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NPS Grade A Phase 1 2021

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51 views85 pages

NPS Grade A Phase 1 2021

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Furqan Ahmed
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Previous Year Paper

NPS Grade A (Assistant


Manager)

Phase I 2021
NPS Grade A 2021 Phase I Previous Year Paper

English Language

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

The International Space Station (ISS) is a landmark of international cooperation. For over 20

years, it has seen intense collaboration between the U.S., Russia, the EU, Japan and Canada,

and has played host to people from 19 countries since its launch in 1998. This scenario appears

to be coming to an end, as Russian space agency Roscosmos‟s chief has declared that Russia is

ready to build its own space station and launch it by 2030 if President Vladimir Putin would give

the go ahead.

The idea of the ISS was born in 1984 when Ronald Reagan, then the US President, announced it

in a State of the Union address. In his speech, he outlined the idea of international cooperation in

this venture. Since then, the ISS project saw a collaboration grow between several countries,

mainly the following space agencies: NASA (U.S.), Roscosmos (Russia), ESA (Europe), JAXA

(Japan) and CSA (Canada). Though the programme began in 1993, the construction of the station

started only in 1998.

The ISS has been assembled section by section over several years. The first segment was

launched on November 20, 1998 in a Russian proton rocket named Zarya (which means

„sunrise‟). The first human expedition to the station was launched in a Soyuz TM 31 rocket from

Baikonur Cosmodrome in Kazakhstan. This crew became the very first to inhabit the ISS — these

were NASA astronaut Bill Shepard and Yuri Gidzenko and Sergei Krikalev from Roscosmos, who

reached the station on November 2, 2000 and stayed for several months. The assembling of the

ISS has been a complex undertaking in itself. It took over 10 years and over 30 missions to bring

it to its present form. Though the basic unit was launched in 1998, a photograph of the station

taken in September 2000 from spaceship Atlantis looked markedly different from a picture taken

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in October 2018 by Expedition 56 members after undocking in a Soyuz spacecraft. Installation of

different parts took place on close to 40 different occasions from 1998 to 2020.

One of the most spectacular achievements of the ISS is that ever since November 2, 2000, it has
seen the steady presence of human beings. So far, 240 individuals from 19 countries have visited
the ISS, including from Malaysia and the UAE. Most have been from the U.S., numbering 151;
Russia has sent 48 people; Japan 9; Canada 8 and so on. In the realm of science fiction, the sight
of the ISS hurtling through space at a speed of 28,000 km per hour is something that can be
watched from the Earth and wondered at.

The ISS‟s recent tweet celebrated the conclusion of the 64th expedition that began in October
2020 and ended on Friday April 23, after approximately six months. The first experiments were
those that studied the dynamics of cells under microgravity. Some of the experiments being
conducted by the latest expeditions include a study of how muscles work under long-term stay
under low-gravity conditions. This can help in developing rehabilitation both on Earth and in
Space. Another experiment mimics the way geckos attach themselves to surfaces, using an
adhesive that has been shown to work in space. This can help devise methods for robots to
attach themselves to surfaces and then to detach just the way geckos do.

Some of the early physical sciences experiments related to crystal growth. The newer ones study
the behaviour of free-flying soccer balls in microgravity. More exotic sounding subjects include
Janus particles, or particles that have two „faces‟ with distinct properties — one side is
hydrophobic and avoids water, while the other is hydrophilic and loves water. Studying these in
microgravity reveals the fundamental physics behind microparticle self- assembly and the kinds of
colloidal structures that can be fabricated.

For over 20 years, the ISS has remained an ideal of global unity and peace, at least in the realms
of space. Will there be another such expensive investment in the areas of science and
technology? There is no answer now, but, so far, the ISS is unique in being one such ideal.

[Source: International News, The Hindu, 24 April, 2021]

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Q1. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage?

(A) New ISS: The Russian version.

(B) Evolution of the International Space Station through the years.

(C) A glimpse into human‟s first expedition to space.

(D) International Space Station: A space for science, experiments and unity.

(E) The Russian rival for the International Space Station.

Answer: D

A and E cannot be considered as the title. The passage goes much beyond mentioning a new
space station being built by Russia.

C is wrong because the passage talks about ISS and not first expedition to space.

B is correct, but only less appropriate than D, ad D contains the core points mentioned in the
passage.

Q2. How many countries/unions intensely collaborated for the making of ISS according to the
passage and when was it launched?

(A) 19 countries/unions, 1984

(B) 5 countries/unions, 1998

(C) 20 countries/unions, 1993

(D) 4 countries/unions, 2000

(E) 19 countries/unions, 2000

Answer: B

ISS was the result of the collaboration between several countries, especially the U.S., Russia, the
EU, Japan and Canada. It was launched in 1998.

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Q3. How many people from the US have visited the ISS so far?

(A) 240

(B) 151

(C) 48

(D) 19

(E) 9

Answer: B

Explanation:

It is given in the passage that US has sent 151 individuals to ISS.

Q4. The first experiments in ISS were related to what, according to the passage?

(A) Working of muscles under long-term stay under low-gravity conditions.

(B) Devising methods for robots to attach themselves to surfaces and then to detach.

(C) Behaviour of free- flying soccer balls in microgravity.

(D) Studying particles that have two „faces‟ with distinct properties.

(E) Study of dynamics of cells under microgravity.

Answer: E

In the passage, it is mentioned that „The first experiments were those that studied the dynamics of
cells under microgravity.‟ All others are latest experiments.

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Q5. According to the passage, what reveals the fundamental physics behind microparticle self-
assembly and the kinds of colloidal structures that can be fabricated?

(A) Studying particles that have two „faces‟ with distinct properties.

(B) Studying the sciences related to crystal growth.

(C) Studying how muscles work under long-term stay under low-gravity conditions.

(D) Studying subjects including Janus particles in microgravity.

(E) All of these

Answer: D

In the passage, it is said that “More exotic sounding subjects include Janus particles…Studying
these in microgravity reveals … fabricated.”

A is incorrect because the study should be conducted in microgravity.

Q6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ISS?

(A) NASA astronaut Bill Shepard and Yuri Gidzenko and Sergei Krikalev from Roscosmos were
the first crew to inhibit the ISS.

(B) The basic unit of ISS was launched in 1998 and a photograph of the station taken then is
markedly different from a picture taken in October 2018.

(C) Canada has sent 8 people to space till now.

(D) The 64th expedition to ISS began in October 2020 and ended on April 23, 2021.

(E) All of these are correct.

Answer: D

A- These people were the first crew to inhabit ISS, not inhibit ISS.

B- The photograph of the basic unit was taken in 2000, not in 1998.

C- Canada has sent 8 people to ISS till now, not space.

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Q7. Which of the following does not mean the same as the word „collaboration‟?

(A) association

(B) joint effort

(C) assistance

(D) alliance

(E) partnership

Answer: C

The word „assistance‟ means „to help someone‟.

Q8. Which of the following phrases mean the same as the word „launch‟?

(A) blast off

(B) phase out

(C) close down

(D) round off

(E) None of these

Answer: A

If a rocket blasts off, it leaves the ground to go into space.

Q9. Which of the following is an antonym for the word „detach‟?

(A) prefix

(B) suffix

(C) affix

(D) transfix

(E) fixation

Answer: C

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The word detach means „to separate or remove something from something else that it is
connected to‟.

A- means „a letter or group of letters added to the beginning of a word to make a new word‟.

B- means „a letter or group of letters added at the end of a word to make a new word‟.

C- means „to fasten or stick one thing to another‟.

D- means „to make a person or animal unable to move or stop looking at something because they
are so interested, surprised, or frightened‟.

E- means „the state of being unable to stop thinking about something or someone, or an
unnaturally strong interest in something or someone‟.

Q10. Which of the following statements are true according to the passage?

(i) The idea of the ISS was given by Ronald Reagan in his speech in 1984.

(ii) A Russian proton rocket named Zarya was the first segment of ISS to be launched.

(iii) 240 individuals from 19 countries have visited space so far.

(iv) Physical sciences experiments related to crystal growth were carried out in ISS.

(A) Only i

(B) ii, iii and iv

(C) ii and iii

(D) i and iv

(E) i, ii, iii and iv

Answer: D

ii- The first segment was launched in a Russian proton rocket named Zarya. Zarya was not the
first segment of ISS.

iii- 240 individuals from 19 countries have visited ISS so far, not space.

