Code-A

CoE-XII
25/10/2023

Corporate. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM: 720 Practice Test (COE-XII) Time: 200 Min.

(For AIATS-02-NEET-2024)

Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction
Chemistry : The p-block elements (Group-15 to 18), The d-& f-block Elements
Botany: Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology : Reproductive Health, Evolution

Instructions:
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) There are two sections in each subject, i.e., Section-A and Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A and only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION-A 5. A wire of length L carrying a current of I is bent in

the form of an equilateral triangle. Its magnetic
1. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through
moment is
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
If the magnetic field is suddenly switch off, and the 3 IL2 2 IL2
same electric field is maintained, the electrons move (1) (2)
4 9
(1) Along an elliptical path
5 IL2 3 IL2
(2) In a circular path (3) (4)
18 36
(3) Along a parabolic path
6. Ionised hydrogen atoms and alpha particles enter
(4) In a straight line path perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If they
2. A long solenoid of length 1 m and having 1000 turn enter with same kinetic energy then ratio of their
carries a current of 5 A. The magnetic field near one time periods will be
end of the solenoid is (1) 1 : 2
(1) 6.28 × 10–3 T (2) 1 : 1
(2) 3.14 × 10–3 T (3) 1 : 4
(3) 62.8 × 10–3 T
(4) 2 :1
(4) 31.4 × 10–3 T
7. A circular current carrying loop of radius R is bent
3. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy about its diameter by 90° and placed in a magnetic

K enters a transverse uniform magnetic field B. After
10 seconds magnitude of momentum of the particle  
field B  B0 iˆ  ˆj as shown in the figure.
is

mK
(1)
2

mK
(2)
2

(3) 2mK

(4) 2 2mK Which of the following statement is correct?

I R 2
4. Current I = 2 A flows along the circle x2 + y2 = 36 (1) Magnetic moment of the loop is  i  j 
(here x and y are in cm) as shown in the figure. 2
Magnetic field at point (0, 0, 8 cm) is (2) Torque acting on the loop is zero
(3) Angular acceleration of the loop is non-zero
(4) Both (1) and (2)
8. A charged particle having mass 9 × 10–31 kg and
charge 4.8 × 10–19 C is moving with a velocity of
105 m/s enters a region where uniform magnetic
(1) 360 × 10–8 T field exists normal to velocity of the particle. If it
describes a circle of radius 0.2 m, then intensity of
(2) 144 × 10–8 T magnetic field must be
(3) 180 × 10–8 T (1) 5.86 × 10–7 T (2) 9.37 × 10–7 T
(4) 76 × 10–8 T (3) 3.45 × 10–7 T (4) 4.48 × 10–7 T

[2]
 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

9. In a region a uniform electric field and a uniform (4) 32.1 T

magnetic field are present and they are in same 
direction. A charged particle of charge –2e and 13. A uniform magnetic field B  2B0 jˆ exists in a
mass m is projected with velocity v in the direction space. A particle of mass m and charge q is
of fields. Which of the following option is correct? projected towards negative x-axis with speed v from
(1) The charged particle will turn to its right the point (k, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for which
the particle does not hit y-z plane is
(2) The charged particle will turn to its left
(3) Charged particle will move on a circular path kqB0 kqB0
(1) (2)
with constant speed m 2m
(4) Magnitude of velocity of charged particle will
2kq 2kqB0
decrease initially (3) (4)
B0 m m
10. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 50 
shows full scale deflection when a current of 1 A 14. A wire carrying a current of 6 A is bent in the form of
passes through it. It can be converted into ammeter a parabola x2 + y = 64 as shown in the figure, where
to read currents upto 10 A by x and y are in cm. The wire is placed in uniform
(1) Putting a resistance of 5.55 in series magnetic field of 12 T along positive
z-axis. Net force acting on the current carrying wire
(2) Putting a resistance of 11.11 in series is nearly
(3) Putting a resistance of 5.55  in parallel
(4) Putting a resistance of 11.11 in parallel
11. A and B are two concentric circular conductors
centred at O and carrying current I1 and I2 as shown
in the figure. If ratio of their radii is 2 : 3 and ratio of
magnetic field intensities at O due to A and B is
3 : 5 then the value of I1/I2 will be

(1) 11.5 N (2) 28.4 N

(1) 6 : 5 (3) 22.6 N (4) 34.5 N
(2) 2 : 5 15. Two parallel wires are carrying electric currents of
(3) 4 : 9 equal magnitude and in the same direction. They
(4) 3 : 15 exert

12. A charged particle having charge Q = 5 C is moving (1) An attractive force on each other
with velocity v = 200 m/s. The strength of magnetic
(2) A repulsive force on each other
field at point B when this charged particle passes
through point A as shown in the figure, will be (3) No force on each other
(4) A rotational torque on each other
16. The magnitude of magnetic field required to
accelerate protons (mass = 1.6 × 10–27 kg) in a
cyclotron that is operated at an oscillator frequency
20 MHz is approximately
(1) 22.7 T
(1) 0.73 T (2) 1.25 T
(2) 18.4 T
(3) 12.5 T (3) 2.25 T (4) 0.87 T

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

17. Two proton beams are moving with equal speed v 2 1 5

in same direction. The dimensions of ratio of electric (3) 4 s (4) s
5 2 2
force and magnetic force between them is
(1) [M1L1T–2] (2) [M1L2T–2] 23. If a rectangular bar magnet of pole strength m and
dipole moment M is divided into four parts such that
(3) [M0L0T0] (4) [M1L2T–1]
the length and width of each part is half that of initial
18. A coil in the shape of a square is suspended one, then the pole strength of each part will be
between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet
such that magnetic field B is in the plane of the coil. (1) m/4 (2) m/2
If due to a current I in the square coil, a torque  acts
(3) m/8 (4) m
on it, then diagonal of the square coil will be

