IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023

Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Study the following information A. 30 cities

carefully and answer the given questions B. 32 cities
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are C. 37 cities
sitting in a linear row facing north. They travelled D. 39 cities
to different number of cities. E. 35 cities
W sits fourth to the left of the one who travelled to
12 cities where none of them sits at the end of the 2. Which of the following combination is true?
row. The number of persons sitting to the left of W I). Q-3
is one less than the number of persons sitting to II). T-17
the right of the one who travelled to 10 cities. V III). P-6
sits immediate left of the one who travelled to 6 IV). U-12
cities. The number of persons sitting between V A. Only (III) and (IV)
and S is two less than the number of persons B. Only (I) and (II)
sitting between the one who travelled to 6 cities C. Only (II) and (III)
and W. Q sits immediate left of T. Q travelled five D. Only (II)
cities more than V. U sits third to the right of the E. All (I), (II) and (III)
one who travelled two cities more than P. P sits
second to the left of R. The difference between 3. As many persons sit between Q and the one
the number of cities travelled by Q and the one who sits immediate left of S as between R and
who sits immediate left of R is the same as the ____
difference between the number of cities travelled A. T
by the one who sits immediate right of U and the B. The one who travelled to 17 cities
one who sits second to the right of V. The sum of C. The one who travelled to 10 cities
the number of cities travelled by S and U is the D. The one who travelled to 12 cities
same as the sum of the number of cities travelled E. The one who sits immediate right of V
by T and W. P travelled twice the number of cities
travelled by the one who sits immediate left of W. 4. If one of the neighbours of V is P, then who
1. What is the sum of the number of cities among the following person is another neighbour
travelled by S, U and the one who sits immediate of V?
left of S? A. Q

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
B. The one who travelled to 3 cities 7. Statements:
C. R Only a few Juices are Wine. Few Wine is Soda.
D. The one who travelled to 8 cities Only Soda is Water. No Sugar is Wine. Few Coke
E. U is Sugar.
Conclusions:
5. How many persons sit between the one who I). Some Coke can never be Soda.
travelled to 3 cities and the one who sits II). Some Soda is not Sugar.
immediate right of P? III). No Juice is Sugar.
A. More than three A. Only conclusion III follows
B. Three B. Only conclusions I and II follow
C. Two C. Only conclusion II follows
D. None D. All conclusions I, II, and III follow
E. One E. Only conclusion I follows

Directions (6-8): Below question consists of some 8. Statements:

statements followed by some conclusions. Study Only a few Padlocks are Pitchers. A few Pitchers
the following information carefully and decide are Rollers. Only a few Pliers are Rollers. No
which of the following conclusion logically follows. Roller is Stool
6. Statements: Conclusions
Only Rose are Yellow. Some Rose are Mango. I). All Pitchers can never be Stool
Only a few Mango are Pink. Few Pink are II). Some Stools may be Pitchers
Orange. No Orange are Rose. III). All Padlocks are definitely not Roller
Conclusions: A. Only conclusion I follows
I). Some Mango can never be Orange. B. Only conclusions I and II follow
II). Some Pink are not Rose. C. Only conclusions I and III follow
III). Some Rose are not Orange. D. Only conclusion III follows
A. Only conclusion III follows E. All conclusions I, II and III follow
B. Only conclusions I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows Directions (9-13): Study the following information
D. All conclusions I, II, and III follow carefully and answer the given questions
E. Only conclusion II follows Eight persons-I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are
attending the exam on different dates either 7 or

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
28 of four different months viz., - January, B. February 28
February, March and April of the same C. March 28
year(2023). They wrote the exam on different D. April 28
subjects- Economics, Philosophy, Maths, E. January 7
Sociology, Chemistry, Biology, History, and
Physics. Only one person attends the exam on 10. How many persons attend the exam between
each date and only two persons attend the exam the one who wrote Biology exam and the one
in each month. who attends immediately after the one who wrote
J attends on an odd numbered date of the month Chemistry exam?
having 31 days. Only two persons attend between A. More than five
the one who wrote History exam and J. As many B. Five
persons attend the exam before the one who C. Two
wrote History exam as after O. K attends three D. Three
persons before the one who wrote Physics exam. E. Four
K and O attend on the same date. M attends two
persons after the one who wrote Physics exam. 11. Which of the following combination is true?
At least one person attends after M. I attends A. N-Economics-January 7
immediately before the one who wrote Biology B. K-History-January 28
exam. J neither wrote Biology nor Economics C. J-Sociology -March7
exams. The number of persons attending the D. L-Chemistry-April 28
exam before N is one more than the number of E. O-Physics -March 28
persons attending the exam after the one who
wrote Chemistry exam. P 12. The number of persons attending before I is
attends two persons after the one who attends one more than the number of persons attending
immediately after the one who wrote Economics after _____
exam. The one who wrote Philosophy exam A. The one who wrote Philosophy exam
attends three persons after the one who attends B. The one who wrote Chemistry exam
immediately before the one who wrote Maths C. The one who attends immediately after P
exam. D. I
9. Which of the following month and date does P E. N
attend the exam?
A. March 7

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
13. Which of the following statements is/are true 15. Statements:
as per the given arrangement? Z#L^M&S, M@K^W, W#T%Q, S^G#U
A. L attends three persons after the one who Conclusions:
wrote Physics I). W#U
B. M attends the exam in an even numbered date II). Q&L
C. Only two persons attend between I and O III). Z#U
D. O wrote Maths exam A. Both conclusions I and II are true
E. All the statements are true B. Both conclusions I and III are true
C. Only conclusion II is true
Directions (14-16): Study the following D. Only conclusion III is true
information carefully and answer the given E. None is true
questions.
“A @ B” means “A is not greater than B”. 16. Statement:
“A & B” means “A is neither greater nor equal to H#Q^S#T@W^M#Z%Y
B”. Conclusions:
“A % B” means “A is not smaller than B”. I). H#M
“A # B” means “A is neither smaller nor equal to II). S&T
B”. III). Q%T
“A ^ B” means “A is neither greater nor smaller to A. Both conclusions I and II are true
B”. B. Either conclusion II or III is true
14. Statements: C. Only conclusion II is true
B#R^S@M, Q^L%Z&S, H#T%R D. Only conclusion III is true
Conclusions: E. None is true
I). B#Q
II). Z&H Directions (17-21): Study the following
III). Q^B information carefully and answer the given
A. Both conclusions I and II are true questions
B. Either conclusion I or III is true Eight persons- L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are
C. Only conclusion II is true sitting around a square table in such a way that
D. Both conclusions II and either I or III are true four of them sit at the corners and facing the
E. None is true centre while four of them sit in the middle of the
sides and facing outside (opposite to the centre).

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
They like different chocolates-Milky Way, D. The one who sits second to the right of N
Snickers, Nestle, Toblerone, Cadbury, Twix, E. Q
Amul, and Parle.
R sits third to the left of the one who likes Twix. N 18. Who among the following persons sit between
sits immediate left of the one who sits opposite to L and Q when counted from the right of Q?
R, who does not face the centre. One person sits I). R
between N and P. L sits second to the left of the II). The one who likes Toblerone
one who sits immediate left of the one who likes III). The one who likes Snickers
Snickers. S sits opposite to the one who sits IV). M
second to the left of the one who likes Toblerone. A. Only (III) and (IV)
Two persons sit between P and the one who likes B. Only (I)
Toblerone. L and S face the same direction. O C. Only (II) and (III)
sits second to the left of the one who sits D. Only (II)
immediate right of M. N and M are not immediate E. Only (I), (II) and (III)
neighbours. As many persons sit between Q and
N as between the one who sits immediate left of 19. Which of the following combination is true?
S and the one who likes Parle. The one who likes A. S-Twix
the Milky Way sits immediate left of the one who B. R-Toblerone
sits second to the right of the one who likes Amul, C. M-Parle
who does not sit adjacent to L. The one who likes D. L-Snickers
Nestle sits third to the right of Q. The number of E. P-Nestle
persons sitting between the one who uses Nestle
and the one who likes Toblerone is one more 20. What is the position of L with respect to the
than the number of persons sitting between the one who likes Amul?
one who likes Twix and the one who likes A. Immediate left
Cadbury when counted from the right of the one B. Third to the right
who likes Nestle. C. Second to the right
17. Who among the following person sits opposite D. Second to the left
to the one who likes Nestle? E. Third to the left
A. M
B. R 21. As many persons sit between the one who
C. The one who likes Cadbury likes Snickers and the one who likes Cadbury

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
when counted from the left of the one who likes 23. If Nisha waits at the point which is 4m to the
Snickers as between P and ___. north of point G, then how long does Naveen
A. M need to walk(total distance) to meet Nisha from
B. R point A?
C. The one who sits immediate right of S A. 18m
D. Q B. 13m
E. The one who likes Toblerone C. 19m
D. 17m
Directions (22-24): Study the following E. Cannot be determined
information carefully and answer the given
questions. 24. Four of the following five pairs of points are
Naveen and Nisha plans to meet at point H, for alike in a certain way based on the directions in
that both of them walk from different points. Nisha the given arrangement and thus form a group.
starts at point F and walks towards west for 4m Which one of the following does not belong to the
and takes a right turn at point G. Then, she walks group?
for 12m to reach point H and waits for Naveen to A. DG
arrive. Later, Naveen starts at point A and walks B. BF
towards north for 4m to reach point B, where he C. DF
takes a right turn and walks 7m to reach point C. D. BG
At point C, he takes a left turn for only 45 degrees E. AH
and walks for 10m to reach point H, where he
meets Nisha and then turns to his left and walks Directions (25-29): Study the following
for 11m in west direction to reach point D and information carefully and answer the given
stops. Point G is exactly in the east of point A. questions
22. What is the direction of the starting point of Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H like
Nisha with respect to the final point of Naveen? different activities- Cycling, Climbing, Singing,
A. Northeast Aerobics, Snowboarding, Running, Gardening,
B. Southeast and Acting and they are living in three different
C. Northwest cities- Barcelona, Florence and Cannes. At least
D. Southwest two persons but not more than three persons are
E. Cannot be determined living in the same city.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Note: If it is said that ‘x’ lives with the one who 27. Which of the following statements is/are
likes singing, then it means both ‘x’ and the one falseas per the given arrangement?
who likes singing live in the same city but ‘x’ does I). B likes Acting
not like singing. II). G lives in Cannes
E likes Climbing and lives only with A. G lives in III). H likes Snowboarding and lives in Barcelona
Florence. C likes Gardening and neither lives with A. Only I and II
G nor A. H lives in Barcelona. The one who lives B. Only III
in Cannes likes either Cycling or Acting. The one C. Only I and III
who likes Singing lives in Barcelona. Neither B D. Only I
nor D lives in the same city of H. The one who E. All I, II, and III
lives in Florence likes Snowboarding. Neither B
nor D likes Snowboarding. The one who likes 28. Which of the following activity is liked by B?
Running does not live with the one who likes A. Running
Cycling. The one who likes Aerobics lives with the B. Gardening
one who likes Singing. F does not like Aerobics. C. Cycling
D neither likes Cycling nor Running. D. Snowboarding
25. Who among the following pair of persons are E. Acting
living in Cannes?
A. A, E 29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
B. B, D way based on the given arrangement and thus
C. G, F form a group. Which one of the following does not
D. F, B belong to the group?
E. D, G A. Cycling-E
B. D-Climbing
26. Which of the following person likes Aerobics? C. E-Singing
A. A D. F-Acting
B. B E. H-Running
C. H
D. D Directions (30-31): Study the following
E. G information carefully and answer the given
questions.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Ten persons are there in the family with three rules step by step. The following is an illustration
generations and only two couples. The number of of input and its rearrangement.
males and females are equal. Both the brothers Input: 48 52 Down 65 Fast Your Give 70 Home
of S are married and have children but only one 81 Hunt 95
sister-in-law is alive. L is the only daughter of R, Step I:70 Home 48 52 Down 65 Fast Your Give
who has two grandchildren. O is the father of S, 81 Hunt 95
who is the aunt of K. W, the son of O, is the father Step II:70 Home 81 Hunt 48 52 Down 65 Fast
of F, who doesn’t have any siblings. D has two Your Give 95
children of different gender, where N is one Step III:70 Home 81 Hunt 52 Fast 48 Down 65
among them and the gender of both D and N are Your Give 95
the same. L is the daughter-in-law of G but not Step IV:70 Home 81 Hunt 52 Fast 65 Your 48
the mother of F, who is of the opposite gender of Down Give 95
K. Step V:70 Home 81 Hunt 52 Fast 65 Your 48
30. Who among the following is the mother of K? Give Down 95
A. F Step VI: 70 Home 81 Hunt 52 Fast 65 Your 48
B. L Give 95 Down
C. G Step VI is the final step of the given input.
D. N As per the rules followed in the given steps, find
E. R an appropriate step for the given Input.
Input: 82 29 firm 50 home gate 25 gray 33 laid
31. How K is related to R? meet 12
A. Sister 32. How many numbers are there between
B. Mother “Home” and “Laid” in step III?
C. Grandson A. Four
D. Daughter B. Two
E. Grand daughter C. Three
D. One
Directions (32-35): Study the following E. None
information carefully and answer the given
questions 33. What is the sum of the numbers which are
A machine rearranges a given input line having adjacent to the element which is fourth from the
both words and numbers in a particular set of left end in step II?

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
A. 45 II). Scrapyards are likely to be established in the
B. 94 four zones
C. 83 A. None can be concluded
D. 58 B. Only I can be concluded
E. 107 C. Either I or II can be concluded
D. Both I and II can be concluded
34. What is the position of “firm” in step IV? E. Only II can be concluded
A. Second from the left end
B. Third from the right end Directions (37-38): In the questions given below,
C. Second from the right end a Statement has been given in each question
D. Fourth from the right end followed by two Courses of Actions. You have to
E. None of the above identify the correct option that will help solve the
problem mentioned in the statement
35. How many steps are needed to get an 37. Statement:
output? The challenges that the mountain trail and
A. IV campsite face are not an exception; other popular
B. VI trails too grapple with similar waste issues.
C. III Course of Action:
D. V I). Overnight Camping on the trails should be
E. VII banned for travelers as well as locals
II). Strict fines should be imposed on the
Directions (36): Read the following carefully and foreigners visiting the place
answer the questions that follow A. Only I follows
36. Statement: B. None follows
The recently announced vehicle scrappage C. Either I or II follows
scheme is likely to usher in significant change in D. Only II follows
the Indian automobile industry and is expected to E. Both follow
generate demand for new vehicles, especially
commercial vehicles. 38. Statement:
Conclusions: In many parts of the world the majority of bank
I). The scrappage policy could change India’s customers regularly use Automatic Teller
automobile sector Machines (ATMs) and today’s western youth

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
have not known a world without them. For them, C. Either I or II can be assumed
the prevailing Perception of a cash machine is D. Both I and II can be assumed
that of a tool providing a familiar functionality of E. Only II can be assumed
basic financial information and dispensing cash.
Inference: Directions (40): In the question below is given a
I). The plastic card is replacing cheque and statement followed by two inferences numbered I
personal attendance of the customer and II. An inference is something that can be
II). It has taken approximately 30 years to deduced or found out on the basis of the given
establish ATMs as ubiquitous examples of public facts. You have to consider the statement and the
walkup and-use devices following inferences and decide which of them is
A. if only inference I is implicit implicit from the statement.
B. if only inference II is implicit 40. Statement:
C. if either I or II is implicit The heads of state of the tiger range countries
D. if neither I nor II is implicit pledged to achieve the "Tx2" objective which
E. if both I and II are implicit plans to double the number of wild tigers by 2022.
In 2010, their population was estimated at only
39. Statement: 3,200.
Indian carriers have announced a fresh slew of Inferences:
discounted ticket fares to bolster demand in the I). This year has been very positive for tigers.
lean travel season. II). More than 95% of the wild tiger population has
Assumptions: been wiped out over the last century
I). Indians tend to book flights when they find A. if only inference I is implicit.
good deals and huge discounts B. if only inference II is implicit
II). Discounted tickets will urge the people to plan C. if either I or II is implicit
their travels D. if neither I nor II is implicit
A. None can be assumed E. if both I and II are implicit
B. Only I can be assumed
Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (41-44): Study the given information Three shops namely A, B, and C sold a certain
carefully and answer the given questions. number of tables and chairs in March. The cost
price of each table and chair is different in each of

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
these three shops. Total number of tables and number of broken tables and chairs sold by shop
chairs sold by A, B, and C together is 900. B.
One set of Furniture sold = One Table sold + One A. 81
Chair sold B. 67
Shop A – The number of tables sold is 33.33% C. 87
less than the number of chairs sold. The Cost D. 74
price of each table is Rs.240 and the cost price of E. None of these
each chair is Rs.200.
Shop B – The number of tables sold by Shop B is 43. The number of tables sold by Shop D is 25%
10 more than that of A. Number of chairs sold is more than that of Shop A and the number of
80. The cost price of each table is Rs.260 and the chairs sold by Shop D is 150% more than that of
cost price of each chair is Rs. 210. Shop B.
Shop C – The number of tables sold is 180. The Find the total number of tables and chairs sold by
number of tables sold by Shop B is 16 (2/3)% less Shop D.
than that of Shop C. The total number of tables A. 415
and chairs sold by Shop C is 320. The cost price B. 335
of each table is 50% more than that of Shop A. C. 365
The cost price of each chair is 20% more than D. 375
that of B. E. None of these
41. If shop A offers a 25% discount on each
furniture set and the rest are sold on cost price. 44. If shop A sold 60% of the chairs at 20% profit
Find the revenue generated by selling all the and the rest chairs at 25% loss. Find the profit or
tables and chairs in shop A. loss percentage obtained by Shop A by selling all
A. Rs.62400 the chairs.
B. Rs.64200 A. 8% profit
C. Rs.60200 B. 2% profit
D. Rs.58600 C. 5% loss
E. None of these D. 4% loss
E. None of these
42. If 30% of the table and 45% of the chairs sold
in Shop B was broken. Find the sum of the

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Directions (45-49): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students in five different
sections namely A, B, C, D and E of class 10 in a school.

The given table chart shows the percentage of the number of boys out of the total number of students in
five different sections namely A, B, C, D and E of class 10 in a school. Total number of boys in all sections
together is 80.