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Directions: In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

In a sharp U-turn, Pakistan reversed its proposal to allow import of sugar, cotton and yarn from
India within 24 hours of the announcement. Coming on the heels of the February ceasefire
agreement between the two countries, the proposal was initially seen as 1) _______________ on
Islamabad‟s part to begin a process of normalisation with New Delhi. But the 2)
_______________ reversal is a symptom of contradictory impulses informing Islamabad‟s
approach towards India.

On the one hand Beijing is in “wolf warrior” mode, leaning hard on India on the LAC and raising

the temperature on Kashmir, which excites certain factions within Pakistan for obvious reasons.

These same factions are inclined to think that things are looking Islamabad‟s way in Afghanistan,

with Taliban gaining ground. But on the other hand, the new Biden administration in the White

House looks 3) ______________ to step up resistance to Beijing‟s designs in Asia, and in an 4)

__________ quasi-Cold War situation Pakistan could get stuck like a deer in the headlights.

Smarter people in Pakistan realise that placing all their eggs in Beijing‟s basket is 5)

____________ with high risk, rhetoric about “iron brotherhood” between Pakistan and China

notwithstanding.

In a 6) ____________ irony, Islamabad may well want to look for a non-aligned space as a Cold

War-like situation develops, even as India becomes a frontier state and is willy nilly forced to

choose sides as a powerful Beijing steps up pressure on it. Pakistan‟s economy has been hurting

due to its investment in jihad, linked to its anti-India posture. Inflation jumped to 9.1% in March; if

sugar imports from India had gone ahead it would have slashed prices by up to 20% for Pakistani

households. There is thus a strong logic for normalising ties with India. Delhi must watch carefully

which way the Pakistani elite is inclining and 7) __________ accordingly.

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Q11. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 1.

(A) reluctance

(B) vacillation

(C) disposition

(D) dumping

(E) accumulation

Answer: C

It is understood from the passage that Islamabad was ready to begin normalisation with India. So,
something similar to its willingness should be the correct word.

The word „disposition‟ means „the process of selling something or formally giving it to someone‟.
This is correct and suits 1.

A and B contradict the idea as both means unwillingness. D and E are also not appropriate.

Q12. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 2.

(A) slow

(B) relaxed

(C) bovine

(D) quick

(E) leisurely

Answer: D

In the passage, it is said that it was a sharp U-turn from Pakistan‟s side. So, here, D is correct, as
all other words mean „slow‟. The word „bovine‟ means „slow or stupid‟.

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Q13. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 3.

(A) determined

(B) undermined

(C) detrimental

(D) relishing

(E) savouring

Answer: A

It is emphasised that the Biden administration is looking forward to set up resistance to Beijing‟s
designs. So, „determined‟ is the correct word according to the context.

The word „detrimental‟ means „causing harm or damage‟. It is not used here because, they are
just looking forward for setting up resistance, not trying to harm. D and E means „enjoying‟ and is
wrong here.

Q14. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 4.

(A) ensuring

(B) ensuing

(C) enduring

(D) endemic

(E) enforcing

Answer: B

Here, the meaning is, Biden administration is determined to set up resistance to Beijing and in a
Cold war situation that follows, Pakistan could get stuck like a deer. So, the word „ensuing‟, which
means „happening after something and because of it‟ is appropriate.

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Q15. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 5.

(A) fought

(B) fight

(C) exquisite

(D) fraught

(E) outstanding

Answer: D

The phrase „fraught with‟ means „full of unpleasant things such as problems or dangers‟. This is
the most appropriate word.

Q16. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 6.

(A) pique

(B) pick

(C) piquant

(D) piquancy

(E) piquantly

Answer: C

The word „piquant‟ is an adjective, which means „interesting and exciting, especially because of
being mysterious‟.

A and D are nouns, B is a verb and E is an adverb. All those are inappropriate here.

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Q17. Select the most appropriate option to fill blank 7.

(A) action

(B) response

(C) respond

(D) correspondence

(E) movement

Answer: C

C is the only verb here, and all others are nouns.

Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your
answer. If there is no error, mark „No error‟ as your answer (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any).

Q18. India retained its lowly 142 rank out of the 180 countries (A)/in Reporters Without Borders
2021 annual report, in which India was categorical (B)/as one of the most dangerous countries for
journalists (C)/trying to do their job properly (D).

(A) India retained its lowly 142 rank out of the 180 countries

(B) in Reporters Without Borders 2021 annual report, in which India was categorical

(C) as one of the most dangerous countries for journalists

(D) trying to do their job properly

(E) No error

Answer: B

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The word „categorical‟ is wrong here. It means „without any doubt or possibility of being changed‟.

The correct word is „categorised‟, which means „to put people or things into groups with the same

features‟.

India retained its lowly 142 rank out of the 180 countries in Reporters Without Borders 2021

annual report, in which India was categorised as one of the most dangerous countries for

journalists trying to do their job properly.

Q19. The government is expected to come apart (A)/with an advisory for doctors and the public
on (B)/identification, management and investigations of AEFIs, which will outline specific
symptoms (C)/that need to be investigated and managed if reported after vaccination (D).

(A) The government is expected to come apart

(B) with an advisory for doctors and the public on

(C) identification, management and investigations of AEFIs, which will outline specific symptoms

(D) that need to be investigated and managed if reported after vaccination

(E) No error

Answer: A

The phrase „come apart‟ means „to separate into several pieces‟. This is wrong in this context.

The correct phrase would be „come up‟, which means „to be mentioned or talked about in

conversation‟.

The government is expected to come up with an advisory for doctors and the public on

identification, management and investigations of AEFIs, which will outline specific symptoms that

need to be investigated and managed if reported after vaccination.

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Q20. The Indian IT service business has (A)/required employees to travel overseas, and even live
(B)/there for extended periods to understand (C)/client requirements and to implement of projects
(D).

(A) The Indian IT service business has

(B) required employees to travel overseas, and even live

(C) there for extended periods to understand

(D) client requirements and to implement of projects

(E) No error

Answer: D

The word „of‟ is used unnecessarily after „implement‟. The phrase „to implement projects‟ is
correct.

The Indian IT service business has required employees to travel overseas, and even live there for
extended periods to understand client requirements and to implement projects.

Q21. The government set an ambitious export growth target of 25%, (A)/shrugging for fears of
higher infection (B)/even as it rejected the US move (C)/to put India on the currency manipulator
watchlist (D).

(A) The government set an ambitious export growth target of 25%

(B) shrugging for fears of higher infection

(C) even as it rejected the US move

(D) to put India on the currency manipulator watchlist

(E) No error

Answer: B

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The phrase „shrugging for‟ is incorrect. The correct phrase is „shrugging off‟, which means „to treat
something as if it is not important or not a problem‟.

The government set an ambitious export growth target of 25%, shrugging off fears of higher
infection even as it rejected the US move to put India on the currency manipulator watchlist.

Q22. Despite the government‟s attempts (A)/to comfort industry again a national lockdown,
(B)/businesses remain wary, amid rising cases (C)/and restrictions imposed across states (D).

(A) Despite the government‟s attempts

(B) to comfort industry again a national lockdown

(C) businesses remain wary, amid rising cases

(D) and restrictions imposed across states

(E) No error

Answer: B

The word „again‟ is inappropriate there. The correct word that should be used is „against‟, which
will provide a comprehensive meaning to the sentence.

Despite the government‟s attempts to comfort industry against a national lockdown, businesses
remain wary, amid rising cases and restrictions imposed across states.

Q23. Chargebee intends to use the funds (A)/to expand its presence globally, (B)/and develop its
products to help businesses (C)/manage subscribe with the platform (D).

(A) Chargebee intends to use the funds

(B) to expand its presence globally

(C) and develop its products to help businesses

(D) manage subscribe with the platform

(E) No error

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Answer: D

The verb „subscribe‟ should be changed to the noun „subscription‟, which means „an amount of
money that you pay regularly to receive a product or service‟.

Chargebee intends to use the funds to expand its presence globally, and develop its products to
help businesses manage subscriptions with the platform.

Directions: Five statements are given below, which are jumbled in any random order.

These statements will form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, when arranged in the

correct sequence. Arrange the sentences in the right order and answer the questions that

follow.

Apple introduces AirTAgs

(A) Small and elegantly designed, it helps keep track of and find paired items with Apple‟s Find

My app, and is powered by the native U1 chipset.

(B) The AirTag is the next step of Apple‟s move into the smart-home and lifestyle spaces within

technology and, yes, this is officially Apple‟s least expensive gadget.

(C) Other than the advantage of privacy of location, it is also IP67 water- and dust-resistant.