  24. A magnet is 20 cm long and its pole strength is 240

(1) (2) 2 CGS units (1 CGS unit of pole strength = 0.1 A-m).
IB IB
Find the magnitude of the magnetic dipole moment
 2 of the magnet.
(3) (4)
2IB IB
(1) 2.4 SI unit (2) 8.4 SI unit
19. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility
of a paramagnetic substance at an absolute (3) 4.8 SI unit (4) 1.4 SI unit
temperature T is proportional to
25. Value of magnetic field due to a magnetic dipole of
(1) T (2) T2 magnetic moment 1.2 A m 2 at a point 1 m away from
(3) 1/T (4) 1/T2 dipole in a direction making an angle of 60° with the
20. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a dipole-axis, will be nearly
uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in
(1) 2.1 × 10–7 T (2) 5.1 × 10–7 T
equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by
53° is W. Now the torque required to keep the (3) 2.4 × 10–7 T (4) 1.6 × 10–7 T
magnet in this new position is
3 26. At a point M on the Earth’s surface the angle of dip
(1) W (2) W  = +37° while at another point N on the Earth’s
5
surface the angle of dip  = –25°. From this
4W information we can conclude that
(3) (4) 2W
5 (1) M and N both are located in northern
21. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of hemisphere
diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and (2) M is located in northern hemisphere and N is
ferromagnetic material are denoted by d, p and f located in southern hemisphere
respectively, then which of the following option is (3) N and M both are located in southern
correct? hemisphere
(4) N is located in northern hemisphere and M is
(1) d  0 and f  0 (2) p = 0 and f 0
located in southern hemisphere
(3) d = 0 and p 0 (4) d  0 and p 0
22. A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic 27. Compass needle if taken to geomagnetic pole, then
meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet needle of compass
executes oscillations with a time period of 2 s in the
(1) Will stay in vertical direction
earth’s horizontal magnetic field of 32 T. When the
horizontal field is 20 T, the new time period of (2) Will stay in horizontal direction with north
magnet will be pointing towards magnetic north
(3) Will stay in horizontal direction with north
5
(1) 2 5 s (2) s pointing towards magnetic south
2
(4) Will stay in any direction

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

28. Consider the following two sentences.

A. Isogonic lines are the lines joining places of equal
angle of declination.
B. Agonic lines are the lines joining the places of
zero angle of dip.
Which of the following option is correct?
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
incorrect
(1) PQRS
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is
incorrect (2) PSRQ

(3) Statement A and B both are correct (3) No current induced

(4) Current will reverse its direction as the proton
(4) Statement A and B both are incorrect
goes past the coil
29. The true value of dip at a place is 60°. The vertical 32. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
plane carrying the needle is turned through 45° from inductor is 50 mJ, when the current in the inductor
the magnetic meridian. Apparent value of dip will be is 30 mA. The inductance of this inductor will be
nearly
(1) tan1( 6 ) (1) 11.1 H (2) 111 H
(3) 0.111 H (4) 1.11 H
 2
(2) tan1  33. A thin conducting ring (PQR) in the form of circular
 3 
  arc with its plane vertical is moving in a horizontal
magnetic field B as shown in the figure. The
(3) tan1( 2) potential difference developed across the ring when
its speed is v, is
 3
(4) tan1 
 2 
 

30. A circular ring of diameter 1 m is placed in a uniform

4
magnetic field of Wb / m2 in such a way that its

axis makes an angle of 53° with magnetic field. If a
current of 25 A flows through the ring then the torque
acting on the ring is
(1) BvR (2) 3 BvR
(1) 20 N m
2BvR BvR
(3) (4)
(2) 40 N m 3 3

(3) 75 N m 34. A square sheet of side 0.2 m is placed in a uniform

13 Wb
(4) 2 N m magnetic field of induction in such a way
4 m2

31. A proton moves on a straight line path xy as shown that its axis makes an angle of 53° with B . Magnetic
in the figure. Coil PQRS is a coil adjacent to the path flux associated with the sheet is
of proton. What will be the direction of induced (1) 7.8 Wb (2) 0.078 Wb
current in the coil? (3) 78 Wb (4) 0.78 Wb

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

35. A coil of resistance 300  is placed in a magnetic (2) Statement ‘B’ is correct while statement ‘A’ is
field. If the magnetic flux  (in Wb) linked with the coil incorrect
varies with time t (in s) as  = 40t3 + 15t2 + 30t –20. (3) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Value of induced current in the coil at (4) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect
t = 3 s is
40. A circuit area 0.01 m 2 is kept inside a magnetic field
(1) 4 A (2) 5 A which is normal to its plane. The magnetic field
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A changes from 2 T to 1 T in 1 ms. If the resistance of
SECTION-B the circuit is 2 . The rate of heat evolved is
36. The switch shown in the circuit is closed at t = 0. The (1) 5 J/s (2) 50 J/s
current drawn from the battery by the circuit at t = 0 (3) 0.05 J/s (4) 0.5 J/s
and t =  are in the ratio 41. Two concentric and coplanar coils having radii r1
and r2 (r2 > r1) have resistances R1 & R2 respectively
are shown in the figure. If current in the outer coil is
decreased from I0 to 0, then the total amount of
charge circulating in the inner coil is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
37. A circular coil of wire 100 cm in diameter has 20
turns and carries a current of 5 A. The coil is in a 0I0  r12 0I0  r12
(1) (2)
field where the magnetic induction is 0.4 T. What is 2 R2r2 2 R1r2
the value of magnetic moment associated with the
0I0  r22 0I0  r22
coil if its normal is at an angle of 30° with the field? (3) (4)
2 R2 r1 2 R2r2
(1) 20 Am2
(2) 125 Am2 42. A charged particle is rotated in a horizontal circle, in
a gravity free space, with the help of an inextensible
(3) 25 Am2
string attached to it. If a magnetic field along vertical
(4) Zero is switched on in that region then tension in the
38. A conducting rod of length ‘l’ and linear charge string
density ‘’ is rotated at an angular speed ‘’ about
(1) Increases
its end. The magnetic moment associated with the
rod is (2) Decreases
l 2 l 3  (3) May remain same
(1) (2)
6 6 (4) May increase or decrease
3 2
l  l  43. A charged particle (mass m and charge q) is
(3) (4) 
3 12 projected with velocity v  v 0 ˆj from origin. A
39. Consider the following statements. 
uniform magnetic field B  B0 iˆ and an electric field
A. Paramagnetic substances when placed in a 
magnetising field, acquire a feeble magnetisation E  E0iˆ are also present there. Time taken by the
in the same sense as the applied field. particle to triple its initial speed will be
B. Relative permeability r for diamagnetic 5 mv 0 2 mv 0
substances is slightly greater than 1. (1) (2)
q E0 q E0
Which of the following option is correct?
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct while statement ‘B’ is 2 mv 0 8 mv 0
incorrect (3) (4)
q E0 q E0

