እግዚአብሔር ያለው ይሆናል!!

, [26-May-23 5:05 PM]

College of Business and Economics (CBE), Department of Public Administration

and Development Management (PADM)
Model Exit-Exam
Multiple Choice Questions
Time Allowed: 2:00 Hours

1. The customer chain in public service delivery refers:

A. The relationship between internal customers and external customers
B. The relationship between employee and employer
C. The relationship between employee and manager
D. All of the above
2. From different principles of customer service identify the one which says “an
organization is expected to provide clean and very attractive service condition within it to
its customers…”
A. Quality service standards
B. Information
C. Physical access
D. Timeliness and courtesy
3. From different categories of barriers to e-service, lack of partnership and collaboration
between government & other private sectors is:
A. Administrative/Organizational Barrier
B. Technological Barrier
C. Financial barrier
D. Social barrier
4. Care Ethiopia is a well-known Civil Society Organization that operates in different basic
service areas. Last year, this organization provides health care service for some regions.
Here, the government is using which techniques of alternative service delivery?
A. Contracting out
B. Outsourcing
C. Build Operate Transfer (BOT) scheme
D. Nonprofit organizations
5. To win over a difficult customer, you as a service provider should do:
A. Let the customer speak out
B. Don’t take it personally
C. Appreciate and understand customer’s feeling
D. All are answers
6. _________________ is a view that emphasis and claims that action is right if it produces
good or happiness to the greatest number.
A. Cognitivist
B. Relativism
C. Altruism
D. Utilitarianism
7. What is administrative ethics?
A. The study of morality in the workplace
B. The study of ethical decision-making in public administration
C. The study of administrative law
D. A and C are answers
8. Which of the following is the definition of administrative ethics?
A. The study of moral principles and values in the workplace
B. The study of the history of public administration
C. The study of the laws and regulations that govern public administration
D. The study of the organizational structure of public administration
9. What is the first step in resolving a dilemma in decision-making?
A. Identify the options available
B. Identify the ethical issue
C. Identify the stakeholders involved
D. The answer is not provided
10. What is the "Golden Rule" in decision-making?
A. Treat others as you would like to be treated
B. Do unto others as they would do unto you
C. Do what is best for the majority
D. The answer is not provided
11. Which of the following are characteristics of a project except?
A. Definite beginning and end
B. Interrelated activities
C. Repeats itself every month
D. Temporary
12. Which of the following statement is true about a Program?
A. A Program is a group of related projects
B. A Program is a part of a big project
C. A Program is group of unrelated projects
D. It is the schedule that we have on our colander
13. The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of
a project phase is to:
A. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
B. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to the project
baseline
C. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase
D. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
14. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include
an element of ongoing activity is called a:
A. Group of projects
B. Major project
C. Program
D. Project office
15. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?
A. Project engineer
B. Project manager
C. Quality manager
D. Team member
16. Which of the following is not among the variables that characterize diversity among
stakeholders of a project?
A. Attitude
B. Desire
C. Interest
D. Power
17. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time
B. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality
C. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost
D. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost
18. Human Resource Management is an amalgamation of:
A. Employer and employees
B. Job analysis, recruitment and selection
C. Organizational behavior, personal management and industrial relation
D. Social behavior and business ethics
19. Job Analysis is a systematic procedure for securing and reporting information defining
a ______________.
A. Specific job
B. Specific product
C. Specific service
D. All of these
20. Challenges faced by Human resource management includes:
A. Compensation management
B. Downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme
C. Productivity, career planning
D. Technological changes, workforce diversity, globalization
21. In what way training and development offers a competitive advantage to an
organization?
A. It ensures employee compliance
B. It increases the supervisor’s role
C. It reduces performance deficiencies
D. None of the above
22. Which of the following is the first Human Resource Management intervention
experienced by an employee when he or she joins an organization?
A. Coaching
B. Mentoring
C. On-the-job training
D. Orientation
23. ________________ is the process of estimating future manpower needs of the
organization.
A. Promotion of employees
B. Human Resource Planning
C. Placement of employees
D. Job specification
24. The systematic way of determining the worth of all the jobs within any organization is
called__________________.
A. Benchmark job
B. Compensable evaluation
C. Job evaluation
D. Job promotion structure
25. ________________ test is conducted to judge specific talent or skill to handle a
particular type of job.