45. 75% of students from section C have section C who participated in the dance
participated in a dance competition. 60% of girls competition.
from section C participated in the dance A. 56.5%
competition. Find the percentage of boys from B. 87.5%

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C. 72.5% C. 75%
D. 62.5% D. 80%
E. None of these E. None of these

46. The number of girls in section F is 12 more 49. Find the ratio of the average number of boys
than that of section A and the number of boys in in sections A, B, and E to the average number of
section F is 25% more than that of section B. Find girls in sections A, C, and E together.
the total number of students in section F. A. 8: 11
A. 80 B. 7 : 8
B. 75 C. 6 : 11
C. 55 D. 7 : 10
D. 60 E. None of these
E. None of these
Directions (50-54): Study the given information
47. Find the correct statement. carefully and answer the given questions.
i). The number of girls in section E is 75% of the The given table chart shows the total number of
number of boys in section C. cars manufactured by four different showrooms
ii). The number of girls in section B is 50% more namely A, B, C and D and also given the number
than the number of boys in section C. of cars sold in these four showrooms and also
iii). The average number of boys in sections B given the number of cars unsold in these four
and C is equal to the number of girls in section D. showrooms.
A. Only i and ii are correct.
B. Only ii and iii are correct.
C. Only i and iii are correct.
D. All are correct
E. None of these

48. The sum of the number of boys in sections B

Note: The number of cars manufactured by
and C is what percentage of the sum of the
showroom A is 50% more than the number of
number of girls in sections A, B, and E?
cars manufactured by showroom D.
A. 50%
B. 60%

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
50. Find the average number of cars unsold by 53. Showroom S manufactured 3x cars out of
Showroom B, C, and D. which 2y cars are unsold, Find the average
i). 1.5x – 10 number of cars sold by Showroom S and B.
ii). 2y – 20 A. 90
iii). 0.5P + 42 B. 125
A. Only i and iii are correct. C. 110
B. Only i and ii are correct. D. 105
C. Only ii and iii are correct. E. None of these
D. All are correct.
E. None of these 54. If the ratio of the number of cars sold by
Showroom A to G is 11 : 14, and 40% of the
51. 60% of cars manufactured by showroom A manufactured cars by Showroom G were sold,
are petrol cars. The ratio of the number of petrol then find the sum of the number of cars unsold by
to diesel cars sold by showroom A is 6 : 5. Find Showroom G and A together.
the number of diesel cars unsold in showroom A. A. 250
A. 28 B. 320
B. 24 C. 230
C. 18 D. 280
D. 22 E. None of these
E. None of these
Directions (55-59): Find the missing number in
52. If the number of cars unsold by Showroom C the given series.
is transferred to a third party for selling and the 55. 6, ?, 30, 62, 126, 254
third party can sell only 2/5th of the cars, then find A. 14
the number of cars still unsold by Showroom C. B. 12
A. 96 C. 18
B. 84 D. 15
C. 104 E. None of these
D. 72
E. None of these 56. 2,?, 286, 2002, 10010, 30030
A. 21
B. 28

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C. 26 D. x ≤ y
D. 23 E. x = y or the relation cannot be established.
E. None of these
61. If a = 3b, √(a2 + b2) = 4√10
57. 110, 112, 117, 127, ?, 170 x2 – (a + b)x + 39 = 0
A. 152 y2 – (1.5a – 0.25b)y + 72= 0
B. 144 Find the correct relation between x and y.
C. 136 A. x > y
D. 140 B. x < y
E. None of these C. x ≥ y
D. x ≤ y
58. 7, 21, 44, 94, 225, ? E. x = y or the relation cannot be established
A. 586
B. 609 62. Find the correct relation between x and y.
C. 546 x3 + 2x2 – 63x = 0
D. 599 y3 + 4y2 – 77y = 0
E. None of these A. x > y
B. x < y
59. 2, 4, 11, 39, 102, ? C. x ≥ y
A. 196 D. x ≤ y
B. 228 E. x = y or the relation cannot be established
C. 214
D. 226 63. A and B invested Rs. (x – 1200) and Rs. (x +
E. None of these 1800) in a business. If at the end of the year they
got a total profit of Rs. y and B got 8y/11 as his
60. If L.C.M of a and b (a < b) = 88, H.C.F = 1 share, then find the value of x.
x2 – ax – 105 = 0 A. 4500
y2 – by – 6y + 72 = 0 B. 3000
Find the correct relation between x and y. C. 2500
A. x > y D. 3500
B. x < y E. None of these
C. x ≥ y

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
64. A person spends x% and (x + 10)% of his C. 30%
income on rent and food respectively. He spends D. 45%
36% of the remaining on other expenses. Now he E. 42%
is left with 32% of his income. Find the value of x.
A. 20 67. Time taken by a boat to cover 36 km
B. 24 downstream is 20% less than the time taken by
C. 15 same boat to cover 15 upstream. If difference
D. 10 between downstream and upstream speed of
E. None of these boat is 6 km, then find the distance travelled by
boat in 4 hours 10 minutes in still water.
65. Set A contains 5 consecutive even number A. 40 km
such that the average of set is 18, set B contains B. 35 km
4 consecutive odd number such that ratio of C. 15 km
smallest to largest number is 7: 9. Set C contains D. 25 km
6 consecutive integers such that 2nd smallest E. 30 km
number of the set is the sum of smallest number
of sets A and B, then find the 2nd largest number 68. Ratio of ages of A and B 12 years before was
of set C. 8: 9 while the ratio of ages of C and D after 8
A. 38 years will be 25: 29. If B is 12 years younger that
B. 34 C and sum of ages of B and D is 80 years, then
C. 42 find the present age of D.
D. 40 A. 45 years
E. 36 B. 40 years
C. 50 years
66. Cost price of five items K, L, M, N, and O is D. 55 years
₹ 620 each. If items K, L, M, N, and O are sold at E. 35 years
‘x’, ‘x + 25’, ‘x + 50’, ‘x + 75’, and ‘x + 100’
respectively and after selling all the items 25% 69. Ratio of efficiency of P and R is 3:2, they can
profit is earned. Find the approximate profit complete the work in 24 days when they work in
percent earned after selling item O alone. alternate manner. If Q and S together start the
A. 28% work and after four days, remaining work
B. 33% complete by S in T/2 days. When P and R start

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
the work together, they can complete it in T days. D. ₹ 17500
Find the time taken by Q alone to complete the E. ₹ 7500
work, if Q is 25% more efficient than S?
A. 10 days 72. Ratio of total number of students in classes A
B. 12 days to B is 9: 11 and the ratio becomes 14: 11 when
C. 16 days 10 more students join class A.
D. 8 days Find that which of following statement is correct.
E. Can’t be determined Statement I: Difference between initial number of
70. 240 L of mixture A contains milk and water in students in both the classes is 5.
the ratio of 8: 7. 30 L of mixture is taken out and Statement II: If ratio of boys to girls in class B is
replaced with same quantity of water and again 7: 4, then number of girls in class B is 10.
60 L of mixture is taken out and replaced with A. Only statement I
same quantity of water. 260 L of mixture B B. Only statement II
contains milk and water in the ratio of 8: 5. If all C. Both statements I and II
the quantity mixture A and B are mixed, then find D. Neither statement I nor II
the difference between the quantity of milk and E. Either statement I or II
water in the resultant mixture.
A. 8 L 73. In each of the following questions, two
B. 10 L statements have been given. Analyze the given
C. 9 L statements and answer whether the data given in
D. 16 L the statements are sufficient to answer the
E. 12 L question or not.
A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of
71. A sum of ‘x + 500’ is invested for 5 years at 16: 9, then find the total quantity of water in the
10% simple rate of interest and the amount mixture.
received is invested for 2 years at 10% annual Statement I: Difference between quantity of milk
rate of compound interest. If total compound and water in the mixture becomes 8 L when water
interest received is ₹ 3780, then find the value of of same quantity as already there in the mixture is
‘x’. also added in the mixture.
A. ₹ 11500 Statement II: Difference between quantity of milk
B. ₹ 12500 and water in the mixture becomes 3 L when water
C. ₹ 15000

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
of some quantity which is equal to the 25% of 75. Curved surface area of cone is 1755 cm2
total mixture also added in the mixture. which is 1080 cm2 more than its base area.
A. Only statement I alone is sufficient. Height of cone is (2H – 4) cm and its radius is R
B. Only statement II alone is sufficient. cm. Find the volume of cylinder has height H cm
C. Both statements I and II together are sufficient and radius is (R - 3) cm. Use π = 3.
D. Both statements I and II together are not A. 8640 cm3
sufficient B. 8460 cm3
E. Either statement I alone or statement II alone C. 15360 cm3
is sufficient. D. 15680 cm3
E. None of these
74. Four persons P, Q, R and S entered in to
partnership together, initial investment of P is 76. A bag contains total (Black + white) [2K + 3]
25% less than that of Q, while initial investment of balls out of which K are black. On picking two
R is twice as that of S. P and S left after eight balls randomly from the bag, the probability of
months from start of business Find the total profit getting both white balls is 12/35. Find the value of
earned by Q and S together at the end of one- K.
year, total profit is Rs. 3300. A. 2
Statement I. Profit share of R is six times as that B. 6
of P. C. 5
Statement II. Profit share of R is Rs. 1200 more D. 7
than that of Q. E. None of these
A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question. Directions (77-78): Read the following information
B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the carefully and answer the questions based on it.
question. A). P2 – 25P + 144 = 0
C. Either statement I or II is sufficient to answer B). 6Q2 – Q – 40 = 0
the question. C). 2R2 + 3R – 135 = 0
D. Both statements together are necessary to I). |K| is a perfect square, where K is one of the
answer the question. roots of same equation.
E. None of these II). Difference of root is not less than 7.
III). HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where
Z and Y are the roots of same equation.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
77. Find which of the following match is/are 79. There is total of 120 students attempted a
possible. mock test. Number of girls those fail in mock is 20
M). A – I, B – III, C – II more than that of boys, while number of girls
N). A – III, B – III, C – I those passes in mock is 12.5% less than those
L). A – II, B – I, C – III girls those failed the mock. If number of boys
A. M only those passed the exam is 25, then find total
B. M and L only number of girls those attempted mock test.
C. N and L only A. 45
D. M and N only B. 80
E. None of these C. 75
D. 60
78. An equation is given below: E. None of these
H2 + 43H – (15a + 60b) = 0, where one root of
equation is sum of negative root of B and positive 80. A boat takes total 12 hours to cover 180 km
root of C. downstream and 120 km upstream. If it takes 36
Find the maximum value of (a + b), where a and b min more to travel 60 km upstream than to travel
both are positive integers? 72 km downstream, then find the upstream
A. 17 distance travelled by boat in 4 hours.
B. 16 A. 120 km
C. 13 B. 80 km
D. 10 C. 100 km
E. None of these D. 60 km
E. 160 km
English Language

Directions (81-87): Read the following passage transition towards sustainable energy. The
carefully and answer the questions that follow. growing need of energy perfectly aligns with the
India is on its way to improve its industrial and country’s green energy transition initiatives, to
economic health through structural reforms. The satisfy future energy demands while reducing
country has decided to phase out fossil-based carbon footprints and burden on the country’s
energy generation and adopt green energy. This foreign currency reserves. India’s per capita
has been instrumental in laying a path to energy consumption currently stands close to

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
one-third of the world average.India is running of the developing countries including
renewable energy initiatives in a big way and has southeastern Asian countries are aggressively
emerged as the second most attractive promoting renewable energy. The growth
market for renewable energy equipment in the trajectory is expected to rise exponentially in the
world. With the headquarters of International years to come. For a developing country like
Solar Alliance, India is all set to become a global India, where electricity for every home was once
leader in solar energy. considered a dream is now close to reality. The
Solar and wind were once considered costly government initiative of ‘power for all’ is changing
source of power, but are now much cheaper than the socio-economic structure of the country. The
the conventional form of energy. India has sector also has immense potential to create new
already achieved 23 GW of solar installations with jobs; 1 GW of Solar manufacturing facility
another 40 GW of solar power being at different generates approximately 4000 direct and indirect
stages of bidding and installation. The transition jobs. In addition solar deployment, operation and
of the energy landscape in India is inevitable with maintenance creates additional recurring
the share of renewable energy going up rapidly. jobs in the sector. India’s solar story is largely
India set ambitious targets for itself to achieve built over imported products. Renewable energy
100 GW of solar power by 2022 and is set to cannot completely replace fossil based energy
prove that with honest efforts and true intent, no generation because of obvious reasons like sun’s
target is difficult to achieve. In recent years, energy not being available 24 hours a day, solar
growth of solar energy in emerging markets had generation being highly unpredictable and
been phenomenal. India has already overtaken technological innovations yet to develop an
the US and has become the second largest solar efficient storage solution. Though tech
power market in the world (in terms of solar advancements are underway for storage, which
power installations). The country currently stands has the potential to revolutionise this sector
with ~25 GW of grid-connected solar power globally, till then dependence on fossils can be
capacity as compared to 9 GW in 2015. Large reduced by gradually increasing the share of
scale solar installations in India account for 87 renewables. China has already identified energy
percent solar capacity while rooftop sector is all storage opportunity and is marching ahead to
set to pick up. Last year, solar accounted for establish large manufacturing clusters to offer
nearly 53 percent of new energy capacity storage solutions. Solar power can replace fossil
additions in the country. In addition to India, most based generation only if efficient and cost-

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
effective mass scale storage solutions are B. Only 1 and 2
developed. C. Only 2
81. As per the passage, why would it be D. Only 1 and 3
impossible to rely completely on renewable E. All 1, 2 and 3
energy?
1). Renewable energy sources such as the sun 83. With which of the following statements does
are only available during the day and is highly the author most likely to agree?
dependent on unpredictable weather phenomena. A. Renewable energy can completely replace
2). Developing countries are unwilling to fossil fuels.
recognise and tap into the potential offered by B. Advancements in the storage technology may
renewable energy. revolutionise the renewable energy sector
3). We still lack a viable storage solution for globally.
renewable energy. C. Solar power has the maximum potential in the
A. Only 1 renewable energy sector.
B. Only 1 and 2 D. It would be difficult for India to compete with
C. Only 3 China in the renewable energy sector.
D. Only 1 and 3 E. None of the above
E. Only 2 and 3
84. Which of the following is NOT true as per the
82. As per the passage, the author believes that information given in the passage?
solar energy presents a huge opportunity to India 1). Solar and wind energy are more expensive
for which of the following reasons? than conventional energy.
1). The solar energy sector has the potential to 2). India’s per capita energy consumption is
create a great number of jobs. almost a third of the world’s average.
2). India is a developing country and solar energy 3). The headquarters of the International Solar
might go a long way in providing electricity to its Alliance is in India.
homes. A. Only 3
3). Most developing countries are making the shift B. Only 1 and 2
from non-renewable energy to renewable energy, C. Only 1
and India should do the same. D. Only 1 and 3
A. Only 1 E. Only 2 and 3

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
given below the passage. Some of the words
85. Which of the following provides the most have been highlighted in the passage that will
suitable title for the passage? help you locate them to find the appropriate
A. The scope of solar power in India answer according to the questions asked.
B. The race towards solar power - India versus India has been gripped by a wheat shock, soon
China after announcing that it can plug some of the gap
C. Should India rely completely on solar power? in supplies in the world market caused by the exit
D. The challenges posed by solar and wind power of Ukraine and Russia. India’s wheat crop,
E. Developing countries as producers of solar according to a report in this newspaper, could be
power 10-20 million tonnes (mt) below this year’s initial
estimate of 111 mt — owing to the early onset of
86. Choose the word which is most nearly the a harsh summer. But the bigger cause for
same in meaning as the word TRANSITION given concern is the disproportionate drop in
in bold as used in the passage. procurement this Rabi marketing season. At the
A. deploy latest count, it is about 16 mt, 44 per cent down
B. shift from the same period last year, with wheat
C. discreet procurement about to come to an end later this
D. plea month. About 43 mt of wheat was procured in the
E. safeguard Rabi marketing season for 2021-22.
The current dip, even if one assumes a slight
87. Choose the word which is most opposite in pick-up in the remaining days if the government
meaning as the word INEVITABLE given in relaxes qualifying conditions, has repercussions
boldas used in the passage. for food distribution under National Food Security
A. reckless Act and the PM Garib Kalyan Yojana. Wheat
B. avoidable stocks as on April 1 amounted to 19 mt, whereas
C. prudent a requirement of about 30 million tonnes of wheat
D. illustrate was estimated for these two schemes — 21
E. unique million tonnes for NFSA and another 10 million
tonnes for PMGKAY. Buffer and strategic
Directions (88-94): A passage has been given reserves for wheat would account for another 7.5
below. Read it carefully and answer the questions mt. Thus, as against the total wheat requirement

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
of 40 million tonnes, the post-procurement stocks laws, which were about opening up grain markets
could be in the region of 35 million tonnes this and relaxing stock limits. That said, premature
year. It is just as well that the Centre on Tuesday policy signals to boost exports of staples need not
announced additional distribution of rice under be sent out. Bountiful monsoons in recent years
PMGKY to the extent of the 5 mt wheat shortfall. have ensured that rice stocks (excluding unmilled
Rice supplies under PMGKAY may increase to 18 paddy) are about 32 mt now, about two-and-a-
million tonnes. This is a timely move. half times the buffer norm for April. There is
This steep shortfall is unlikely to ___ (A) ___; it is scope to raise the rice component in PDS this
a fallout of the extraordinary circumstances that year. The buffer norm of 21 million tonnes for
have derailed wheat procurement this season. wheat and rice on April 1, should be re-examined
Since procurement generally works out to a third in view of rising welfare requirements.
or more of wheat output, a drop of about six 88. What does the initial line of the passage
million tonnes owing to lower output would have imply?
been no cause for surprise. But the global wheat India has been gripped by a wheat shock, soon
shortage triggered by the Russia-Ukraine war has after announcing that it can plug some of the gap
changed everything. With India eyeing exports, in supplies in the world market caused by the exit
farmers are holding back stocks in the of Ukraine and Russia.
expectation of a much higher return than the MSP A. India promised for exporting wheat and soon
of Rs 2,015 per quintal. Indeed, current prices are after that, the nation has received excessive
ruling at Rs 200 or more per quintal over MSP, demand for delivering wheat stocks.
the rate at which private players are buying B. India has announced to provide wheat in the
stocks. There can be no grudging the extra world market as supplies by Ukraine and Russia
returns being made by the farmers. Nor can one have been stopped and due to that, India is
take a moralistic view of traders who are merely facing the angst of the citizens of the country.
responding to market forces. The government C. India announced to provide wheat in the
agencies have been slow to respond to the international market and levied high taxes
situation. resulting in criticism by other countries and wheat
The Centre should desist from imposing export delivery has stooped in between due to this.
controls or stock limits, as that would dent the D. Soon after India announced that it will provide
confidence of farmers and intermediaries. It would wheat supplies in the global market due to the
also go against its espousal of the scrapped farm shortage caused by the war between Ukraine and