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

44. A magnet performs 40 oscillations per minute in a 49. Which of the following graphs best represents the
horizontal plane where angle of dip is 60° and variation of magnetic field due to a uniform current
earth’s total field is 0.8 G. If magnet performs 30 carrying long hollow cylindrical pipe at a distance r
oscillations per minute in horizontal plane at another from its axis?
place where total field of earth is 0.6 G, then angle
of dip at that place is

3 3
(1) sin1   (2) cos1   (1)
8 8

 1   1 
(3) tan1   (4) cot 1  
 2  2

45. Which of the following is true for a paramagnetic

substance? (symbols have their usual meaning) (2)

(1) r < 1,  < 0 (2) r >1,  < 0

(3) r > 1,  > 0 (4) r < 0,  < 1

46. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the

same radius are connected in series. A current
flowing in them produces deflections of 30° and 60° (3)
respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the
coils is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(4)
47. If two current carrying circular loops are placed
parallel to each other coaxially then which of the
following statement is correct?

(1) Two wires may attract each other

50. A current carrying long straight wire is placed near
(2) Two wires may repel each other a conducting square loop in same plane as shown
in the figure
(3) They don’t exert any force on each other

(4) Both (1) and (2)

48. The magnetic field applied in a cyclotron is

6.28 T. What will be the frequency of electric field
that must be applied between the dees in order to
accelerate protons?
If current in the wire is varying with time as I = 4t2 + 3t
(1) 2 × 107 Hz then direction of induced current in the conducting
loop at t = 2 is
(2) 4 × 107 Hz
(1) Anticlockwise (2) Clockwise
(3) 107 Hz
(3) No current (4) Data insufficient
(4) 108 Hz

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7
 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
51. Which among the following is most basic? correct
(1) PH3 (2) SbH3 57. Peroxide linkage is present in
(3) NH3 (4) AsH3 (1) H2S2O8 (2) H2S2O7
52. Consider the following statements regarding white (3) H2S2O4 (4) H2S2O6
phosphorus. 58. Maximum pKa value among the following is of
a. It is non-poisonous b. It glows in dark (1) HCl (2) HI
c. It is soluble in CS2 (3) HBr (4) HF
The correct statement(s) is/are
59. Which among the following is not an acidic oxide?
(1) a only (2) a, b and c
(1) N2O3 (2) N2O
(3) b only (4) b and c only
53. Match the molecules given in column I with their (3) N2O5 (4) NO2
shapes in column II 60. Which of the following metals acts as promoter in
Column I Column II Haber’s process for the manufacture of NH3(g)?
A. NH3 (i) Square planar (1) Fe (2) Mo
B. PCl5 (ii) Octahedral
(3) Pt (4) Ni
C. SF6 (iii) Trigonal bipyramidal
61. BrF5 on complete hydrolysis gives
D. XeF4 (iv) Pyramidal
Choose the correct match. (1) HF and HOBr (2) HF and HOBrO2
A B C D (3) HOF and HOBrO3 (4) HOF and HOBr
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 62. Deacon’s process among the following is
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) 4NaCl + MnO2 + 4H2SO4  Cl2 + MnCl2 +
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 4NaHSO4 + 2H2O
54. Oxidation state of Fe in brown ring complex is CuCl
(3) 4HCl  O2 
2  2Cl  2H O
2 2
(1) +1 (2) +2
(4) 2KMnO4 + 16HCl  5Cl2 + 2KCl + 2MnCl2 +
(3) + 3 (4) Zero
8H2O
55. Which among the following has the highest boiling
point? 63. Which of the following species is obtained in the
following reaction?
(1) H2O (2) H2S
XeF4 + SbF5 
(3) H2Se (4) H2Te
(1) [XeF6]2– (2) [XeF2]2+
56. Statement I: Ozone is thermodynamically unstable (3) [XeF5]– (4) [XeF3]+
with respect to oxygen.
64. Oxidation state of oxygen atom in O2PtF6 is
Statement II: Formation of ozone from oxygen is an
endothermic process. (1) +1 (2) –2

In the light of above statements choose the correct (3) –1/2 (4) +1/2
option. 65. In which of the following reactions, NH3(g) is not
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct produced?
(1) NH2CONH2 + 2H2O 
(2) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is  (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7 
incorrect (3) NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 
(4) (NH4)2SO4 + NaOH 
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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

66. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus does (3) V (4) Cr

not contain P – O – P bonds?
75. Select the correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
(1) H4P2O6 (2) H4P2O5 among the following
(3) H3P3O9 (4) H4P2O7
(1) Sc > Ti > V > Cr

67. Pb NO3 2  A  PbO  O2
(2) Cr > V >Ti > Sc
Cool


A 
B (3) Sc < V < Cr < Ti
Heat
(4) Sc < Ti < Cr < V
Compounds A and B respectively are
(1) NO, NO2 (2) NO2, N2O4 76. Which among the following pair of elements have
(3) N2O, NO (4) NO2, N2O3 large difference in their atomic sizes?
68. During Ostwald’s process which among the (1) Zr, Hf (2) Mo, W
following is not formed? (3) Ru, Os (4) Cu, Au
(1) NO (2) HNO3 77. Most common oxidation states of Co and Cr among
(3) N2O (4) NO2 the following respectively are