(D) When activated, it taps into Apple‟s global Find My network and can help locate a lost item, all

while claiming to keep location data private and anonymous with end-to-end encryption.

(E) The end-to-end encrypted is so important that only the owner of a device has access to its

location data, and no one, including Apple, knows the identity or location of any device that helped

find it.

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Q24. Which among the following will be the third sentence of the paragraph after rearrangement,
considering A, B, C, D and E make the paragraph?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

(E) E

Answer: D

The correct order of the sentences would be B, A, D, E, C.

Only B contains the word AirTAgs, and all other sentences refer to as „it‟. So, B should be the first
statement. A gives the design, structure and use of the product. So, it should come next. D talks
about end-to-end encryption and E explains why it is important. So, E follows D. From D, we can
understand that location would be anonymous. C takes off from this point. So, it would be the last
sentence.

Q25. Which among the following will be the first sentence of the paragraph after rearrangement,
considering A, B, C, D and E make the paragraph?

(A) C

(B) A

(C) D

(D) E

(E) B

Answer: E- The correct order of the sentences would be B, A, D, E, C.

Only B contains the word AirTAgs, and all other sentences refer to as „it‟. So, B should be the first
statement. A gives the design, structure and use of the product. So, it should come next. D talks
about end-to-end encryption and E explains why it is important. So, E follows D. From D, we can
understand that location would be anonymous. C takes off from this point. So, it would be the last
sentence.

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Q26. Which among the following will be the fourth sentence of the paragraph after rearrangement,
considering A, B, C, D and E make the paragraph?

(A) E

(B) B

(C) D

(D) A

(E) C

Answer: A

The correct order of the sentences would be B, A, D, E, C.

Only B contains the word AirTAgs, and all other sentences refer to as „it‟. So, B should be the first
statement. A gives the design, structure and use of the product. So, it should come next. D talks
about end-to-end encryption and E explains why it is important. So, E follows D. From D, we can
understand that location would be anonymous. C takes off from this point. So, it would be the last
sentence.

Q27. Which among the following will be the last sentence of the paragraph after rearrangement,
considering A, B, C, D and E make the paragraph?

(A) D

(B) C

(C) A

(D) B

(E) E

Answer: B

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NPS Grade A 2021 Phase I Previous Year Paper

The correct order of the sentences would be B, A, D, E, C.

Only B contains the word AirTAgs, and all other sentences refer to as „it‟. So, B should be the first
statement. A gives the design, structure and use of the product. So, it should come next. D talks
about end-to-end encryption and E explains why it is important. So, E follows D. From D, we can
understand that location would be anonymous. C takes off from this point. So, it would be the last
sentence.

Directions: In each of the following Questions, a sentence has been split into five parts
denoted by (1), (A), (B), (C) and (D). Rearrange the parts (A), (B), (C) and (D) to make the
sentence both meaningfully and grammatically correct. Of the combination of the parts (A),
(B), (C) and (D) given against the sentence select the combination which makes the
sentence both meaningful and grammatically correct as your answer. If the given sentence
is correct as it is, select “No arrangement required” as your answer. Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.

Q28. Within a few short weeks (1), the country had worked so hard (A)/ the military junta in
Myanmar (B)/ to achieve over the past decade (C)/ has reversed the democratic progress (D).

(A) ACBD

(B) DACB

(C) BDAC

(D) CABD

(E) No arrangement required

Answer: C- We can understand that C follows A, when we look at it at first itself. The name of the
country should come first, and then the word „the country‟. So, B should come before A.D does
not follow 1, but B does. So, BDAC is correct.

Within a few short weeks, the military junta in Myanmar has reversed the democratic progress the
country had worked so hard to achieve over the past decade.

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Q29. Most importantly (1), by itself guarantee (A)/ social and economic outcomes (B)/positive and
equitable (C)/ setting a net zero target will not (D).

(A) DABC

(B) DACB

(C) ADCB

(D) BADC

(E) No arrangement required

Answer: B

Option (A) is wrong because putting C at last will not make the sentence look good and give the
intended meaning.

In option (C), C after D will not give a comprehensive meaning.

In option (D) also, C after D will not give a comprehensive meaning.

Most importantly, setting a net zero target will not by itself guarantee positive and equitable social
and economic outcomes.

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with four words in bold. Below
it, a possible alternative for each word, which would make the sentence better, is given.
Pick out the correct combination of alternative(s) that would make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is grammatically and contextually
correct as it is, then select option (E), is, “No correction required”, as the answer.

Q30. A banned Pakistani group called an end to violence nationwide anti-France protests, after
the government called a parliamentary vote on whether to expect the French ambassador and
said it would halt criminal cases against the group's members.

(i) banned- ban

(ii) violence- violent

(iii) parliamentary- parliament

(iv) expect- expel

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(A) Only i

(B) Only iv

(C) Both i and iii

(D) Both ii and iv

(E) No correction required

Answer: D

ii- Here, an adjective is required, not a noun. So, the noun „violence‟ is to be replaced by the
adjective „violent‟.

iv- The sentence says a violent anti-French protest was stopped with a vote. So, to end such a
protest, rather than „expecting‟ the French ambassador, „expelling‟ him would be more
appropriate. Hence, „expel‟ is the correct word.

A banned Pakistani Islamist group called an end to violent nationwide anti-France protests on
Tuesday, after the government called a parliamentary vote on whether to expel the French
ambassador and said it would halt criminal cases against the group's members.

Q31. The owner for the Daily Mail website, Associated Newspapers, is suing Google, saying the
tech company‟s dominant in online advertising has harmed its business.

(i) for- of

(ii) suing- swing

(iii) dominant- dominance

(iv) harmed- harm

(A) Only i

(B) Both i and iii

(C) i, ii and iii

(D) i, iii and iv

(E) No correction required

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Answer: B

i- The owner „of‟ the newspaper is correct. The preposition „of‟ indicates „possession‟ here.

iii- The word „dominant‟ is an adjective. It means „more important, strong, or noticeable than
anything else of the same type‟. The word „dominance‟ is a noun which means „the quality of
being more important, strong, or successful than anything else of the same type‟. This is more
correct.

The owner of the Daily Mail website, Associated Newspapers, is suing Google, saying the tech
company‟s dominance in online advertising has harmed its business.

Q32. The United States has advised its citizens to say goodbye to foreign travel for now to 80%
of countries worldwide, including for India, among a global surge in Covid-19 cases that has
bough intense scrutiny on New Delhi.

(i) advised- adverse

(ii) for- to

(iii) among- amid

(iv) bough- brought

(A) Only ii

(B) i, ii and iii

(C) ii, iii and iv

(D) i, ii and iv

(E) No correction required

Answer: C

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ii- The sentence says, „say goodbye to foreign travel‟. So, „including to India‟ is correct. That is,
saying goodbye to foreign travel, including travel to India.

iii- The word „among‟ is incorrect here. The word „amid‟, which means „in the middle of or
surrounded by‟ is more appropriate.

iv- The word „bough‟ is inappropriate here. „Brought‟ is more appropriate.

The United States has advised its citizens to say goodbye to foreign travel for now to 80% of
countries worldwide, including to India, amid a global surge in Covid-19 cases that has brought
intense scrutiny on New Delhi.

Q33. Manchester City manager Prep Guardiola sold on his club‟s ownership to take its silence
on the creation of a breakaway league, which he believes threats the integrity and values of the
sport.

(i) sold on- called on

(ii) take- break

(iii) creation- creating

(iv) threats- threatens

(A) Only ii

(B) Only iv

(C) i, ii and iv

(D) ii, iii and iv

(E) No correction required

Answer: C

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i- The phrase „sold on‟ is inappropriate here. It means „very enthusiastic about something‟. We
can understand that the manager is not very enthusiastic about the matter. He wants the club
owners to take a decision. The phrase „call on‟ means „to ask someone in a formal way to do
something‟, which is more appropriate.

ii- The phrase „breaking the silence‟, means „to make a noise interrupting a period of silence‟,
which is the correct phrase.

iv- The noun „threats‟ should be replaced by the verb „threatens‟.

Manchester City manager Prep Guardiola called on his club‟s ownership to break its silence on
the creation of a breakaway league, which he believes threatens the integrity and values of the
sport.

Q34. Aligned with the initiates of the UK-India Joint Economic and Trade Committee, and to help
companies overcome their trade and investment challenges in the UK-India economic corridor,
various policy reforms have been presumed with both the governments in the recent past.