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Russia; India has been affected by wheat A. only I
shortage. B. both I & III
E. None of the above C. only II
D. only III
89. Which of the following statements is/are E. All I, II & III
TRUE, according to the passage?
I). The Centre has announced additional 91. Which of the following words can fill the blank
distribution of rice under PMGKY to the extent of marked (A), in the passage above?
the 5 mt wheat shortfall. A. baffle
II). A requirement of about 30 million tonnes of B. drain
wheat was estimated for the two schemes- NFSA C. terminate
& PMGKAY. D. halt
III). The buffer norm of 21 million tonnes for E. recur
wheat and rice on April 1, should be re-examined
in view of lowering welfare requirements. 92. Which of the following statements is/are NOT
A. only I TRUE, according to the passage?
B. only II I). There is a scope to raise the rice component in
C. both I & III Public Distribution System (PDS) this year.
D. both I & II II). If the centre continues to impose export
E. All I, II & III controls or stock limits; this would undermine the
confidence of farmers and brokers.
90. According to the passage, which of the III). There is a dire need to emit premature policy
following is the cause of concern over decreased signals to boost exports of staples.
wheat stocks from the year’s initial estimates? A. only II
I). The global wheat shortage provoked by the B. both II & III
Russia-Ukraine war has changed everything. C. both I & III
II). There is an uneven drop in the purchase of D. only I
wheat this Rabi season. E. none of the above
III). Scrapping of farm laws which were about
opening up grain markets and relaxing stock
limits.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
93. Which of the following is the SAME meaning III). The message to the public is that (A)/ the
to the word ‘espousal’, as mentioned in the onus of controlling this pandemic (B)/ is now on
passage? individuals and not the government (C)/.
A. beguiling A. (II)-A, (III)-B
B. rejection B. (I)-B, (III)-C, (II)-C
C. opposition C. (I)-A
D. acceptance D. (I)-B, (II)-A, (III)-A
E. captivating E. All sentences are error free.
94. Which of the following is the meaning 96.
OPPOSITE to the word ‘grudging’, as mentioned I). Any of the world’s best arabica (A)/ beans are
in the passage? grown on the (B)/ fertile land around Mount
A. deploring Kenya (C)/.
B. inclined II). More recently, researchers warned that (A)/
C. sleeking editing the genetics of human embryos (B)/ can
D. burnishing lead to unintended consequences (C)/.
E. gobbling III). Many Kenyans first gets (A)/ a taste for coffee
via instant sachets (B)/ made from cheap robusta
Directions (95- 99): In the questions given below, beans (C)/.
three sentences are given which are divided into A. (I)-A, (III)-A
three parts out of which one part has an error in B. (I)-B, (III)-C, (II)-C
it. Find the part with error and mark that as your C. (II)-C
answer. D. (I)-B, (II)-A, (III)-A
95. E. All sentences are error free
I). With the removal of the most restrictions, (A)/
the probability of contact between (B)/ individuals 97.
has risen sharply (C)/. I). Azhdarchid pterosaurs are one type of
II). India needs to vaccinate many people, and pterosaur and (A)/ one of the distinguishing
(A)/ the only way to get to that quickly is to have characteristic about them (B)/ is how big they
(B)/ a great number of vaccinations happening were, especially their long necks. (C)/.
daily. (C)/. II). Among the six metro areas studied, (A)/ Los
Angeles had by far the worst levels of (B)/

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
crowding and as well as the highest housing
costs. (C)/. 99.
III). Anger is a negative feeling state that is (A)/ I). Globally, many countries have enacted, (A)/
typically associated with hostile thoughts, (B)/ strengthened or contemplated mandatory (B)/
physiological arousal and maladaptive behaviors. infant and childhood immunization (C)/.
(C)/. II). Globally, infant and childhood vaccine uptake
A. (I)-C, (III)-A rates are not high enough (A)/ to control vaccine
B. (I)-B, (III)-C, (II)-C preventable diseases, with (B)/ outbreaks
C. (II)-C occurring even in high-income countries (C)/.
D. (I)-B, (II)-C III). The introduction and widespread use of (A)/
E. All sentences are error free vaccines have profoundly affected the (B)/
occurrence of several infectious diseases. (C)/.
98. A. (I)-C, (III)-A
I). People who are less physically active than (A)/ B. (I)-B, (III)-C, (II)-C
usual are experiencing more symptoms of (B)/ C. (II)-C
mental health conditions during the pandemic D. (I)-B, (II)-A, (III)-A
(C)/. E. All sentences are error free.
II). People who have continued to exercise (A)/
during the pandemic are more likely to be done Directions (100-103): In the questions given
(B)/ it for their mental health than for any other below, two sentences are given. Each sentence
reason. (C)/. has some words given in bold, needed to be
III). The mental health benefits of physical activity exchanged with words in bold in the other
have been (A)/ out of reach for people whose sentence. Find the correct pair of words to be
stress and anxiety levels have kept (B)/ them exchanged and mark it as the answer.
from exercising during the pandemic, a new study 100.
shows. (C)/. I). The Congress announced that Prashant Kishor
A. (I)-C, (III)-A has a) confirmed its offer to join the party, ending
B. (II)-B, (III)-C b) speculations surrounding the election
C. (II)-B strategist’s c) widespread entry into India’s oldest
D. (I)-B, (II)-A, (III)-A political party.
E. All sentences are error free

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
II). China has d) declined the first known human said metro’s operational need c) administration
case of the H3N8 e) strain of avian flu, but health for only 2.5% of the total power requirement of
authorities say there is a low risk of f) possible the city.
transmission among people. II). The Khargone d) accounts decided against e)
A. A-D, B-E & C-F disruptions the curfew on Tuesday and asked
B. B-F & C-E people to f) celebrate EidulFitr and Akshaya
C. A-D & C-F Tritiya festivals at home in the violence-hit
D. A-E & B-F Madhya Pradesh city.
E. no interchange required A. A-D, B-F & C-E
B. B-D & C-F
101. C. A-F & B-D
I). It also said that students can a) retain doing D. B-E & C-D
the dual degree programmes physically through E. no interchange required
the two-shift system already in b) infrastructure or
from two different institutions based on their c) 103.
proximity. I). The State of Tamil Nadu has been witnessing
II). The States and Union Territories will be asked a a) interaction between the b) urged government
to d) consider and use the e) vogue put in place and the State Governor on the question of giving
for treating COVID patients, so that they are c) assent to the National Eligibility cum Entrance
readily f) available in case the numbers rise Test (NEET) Bill (linked to an all India premedical
again, Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya entrance test) passed by the State Assembly.
said. II). West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee hit out at
A. A-D, B-E & C-F PM Narendra Modi, who d) elected states to e)
B. A-D & B-E reduce VAT in "national interest" during a virtual
C. B-E f) confrontation with chief ministers amid rising
D. B-F & C-D Fuel Prices across the country.
E. no interchange required A. A-F, B-D & C-E
B. A-D & C-E
102. C. B-D
I). Amid a) apprehensions of power supply b) D. A-F & B-D
relaxing in Delhi, the DMRC chief on Tuesday E. no interchange required

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
a). A World Cup like no other in its 92-year history
Directions (104-109): Five sentences have been will take shape this week.
given in each question below one of which is an b). Qatar will be the top-seeded team in Group A,
odd one out. You are required to read the same taking position A1 in the schedule.
carefully and choose the option with the odd c). Qatar’s debut opens the tournament, Nov. 21
sentence as your answer. at Al Bayt Stadium.
104. d). The entry list for the forthcoming Federation
a). The BJP had constituted a five-member team Cup athletics has been released.
in the aftermath of the violence in which eight e). It means in the group stage Qatar avoids the
people were burnt alive. world’s top-ranked teams, from Nos.1 to 7
b). The five members on the panel include Rajya A. a
Sabha member and former Uttar Pradesh B. b
Director General of Police Brajlal. C. c
c). Following an order of the Calcutta High Court, D. d
the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has E. e
taken over the probe into the Birbhum violence.
d). West Bengal BJP chief Sukanta Majumdar — 106.
met BJP president J.P. Nadda and presented the a). The government has increased the education
report on Wednesday. budget, crossing Rs 1 lakh crore for the first time.
e). Claiming that “state-sponsored extortion, b). The Centre and states work together to
goonda tax and cut-money” were the main increase the public investment in education
reasons for the violence, the report said the sector to reach 6 percent of Gross Domestic
Centre should intervene. Product (GDP) at the earliest
A. a c). The recent grants have been provided for
B. b incentivizing our education field.
C. c d). Though we have not been informed yet when
D. d we will be able to adapt to in-person learning, it
E. e seems it will be done by summer.
e). How long will the government take to meet the
105. target of increasing public investment in
education?

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
A. a II). LIC agents are the largest insurance sales
B. b force in the country by far, accounting for 55% of
C. c the total number of agents in the country.
D. d a). in spite of that
E. e b). in fact
C). instead
Directions (107-109): In the following questions, A. both a & c
two sentences are given and followed by 3 B. both b & c
connecting words. Find which of the words C. only a
connects both the sentences. If none of the D. only b
options is correct then mark Option E as your E. None of these
answer.
107. 109.
I). High inflation adversely affects the poor, even I). India has recorded the highest ever shipments
making necessities unaffordable in certain in April that helped exports remain strong.
situations. II). India’s high value of imports caused the trade
II). Individuals form expectations about how deficit to widen slightly over the previous month
prices will behave in the future to take because of the prolonged Russia-Ukraine conflict.
precautions. a). but
a). subsequently b). so
b). therefore c). still
c). during the time A. both a & b
A. only c B. only b
B. both b & c C. both a & c
C. only a D. only a
D. only b E. None of these
E. None of these
Directions (110-112): The given questions carry a
108. table in which parts of sentences have been
I). LIC’s 1.3 million agents (as of December 2021) given. You must choose the option that contains
are not an endangered species for sure. the pairs that when matched would form

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
grammatically and contextually correct
sentences.
110.

A. A-F, B-E, C-D

B. B-E, C-D
C. A-E, B-D
A. B-F, C-E D. None matches
B. A-E, C-D E. A-D, B-E, C-F
C. A-D, B-E
D. C-E Directions (113-115): There are two different
E. B-D sentences with a blank space in each question.
Choose the word from the given options which
111. fits into both the blanks appropriately without
altering their meanings.
113.
1). The only difficulty in this ______________is to
secure debtors that will not die.
2). She was in a state of rare contentment,
an_____________ to the gaiety that was hers By
nature.
A. B-E, C-D A. accretion
B. A-F, C-E B. increase
C. B-D, A-E C. enlargement
D. C-E, A-D D. accessory
E. A-E, C-F E. None of the above

112. 114.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
1). It was feared that there could be a that can best replace the highlighted words to
__________________ unsettling of established form a meaningful paragraph.
governments and a new political order could The Indian nation is at a crossroads. While the
come into being, oriented away from the world is going through a phase of undeclared
traditional leadership of the region. economic recession, pacified and complicated by
2). On the other hand, __________________ Covid-19 and now by the protracted war between
emigration was not sufficient to remove the evil. Russia and Ukraine, India's economy is stable
A. comprehensively and growing the fastest. But our economic
B. wholesale progress is far backward our true potential. India
C. voluminous is a gifted nation from the point of view of natural
D. extensive resources and bounties as it shows a latent
E. haphazard potential and promise for high growth-even in the
ideal circumstances outlined above. The
115. intangible potential for the explosive growth of the
1). The French President Emmanuel Macron’s economy is even today strikingly visible.
new centrist party is ______________poised for a 116. Which of the given words would best replace
landslide victory in the parliamentary elections. the word ‘pacified’ as given above?
2). The opinion of parliament on two other A. Inflamed
questions during the session was, B. Worsened
______________, influenced by events in France. C. Intensify
A. evidently D. Assuaged
B. seemingly E. No replacement needed
C. ostensibly
D. apparently 117. Which of the given words would best replace
E. All of the above the word ‘backward’ as used above?
A. Below
Directions (116-120): The given paragraph has B. Ahead
words highlighted in it. These words might either C. Over
be correct or inappropriate in usage. You must D. Under
read the same carefully and choose the options E. No replacement needed

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
118. Choose the option that replaces the word C. Viable
‘latent’ as used above. D. Favourable
A. Hidden E. No replacement needed
B. Untapped
C. Obvious 120. Which of the given words would provide a
D. Naïve better meaning to the line by replacing
E. No replacement needed ‘intangible’?
A. Active
119. Which word from the options would come in B. Organic
place of ‘ideal’ as used above? C. Essential
A. Adverse D. Inherent
B. Classic E. No replacement needed
General Awareness

121. Recently (Feb 2024), which organization's D. Cryptocurrency Exchange license

milk processing unit did Prime Minister Narendra E. Merchant Acquiring license
Modi visit during his inauguration of development
projects in Varanasi? 123. Recently (March 2024), who has been
A. Amirtham Dairy Union Corporation appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer
B. Patanjali Ayurved Limited (CEO) of the World Gold Council in India?
C. Banaskantha District Cooperative Milk A. Sachin Jain
Producers Union Ltd B. Ramesh Gupta
D. Mother Dairy Fruit & Vegetable Pvt. Ltd C. Neha Sharma
E. Parag Milk Foods Ltd D. Vikram Singh
E. Priya Patel
122. Which license does Amazon Pay already
hold in addition to the newly acquired payment 124. Which of the following statements about
aggregator (PA) license from the Reserve Bank Homosep Atom, India's first septic tank/manhole
of India (RBI)? cleaning robot, is correct?
A. Prepaid Payment Instruments license I). The technology was developed by a startup
B. Digital Lending license incubated in the DST-Technology Business
C. Payment Gateway license Incubator (TBI) of IIT Madras.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
II). Homosep Atom utilizes robotic cleaning bought 8.7 tonnes of the metal in January 2024.
methods instead of manual cleaning methods. Which year did the RBI begin purchasing gold in
III). Initially, the application of Homosep Atom order to increase its reserves?
was limited to Madurai and did not extend to A. 2020
other cities. B. 2017
A. Only I C. 2019
B. Only I and III D. 2016
C. Only II and III E. 2018
D. Only I and II
E. All I, II and III 128. Lama Lobzang, a well-known Buddhist monk
from __________ and a former member of the
125. In Acko, Who has taken over as the new National Commission for Scheduled Castes and
CEO of its subsidiary company- ACKO General Scheduled Tribes, passed away in New Delhi.
Insurance? A. Greenland
A. Chandra Kanth B. Ladakh
B. Srinivasan C. Iceland
C. Kailash Sri D. Greece
D. Animesh Das E. Nepal
E. Varun Dua
129. Tiger Triumph - 24, a bilateral tri-service
126. Which state launched the first Generative Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief
Artificial Intelligence (AI) teacher robot in India, (HADR) exercise between India and which
called "_______," marking a significant country is under the established partnership
advancement in the field of education? between the two countries?
A. Karnataka & Iria A. Italy
B. Telangana & Irea B. Singapore
C. Tamil Nadu & Igrow C. Malaysia
D. Kerala & Iris D. United States
E. Goa & Ilea E. Hungary

127. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) made its 130. How many Member States currently
largest gold purchase since July 2022 when it comprise the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
(SCO), as 4th edition of the Shanghai B). Raj Kumar Goyal – (ii) Chairman of the Staff
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Startup Forum Selection Commission
was recently (Mar 2024) organized in New Delhi? C). Rajendra Kumar – (iii) Lokpal Secretary
A. 6 D). Rakesh Ranjan – (iv) Secretary, Department
B. 9 of Justice
C. 8 A. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
D. 10 B. A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
E. 12 C. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
D. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
131. Who are the joint recipients of the 2024 E. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
GiRA Prize for their pioneering contributions to
social and environmental inequalities research? 134. According to the recent news (April 2024),
A. Bina Argawal Due to very high valuations and the approaching
B. Prasada Rao general elections, FPIs have been more cautious
C. James K. Boyce and withdrew Rs. 325 crore from Indian equities
D. Both A and C in the first week of April 2024. In FPI, what is P
E. Both B and C stands for?
A. Premium
132. In April 2024, What is the primary purpose of B. Profit
the cVIGIL app launched by the Election C. Portfolio
Commission of India? D. Predict
A. To facilitate online voting E. Principle
B. To provide real-time election results 135. Recently (April 2024), To commemorate
C. To report violations of the model code of _________ years since the Washington Treaty
conduct during elections was signed, North Atlantic Treaty Organization
D. To distribute campaign material to voters (NATO) Foreign Ministers convened at NATO
E. To conduct opinion polls Headquarters in Brussels, Belgium.
A. 50
133. Match the following recent (May 2024) B. 75
appointments according to their positions. C. 100
A). Pradip Kumar Tripathi – (i) Border D. 125
Management Secretary E. 150

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
A). The Indian Army is undertaking two projects
136. Recently (April 2024), The Government of worth over Rs 6,800 crore to develop indigenous
India (GoI) nominated Manoj Panda, a former Very Short Range Air Defence (VSHORAD)
director of the Institute of Economic Growth, as a systems.
full-time member of the 16th Finance B). The first project, valued at Rs 4,800 crore, is
Commission. Who does he replace? focused on developing a laser beam riding
A. Rajiv Kumar VSHORADS.
B. Niranjan Rajadhyaksha C). This project involves collaboration between a
C. Mohan Singh Hyderabad-based defense Public Sector
D. Raghuram Rajan Undertaking (PSU) and a private sector firm from
E. Arvind Subramanian Pune.
D). The Defence Research and Development
137. According to the Central Electricity Authority Organisation (DRDO) is leading the development
(CEA), Uttar Pradesh led the way regarding new of an infra-red homing-based Very Short Range
transmission lines added by state transmission Air Defence (VSHORADS) system.
utilities in FY24. Which state ranks second? A. Only A
A. Rajasthan B. Only B
B. Gujarat C. Only C
C. Tamil Nadu D. Only D
D. Bihar E. All are true
E. Andhra Pradesh 140. In 2023, India ranked as the ____________-
138. The '_____________', which was initiated on highest military spender globally, having spent
April 13, 1984, completed 40 years on April 13, $83.6 billion to update a variety of weaponry and
the Indian Army observed Siachen Day. fighting systems.
A. Operation Veer A. 4th
B. Operation Sakthi B. 5th
C. Operation Mighty C. 8th
D. Operation Meghdoot D. 7th
E. Operation Dare E. 6th

139. According to the VSHORADS system, which 141. At the 42nd Inter-Agency Space Debris
of the following statements is true? Coordination Committee (IADC) annual meeting,

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) B. 2017
Chairman S. Somanath declared the country's C. 2016
intention to accomplish debris-free space D. 2015
missions by what year? E. 2014
A. 2029
B. 2031 144. According to the recent news (May 2024),
C. 2030 Beneficiaries of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
D. 2032 Yojana (PM-JAY) have received free
E. 2033 hospitalization benefits of Rs 86,000 crore since
the initiative was launched in what year?
142. On Earth Day, the National Bank for A. 2018
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) B. 2017
launched its Climate Strategy 2030 document, C. 2016
which aims to meet India's growing demand for D. 2015
green funding. Who has issued the Climate E. 2014
Strategy 2030 document?
A. Gopu Kiren 145. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
B. Aditya Jay India (FSSAI) has ordered a comprehensive
C. Ashok Vaswani examination of spices from all brands across the
D. Shaji KV country. Where is the FSSAI's headquarters
E. Anand Ranjan situated in India?
A. Pune
143. Recently (May 2024), The Reserve Bank of B. New Delhi
India (RBI) has permitted standalone primary C. Kolkata
dealers (SPDs) to borrow in foreign currency from D. Surat
their parent firms and other organizations it has E. Bengaluru
authorized. They can also use the overdraft
feature in their nostro accounts for operational 146. Investments through participation notes in
needs. Which year did SPDs become authorized Indian capital markets reached Rs 1.5 lakh crore
to provide forex products to clients, including by the end of February 2024, the highest level in
international portfolio investors? over six years, owing to the domestic economy's
A. 2018

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
strong development. Who issues participatory 149. Recently (May 2024), which book's cover
notes (P-notes)? design earned Bhavi Mehta the 9th edition of the
A. Venture capitalists Oxford Bookstore Book Cover Prize?
B. Foreign Portfolio Investors A. The Book Thief
C. Private Equity Investors B. The Book of Lost Things
D. P2P lender C. The Book of Tomorrow
E. Crowdfunding D. The Bookshop of Yesterday
E. The Book Beautiful
147. According to the recent news (May 2024), In
which season did Mumbai City FC emerge as the 150. Which country did César Luis Menotti, who
winners of the Indian Super League (ISL) by recently passed away at the age of 85, lead to its
defeating Mohun Bagan Super Giant in the final? first World Cup title in 1978?
A. 7th A. Argentina
B. 8th B. Germany
C. 9th C. Italy
D. 10th D. Brazil
E. 11th E. Spain

148. Recently (May 2024), The MEDITECH 151. Under the Drone Didi Yojana, the Ministry of
STACKATHON 2024 was launched by the Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
Department of Pharmaceuticals, under the entered into a Memorandum of Understanding
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Regarding (MoU) with Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd for the
market size, which rank does India hold for implementation of two Pilot Projects. What is the
medical devices in Asia? interest rate payable on a loan from the National
A. 1st Agriculture India Financing Facility (AIF) under
B. 2nd the NAMO Drone Didi Scheme?
C. 3rd A. 2%
D. 4th B. 4%
E. 5th C. 3%
D. 5%
E. 1%

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
152. Recently (May 2024), Which bank has 154. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), a global
introduced "PIXEL," an end-to-end, mobile app- leader in IT services, consulting, and business
based, customizable DIY digital card range? solutions, has announced the establishment of a
A. HDFC Bank Global Artificial Intelligence (AI) Center of
B. Federal Bank Excellence in Paris at the Choose France
C. ICICI Bank Summit, which was hosted by its President. Who
D. City Union Bank is the current president of France?
E. Axis Bank A. Vladimir Putin
B. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva
153. Recently (May 2024), One97 C. Justin Trudeau
Communications introduced the UPI Lite wallet, D. Emmanuel Macron
which simplifies payments, particularly for low- E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam
value transactions. According to that which of the
following statements is false? 155. Recently (May 2024), the first set of
A). Paytm's UPI Lite wallet offers a seamless citizenship certificates was issued to 14 people
payment experience, eliminating the need to under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) of
enter a PIN for each transaction. __________, nearly two months after the Centre
B). Users can make instant transactions of up to notified it, kicking off the process of granting
Rs 1000 each using the UPI Lite wallet. Indian nationality to persecuted non-Muslim
C). Additionally, they can add up to Rs 2,000 to migrants from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and
their wallet twice a day, totalling Rs 4,000 daily. Bangladesh.
D). Integration with major banks ensures a A. 2015
reliable payment experience for users. B. 2016
Leading banks such as Axis Bank, HDFC Bank, C. 2017
State Bank of India, and YES Bank are part of D. 2018
this collaboration. E. 2019
A. Only C
B. Only A 156. Recently (May 2024), Which of the following
C. All are True Indian literary legacies have been added to the
D. Only D UNESCO Memory of the World Asia-Pacific
E. Only B Regional Register, indicating a notable
achievement for India?