69. Which among the following metals does not dissolve (1) + 2, + 6 (2) + 6, + 6
in concentrated nitric acid?
(1) Cr (2) Zn (3) + 3, + 4 (4) +1, + 2
(3) Cu (4) Ca 78. In acidic medium, which among the following has
70. Sulphur dioxide reacts with chlorine in the presence strongest oxidizing power?
of charcoal to give
(1) CrO3
(1) SOCl2 (2) SO2Cl2
(3) SCl2 (4) S2Cl2 (2) MoO3

71. Which among the pair of elements are of second (3) WO3
row of transition elements?
(4) All are of equal oxidising power
(1) Ni, Cd
79. Complete the following fill in the blanks by given
(2) Zr, Rh respective options
(3) Ir, Pd
(a) Ti(IV) is …… stable than Ti(III)
(4) Ag, Hg
(b) Low oxidation states of transition elements are
72. Correct outer electronic configuration of Cn found when a complex compound contains
(copernicium, atomic No. 112) is ligands capable of ……. in addition to the 
(1) 6d107s2 (2) 6d57s2 bonding
(3) 6d77s2 (4) 6d107s1 (c) Scandium only show … as stable oxidation state
73. Select the correct statement among the following (1) More, -acceptor character, + 2
(1) On the basis of incompletely filled 3d orbitals, (2) More,  -acceptor character, + 1
scandium is regarded as transition element
(3) less,  -acceptor character, + 3
(2) Melting point of Mn is higher than iron
(4) More,  -acceptor character, + 3
(3) Silver is not regarded as transition element
since it has completely filled d-orbitals 80. Select the correct order of hydration enthalpy
among the following
(4) W and Re are having almost equal value of
melting point (1) Ti(II) < Mn(II) < Ni(II)
74. Which among the following element has higher (2) Ti(II) < Ni (II) < Mn (II)
density than zinc? (3) Mn(II) < Ti(II) < Ni(II)
(I) Sc (2) Ti (4) Ni(II) < Ti (II) < Mn(II)

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

81. Select the correct statement(s) about CuI2 among 87. Which pair of actionoids has highest number of
the following oxidation states?
(a) Except this all others Cu(II) halides are known (1) Np, Md (2) Np, Pu
(b) Cu2+ present in it oxidises I– into I2 (3) Am, U (4) Cf, Es
(c) It involves intramolecular redox conversion 88. Select the incorrect statement among the following
(1) a only (2) b only (1) The magnetic properties of actionoids are more
(3) a and b only (4) a, b and c complex than those of lanthanoids

82. Which among the following is least likely to exist? (2) Most of the lanthanoids are slightly affected by
nitric acid owing to the formation of layer of
(1) V2O6 (2) V2O5
protective oxide
(3) V2O3 (4) VO
(3) 5f-orbitals resemble the 4f orbitals in their
83. How many number of statement(s) is/are correct? angular part of the wave function
(4) In lanthanoids, with increase in atomic number,
(a) VO+2 has high oxidizing power than MnO 4– hardness decreases
89. How many statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) Vanadium(II) ion can reduce H+ ion into H2(g)
(a) CuSO4 when dissolves with excess KCN gives
(c) Due to irregular variation of ionization enthalpies soluble complex of K3[Cu(CN)4]
(H1 + H2) and also the sublimation enthalpies,
(b) Catalytic activity of transition elements is due to
E0M 2  / M of 3d-elements are irregular
its ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(d) Equilibrium constant of disproportion of Cu(I) is (c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
less than 1 (d) Ce(IV) solutions are widely used as oxidising
agent in volumetric analyses
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
84. Which among the following pair of ions has equal
90. Incorrect match of name of Oxyacids is
value of calculated magnetic moment?
(1) H2N2O2 : Hyponitrous acid
(1) Sc(III), Cu(II) (2) Ti(II) and Cu(II) (2) HNO2 : Nitrous acid
(3) Ti(II), Ni(II) (4) Ni(II), Cu(I) (3) H2S2O7 : Pyrosulphurous acid
85. Which among the following reaction(s) is/are of (4) H2S2O8 : Peroxodisulphuric acid
disproportionation type? 91. Which is not observed in the product when
(a) Thermal decomposition of KMnO4 hypophosphorous acid reduces AgNO3?
(b) Acidic hydrolysis of magnate ion (1) HNO2 (2) H3PO4
(c) Reaction of permanganate ion with MnO2 (3) Metallic silver (4) HNO3
in the presence of Zinc oxide 92. White phosphorous on reaction with thionyl chloride
produces
(1) a only (2) b only
(1) PCl3 + SO2 + S2Cl2 (2) PCl5 + SO2
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
(3) PCl5 + SO2 + S2Cl2 (4) PCl3 + SO2
SECTION-B
93. Correct order of bond dissociation energy of
86. Which among the following ions has highest number hydrogen halides is
of unpaired electons?
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(1) Er(III) (2) Lu(III) (2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(3) Ho(III) (4) Gd(III) (3) HI > HCl > HBr > HF
(4) HF > Hl > HBr > HCl
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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