(i) initiates- initiatives

(ii) overcome-overrule

(iii) various- variety

(iv) presumed- pursued

(A) Only i

(B) Both i and iv

(C) i, ii and iii

(D) ii, iii and iv

(E) No correction required

Answer: B

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i- The verb „initiates‟ means „to cause something to begin‟. The word „initiatives‟ is a noun, which
means „a new plan or process to achieve something or solve a problem‟, which is appropriate
here.

iv- The word „presumed‟ means „assumed‟. This seems a bit inappropriate here. The word
„pursued‟ is correct here. If you pursue a plan, activity, or situation, you try to do it or achieve it,
usually over a long period of time.

The other two words are appropriate.

Aligned with the initiatives of the UK-India Joint Economic and Trade Committee, and to help
companies overcome their trade and investment challenges in the UK-India economic corridor,
various policy reforms have been pursued with both the governments in the recent past.

Q35. Recognise that India must globalise its higher education to benefit students who inspire to,
but cannot affordable overseas education, reports were submersed to the ministry of education
covering the international collaboration agenda.

(i) Regard- Regarding

(ii) inspire- aspire

(iii) affordable- afford

(iv) submersed- submitted

(A) Only ii

(B) ii, iii and iv

(C) i, ii and iv

(D) i, ii, iii and iv

(E) No correction required.

Answer: D

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i- „Recognising‟ is the correct form of the verb to be used here.

ii- the word „inspire‟ means „to make someone feel that they want to do something and can do it‟.
This could be correct, but in the next part, it is said that „but cannot afford overseas education‟.
So, the word should mean something like „wish‟. The word „aspire‟ means „to want something very
much or hope to achieve something or be successful‟, which is more appropriate.

iii- The adjective „affordable‟ should be replaced by the verb „afford‟.

iv- The word „submersed‟ means „submerged‟. This is not the meaning intended. The word
„submitted‟ is correct here.

Recognising that India must globalise its higher education to benefit students who aspire to, but
cannot afford overseas education, reports were submitted to the ministry of education covering
the international collaboration agenda.

Directions: In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in bold
type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases A),
B), C) and D). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to correct the
error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If
the sentence is correct as it is and „No correction is required‟, mark E) as the answer.

Q36. After a day‟s respirate, the city is set to experience a hot day as the metrological
department has forecast a maximum temperature of 38 degree Celsius.

(A) respirate, the city is met to experience a hot day

(B) respite, the city is set to experience a hot day

(C) respire, the city is set to experienced a hot day

(D) repatriate, the city is set to experience a hot day

(E) No correction required

Answer: B

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The word „respirate‟ is not appropriate. The word „respite‟ means „a pause or rest from something
difficult or unpleasant‟. This is the correct word to be used.

A, C and D are incorrect. The word „repatriate‟ in D means „to send or bring money or profits back
to your own country‟.

Q37. The Chief Minister reasoned that there was a need to ensure adequate oxygen availability
in the State due to the active caseload crossing over a lakh.

(A) reasoned that there was a need to ensured

(B) reason that there was a need to ensure

(C) rise that there was a need to ensure

(D) was the reason that there was a need to ensure

(E) No correction required

Answer: E

The given phrase is correct. If an argument is (well) reasoned, it is clear and carefully considered.
Also, it is grammatically correct.

Q38. In 1908, the Young Turks rested control from the Sultan and promised to restore
imperial glory.

(A) arrested control from the Sultan and promised to restore

(B) rested control by the Sultan and promised to restore

(C) wrested control from the Sultan and promised to restore

(D) wristed control from the Sultan and promised to restore

(E) No correction required

Answer: C

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The phrase „rested control from the Sultan‟ is incorrect. Either the word „rested‟ or the preposition
„from‟ should be changed to „to‟. In C, the word „wrest‟ means „to get something with effort or
difficulty‟, which can be used here.

Q39. The fire is believed to have caused when at least one oxygen cylinder exploded inside the
hospital.

(A) is believed to have caused while

(B) is believed to caused when

(C) is believe to have caused when

(D) is believed to have been caused when

(E) No correction required

Answer: D

Here, an explanation of how the fire was caused is being said. So, „is believed to have been
caused‟ is correct.

Q40. The government is urging for the public to get vaccinated, but demand has been low due
to widespread mistrust of the health care system and the vaccines in particular.

(A) is urging by the public to get vaccinated

(B) is urgent for the public to get vaccinated

(C) is urging for the public get vaccinated

(D) is urging the public to get vaccinated

(E) No correction required

Answer: D

The preposition „for‟ is unnecessary there. The correct expression is „urging someone to do
something‟, not „urging for someone to do something‟.

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Reasoning Aptitude

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing six persons each in such a way that

there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the Row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting

and all of them are facing towards north direction. In the Row-2 , J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting

and all of them are facing towards south direction . In the given seating arrangement each

member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row.

(i) L sits second from any of the end of the row. Two persons sit between L and O. One of

immediate neighbour of O faces E. Two persons sit between E and B.

(ii) A sits third to right of F. A does not sit adjacent to E. One of immediate neighbour of F faces J.

J does not sit any of the end of the row. L does not face A.

(iii) C sits one of the position left of B. One of immediate neighbour of C faces M. Two persons sit

between M and K.

Question No. 41

Who among the following sits third to left of D?

Options :

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. None of these

Answer : C

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Question No. 42
Who among the following sits second to the right of O?
Options :
1. M
2. No one
3. K
4. J
5. N
Answer : No one

Question No. 43
Who among following faces the person who sits third to right of L?
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. E
5. D
Answer : C

Question No. 44
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and
hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Options :
1. O
2. M
3. J
4. C
5. F
Answer : J

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Question No. 45
Who among the following faces J?
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. E
5. D
Answer : B

Direction:- Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight friends- C, D, E, F, W, X, Y and Z - have to give SSC CGL exam in March, April, June &
July months of the same year. In each month the exam is on either the 13th or the 24th of the
month. Not more than two of the given people have to give SSC CGL exam in the same month.
W has to give SSC CGL exam on the 13th of the month which has only 30 days. Only three
people have to give SSC CGL exam between W and Y.
C and Y have to give SSC CGL exam neither on the same date nor in the same month. C does
not give SSC CGL exam in April. Only two people have to give SSC CGL exam between C and F.
X and F does not give SSC CGL exam on the same date. D has to give SSC CGL exam on one of
the dates before X and E. Only one person has to give SSC CGL exam between D and E. Less
than four people have to give SSC CGL exam between E and Z.

Question No. 46
When does X have to give SSC CGL exam?
Options :
1. 24th April
2. Cannot be determined
3. 13th March
4. 24th June
5. 24th July
Answer : 24th July

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Question No. 47
If all the people are made to give the exam in alphabetical order starting from 13th March and
ending on 24th July, the schedule of how many people will remain unchanged?
Options :
1. 3
2. 2
3. 5
4. None
5. 1
Answer : 2

Question No. 48
Who among the following has to give SSC CGL exam before Y?
Options :
1. Both C & X
2. Only W
3. None
4. Both F & W
5. Only F
Answer : None

Question No. 49
As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way & so they form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
Options :
1. W
2. Z
3. F
4. Y
5. X
Answer : X

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Question No. 50
How many people have to give SSC CGL exam between F and Z?
Options :
1. 2
2. 3
3. None
4. more than three
5. 1
Answer : 3

Direction:- In each of the following questions two statements are given and these
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the
given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Question No. 51
Statements:
All paper are printer.
Some printer are book.
Conclusions:
I. All paper being book is a possibility.
II. All paper being printer is a possibility.
Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

5. If both conclusions I and II are true.

Answer : If only conclusion I is true.

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Question No. 52
Statements:
Some clerks are officers.
No officer is banker.
Conclusions:
I. Some bankers are not clerks.
II. Some bankers are not officers.
Options :
1. If only conclusion I is true.
2. If only conclusion II is true.
3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
5. If both conclusions I and II are true.
Answer : If only conclusion II is true.

Question No. 53

Statements: Some buildings are apartments.

Some bricks are buildings.

No cement is an apartment.

Conclusions: I. All building being cements is a possibility.

II. All bricks can never be apartments.

Options :

1. If only conclusion I follows

2. If only conclusion II follows

3. If either conclusion I or II follows

4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows

5. If both conclusion I and II follows

Answer : If neither conclusion I nor II follows

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Question No. 54

Statements: All teachers are graduates.

All B.Ed. are graduates.

Some B.As are B.Eds.

Conclusions: I. All graduates can never be B.Eds.