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
A. Ramcharitmanas D. 2010
B. Sahrdayaloka-Locana E. 2011
C. Panchatantra
D. Only A & B 159. Which state's chief minister introduced the
E. All A, B & C "Savera" program to identify rising female breast
cancer cases early?
157. Recently (May 2024) Pine Labs, an Indian A. Sikkim
merchant payment provider, has collaborated B. Haryana
with which bank to offer payment solutions to the C. Bihar
latter's commercial clients? D. Assam
A. U.S. Bancorp E. Punjab
B. Barclays Bank
C. Wio Bank 160. Recently (Feb 2024), the CCPA authority
D. Emirates NBD has issued draft guidelines for the prevention and
E. National Bank of Oman control of greenwashing for public comment.
158. Recently (May 2024), legendary Indian What does CCPA stand for?
banker Narayanan Vaghul, recipient of the A. Central Consumer Prevention Authority
Padma Bhushan award, passed away. In which B. Central Customer Protect Authority
year he got the Padma Bhushan award? C. Central Clean Process Authority
A. 2007 D. Central Consumer Protection Authority
B. 2008 E. Central Consumer Plantation Authority
C. 2009

Computer Knowledge

161. _________ is the specialized OS for use in

computers which are built into larger systems. 162. When you complete the mail and click the
A. Embedded OS "Send" button, then the mail will automatically be
B. Real time OS sent to all the recipients’ is called as ________
C. Mobile OS A. To
D. Network OS B. Carbon Copy
E. None of these C. Band Carbon Copy

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
D. Band Curtesy Copy C. Primary Key
E. Both c and d D. Composite Key
E. Alternate Key
163. Which one of the following is correct about
Installation? 166. Which of the following was the world's first
A. The process of transferring files from a electronic programmable computing device?
computer on the internet to your computer on the A. EDVAC
internet to your computer. B. ENIAC
B. Software that prevents unauthorized persons C. PC
from accessing certain parts of a program, D. Colossus
database or network. E. None of these
C. A set of guidelines or standards that establish 167. ________ ensure secure transfer of data over
the format in which files can be transmitted from an unsecured network, such as the Internet
one computer to another. A. Antivirus
D. The process of copying software programs B. Hacking
from secondary storage media to the hard disk C. Cracking
E. Transforming of logic and data from design D. Spoofing
specifications (design descriptions) into a E. Cryptography
programming language
168. A term used to describe services over a
164. Which of the following operating system is network by a collection of servers refers to
not licensed by any company? ________.
A. Windows A. Hardware
B. Apple B. Master network
C. UNIX C. Cloud computing
D. LINUX D. Superior Server
E. None of these E. None of these

165. A special key that uniquely identifies each 169. Verification means we are building _______
record in the table is known as ___________. and Validation means are we building ________
A. Super Key A. Right product, Product Right
B. Candidate Key B. Product Right, Right Product

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C. Check procedure, Do Procedure B. Runtime polymorphism
D. Good Product, Right Product C. Early Binding
E. None of these D. Both a and b
E. None of these
170. In Power Point, the Header & Footer button
can be found on the Insert tab in what group? 174. In which type of malicious act, hacker
A. Illustration group contacts you by phone or email and attempts to
B. Object group acquire your password?
C. Table group A. Spoofing
D. Text group B. Phishing
E. None of these C. Spamming
D. Bugging
171. Which one of the following shortcut keys is E. None of these
used for Find and Replace?
A. Ctrl + H 175. John Napier invented Logarithm in______
B. Ctrl + P A. 1614
C. Ctrl + F B. 1617
D. Ctrl + K C. 1620
E. None of These D. 1724
E. None of the above
172. When was the world’s first laptop computer
introduced in the market and by whom? 176. Mnemonic is a memory trick used in which
A. Hewlett-Packard, 1980 of the following language?
B. Osborne, 1981 A. Machine language
C. Laplink Traveling Software Inc, 1982 B. Assembly language
D. Tandy Model-200, 1985 C. High level language
E. None of these D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
173. If we declare a method with same name and
same parameter/signature in the different class is 177. Identify the correct statement
called as ______. A. IBM PCs used RISC CPU designs
A. Compile time polymorphism B. Macintosh used CISC CPU design

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C. IBM used CISC CPU design B. Flash Fill
D. None of above is true C. Spark lines
E. All of the above is true D. Slicer
E. None of the above
178. FORTRAN programming language is more
suitable for 182. __________ ports connect special types of
A. Business Applications music instruments to sound cards.
B. Marketing Applications A. MIDI
C. Scientific Applications B. CPU
D. None of the above C. USB
E. Both B and C D. BUS
E. OCR
179. What is the purpose of “IS” command in
Linux? 183. Which among the following need to be
A. Repeat last word of last command line refreshed frequently to maintain the data?
B. Repeat entire last command line A. SRAM
C. Count the number of arguments B. DRAM
D. Match to unknown values C. EPROM
E. None of these D. EEPROM
E. PROM
180. Auxiliary memory is also called
_______________. 184. Which number system is commonly used as
A. Primary memory a shortcut notation for groups of our binary digits?
B. Third memory A. Binary
C. Extra memory B. Decimal
D. Secondary memory C. Octal
E. None of the above D. Hexadecimal
E. None of these
181. A graph that can fit into one cell and gives
the information about the data is known as 185. __________ is also known as inkless printer.
_____________. A. Thermal printer
A. Chart B. Inkjet printer

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C. OCR D. Format Transformation
D. Dot Matrix printer E. None of these
E. None of these
190. E-R modelling technique uses which
186. Computers process data into information by approach?
working exclusively with A. top-down approach
A. Multimedia B. bottom-up approach
B. Words C. left-right approach
C. Characters D. Both top-down and bottom-up
D. Numbers E. None of these
E. None of these
191. Which among the following is the reboot
187. The point at which the flow of text in a where the power to the system is physically
document moves to the top of a new page– turned off and back on again, causing an initial
A. Page insert boot of the machine?
B. Page break A. Toggle
C. Page format B. Cold booting
D. All of the above C. Warm booting
E. None of the above D. Logging off
E. None of these
188. The smallest unit of information about a
record in a database is called a 192. Which of the following Office programs
A. Cell offers the animation feature?
B. Field A. Word
C. Record B. Excel
D. Query C. PowerPoint
E. None of these D. Access
E. None of these
189. The full form of “FORTRAN” is________.
A. File Translation 193. Which company is credited to start the first
B. Format Translation computer industry?
C. Formula Translation A. IBM

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
B. Apple A. Primary Key
C. Compaq B. Unique
D. HCL C. Null
E. None of these D. Foreign key
194. UDP and TCP are categorised under the E. None of these
_________ layer of the OSI model.
A. Physical 198. Which of the following are valid minimum &
B. Data link maximum zoom sizes in MS word?
C. Application A. 0, 100
D. Transport B. 0, 1000
E. Network C. 10, 500
D. 10, 100
195. Copying a process from memory to disk to E. None of these
allow space for other processes is called
__________. 199. In which generation did multi-programming
A. Swapping start?
B. Deadlock A. First generation
C. Demand Paging B. Second generation
D. Page Fault C. Third generation
E. Cloud Computing D. Fourth generation
E. None of these
196. What was the name of the 1st
microprocessor built by Intel? 200. Who among the following is said to be
A. 8008 inventor of vacuum tubes?
B. 8080 A. Alexander Strand
C. 4004 B. Lee de Forest
D. 8800 C. John Ambrose Fleming
E. None of these D. Charles Babbage
E. None of the above
197. Which constraint is used for preventing
duplicability of data in the tables?
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5):  Q sits immediate left of T.

Final Arrangement  Q travelled five cities more than V.
 U sits third to the right of the one who
travelled two cities more than P.
 P sits second to the left of R.
We have,
Case 2 can be eliminated as Q travelled five cities
 W sits fourth to the left of the one who
more than V.
travelled to 12 cities where none of them
sits at the end of the row.
 The number of persons sitting to the left of
W is one lessthan the number of persons
sitting to the right of the one who travelled
to 10 cities.
 V sits immediate left of the one who
travelled to 6 cities.
 The number of persons sitting between V
and S is two lessthan the number of Finally, we have

persons sitting between the one who  The difference between the number of

travelled to 6 cities and W. cities travelled by Q and the one who sits

We have three possibilities from the above immediate left of R is the same as the

conditions. difference between the number of cities

travelled by the one who sits immediate
right of U and the one who sits second to
the right of V.
 The sum of the number of cities travelled
by S and U is the same as the sum of the
number of cities travelled by T and W.
 P travelled twice the number of cities
travelled by the one who sits immediate left
of W.

Again, we have

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Case 3 can be eliminated as no one sit second to
the right of V.

1. Answer: C
2. Answer: A
3. Answer: E
4. Answer: D
Directions (9-13):
5. Answer: A
Final Arrangement

6. Answer: D

7. Answer: C We have,
 J attends on an odd numbered date of the
month having 31 days.
 Only two persons attend between the one
who wrote History exam and J.
 As many persons attend the exam before
the one who wrote History exam as after
O.
There are two possibilities from the above
conditions.
8. Answer: B

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023

Again we have, Now we have,

 I attends immediately before the one who
 K attends three persons before the one
who wrote Physics exam. wrote Biology exam.
 J neither wrote Biology nor Economics
 K and O attend on the same date.
 M attends two persons after the one who exams.
 The number of persons attending the exam
wrote Physics exam.
 At least one person attends after M. before N is one morethan the number of

Case 1 and case 3 can be eliminated based on persons attending the exam after the one

the above conditions as at least one person who wrote Chemistry exam.

attends after M, who attends two persons after Again there are two possibilities from the above

the one wrote physics. conditions for placing N and the one who wrote
chemistry.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023

Finally, we have 9. Answer: B

 P attends two persons after the one who 10. Answer: E
attends immediately after the one who 11. Answer: C
wrote Economics exam. 12. Answer: A
 The one who wrote Philosophy exam 13. Answer: B
attends three persons after the one who
attends immediately before the one who 14. Answer: C
wrote Maths exam. Form I: B > Q (B > R = S > Z ≤ L = Q) → False
Case 2b can be eliminated based on the above From II: Z < H (H > T ≥ R = S > Z) → True
conditions as we cannot place P. Hence 2a is the From III: Q = B (B > R = S > Z ≤ L = Q) → False
final Hence, only conclusion II is true.
arrangement.
15. Answer: E
Form I: W > U (W = K ≥ M < S = G > U) → False
From II: Q < L (Q ≤ T < W = K ≥ M = L) → False
From III: Z > U (Z > L = M < S = G > U) → False
Hence, none of the conclusions are true.

16. Answer: B
Form I: H > M (H > Q = S > T ≤ W = M) → False

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
From II: S < T (Q = S > T ≤ W = M > Z ≥ Y) →  L sits second to the left of the one who sits
False immediate left of the one who likes
From III: Q ≥ T (Q = S > T ≤ W = M > Z ≥ Y) → Snickers.
False  S sits opposite to the one who sits second
to the left of the one who likes Toblerone.
Directions (17-21):  Two persons sit between P and the one
Final Arrangement who likes Toblerone.
 L and S face the same direction.
 O sits second to the left of the one who sits
immediate right of M.
 N and M are not immediate neighbours.
 As many persons sit between Q and N as
between the one who sits immediate left of
S and the one who likes Parle.
From the above conditions we get two

We have, possibilities from Case 1, i.e, Case 1a and Case

 R sits third to the left of the one who likes 1b. We also have Case 2. Hence we have three

Twix. possibilities from the above conditions.

 N sits immediate left of the one who sits

opposite to R, who does not face the
centre.
 One person sits between N and P.
There are two possibilities from the above
conditions.

Again, we have

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023

Finally, we have
 The one who likes the Milky Way sits
immediate left of the one who sits second
to the right of the one who likes Amul, who
does not sit adjacent to L.
 The one who likes Nestle sits third to the
right of Q.
 The number of persons sitting between the
17. Answer: C
one who uses Nestle and the one who
18. Answer: C
likes Toblerone is one morethan the
19. Answer: C
number of persons sitting between the one
20. Answer: C
who likes Twix and the one who likes
21. Answer: E
Cadbury when counted from the right of
the one who likes Nestle.
Directions (22-24):
Case 1a and Case 1b can be eliminated based
on the above conditions as we cannot place the
one who likes Milkyway and the one who like
Amul.
Hence Case 2 is the final arrangement.

22. Answer: B

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
23. Answer: D  The one who lives in Florence likes
24. Answer: E Snowboarding.
 Neither B nor D likes Snowboarding.
Directions (25-29):  The one who likes Running does not live
Final Arrangement with the one who likes Cycling.
 The one who likes Aerobics lives with the
one who likes Singing.
 F does not like Aerobics.
 D neither likes Cycling nor Running.
Case 1 can be eliminated based on the above
conditons as the one who likes Running does not
live with the one who like Cycling.
We have,
Hence Case 2 is the final arrangement.
 E likes Climbing and lives only with A.
 G lives in Florence.
 C likes Gardening and neither lives with G
nor A.
 H lives in Barcelona.
 The one who lives in Cannes likes either
Cycling or Acting.
 The one who likes Singing lives in
Barcelona. 25. Answer: A
There are two possibilities from the above 26. Answer: C
conditions. 27. Answer: E
28. Answer: A
29. Answer: A

Directions (30-31):

Again we have,
 Neither B nor D lives in the same city of H.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Step IV:50 Gray 12 meet 33 laid 25 home 82 29
firm gate
Step V:50 Gray 12 meet 33 laid 25 home 82 firm
29 gate
32. Answer: B
33. Answer: B
34. Answer: C
35. Answer: D
30. Answer: B
31. Answer: E
36. Answer: B
The statement says that the demand for vehicles
Directions (32-35):
will go up so we can conclude that the policy has
In each step, one number and one word are
the capacity to change the automobile sector of
arranged simultaneously.
India.
For Words Arrangement: Words are arranged in
So, statement I is correct.
alphabetical order from the left end according to
Statement II is not correct as it is more like an
the second letter from the right end of the word.
extra information and does not work well as a
For Numbers Arrangement: The product of the
conclusion.
digits within the number is obtained based on the
resultant the original numbers are arranged in
37. Answer: A
ascending order from the left end.
The problem given in the statement is that the
Hence, on given machine input we get the
mountain trails are facing a huge problem of
following arrangement.
waste. Obviously it is being left like that by the
Input: 82 29 firm 50 home gate 25 gray 33 laid
visitors.
meet 12
Looking at statement (I); if camping is disallowed,
Step I:50 Gray 82 29 firm home gate 25 33 laid
people will visit the place and come back. If they
meet 12
are allowed to get comfortable there they will
Step II:50 Gray 12 meet 82 29 firm home gate 25
organize parties, picnics and leave more waste
33 laid
above. So, though partially it does help solve the
Step III:50 Gray 12 meet 33 laid 82 29 firm home
problem
gate 25
Statement (II) however doesn’t solve the problem
as it is not only the foreigners who leave the

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
trash. Most people who go there are responsible. The airlines have already discounted the fares
So, this will not solve or lessen the problem. and as per the statement this step has been
Hence, option (a) is the correct choice taken in order to increase the demand.
If they assume I, they would take the step in the
38. Answer: A statement
When we read the following lines in the If they assume II, they would take the step in the
paragraph -> ‘today’s western youth have not statement
known a world without them’ can be used to infer Hence, both I and II are good to be called as
that things like cheques etc have now been assumptions.
replaced by ATMs. So, statement (I) follows.
Statement (II) however, gives different information 40. Answer: D
which cannot be called as an inference because After reading the statement, we can find that
an inference is drawn based on the facts in the neither I nor II can be inferred from the same.
statement and nothing of the sort mentioned in (II) Both I and II are related to the idea being
has been given in the same. discussed but none can clearly be deduced from
as nothing about their decline has been clearly
39. Answer: D mentioned and also the present year progress
has not been discussed
Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (41-44): a = 70
Let the number of tables sold by shop A be 2a. Number of tables sold by shop A = 2 * 70 = 140
Then the number of chairs old by shop A = 3a. Number of chairs sold by shop A = 3 * 70 = 210
Number of tables sold by Shop B = 2a + 10 Cost price of each table in shop A = Rs.240
Number of chairs sold by Shop B = 80 The price of each chair in shop A = Rs.200
Number of tables sold by Shop C = 180 Cost price of each table in shop B = Rs.260
Number of chairs sold by Shop C = 320 – 180 = Cost price of each chair in shop B = Rs.210
140 Cost price of each table in shop C = 240 * (3/2) =
Number of tables sold by Shop B = 180 * (5/6) = Rs.360
150 Cost price of each chair in shop C = 210 * (6/5) =
2a + 10 = 150 Rs.252
2a = 140