94. Dry slaked lime when reacted with chlorine gives (3) Tc, Re (4) Y, Cd
(1) Bleaching powder (2) Slaked lime 98. Select the element of most positive Eo 3 
M /M2 
(3) Quick lime (4) Plaster of Paris
among the following
95. Incorrect physical property of (noble gas) elements
is (1) Ti (2) V
(1) These are monoatomic in nature (3) Fe (4) Co
(2) These are colourless, odourless and tasteless 2 
99. The stability of Cu (aq) is more than Cu (aq) due
(3) Due to presence of weak dispersion forces
to
these have low melting and boiling points
(4) They do not have diffusing property through (1) Much more second ionization enthalpy of Cu
rubber or glass or plastic (2) Much more negative hydration enthalpy of
96. Moles of permanganate ions required to react Cu2+(aq) than Cu+(aq)
completely with one mole of thiosulfate ions in faintly (3) Much more negative hydration enthalpy of
alkaline medium is Cu+(aq) than Cu2+(aq)
5 (4) Much more first ionization enthalpy of Cu
(1) (2) 5
2 100. Magnetic moment (in BM) of Cr2+ ion is
8
(3) (4) 2 (1) 3 (2) 24
3
(3) 8 (4) 35
97. Select the pair of elements of almost similar atomic
size
(1) Sc, Y (2) Zn, Mg

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 105. In the Mendelian monohybrid cross, what percent of
101. Sterile female with rudimentary ovaries and lack of individuals in F2 generation receives the recessive
secondary sexual characters in human is a result of allele?
disorder caused due to (1) 12.5% (2) 50%
(1) Chromosome complement 44 + XXX (3) 25% (4) 75%
(2) Absence of one of the X-chromosomes 106. Mendel’s law of dominance is not followed in the
(3) Mutation in X-chromosome inheritance of

(4) Presence of an extra Y-chromosome (1) Flower colour in snapdragon

102. Who for the first time applied statistical analysis and (2) ABO blood grouping in human being
mathematical logic to problems in biology? (3) Eye colour in Drosophila
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) Tschermak (4) Seed shape in pea
(3) Gregor John Mendel (4) A.H. Sturtevant 107. According to the Mendel’s law of segregation
103. Regarding pea plant, which amongst the following is
(1) The alleles of a gene always occur in pair
not the character that was considered by Mendel in
his experiments? (2) Male and female gametes are formed by the
(1) Seed colour (2) Pod size different individuals

(3) Flower position (4) Stem height (3) During gamete formation, factors of a pair
separate from each other
104. Number of autosomes in the somatic cell of an
individual inflicted with Down’s syndrome would be (4) One of the two pairs of traits combined in a
hybrid, segregates from other pair of traits
(1) 47 (2) 43
independently
(3) 46 (4) 45

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

108. Which of the following cross in garden pea shows 114. Which of the following statements is not true
dihybrid test cross? regarding chromosomal theory of inheritance?
(1) Tall plant with terminal flowers × Dwarf plant
(1) Number of chromosomes is retained throughout
with white flowers
the life of an organism
(2) Round-yellow seeded plant × Wrinkled-green
seeded plant (2) A gamete contains all the alleles of a gene
(3) Plant with terminal violet flowers × Plant with (3) Paired condition of chromosomes is restored
terminal white flowers during fertilization
(4) Plant with inflated pod × Plant with constricted
(4) Homologous chromosomes segregate at the
pod
time of gamete formation
109. A red flower bearing Antirrhinum plant is crossed
with pink flowered Antirrhinum plant. What percent 115. An organism is selected for experimental genetics.
of F1 generation plants would produce red flowers? Which of the following should be the characteristics
(1) 100% (2) 25% of such organisms regarding the experiment?
(3) 50% (4) 0% (a) It can be grown in laboratory
110. In the Mendelian dihybrid cross for seed colour and (b) Long life cycle and seasonal breeding
seed shape 2400 seeds are obtained in F2 (c) Large number of morphologically similar
generation, how many seeds would be hybrid chromosomes
yellow?
(d) Production of large number of offspring in a
(1) 1800
single mating
(2) 1200
The correct one(s) is/are
(3) 300
(4) 600 (1) (b), (c) and (d)
111. A mother is with blood group B and her son is with (2) (a) and (d)
blood group O. What blood group is possible in
father? (3) (a) only
(a) A (b) B
(4) (c) and (d) only
(c) AB (d) O
116. Consider the following pedigree chart.
The correct one(s) is/are
[Here, shaded symbols are for those individuals who
(1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
express the trait]
(2) Only (d)
(3) Only (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
112. How many different genotypes of gametes are
possible in a plant which is trihybrid?
(1) Nine (2) Three
(3) Eight (4) Six
113. If three genes A, B and C control skin colour in Which of the following statements cannot be true
human, then all of the following genotypes result for this pedigree?
intermediate skin colour, except (1) The trait considered here can be X-linked
(1) AAbbCc (2) Both the parents (P) are carrier for the trait
(2) AaBbCc (3) The probability of F1(A) for carrying the allele of
(3) aaBbCC that particular trait is 100%
(4) AabbCc (4) The trait studied here is Y-linked

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

117. Number of chromosomes in male individuals is 125. Chromatin is differentiated into two regions,
different from that of female individuals in all of the heterochromatin and euchromatin. Which of the
following animals, except following statements is/are true w.r.t. euchromatin?
(1) Birds (2) Butterflies (a) Lightly stained region
(3) Honey bees (4) Grasshoppers (b) Chromatin is densely packed
118. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was (c) Transcriptionally it is active
first identified by a scientist who named it (1) (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(1) Nuclein (2) Chromatin (3) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Nucleic acid (4) Nucleotide 126. In the experiment conducted by Griffith regarding
119. Chargaff’s rules are not applicable for the DNA transforming principle, he observed that i
present in bacteria injected into mice ii them.
(1) Escherichia coli
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii).
(2) Bacteriophage lambda
(i) (ii)
(3)  × 174 bacteriophage
(4) Drosophila (1) Heat-killed R strain Killed

120. The nitrogenous base that is not a structural (2) Live S strain Did not kill
component of genetic material in eukaryotes is
(3) Live R strain Killed
(1) Cytosine (2) Uracil
(4) Heat-killed S strain Did not kill
(3) Thymine (4) Adenine
121. Which one of the following confers an additional 127. Which of the following statements are true
stability to the helical structure of DNA? regarding the features of human genome?