A. Aptitude
B. Intelligence
C. Interest
D. Physical strength
26. __________________is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an employee
excellence in matters pertaining to his present job and his potential for a better job;
A. Compensation and motivation
B. Performance appraisal
C. Performance indicator
D. Training and Development
27. _________ is a sequence of positions occupied by a person during the course of his OR
her life time;
A. Career
B. Job Rotation
C. Performance
D. A and B
28. Which one of the following is a true statement?
A. All NGO in different countries have the same values
B. Everyone agrees with the values of every NGO
C. NGOS in different countries can have different objectives
D. None of the above
29. Which one of the following is among the functions of NGOs?
A. Discriminate people based on their gender, ethnicity, and faith
B. Draft and approve laws to protect human rights
C. Support people improve their lives through services and infrastructures
D. All of the above
30. Which one of the following is not an NGO?
A. Children Fund (SCF)
B. Oxfam
C. CARE
D. United Nations
31. Which one of the following is not the function of the Board of Directors in NGOs?
A. Determine the Organization’s Mission and Purpose
B. Select the Executive Director
C. Provide Proper Financial Oversight
D. None of the above
32. The following are more specialized roles of NGOs, except?
A. Emergency response
B. Political affairs
C. Conflict resolution
D. Building Democracy
33. Which one of the following is not the type of project values in NGOs?
A. Functional value
B. Religious value
C. Monetary value
D. Social value
34. Which one of the following is true about motivations and value-based classification of
NGOs?
A. They can be secular and faith-based organizations
B. Charitable and paternalistic organizations
C. Radical and empowerment-based organizations
D. All of the above
35. Increased urbanization could be a consequence of several reasons. One of the following
factors may not sufficiently explain the cases of rapid urbanization in SSA?
A. Economic growth
B. Increased rural stagnation
C. Migration
D. Natural population growth
36. Which one of the following is not true about squatter settlements?
A. Squatter settlements are characterized by the proliferation of the informal sector
B. Squatter settlements are illegal settlements mainly occupied by a large proportion of migrants
C. Squatter settlements are often situated on fragile lands unsuitable for urban development
D. Squatter settlements can never be adjusted to suit urban development initiatives by the
government
37. Municipal recurrent budgets are primarily required for the:
A. Construction of new plants
B. Creation of long term assets
C. Payment of fuels, salaries and consumables
D. Purchase of machinery
38. The legislature of the city government is responsible for:
A. Auditing the performance of the executive
B. Exercising veto power over the acts of the executive
C. Hiring and firing department heads
D. Preparing and executing city budgets
39. Which of the following is more appropriate to the public management model of
municipalities?
A. Entrepreneurship culture
B. Hierarchical responsibilities
C. Tall organizational structure
D. Top-down planning
40. Which of the following sets of features correctly represent the urban informal sector?
A. Eases of entry; reliance on indigenous resources; operation in regulated markets; labor
intensive technology
B. Informal source of credit; skills acquired outside the formal school system; Small level of
investment; use of imported inputs
C. Production of variety of goods and services; lower skills requirement; small capital
requirement and ease of entry; labor intensive technology
D. Small scale of operation; low wages; mass production of a single good; reliance on family
labor
41. “Urban management without the recognition of cities as legal entities is like putting the
cart ahead of the horse”. This means that:
A. Corporate status and self-government (municipality) has to be in place before the exercise of
urban management
B. Urban management practices are meaningless if cities are not granted legal personalities
C. Urban management is a viable instrument of urban government even before corporate status is
conferred on cities
D. A and B
42. Which of the following negates the normal features of urbanization?
A. Increased dependence of people on natural resource-based occupations
B. Increasing concentration of people in towns and cities
C. Increasing heterogeneity of cultures
D. Transformation of land use and society to a metropolitan pattern of organization
43. Organizational behavior is generally defined as a field of study that;
A. Attempts to understand and solve problems regarding individual behavior on and off the job
B. Examines how the structure of different organizations contributes to, or inhibits, effective
communication
C. Investigates how individuals, groups, and structure affect and are affected by behavior within
organizations
D. Seeks ways and means to match human effort with machines
44. Organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) refers to
A. The social needs of employees
B. Doing tasks that are not part of normal job requirement
C. Organizational values and how they are implemented
D. Work that must be done as part of one's job description
45. Which of the following is true?
A. Edwin Locke advocates that the humans are essentially motivated by the level of need
B. Equity theory explains how and why people react when they feel they are unfairly treated
C. Functional structure is the oldest and most common organizational form
D. Group cohesiveness is the deterioration of individual’s mental efficiency, realty testing, and
moral judgments as a result of group pressures
46. Which of the following is true?
A. Group decision saves time
B. Acceptance of the decision is better in individual decision making
C. Group decisions are better in creative problem solving
D. Individual decisions are better at accuracy
47. Organization structure primarily refers to;
A. How activities are coordinated and controlled
B. How manpower is managed
C. The location of departments and office space
D. The way resources are resources are allocated
48. A conflict management style that is used by people with a” win-loss” situation is _____
A. Avoidance
B. Collaboration
C. Competition
D. Compromising
49. Ali and Girma are both university students studying for a final exam in OB. Both
students have a goal of making a grade of 90 percent or better despite the time pressures
they seem to be facing. Girma studied diligently for 7 hours and scored 93 while Ali studied
diligently for 9 hours and scored 93. Which of the students was effective?
