a. b b. a c. i d. f

41. b c a d d b c a b c a d d b c a b c a d d b c a b c a d d b c a b c ___ ___

a. cd b. ad c. cb d. ac

42. a, e, I, o, u, u, o, i, ___
a. e b. a c. u d. o

43. b, g, p, c, h, q, d, I, r, e, j, s, ____
a. k b. t c. j d. f

44. j, l, k, m, o, n, p, r, q, s ___
a. u b. v c. t d. r

45. z, a, b, e, f, g, j, k, l, ___
a. p b. o c. m d. s

46. p r t v x ___ y w u s q
a. z b. a c. v d. t

47. b, c, d, f, g, h, j, k, l, m ,n, ___

a. p b. q c. r d. o

48. c, d, e, g, i, l, __ s, w, b, __ m, s
a. m, q b. j, l c. o, g d. None of these

49. bdabcdbdabcd ___ dabcdb ___ abcdbd ___

a. bcd b. bda c. dbc d. cda

50.z, y, x, w, v, t, ___, r, q, p, n, m
a. w b. s c. p d. u

Directions for questions 51 to 100: There are two pairs; the first pair follows some relationship. Use the same relationship to find the
second analogy of the second pairs.

51. RI : NE :: PT : ___
a. LP b. LN c. NO d. None of these

52. JK : HH :: QP : ___
a. LM b. MO c. OM d. None of these

53. DJ : WQ :: FK : ___
a. UR b. RU c. PU d. UP

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
54. BF : YU :: MN : ____
a. JK b. QR c. PO d. None of these

55. VS : LI :: PR : ___
a. EF b. FH c. GH d. DF

56. LN : OR :: JL :
a. OM b. PM c. OP d. MP

57. LT :: QY :: EF : ___
a. OP b. MJ c. LN d. None of these

58. GFE : TSR :: JIH : ____

a. OPQ b. WXY c. WVU d. None of these

59. AEH : ZVS :: DGL : ____

a. WTO b. VPN c. WHO d. VPT

60. CGH : FKM :: JLN : ____

a. NTS b. NRS c. MQT d. MPS

61. ROM : PMK :: SET : ____

a. QCR b. UGV c. RPS d. TUF

62. SAM : WEQ :: ZAR : ____

a. DZU b. WGV c. DGV d. None of these

63.GEORGE : HEQRJE :: RUSTIN : ____

a. SUTAN b. SUUTLN c. TUVTMN d. None of these

64. ZEBRA : ZDBOA :: LEROI : ____

a. MFSRJ b. LDSLJ c. MDSRJ d. LDRLI

65. DELHI : EDMGJ :: COCHIN :: ____

a. DODIKO b. BPDIHM c. DNDGJM d. BPBIJN

66. MICRO : PLFUR :: CENTI : ____

a. ZBFQK b. EIPSK c. ZBKQF d. FHQWL

67. ZODIAC : XQBKYE :: ARROW : ___

a. XNSPR b. YTPQU c. XRNPS d. YPTUQ

68. BRAK : YZIP :: TANT : ____

a. GVMG b. HUMG c. GEMG d. HEMG

69. RASH : VFYP :: ROAR : _____

A. VSGY b. YTGX c. VUHY d. None of these

70. DUST : CETVRTSU :: PALM : ____

a. ORZCJNKN b. OQBCJNMN c. OQZBKMLN d. None of these

71. BART : CABZSQUS :: DINE :____

a. ECJHOMED b. FDKIPNGE c. EDIJONEF d. None of these

72. SUE : QUSWCG :: RIM

a. PIJKGNO b. PTGKKO c. PJIGKON d. PTKGOK

73. TOR : VRQMTP :: DWN : ____

a. BFUYLP b. FBYUPL c. FYBULP d. BUFLYP

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
74.DEN : EFFGOP :: RUM : ____
a. STVWNO b. QSTVLN c. SQVTNZ d. None of these

75. EFG : HIJ :: MNO : ____

a. STV b. PQR c. CDE d. XYZ

76. CEG : EGC :: LNP : ____

a. LNP b. UWY c. NPL d. MOP

77. NLO : RPS :: _____ : ZXA

a. VUW b. VTR c. VTW d. TRP

78. OLIR : UFCX :: _____ : IROL

a. CYUF b. CUXF c. CLIF d. CXUF

79. AFKP : UZEJ :: ? : VAFK

a. CGLQ b. BHLQ c. GCQL d. BGLG

80. YDIN : VAFK :: ? : BGLQ

a. EKNS b. DKMT c. DLMS d. EJOT

Additional directions for questions 81 to 87: If the 1st half and 2nd half of the English alphabet are reversed and a new series is formed
then answer the following questions based on that series.

81. K : P :: C : ____
a. Y b. X c. P d. Q

82. K : X :: C : ____
a. Y b. X c. P d. Q

83. JIH : WVU :: GFE : ____

a. TUV b. RST c. TSR d. VUT

84. FD : UW :: JH : _____
a. QS b. PT c. RS d. None of these

85. KGA : PTZ :: IBC : ____

a. ORY b. YOR c. ROY d. None of these

86. TVX : GIK :: TSN : ____

a. HFA b. GFB c. GEB d. None of these

87. HGF : UTS :: FED : ____

a. SRQ b. QRS c. STU d. UST

88. EVIR : VERI :: XWKV : ____

a. XWVK b. WXKW c. GOQE d. CDPE

89. ALM : COQ :: BDY : ____

a. DFC b. DEC c. DGB d. DGC

90. BDFH : JLNP : : MOQS : ____

a. YWAU b. UWZA c. VWYA d. UWYA

91. KPQR : LRTV :: DGHY : ____

a. EIKC b. ETKC c. EJKD d. EHKD

92. WMN : TII :: DGHY : _____

a. OLH b. OMH c. OLG d. None of these

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
93. AE : EI :: IO : ____
a. OV b. MS c. PM d. NT

94. MMKO : QIOK :: UESG : ____

a. POHS b. YAWC c. VUES d. LPRT

95. FILO : EFIK :: GJMP : _____

a. SUEG b. FGJL c. FHJL d. EHJL

Additional directions for questions 96 to 100: There is a blank space in each question in which only one of the four alternative given,
satisfies the same relation as formed in the two terms on the other side of the sign ::. Find the correct answer.

96. a : e :: o : ___
a. s b. u c.. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

97. c : x :: l : ___
a. p b. o c. q d. s

98. b : d :: e : ___
a. l b. k c. z d. y

99. a : a :: b : ___
a. h b. e c. g d. None of these

100. c : f :: k : __
a. l b. v c. m d. t

Answer Key

1 d 11 a 21 b 31 d 41 b 51 a 61 a 71 d 81 b 91 a

2 a 12 c 22 c 32 b 42 a 52 c 62 d 72 b 82 c 92 c

3 c 13 b 23 d 33 c 43 d 53 d 63 b 73 b 83 c 93 b

4 a 14 d 24 a 34 d 44 a 54 d 64 d 74 a 84 a 94 b

5 d 15 a 25 b 35 b 45 b 55 b 65 c 75 b 85 d 95 b

6 b 16 b 26 d 36 a 46 a 56 d 66 d 76 c 86 d 96 c

7 d 17 a 27 d 37 c 47 a 57 d 67 b 77 c 87 a 97 b

8 c 18 d 28 a 38 b 48 c 58 c 68 a 78 d 88 d 98 d

9 b 19 b 29 c 39 b 49 b 59 a 69 d 79 d 89 d 99 a

10 d 20 c 30 d 40 c 50 b 60 d 70 c 80 d 90 d 100 b

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

NUMBER ANALOGIES
Directions for questions 1 to 96: In each question below, two pairs of numbers are given but one number in the second pair is
missing. Identify the relationship between the two numbers in the first pair and find the missing number in the second pair such that
the numbers in the second pair also follow the same relationship.

1. 1 : 4 :: 25 : ?
a. 27 b. 29 c. 30 d. 36

2. 80 : 99 :: 3 : ?
a. 8 b. 7 c. 10 d. None of these

3. 25 : 5 :: 36 : ?
a. 30 b. 25 c. 20 d. 6

4. 49 : 343 :: 81 : ?
a. 141 b. 139 c. 216 d. 729

5. 2 : 20 :: 12 : ?
a. 125 b. 100 c. 45 d. 120

6. 4 : 125 :: 9 : ?
a. 121 b. 84 c. 216 d. None of these

7. 0.25 : 0.5 :: 2 : ?
a. 2.25 b. 2.30 c. 2.50 d. 2.80

8. 3 : 33 :: 15 : ?
a. 55 b. 155 c. 165 d. None of these

9. 49 : 94 :: 25 : ?
a. 45 b. 52 c. 75 d. None of these

10. 9 : 5 :: 25 : ?
a. 14 b. 15 c. 9 d. 12

11. 4 : 12 :: 10 : ?
a. 20 b. 90 c. 60 d. 45

12. 5 : 7 :: 13 : ?
a. 17 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30

13. 2 : 16 :: 5 : ?
a. 125 b. 100 c. 625 d. None of these

14. 12 : 20 :: 30 : ?
a. 42 b. 48 c. 44 d. 46

15. 10 : 100 :: 11 : ?
a. 100 b. 105 c. 121 d. None of these

16. 4 : 2 :: 15 : ?
a. 3 b. 7.5 c. 8.5 d. None of these

17. 8 : 4 :: 1 : ?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. None of these

18. 5 : 4 :: ? : 31
a. 8 b. 10 c. 16 d. Both (b) and (c)

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
19. 17 : 19 :: ? : 31
a. 30 b. 25 c. 18 d. None of these

20. 5 : 15 :: ? : 36
a. 12 b. 15 c. 24 d. None of these

21. 1 : 11 :: ? : 1111
a. 11 b. 101 c. 1010 d. None of these

22. 3 : 6 :: ? : 18
a. 10 b. 12 c. 9 d. 16

23. 2 : 4 :: ? : 1
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None of these