(1) Sequence of bases in DNA strand (a) About 5 percent of the genome codes for
proteins
(2) Presence of more number of bases as
compared to pentose sugar (b) Repeated sequences make up very small
portion of the human genome
(3) Twisting of helix in a right-hand fashion
(c) Chromosome 1 has most gene
(4) Stacking of one base pair over the other in the
double helix (d) Average gene consists of 3000 bases
122. The step in the technique of DNA fingerprinting (1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
which is done after transferring the separated DNA (2) Only (a) and (c)
fragments to synthetic membrane is
(3) Only (c) and (d)
(1) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(4) Only (b) and (d)
(2) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
128. For the transmission of genetic information, which of
(3) Isolation of DNA
the following is a better material?
(4) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(1) RNA
123. Reverse central dogma of molecular biology states
that (2) DNA
(1) Genetic information flows from DNA to RNA (3) Polypeptide
(2) RNA can be translated into proteins (4) ATP
(3) DNA can be synthesized over RNA template 129. A cell of Escherichia coli having light DNA is grown
(4) RNA can be replicated from RNA itself in a medium containing 15NH4Cl as the only nitrogen
124. DNA packaging does not require histone proteins in source for three generations. What percent of DNA
in third generation will have hybrid DNA?
(1) Eukaryotes (2) Prokaryotes
(3) Plants (4) Protozoans (1) 25% (2) 0%
(3) 50% (4) 75%

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

130. Which of the following molecules acts as substrate A B C D

as well as provide energy for polymerisation
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
reaction during DNA replication?
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) DNA polymerase
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) RNA synthetase
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Topoisomerase
135. Which of the following is a translation unit in mRNA
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
that synthesizes the polypeptide with maximum
131. Select the incorrect statement from the following. number of amino acids?
(1) Like DNA replication, principle of (1) 5 – AUG UUU UGA AGC AUG – 3
complementarity does not govern the process of
(2) 3 – AUG UCG AGC UGA GUG – 5
transcription
(2) The segment of DNA that takes part in (3) 5 – AUG AAG GAU UAG UAA – 3
transcription is called transcription unit (4) 3 – AGU AUU UCA ACG GUA – 5
(3) Both the strands of DNA are not copied during SECTION-B
transcription
136. There are some reasons for adopting garden pea by
(4) In replication, total DNA of an organism gets Mendel for genetics experiment. Which one of the
duplicated following is not amongst them?
132. Transcription unit of a DNA segment has (1) Pea produces large number of seeds

(1) A promoter and structural gene only (2) Pea plant has only seven pairs of chromosomes
(3) It is easy to cross-pollinate the pea flowers
(2) A promoter, a terminator and structural gene
(4) Pea plant has many contrasting traits
(3) Only structural genes
137. Which of the following union of gametes results in
(4) Only a promoter and a terminator Klinefelter’s syndrome?
133. The DNA sequence that is defined as gene, codes (1) Egg (22 + XX) and sperm (22 + Y)

(1) Only for a polypeptide (2) Egg (22 + X) and sperm (22 + X)
(3) Egg (22 + XX) and sperm (22 + XY)
(2) For hnRNA but not for other RNAs
(4) Egg (22 + O) and sperm (22 + X)
(3) Only for mRNA
138. Which of the following traits of pea plant appear(s)
(4) For mRNA, tRNA or rRNA even in heterozygous condition of related alleles?
134. Match the following columns and choose the (a) White flower colour (b) Yellow pod colour
correct option. (c) Green seed colour (d) Inflated pod shape
(e) Terminal flower position
Column I Column II
(1) (a), (b) and (e) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
A. RNA (i) Short primer RNA (3) (d) only (4) (c) and (d) only
polymerase II strand
139. In a plant, flower colour (red and white) follows
B. Primase (ii) Heterogenous incomplete dominance and flower position (axial
nuclear RNA and terminal) follows complete dominance. What
would be the total number of possible phenotypic
C. RNA (iii) Catalytic RNA for combinations in offspring if the plant heterozygous
polymerase III peptide bond for both the characters is self- crossed?
formation
(1) Four (2) Six
D. RNA (iv) Small nuclear RNA (3) Eight (4) Three
polymerase I

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

140. Select the incorrect match from the following. (1) Radioactivity in E. coli cell
(2) Radioactivity in DNA of bacteriophage
(1) Pleiotropy – Starch grain size and
(3) Radioactivity in supernatant
seed shape in garden
pea (4) Radioactivity in genetic material of both
bacteriophage and E. coli
(2) Multiple – ABO blood group 146. DNA ligase enzyme is required during which of the
allelism following processes?
(1) Synthesis of RNA from DNA
(3) Co-dominance – Skin colour in human
(2) Synthesis of DNA on 5  3 template DNA
(4) Test cross – Determines genotype (3) Synthesis of DNA from RNA

141. On the basis of Morgan’s experiment on Drosophila (4) Synthesis of nucleotides

we conclude that 147. The genes in eukaryotes are said to be split
because
(1) Genes for eye colour and body colour are not
located on the same chromosome (1) One gene codes for more than one polypeptide
(2) One gene is made up of many cistrons
(2) Alleles for wing size are present in pair in males
(3) The coding sequences are interrupted by
(3) Distance between the genes for eye colour and introns
wing size is more than that for body colour and
(4) The coding sequences are interrupted by exons
eye colour
148. In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is a A that is
(4) Males can be both homozygous and
heterozygous for red eye colour made up of B .