II. Some teachers are definitely not B.Ed.

Options :
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. If both conclusion I and II follows
Answer : If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Question No. 55

Statements: No toy is a game

No duck is a toy

All fish are games.

Conclusions: I. No fish is a toy.

II. Some ducks are definitely not games.

Options :
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. If both conclusion I and II follows
Answer : If only conclusion I follows

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Direction:- In these questions, a relationship between elements is shown in the statements.


The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer

Question No. 56
Statements: I = N > T = E ≤ R = A; I = E; O > T
Conclusion: I. A > O II. A ≤ O
Options :
1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true.
3. If either conclusion I or II is true.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5. If both conclusion I and II are true.
Answer : If either conclusion I or II is true.

Question No. 57
Statements: P = E ≤ R < F ≥ O = M; N = T ≥ F
Conclusion: I. P < T II. E = N
Options :
1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true.
3. If either conclusion I or II is true.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5. If both conclusion I and II are true.
Answer : If only conclusion I is true

Question No. 58
Statements: B ≤ E = C < D; C > H = R ≥ S
Conclusions: I. C ≥ S II. D > S
Options :
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5. If both conclusion I and II are true.
Answer : If only conclusion II follows

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Question No. 59
In a row of boys, Samrath is 14th from the start and 21st from the end. In another row of boys,
Punj is 17th from the start and 22nd from the end. How many boys are there in both the rows
together?
Options :
1. 77
2. 73
3. 60
4. 72
5. None of these
Answer : 72

Question No. 60
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word „PARADISE‟ each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (In both forward and backward
directions)
Options :
1. One
2. Four
3. Five
4. Three
5. None of these
Answer : Three

Question No. 61
If in the word „UNDERNEATH‟, all the vowels are changed to the next letter and all the
consonants are changed to the previous letter. How many letters are repeating itself?
Options :
1. One
2. Three
3. Two
4. None
5. None of these
Answer : Two

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Direction:- There are eight members P to W in a three generation family. There is only one

person in third generation and three couples in the family. There are equal number of

males and females. V, who is married is the only uncle of T. Q is the mother in law of S. P

is the brother in law of W. W is a female and is not married. P has only one son and is not

V. P‟s only son is married to S. U is not Q‟s son. V is from second generation of the family.

S has no siblings.

Question No. 62

How is T related to P in the given family arrangement?

Options :
1. Son
2. Granddaughter
3. Nephew
4. Grandson
5. None of these
Answer : Grandson

Question No. 63

Who among the following given options is a female?

Options :

1. U

2. S

3. Q

4. All of them

5. None of these

Answer : All of them

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Question No. 64

Who is the sister of R in the family arrangement?

Options :

1. S

2. U

3. P

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Answer : U

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below:-

A person starts from point A goes 4 km towards east and reaches point X, then he takes his left
and goes 4 km, now he takes his right and goes 3km, reached point B. From point B, he walked
10km towards south and reaches final point D.

Question No. 65

What is the total distance between point X and point B?

Options :

1. 4km

2. 7km

3. 13km

4. 10km

5. None of these

Answer : 7km

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Question No. 66
If at point X, the person starts walking to his west and walks for 9km reaches point K, then what
will be the distance between point A and K?
Options :
1. 4km
2. 11km
3. 3km
4. 5km
5. None of these
Answer : 5km

Question No. 67
A, is in which direction with respect to point D?
Options :
1. West
2. North
3. North west
4. East
5. None of these
Answer : North west

Direction:- In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions


numbered I and II .An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have
to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the
assumption is implicit in the statement.

Question No. 68
Statement: “In view of a likely fiscal deficit of around 5%, there is no denying the need for a
consensus to trim Government expenditure.”—View of Mr. X.
Assumptions:
I. Trimming Government expenditure is an effective tool to curb fiscal deficit.
II. Trimming Government expenditure is not an effective tool to curb fiscal deficit.

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Options :
1. If only assumption I is implicit
2. If only assumption II is implicit
3. If either I or II is implicit
4. If neither I nor II is implicit
5. If both I and II are implicit
Answer : If only assumption I is implicit

Question No. 69
Statements: The eligibility for admission to the course is minimum second class Master's degree.
However, the candidates who have appeared for the final year examination of Master's degree
can also apply.
Conclusions:
I. All candidates who have yet to get their Master's degree will be there in the list of selected
candidates.
II. All candidates having obtained second class Master's degree will be there in the list of selected
candidates.
Options :
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either I or II follows
4. If neither I nor II follows
5. If both I and II follow
Answer : If neither I nor II follows

Direction:- Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II.

These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or
a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements.

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Question No. 70
I) Last year prices of laptops had come down.
II) Demand for online classes have increased in the past few months.
Options :
1. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
2. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
3. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
4. If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
5. If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer : If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answers the questions given

below:

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are living in a seven-story building not in the same order.
The ground floor is numbered 1; the first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is
numbered 7. They all are from different cities i.e. Bengaluru, Amravati, Coimbatore, Kolkata, Agra,
Surat and Nagpur but not necessarily in the same order. They all like different colours i.e. Red,
Pink, Green, Yellow, White, Purple and Brown but not necessarily in the same order. T lives just
above to R, who like Red. S does not like Brown. The person who is from Agra does not live
immediately above or below the one who is from Coimbatore. T is not from Bengaluru. V lives on
3rd floor just below the floor of the one who likes White. The Person who likes Purple is from
Kolkata. S lives one of the above of the floor of V, but not just immediate above. More than 3
floors gap between the person who is from Bengaluru and the person who is from Surat.
One floor gaps between V and U, who like Green. S is from Coimbatore. Both V and T are not
from Agra and Amravati. S does not live on 7th floor. The number of floors gap between the one
who like Brown and the one who is from Amravati is one more than the floors gap between the
one who likes Yellow and the one who is from Agra. More than three floors gap between the one
who is from Coimbatore and the one who is from Nagpur.

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Question No. 71

Who among the following person lives just above the floor of the one who Likes Yellow?

Options :

1. Q
2. P
3. None of these
4. V
5. Either 1 or 2
Answer : Either 1 or 2

Question No. 72

Who among the following lives on 2nd floor?

Options :

1. The one who likes Brown


2. U
3. The one who is from Kolkata
4. R
5. None of these
Answer : The one who likes Brown

Question No. 73

Who among the following person from Bengaluru?

Options :
1. U
2. S
3. P
4. R
5. Can‟t be determined
Answer : Can‟t be determined

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Question No. 74

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the

following does not belong to that group?

Options :

1. White- Purple

2. S-U

3. U-Green

4. Surat - Nagpur

5. V-T

Answer : U-Green

Question No. 75

Who among the following person lives on 6th floor?

Options :

1. V

2. S

3. T

4. U

5. None of these

Answer : S

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Direction:- Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:

X S ! 3 2 K 4 # D 9 V & E 6 5 G * Q 8 M N @ 7 J B * 1 R & U Q & V P


$ Z L

Question No. 76

If „!‟ is related to „$‟ in certain way, and „K‟ is related to „&‟, then following the same pattern which

of the following elements is related to „X‟?

Options :

1. L

2. $

3. Q

4. V

5. None of these

Answer : L

Question No. 77

Which letter/symbol/number is third to the left of the eight from the right end?

Options :

1. R

2. Q

3. 2

4. V

5. None of these

Answer : None of these

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Question No. 78
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
alphabetical series?
X!2 #9& 5*8 ?
Options :
1. @3J
2. @J*
3. 3K*
4. JK5
5. None of these
Answer : @J*

Question No. 79
How many symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
Options :
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these
Answer : Three

Question No. 80
If all the letters are dropped from the given arrangement then which of the following will be tenth
from the left end of the given arrangement?
Options :
1. G
2. *
3. Q
4. R
5. None of these
Answer : *

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General & Financial Awareness

Question No. 81
In January 2021, NITI Aayog, along with the Institute for Competitiveness, released the second
edition of the India Innovation Index. Which state was the top performer in Major States category?
Options :
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka
3. Bihar
4. Gujarat
5. Maharashtra
Answer : Karnataka

Question No. 82
Who is the author of the book “The Little Book of Encouragement”?
Options :
1. Abhishek Manu Singhvi
2. Mohamed Zeeshan
3. Dalai Lama
4. Drew Jubera
5. Yashaswini Chandra
Answer : Dalai Lama

Question No. 83
On which date World Pulses Day is celebrated annually?
Options :
1. 12 December
2. 14 January
3. 27 January
4. 10 February
5. 2 March
Answer : 27 January

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Question No. 84
What is the theme of World Water Day 2021?
Options :
1. Water and Climate Change
2. Nature for Water
3. Leaving no one behind
4. Valuing water
5. Water and Jobs
Answer : Valuing water

Question No. 85

The red cherry pepper chilli of ________ which is locally known as the “Dalle Khursani” has

earned the geographical indication (GI) tag.