24. 3 : 25 :: 2 : ?
a. 23 b. 18 c. 16 d. 22

25. 11 : 120 :: 13 : ?
a. 148 b. 156 c. 220 d. 168

26. 24 : 90 :: 56 : _____
a. 120 b. 122 c. 118 d. 124

27. 25 : 50 :: 50 : _____
a. 125 b. 200 c. 75 d. None of these

28. 625 : 650 :: 900 : ____

a. 1000 b. 1200 c. 950 d. 930

29. 1600 : 1560 :: 225 : ____

a. 200 b. 150 c. 210 d. 215

30. 729 : 9 :: 1331 : _____

a. 7 b. 11 c. 13 d. 17

31. 59362 : 25 :: 64836 : _____

a. 21 b. 27 c. 33 d. 24

32. 81 : 3 :: 2401 : _____

a. 15 b. 27 c. 7 d. 24

33. 9 : 8 :: ____ : 125

a. 25 b. 36 c. 26 d. 27

34. 3 : 25 :: 16 : ____
a. 256 b. 289 c. 324 d. 400

35. 7 : 11 :: 31 : ____
a. 33 b. 37 c. 39 d. 41

36. 122 : 170 :: 290 : ___

a. 362 b. 344 c. 332 d. 313

37. 42 : 56 :: 110 : ____

a. 132 b. 136 c. 144 d. 148

38. 357 : 92549 :: 468 : ____

a. 91625 b. 163648 c. 163664 d. 162536

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
39. 8 : 68 :: 12 : ____
a. 138 b. 140 c. 149 d. 150

40. 1 : 1 :: 4096 : ____

a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 11

41. 350 : 7 :: 738 : ?

a. 6 b. 9 c. 8 d. 11

42. 2 : 165 :: 4 : ____

a. 257 b. 329 c. 426 d. 968

43. 10 : 990 :: 3 : ____

a. 9 b. 18 c. 24 d. 27

44. 21 : 81 :: 42 : ____
a. 640 b. 648 c. 625 d. 164

45. 86 : 175 :: 57 : ____

a. 107 b. 114 c. 128 d. 117

46. 5 : 30 :: 9 : ____
a. 45 b. 63 c. 90 d. 81

47. 3 : 27 :: 4 : ____
a. 16 b. 256 c. 84 d. 216

48. 10 : 90 :: 13 : ____
a. 156 b. 182 c. 169 d. 130

49. 35 : 711 :: 1317 : ___

a. 1719 b. 1921 c. 1923 d. 2123

50. 9 : 65 :: 217 : ____

a. 435 b. 516 c. 513 d. 345

51. 144 : 6 :: 24 : ____

a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4

52. 2 : 3 :: 5 : ____
a. 8 b. 7 c. 9 d. 10

53. 3 : 27 :: 6 : ____
a. 196 b. 200 c. 216 d. 256

54. 1 : 4 :: 49 : ____
a. 36 b. 81 c. 100 d. 64

55. 1992 : 1996 :: 2004 : _____

a. 2008 b. 2006 c. 2002 d. 2000

56. 121 : 1331 :: 144 : ____

a. 1441 b. 1332 c. 1541 d. 1728

57. 3 : 5 :: 11 : _____
a. 12 b. 13 c. 19 d. 17

58. 32 : 16 :: 8 : _____
a. 6 b. 4 c. 7 d. 3

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
59. 12 : 156 :: ____ : 182
a. 16 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11

60. 3 : 6 :: 16 : ____
a. 32 b. 18 c. 20 d. 21

61. 235 : 592 :: 575 : ____

a. 769 b. 833 c. 897 d. 932

62. 896 : 773 :: 548 : ____

a. 355 b. 425 c. 455 d. 478

63. 17 : 204 :: 28 : _____

a. 336 b. 218 c. 280 d. 356

64. 364 : 52 :: 294 : ____

a. 35 b. 28 c. 42 d. 49

65. 32 : 13 :: 36 : ____
a. 45 b. 18 c. 24 d. 42

66. 5 : 41 :: 8 : ____
a. 49 b. 58 c. 89 d. 76

67. 11 : 143 :: 19 : ____

a. 361 b. 407 c. 437 d. 512

68. 29 : 31 :: 107 : ____

a. 109 b. 113 c. 117 d. 119

69. 103 : 210 :: 19 : _____

a. 36 b. 38 c. 40 d. 42

70. 100 : 10000 :: 111 : ____

a. 12321 b. 13231 c. 13031 d. 13121

71. 2 : 6 :: 4 : _____
a. 16 b. 24 c. 48 d. 60

72. 10 : 1000 :: _____ : 3375

a. 13 b. 25 c. 15 d. 35

73. 34 : 41 :: 23 : ____
a. 25 b. 27 c. 32 d. 36

74. 20 : 8000 :: 10 : ____

a. 500 b. 800 c. 1000 d. 2000

75. 343 : 7 :: _____: 13

a. 2347 b. 2137 c. 2197 d. 2247

76. 3 : 18 :: 4 : _____
a. 48 b. 31 c. 44 d. 56

77. 31 : 2 :: 91 : _____
a. 10 b. 12 c. 8 d. 7

78. 126 : 3 :: 71 : _____

a. 2 b. 8 c. 7 d. 4

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79. 1243 : 24 :: 9146 : ____
a. 216 b. 108 c. 54 d. 512

80. 42 : 12 :: 31 : _____
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

81. 5 : 20 :: 8 : _____
a. 48 b. 56 c. 40 d. 64

82. 11 : 4 :: 13 : _____
a. 2 b. 4 c. 9 d. 7

83. 4 : 0.25 :: 10 : _____

a. 0.5 b. 1.00 c. 0.1 d. 0.01

84. 2 : 0.25 :: 5 : ____

a. 0.10 b. 0.20 c. 0.04 d. 0.08

85. 9865 : 7 :: 76895 : ____

a. 7 b. 5 c. 8 d. 9

86. 2 : 6 :: 10 : ____
a. 99 b. 990 c. 1010 d. None of these

87. 5 : 24 :: 8 : ____
a. 28 b. 52 c. 36 d. 44

88. 3 : 12 :: 9 : _____
a. 30 b. 33 c. 39 d. 51

89. 9 : 72 :: 11 : ____
a. 91 b. 102 c. 110 d. 131

90. 56 : 30 :: 98 : ____
a. 17 b. 1 c. 54 d. 72

91. 11 : 24 :: 7 : ____
a. 18 b. 15 c. 22 d. 23

92. 2197 : 13 :: 3375 : _____

a. 11 b. 17 c. 15 d. 9

93. 256 : 4 :: 625 : _____

a. 25 b. 125 c. 5 d. 15

94. 56 : 121 :: 93 : _____

a. 36 b. 72 c. 125 d. 144

95. 81 : 9 :: _____ : 11
a. 65 b. 74 c. 83 d. All of these

96. 92 : 49 :: 81 : _____
a. 49 b. 89 c. 64 d. 36

Directions for questions 97 to 100: The Decimal Number System is changed into Binary Number System as explained below.
1 = 01 = 0 x 21 + 1 x 20
3 = 11 = 1 x 21 + 1 x 20
4 = 100 = 1 x 22 + 0 x 21 + 0 x 20 and
so on. Answer the following questions.
97. 11 : 110 :: 1000 : ____

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
a. 10000 b. 10010 c. 11000 d. 10011

98. 10 : 11 :: 101 : _____

a. 1100 b. 111 c. 100 d. 1000

99. 10 : 1000 :: 11 : _____

a. 10101 b. 11010 c. 11011 d. 10010

100. 11 : 1001 :: 100 : _____

a. 10010 b. 10110 c. 11100 d. 10000

Answer Key
1 d 11 b 21 b 31 B 41 b 51 a 61 d 71 d 81 b 91 a

2 a 12 a 22 c 32 C 42 b 52 b 62 b 72 c 82 a 92 c

3 d 13 c 23 a 33 B 43 c 53 c 63 a 73 a 83 c 93 c

4 d 14 a 24 c 34 C 44 b 54 d 64 c 74 c 84 c 94 d

5 d 15 c 25 d 35 B 45 d 55 a 65 a 75 c 85 a 95 d

6 c 16 b 26 b 36 a 46 c 56 d 66 c 76 a 86 b 96 a

7 a 17 c 27 c 37 a 47 b 57 b 67 c 77 c 87 c 97 a

8 c 18 d 28 d 38 c 48 a 58 b 68 a 78 d 88 a 98 b

9 b 19 d 29 c 39 d 49 c 59 c 69 d 79 a 89 c 99 c

10 c 20 a 30 b 40 a 50 c 60 a 70 a 80 c 90 d 100 d

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

NUMBER SERIES
1. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 8, 11, ……
a. 15 b. 12 c. 14 d. None of these