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Required percentage = (126 * 6/5 * 200 + 84 * 3/4
* 200 – 210 * 200)/(210 * 200) * 100 = (151.2 + 63
– 210)/210 * 100 = 4.2/210 * 100 = 2% profit

Directions (45-49):

41. Answer: C Total number of students in section A = 200 *

Selling price of each furniture sold in Shop A = (18/100) = 36

(240 + 200) * (3/4) = Rs.330 Total number of students in section B = 200 *

Total number of furniture sets sold in Shop A = (25/100) = 50

140 Total number of students in section C = 200 *

Total revenue generated in Shop A = 140 * 330 + (22/100) = 44

70 * 200 = 46200 + 14000 = Rs.60200 Total number of students in section D = 200 *

(20/100) = 40

42. Answer: A Total number of students in section E = 200 *

Number of broken tables sold by shop B = 150 * (15/100) = 30

(30/100) = 45 Number of boys in section A = 80 * (10/100) = 8

Number of broken chairs sold by shop B = 80 * Number of boys in section B = 80 * (20/100) = 16

(45/100) = 36 Number of boys in section C = 80 * (30/100) = 24

Required sum = 45 + 36 = 81 Number of boys in section D = 80 * (25/100) = 20

43. Answer: D Number of boys in section E = 80 * (15/100) = 12

Number of tables sold by shop D = 140 * Number of girls in section A = 36 – 8 = 28

(125/100) = 175 Number of girls in section B = 50 – 16 = 34

Number of chairs sold by shop D = 80 * (250/100) Number of girls in section C = 44 – 24 = 20

= 200 Number of girls in section D = 40 – 20 = 20

Total tables and chairs sold by shop D = 175 + Number of girls in section E = 30 – 12 = 18

200 = 375

44. Answer: B
Number of chairs sold by shop A at 20% profit =
210 * (60/100) = 126
Number of chairs sold by shop A at 25% loss =
210 – 126= 84

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
45. Answer: B Number of boys in section C = 24
Total number of students participated in dance Number of girls in section D = 20
competition from section C = 44 * 75/100 = 33 Then, (16 + 24)/2 = 20
Number of girls who participated in dance 40/2 = 20
competition from section C = 20 * 60/100 = 12 20 = 20
The number of boys who participated in dance Statement iii is correct.
competition from section C = 33 – 12 = 21 Only i and iii are correct.
Percentage of boys who participated in dance
competition from section C = (21/24) * 100 = 48. Answer: A
87.5% Required percentage = ((16 + 24)/(28 + 34 + 18))
* 100 = (40/80) * 100 = 50%
46. Answer: D
Number of girls in section F = 28 + 12= 40 49. Answer: C
Number of boys in section F = 16 * (5/4) = 20 Required ratio = ((8 + 16 + 12)/3) : ((28 + 20 +
Total number of students in section F = 40 + 20 = 18)/3) = 12 : 22 = 6 : 11
60
Directions (50-54):
47. Answer: C Total cars manufactured by Showroom A = 110 +
From i, 70 = 180
Number of girls in section E = 18 P = 180
Number of boys in section C = 24 Number of cars manufactured by showroom D =
Then, (18/24) * 100 180 * (100/150) = 120
= 75% z + 15 = 120
Statement i is correct. z = 105
From ii, Number of cars unsold in showroom D = 120 – 52
Number of girls in section B = 34 = 68
Number of boys in section C = 24 y = 68
Then, ((34 – 24)/24) * 100 Number of cars sold by showroom C = y + 32 =
= 41.66% 68 + 32 = 100
Statement ii is incorrect. Number of cars manufactured by showroom C =
From iii, 100 + 160 = 260
Number of boys in section B = 16 x + 176 = 260

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
x = 84 iii is incorrect.
Number of cars sold by showroom B = 84 + 20 = Only i and ii are correct.
104
51. Answer: D
Total number of petrol cars manufactured by
showroom A = 180 * (60/100) = 108
Number of diesel cars manufactured by
showroom A = 180 – 108 = 72
Number of diesel cars sold by showroom A = 110
* (5/11) = 50
P = 180, x = 84, y = 68, z = 105
Number of diesel cars unsold by showroom A =
50. Answer: B
72 – 50 = 22
The car unsold in showroom B = 120
The car unsold in showroom C = 160
52. Answer: A
The car unsold in showroom D = 68
Number of cars still unsold by Showroom C = 160
The average of the car unsold in showroom B, C,
* (3/5) = 96
and D = (120 + 160 + 68)/3
= 348/3 = 116
53. Answer: C
From i,
Number of cars manufactured by Showroom S =
1.5x – 10
3 * 84= 252
= 1.5 * 84 – 10
Number of cars unsold by Showroom S= 2 * 68 =
= 116
136
i is correct.
Number of cars sold by Showroom S = 252 – 136
From ii,
= 116
2y – 20
Required average = (104 + 116)/2 = 220/2 = 110
= 2 * 68 – 20
= 116
54. Answer: D
ii is correct.
Number of cars sold by Showroom G = 110 *
From iii,
(14/11) = 140
0.5P + 42
Number of cars manufactured by Showroom G =
= 0.5 * 180 + 16
140 * (100/40) = 350
= 106
Number of cars unsold by Showroom G = 210

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Required sum = 210 + 70 = 280
59. Answer: B
55. Answer: A 2
6 * 2 + 2 = 14 2 + 13 + 1 = 4
14 * 2 + 2 = 30 4 + 23 – 1 = 11
30 * 2 + 2 = 62 11 + 33 + 1 = 39
62 * 2 + 2 = 126 39 + 43 – 1 = 102
126 * 2 + 2 = 254 102 + 53 + 1 = 228
The missing number is 14 Missing number is 228.

56. Answer: C 60. Answer: E

2 * 13 = 26 H.C.F of a and b is 1 means a and b both are co-
26 * 11 = 286 prime numbers.
286 * 7 = 2002 So a = 8, and b = 11
2002 * 5 = 10010 Then, x2 – 8x – 105 = 0
10010 * 3 = 30030 x2 – (15 – 7) x – 105 = 0
The missing number is 26. x2 – 15x + 7x – 105 = 0
x(x – 15) + 7(x – 15) = 0
57. Answer: B (x – 15) (x + 7) = 0
110 + 12 + 1 = 112 x = 15, -7
112 + 22 + 1 = 117 y2 – 11y – 6y + 72 = 0
117 + 32 + 1 = 127 y2 – 17y + 72 = 0
127 + 42 + 1 = 144 y2 – (9 + 8) y + 72 = 0
144 + 52 + 1 = 170 y2 – 9y – 8y + 72 = 0
The missing number is 144. y(y – 9) – 8(y – 9) = 0
(y – 9) (y – 8) = 0
58. Answer: D y = 9, 8
x = y or the relation cannot be established

61. Answer: E
√(a2 + b2) = 4√10
The missing number is 599. √((3b)2 + b2) = 4√10

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
√10b = 4√10 y (y – 7) (y + 11) = 0
b=4 y = 0, 7, - 11
a = 3 * 4 = 12 x = y or the relation cannot be established
x2 – (a + b)x + 39 = 0
x2 – (12 + 4)x + 39 = 0 63. Answer: B
x2 – 16x + 39 = 0 Investment of A = x – 1200
x2 – (13 + 3)x + 39 = 0 Investment of B = x + 1800
x2 – 13x – 3x + 39 = 0 The ratio of profit of A to B = 3 : 8
x(x – 13) – 3(x – 13) = 0 The ratio of profit is the same as the ratio of
(x – 3) (x – 13) = 0 investment.
x = 13, 3 Then, (x – 1200)/(x + 1800) = 3/8
y2 – (1.5a – 0.25b)y + 72 = 0 8x – 9600 = 3x + 5400
y2 – (18 – 1)y + 72 = 0 5x = 15000
y2 – 17y + 72 = 0 x = 3000
y2 – (9 + 8)y + 72 = 0
y2 – 9y – 8y + 72 = 0 64. Answer: A
y(y – 9) -8(y – 9) = 0 Percentage of income spent on rent = x%
(y – 9) (y – 8) = 0 Percentage of income spent on food = (x + 10)%
y = 9, 8 Money left after spending on food and rent =
x = y or the relation cannot be established 100% - (2x + 10)%
Amount left with the person = (100% - (2x +
62. Answer: E 10)%) (64/100)
x(x2 + 2x – 63) = 0 Then, (100% - (2x + 10)%) (64/100) = 32
x(x2 + (9 – 7)x – 63) = 0 100% - (2x + 10)% = 50
x(x2 + 9x – 7x – 63) = 0 90 – 2x = 50
x(x(x + 9) – 7(x + 9)) = 0 2x = 40
x (x – 7) (x + 9) = 0 x = 20
x = 0, 7, -9
y(y2 +4y – 77) = 0 65. Answer: A
y(y2 + (11 – 7)y – 77) = 0 Set A = {x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8}
y(y2 + 11y – 7y – 77) = 0 Average of set A = [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6)
y(y(y + 11) – 7(y + 11)) = 0 + (x + 8)]/5 = 18

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
5x + 20 = 90 Required profit percent = (205/620) * 100
5x = 70 = 33.06%
x = 14 = 33%
Set A = {14, 16, 18, 20, 22}
Set B = {y, y + 2, y + 4, y + 6} 67. Answer: D
y: (y + 6) = 7: 9 Let speed of boat in still water and speed of
9y = 7y + 42 stream is ‘x’ km/h and ‘y’ km/h respectively.
2y = 42 Downstream speed of boat = (x + y)
y = 21 Upstream speed of boat = (x – y)
Set B = {21, 23, 25, 27} According to the question:
Set C = {z, z + 1, z + 2, z + 3, z + 4, z + 5} (x + y) – (x – y) = 6
z + 1 = 14 + 21 2y = 6
z + 1 = 35 y=3
z = 34 And,
Second largest number of set C = z + 4
= 38

66. Answer: B
Total cost price of items K, L, M, N, and O = 620 * 9(x – 3) = 3(x + 3)
5 = ₹ 3100 3x – 9 = x + 3
Total selling price of items K, L, M, N, and O = x + 2x = 12
(x + 25) + (x + 50) + (x + 75) + (x + 100) = (5x + x=6
250) Distance travelled by boat in 4 hours 10 minutes
According to the question: in still water = (4 + 10/60) * 6
125% of 3100 = 5x + 250 = (25/6) * 6
(5/4) of 3100 = 5x + 250 = 25 km
3100 = 4x + 200
4x = 2900 68. Answer: C
x = 725 Let the present age of A and B is ‘8x + 12’ and ‘9x
Selling price of item O = x + 100 = ₹ 825 + 12’ respectively.
Profit amount earned on item O = 825 – 620 =
₹ 205

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Let the present age of C and D is ‘25y – 8’ and Initial quantity of water in mixture A = 240 * (7/15)
‘29y – 8’ respectively. = 112 L
According to the question: Quantity of milk in mixture A when 30 L is taken
(25y – 8) – (9x + 12) = 12 out and replaced with same quantity of water =
25y – 9x = 32 ….. (1) 128 – 30 * (8/15) = 128 – 16 = 112 L
(9x + 12) + (29y – 8) = 80 Quantity of water in mixture A when 30 L is taken
9x + 29y = 76 out and replaced with same quantity of water =
9x = 76 – 29y ….. (2) 112 – 30 * (7/15) + 30 = 112 – 14 + 30 = 128 L
From (1) and (2): Ratio of milk to water in mixture A = 112 :128 = 7:
25y – (76 – 29y) = 32 8
54y = 108 Quantity of milk in mixture A when 60 L is taken
y=2 out and replaced with same quantity of water =
Present age of D = 29y – 8 112 – 60 * (7/15) = 112 – 28 = 84 L
= 58 – 8 Quantity of water in mixture A when 60 L is taken
= 50 years out and replaced with same quantity of water =
128 – 60 * (8/15) + 60 = 128 – 32 + 60 = 156 L
69. Answer: B Quantity of milk in mixture B = 260 * (8/13) = 160
When P and R working in alternate manner, they L
complete the work in 24 days, that mean P Quantity of water in mixture B = 260 * (5/13) =
worked for 12 days and R work for 12 days. 100 L
Total work = 12 x 3 +12 x 2 = 60 units Total quantity of milk when mixtures A and B are
Value of T = 60 / (3 + 2) = 12 days mixed = 84 + 160 = 244 L
Remaining work complete by S in = 12/2 = 6 days Total quantity of water when mixtures A and B are
Ratio of efficiency of Q and S respectively = 5:4 mixed = 156 + 100 = 256 L
So, time taken by Q alone to complete the work = Required difference = 256 – 244
(9x*4 + 4x * 6)/5 = 12 days = 12 L
Hence answer is option B
71. Answer: A
70. Answer: E Let the amount invested at compound interest = P
Initial quantity of milk in mixture A = 240 * (8/15) = According to the question:
128 L P * [(1 + 10/100)2 – 1] = 3780
P * 0.21 = 3780

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
P = 18000 73. Answer: E
Total amount received when invested at simple Let initial quantity of milk and water in the mixture
interest = ₹ 18000 is 16x and 9x respectively.
According to the question: Statement I alone:
Quantity of water in the mixture when water of
same quantity as already there in the mixture is
added = 9x + 9x = 18x
According to the question:
18x – 16x = 8
2x = 8

x + 500 = 12000 x=4

x = ₹ 11500 Total quantity of water in the mixture = 9x = 36 L

So, statement I alone is sufficient.

72. Answer: D Statement II alone:

Let number of students in class A and B are 9x 25% of total initial quantity of the mixture = 25%

and 11x respectively. of (16x + 9x) = 25% of 25x = 6.25x

According to the question: Quantity of water in the mixture when 6.25x L of

(9x + 10): 11x = 14: 11 water is added in the mixture = 9x + 6.25x =

9x + 10 = 14x 15.25x

5x = 10 According to the question:

x=2 16x – 15.25x = 3

Initial number of students in class A = 9x = 18 0.75x = 3

Initial number of students in class B = 11x = 22 x=4

Statement I: Total quantity of water in the mixture = 9x = 36 L

Difference between initial number of students in So, statement II alone is sufficient.

both the classes = 22 – 18 = 4 Hence, either statement I alone or statement II

So, statement I is not correct. alone is sufficient.

Statement II:
Number of girls in class B = 22 * (4/11) = 8 74. Answer: C

So, statement II is not correct. Ratio of investment of P and Q respectively = 3:4

Hence, both the statements are not correct. [3a, 4a]

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Ratio of investment of R and S respectively = 2:1
[2b, b] 75. Answer: A
Ratio of profit Share of P, Q, R and S = (3a x 2): Curved surface area of cone = 1755 cm2
(4a x 3): (2b x 3): (b x 2) Base area of cone = 1755 – 1080 = 675 cm2
= 3a: 6a: 3b: b Now,
From I 3 x R2 = 675
Profit share of R is six time as that of P Value of R = 15 cm
So, Also,
3a/3b = 1/6 3 x R x slant height of cone = 1755
Value of b = 6a So, slant height of cone = 1755/ (3 x 15) = 39 cm
So, ratio of profit share of P, Q, R, and S = So, Height of cone = (392 – 152)1/2 = 36 cm
3a:6a:3 x 6a:6a So, 2H – 4 = 36
= 1:2:6:2 Value of H = 20 cm
Profit share of Q and S together = [(2 + 2) / 11)] x Height of cylinder = 20 cm
3300 = Rs. 1200 Radius of cylinder = 15 – 3 = 12 cm
This statement is alone sufficient to answer the Volume of cylinder = 3 x 12 x 12 x 20 = 8640 cm3
question. Hence answer is option A
From II.
Ratio of profit share of P, Q, R, and S = 3a: 6a: 76. Answer: B
3b: b Total balls in bag = 2K + 3
Now, Black balls in bag = K
(3b – 6a) / (3a + 6a + 3b + b) = 1200/3300 So, white balls in bag = 2K + 3 – K = K + 3
(3b – 6a) x 11 = (9a + 4b) x 4 Now,
33b – 66a = 36a + 16b K + 3C2 / 2K + 3C2 = 12/35
17b = 102a [(K + 3) (K + 2)] / [(2K + 3) (2K + 2)] = 12/35
Value of b = 6a No need to solve this dicey equation, we can
So, Ratio of profit = 1:2:6:2 easily go with options.
So, profit share of Q and S together = [(2 + 2) / (6 35 = 7 x 5
– 2)] x 1200 = Rs. 1200 There should be a multiple of 7 and 5 in
This statement alone is sufficient to answer the denominator.
question.
Hence answer is option C

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
By simple putting values, in only option b, we are So, possible combination is B – III
getting multiples of both 5 and 7, not in other For C
option. C. 2R2+ 3R – 135 = 0
If K = 6, then (2R – 15) (R + 9)
(9 x 8) / (14 x 15) = 12/35 R = 15/2, - 9
Hence answer is option B I). At least one root of the same equation is
perfect square. [Follows]
77. Answer: E II). Difference of root is not less than 7
For A Required difference = 15/2 + 9 = 16.5 [follows]
A. P2– 25P + 144 = 0 III). HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where
(P – 16) (P – 9) = 0 Z and Y are the roots of same equation. [Not
P = 9, 16 follows]
I). At least one root of the same equation is a HCF of (15/2, 9/2) = 3/1 = 3
perfect square [follows] So, possible combinations are C – I, and C – II
II). Difference of root is not less than 7 Hence answer is option E
Difference of roots = 16 – 9 = 7 (follows)
III). HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where 78. Answer: C
Z and Y are the roots of same equation. Root of the given equation = 15/2 – 5/2 = 5
HCF of 16 and 9 is 1 (follows) So,
So, possible combinations are A – I, A – II, and A 15a + 60b = 52 + 43 x 5
- III (a + 4b) = 16
For B Possible value of a = 4, 8, and 12
6Q2 – Q – 40 = 0 Possible value of b = 3, 2, 1
(3Q – 8) (2Q + 5) = 0 Maximum sum = 12 + 1 = 13
Q = 8/3, - 5/2 Hence answer is option C
I). At least one root of the same equation is
perfect square. [Not follows] 79. Answer: C
II). Difference of root is not less than 7. Let number of girls failed in Mock = 8a
Difference if roots = 8/3 + 5/2 = 31/6 (not follows) So, number of girls passed in mock = 87.5% x 8a
III). HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where = 7a
Z and Y are the roots of same equation. So, number of boys failed in mock = 8a - 20
HCF of (8/3, 5/2) = 1 [follows] Now,

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
8a + 7a + 8a - 20 + 25 = 120
23a = 115
Value of a = 5
So, number of girls attempting mock = 8a + 7a =
15 x 5 = 75
Hence answer is option C

80. Answer: B
Let speed of boat in still water and speed of
stream is ‘x’ km/h and ‘y’ km/h respectively.
From (1) and (2):
Downstream speed of boat = (x + y)
Upstream speed of boat = (x – y)
According to the question:

x – y = 20
So, upstream distance travelled by boat in 4
hours = (x – y) * 4 = 20 * 4
= 80 km
English Language