Options :

1. Assam
2. Meghalaya
3. Goa
4. Nagaland
5. Sikkim
Answer : Sikkim

Question No. 86

Anju Bobby George is related to which sport?

Options :

1. Boxing

2. Athletics
3. Wrestling
4. Archery
5. Weight Lifting
Answer : Athletics

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Question No. 87
Tennis player Daniil Medvedev belongs to which country?
Options :
1. Denmark
2. Russia
3. France
4. Germany
5. Austria
Answer : Russia

Question No. 88
Shyam Srinivasan, managing director and chief executive officer (CEO) of ________, is the
Business Standard Banker of the Year for 2019-20.
Options :
1. Karnataka Bank
2. Federal Bank
3. RBL Bank
4. HDFC Bank
5. None of these
Answer : Federal Bank

Question No. 89
Renowned Santoor player __________ was conferred upon the Tansen Samman in the Tansen
Music Festival in Gwalior.
Options :
1. Pandit Bharat Vyas
2. Pandit Satish Vyas
3. Pandit Anindo Chatterjee
4. Pandit Anubrata Chatterjee
5. None of these
Answer : Pandit Satish Vyas

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Question No. 90
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched _______ portal and mobile app to provide online civic
services to over 20 lakh residents of 62 Cantonment Boards across the country.
Options :
1. E-Cant
2. E-Civic
3. E-Chhawani
4. E-Cantonment
5. None of these
Answer : E-Chhawani

Question No. 91
Balasore will get the country's first thunderstorm research testbed to minimalise human fatalities
and loss of property due to lightning strikes. Balasore is in _______.
Options :
1. Telangana
2. Odisha
3. Assam
4. Karnataka
5. Kerala
Answer : Odisha

Question No. 92
In Feb 2021, the Indian Space Research Organisation successfully launched PSLV-C51 carrying
Amazonia-1 and _____ other satellites.
Options :
1. 10
2. 12
3. 15
4. 18
5. 21
Answer : 18

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Question No. 93
Who will be the leader of opposition in Rajya Sabha, succeeding Ghulam Nabi Azad?
Options :
1. Priyank M. Kharge
2. K. C. Venugopal
3. Mallikarjun Kharge
4. B. S. Yediyurappa
5. Veerappa Moily
Answer : Mallikarjun Kharge

Question No. 94
In December 2002, which of the following Indian boxers bagged gold medal at the Cologne
Boxing World Cup held in Koln, Germany?
Options :
1. Mohamed Hussamudin
2. Amit Panghal
3. Satish Kumar
4. Gaurav Solanki
5. None of these
Answer : Amit Panghal

Question No. 95
In which IPL team is Chris Morris?
Options :
1. Rajasthan Royals'
2. Delhi Capitals
3. Kolkata Knight Riders
4. Chennai Super Kings
5. Mumbai Indians
Answer : Rajasthan Royals’

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Question No. 96
Italian Prime Minister Mario Draghi is former president of ________.
Options :
1. World Bank
2. ECB
3. IMF
4. EBRD
5. EIB
Answer : ECB

Question No. 97
Madhya Pradesh launched India‟s first __________ in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve located in
Umaria district.
Options :
1. Paragliding
2. Sky Walking
3. Bungee jumping
4. Hot Air balloon safari
5. Hang gliding
Answer : Hot Air balloon safari

Question No. 98

_________ Police won the Best Marching Contingent Trophy during Republic Day 2021.

Options :

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Delhi

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Maharashtra

5. Uttrakhand

Answer : Delhi

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Question No. 99
Which movie got the Best Film Award in Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival awards
2021?
Options :
1. Laxmii
2. Tanhaji: The Unsung Warrior
3. Chhapaak
4. Thappad
5. Angrezi Medium
Answer : Tanhaji: The Unsung Warrior

Question No. 100


According to the vehicle scrapping policy, more than _____ year old personal vehicles will be de-
registered from June 1, 2024, if they fail in an automated fitness test or their registration certificate
is not renewed.
Options :
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 22
5. 25
Answer : 20

Question No. 101


Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for citizens of India, is focused on the unorganised
sector workers. The age of the subscriber of APY should be between _______ years.
Options :
1. 18-35
2. 18-40
3. 18-45
4. 18-50
5. 18-60
Answer : 18-40

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Question No. 102


What is the minimum amount of pension a person would get after the age of 60 years in Pradhan
Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PMSYM) scheme?
Options :
1. 2000
2. 3000
3. 5000
4. 6000
5. 10000
Answer : 3000

Question No. 103


The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has imposed a penalty of
Rs _______ crore on Chola MS General Insurance for violating certain norms of motor insurance
service provider (MISP) guidelines.
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Answer : 1

Question No. 104


Mastercard and Razorpay have launched a strategic partnership to empower _________in
digitising their operations, maintaining business continuity in the challenging environment and
preparing for the future beyond cash.
Options :
1. Neo Banks
2. Payment Banks
3. MSME
4. Public Sector Banks
5. None of these
Answer : MSME

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Question No. 105


The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United
Province, (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India on 4 February. In which year the Chauri Chaura
incident will complete its centenary year?
Options :
1. 2021
2. 2022
3. 2023
4. 2024
5. 2025
Answer : 2022

Question No. 106


In which year Startup India Action Plan was launched?
Options :
1. 2015
2. 2016
3. 2017
4. 2018
5. 2019
Answer : 2016

Question No. 107


Arya Rajendran has become the youngest mayor of the country after her election to the
____________ Municipal Corporation at age 21.
Options :
1. Kozhikode
2. Thrissur
3. Thiruvananthapuram
4. Kollam
5. None of these
Answer : Thiruvananthapuram

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Question No. 108


In December 2020, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) has directed the _______ government to
prepare an action plan for 14 identified elephant corridors for free movement of elephants in the
state.
Options :
1. Odisha
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu
Answer : Odisha

Question No. 109


The Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India built on the _______ River.
Options :
1. Mandakini
2. Alaknanda
3. Bhagirathi
4. Betwa
5. Ghaghara
Answer : Bhagirathi

Question No. 110


__________ has introduced Business Kisht Suraksha — a unique cover aimed at protecting the
balance sheet of MFIs, financial institutions and banks in the event of a catastrophe or natural
disaster.
Options :
1. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
2. ICICI Lombard General Insurance Ltd
3. HDFC ERGO General Insurance
4. IFFCO Tokio General Insurance Company Limited
5. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Company
Answer : HDFC ERGO General Insurance

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Question No. 111


DigiLocker is an Indian digitization online service provided by _______________, under its Digital
India initiative.
Options :
1. NITI Aayog
2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
3. National Institute of Electronics & Information Technology
4. National Informatics Centre
5. None of these
Answer : Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Question No. 112


RBI issues guidelines for KYC, through _____________.
Options :
1. Banking Act 1959
2. Banking Regulation Act 1949
3. RBI Act 1934
4. Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
5. None of these
Answer : Banking Regulation Act 1949

Question No. 113

What is loan limit in Micro Credit Scheme in MUDRA?

Options :

1. Rs. 1 lakh

2. Rs. 2 lakh

3. Rs. 3 lakh

4. Rs. 5 lakh

5. Rs. 10 lakh

Answer : Rs. 1 lakh

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Question No. 114


Which of the following is not one of the CRA agencies that are in India?
Options :
1. TransUnion CIBIL
2. CRISIL
3. CARE
4. SMREA
5. Brickwork Rating
Answer : TransUnion CIBIL

Question No. 115


What is the minimum sum insured in the Saral Suraksha Bima Yojna?
Options :
1. Rs. 1 Lakh
2. Rs. 1.5 Lakh
3. Rs. 2 Lakh
4. Rs. 2.5 Lakh
5. Rs. 3 Lakh
Answer : Rs. 2.5 Lakh

Question No. 116

A coupon payment is the annual interest payment that an Investor receives from investing in

_____________.

Options :

1. Fixed Deposit

2. Recurring Deposit

3. Bonds

4. Equity

5. All of the above


Answer : Bonds

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Question No. 117

Which of the following describes Depository correctly?