2. Find the next number in the series 2, 7, 12, 17, ….

a. 20 b. 22 c. 25 d. 30

3. Find the next number in the series 36, 31, 27, 24, 22, ……
a. 18 b. 23 c. 20 d. None of these

4. Find the next number in the series 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ……

a. 41 b. 43 c. 40 d. None of these

5. Find the next number in the series 2, 5, 10, 17, ……

a. 35 b. 38 c. 39 d. 37

6. Find the next number in the series 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ……

a. 56 b. 57 c. 50 d. None of these

7. Find the next number in the series 25, 225, 625, ……

a. 1320 b. 1225 c. 1435 d. 1525

8. Find the next number in the series 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 15, ……

a. 27 b. 23 c. 19 d. None of these

9. Find the next number in the series 13, 25, 37, 49, 61, 73, 85, 97, 109, ……
a. 120 b. 122 c. 121 d. 125

10. Find the next number in the series 10, 19, 28, 37, 46, 55, 64, 73, 82, ……
a. 94 b. 93 c. 89 d. 91

11. Find the next number in the series 1, 8, 15, 22, ……

a. 29 b. 27 c. 28 d. None of these

12. Find the next number in the series 2, 4, 8, 3, 9, 27, 4, 16, ……

a. 64 b. 60 c. 68 d. None of these

13. Find the next number in the series 7, 8, 6, 7, 5, ……

a. 3 b. 6 c. 4 d. 9

14. Find the next number in the series 2, 8, 12, 48, 52, ……
a. 208 b. 210 c. 310 d. 104

15. Find the next number in the series 3, 9, 10, 30, 31, ……
a. 93 b. 96 c. 99 d. None of these

16. Find the next number in the series 135, 246, 357, 468, ……
a. 578 b. 577 c. 579 d. 570

17. Find the next number in the series 14, 916, 2536, ……
a. 4964 b. 6481 c. 6449 d. None of these

18. Find the next number in the series 13, 24, 35, 46, 57, ……
a. 69 b. 67 c. 87 d. 68

19. Find the next number in the series 1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 32, ……

a. 256 b. 266 c. 276 d. None of these

20. Find the next number in the series 3, 4, 5, 5, 12, 13, 7, 24, 25, 8, 15, ……

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
a. 26 b. 17 c. 18 d. 19

21. How many 7’s are there in the following series which are immediately preceded by 5 and followed by 4?
1573475748574321771579174
a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. Nil

22. How many 2’s are there in the following series which are immediately preceded by 9 but not followed by 7?
752429272925425729127
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 0

23. How many 5’s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in the following series?
a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. Nil

24. How many even numbers are there in the following series which are followed by an odd number and preceded by an even number?
145725849682541629
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Nil

25. How many 6’s are there in the given series which are followed by 6 but not preceded by 6?
16667658696505664667669
a. 1 b. 5 c. 2 d. 4

26. How many odd numbers are there in the given series followed by 1 preceded by 2?
1320045678910231502135160
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

27. How many numbers are there which are divided by 3 and followed by the numbers divided by 2 in the given series?
345961532453434925
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 6

28. How many numbers are there which are divided by 2 and preceded by the number divided by 3 in the given series?
345961532453434925
a. 1 b. 4 c. 6 d. Nil

29. How many numbers are there which are preceded by 2 and followed by 5 in the given series?
524321653215245689
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. None of these

30. How many numbers are there which are divided by an even number and followed by the number which is divided by an odd number in the
following series?
5672592493643921021582
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

31. How many are there in the given series, which are neither preceded by 2 nor succeeded by 3?
42359263682192530
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

32. How many numbers are there in the given series which are preceded by the which can be divided by either 3 or 5 and followed by the
number which is divide by only 3?
1562952534628529532
a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. Nil

33. How many numbers are there in the given series which are succeeded by 5 but not preceded by 4?
15796795432109
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

34. How many numbers are there in this series which are divided by 5 and followed by the number divided by 3 in this series?
15265251951356
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

35. How many numbers are there which are preceded by 1 and followed by 0 in this series?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
54032105010501053632521
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Nil

36. 23, 68, 113, 158, 203, ____

a. 252 b. 248 c. 242 d. 256

37. 786, 663, 540, 417, 294, 171, ___

a. 48 b. 56 c. 87 d. 92

38. 2, 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ___

a. 1680 b. 1560 c. 1440 d. 1320

39. , , , , , ____

a. b. c. d.

40. , , , , ____

a. b. c. d.

41. 3, 12, 48, 192, 768, ____

a. 2868 b. 2968 c. 3072 d. 3176

42. 10, 100, 50, 500, ___, 2500

a. 400 b. 350 c. 250 d. 200

43. 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, ___

a. 51 b. 49 c. 57 d. 53

44. 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ___, ___

a. 21, 23 b. 23, 29 c. 41, 43 d. 29, 31

45. 23, 27, 33, 41, ___, 63

a. 43 b. 47 c. 51 d. 49

46. 96, 119, 144, 171, ___, 231

a. 203 b. 200 c. 207 d. 193

47. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 13, 8, 9, ___

a. 23 b. 21 c. 17 d. 19

48. 7, 56, 8, 11, 143, 13, 14, 17, ___, 19

a. 356 b. 347 c. 331 d. 323

49. 49, 121, 169, 289, 361, ___

a. 529 b. 441 c. 484 d. 576

50. 5, 8, 12, 18, 24, 30, ___, 42

a. 36 b. 38 c. 37 d. 33

51. 8, 27, 125, 343, ___, 2197

a. 512 b. 729 c. 1000 d. 1331
52. 6, 15, 35, 77, 143, 221, ___
a. 438 b. 323 c. 356 d. 446

53. 1728, 1000, ___, 216, 64, 8

a. 729 b. 343 c. 512 d. 648

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54. 3, 7, 16, 32, 57, ___
a. 87 b. 93 c. 91 d. 97

55. 1331, 11, 1728, 12, 2197, 13, 2744, ____

a. 45 b. 35 c. 25 d. 14

56. 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ____

a. 216 b. 343 c. 512 d. 441

57. 1000, 784, 659, 595, 568, ____

a. 560 b. 532 c. 526 d. 547

58. 95, 52, 43, 148, 62, 86, 196, ___, 121
a. 75 b. 135 c. 95 d. 16

59. 7, 14, 42, 168, 840, ____

a. 5040 b. 5060 c. 3040 d. 4050

60. 12, 14, 18, 26, 38, ____

a. 48 b. 76 c. 62 d. 56

61. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ____

a. 286 b. 252 c. 278 d. 264

62. 5, 19, 75, 299, ____

a. 876 b. 968 c. 1096 d. 1195

63. 294, 180, 100, 48, 18, ____

a. 12 b. 8 c. 4 d. 6

64. 1, 16, 81, 256, 625, ____

a. 1331 b. 1296 c. 1728 d. 1525

65. 23, 57, 1113, 1719, ____

a. 1921 b. 2321 c. 2329 d. 2931

66. 38, 49, 62, 70, 77, ____

a. 84 b. 86 c. 97 d. 91

67. 49, 1625, 3649, ____

a. 6481 b. 4964 c. 8100 d. 8164

68. 12, 36, 324, 2916, ____

a. 52488 b. 41377 c. 63598 d. 45398

69. 3, 15, 35, 63, 99, ____

a. 138 b. 132 c. 143 d. 156

70. 5, 6, 14, 41, 105, ____

a. 225 b. 230 c. 256 d. 289

71. 2, 81, 4, ____, 8, 9, 16, 3

a. 42 b. 36 c. 54 d. 27

72. 6, 12, 12, 24, 18, ____, 24, 48

a. 30 b. 32 c. 36 d. 42

73. 5, 4, 9, 9, 17, 19, ____, 39

a. 35 b. 31 c. 37 d. 33

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74. 512, 64, 256, ____, 128, 256
a. 256 b. 128 c. 64 d. 32

75. 256, 64, 128, 32, 64, ____

a. 128 b. 16 c. 32 d. 256

76. 5, 11, 23, 47, ____, 191

a. 83 b. 68 c. 95 d. 87

77. 1, 2, 6, 42, ____

a. 1806 b. 1736 c. 1956 d. 1796

78. 0, 12, 72, 240, ____

a. 600 b. 576 c. 529 d. 484

79. 1, 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, _____, 14

a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. None of these

80. 3, 4, 5, 5, 12, 13, 7, 24, 25, ____, 40, 41

a. 8 b. 13 c. 9 d. 11

81. 2, 1, 4, 27, 6, 125, 11, ____

a. 1728 b. 729 c. 1000 d. 512

82. 5, 36, 8, 81, 11, 144, 17, ____

a. 225 b. 256 c. 361 d. 324

83. 1, 9, 125, 49, 729, ____

a. 225 b. 169 c. 361 d. 324

84. 12, 33, 66, 132, ____

a. 363 b. 265 c. 287 d. 356

85. 4, 24, 48, 72, 90, ____

a. 121 b. 120 c. 144 d. 132

86. 1, 16, 36, 64, 81, 100, ____

a. 121 b. 169 c. 144 d. 196

87. 2, 3, 8, 27, 112, ____

a. 576 b. 339 c. 452 d. 565

88. 576, 210, 339, 81, 452, 40, 565, ____

a. 225 b. 150 c. 216 d. 196

89. 3, 7, 17, 39, 85, ____

a. 174 b. 176 c. 179 d. 177

90. 2, 16, 68, 234, 742, ____

a. 2276 b. 2046 c. 2216 d. 1936

91. 15, 38, 61, 84, 107, ____

a. 121 b. 116 c. 136 d. 130

92. 346, 312, 278, 244, 210, ____

a. 162 b. 138 c. 186 d. 176

93. 1, 2, 6, 30, 56, 99, ____

a. 1890 b. 2500 c. 2310 d. 2420

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94. 2, 12, 30, 56, 99, _____
a. 130 b. 120 c. 125 d. 144

95. 5, 7, 11, 15, 23, 27, ____

a. 33 b. 35 c. 37 d. 39

96. 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ____

a. 126 b. 121 c. 132 d. 144

97. 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ____

a. 222 b. 230 c. 216 d. 210

98. 5040, 720, 120, 24, 6, ____

a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

99. 1, 100, 110, 1000, 1001, 1010, ____

a. 1011 b. 1100 c. 1101 d. 1111

100. 1, 100, 1001, 10000, 11001, _____

a. 100100 b. 11010 c. 11100 d. 11110

Answer key

1 c 11 a 21 a 31 d 41 c 51 d 61 b 71 d 81 c 91 d

2 b 12 a 22 a 32 b 42 c 52 b 62 d 72 c 82 d 92 d

3 d 13 b 23 b 33 b 43 d 53 c 63 c 73 d 83 d 93 c

4 b 14 a 24 b 34 a 44 b 54 b 64 b 74 b 84 a 94 a

5 d 15 a 25 d 35 d 45 c 55 d 65 c 75 b 85 b 95 b

6 a 16 c 26 a 36 b 46 b 56 b 66 d 76 c 86 c 96 c

7 b 17 a 27 d 37 a 47 c 57 a 67 a 77 a 87 d 97 d

8 d 18 d 28 b 38 c 48 d 58 a 68 a 78 a 88 b 98 c

9 c 19 a 29 b 39 d 49 a 59 a 69 c 79 b 89 c 99 b

10 d 20 b 30 d 40 b 50 a 60 c 70 b 80 c 90 a 100 a

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ODD MAN OUT (CLASSIFICATION)

