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Anesthesiology Final Exam 2021-2022-2

Anesthesia med 4 final exam

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Razane Abouzaid
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288 views13 pages

Anesthesiology Final Exam 2021-2022-2

Anesthesia med 4 final exam

Uploaded by

Razane Abouzaid
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Anesthesiology Final Exam 2021-2022

Duration: 60 minutes
60 questions (55 SCQs Dr. Maroun GHABACH, 3 SCQs Dr. Sarah EID, 2 SCQs Dr.
Georges ASSAF)
Although the courses of Dr. Jean Claude NAJEM and Ralph KARAM were included
in the exam, no questions were from them.

Choose the correct answer:


Dr. Maroun Ghabach:
All the questions were from the slides. Some of them were from previous sessions.
So, study the slides and the sessions very well.

1. The different parameters of Glascow coma scale are all, except:


a. Eye opening response
b. Verbal response
c. Motor response
d. Hemodynamic status

2. The Glascow coma scale score of a perfectly conscious person is:


a. 9
b. 15
c. 3
d. 0
e. 7

3. The Glascow coma score for a patient with deep coma is:
a. 9
b. 15
c. 3
d. 0

1
e. 7

4. The stage of deep sedation is characterized by all the following except:


a. Response to painful stimuli
b. Ventilation may be inadequate
c. Airway may be obstructed
d. Cardiovascular function is impaired

5. The spinal cord ends at the level of:


a. Thoracic vertebra T12
b. Lumbar vertebra L1
c. Lumbar vertebra L2
d. Lumbar vertebra L3
e. Lumbar vertebra L5

6. All of the following are nerves of the lumbosacral plexus except:


a. Femoral nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Sciatic nerve
d. Obturator nerve
e. Lateral cutaneous nerve

7. Which of the following is not a standard in the monitoring of general


anesthesia?
a. Oxygenation.
b. Ventilation.
c. Circulation.
d. Temperature.
e. EEG

8. The first anesthesiologist who used glass balloon of ether was:


a. Koller
b. Snow
c. Morton
d. Priestley
2
e. ..........

9. Choose the most correct answer for anesthetic consultation:


a. In consultation we obtain informed consent from patient
b. It is only about measuring ASA and risks of difficult ventilation and
intubation
c. It is mandatory in emergency
d. ..........
e. ..........

10.EtCO2 represents:
a. Dead space
b. Beginning of exhalation
c. Maximum CO2 concentration at the end of tidal breath
d. Inspiratory cycle
e. ..........

11.A five-electrode system electrocardiogram allows:


a. Monitoring of twelve leads
b. Monitoring of seven leads
c. Monitoring of five leads
d. Monitoring of three leads

12.Bispectral index is used for:


a. Hypnosis
b. ETCO2
c. Peripheral arterial oxygen
d. Muscle relaxation

13.A 27-year-old female patient with 175 cm height has an ideal weight of:
a. 75 Kg
b. 70 Kg
c. 65 Kg
d. 80 Kg
e. 60 Kg
3
14.Concerning allergy to latex, which is false?
a. The percentage is declining
b. Anaphylaxis to latex is an Ig-G mediated
c. Children with spina bifida are risk factors
d. Healthcare workers are risk factors
e. Reactions to latex tend to occur 30 minutes or more after the start of
the intervention

15.NYHA class 4 corresponds to:


a. No limitation of physical activity
b. Slight limitation of physical activity
c. Marked limitation of physical activity
d. Unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort

16.A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation is
classified depending on ASA classification in class:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

17.Drugs that should be stopped preoperatively:


a. Oral hypoglycemic agents
b. Beta blockers
c. Medications for asthma
d. Statins
e. Medications for esophageal reflux

18.If it is decided to stop clopidogrel, it should be stopped at least before:


a. One day
b. Two days
c. Three days
d. Four days
e. Seven days
4
19.In order to have an INR < 1.4, we should stop warfarin at least before:
a. 1 to 2 days
b. 2 to 3 days
c. 3 to 5 days
d. ..........
e. 1 week

20.Criteria in Apfel score include all the following except:


a. Female gender
b. Duration of surgery
c. Nonsmoking
d. Use of postoperative opioids
e. History of motion sickness

21.The risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting when Apfel score is 0 is:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 60%
e. 80%

22.Concerning tobacco use, all are true except:


a. Cessation of smoking for 48 hours decrease carboxyhemoglobin levels
b. Cessation of smoking for 2 days improves mucous clearance
c. Nicotine patches are recommended in the preoperative period
d. ..........

23.For patients with type 2 diabetes, it is recommended to delay an elective


surgery if HBA1C >:
a. 8
b. 8.8
c. 7
d. 7.5
e. ..........