A. Both Girma and Ali
B. Only Girma
C. Only Ali
D. Neither Girma nor Ali
50. Based on equity theory, when employees perceive that they are under rewarded, they;
A. Exert more effort in performing their jobs to re -establish equity
B. May exert less effort, may ask for more compensation, and may choose a different referent
person
C. Will always exert more effort of higher quality to warrant an increase in rewards
D. Will automatically quit the job and look somewhere else
51. Which of the following definitions of public administration reflects the broader view of
the meaning of the subject?
A. Public administration has important role in the formulation and realization of nation’s policies
B. Public administration is detailed and systematic application of law
C. Public administration consists of all those operations with the purpose of the fulfillment or
enforcement of policy
D. All of the above
52. Public Administration is characterized by all of the following features, except?
A. Strict adherence to rules and procedures in decision making
B. Arbitration of conflicting social interests
C. Considerable flexibility to adopt to changing situations
D. Consideration of social costs and benefits in addition to those of merely financial
53. Which of the following statements best describes the differences between public,
nonprofit, and private sector organizations?
A. The general public holds public organizations accountable, donors hold nonprofit
organizations accountable, and owners hold private sector organizations accountable.
B. Investors hold public organizations accountable, taxpayers hold nonprofit organizations
accountable, and customers hold private sector organizations accountable.
C. The general public holds public organizations accountable, lenders hold nonprofit
organizations accountable, and customers hold private sector organizations accountable.
D. Investors hold public organizations accountable, taxpayers hold nonprofit organizations
accountable, and stockholders hold private sector organizations accountable.
54. Which one of the following relationships is fundamental stone of the human relations
movement?
A. Formulation of universal principles and design of organizational structure
B. Scientific study of work process and test for efficiency
C. Standardization of work environment, individual development and productivity
D. Supervision, morale and productivity
55. Administration of state in the ancient and medieval era was characterized by
A. Extensive discrepancy between form and reality
B. Limited scope of administration
C. Abundance of skillful administrators
D. High degree responsiveness to the society
56. One of the following alternatives is not the characteristics of a career civil service that
have got common acceptance.
A. Permanence of tenure and stability of service
B. Professional body of officials, casual employees and volunteers
C. Equal opportunity of competing for government services
D. Using Merit as criteria of recruitment and promotion system
57. Of which one of the following is wrong about public policy making?
A. In politics, no problem is given in the sense that everyone will regard it in exactly the same
terms.
B. The popular agenda is the list of problems and issues in which the general public is most
interested.
C. Public policy is consequences of a program and project.
D. The place of policy sciences is related to the question and importance of the state and its
public policy concerns.
58. Which of the following often take a position on a policy issue and try to influence policy
makers to take their position through release of reports, personal persuasion, testifying,
lobbying, advertising, and the like?
A. States
B. Legislative committees
C. Policy elites
D. Interest groups
59. Which statement describes the primary reason that policy making in Ethiopia is
characterized by conflict over which policies to adopt?
A. Government officials, interest groups, and citizens promote their views about what to do
B. The political parties have become highly polarized
C. Government regulations have become increasingly complex, and government has grown
D. The media increasingly exposes the decline in ethics among public officials
60. Of which one of the following best describes the relationship of policy analysis with
policy process model?
A. The two activities are essentially separate and independent activities.
B. Completion of the policy process model occurs first, and then policy analysis begins.
C. Policy analysis supports the policy process at several points by increasing understanding of
problems and possible solutions.
D. While only the government completes all steps of the policy process model, many other
interest groups are involved in policy analysis.
61. At a given time, thousands of public problems and issues will be competing for attention
of public officials. Only a portion of them secure agenda status because of;
A. Lack of information
B. Lack of time of officials
C. Lack of officials’ interest and willingness
D. All of the above
62. The ideology of individual members of Ethiopia House of People’s Representatives is an
example of what context that affects the development of public policy?