1. (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 64 (d) 16

2. (a) Orange (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) Brown

3. (a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 72

4. (a) 513 (b) 730 (c) 344 (d) 577

5. (a) a (b) d (c) p (d) u

6. (a) m (b) n (c) p (d) s

7. (a) GT (b) KP (c) HS (d) IQ

8. (a) 38 (b) 48 (c) 42 (d) 12

9. (a) 246 (b) 268 (c) 537 (d) 369

10. (a) January (b) March (c) April (d) July

11. (a) Aditya Birla - Kumar Manggalam (b) Charan Singh – Ajit Singh
(c) J.R.D. Tata – Ratan Tata (d) Sunil Dutt – Sanjay Dutt

12. (a) Advise (b) Advice (c) Suggest (d) None of these

13. (a) egnaro (b) ananab (c) teabdc (d) separg

14. (a) 1996 (b) 1992 (c) 1988 (d) 1985

15. (a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax (c) Commercial Tax (d) Professional Tax

16. (a) Names (b) Games (c) Thames (d) Rhymes

17. (a) 15 (b) 35 (c) 77 (d) 39

18. (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

19. (a) Visakhapatnam (b) Bhilai (c) Rourkela (d) Vijayawada

20. (a) M.B.A (b) B.C.A (c) M.C.A (d) A.C.A

21. (a) Spinach (b) Lady finger (c) Carrot (d) Potato

22. (a) 180 (b) 120 (c) 48 (d) 28

23. (a) ATRIMU (b) KINO (c) RNATI (d) SROTNA

24. (a) 1200 (b) 1300 (c) 1400 (d) 1500

25. (a) Cricket (b) Hokey (c) Tennis (d) Basketball

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

26. (a) KMON (b) JLNM (c) EGHI (d) PRTS

27. (a) AZBY (b) CXDW (c) EVFU (d) PRTS

28. (a) MZ (b) AN (c) ES (d) GT

29. (a) DFIL (b) EGJM (c) PRUY (d) SUXA

30. (a) (ABC, NOP) (b) (DEF, QRS) (c) (FGH, STU) (d) (IJK, RST)

31. (a) 11 (b) 101 (c) 111 (d) 1001

32. (a) 10 (b) 30 (c) 68 (d) 128

33. (a) 1 (b) 11 (c) 111 (d) 1111

34. (a) a (b) i (c) e (d) o

35. (a) 729 (b) 2197 (c) 1331 (d) 125

36. (a) 242 (b) 363 (c) 243 (d) 484

37. (a) 555 (b) 333 (c) 444 (d) 222

38. (a) 12 (b) 252 (c) 80 (d) 130

39. (a) (45, 90, 45) (b) (60, 30, 60) (c) (40, 20, 40) (d) (80, 40, 80)

40. (a) (3, 4, 5) (b) (7, 24, 25) (c) (5, 12, 13) (d) (6, 18, 19)

41. (a) Violet (b) Indigo (c) Purple (d) Blue

42. (a) h (b) a (c) i (d) t

43. (a) a (b) c (c) e (d) h

44. (a) XYZ (b) ABC (c) PQR (d) RST

45. (a) MN (b) JQ (c) DU (d) IR

46. (a) RSUT (b) EFHG (c) DEHF (d) QRST

47. (a) AE (b) UA (c) IO (d) IE

48. (a) 1000 (b) 512 (c) 216 (d) 100

49. (a) AC (b) EG (c) DF (d) IK

50. (a) (ABX, XYZ) (b) (GHI, RST) (c) (KLM, PON) (d) None of these
51. (a) A (b) D (c) I (d) R

52. (a) A (b) K (c) E (d) I

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

53. (a) BD (b) FL (c) JS (d) KV

54. (a) BD (b) CI (c) DP (d) EV

55. (a) ABC (b) BCD (c) CDE (d) DEF

56. (a) DF (b) JT (c) MZ (d) HP

57. (a) DFH (b) JLM (c) LNP (d) RTV

58. (a) NK (b) MJ (c) RP (d) WT

59. (a) ABDC (b) FGIH (c) KLMN (d) QRST

60. (a) ABC (b) DEF (c) GHI (d) JKL

61. (a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 29 (d) 41

62. (a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 82 (d) 54

63. (a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 30 (d) 56

64. (a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 28 (d) 37

65. (a) 121 (b) 169 (c) 225 (d) 289

66. (a) 4 (b) 27 (c) 64 (d) 125

67. (a) 14 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 48

68. (a) 318 (b) 210 (c) 630 (d) 420

69. (a) 28 (b) 39 (c) 416 (d) 525

70. (a) 1992 (b) 5665 (c) 8256 (d) 6357

71. (a) 111 (b) 22 (c) 333 (d) 4444

72. (a) 343 (b) 729 (c) 125 (d) 27

73. (a) 927 (b) 835 (c) 734 (d) 652

74. (a) 5 (b) 17 (c) 37 (d) 9

75. (a) 122 (b) 248 (c) 234 (d) 166

76. (a) 426 (b) 606 (c) 468 (d) 246

77. (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 9

78. (a) DW (b) GT (c) JQ (d) LR

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
79. (a) BODQ (b) FRGT (c) HSJU (d) KVMX

80. (a) LDCM (b) TMNU (c) MJIN (d) PLKQ

81. (a) 164 (b) 346 (c) 648 (d) 368

82. (a) 1011 (b) 11001 (c) 1101 (d) 11101

83. (a) 10001 (b) 10011 (c) 10101 (d) 10111

84. (a) 1100 (b) 1110 (c) 10001 (d) 10010

85. (a) 1 (b) 100 (c) 1001 (d) 111

86. (a) 1 / 10 (b) 50 / 500 (c) 70 / 700 (d) 50 / 100

87. (a) 20 / 200 (b) 80 / 400 (c) 40 /200 (d) 60 / 300

88. (a) 18 / 22 (b) 11 / 13 (c) 12 / 14 (d) 17 / 19

89. (a) LNST (b) ACHI (c) DFKL (d) OQUW

90. (a) ACXZ (b) DFUW (c) EGTV (d) BDYZ

91. (a) January (b) May (c) July (d) November

92. (a) Semicolon (b) Semicircle (c) Seminar (d) Semifinal

93. (a) Temple (b) Monastery (c) Church (d) Mosque

94. (a) Diplomacy (b) Autocracy (c) Democracy (d) Bureaucracy

95. (a) Lamp (b) Puppy (c) Cub (d) Horse

96. (a) Dog (b) Horse (c) Bee (d) Tiger

97. (a) Force (b) Volume (c) Power (d) Volt

98. (a) ROHES (b) EPHSE (c) RGTIE (d) TORDOC

99. (a) LOWBER (b) EKEEPR (c) LEIFERD (d) PMUERI

100. (a) SORE (b) LOFEWR (c) TUSLO (d) SAJIMEN

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Answer Key

1 a 11 c 21 a 31 d 41 c 51 d 61 a 71 a 81 b 91 d

2 d 12 b 22 d 32 d 42 d 52 b 62 c 72 b 82 b 92 c

3 b 13 c 23 c 33 a 43 d 53 c 63 b 73 d 83 c 93 b

4 d 14 d 24 a 34 c 44 b 54 d 64 c 74 d 84 c 94 a

5 d 15 b 25 d 35 a 45 c 55 b 65 c 75 c 85 d 95 d

6 a 16 d 26 c 36 c 46 c 56 a 66 a 76 c 86 d 96 c

7 d 17 d 27 d 37 c 47 d 57 b 67 a 77 c 87 a 97 d

8 a 18 d 28 c 38 d 48 d 58 c 68 a 78 d 88 a 98 d

9 c 19 d 29 c 39 a 49 c 59 c 69 a 79 b 89 d 99 d

10 c 20 d 30 d 40 d 50 c 60 d 70 b 80 b 90 d 100 b

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)

SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS

Directions for questions 1 to 5: In a certain code language if ‘+’ means ‘x’, ‘-‘ means ‘+’, ‘x’ means ‘÷’ means ‘-‘, then answer the
following questions.

1. 16 + 4 ÷ 2 – 21 x 71 ÷ 21
a. 33 b. 44 c. 48 d. 39

2. 28 ÷ 36 – 49 x 7 + 2
a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 6

3. 8 ÷ 6 – 9 x 12 + 4
a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 13

4. 225 x 15 – 196 x 14 ÷ 625 x 25

a. 8 b. 16 c. 4 d. 12

5. 23 + 46 – 80 x 20 ÷ 40
a. 1122 b. 1048 c. 1126 d. 1022

Directions for questions 6 to 10: In a certain code METAMORPHOSIS is coded as + ÷ - x + < = > ≤ < ≥ ≠ ≥ and ROTATION is
coded as = < - x - ≠ < $. Then code the following words

6. PROMISE
a. ÷ = + < ≠ ≥ > b. > ≥ ≠ + < = ÷ c. > = < + ≠ ≥ ÷ d. > < = + ≥ ≠ ÷

7. NOMINATION
a. $ < ≠ + × $ ≠ − < $ b. $ < + ≠ $ × − ≠ < $
c. $ + < ≠ $ − × ≠ ≥ ÷ d. $ < ≠ − × $ ≠ + < $

8. ASTRONOMER
a. × ≥ − = < $ < + ÷ = b. × ≥ − $ < = + < ÷
c. × < = ≥ $ ÷ + < = d. × + ÷ < $ = < − ≥ =

9. ANIMATION
a. × < ≠ − × + ≠ $ $ b. × $ ≠ + − 𝑥 ≠ < $
c. × $ + ≠ − × ≠ < $ d. ×$ ≠ + × − ≠ < $

10. PORTRAIT
a. < > = − × = ≠ − b. > < = − = × ≠ −
c. > > − = × = ≠ − d. > < − = × = ≠ −

Directions for questions 11 to 15: These questions are based on the information given below.