142. Which of the following types of linkage/bond is not Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
found in a single stranded DNA? A B
(1) Hydrogen bond (1) Lipoprotein Lipids and proteins
(2) Phosphodiester linkage (2) Ribozyme Ribonucleic acid
(3) N-glycosidic linkage (3) RNA molecule Nucleic acid
(4) Covalent bond (4) Holoenzyme Polypeptides
143. Select the statement which is not always true w.r.t. 149. Match the following columns and choose the
double strand DNA. correct option w.r.t. lac operon.
(1) Purines and pyrimidines occur in equal amounts Column I Column II
(2) Adenine is equimolar with thymine A. Operator gene (i) Site for RNA
(3) Base ratio (Adenine + Thymine) : (Cytosine + polymerase
attachment
Guanine) is less than one
B. Structural gene (ii) Codes for repressor
(4) Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate residues protein
occur in equal number C. Regulator gene (iii) Interacts with
144. Which of the following is not a practical application regulator molecule
of DNA fingerprinting? D. Promoter gene (iv) Codes for three
(1) Criminal identification different
polypeptides
(2) Identification of close relations of an intending
immigrant A B C D
(3) Resolving paternity-maternity disputes (1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) Sequencing the genes in a chromosome (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
145. What had been observed by Hershey and Chase (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
when the T2 bacteriophage having radiolabelled (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
sulphur infects Escherichia coli?

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

150. Which of the following activities is not concerned (2) Activation of amino acid
with ribosome in the process associated with (3) Proceeding elongation phase of protein
polymerisation of amino acids? synthesis
(1) Encountering mRNA (4) Catalysing the formation of peptide bond

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 157. Progestasert is a/an
151. First cellular forms of life appeared around (1) Oral contraceptive
(1) 2000 mya (2) 1000 mya (2) Natural contraceptive
(3) 4000 mya (4) 5000 mya (3) Hormonal IUD
(4) Copper releasing IUD
152. Select the odd one w.r.t methods of contraception.
158. To prevent further pregnancies, surgical methods
(1) Barrier methods
called _____ are advised for male/female partners
(2) Coitus interruptus as a means of contraception.
(3) Lactational amenorrhea Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) Periodic abstinence (1) Radiation (2) Sterilisation
153. What is shown in the given figure? (3) Abortion (4) Barrier methods
159. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Adaptive convergence
(3) Natural selection
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters
(1) Copper – T (2) Implants 160. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
(3) Oral pills (4) Vaults modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception.
Choose the option with the correct match.
154. Government of India has laid a statutory ban on
_____ for sex determination to check female Method Mode of action
foeticide. (A) Tubectomy (a) Make cervix hostile to
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. sperms
(1) Computed tomography (B) LNG-20 (b) Female sterilisation
(2) MRI (C) Condoms (c) Inhibits ovulation and
(3) Amniocentesis implantation
(4) MTP (D) Combined (d) Prevents sperms from
155. ‘Saheli’ oral contraceptive for the female was pills reaching the ovum
developed by which institute?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) CDRI (2) RCH (1) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(3) WHO (4) NACO (2) (c) (b) (a) (d)
156. Coitus interruptus method is related with (3) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before (4) (b) (a) (d) (c)
ejaculation
161. All of the following are curable STIs, except
(2) Prevention of coitus
(1) Syphilis
(3) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after
ejaculation (2) Gonorrhoea
(4) Abstaining from coitus from day 10 to day 17 of (3) Genital warts
the menstrual cycle (4) Genital herpes

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

162. How many complications given in the box below (c) Abdominal pain
occur due to venereal diseases?
(d) Pleuritis
Still births, Infertility, Abortions, Ectopic (e) Breakthrough bleeding
pregnancies, PIDs
(1) (a) (2) (b)
Choose the correct option.
(3) (d) (4) (e)
(1) 2 (2) 5
168. Who said that life could have come from
(3) 4 (4) 3 pre-existing non-living organic molecules and was
163. Infertility is the inability to conceive or produce preceded by chemical evolution?
children after minimum ‘X’ years of unprotected
(1) Miller and Urey
sexual cohabitation.
(2) August Weismann
Select the correct option for ‘X’.
(1) One (3) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Six (4) Louis Pasteur

(3) Ten 169. Analysis of meteorite content provides evidence for
(4) Two (1) Chemical evolution
164. Which of the following will not act as emergency (2) Biological evolution
contraceptives if administered/taken within 72 hours (3) Parallel evolution
of coitus?
(4) Co-evolution
(1) Progestogens
170. ‘The geological history of earth closely correlates
(2) Progestogen-estrogen combinations with biological history of earth’, this statement states
(3) Vaults that
(4) IUDs (1) Earth and living organisms evolved at the same
165. Select the characteristic from the following which an time
ideal contraceptive should not have. (2) Life evolved only when O2 appeared on earth
(1) User friendly (3) As earth evolved, it parallelly affected the life of
(2) Easily available living organisms
(3) Non-reversible (4) Chemical evolution explains the formation of
(4) Almost no side effects earth and its living organisms

166. Select the correct match. 171. Read the following statements carefully

(1) ZIFT – Early embryo could be Statement A: The rate of appearance of new forms
transferred into fallopian tube is linked to the life cycle or the life span.
Statement B: Evolution is not a directed process in
(2) GIFT – Male gamete is inserted directly
the sense of determinism.
into female gamete
Choose the correct option.
(3) ICSI – Semen from healthy donor is
artificially introduced into uterus (1) Only statement A is incorrect

(4) IUI – Introduction of zygote into (2) Only statement A is correct

uterus (3) Both statements are incorrect
167. All of the following terms are related with ill-effects (4) Both statements are correct
of using contraceptive methods, except
172. Stellar distances are measured in
(a) Nausea
(1) Kilometers (2) Light years
(b) Irregular menstrual bleeding
(3) Angstrom (4) Miles

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

173. Analogous structures are a result of

(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Chemical evolution
174. Forelimbs of man and bat
(1) Show convergent evolution
(2) Show parallel evolution (1) Average birth weight of human babies
(3) Have different ancestors (2) DDT resistance in mosquitoes
(4) Show homology (3) Industrial melanism in melanic moths
175. Cranial capacities of hominid that lived 1,00,000 – (4) Antibiotic resistance in microbes
40,000 years back and used hides to protect their 180. Theory of Panspermia was related to
body and buried their dead, were (1) Evolution of life forms
(1) 650 cc (2) 1400 cc (2) Origin of life
(3) Origin of Earth
(3) 800 cc (4) 900 cc
(4) Formation of protobionts
176. Consider the organisms given below.
181. Founder’s effect is related with
(a) Tasmanian tiger cat (1) Genetic drift
(b) Spotted cuscus (2) Mutation
(c) Numbat (3) Gene flow
(d) Bobcat (4) Genetic recombination