81. Answer: D innovations yet to develop an efficient storage

The second last para of the passage tells us the solution.”
obstacles that we would face if we were to Both 1 and 3 follow. Thus, D is the right answer.
completely shift from non-renewable energy to
renewable energy. Refer to the lines: 82. Answer: B
“Renewable energy cannot completely replace The passage tells us that solar energy is a huge
fossil based energy generation because of opportunity for India, a developing country, as it
obvious reasons like sun’s energy not being has the capacity to provide electricity to homes. It
available 24 hours a day, solar generation being also tells us that it has potential for job creation.
highly unpredictable and technological Refer to the lines: “For a developing country like
India, where electricity for every home was once

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
considered a dream is now close to reality. The does not mean India would not be able to
government initiative of ‘power for all’ is changing compete with China.
the socio-economic structure of the country. The Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
sector also has immense potential to create new
jobs; 1 GW of Solar manufacturing facility 84. Answer: C
generates approximately 4000 direct and indirect 2 and 3 are true as per the passage. Refer to the
jobs.” Thus, B is the right answer. lines: “India’s per capita energy consumption
3 is incorrect as the author does not imply that currently stands close to one-third of the world
India should completely shift to renewable energy average. India is running renewable energy
because other countries are doing so. initiatives in a big way and has emerged as the
second most attractive market for renewable
83. Answer: B energy equipment in the world. With the
B is the right answer. Refer to the lines: Though headquarters of International Solar Alliance,
tech advancements are underway for storage, India is all set to become a global leader in solar
which has the potential to revolutionise this sector energy.” 1 is untrue as the passage tells us that
globally, till then dependence on fossils can be solar and wind energy were once costly, but now
reduced by gradually increasing the share of much cheaper than the conventional form of
renewables. The passage states that one of the energy. Thus, C is the right answer.
limitations of the renewable energy sector is
storage. It also states that technological 85. Answer: A
advancements in storage technology may The passage revolves around the shift towards
revolutionise the renewable energy sector. solar power in India, the challenges faced, and
A is incorrect. Refer to the lines: Renewable the opportunity it provides. Option A best sums up
energy cannot completely replace fossil based this idea, which makes it the right answer. B is
energy generation because of obvious reasons incorrect as the passage briefly focuses only on
like sun’s energy not being available 24 hours a China, and does not draw a comparative analysis.
day……. C is incorrect. The passage does not C is incorrect as the passage does not focus on
refer to solar power as one of the sectors with whether India should or shouldn’t rely on solar
maximum potential. D is incorrect. The passage power, it simply talks about its scope in India, and
merely states that China has established how it would be impossible to completely depend
manufacturing clusters for renewable energy. It upon solar energy. E is incorrect as the passage
does not throw much light on developing

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
countries as a whole; it sticks to the context decline in the initial estimate of wheat, owing to
surrounding India, along with brief examples of a the early onset of a harsh summer.
few other countries. Plug the gap (idiom) – provide for something that
Therefore, option A is the correct answer. is lacking in a particular situation.

86. Answer: B 89. Answer: D

TRANSITION means a move or shift towards If we refer to the first paragraph of the passage,
something new. The passage uses this word to “It is just as well that the Centre on Tuesday
convey how India is shifting towards sustainable announced an additional distribution of rice under
energy. Thus, B is the right answer. PMGKY to the extent of the 5 mt wheat shortfall.
Deploy - to make use of. Discreet - careful and Rice supplies under PMGKAY may increase to 18
prudent in one’s speech or actions. Plea - million tonnes. This is a timely move.” This shows
request. that statement I is correct.
Safeguard - protect. “Wheat stocks as on April 1 amounted to 19 mt,
whereas a requirement of about 30 million tonnes
87. Answer: B of wheat was estimated for these two schemes —
INEVITABLE means bound or certain to happen; 21 million tonnes for NFSA and another 10 million
that which cannot be avoided. Its antonym would tonnes for PMGKAY.” This shows that statement
be AVOIDABLE; B is the right answer. Reckless - II is correct.
rash or careless. Prudent - careful. Illustrate - “The buffer norm of 21 million tonnes for wheat
explain. Unique - being the only one of its kind. and rice on April 1, should be re-examined in view
of the rising welfare requirements.” As given in
88. Answer: D the last paragraph, statement III is then incorrect.
The correct answer will be option D. So, the answer is option D.
If we read the few lines of the passage, we can
understand that India has announced to provide 90. Answer: C
wheat in the global market amid the war between It is given in the first paragraph that – “But the
Ukraine and Russia (that caused stoppage of bigger cause for concern is the disproportionate
wheat supply globally), and now India has been drop in the procurement this Rabi marketing
affected by the wheat stocks to be diminished. season.” No other statement satisfies the reason
The supply in international market will result in a of concern, so, the answer is option C.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
91. Answer: E
It is given that the shortfall in stocks is a 93. Answer: D
consequence of the extraordinary circumstances Espousal (n) – an act of adopting or supporting a
that have derailed wheat procurement this cause, belief, or way of life; acceptance; support
season. The government is taking steps to cover Opp. – rejection, opposition
the shortage. Since procurement generally Beguiling (v) – captivating, attracting, endearing
calculates to a third or more of wheat output, a
drop of about six million tonnes owing to lower 94. Answer: B
output would have been no cause for surprise. Grudging (v) –gobbling, deploring, disliking.
So, the correct word here should be ‘recur’ that Inclined - likely to do something.
means occur again periodically or repeatedly. The
correct answer will be option E. 95. Answer: C
Halt – stop, come to rest, discontinue With the removal of the most restrictions, (A)/ the
Baffle – mystify, bewilder; restrain, obstruct probability of contact between(B)/ individuals has
Drain – void, clear out, evacuate risen sharply(C)/.
Here, "most" is used as an adjective modifying
92. Answer: B the noun "restrictions”.
If we refer to the last paragraph of the passage, Usage of “the” is redundant.
“Bountiful monsoons in recent years have We use “the most” when we compare things. The
ensured that rice stocks (excluding unmilled given sentence is a general sentence and we are
paddy) are about 32 mt now, about two-and-a- not comparing anything.
half times the buffer norm for April. There is Example: This is the most interesting book I have
scope to raise the rice component in PDS this ever read.
year.” This shows that statement I is correct. In the above sentence we are comparing the
“The Centre should desist from imposing export particular book with all other books.
controls or stock limits, as that would dent the
confidence of farmers and intermediaries.” This 96. Answer: A
shows that statement II is incorrect. Parts with error (I)-A, (III)-A
“That said, premature policy signals to boost I). Some of the world’s best Arabica (A)/ beans
exports of staples need not be sent out.” With are grown on the(B)/ fertile land around Mount
this, we can identify that statement III is also Kenya(C)/.
incorrect. So, the answer is option B.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
III). Many Kenyans first get(A)/ a taste for coffee
via instant sachets(B)/ made from cheap robusta 98. Answer: C
beans(C)/. Part with error (II)-B
In sentence (I) usage of “any” is incorrect (II) People who have continued to exercise (A)/
grammatically. we use 'some' for affirmative during the pandemic are more likely to be doing
sentences, and 'any' for questions or negative (B)/ it for their mental health than for any other
sentences. Sentence (I) is neither a negative reason. (C)/.
sentence nor an interrogative sentence In sentence (II) verb form “done” is incorrect. The
(question). sentence is present continuous. Hence the verb
In sentence (III) usage of “gets” is incorrect used should be “doing”.
grammatically. The Subject “Many Kenyans” is
plural. Hence the base verb “get” should be used. 99. Answer: E
All the given sentences are error free.
97. Answer: D
Parts with error - (I)-B, (II)-C 100. Answer: C
I). Azhdarchid pterosaurs are one type of In sentence I, it is given that the Congress ended
pterosaur and one of the distinguishing flutters regarding the election strategist Prashant
characteristics about them is how big they were, Kishor’s entry into India’s oldest political party by
especially their long necks. announcing that he has refused the offer to join
II). Among the six metro areas studied, (A)/ Los the party.
Angeles had by far the worst levels of (B)/ In sentence II, it is given that China has confirmed
crowding and or as well as the highest housing the first known human case of the H3N8 variant
costs. (C)/. of avian flu, but health authorities say there is a
In sentence (II) the noun following the phrase low risk of widespread transmission among
"one of the" is always a plural noun. Because we people.
are choosing one among many. Example: Ram is After reading the sentences carefully, we can
One of the best students in the class.Among identify that ‘declined’ and ‘confirmed’; similarly,
many best students in the class Ram is also one ‘possible’ and ‘widespread’ should be
of them. interchanged. So, the answer is option C.
In sentence (III) usage of “and” is superfluous.
Any one “and or as well as” is enough. Usage of 101. Answer: B
both the words together doesn’t make sense.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
In sentence I, it is given that students can ‘accounts’ and ‘administration’ need to be
consider doing the dual degree programmes interchanged. So, the answer is option D.
physically through the two-shift system that is Account for (phrasal verb) – to make up or form (a
already popular and trending or from two different part of something)
institutions based on their accessibility.
In sentence II, it is given that Union Health 103. Answer: D
Minister Mansukh Mandaviya has said that the In sentence I, it is given that the State of Tamil
States and Union Territories will be asked to hold Nadu has been witnessing a conflict between the
on and use the infrastructure put in place for elected government and the State Governor on
treating COVID patients, so that they are readily the question of giving validation to the National
available in case the numbers rise again. Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) Bill (linked to
After reading the sentences carefully, we can an all India premedical entrance test) passed by
identify that ‘retain’ and ‘consider’; similarly, the State Assembly.
‘vogue’ and ‘infrastructure’ need to be In sentence II, it is given that West Bengal CM
interchanged. So, the answer is option B. Mamata Banerjee criticized PM Narendra Modi,
In vogue (idiom) –popular and fashionable who prompted states to reduce VAT in "national
Retain (v) – hold on to, continue, maintain interest" during a virtual meeting with chief
Proximity (n) –nearness, accessibility ministers amid rising Fuel Prices across the
country.
102. Answer: D After reading the sentences carefully, we can
In sentence I, it is given that the DMRC chief on identify that ‘Confrontation’ and ‘interaction’;
Tuesday said, metro’s operational need takes similarly, ‘elected’ and ‘urged’ should be
only 2.5% of the total power requirement of the interchanged. So, the answer is option D.
city, in the middle of tensions of power supply Confrontation – a hostile or argumentative
stoppage in Delhi. situation or meeting between opposing parties;
In sentence II, it is given that the Khargone conflict, collision
administration decided not to ease the curfew on Interaction – communication or direct involvement
Tuesday and requested people to celebrate with someone or something; association,
EidulFitr and Akshaya Tritiya festivals at home in communion
the violence-hit Madhya Pradesh city. Urge (v) – prompt, request
After reading the sentences carefully, we can Hit out (phrasal verb) – denounce, lash out at,
identify that ‘disruptions’ and ‘relaxing’; similarly, criticize

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
expectations about how prices will behave in the
104. Answer: C future to take precautions.
The sentences discuss the five-member team and In the first sentence, it is given that high inflation
the members and their report and findings on the affects the poor in a very unfavourable way, even
matter. However, the third sentence talks about that it makes essentials hard to attain in certain
the same incident but with a different angle to it situations. In the second sentence, a conclusion
that now the SC has ordered a CBI enquiry into has been given that individuals anticipate the
the matter. increase or decrease in prices in order to take
So, (c) carries a different theme. precautions. Only ‘therefore’ is correct as II is the
consequence of statement I. So, the answer will
105. Answer: D be option D.
The sentences are all discussing the football Subsequently – eventually, afterwards
World Cup going on in Qatar but one of these During the time – at the same time, while,
sentences is talking about a different tournament meanwhile
which is the Federation Cup Athletics. So, this
sentence is the odd one out. 108. Answer: B
Therefore, the best is mark option (d) as the To be sure, LIC’s 1.3 million agents (as of
answer. December 2021) are not an endangered species;
in fact, they’re the largest insurance sales force in
106. Answer: D the country by far, accounting for 55% of the total
The statements other than (d) all talk about the number of agents in the country. / LIC’s 1.3
investment in the education sector. But, million agents (as of December 2021) are not an
statement in (d) talks about adapting to in-person endangered species for sure; in fact, they’re the
learning which is a different concept being largest insurance sales force in the country by far,
discussed. accounting for 55% of the total number of agents
Therefore, the best is to go with option (d). in the country.
To be sure, LIC’s 1.3 million agents (as of
107. Answer: D December 2021) are not an endangered species;
High inflation adversely affects the poor, even instead, they’re the largest insurance sales force
making necessities unaffordable in certain in the country by far, accounting for 55% of the
situations; therefore, individuals form total number of agents in the country. / Surely,

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
LIC’s 1.3 million agents (as of December 2021) C-D ⇒ Sunak, who is the son-in-law of Infosys
are not an founder NR Narayana Murthy, also happens to be
endangered species; instead, they’re the largest the first British Asian and Hindu Prime Minister of
insurance sales force in the country by far, the UK.
accounting for 55% of the total number of agents Parts B and F do not match with each other and
in the country. can be ruled out.
Instead, and in fact is used to show something Therefore, the best would be to go with option (b)
else rather than something that is previously said as the answer.
or done. Here, in the first sentence, it is given that
LIC 1.3 million agents) are not an endangered 111. Answer: A
species, whereas in the second sentence, it is The complete sentences after being matched are:
given that rather than this, they are the largest B-E ⇒ There may or may not be serious
insurance sales force in the country by far. So, methodological issues, but dubbing the index as
the correct answer is option B. an attempt to taint India’s image smacks of self-
righteousness.
109. Answer: D C-D ⇒ They resort to social media and trend
India has recorded the highest ever shipments in hashtags boycotting the new releases.
April that helped exports remain strong but high A-F could have been correct if there were no
value of imports caused the trade deficit to widen grammatical issues in the same. The correct
slightly over the previous month because of the sentence would have been: Low collection means
prolonged Russia-Ukraine conflict. lesser films and lesser employment.
Both the sentences show contradiction to each The best would hence, be option (a).
other, for this we use ‘but’. ’So’ is used to show a
conclusion to something whereas ‘still’ is used 112. Answer: E
when something continues up to a time in the The complete sentences after being matched are:
past, present or future. So, the answer will be A-D ⇒ Initial investigation has proved that the
option D. drug reached Indian shores from Afghanistan via
Pakistan.
110. Answer: B B-E ⇒ Hyderabad got choked because of rains
The complete sentences after being matched are: and the attendant problems.
A-E ⇒ What is worse even if come to know of it
we cannot do anything about it.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
C-F ⇒ Going global by enabling students to be So, the best would be to go with option (b) as the
global citizens is emphasised multiple times in the answer
National Education Policy 2020.
The best would be to go with the fifth option. 117. Answer: A
The previous line of the said word talks positively
113. Answer: A by mentioning India is growing fastest. And then
Accretion means a thing formed or added by the said statement begins with ‘but’ which means
gradual growth or increase. “that the tone would take a reverse.” We need a
negative word for the second place which makes
114. Answer: B us cancel the second and the third options. The
Wholesale means done on a large scale; word backward is grammatically incorrect and so
extensive. is under.
The most appropriate word should hence, be
115. Answer: E option (a) below.
All the given options fit into the blanks
appropriately as all four words mean the same i.e. 118. Answer: E
so as to give the impression of having a certain Latent means “untapped or something that has
quality; apparently. still not been utilised.” This words in the options
(a) and (b) also mean the same. The third and the
116. Answer: B fourth options are irrelevant.
The given line tells us that the recession has The correct answer should hence, be option (e).
been getting worse and complicated due to the
pandemic. So, the word pacify which means 119. Answer: A
“making better or reducing the severity of The sentence says ‘even in the…’ which means
something is a misfit over there.” That place “circumstances that are not ideal are being hinted
needs a negative tone word. at.”
Inflamed is grammatically correct but too extreme. The given word hence, makes the sentence
It is used to define anger in most cases. So, this incorrect. The correct meaning would be reflected
gets eliminated. Worsened can be taken as it fits through the word adverse which means
the context aptly. Intensify is grammatically “unfavourable.” India is growing even in the
incorrect. Assuaged means to make better which unfavourable circumstances.
is opposite the context.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
So, eliminating all other options, we can mark The sentence talks about the basic nature of the
option (a) as the correct answer. Indian economy that naturally hints towards the
capacity to grow.
120. Answer: D To explain this, the adjective inherent must be
The word intangible makes the sentence used for potential.
ambiguous and needs a change. Therefore, the best would be to mark option (d)
as the answer.
General Awareness

121. Answer: C of phase-1 of Varanasi-Aurangabad section of

Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated NH-19; four laning of Package-1 Varanasi-
and laid the foundation stone for multiple Hanumana section on NH-35; and ROB on
development projects worth more than Rs 13,000 Varanasi- Jaunpur rail section near Babatpur. He
crores in Varanasi. also laid the foundation stone for the construction
The Prime Minister also visited Banas Kashi of the Varanasi-Ranchi-Kolkata Expressway
Sankul, a milk processing unit of Banaskantha Package-1.
District Cooperative Milk Producers Union Ltd
built at UPSIDA Agro Park, Karkhiyaon, Varanasi 122. Answer: A
and interacted with cow beneficiaries. Amazon Pay, the financial technology division of
PM Modi also handed out employment letters and e-commerce giant Amazon, has secured the
GI-authorized user certificates. esteemed payment aggregator (PA) license from
The development projects cater to important the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), marking a
sectors such as road, rail, aviation, tourism, significant milestone in its operations.
education, health, drinking water, urban The regulatory approval permits the payments
development, and sanitation. platform to function as a payment aggregator,
Background empowering it to facilitate e-commerce
To further enhance road connectivity in Varanasi, transactions through its application.
the Prime Minister inaugurated and laid the The fintech firm joins a list of companies that the
foundation stone of multiple road projects central bank has granted authorization to operate
including four laning of Ghargra-Bridge-Varanasi as payment aggregators (PA) in 2023.
section of NH-233; four laning of Sultanpur- In addition to the PA license, Amazon Pay
Varanasi section of NH-56, Package-1; six laning already holds a Prepaid Payment Instruments