‘x’ stands for addition

‘<’ stands for subtraction
‘+’ stands for division
‘<’ stands for multiplication
‘/’ stands for greater than
‘=’ stands for less than
‘-‘ stands for equal to

Find which one of the following statements is true in each question.

11. a. 8 x 2 + 4 < + - 100 x 10 + 25 > 5 + 3 b. 8 > 2 x 4 + 4 – 100 < 10 + 25 < 5 > 3

c. 8 + 2 x 4 > 4 – 100 + 10 x 25 < 5 > 3 d. 8 + 2 x 4 > 4 / 100 + 10 x 25 < 5 x 3

12. 3 + 4 < 2 – 5 x 2 < 1 b. 3 x 4 x 2 – 5 x 2 < 1

c. 3 < 4 > 2 / 5 > 2 + 1 d. 3 x 4 x 2 + = 5 x 2 x 1

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
13. a. 3 x 4 x 2 – 10 > 2 + 4 b. 3 > 4 < 2 / 10 + 2 x 4
c. 3 < 4 > 2 / 10 < 2 x 4 d. 3 + 4 x 4 2 – 10 x 2 < 6

14. a. 3 x 2 < 4 / 6 + 3 < 2 b. 3 + 2 < 4 / 6 > 3 x 2

c. 3 x 2 < 4 - 6 x 3 x 2 d. 3 x 2 x 4 = 6 + 3 < 2

15. a. 7 x 2 > 4 = 10 + 2 x 4 b. 7 + 2 > 4 > 10 + 2 x 4

c. 7 x 2 > 4 / 10 + 2 x 4 d. 7 + 2 > 4 – 10 + 2 x 4

Directions for questions 16 to 20: In the following questions the symbol $, @, ?, * and + are used as follows

x $ y means x is not equal to y

x @ y means x is either greater than or equal to y
x ? y means x is neither greater nor equal to y
x * y means x is neither equal to nor smaller than y
x + y means x is neither smaller nor greater than y

Give answer

1. if only conclusion (I) follows

2. if only conclusion (II) follows
3. if both conclusion (I) and (II) follows
4. if neither (I) nor (II) follows

16. Statement : E +F, F $ O, O ? E

Conclusion : I. O $ E
II. F * O

17. Statement : J $ L, L ? A, J + A
Conclusion : I. L * J
II. J ? L

18. Statement : U @ T, T ? K, K * S
Conclusion : I. U @ S
II. S @ T

19. Statement : K @ R, R * P, P$O

Conclusion : I. K ? R
II. K * P

20. Statement : G * J, J ? N, N * P
Conclusion : I. P + J
II. G * N

Directions for question 21 to 25: Study the following sentence carefully and answer the questions given below it.

PTA$Q*789BD↑6#8@FKL24MT35£EH↓7

21. What should come in the place of the question mark on the basis of the above series?
T $ 7, 8 B 6, _____, 2 M 5
a. # @ k b. # @ L c. # 8 L d. # F L

22. Which of the following is the ninth to the left of the seventeenth letter / number / symbol from the left?
a. D b. £ c. 8 d. A

23. How many such letters are there in the above series of elements which are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed
by a symbol?
a. Four b. Three c. Two d. One

24. How many such letters are there which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a digit?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
a. One b. Two c. Three d. None of these

25. If the second half of the above series is reversed, which letter / number / symbol will be the twelfth to the right of the twentieth letter /
number / symbol from the right?
a. T b. £ c. 5 d. M

Directions for questions 26 to 30: These questions are based on the following operations.

A + B means A is the brother of B.

A – B means A is the mother of B.
A x B means A is the sister of B.
A & B means A is married to B.
A $ B means A and B are siblings.

26. In the expression “P x Q – R”, how is R related to P?

a. Daughter b. Niece c. Aunt d. Can’t be determined

27. In the expression “L + M – N x R”, how is N related to L?

a. Niece b. Nephew c. Uncle d. Can’t be determined

28. In the expression “ G & H – P $ Q”, how is G related to P?

a. Father b. Mother c. Can’t be determined d. None of the above

29. In the expression “ Q + R – S x T & V + N”, How is T related to N?

a. Sister in law b. Brother in law c. Brother d. Can’t be determined

30. In the expression “ I $ J & K x L – M + O”, how is K related to M?

a. Aunt b. Uncle c. Mother d. Father

Directions for questions 31 to 35: Study the following information and answer the questions that follow. In a certain code

O is written as $
1 is written as @
2 is written as @ $
3 is written as @ @

And so on

31. Which of the following will represent ‘9’ in that code?

a. @ $ @ $ b. $ @ @ $ c. @ $ $ @ d. $ $ @ @

32. The code @ $ $ $ @ is represented by the number

a. 34 b. 18 c. 10 d. 16

33. Which of the following will represent 25 in that code?

a. @@@$$ b. $$@@@ c. $@@$@ d. @@$$@

34. The equation (@$@$) + (@$$@) =

a. $@$@@ b. @$$@@ c. @@@$$ d. @@$$@

35. The question (@$@$@) – (@$@@) =

a. @@$$ b. $@@$ c. $$@@ d. @$@$

Directions for questions 36 to 45: Choose the correct alternative from the given choices.

36. If P * Q = P + Q + PQ – 5, then 5*6 =

a. 30 b. 36 c. 38 d. 26
37. If a $ b = a2 + ab + b2 – a/b, then 10$5 =
a. 153 b. 128 c. 123 d. 173

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
38. If a @ b = a2 + ab – b2 – a/b, then 7 @ 8 =
a. 24 b. 32 c. 26 d. 38

39. If C ∆ D √C + √D, then 81 ∆ 49 =

a. 63 b. 28 c. 56 d. 16

40. If x £ y = xy, then 5 £ 6 =

a. 15625 b. 625 c. 12325 d. 18625

41. If 3 ∆ 4 = 81, 5 ∆ 4 = 625, 2 ∆ 8 =

a. 216 b. 81 c. 256 d. 64

42. If 1 $ 1 = 2, 7 $ 7 = 350, then 9 $ 9 =

a. 90 b. 729 c. 81 d. 738

43. If 3 £ 2 = 23, 4 £ 3 = 229, then 6 £ 5 =

a. 46656 b. 36826 c. 32436 d. 43531

44. If 5 @ 6 = 121, 9 @ 8 = 289, then 21 @ 23 =

a. 1625 b. 1926 c. 1386 d. 2025

45. If 11 ∆ 13 = 168, 9 ∆ 12 = 130, then 7 ∆ 15 =

a. 128 b. 105 c. 225 d. 176

Directions for questions 46 to 50: These questions are based on the information given below. In a certain code language

All men are women – O * ∆

All females are men – ∆O$
No women is a teacher - & £ ? * @
No men are females - $ ∆ O &
No teacher is bad – @ & £

Then find the codes for the words given in each question below.

46. What is the code for “ teacher” in the above language?

a. & b. £ c. @ d. £ or @

47. What is the code for is in that language?

a. & b. £ c. @ d. Either 2 or 3

48. What does “?” represent?

a. women b. teacher c. is d. a

49. What is the code for “females” in that language?

a. $ b. O c. ∆ d. &

50. What does “ “ represent?

a. bad b. is c. teacher d. No

Answer Key

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1 b 11 c 21 b 31 c 41 c

2 d 12 d 22 c 32 a 42 d

3 a 13 b 23 b 33 d 43 d

4 c 14 a 24 d 34 b 44 b

5 d 15 c 25 a 35 d 45 a

6 c 16 c 26 d 36 b 46 d

7 b 17 d 27 a 37 d 47 d

8 a 18 d 28 a 38 c 48 d

9 d 19 b 29 a 39 d 49 a

10 b 20 d 30 a 40 a 50 a

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Truth teller and liar

Direction: On an island `Mola-Moola’ the inhabitants always answer any question with two sentences –one of which is always
true and the other always false.
Read the question below very carefully and choose the correct answer for the question that follow:
The commissioner of the island discovers that smuggling is rampant there. You have been hired as a private detective in order to
determine the identity of the culprits and also to know more about the next heist on the basis of plane. You question three
suspects as to when the plane is expected and what it looks like. This is what they have to say:
Subhash: It arrives at 11:00 p.m. The colour of the plane is only red.
Rubhash: It arrives at 11:00 p.m. The colour of the plane is only yellow.
Bibhash: Iknow at what time the ship arrives. Rubhash is lying about the time of arrival.

1) At what time dose the plane arrive?

(a) 6 p.m. (b) 11 p.m. (c) Can’t say (d) won’t arrive

2) What is the colour of the plane?

(a) Can’t say (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) both red and yellow

Suddenly, a murder takes place on the island. It is imperative that you locate the person who is the murderer. On further
investigation, you find that the murderer has to be a person who has been to the chief whip’s house within the last five days
(today is Friday). By careful questioning, you narrow the possibilities down to three people. This is what they have to say.

Rani: “I went to the Chief Whip’s house. It was before Monday”.

Vani: “Rani did not go to the Chief Whip’s house. I have not gone to the Chief Whip’s house in the last five days either”
Siwani: “Rani did not go to the Chief Whip’s house. I am not the murderer.”

3) Who is the murderer?