A. Governing
B. Social
C. Cultural
D. Political
63. Which of the following the theory of policy making draws heavily on economics to
explain the actions of voters and also of elected officials as attempts to maximize self-
interest?
A. Elite theory
B. Group theory
C. Institutional theory
D. Rational choice theory
64. Public policy impact evaluation mainly focuses on what?
A. How the program was delivered?
B. How the program spent its fiscal resources?
C. Whether the program achieved its goals
D. Whether the program had clear, consistent communication
65. Which of the following is correct about the strategic management process?
A. Set of activities that are guaranteed to prevent organizational failure
B. A process that is concerned with a firm’s resources, capabilities, and competencies, but not
the conditions in its external environment
C. A set of activities which has not been used successfully in the not-for-profit sector
D. A dynamic process involving the full set of commitments, decisions, and actions related to the
firm
66. The strategic plan and all the steps associated with creating and implementing it boils
down to results. Read the statements below.
I. Your plan goals are directly related to measurable outcomes.
II. Performance measurements for employees define accountabilities that tie back to the
measurement
of plan goals.
III. You begin by conducting both an internal assessment of the organization’s resources, people,
and culture as well as an external assessment of the marketplace, technology, and economic
cycles.
IV. You have communicated with key partners or suppliers about the plan goals that might affect
them.
A. II and III
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. I and IV
67. Which of the following is not the strategies that can come from SWOT Analysis
matrix?
A. SO = Use internal strength to make use of opportunity
B. ST = Use internal strength to reduce risk
C. WO = Improve weakness by taking an opportunity
D. WT = Avoid weakness and reduce threats
68. Which of the following can be identified as a best statement that represents an
organization’s big picture statements, describing a desired end state, general in scope and
not restrictive?
A. Organizational philosophy statement
B. The Organization creed
C. Vision statement
D. Mission statement
69. Consider the following statements:
(i) Strategic management experts tend to focus on internal and external factors in their analysis.
(ii) Traditional management experts typically focused on historic organizational performance,
while strategic management experts need to be more forward looking.
Which of these statements is or are correct?
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. Both
D. Neither
70. Assume that, AAU has recently decided to install a new IT system to improve the
efficiency of its payroll function. AAU believes this will reduce the cost of running the
payroll system by 15%.
Which one of the following levels of strategy is the above IT system most closely linked to?
A. Functional strategy
B. Corporate strategy
C. Business strategy
D. Strategic evaluation
71. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding PESTEL analysis?
A. PESTEL analysis focuses on analyzing the industry that an organization operates within
B. PESTEL analysis examines the internal and external issues faced by the organization
C. PESTEL analysis is prone to bias, which can reduce its usefulness
D. All of the above
72. Which of the following is not the rationales of public budgeting?
A. Enhanced accountability
B. Better scheduling
C. Better sources of evaluation
D. None of the above
73. Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
A. Plan and control of organization’s income and expenditures
B. Preparation of a five-year business plan
C. Company valuation
D. Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
74. One among the following do not result from the potential weaknesses in budget
preparation
A. Rigidity in spending priorities leading to inefficient allocation of public resources.
B. Data in the budget office may be misleading.
C. Blurring of capital and current expenditure concepts
D. All of the above

75. The development, adoption, implementation and reconciliation of a public budget

reflect disagreement over the proper balance to be struck among the following four major
purposes served by a public budget except
A. Funding programs that are responsive to constituent wishes
B. Demonstration of financial accountability
C. Funding programs that are effective in accomplishing their goals and cost efficient
D. None of the Above
76. A government may impose tax on its citizens for all the following reasons, except?
A. Raise revenue for development
B. Engender economic stability
C. Punish rich people in the community
D. Discourage consumption of certain harmful goods
77. In public sector budget and financial accounting, value for money is measured by
what?
A. Economy, efficiency and effectiveness
B. Integrity, honesty and due care
C. Profit, revenue and cost
D. Gross Domestic Product, Tax per capita and Balance of Payment
78. Which of the following type of budget which demands preparation of various levels of
service that could be provided by the government with different levels of funding?
A. Line Item Budgeting
B. Program Budgeting
C. Zero Based Budgeting
D. Multi-Year Budgeting
79. Which of the following is incorrect about development administration?
A. Development administration is a post WWII phenomenon
B. Development administration as a term is coined in 1955/56
C. Development administration is change oriented
D. Development administration is about maintaining the status quo
80. Which of the following objectives of development is closely particularly linked to the
concept the “basic needs of human beings?