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
(PPI) license, enabling it to operate its wallet It provides a convenient and efficient payment
services, including Amazon Pay balance: Money, solution for both merchants and customers within
as outlined in RBI documentation. the marketplace ecosystem.
What are Payment Aggregators (PAs)? Regulatory Compliance and Standards:
PAs are entities defined by the RBI that facilitate Obtaining a payment aggregator license ensures
e-commerce sites and merchants to accept regulatory compliance and adherence to financial
various payment instruments from customers for and security standards set by relevant authorities.
completing their payment obligations. Recent News:
They enable merchants to connect with acquirers, In Feb 2024, two fintech startups, Decentro and
receive payments from customers, pool them, Juspay, and enterprise software-as-a-service
and transfer them to the merchants after a (SaaS) firm Zoho received final authorization from
specific period. the RBI for payment aggregator (PA) licenses.
Intermediaries in Payment Transactions:
PAs act as intermediaries between the merchant 123. Answer: A
and the customer in payment transactions. The World Gold Council has appointed Sachin
They play a crucial role in streamlining the Jain as its new Chief Executive Officer (CEO), in
payment process for merchants, eliminating the India, who will take up the role in March 2024.
need for them to create separate payment Jain will succeed Somasundaram PR, who will
integration systems. continue in his present job and duties till Jain
Role of Payment Aggregator License: joins to facilitate a smooth transfer.
A payment aggregator license allows a company Somasundaram will continue to work with the
to operate as an intermediary between merchants World Gold Council as an advisor on the
and payment processors or banks. establishment of a self-regulatory organization
This license enables the aggregator to accept (SRO), which is a critical project for the Indian
payments on behalf of multiple merchants, gold sector.
consolidate them, and distribute the funds to the About Sachin Jain:
respective merchants. Sachin joins from De Beers where he has held
Utilization in Online Marketplaces: several senior roles for the past 13 years.
The payment aggregator model is commonly As Managing Director of De Beers India, he has
utilized by businesses operating online led the De Beers Forevermark business in India
marketplaces or platforms with multiple sellers and the Middle East.
offering goods or services.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
He has over two decades of rich experience and DST-Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) are
understanding of the Indian consumer. established in Academic /Technical /R&D
Previously, Sachin has held senior positions for Institutions as part of the NIDHI program to
De Beers, Lladro, Swatch Group and Benetton. support and nurture knowledge-driven innovative
About World Gold Council: start-ups into successful enterprises.
Founded: 1987 The startup called Solinas developed this
Headquarters: London, United Kingdom affordable robotic solution integrated with Artificial
President: Kelvin Dushnisky Intelligence (AI) to inspect, clean, and manage
CEO: David Tait confined space for sanitation purposes.
The World Gold Council is the market It helped clean up manhole blockages and
development organization for the gold industry. reduced sewer overflows in Madurai.
The application of Homosep Atom was also
124. Answer: D extended to the intricate lanes of Chennai’s
India’s first septic tank/manhole cleaning robot, densely populated areas.
offering an end-to-end solution to eliminate Targeting septic tanks associated with large
manual scavenging, is strengthening the apartments, housing boards, and individual
Swachhata Abhiyan in different corners of the houses, this process enabled Municipalities to
country. promptly and efficiently clean, clear, and transport
The technology called HomosepAtom developed waste to treatment plants. Besides, sanitary
by the startup incubated in the Department of workers were empowered with manhole cleaning
Science and Technology (DST)-Technology robots that helped them clean the manholes from
Business Incubator (TBI) of IIT Madras, solves outside and avoid going inside the toxic
manual cleaning methods and transforms them environment, thus providing dignity to the sanitary
into robotic cleaning methods. workers.
It has reached 16 cities in different parts of India Solinas is a deep-tech and climate tech startup
and empowers extensive blade cleanings, solid born out of IIT Madras, founded with the intent to
waste desilting, suction and storage at one solve the challenges that revolutionize the water
device; thereby reducing the cost of owning and sanitation sector and improve climatic
multiple assets and promoting robotic cleaning in conditions.
sewers. The startup specializes in developing miniature
Key Highlights: robots, including India’s 1st 90mm water robot
and 120mm sewer robot, capable of navigating

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
through pipelines below 100mm to address to consumers on their platform besides
contamination challenges in water-sewer partnerships with over 50 platforms, including
pipelines. Oyo, redBus,
Zomato, HDB Financial Services and Urban
125. Answer: D Company, to offer embedded insurance.
Insurtech unicorn Acko has elevated its chief About Acko General Insurance:
underwriting officer, Animesh Das, to the new Acko General Insurance is a private sector
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of its subsidiary general insurance company in India. Founded in
entity–ACKO General Insurance—as Sanjeev November 2016, the company received its
Srinivasan takes the board role. license from the Insurance Regulatory and
Varun Dua will continue as the CEO of Acko Development Authority of India in September
Technologies, the parent company of Acko 2017.
General Insurance. Founder: Varun Dua
Srinivasan, the former MD and CEO at Bharti Axa Founded: 3 November 2016
General Insurance, joined the General Atlantic- Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
backed venture in 2021 as the managing director
and CEO of the subsidiary unit. 126. Answer: D
During his tenure, the company successfully A school in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala has
launched its health, life and travel insurance unveiled a groundbreaking innovation in
portfolios, with Gross Written Premium (GWP) education with the introduction of India’s first
doubling in the last two years. Generative Artificial Intelligence(AI) teacher robot
Meanwhile, Das, whose appointment is subject to named ‘Iris’.
the board’s approval, has been a part of Acko’s Developed in collaboration with Makerlabs
core members team for the past six years. Edutech, Iris aims to transform traditional
Founded in 2016 by Varun Dua, Acko started in teaching methods through personalized learning
the direct-to-consumer (D2C) auto insurance experiences for students.
space. Iris has been deployed at KTCT Higher
In March 2023, the firm entered the retail health Secondary School, Thiruvananthapuram, marking
insurance segment and acquired Parentlane to a significant advancement in educational
expand into the health business. technology within the region.
It holds tie-ups with PhonePe and MyGate to Built under the Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL) project
directly offer comprehensive insurance products initiated by NITI Aayog, this AI teacher robot, Iris,

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
boasts a range of features aimed at against foreign currency risks by adding gold to
revolutionizing traditional teaching methods. its reserves.
The robot can teach subjects from nursery to Key Highlights:
Class 12. History of RBI’s Gold Purchases: RBI began
The robot currently speaks three languages – buying gold in 2018 to bolster its reserves.
English, Hindi and Notably, during the global financial crisis in 2009,
Iris is created by Maker Labs, further it purchased 200 tonnes of gold.
demonstrating India’s capacity for innovation in Gold Purchase in the Current Financial Year: In
the field of educational technology. the first 10 months of the current financial year,
Recent News: the RBI has added nearly 17.7 tonnes of gold to
In Aug 2023, India’s first AI school, Santhigiri its reserves.
Vidyabhavan, was launched in Kerala. International Gold Purchases: Turkey, China and
About Kerala: Kazakhstan also bought a significant volume of
Capital: Thiruvananthapuram yellow metal in January.
Chief Minister: Pinarayi Vijayan Turkey bought 11.8 tonnes of gold, China
Governor: Arif Mohammad Khan purchased 10 tonnes and Kazakhstan bought 6.2
National Parks: Periyar National Park, tonnes.
Mathikettan National Park, Eravikulam National Reason for Central Banks’ Gold Purchases:
Park, Silent Valley National Park, Indira Gandhi Central banks worldwide have been aggressively
National Park adding gold to their forex reserves over the past 5
years to hedge against foreign currency risks.
127. Answer: E Government Notification: The government issued
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) bought 8.7 a notification allowing the RBI to import gold
tonnes of gold in January 2024, making it the without paying levies, which typically include a
largest purchase by the central bank since July 15% import duty, including a 5% agriculture
2022. infrastructure development cess.
According to the World Gold Council data, the About World Gold Council (WGC):
RBI’s gold holding has climbed to 812.3 tonnes in Established: 1987
January, from 803.58 tonnes in December 2023. Headquarters: London, United Kingdom
Purpose of Gold Purchase: The central bank is The World Gold Council is the market
diversifying its forex reserves and hedging development organization for the gold industry.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
It works across all parts of the industry, from gold amendment, from 1995 to 1998 and 1998 to
mining to investment, to stimulate and sustain 2001,
demand for gold. He later served as a member of the National
It was established to promote the use of and Commission for Scheduled Tribes from 2004 to
demand for gold through marketing, research, 2007 before retiring from public office.
and lobbying. During his six decades of public service, Lama
WGC was the creator of the first gold exchange- Lobzang contributed significantly to the health
traded fund. sector.
Recent News: He facilitated patients for medical treatments at
In March 2024, The Indian government AIIMS and organized free medical camps in Leh
announced that gold imported by the Reserve Ladakh.
Bank of India (RBI) will be exempted from import He pulled doctors from prestigious medical
duty and Agriculture Infrastructure Development institutes like AIIMS Delhi and Safdarjung
Cess (AIDC). Hospital to provide medical care to needy people
About RBI: in Ladakh.
Established: 1 April 1935 He also served as the president of several
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India Buddhist Organisations including the International
Governor: Shaktikanta Das Buddhist Conference and the World Fellowship of
Buddhists.
128. Answer: B About the National Commission for Scheduled
Former member of the National Commission for Castes:
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Headquarters: New Delhi, Delhi
Prominent Buddhist Monk of Ladakh popularly Chairman: Kishor Makwana
known as Lama Lobzang passed away in New The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Delhi at the age of 94. is an Indian constitutional body under the
About Lama Lobzang: jurisdiction of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Lama Lobzang, a distinguished tribal leader & Empowerment, Government of India.
served in the National Commission for Scheduled Article 338 of the Indian constitution deals with
Castes and Scheduled Tribes for a total of 19 the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
years since 1984. Article 338 A deals with the National Commission
He was reappointed as a member of the for Scheduled tribes.
Commission for two terms after its constitutional

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
129. Answer: D Minister of State: Ajay Bhatt
In consonance with the established partnership Defence Secretary: Giridhar Aramane
between India and the United States (US), a
bilateral tri-service Humanitarian Assistance and 130. Answer: B
Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise between both The 4th edition of the Shanghai Cooperation
countries, Tiger Triumph – 24, is scheduled on Organisation (SCO) Startup Forum was
the Eastern Seaboard from 18 to 31 March 2024. organized in New Delhi.
Aim: To develop interoperability for conducting The initiative focused on broadening startup
HADR operations and refine Standard Operating interactions among the SCO Member States,
Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth fostering an environment conducive to innovation,
coordination between the forces of both countries. promoting job creation, and inspiring young talent
Participants: to develop innovative solutions.
Indian Navy Ships with integral helicopters and Key Highlights :
landing crafts embarked, Indian Navy aircraft, The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Startup
Indian Army personnel and vehicles, Indian Air Forum is a platform for the stakeholders from the
Force aircraft and helicopters, and the Rapid startup ecosystems from all SCO Member States
Action Medical Team (RAMT) will participate from to interact and collaborate.
the Indian side. It aims to create multilateral cooperation and
The US will be represented by US Navy Ships engagement for startups among the SCO
with embarked troops of the US Marine Corps Member States.
and US Army. It will empower the local startup ecosystems in
Phases of the Exercise: the Member States.
Harbor Phase: Scheduled from 18 to 25 March Going forward, India will host the second meeting
2024, involving Training Visits, Subject Matter of the SWG in November 2024 and SCO Startup
Expert Exchanges, Sports Events, and Social Forum 5.0 in January 2025.
interactions between personnel from both navies. The first Meeting of the SCO Special Working
Sea Phase: Following the Harbour Phase, ships Group on Startups and Innovation (SWG),
with embarked troops will sail for the Sea Phase, permanently chaired by India, was organized on
focusing on Maritime, Amphibious, and HADR the theme ‘Growing from Roots’ in 2023.
operations as per injected situations. 25 representatives from the 9 SCO Member
About Ministry of Defence: States participated in the meeting and presented
Defence Minister: Rajnath Singh their respective startup ecosystems and

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
prospective areas of collaboration related to the groundbreaking work in the field of social and
agriculture and animal husbandry sectors covered environmental inequalities.
in the theme. Bina Agarwal (University of Manchester), an
About SCO: economist, is the author of pioneering work on
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is gender inequalities, environmental governance,
an intergovernmental organization founded in ecofeminism and environmental inequalities.
Shanghai on 15 June 2001. James K. Boyce (University of Massachusetts
The SCO currently comprises nine Member Amherst), an economist, is the author of a
States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, seminal work on the relationship between social
Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan, inequality and environmental degradation and
Iran). has made a major contribution to structuring the
field of environmental political economy.
131. Answer: D The two laureates will be invited to receive their
The World Inequality Lab (WIL) and Sciences awards and present an overview of their work at
Po’s Center for Research on Social Inequalities conferences in Paris in the fall and spring of
(CRIS) have joined forces for the first edition of 2024, organized in conjunction with Sciences
the Global Inequality Research Award (or GiRA), Po’s Social-Ecological Transitions (SET) initiative.
which aims to recognize every two years
researchers from all disciplines who have made a 132. Answer: C
significant contribution to the understanding of The cVIGIL app of the Election Commission of
global inequalities. India has become an effective tool in the hands of
GiRA wants to acknowledge leading scholarship people to flag election code violations.
in the area of global inequality understood from Since the announcement of General Elections
two major perspectives: 2024, over 79,000 complaints have been
First, the perspective of inequality research is received.
being conducted in all corners of the world. Over 99% of complaints have been resolved and
Second, the perspective of inequality is a close to 89% of these complaints have been
complex phenomenon that requires light from all resolved within 100 minutes.
angles to be fully understood and ultimately Speed and transparency are the cornerstones of
mitigated. the cVIGIL app.
The 2024 GiRA Prize is jointly awarded to Bina
Argawal and James K. Boyce for their

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
More than 58,500 complaints (73% of the total) He has been appointed as Secretary to the
received are against illegal hoardings and Lokpal till the date of his superannuation (June
banners. 30, 2024) and thereafter on contract basis for a
About cVIGIL period of 2 years beyond the date of his
cVIGIL app marks a significant leap forward in superannuation on
electoral oversight and reducing campaign clutter. usual terms and conditions applicable to re-
It may be recalled that in the press conference for employed central government officers.
the announcement of the General Elections 2024, Border Management Secretary Raj Kumar Goyal
Chief Election Commissioner Shri Rajiv Kumar has been appointed as Secretary, Department of
had urged citizens to be vigilant and use the app Justice under the Ministry of Law & Justice.
to report model code of conduct violations and Rajendra Kumar, Director General of Employees’
distribution of any kind of inducements to voters. State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), will be the
cVigil is a user-friendly and easy-to-operate Border Management Secretary in place of Goyal.
application, that connects vigilant citizens with the Other Appointments:
District Control Room, Returning Officer and Amit Yadav: New Delhi Municipal Council
Flying Squads Teams. (NDMC) chairperson Amit Yadav has been
Users capture audio, photos, or videos in real- named as Officer on Special Duty in the
time, and a “100-minute” countdown for time- Department of Social Justice & Empowerment.
bound responses to complaints is ensured. Rakesh Ranjan: Rakesh Ranjan, currently
The app is one of the armories of Apps built by serving as Special Secretary in the Department of
the Commission to leverage technology and Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, has been
facilitate voters and political parties. appointed as Chairman of the Staff Selection
Commission (SSC).
133. Answer: C About Lokpal :
Senior bureaucrat Pradip Kumar Tripathi has Established : 19 March 2019
been appointed as the Lokpal Secretary as part Headquarters : New Delhi, Delhi, India
of a secretary-level reshuffle effected by the Chairperson : Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar
Centre. Motto : Do not be greedy for anyone’s wealth
Tripathi, a 1987-batch Indian Administrative A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of
Service officer (IAS), is currently Secretary ombudsman who represents the public interest in
(Coordination) in the Cabinet Secretariat. the Republic of India.
The term “Lokpal” coined by L.M.Singhvi in 1963.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
In terms of sectors, FPIs have turned into big
134. Answer: C sellers in the FMCG segment and buyers in
Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs) have turned telecom and realty.
cautious as they pulled out Rs. 325 crore from Overall, the total inflow for this year so far stood
Indian equities in the first week of April 2024 at more than Rs. 10,500 crore in equities and
owing to relatively high valuations and the over Rs. 57,000 crore in the debt market.
upcoming general elections. What is foreign portfolio investment (FPI)?
The net outflow came after a staggering Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to the
investment of Rs. 35,000 crore in March and Rs. investment made by foreign individuals,
1,539 crore in February 2024. institutions, or investors in the financial assets of
The US 10-year yield has spiked to 4.4%, another country.
potentially impacting FPI investment flows into These financial assets include stocks, bonds,
India in the near term. money market instruments, and other securities.
Key Highlights: FPI is a crucial component of international capital
Indian government securities (G-Sec) 10-year flows and plays a significant role in global
yield standing at 7.1% and the US 10-year at financial markets.
4.3% present a compelling case for FPIs. Types of Investments :
Moreover, FPIs have been pumping money into FPI can take various forms, including equity
the debt markets for the past few months, driven investments (stocks), debt investments (bonds),
by the upcoming inclusion of Indian government and investments in other financial instruments like
bonds in the JP Morgan Index. derivatives and exchange-traded funds (ETFs).
They invested Rs. 22,419 crore in February 2024,
Rs. 19,836 crore and Rs. 18,302 crore in January 135. Answer: B
2024. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
JP Morgan Chase & Co announced that it would Foreign Ministers gathered at NATO
add Indian government bonds to its benchmark Headquarters, Brussels, Belgium to mark 75
emerging market index from June 2024. years since the signing of the Washington Treaty.
This landmark inclusion is anticipated to benefit NATO approved a proposal for a 100-billion-euro,
India by attracting around $20-40 billion in the 5-year fund to Ukraine.
subsequent 18 to 24 months. Since 1949, the Alliance has ensured peace,
democracy and prosperity for its members, now

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
counting 32 Allies and one billion people on both
sides of the Atlantic. 136. Answer: B
This year’s NATO Day comes just weeks after Manoj Panda, formerly the director at the Institute
Sweden joined as the thirty-second member of of Economic Growth, has been appointed as a
the Alliance. full-time member of the 16th Finance Commission
About Washington Treaty : by the Government of India (GoI).
The Washington Treaty, or North Atlantic Treaty, The 16th Finance Commission is responsible for
forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty formulating recommendations on the revenue-
Organization (NATO). sharing formula between the central government
It was signed in Washington D.C. in 1949, by 12 and states for the 5 years starting from April
founding members. 2026.
The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of Panda’s tenure as a member of the Commission
the United Nations Charter, which reaffirms the will last from the date of assuming office until
inherent right of independent states to individual either the submission of the Commission’s report
or collective defence. or October 31, 2025, whichever comes earlier.
Collective defence is at the heart of the treaty and He replaces Niranjan Rajadhyaksha, Executive
is enshrined in Article 5. Director at Artha Global, who resigned from his
It commits members to protect each other and position as a member of the Commission due to
sets a spirit of solidarity within the Alliance. unforeseen personal circumstances.
About NATO : About Manoj Panda:
Headquarter: Brussels, Belgium Manoj Panda has an extensive background in
Secretary General Jens Stoltenberg economics, having served as the Director of the
It is a military alliance established by the North Centre for Economic and Social Studies (CESS)
Atlantic Treaty. in Hyderabad, as well as holding positions as a
It currently has 32 alliance members from North Professor and Associate Professor at the Indira
America and Europe. Gandhi Institute of Development Research
Its fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ (IGIDR) in Mumbai.
freedom and security through political and military He has also contributed to economic research as
means. an economist and senior economist at the
It is a system of collective defence where National Council of Applied Economic Research
independent member states agree on mutual in New Delhi.
defence in case of an attack by an external party.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
The 16th Finance Commission held its first (ckm) of transmission lines rated at 220kV or
meeting under the Chairmanship of Arvind higher.
Panagariya to discuss its terms of reference on Gujarat Ranks Second
February 14, 2024. The Gujarat Energy Transmission Corporation
Other full-time members of the Commission Ltd (GETCO) followed UPPTCL with an addition
include Ajay Narayan Jha, who served on the of 898 ckm by the end of FY24.
15th Finance Commission and was a former Contribution to Overall Increase
secretary of Expenditure, as well as Annie UPPTCL’s contribution accounted for slightly
George Mathew, a former special secretary of more than 20 percent of the overall increase in
Expenditure. transmission lines from the state sector. Gujarat’s
Soumya Kanti Ghosh, the group chief economic share stood at 13 percent.
advisor of the State Bank of India, was appointed Other Notable States
as a part-time member of the Commission. Following Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
About Finance Commission: and Bihar ranked next in the addition of
The Finance Commission is a constitutionally- transmission lines.
mandated body established once every 5 years to Role of the Central Electricity Authority
devise a formula for distributing net tax proceeds The CEA, originally constituted under Section
between the Centre and the states as well as 3(1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948,
among states and local bodies. now functions under Section 70 of the Electricity
Currently, India shares 41% of federal taxes with Act, 2003, overseeing and coordinating the
states as recommended by the 15th panel. transmission infrastructure across the country.