(a) Siwani (b) Rani (c) Vani (d) can’t say

In the village of Rampur, all inhabitants always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true, the other is
always false.
While visiting the village, Gauri meets three inhabitants-Rajesh, Mahesh and Ramesh near the village square. One of them is
wearing a suit. Knowing that they were there to resolve a dispute over the ownership of some land, you ask them---“Who got the
land?” They answer as follows:

Rajesh: “I got the land Ramesh is wearing the suit.”

Mahesh: “I am wearing the suit. I got the land.”
Ramesh: “I got the land. I am not wearing the suit.”

4) Who is wearing the suit?

(a) Rajesh (b) Mahesh (c) Ramesh (d) None of these

5) Who got the land?

(a) Rajesh (b) Can’t say (c) Ramesh (d) Mahesh

On waking up the next morning, you find that your brand new watch has been stolen. The suspects are same trio you met the
previous day. You question them (knowing that only one of them is guilty). And they reply as follows:
Rajesh: “Mahesh did not do it. I did not do it.”
Mahesh: “I did not do it. Ramesh did not do it.”
Ramesh: “I did not do it. I do not know who did it.”
6) Who stole the watch?
(a) Can’t say (b) Ramesh (c) Mahesh (d) Rajesh

In a small island called Never never land the people always answer any question with two sentences—one of which is always
right and the other is false.
Perhaps due to this peculiar habit, there’s been a high rate of suicides on the island. As a doctor, you have to identify potentially
suicidal people and counsel them. To know that all people who are suicidal feel that life is futile. On questioning three
inhabitants, these are the answer you get

Anuj: “Himanshu is suicidal. I am not suicidal.”

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Himanshu: “I don’t want to die. Akshay does not want to die.”
Akshay: “Life is futile. I am suicidal.”

7) Who among the three is suicidal?

(a) Anuj and Himanshu (b) Himanshu (c) Himanshu and Akshay (d) Akshay

8) Which of them is lying about another person’s tendencies?

(a) Akshay (b) Himanshu
(c) Anuj and Himanshu (d) none of them is lying about another person’s tendencies

Going around the village, you come across three people. One of them is a dentist, one a barrister and one a professor. You want
to know who is who.

Peter says, “I am not a professor. Shina is not a professor.”

Matt says, “Peter is not a barrister. Shina is a professor.”
Shina: “Peter is not a dentist. I am not a professor.”

9) Which of the following is true?

(a) Shina is the professor (b) Peter is the dentist (c) Matt is the barrister. (d) None of these

Further, you come across three women, one of whom is an excellent singer. You start questioning them, when you notice that
Minaxi is wearing a flower in her hair.

Madhuri says, “I am not the singer. The singer wears a flower in her hair.”
Minaxi says, “I am the singer. The singer is amongst us.”
Jaya says: “Madhuri is the singer. Minaxi is not the singer.”

10) Who is the singer?

(a) Madhuri (b) Minaxi (c) Jaya (d) None of these

You want to expand your horizon and decide to go to the village of “Where is who”. This is further inside. You come to the
border of “Kya Kya” and see a fork. One leads left and the other right. There are no other roads. You ask the inhabitants:

Maroof says, “I do not speak to strangers. I am new to these parts.”

Nafish says, “Take the road to the right. I am married to Ayesha.”
Ayesha says, “I am not Nafish’s wife. Maroof is not new to these parts.”

11) Which of the following is true?

(a) The road to the right leads to “Where is who”. (b) The road to the left leads to “Where is who”
(c) Nafish is married to Ayesha. (d) None of these.

On moving further, you come across another small village of patina, whose inhabitants answer all questions with two
sentences—one of which is true and the other always false.
I asked Shahrukh, Amitabh and Abhishek, “Did it snow last night?” and I got the following replies:

Shahrukh: Yes, it snowed last night. Moreover, Amitabh fell sick last night.
Amitabh: Yes, it snowed last night. But then I never lie.
Abhishek: No, it did not snow last night. But Shahrukh got married yesterday.

12) Which of the following statements is true?

(a) It did not snow last night. (b) Amitabh fell sick last night.
(c) Shahrukh got married yesterday (d) none of these

Rophas Khopas is a small land locked country in the Vindhyanchal forest range, with a distinct dress, culture, bird, and a
national animal. The inhabitants speak in two sentences—one of which is true and the other false.
I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, the three important citizens of Rophas Khopas, “What is the national language of Rophas
Khopas?” and I got the following replies:

Shiva: “French is our national language. Hundred percent of our citizens are literate.”
Monu: Latin is our national language. We have a very poor literacy rate in the country.

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Vijay: we have a very poor literacy rate in the country. Our national language is Bhasha Khopas.

13) The national language OF Rophas Khopas is

(a) French (b) Latin (c) Bhasha Khopas (d) cannot be ascertained

14) With reference to question 13 above, the rate of literacy in Rophas Khopas is
(a) Very poor (b) Good (c) 100% (d) cannot be
ascertained

I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, “What is your national dress?” and I got the following replies:
Shiva: Our national dress is Pathani suit. People wear the national dress on very special occasions only.
Monu: Our national dress is Sari. People wear the national dress on very special occasions only.
Vijay: Our national dress is suit boot. But no one is ever permitted to wear the national dress.

15) The national dress of Rophas Khopas is

(a) Pathani suit (b) Sari (c) Suit boot (d) cannot be ascertained

I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, “What is your national food?” and I got the following replies:
Shiva: Our national food is sabudana khichadi. Most of our people are hale and hearty.
Monu: Our people are not hale and hearty at all. Our national food is makki ki roti.
Vijay: Most of our people are hale and hearty. Our national food is rice kee kheer.

16) The national food of Rophas Khopas is:

(a) Sabudana khichadi (b) Makki ki roti (c) Rice kee kheer (d) cannot be ascertained

17) With reference to question 16 above, in Rophas Khopas:

(a) People are not hale and hearty (b) Some people are hale and hearty
(c) Most people are hale and hearty (d) cannot be ascertained

I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, “What is your national bird?” and got the following replies:
Shiva: Our national bird is cockatoo. We are a peace loving country.
Monu: Our national bird is sparrow. We are a peace lovely country.
Vijay: Our national bird is owl. But we worship the sparrow.

18) The national bird of Rophas Khopas is

(a) Sparrow (b) Cackatoo (c) Owl (d) cannot be ascertained

I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, “What is your national animal?” and I got following replies:
Shiva: Our national bird is kangaroo. We have thick growth of vegetation all over.
Monu: Our national bird is donkey. We have thick growth of vegetation all over.
Vijay: Ours is a mountainous country with almost no vegetation. Our national animal is koala.

19) The national animal of Rophas Khopas is

(a) Kangaroo (b) Donkey (c) Koala (d) cannot be ascertained

I asked Shiva, Monu and Vijay, “What is your national dance?” and got the following replies:
Shiva: Samba is our national dance. We do not like or appreciate cricket.
Monu: Salsa is our national dance. We are great lovers of aggressive cricket
Vijay: Disco is our national dance we are great lovers of aggressive cricket.

20) The national dance of Rophas Khopas is

(a) Samba (b) Salsa (c) Disco (d) cannot be ascertained.

21) With reference to question 20 above, people of Rophas Khopas:

(a) Do not like or appreciate cricket (b) like and appreciate cricket
(c) Are great lovers of aggressive cricket (d) cannot be ascertained

In the parliament of the Ravindra Rami, all members have a peculiar habit. Of any two sentences they speak, one is false and the
other is true. You record the statements of three sitting members: Rozor, Sam, and Michael.

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Rozor: The President claims he is the president. I am the president.
Sam: I am the president. Rozor is the president.
Michael: I am the president. Sam knows who the president is.

Answer the following questions based on these recorded statements.

22) The real President can be determined from

(a) Sam’s and Rozor’s statement alone. (b) Sam’s and Michael’s statements alone.
(c) Michael’s and Rozor’s statement alone. (d) None of the above.

23) If Rozor’s first statement is false, which of the following cannot be president?
(a) Sam (b) Rozor (c) Michael (d) can’t be determined

24) Who is the president?

(a) Sam (b) Rozor (c) Michael (d) can’t be determined

25) Whose first statement is true?

(a) Sam and Michael (b) Michael and Rozor
(c) Sam and Rozor (d) can’t be determined

26) Whose first statement is false?

(a) Sam (b) Rozor (c) Michael (d) Sam and Michael

You move on. Next, you are asked to solve the mystery of who murdered Manmohan, the most influential resident of the village.
You question three suspects:
Ali says, “It was me who killed Manmohan. It was Saif.”
Saif says, “It was me who killed Manmohan. It was Ramu.”
Ramu says, “It was not me who killed Manmohan. It was not Ali.”
27) Who murdered Manmohan?
(a) Ali (b) Saif (c) Ramu (d) such a situation is not possible

Direction for question 1 to 4: The following questions are based on an island called Gutar Goo on which there are only two
kinds of inhabitants:
Type X: people who always speaks THE TRUTH; AND
Type Y: people who always lie
1. You go to the island and see a group of three people Arun, Bakshi and Calvin. You ask Arun, “How many type X’s are there
amongst you?” Unfortunately, Arun’s reply is drowned by some noise and you ask Bakshi, “What did Arun say?” Bakshi says,
“Arun said that there is one type X among us.” However, Calvin immediately says, “Don’t believe Bakshi, he is lying.”
Which of the following is true?
(a) Bakshi is a type X (b) Arun is a type Y (c) Calvin is a type X (d) none of these

2. You are very intrigued. You decide to find out more. You question two other persons—Manoj and Hemant. Manoj says, “At
least one of us is a type Y,”
Which of the following is true?
(a) Manoj is type X. (b) Hemant is a type X. (C) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

3. You are further intrigued and decide to continue further on into the island of Gutar Goo. Coming across a group of three
persons--- Raju, Golu, and Suyash --- you hear them make two statements:
Raju: “ALL of us are type Y’s”
Golu: “Exactly one of us is a type X.”
Which of the following is true?
(a) Raju is type Y (b) Golu is a type X (c) Suyash is a type Y (d) All of these

4. By now you have had just a bit too much of the island – however, on the insistence of your friend
Bakshi, you continue further. You meet two persons—Suyash and Divyansh. Suyash says, “I am a type Y. but Divyansh isn’t.”
Who is type X?
(a) Suyash (b) Divyansh (c) Indeterminate (d) none of these

Direction for question 5 to 10: Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows.