Options :

1. A locker where bank customers deposit their valuable items

2. A place where all Central Government fund is deposited

3. An entity which helps an investor to buy or sell securities such as stocks and bonds in a paper-

less manner

4. A facility to electronically buy G-Secs only

5. None of the above

Answer : A facility to electronically buy G-Secs only

Question No. 118

Which of the following is the Supreme Body that manages the CKYC registry?

Options :

1. RBI

2. SEBI

3. FSDC

4. Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest (CERSAI)

5. None of the above

Answer : Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest

(CERSAI)

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Question No. 119

Which of the following Statements about Microfinance is/are True?

I- Muhammad Yunus is known as the father of Microfinance system.

II- MFIs provide services such as- microloans, microsavings and microinsurance.

III- In India, all loans that are below Rs.1.25 lakh can be considered as microloans.

Options :

1. Only I

2. Only II

3. I & II

4. I & III

5. All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question No. 120

What is the major objective of OMOs?

Options :

1. Adjusting liquidity in the market

2. Ensuring liquidity in the banks

3. Ensuring profitability of banks

4. Ensuring sound financial condition of the Government

5. Both b & c

Answer : Adjusting liquidity in the market

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Computer

Question No. 121


What are the components of computer?
Options :
1. Input devices
2. Memory unit
3. CPU
4. output devices
5. All of these
Answer : All of these

Question No. 122


Primary memory is directly accessible to CPU?
Options :
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3.
4.
5.
Answer : TRUE

Question No. 123


Tangible component of the computer is called as
Options :
1. Software
2. Firmware
3. Hardware
4. Both 1 and 3
5. All of the above
Answer : Hardware

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Question No. 124

A file is often referred to as a

Options :

1. Wizards

2. Documents

3. Pane

4. Device
5. Documentation
Answer : Documents

Question No. 125

Removing and Replacing devices without turning off your computer is called ?

Options :

1. Hot swapping

2. Plug-n-Play

3. Bay swap

4. USB Swapping

5. None of these
Answer : Plug-n-Play

Question No. 126


Which of the following is a valid domain
Options :
1. .gom
2. .tom
3. .cam
4. .com
5. None of these
Answer : .com

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Question No. 127

Compiling program creates a

Options :

1. Error free program

2. Good Environment
3. Bug
4. Linked file
5. None of above
Answer : Error free program

Question No. 128

Which of the following is used for presentation

Options :

1. MS-Word
2. MS-Excel
3. MS Outlook
4. MS Power Point
5. None of these
Answer : MS Power Point

Question No. 129

Which of the following is used to create new slide?

Options :

1. Ctrl+M
2. Ctrl+N
3. Ctrl+Del+N
4. Ctrl+Shift+M
5. None of these
Answer : Ctrl+M

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Question No. 130

Which of the following is used to reload a web page?

Options :
1. Reload button
2. Refresh button
3. Undo
4. Restore
5. None of these
Answer : Refresh button

Question No. 131

Which is not an Input Device?

Options :

1. BIO Metric Device


2. Touch Pad
3. Speaker
4. Mouse
5. keyboard
Answer : Speaker

Question No. 132

What is volatile storage?

Options :

1. A storage medium that loses data on power failure

2. A storage medium that keeps data saves after power failure


3. A storage medium that is used to transmit data
4. A storage medium that is used to link the memory references.
5. None of these
Answer : A storage medium that loses data on power failure

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Question No. 133

VDU stands for __________.

Options :
1. Visual Digital Unit
2. Visual Data Unit
3. Virtual Digital Unit
4. Visual Display Unit
5. Visual Dynamic Unit
Answer : Visual Display Unit

Question No. 134

SMTP belongs to __________.

Options :
1. Web Design
2. Search Engine Optimization
3. Project Design Process
4. Email
5. Hardware
Answer : Email

Question No. 135

Which is not a type of computer?

Options :

1. Analog

2. Digital

3. Hybrid

4. Optical
5. All of these are valid
Answer : Optical

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Question No. 136

In which Network topology all workstation (Client PC) are connected to central computer (Server)?

Options :

1. A Bus Topology
2. A Star Topology
3. A Ring Topology
4. A Mesh Topology
5. None of these
Answer : A Star Topology

Question No. 137

These are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly

Options :

1. Servers

2. Super Computer

3. Laptops
4. Mainframe
5. none of these
Answer : Super Computer

Question No. 138

Microsoft Word is an example of a/an

Options :

1. Operating System

2. Processing device
3. Application Software
4. Input device
5. None of these
Answer : Application Software

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Question No. 139

Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ________ data.

Options :

1. Input
2. Output
3. Store
4. Present
5. None
Answer : Input

Question No. 140


The wheel located between the two standard buttons on a mouse is used to ___________
Options :
1. Click on the webpages
2. Shutdown
3. Click on selected items
4. Scroll
5. None
Answer : Scroll

Question No. 141


Devices that allow you to put information into the computer ___________
Options :
1. Input
2. Output
3. Store
4. Present
5. None
Answer : Input

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Question No. 142


Which of the following enables an object , variable or a method in OOPs to take multiple forms?
Options :
1. Inheritance
2. Encapsulation
3. Polymorphism
4. Abstraction
5. Generalization
Answer : Polymorphism

Question No. 143


Full Form of VIRUS?
Options :
1. Vital information resource under size
2. Virtual infected resource under size
3. Very infected resource under size
4. Virtual information resource under structure
5. None of these
Answer : Vital information resource under size

Question No. 144

The size of IP address in IPV6 is

Options :

1. 4 bits

2. 100 bits

3. 128 bits

4. 128 bytes

5. None of the above

Answer : 128 bits

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Question No. 145


Which of the following is used for close a tab on a browser?
Options :
1. Ctrl+S
2. Ctrl+W
3. Ctrl+A
4. Ctrl+T
5. Shift+W
Answer : Ctrl+W

Question No. 146


Select the shortcut for Opens "Save as" dialog (MS Office)
Options :
1. F1
2. F2
3. F5
4. F12
5. F10
Answer : F12

Question No. 147

It is a software which is used to secure a private network from the unauthorized software and

users from getting into the private network. To which kind of software does the statement refer to?

Options :

1. Virus
2. VPN
3. Firewall
4. Browser
5. MS-office
Answer : Firewall

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Question No. 148


In ______data structures, the data items are arranged in a linear sequence.
Options :
1. Linear
2. Homogeneous
3. Non-linear
4. Non-Homogeneous
5. Static
Answer : Linear

Question No. 149


The fraudulent practice of making phone calls or leaving voice messages purporting to be from
reputable companies in order to induce individuals to reveal personal information, such as bank
details and credit card numbers.
Options :
1. Phishing
2. Vishing
3. Hacking
4. Spam
5. None
Answer : Vishing

Question No. 150


Alt+Enter keyboard shortcut performs?
Options :
1. Edit the active cell.
2. Highlight the entire column.
3. Highlight the entire Row.
4. When editing a cell, add a line break within the same cell.
5. Copies the content and formatting from the topmost cell to all highlighted cells below.
Answer : When editing a cell, add a line break within the same cell.

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Question No. 151


Assembler is used to translate a program written in ?
Options :
1. Assembly language
2. High level Language
3. Low level Language
4. Middle level Language
5. None of the above
Answer : Assembly language

Question No. 152


Oracle is a _______ ?

Options :

1. Transmission control program

2. Web Server

3. Web Browser

4. DBMS

5. Client
Answer : DBMS

Question No. 153

What is the 1‟s complement of 10 ?

Options :

1. 01
2. 101
3. 10
4. 11
5. 09
Answer : 01

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Question No. 154


The control unit controls other units by generating?
Options :
1. Control Signals
2. Timing Signal
3. Transfer Signal
4. Command Signal
5. None of the above
Answer : Control Signals

Question No. 155


__________ gets transformed to _________ during encryption.
Options :
1. Cipher Text , Plain text
2. Plain Text , Cipher Text
3. Data , Information
4. Information , Data
5. Plain text , Parallel Text
Answer : Plain Text , Cipher Text

Question No. 156

A communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ____________ transmission.

Options :

1. simplex

2. half duplex

3. full duplex

4. semi-duplex

5. None of these

Answer : simplex

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Question No. 157


1 Yotta Byte is equal to ?
Options :
1. 1024 TB
2. 1024 Kilo Bytes
3. 1024 Peta Bytes
4. 1024 EB
5. 1024 ZB
Answer : 1024 ZB

Question No. 158


Switch is considered as intelligent hub.
Options :
1. True
2. false
Answer : True

Question No. 159


Attack which a user cannot identify is called ?
Options :
1. active attack
2. passive attack
3. Hidden attack
4. visible attack
5. operate attack
Answer : passive attack

Question No. 160


What consist of CIA Triad?
Options :
1. Confidentiality
2. Availability
3. Integrity
4. Authorization
5. All except 4
Answer : All except 4

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NPS Grade A 2021 Phase I Previous Year Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Line graph shows the total number of students, Total number of Girls and Total number of
Boys playing Cricket in five different schools i.e. A, B, C, D and E.