5
24.Which is not an indicator of difficult mask ventilation:
a. Mallampati classification II
b. Presence of beard
c. Body mass index of 30 kg/m2 or greater
d. Age older than 55 years
e. Edentulousness

25.In the modified mallampati classification, in which stage the epiglottis is not
visualized:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

26.The recommended medico-legal way to confirm endotracheal placement in


the trachea is by:
a. Direct vision
b. Measurement of EtCO2 (Capnography)
c. Chest movement
d. Fiberscope
e. Stethoscope auscultation

27.Selective bronchial intubation is confirmed by:


a. Direct vision
b. Measurement of EtCO2
c. Chest movement
d. Fiberscope
e. Stethoscope auscultation

28.Non-reassuring signs of difficult intubation included all EXCEPT:


a. Edentulous patient
b. Inter-incisors distance less than 3 cm
c. Relatively long incisors.
d. Short neck length

6
29.According to Guedel ether anesthesia classification, the surgical anesthesia
is at stage:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

30.Patients will not move under inhalational anesthesia in 99.7% with a MAC
level of:
a. At 0.5 MAC
b. At 1.0 MAC
c. At 1.1 MAC
d. At 1.2 MAC
e. At 1.3 MAC

31.MAC of N2O is:


a. 104
b. 0.75
c. 1.63
d. 6.6
e. 1.8

32.Mild hepatic injury is seen with the use of:


a. Sevoflurane
b. N2O
c. Desflurane
d. Isoflurane
e. Halothane

33.The closest inhalation gas to the ideal agent is:


a. N2O
b. Xenon
c. Halothane
d. Sevoflurane
e. Isoflurane
7
34.The inhalation gas contraindicated in patients with pneumothorax is:
a. N2O
b. Xenon
c. Halothane
d. Sevoflurane
e. Isoflurane

35.The halogenated volatile anesthesia gas that requires special vaporizer is:
a. Halothane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Isoflurane
d. Desflurane

36.The recommended intravenous hypnotic for induction of anesthesia in


hypovolemic patient is:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Thiopental
d. Etomidate
e. Midazolam

37.The intravenous hypnotic with best hemodynamic stability is:


a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Thiopental
d. Etomidate
e. Midazolam

38.The intravenous hypnotic accompanied with transient acute adrenal


insufficiency is:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Thiopental
d. Etomidate
e. Midazolam
8
39.The less lipophilic opioid is:
a. Morphine
b. Sufentanil
c. Alfentanil
d. Remifentanil
e. Fentanyl

40.Fentanyl potency is:


a. 5 times compared with morphine
b. 20 times compared with morphine
c. 50 times compared with morphine
d. 100 times compared with morphine
e. 10 times compared with morphine

41.The fastest onset of action opioid is:


a. Morphine
b. Sufentanil
c. Alfentanil
d. Remifentanil
e. Fentanyl

42.The opioid metabolized by esterase is:


a. Morphine
b. Sufentanil
c. Alfentanil
d. Remifentanil
e. Fentanyl

43.The greatest affinity of sugammadex as a reversal agent is to:


a. Pancuronium
b. Rocuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. Cistracrium
e. Vecuronium

9
44.According to Poiseuille law if we replace a pipe by half the radius, this
would reduce the flow by:
a. Twice
b. Threefold
c. Fourfold
d. Sixteen folds
e. Thirty-two folds

45.The constrictive response of a vein occurs at the level of:


a. Tunica Adventitia
b. Tunica Media
c. Tunica Intima
d. Valves

46.The layer of the vein where phlebitis begins:


a. Tunica Adventitia
b. Tunica Media
c. Tunica Intima
d. Valves

47.The vein dilates at the level of:


a. Tunica Adventitia
b. Tunica Media
c. Tunica Intima
d. Valves

48.Puncture site of peripheral vein should be changed every:


a. 24 hours
b. 24-48 hours
c. 48-72 hours
d. 72-96 hours
e. No time to change if phlebitis is not present

10
49.All are absolute contraindications of central venous catheterization EXCEPT:
a. Local infection at the site of puncture
b. Venous thrombosis
c. Vasculitis
d. Combative patients
e. Distorted anatomy

50.The approach that is preferably avoided in case of bleeding disorders is:


a. Subclavian approach
b. Internal jugular approach
c. Femoral approach
d. Basil vein approach
e. External jugular vein approach

51.The approach that has an increased risk of pneumothorax is:


a. Subclavian vein approach
b. Internal jugular vein approach
c. Femoral vein approach
d. Basilic vein approach
e. External jugular vein approach

52.The approach that is associated with high risk of infections:


a. Subclavian vein approach
b. Internal jugular vein approach
c. Femoral vein approach
d. Basilic vein approach
e. External jugular vein approach

53.Critically ill patients should take protein:


a. 1200 to 1500 g
b. 1.2 to 1.5 g
c. 0.12 to 0.15 g
d. ..........
e. ..........

11
54.Which is not recommended in case of nutrition support:
a. Parenteral nutrition...
b. Parenteral nutrition should not be started before one to two weeks
c. The carbohydrates are the major source of energy
d. Enteral nutrition is started after one week
e. Enteral nutrition may decrease the risk of infection

55...........

Dr. Sarah Eid:

56.Major complication of kerosene toxicity:


a. Pneumonia
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Nausea

57.Accepted amount of Carbon monoxide in air is:


a. 0.2%
b. 0.4%
c. 0.1%
d. 0.005%

58.Which is not a sign of hypercapnia?


a. Tachycardia and ...
b. Tachypnea
c. Hypertension
d. Anhydrosis
e. Confusion

12
Dr. Georges Assaf:
Both questions were from last year session.

59.Which is not a sign of shock?


a. Polyuria
b. Tachycardia
c. Dyspnea
d. Cyanosis
e. Stupor

60.About SIRS, which is false:


a. Temperature > 38°C
b. Heart rate > 90 beat/ minute
c. Respiratory rate > 20 minute or mechanical ventilation for respiratory
failure
d. WBC > 12000/ mm³ or < 4000/ mm³
e. Always caused by infection

Good Luck

13

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