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There are two type of inhabitants in Tatabalery—A type and B type. The A type of inhabitants always speak the truth and the B
type of inhabitants always lie.
5. Rocky says, “I Always Lie.” Which type of an inhabitant is he?
(a) A (b) B (c) Either A or B (d) the given statement is infeasible.

6. Peter says, “According to Rocky.I always speak the truth.” Which of the following is a correct conclusion?
(a) Peter has to be of type A (b) Peter has to be of type B
(c) Rocky has to be of type A (d) Rocky has to be type of B

7. Booker says. “Shane and I are of the same type.”

Which of the following is a correct conclusion?
(a) Booker and Shane are necessarily of the same type (b) Shane has to be of type A
(c) Booker and Shane cannot be of the same type (d) the given statement is infeasible

8. Ramu says. “Basu and I are of different types.” Which of the following is a correct conclusion?
(a) Ramu and Basu are of Type B and Type A respectively (b) Ramu and Basu cannot be of the type
(c) Basu has to be of Type B (d) Shyam has to be of Type B

9. Shane says, “Booker and I are of different types.”

Which of the following is a correct conclusion?
(a) Shane and Booker are of Type B and Type A respectively.
(b) Shane and Booker cannot be of the same type
(c) Booker has to be of type B
(d) None of these

10. Booker says, “At least one person among Shane and I always lies.” What types are Booker and Shane respectively?
(a) B, A (b) B, B (c) A, B (d) It is not possible to deduce.

Direction for question 10 to 12: Refer to the passage below and answer questions given below it
The inhabitants of the Island of Dream have very bright and interesting lives. Just as we earthlings have continuity in our daily
lives; the inhabitants of the Island of Dreams have continuity in both their waking lives, as well as their dreams. As a result, the
inhabitants of the Island of dreams have great difficulty in knowing whether they are awake or asleep at a given time. However,
the inhabitants can be classified into two broad types—Awakes and A sleepers.
An awaker is characteriesd by the fact that everything they believe while they are awake is true, and everything they believe
while they are asleep is false. An A sleeper on the other hand, has the characteristic that everything he believes while asleep is
true, and everything he believes while awake is false.
11. The Island has a president, a Prime Minister and an Entertainment Minister. At one point, the Entertainment Minister
believed that his bosses were of different types. Twelve hours later, he changed his state (from sleeping to waking or from
waking to sleeping,) and he then believed that the President was an Awaker and the Prime Minister was a Sleeper.
What type is the president?
(a) Awaker (b) A sleeper (c) Could be either of two types (d) Data inconsistent

12. With reference to question 11, what type is the Prime Minister?
(a) Awaker (b) A sleeper (c) Could be either of two types (d) Data inconsistent

13. At one time, an inhabitant believed that he was both asleep and awake, what was he really?
(a) Awaker (b) A sleeper (c) Could be either of two types (d) Data inconsistent

Direction: One the Island of who went where, there are only two kinds of people. Type No are those who, when they ask a
question, must always get a ‘No’ for an answer and Type Yes are those who must always get a ‘Yes’ for an answer to every
question they ask. Based on this, Answer Question 14 to 16.
14. Victor and Trish are married. Victor asks you: “Are both of us the type No?” you can conclude that
(a) It is impossible for him to have asked such a question (b) Victor is a No.
(c) Trish is a No. (c) His type cannot be identified

15. Jay, Ajay and Vijay all approach you. Jay asks “Are at least two of us of the type No?” you can infer that.
(a) Jay is a No. (b) Jay is a Yes. (c) None of them is No (d) cannot be determined

16. Abhaye, Lokesh, and Rituraj approach you. Abhaye ask, “Is it true that neither Lokesh nor Rituraj can be yes?” You can
infer that

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(a)Both Lokesh and Rituraj are Nos. (b) Abhaye is a No. (c) Abhaye is a Yes. (d) None of the above

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ROUTES / NETWORKS
Questions on Routes/Networks involve different points or locations between which there is some movement or communication.
The way the movement or communication is effected is described in the data/conditions. Sometimes, these are also referred to as
“Maps” because the given resemble a map.

The data given in these types of questions may not always have the word “route” or “network” in them but a network is
indicated by some sort of connectivity between two “points.” The way the statements are worded is important. The wording
includes statements like.

(i) Some poles are connected through wires.

(ii) Some towers send signals to one another.
(iii) Some cabins, market, cities, etc. are connected via. passages or roads and so on.

The connectivity between the two “points” can be only one-way or two-way. In one-way connectivity, the flow will be in only
one direction whereas in two-way connectivity, the flow will be in both directions between the points.

Read the data carefully and then draw the diagram or network. The words “from ” and “to” play an important role in these
questions and hence, care should be taken while interpreting the data. While drawing a diagram, arrow mark can be used very
effectively to indicate the direction of connectivity as explained below.

(i) If the statement mentions that there is a one-way route from city A to B then it can be represented as follows.

A B

(ii) If the statement mentions that cities X and Y have roads on which you can travel in either direction, it means that it is a two-
way connectivity . Then it can be represented as follows.

X Y

(iii) If the statement mentions that all the projected roads are one-ways and there is a route from point K to P and then from P to
K, then it should be represented as follows.

P
K

i.e., from P to K is one route and from K to P is another route.

Now, consider the following network.

In this network, let us say that a person starts from J and he wants to reach K. We want to find out the number of distinct routes
he can take without touching any point twice. Starting from J, the possible directions of movement are from J to N, J to M and J
to P, but if he goes from J to N then coming back or travelling in some other direction is not possible. Hence, the person has only
two options for movement from J (J to M and J to P). Now, if he goes to M, he has to go to L from m. At L, it appears that he has
two options – He can go to P or to J. But, since he started form J and as he cannot touch any point twice, he cannot go to J, So,
there is only one option at L – that is going to P. So, there is only one there are two options – one directly to P from J and the
other via. M and L. Once he reaches P, he has only one way of reaching K – along the diagonal Pk., If he goes to o from P, then
he cannot travel to K from O (the route is one way in the O to K). Thus the total number of ways from J to K is two (JPK and
JMLPK).
Thus one has to look at all the possible routes carefully in the manner discussed above.

In the above example, if the route between J and L is two-way and then we have to find out the number of ways to reach O
stating from J, the routes we have will be as follows:
JPO, JPKO, JMLPO, JMLPKO, JLPO, JLPKO
This given us a total of six distinct ways of reaching O from J.

Directions from questions 1 to 5: Read the following information and answer the question given below.

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P, Q, R, S, T, U, V are seven places on a map. The following places are connected by two-way roads. P and Q; P and U; R and
U; R and S; U and V; S and T; Q and R; T and V; No other road exist.

1. The shortest route (the route with the least number of intermediate places) from P to V is
(1) P-R-V (2) P-T-V (3) P-Q-R-U-V (4) P-U-V
(5) None of these

2. How many distinct routes exist from S to Y (without touching any place more than once)?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
(5) 5

3. The route covering the maximum number of places and going from P to R does not pass through
(1) U (2) T (3) S (4) Q
(5) V

4. If U to V and S to R are only one-way routes, then which of the following places lose contact with P?
(1) V (2) T (3) S
(4) No place loses contact with P (5) Either (1) to (3)

5. If the number of places to which a place is connected directly considered as the measure of importance, then which of the
following places is of the highest importance?
(1) Q (2) P (3) R (4) S
(5) T

Solutions for question 1 to 5:

The route map of the places is as follows;

1. As is seen, P-U-V is the shortest way (with only one intermediate point) from P to V.

2. To travel from S to U, the routes available are: S-R-U; S-T-V-U and S-R-Q-P-U – a total of 3 routes.

3. First let us write down the route from P to R with the maximum number of intermediate points. By observation, we find that it
is P-U-V-T-S-R. If does not touch Q.

4. If U to V and S to R are only one-way routes, from the figure, we find that all places can still be reached from P. Hence, none
of the places loses contact with P.

5. For each of the places given in the choices, Q, P, R and S, let us see how many places are directly connected.
Q is directly connected to 2 places.
P is directly connected to 2 places.
R is directly connected to 3 places.
S is directly connected to 2 places.

Directions for questions 6 to 9: Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows;

P and Q are connected by boat as well as by rail.
S and R are connected by bus and by boat.
Q and T are connected only by air.
P and R are connected only by boat.
T and R are connected by rail and by bus.

6. Which of the following pair of cities are connected by any of the routes directly [without going through any other city]?
(1) P and T (2) T and S (3) Q and R (4) P and S

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(5) None of these

7. Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q but without changing the mode of transport?
(1) Boat (2) Rail (3) Bus (4) Air
(5) connot be determined

8. If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of the following places must he visit twice?
(1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) T
(5) None of these

9. Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel options available? (If there is more
than one route possible between two cities, consider the route with least number of cities enroute)

Solutions for questions 6 to 9:

6.

P and T are connected through Q.

T and S are connected through R
Q and R are connected through T or P. Q and S are connected through R and P or T. So none of the pairs in the choices are
directly connected.

7. From Q to P, he can reach by boat.

From P to R also he can travel by boat to reach R from Q without changing the mode of transport.

8. If a person wants to visit all the places and again return to P, then he can go in the order of P

He must visit R twice.

9. One has to travel between any of the two cities with a restriction that if there is more than one possible route, he has to go by
the least number of cities enroute. It is better to take the pair of cities given in each of the choices.