Choose the option from the following with a pair of 182. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
mammals showing convergent evolution from the Column-I Column-II
above given animals. (a) Evolution by (i) Process of
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d) anthropogenic evolution of
actions different species
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
in an area starting
177. The first autotrophic organisms that never released from a point and
oxygen were the radiating to other
(1) Chemoautotrophs habitats
(b) Adaptive (ii) Key concepts of
(2) Oxygenic photoautotrophs
radiation Darwinism
(3) Chemoheterotrophs (c) Branching (iii) Selection of
(4) Anoxygenic photoautotrophs descent and resistant
natural selection organisms in a
178. Evolution for Darwin was _____ while de Vries lesser time scale
believed mutations caused ______. (d) Convergent (iv) Flippers of
Choose the correct option which fills the above evolution penguins and
given blanks respectively. dolphins
(1) Directional, Recombination Select the correct option.

(2) Directionless, Selection (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) Sudden, Saltation (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) Gradual, Speciation
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
179. Select the correct example for the type of natural
selection shown in the given figure. (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

183. Which of the following statements is correct about 189. Consider the statements given below regarding
the origin and evolution of men? contraception and answer as directed thereafter.
(1) Homo habilis probably ate meat. (a) Though all people are vulnerable to STIs, but
(2) Pre-historic cave art developed about 75,000 incidences are reported to be very high among
years ago. the persons in the age group of 25-40 years.

(3) Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and (b) Use of condoms during coitus can prevent STIs.
human settlements started. (c) MTP during first trimester is generally safe.
(4) Homo erectus had a large brain around 1400 cc. (d) Multiload 375 is a copper releasing IUD.

A Which of the above statements are correct?

184. In 1938, a fish caught in happened to be a
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (c), (d)
B which was thought to be extinct.
(3) (a), (c), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Choose the option which correctly identifies A and 190. How did Miller create reducing atmosphere in his
B respectively. experimental set up?
(1) Australia, Ichthyosaurs (1) Complex reactions lead to binding of oxygen
(2) Australia, Coelacanth (2) Miller had specific deoxygenating apparatus
(3) South Africa, Ichthyosaurs (3) By providing aerobic conditions
(4) South Africa, Coelacanth (4) Used water vapour, methane, ammonia and
hydrogen gas in oxygen-free environment
185. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
homozygous individuals is represented by 191. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay
Archipelago had come to similar conclusion as
(1) p2 and q2 (2) pq
given by Darwin. According to Darwin, the fitness
(3) 2pq (4) p2 + 2pq ultimately refers to
SECTION-B (1) Ability to adapt in new environment
186. Deficiency of which of the following hormone is (2) Physical strength and dominance over other
mainly responsible for abortion? individuals
(1) Progesterone (3) Reproductive fitness
(2) Estrogen (4) Healthy appearance and ability to defend itself
(3) FSH 192. The finches of Galapagos islands provide the best
examples of the phenomenon called
(4) LH
(1) Special creation
187. Among the following sets of examples, select the
correct option for divergent evolution. (2) Convergent evolution

(1) Wings of bat and birds (3) Biogeographical evolution

(2) Heart of man and cheetah (4) Cyclical evolution

(3) Eye of the Octopus and of man 193. Consider the following statements.

(4) Flippers of dolphins and penguins (1) Stegosaurus had plated back and spikes at the
end of the tail.
188. MMR stands for
(2) Brachiosaurus was a herbivorous dinosaur.
(1) Mortality Maternal Rate
(2) Maternal Mortality Rate (3) Pteranodon disappeared earlier than
Archaeopteryx.
(3) Maternal Morbidity Rate
(4) Malaria Mortality Rate (4) Thecodonts are possible common ancestors of
crocodiles, birds and dinosaurs.

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 Practice Test (For AIATS-02) CoE-XII

How many of the following are incorrect statements? (4) Lamarck – Theory of use and
(1) 1 (2) 2 disuse of organs

(3) 3 (4) 4 198. Progymnosperms are the ancestors of all of the

following, except
194. Assertion (A): Vasectomy can be considered as a
(1) Seed ferns (2) Cycads
permanent method of contraception.
(3) Conifers (4) Angiosperms
Reason (R): Surgical intervention blocks gamete
199. Comprehend the given statements carefully.
transport and thereby prevent contraception.
(a) According to the WHO, reproductive health
In the light of above statements, select the correct means a total well-being in all aspects of
option. reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional,
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct behavioural and social.
explanation of (A) (b) India was amongst the first countries in the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the world to initiate action plans and programmes at
correct explanation of (A) a national level to attain total reproductive
health.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) It is not necessary to introduce sex-education in
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false schools to discourage children from believing in
myths about sex-related aspects.
195. Which of the following animal shows discontinuous
distribution? (d) Successful implementation of various action
plans to attain reproductive health does not
(1) Whale (2) Lung fishes
require professional expertise and material
(3) Pacific salmon (4) Sugar glider
support.
196. Presence of the following factors can disturb Hardy-
How many statements are not correct?
Weinberg equilibrium, except
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Genetic drift (2) Random mating
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) Natural selection (4) Gene migration
200. Pills used to prevent conception in females usually
197. Which one of the following scientist’s name is
contain progesterone or progestogen-estrogen
correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
combinations and have to be taken
(1) Pasteur – Theory of Pangenesis (1) Daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably
(2) Mendel – Theory of Natural within first five days of menstrual cycle
selection (2) Daily for seven days during which menstruation
occurs
(3) Hugo de – Inheritance of acquired
Vries characters (3) Daily for a period of 28 days without any gap
(4) Daily for 14 days, starting from the day of
ovulation

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