A. Life-sustenance
B. Self-esteem
C. Range of economic and social choices
D. Military might
81. Which of the following is the main emphasizes sustainable development?
A. Maximum use of scarce resources
B. Rapid economic growth
C. Intergenerational equity
D. Intensification of urban agriculture
82. According to the doctrine of New Public Management, “efficiency” is achieved through
what?
A. “Slim and reduced” government
B. Large and extended state apparatus
C. Hierarchical and procedural government structure
D. Bureaucratic organizational structure
83. Which of the following assumptions is irrelevant to the free-market analysis in the
context of development management?
A. Competition is effective
B. State intervention in the economy
C. Availability of technology at low cost
D. Product markets provide best signals for investors
84. Which of the following could not be taken as a rational for decentralization
A. Bringing decisions closer to the grass-roots
B. Enhancing the role of the union government
C. Creating priorities for local preferences
D. Realizing efficiency in resource allocation
85. Which of the following is true in the Ethiopian economy?
A. Loans are credited to the recurrent budget
B. Tax revenues are greater than non-tax revenues
C. Non-tax revenues are greater than tax revenues
D. Taxes are credited to the capital budget
86. In the late 1970s and early 1980s, the drivers to change to introduce New Public
Management include all of the following except
A. Economic crisis
B. Financial pressures
C. The need to make the public sector more competitive
D. Existing efficiency of the public sector
87. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of development?
A. Economic growth
B. Social progress
C. Political stability
D. Environmental degradation
88. What is the main idea behind deliberative democracy?
A. Citizens should be given more direct power in decision-making
B. Political decisions should be made by experts
C. Political decisions should be made through rational discussion and debate
D. Political decisions should be made by the majority vote
89. Which of the following is correct regarding a development paradigm?
A. A set of assumptions and beliefs about how economic development should be pursued
B. A blueprint for how to achieve political stability in developing countries
C. A model of how cultural values impact economic growth
D. A set of strategies for achieving social justice in developing countries
90. What is the main assumption of dependency theory?
A. Developing countries are dependent on developed countries for economic growth
B. Developed countries are dependent on developing countries for natural resources
C. Economic growth in developing countries can only be achieved through self-reliance and
import substitution
D. Developed countries should provide foreign aid to developing countries to reduce dependency
91. What is the main critique of the Development from Below paradigm?
A. It assumes that individuals and communities have equal access to resound
B. It overemphasizes the role of government intervention in economic development
C. It does not provide a clear roadmap for how to achieve economic growth
D. It may not be feasible in countries with weak institutions and social fragmentation
92. Which political theory emphasizes the importance of a strong central government, with
power concentrated in the hands of a single leader or group?
A. Totalitarianism
B. Authoritarianism
C. Pluralism
D. Constitutionalism
93. Of which one the following is not the role of government in development?
A. Government should take a leading role in driving economic development
B. Government should provide foreign aid and investment to promote economic growth
C. Government should create an enabling environment for development by providing public
goods and services
D. Government should not interfere in economic development and leave it to the market
 94. Which one of the following is not among the major assumptions for creating public
enterprises?
A. Serving as key operational tools to bring technological innovation.
B. Encouraging the participation of the private sector in national development efforts.
C. Filling the gaps in areas where the private sector is too weak or disinterested due to low profit
margins.
D. Securing revenue used for financing a nation’s development
95. Which one of the following doesn’t belong to the public dimension of public
enterprises?
A. Public ownership
B. Public purpose
C. Public accountability
D. Public embezzlement
96. Some of the problems that necessitated the crafting of a new mode of management for
public enterprises include what?
A. Incompatibility with commercial activities
B. The fact that public enterprises are not dependent on regular budgetary appropriations from
the government treasury
C. The accounting, audit and personnel management systems used in traditional government
agencies are not suitable to the context of public enterprises
D. All of the above

97. Which of the following is used to judged the success or failure of public enterprises?
A. Purposes stipulated in their establishment laws
B. Special privileges given to them
C. Special obligations imposed upon them
D. All of the above
98. Which of the following is not among the factors influencing the roles of public
enterprises?
A. Ideology
B. Level of economic development
C. Level and nature of resource endowment
D. None of the above
99. Which of the following is correct regarding public enterprises, as compared to private
sector enterprises?
A. Run capital intensive and risky industries
B. Enjoy sufficient flexibility in decision making
C. Make use of “administered pricing”
D. A and C
100. The effectiveness of public accountability of public enterprises depends on what?
A. The precision of their goals
B. Performance criteria
C. Clarity about the agency to which the public enterprises reports
D. All of the above