Choice (1) Q and S: A person can go from Q to T to R to S Q to P to R to S or vice-versa. In both the routes, there are two cities
enroute. We can calculate the number of options in the entire route by multiplying the option available in each segment of the
route.
For the route Q-T-R-S. the number of options = 1 × 2 × 2 = 4.
For the route Q-P-R-S, the number of options = 2 × 1 × 2 = 4

Choice (2) P and R; The route between P and R has only one mode of travel, that is boat.

Choice (3) P and T; A person can go by PQT in either way or by PRT in either way., If it is by PQR, then the option are boat air
or rail air i.e.
Two ways. If it is by PRT, then the options are boat-rail or boat rail or boat-bus in either way. Hence, they are only two options.

Choice (4) Q and R If a person travels between Q and R, then he can go by QTR or by QPR. If he goes by QTR, then the
options are air-rail or air-bus that given two options or if he goes by QPR, then the options are rail-boat or boat-boat, that will
again give us two options.

So, it is very clear that Q and S has maximum number of travel options available between them.

Directions for questions 10: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

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10. Four computers P, Q, A and B are interconnected for the transmission of data. A and B can each send data to both P and Q
but B cannot receive data from A. P and Q can have data follow in both directions between them but they cannot transmit the
data so received to B but can otherwise send the data directly to B. Which of the following routes can be followed if B has to
receive data from A?
I. AQPB II. APB III. AQB IV. APQB

(1) I and III (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I And IV
(5) All four

Solution for questions 10.

10. AQPB and APQB can be eliminated because P and Q cannot send the data to B.
The paths AQB and APB do not violate any conditions and hence can be possible routes to send data from A to B.

Exercise – 8

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

1. Five boys P, Q, R, S and T stand at various points in a playground. A person O has to supply them with water. O can go
directly to P and then to S. O can go directly to Q and then to T. O can go directly to R and then to P or Q . Which of the
following is definitely TRUE?
(a) O cannot supply water to all of them without touching at least one person twice.
(b) O can reach all of them without touching any of them twice.
(c) O must touch R to go to S.
(d) O must touch R to go to Q.
(e) None of these

2. A park has a swimming pool, a lawn, a flower garden, a giant wheel and a canteen. All of them except the swimming pool
have direct rods from the entrance. Canteen and Giant wheel are interconnected by the two way route and similarly Giant wheel
and Lawn are directly interconnected by the two way route. There are no other interconnected routes. The swimming pool can be
reached only if one comes from the flower garden or from the lawn. The giant wheel is between the canteen and the lawn. If one
wishes to go to the swimming pool from the paint wheel, without touching the entrance again he has to pass by
(a) Lawn (b) Canteen or flower garden
(c) Flower garden or giant wheel (d) Giant wheel (e) None of these

3. Towns P, Q, R and S are connected along the sides of a square and also connected diagonally. P, Q, R, S are in clock wise
order. Town T is at the intersection of the roads PR and QS. In how many ways can a person start from t in order to go to all
other Towns at least once but not coming to the place already travelled?
(a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 8
(e) None of these

4. In an office, two telephones T1 and T2 are connected to fax machines F1 and F2 respectively. If the fax machines are not in
operation, then both the telephones can be used for voice communication. There are 3 points P, Q and R with which T 1

Exercise 12
Directions 1
1. P, an MBA student while returning his home city F wants to meet some of his five friends, each of whom is in a different city
among A through E. The six cities are connected by one way routes, from A to C, E to A, D to B, B to F, D to F, E to D and C to
B.

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
If he visits the friend in the city E first then at most how many friends can he meet before reaching his home, without visiting any
city more than once?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
Directions 2-3
Eight cities, A through H are connected in such a way that the routes from, P to W, P to V, Q to T, S to T, V to R, R to P and R
to S are one – way routes, and the routes between V and W; U and T; S and Q; and U and V are two way routes. While travelling
from one city to another, one cannot visit any city more than once.
2. Among the following cities which one cannot be visited, while travelling from City W to City T?
(A) Q (B) S (C) U (D) P
3. In how many different ways can one travel from city Q to city R?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

Directions 4-7
Six cities A through F are connected by one-way rail routes as shown below. It takes one hour to travel between any two directly
connected cities. Each train runs between directly connected cities only, in the direction indicated by the arrows. From a city, the
first train in each route starts at the same time. The time gap between the departures of any two consecutive trains, from a station
in a particular route, is also the same and tabulated below.

C E

B
F D

City Time of departure of the first train in Interval between two successive trains in
any route a route

A 7:00 a.m. 3 hr

B 5:00 a.m. 1 hr 30 min

C 4:00 a.m. 3 hr

D 6:00 a.m. 2 hr 30 min

E 4:30 a.m. 1 hr

F 5:30 a.m. 2 hr

A person can catch a train, which is starting from a station, at the same time at which he arrived at that station after 9:00 pm.
4. What is the least time taken to reach D from F, if the person takes the route passing through the maximum possible number of
cities, without passing through any city more than once?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 7
5. If a person reaches E at 2 p.m. starting from D, then what is the latest time by which the person must have started from D?
(A) 6:00 a.m. (B) 8.30 a.m. (C) 11:00 a.m. (D) Cannot be determined
6. If a person starts from F at 11.30 a.m. and he takes the route passing through the maximum possible number of cities, then
what is the earliest time by which the person will be able to reach B?
(A) 7:00 p.m. (B) 6:00 p.m. (C) 7.30 p.m. (D) 8:00 p.m.
7. A person wants to travel from A to B and he takes route passing through the maximum possible number cities, without passing
through any city more than once. If the person starts at 10:00 a.m., then what is the least possible time the person has to wait for
the trains at all the intermediary cities together before reaching city B?
(A) 1 hr 30 min (B) 3 hr 30 min (C) 2 hr (D) 3 hr

Directions 8-10

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
Eight cities - A through H are, connected by different modes of transport through a network of routes as shown in the diagram
and all are two- way connections. While travelling from one city to another, one should not pass through any city more than
once.

8. Which of the following modes of transport alone can help one to reach from H to D?
(A) Road (B) Train (C) Air (D) None of these
9. At the most, how many intermediary cities can pass through while travelling from E to A by using exactly two different modes
of transport?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
10. At most, how many intermediary cities can one pass through while travelling from G to C by using exactly one mode of
transport?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Directions 11-22
11. Lavanya is the tenth persons from the end of a queue in which Pranav is the twelth person from the front. If fifteen people are
standing between them, then how many people are there in the many people are there in the queue?
(A) 17 (B) 37 (C) 40 (D) Cannot be determined
12. In a family, there 10 children of different ages. Praddhyumn is the eldest. The age of four children are between the age of
pranav and Praneeth. Six children are younger than Praneeth. How many children are elder than pranav?
(A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 6
13. In a class, ranking was given to all the students such that no two students such that no two students got the same rank. The
rank of preeti is better than that of ten students. The rank of Nimini is worse than that of 18 students. But while feeding the data
into computer, their ranks were interchanged. According to the computer generated list, Nimi’s rank is 21. How many students
are there in the class?
(A) 20 (B) 45 (C) 47 (D) 31
14. In a row, 16 children are standing to the left of A and 12 students are standing to the right of B. If six students are standing
between A and B then how many students were there in the row?
(A) 36 (B) 22 (C) 28 (D) Cannot be determined
15. Rama and Sarma are classmates. One day, ten students entered the class before Rama and nine students entered the class
between Rama and Sarma, then how many students entered the class?
(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 46 (D) 36
16. Some friends are seated on a stair case. Pushpa is seated on the last step from the top. Karpura is seated on the middle step.
Krupa is seated on the fourth step from the top which is three steps above the step on which Karuna is seated. How many steps
are there?
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 17
17. In the last Olympic games, the torch-bearer visited eight countries before visiting India and five countries after visiting India
and before visiting India and before visiting Japan. If equal number of countries were visited by him before and after Japan, then
how many countries did he visit?
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 33 (D) 35
18. In a class, all the students are given ranks in either of the subjects Maths and Physics such that no two students got the same
rank in any subject. Raghu got the same rank in any subject. Raghu got the ninth rank in Physics and 12 th rank in Maths then,
how students are there in the class?
(A) 400 (B) 380 (C) 320 (D) 450
19. The scores of 200 candidates who attempted a competitive examination are released. No two of them got the same score. 30
candidates scored better than that of P. Scores of Q is more than that of P. Scores of 50 students scored better than R, then the
scores of how many candidates are in between the scores of Q and P?

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 Logical Reasoning (Basic)
(A) 20 (B) 80 (C) 40 (D) Cannot be determined
20. In a row, there 11 people to the left of A and 13 people to the right of B. If they interchange their places, then there will be 20
people to the left of A, How many people are there in between A and B?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 12
21. There are 21 identical coins out of which 20 are of equal weight and one coin is heavier than the other. What is the minimum
possible number of weighings required, using a common balance, to identify the counterfeit coin?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these
22. Sashi brought a magical box. Every night the cookies kept in the box get doubled. In the morning, he brought some cookies
with him and kept them in the box which got doubled at night. Next day, he distributed P cokies to his friends, and left the
remaining in the box. When he opened the box, the next morning, he observed that there are P cookies in the box. Which of the
following can be the number of cookies he brought initially?
(A) 29 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 38

Directions 23-25
In the following multiplication, each letter represents a distinct non-zero digit.
A B C
X B A D
----------------------------------------
A E E A D
Also, it is known that D = 5B and E = 3A
23. What is the value of E?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 8
24. What is the value of A + 3C?
(A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 18 (D) 19
25. What is the value of A2 + B2?
(A) 25 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 15

COMPARISON
Directions 1-3
A team of three persons is to be selected from a group of five persons – A, B, C, D and E under the following constraints.
(i) If A is selected, then B must be selected.
(ii) If C is not selected, then E must be selected.
1. In how many ways can the team be selected?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) None of these
2. If D is not selected, then who must always be selected?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E
3. Which of the following is not a possible team?
(A C, E, D (B) E, A, B (C) C, B, D (D) A, B, D

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