Question No. 161

What is the difference between total number of students from School A and D together and total

number of boys not playing cricket from School B?

Options :

1. 15
2. 20
3. 12
4. 23
5. None of these
Answer : 20

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Question No. 162


If 24% of the girls play badminton from school C, then find the ratio of the total number boys
playing cricket from school E to that total number of girls playing badminton from school C.
Options :
1. 5:3
2. 4:7
3. 8:3
4. 7:5
5. None of these
Answer : 8:3

Question No. 163


Total number of girls from schools B and E together is what % more or less than the total number
of students from school B?
Options :
1. 6.66% more
2. 3.33% more
3. 5.12% less
4. 4.34% less
5. None of these
Answer : 6.66% more

Question No. 164


Find the average of the number of boys playing cricket from schools B, C, D and E together.
Options :
1. 65
2. 94
3. 77
4. 83
5. None of these
Answer : 83

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Question No. 165


30% of the students participated in debate competition from school D and E together is
approximately what percent of the total number of girls from school A and C together?
Options :
1. 46%
2. 33%
3. 65%
4. 52%
5. None of these
Answer : 46%

Direction:- In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have
to solve both the equations and give answer.

Question No. 166


I. x2 - 17x + 66 = 0
II. 2y2 - 57y + 361 = 0
Options :
1. If x > y
2. If x < y
3. If x ≥ y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or Relationship between x & y cannot be established.
Answer : If x = y or Relationship between x & y cannot be established.

Question No. 167


I. 2x2 + 21x + 49 = 0
II. 3y2 + 3y - 60 = 0
Options :
1. If x > y
2. If x < y
3. If x ≥ y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or Relationship between x &amp; y cannot be established.
Answer : If x = y or Relationship between x & y cannot be established.

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Question No. 168


I. 2x2 + 41x + 210= 0
II. 2y2 - 45y + 253= 0
Options :
1. If x > y
2. If x < y
3. If x ≥ y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or Relationship between x &amp;amp; y cannot be established.
Answer : If x < y

Question No. 169


I. 5x2 + 63x + 198= 0
II. 5y2 + 117y + 630= 0
Options :
1. If x > y
2. If x < y
3. If x ≥ y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or Relationship between x &amp;amp;amp; y cannot be established.
Answer : If x > y

Question No. 170


I. x² + 11x + 24 = 0
II. y² + 17y + 72 = 0
Options :
1. If x > y
2. If x < y
3. If x ≥ y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or Relationship between x &amp;amp;amp;amp; y cannot be established.
Answer : If x ≥ y

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Question No. 171


If A alone can do a job in 4 days more than the days in which B alone can do the job and B alone
can do this job 45 days more than the days in which A & B together can do then in how many
days A alone can do this job?
Options :
1. 20 days
2. 13 days
3. 18 days
4. 16 days
5. None of these
Answer : 18 days

Question No. 172


Shweta spends 90% of her monthly income on paying bills. Her annual income is Rs. 1.68 lac.
What is the total amount
that Shweta spends on paying bills in 8 months together?
Options :
1. Rs. 110800
2. Rs. 100800
3. Rs. 102800
4. Rs. 123800
5. None of these
Answer : Rs. 100800

Question No. 173


A trader sells two chains for Rs. 4100 each, neither losing nor gaining in all. If he sold one of the
chains at a gain of 25%, the other was sold at a loss of
Options :
1. 16.67%
2. 13.33%
3. 14.54%
4. 18.5%
5. None of these
Answer : 16.67%

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Question No. 174


Prerna, Fawad and Heena enter into a partnership with Prerna‟s contribution Rs. 15,000. If out of
a total profit of Rs. 1500, Prerna gets Rs.500 and Fawad gets Rs. 600, Heena gets rs 400 then
Fawad‟s capital is:
Options :
1. Rs. 16000
2. Rs. 18000
3. Rs. 15000
4. Rs. 21000
5. None of these
Answer : Rs. 18000

Question No. 175


The average of marks obtained by 50 candidates was 56. If the average of the passed candidates
was 60 and that of the failed candidates was 50, then the number of those candidates, who
passed the examination was:
Options :
1. 25
2. 30
3. 32
4. 20
5. None of these
Answer : 30

Question No. 176


A bike covers 60 km with a speed of 20 km/hr. Find the speed of the bike for the next 50 km
journey so that the average speed of the whole journey will be 30 km/hr.
Options :
1. 82 kmph
2. 96 kmph
3. 58 kmph
4. 75 kmph
5. None of these
Answer : 75 kmph

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Question No. 177


Manan is 5 years older than Jeevan and Lakhan is 7 years younger than Manan. If the average
age of Jeevan and Lakhan is 27 years. Find the sum of the age of Lakhan, Jeevan and Manan
Options :
1. 55 years
2. 79 years
3. 87 years
4. 102 years
5. None of these
Answer : 87 years

Question No. 178


Train X crosses a stationary train Y in 30 seconds and a pole in 20 seconds with the same speed.
The length of the train X is 360 meters. What is the length of the stationary Train Y?
Options :
1. 210 m
2. 180 m
3. 165 m
4. 170 m
5. None of these
Answer : 180 m

Question No. 179


A can do a piece of work in 32 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then in how many days the
work gets completed when both are working simultaneously?
Options :
1. 14 days
2. 11(2/7) days
3. 15(2/3) days
4. 12(4/13) days
5. None of these
Answer : 12(4/13) days

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Question No. 180


A man rows upstream 18 km and downstream 30 km taking 6hours each. Find the man‟s speed in
still water.
Options :
1. 4 kmph
2. 5 kmph
3. 6 kmph
4. 7 kmph
5. None of these
Answer : 4 kmph

Direction:- In each of the following giving number series, a wrong number is given. Find
out the wrong number.

Question No. 181


11 31 71 151 311 641
Options :
1. 311
2. 31
3. 151
4. 641
5. 71
Answer : 641

Question No. 182


40 48 68 106 166 260
Options :
1. 166
2. 68
3. 106
4. 48
5. 260
Answer : 166

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Question No. 183

134 350 301 812 732 1732

Options :
1. 1732
2. 301
3. 732
4. 812
5. 350
Answer : 812

Question No. 184

96 107 121 135 152 171

Options :
1. 121
2. 96
3. 152
4. 135
5. 107
Answer : 121

Question No. 185

50 27 25 41 75 198.5

Options :
1. 27
2. 75
3. 25
4. 198.5
5. 41
Answer : 25

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NPS Grade A 2021 Phase I Previous Year Paper

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Two students A and B obtained marks in four different subjects i.e. Hindi, English, Science,

History. Marks obtained in Hindi by B is 20% more than A in the same subject. Marks obtained in

English by A and B is 7:5. Marks obtained in History by A is 12 less than marks obtained in

English by B and marks obtained in History by B is 21 less than the marks obtained by A in

English. Total marks obtained in History is 123. Difference of marks obtained in Science by A and

B is 36. Ratio of marks obtained in Science by A and B is 7:3. Marks obtained in Hindi by B is 72.

Question No. 186

What is ratio of total marks obtained in Science and History together by A and the total marks

obtained in Hindi and English together by B?

Options :
1. 96:77
2. 121:140
3. 116:137
4. 89:115
5. None of these
Answer : 116:137

Question No. 187


Total marks obtained in Hindi is approximately what percent of total marks obtained in History ?
Options :
1. 83%
2. 107%
3. 99%
4. 120%
5. None of these
Answer : 107%

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Question No. 188


Find the difference between the total marks obtained by A and total marks obtained by B in all the
subjects?
Options :
1. 33
2. 27
3. 19
4. 35
5. None of these
Answer : 33

Question No. 189


Total marks obtained in English by both A and B is approximately how much percent more than
the total marks obtained in History and Science by B?
Options :
1. 41%
2. 61%
3. 71%
4. 51%
5. 81%
Answer : 61%

Question No. 190


Find the average of the total marks obtained in all the subjects by B.
Options :
1. 62
2. 47.2
3. 55.5
4. 58.5
5. None of these
Answer : 58.5

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