137. Answer: B 138. Answer: D

According to the Central Electricity Authority Defence Minister Rajnath Singh stated that
(CEA), Uttar Pradesh has emerged as the leading Siachen, the world’s highest battlefield, is no
state in terms of adding transmission lines by ordinary land as it represents the sacrifice, valour
state transmission utilities in FY24. and determination of Indian soldiers who serve in
UPPTCL’s Remarkable Achievement extremely harsh terrain and inclement weather to
In FY24, the Uttar Pradesh Power Transmission protect the motherland.
Corporation Ltd (UPPTCL) outperformed other Interacting with the Armed Forces personnel
state utilities by adding 1,460 circuit kilometers deployed at Kumar Post, one of the world’s most
inhospitable locations, Singh thanked them for

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
placing the call of duty above everything while Undertaking (PSU) and a private sector firm from
safeguarding the country’s sovereignty and Pune.
perseverance. The system will be designed to protect against
The Indian Army marked Siachen Day on April 13 enemy drones, fighter aircraft, and helicopters.
as ‘Operation Meghdoot’ — launched on April 13, Allocation of Resources: The Army will be the
1984 — completed 40 years. lead service for this project, with the Indian Air
Remembering the feat which is considered Force also set to receive a portion of the 1,200
unparalleled in the history of high-altitude warfare, missiles and 200 launchers being developed.
Singh stated that it remains a golden chapter in DRDO’s Infra-Red Homing VSHORADS: The
the history of the Indian Armed Forces. Defence Research and Development
Accompanied by Chief of the Army Staff General Organisation (DRDO) is leading the development
Manoj Pande, Singh stated that he believes that of an infra-red homing-based Very Short Range
the festivals should first be celebrated by and with Air Defence (VSHORADS) system.
the protectors of the country. DRDO is working with its development and
production partners, Adani Defence and I-Comm,
139. Answer: E to create this system.
The Indian Army is undertaking two projects The DRDO has conducted tests with a tripod-
worth over Rs 6,800 crore to develop indigenous mounted version and is now focused on
Very Short Range Air Defence (VSHORAD) miniaturizing the system for shoulder-launched
systems. use.
These shoulder-fired missile systems are About VSHORAD Systems:
intended to counter aerial threats along the VSHORAD systems are essential for providing
borders with China and Pakistan. layered air defense against low-flying aircraft,
The Army plans to procure over 500 launchers helicopters, and drones.
and around 3,000 missiles through these The Indian military is working to replace its aging
indigenous projects. VSHORAD inventory, mainly consisting of the
Key Highlights: Igla-1M system, which was inducted in 1989 and
Laser Beam Riding VSHORADS Project: The first was set for de-induction in 2013.
project, valued at Rs 4,800 crore, is focused on The versatility of VSHORAD systems has been
developing a laser beam riding VSHORADS. demonstrated in recent conflicts, such as the
This project involves collaboration between a Russia-Ukraine war.
Hyderabad-based defense Public Sector

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Emergency Procurement and Igla-S Revival: To Development in the Ministry of Defence of the
address immediate shortages, the Indian Army Government of India.
and Air Force have procured 96 Russian Igla
launchers under Emergency Procurement 140. Answer: A
powers. India was the world's fourth-largest military
The first batch of 48 launchers has been spender in 2023, making an expenditure of $83.6
delivered, with the rest expected soon. billion to modernise a range of weapons and
There is a proposal to revive a previous deal for combat systems.
the Russian Igla-S system, which was halted The United States (US), China, and Russia were
more than 5 years ago. the top three spenders in that order, according to
Make in India Initiative: The development of the Stockholm International Peace Research
indigenous VSHORAD systems aligns with the Institute (Sipri). India's military spending saw a
Indian government's "Make in India" initiative, 4.2 percent increase compared to 2022.
aimed at promoting self-reliance in defense This growth reflects India's strategic focus on
manufacturing. enhancing its defence capabilities and bolstering
Project stakeholders are expected to meet soon military infrastructure, particularly along the China
to discuss the implementation of these projects border following the Ladakh standoff that began
within the Make in India framework. in May 2020.
Recent News : India's modernisation efforts include investments
In April 2024, The Indian Army and Indian Air in fighter jets, helicopters, warships, tanks,
Force (IAF) celebrated the 40th anniversary of artillery guns, rockets, missiles, unmanned
Operation Meghdoot (Cloud Messenger), which capabilities, and other combat systems.
commenced on April 13, 1984. India vs China
About the Indian Army: The Sipri report comes at a time when India and
Chief of Defence Staff: General Anil Chauhan China have been locked in a standoff along the
Chief of the Army Staff: General Manoj Pande Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh
About DRDO : since May 2020.
Established : 1958 The two countries have conducted 21 rounds of
Headquarters : New Delhi, Delhi military talks to address the border dispute.
Chairman : Samir V Kamat India allocated Rs 6.21 trillion for defence
The DRDO is the premier agency under the spending in the interim Budget for 2024-25,
Department of Defence Research and marginally lower than the previous year's revised

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
estimates but 4.72 percent higher than the budget the 42nd Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination
estimates for 2023-24. Committee (IADC) annual meet.
This year's defence budget represents 1.89 India's commitment aligns with global efforts
percent of India's projected gross domestic aimed at ensuring the sustainability of space
product (GDP) for 2024-25 exploration and reducing space debris.
Global military spending Key Highlights :
Globally, total military expenditure reached $2443 Objective of Space Exploration Initiative: ISRO
billion in 2023, marking a 6.8 percent increase has a clearly defined plan for space exploration,
from 2022. with the primary goal of achieving debris-free
The report attributed this surge to ongoing space missions by 2030.
conflicts, rising tensions, and global insecurity. Current Status: Presently, India has 54 spacecraft
The US saw a 2.3 percent increase in military in orbit, along with numerous non-functional
spending, reaching $916 billion, while Russia's objects contributing to space debris.
military expenditure surged by 24 percent to an Deorbiting Efforts: ISRO has undertaken efforts to
estimated $109 billion amid the war with Ukraine. deorbit several old satellites and the fourth stage
Top 10 countries with highest military spending in of PSLV rockets as part of its mission to achieve
2023 zero orbital debris.
United States: $916 billion Future Plans: India aims to establish its space
China: $296 billion (estimated) station, named 'Bharatiya Antriksh Station,' by the
Russia: $109 billion (estimated) year 2035, indicating its ambitious goals in space
India: $83.6 billion exploration and infrastructure development.
Saudi Arabia: $75.8 billion (estimated) Recent News :
United Kingdom: $74.9 billion In April 2024, ISRO achieved a breakthrough in
Germany: $66.8 billion rocket engine technology with the development of
Ukraine: $64.8 billion a lightweight Carbon-Carbon (C-C) nozzle for
France: $61.3 billion rocket engines.
Japan: $50.32 billion About ISRO :
Established: 15 August 1969
141. Answer: C Headquarters: Bangalore, Karnataka, India
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman: S. Somanath
Chairman S. Somanath announced India's pledge
to achieve debris-free space missions by 2030 at 142. Answer: D

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural India's ambitious targets include achieving 175
Development (NABARD) unveiled its Climate GW of renewable energy capacity by 2022 and
Strategy 2030 document on Earth Day to address 450 GW by 2030.
India’s growing need for green financing. India's Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC)
The Climate Strategy 2030 document has been under the Paris Agreement aims to reduce the
released by Shaji KV, Chairman of NABARD. emissions intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030
Its main aim is to address India’s need for green from the 2005 level.
financing. About NABARD:
Key Highlights: Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
India’s Green Financing Gap: India requires Chairman : Shri. Shaji K V
approximately $170 billion annually to reach a It was established on the recommendations of the
cumulative total of over $2.5 trillion by 2030 for Sivaraman Committee (by Act 61, 1981 of
green financing. Parliament) on 12 July 1982 to implement the
As of 2019-20, India garnered about $49 billion in National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
green financing, with most funds directed toward Development Act 1981.
mitigation. Only $5 billion was allocated to NABARD is an apex regulatory body for the
adaptation and resilience. overall regulation of regional rural banks and
Private sector engagement in green financing is apex cooperative banks in India.
limited due to challenges in bankability and It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of
commercial viability. Finance (MoF), Government of India (GoI).
NABARD’s Climate Strategy 2030 is based on 4
key pillars: 143. Answer: A
Accelerating green lending across sectors, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed
Playing a broader market-making role, standalone primary dealers (SPDs) to borrow in
Internal green transformation, and foreign currency from their parent companies and
Strategic resource mobilization. entities it has authorised.
This strategy will make NABARD a pivotal player They can also access overdraft facilities in their
in India’s transition towards a resilient and nostro accounts for operational purposes.
sustainable economy. Definition of Nostro Account: A nostro account is
India's Sustainable Environment Goals: India is a bank account held in a foreign country by a
the world's third-largest emitter of greenhouse domestic bank, denominated in the currency of
gases, after China and the United States. that foreign country.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Key Highlights: Authorized Dealers (ADs) and FX Derivatives:
SPDs in India: An SPD dealing in euros would ADs (banks authorized to deal in foreign
open an account with a bank in the European exchange/FX) should report all OTC (over the
Union for transaction settlements. counter) FX derivative contracts and foreign
Standalone Primary Dealers (SPDs): As of March currency interest rate derivative contracts,
31, 2023, there were 7 SPDs registered as non- undertaken by them directly or through their
banking financial companies (NBFCs) with the overseas entities
RBI. (including overseas branches, IFSC Banking
The RBI has also included SPDs within the scope Units, wholly owned subsidiaries and joint
of norms for risk management and inter-bank ventures of ADs), to the Trade Repository (TR) of
dealings, enabling them to engage in foreign Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL).
exchange products. Net Overnight Open Position Limit (NOOPL):
2018 Authorization: SPDs were authorized in Capital Charge: A board of authorized dealers
2018 to offer forex products to clients, including may set the NOOPL for calculating the capital
foreign portfolio investors. charge on forex risk.
SPDs have been classified as Authorised Dealer However, this limit should not exceed 25% of the
Category-III. dealer's total capital (Tier-I and Tier-II capital).
Non-core Activities: Forex product dealings by
SPDs will be part of their non-core activities. 144. Answer: A
Funding and Regulations: SPD Funding: Funds Free hospitalization benefits worth Rs 86,000
mobilized by SPDs grew by 4% year-on-year in crore have been provided to beneficiaries of the
2022-23. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)
Borrowings accounted for 3% of their total since the scheme was rolled out in September
sources of funds. 2018.
Risk Management and Reporting: The RBI's More than 65 million people have so far benefited
Master Direction on Risk Management and Inter- from the PMJAY scheme which offers Rs
Bank Dealings states that if foreign currency 5,00,000-a-year free health cover.
draws exceed prescribed limits and are not The scheme was made available for 107 million
adjusted within 5 days, a report must be poor households in the country, roughly covering
submitted within 15 days from the end of the the bottom 40% of the population.
month when the limit was exceeded.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
The Centre launched the scheme on September Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011) for
23, 2018, to alleviate the suffering of the people rural and urban areas respectively.
due to the rising cost of healthcare. M-JAY was earlier known as the National Health
People from Tamil Nadu benefitted most under Protection Scheme (NHPS) before being
the scheme, followed by Karnataka, Rajasthan, rechristened. It subsumed the then-existing
Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) which
Key Highlights had been
More than 34.29 crore Ayushman Cards have launched in 2008.
been issued to beneficiaries so far. As many as The coverage mentioned under PM-JAY,
30,162 public and private hospitals are therefore, also includes families that were
empanelled under PM-JAY. covered in RSBY but are not present in the SECC
According to a Niti Aayog report unveiled in 2011 database. PM-JAY is fully funded by the
October 2021, at least 30% of the population, or Government and the cost of implementation is
400 shared between the Central and State
million individuals – called the missing middle in Governments.
this report – are devoid of any financial protection It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and
for health. 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses such as
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) diagnostics and medicines.
scheme was launched on 23rd September 2018 There is no restriction on family size, age or
in Ranchi, Jharkhand by the Hon’ble Prime gender. All pre-existing conditions are covered
Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi. from day one.
About PM-JAY The National Health Authority is implementing the
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is the largest health scheme.
assurance scheme in the world which aims at
providing a health cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family 145. Answer: B
per year for secondary and tertiary care The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
hospitalization to over 12 crores of poor and (FSSAI) ordered a comprehensive testing of
vulnerable families (approximately 55 crore spices from all brands across the nation.
beneficiaries) that form the bottom 40% of the This decision follows the suspension of sales of
Indian population. certain spice blends from two leading brands,
The households included are based on the MDH and Everest, by Singapore and Hong Kong.
deprivation and occupational criteria of the Socio-

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
The suspension was due to elevated levels of and orders related to food safety that were
ethylene oxide (ETO), a pesticide unsuitable for previously handled by various ministries and
human consumption and associated with long- departments.
term cancer risks. The FSSAI has its headquarters in New Delhi.
Additionally, it has instructed state governments The authority also has four regional offices
to conduct spice testing to guarantee quality. The located in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai.
FSSAI also intends to initiate surveillance on There are 22 referral laboratories notified by
other food products such as fortified rice and FSSAI, 72 State/UT laboratories located
dairy products. throughout India and 112 laboratories are NABL-
In a separate development, India's Spices Board accredited private laboratories notified by FSSAI.
has mandated ETO testing for all spices exported
to Hong Kong and Singapore. This testing comes 146. Answer: B
into effect from May 6.
 Investments through participatory notes in
Despite Indian authorities establishing standards
the Indian capital markets reached Rs 1.5
for 30 spices and condiments, export countries
lakh crore at the end of February 2024,
such as Hong Kong, Singapore, and the US
making it the highest level in nearly six
maintain their stringent standards compared to
years, driven by a strong performance of
those in India.
the domestic economy.
Last month, Hong Kong suspended sales of three
 The latest data includes the value of P-
spice blends produced by MDH and one fish curry
note investments in Indian equity, debt,
spice mix by Everest. Singapore, too, issued a
and hybrid securities.
recall for the same Everest blend.
 Participatory notes (P-notes) are issued by
About FSSAI:
registered foreign portfolio investors (FPIs)
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
to overseas investors who wish to be part
(FSSAI) is a statutory body under the
of the Indian stock market without
administration of the Ministry of Health and
registering themselves directly.
Family Welfare, Government of India. It regulates
 They, however, need to go through a due
the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and
diligence process.
import of food articles, while also establishing
Key Highlights
standards to ensure food safety. The FSSAI was
established by the Food Safety and Standards
Act, of 2006, which consolidated all former acts

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
 According to the latest data from markets The ISL Cup final was played at the Vivekananda
regulator Sebi, the value of P-note Yuba Bharati Krirangan in Kolkata.
investments in Indian markets -- equity, Golden Glove: Phurba Lachenpa (Mumbai City
debt, and hybrid securities -- stood at Rs FC), Golden Boot: Dimitrios Diamantakos (Kerala
1,49,517 crore at the end Blasters FC)
 of February compared to Rs 1,43,011 Emerging Player of the League: Vikram Partap
crore at the end of January. Singh (Mumbai City FC).
 Of the total Rs 1.5 lakh crore invested Player of the League: Dimitrios Petratos (Mohun
through this route till February, Rs 1.27 Bagan Super Giant).
lakh crore was invested in equities, Rs
21,303 crore in debt, and Rs 541 crore in 148. Answer: D
hybrid securities. The Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of
 In addition, assets under custody of the Chemicals and Fertilizers launched the
FPIs grew to Rs 68.55 lakh crore in MEDITECH STACKATHON 2024.
February-end from Rs 66.96 lakh crore in MEDITECH STACKATHON 2024 was launched
the preceding month. in New Delhi in collaboration with the
 Meanwhile, FPIs invested a net sum of Rs Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
1,539 crore in the Indian equities and Rs Its goal is to transform the rapidly expanding
22,419 MedTech industry in India by carefully examining
 crore in the debt market in February. the value chain of certain medical products.
Its objective is to address significant issues,
147. Answer: D encourage domestic production, reduce
Mumbai City FC beat Mohun Bagan Super Giant dependency on imports, and eventually position
3-1 at the Salt Lake Stadium to emerge as the India as a world leader in medical technology.
Indian Super League (ISL) 2023-24 Cup Winners The STACKATHON included several topics,
at the final in Kolkata. including critical care, imaging, and cancer
Indian Super League (ISL) 2023-24 was the 10th therapy.
season of ISL. India is the 4th largest market for medical devices
It started on 21 September 2023. in Asia and among the top 20 globally.
It concluded with the ISL Cup final on 4 May India’s MedTech industry holds immense
2024. potential, with projections estimating a growth

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
rate of 28% annually, reaching a size of USD 50 Nagar” published by HarperCollinsIndia and
billion by 2030. Saurabh Garge for “The Adornment of Gods”
published by
149. Answer: E Westland Books.
Oxford Bookstores announced Bhavi Mehta as
the winner of the 9th edition of the Oxford 150. Answer: A
Bookstore Book Cover Prize at a celebratory The legendary coach who led Argentina to its first
event hosted at the India Habitat Centre. World Cup title in 1978, César Luis Menotti, has
Mehta won the prize for the book jacket of “The passed away at the age of 85.
Book Beautiful” published by Hachette India and About Cesar Luis Menotti:
authored by Pradeep Sebastian. Known as “El Flaco” (“Slim”), Menotti played for
The winner was felicitated with a trophy, several prominent clubs including Rosario
certificate and 1 Lakh Indian Rupees cash prize Central, Boca Juniors, and Santos.
by Alka Pande, Museum curator, art historian, He began his coaching career with Newell’s Old
author and jury chair; Dr. Shashi Tharoor, well- Boys and won the Argentine championship with
known author, politician and Member of Huracan in 1973.
Parliament; H.E Ms. May-Elin Stener, He took over as head coach of the Argentine
Ambassador of Norway to India, Ms. Anja national team in 1974 and led Argentina to its first
Riedeberger, Director Information Services South World Cup victory in 1978.
Asia Goethe-Institut / Max Mueller Bhavan As a manager, he won three cups with Barcelona
and Mr.Swagat Sengupta, CEO, Apeejay Oxford and also led Atlético Madrid in La Liga in the
Bookstores, in the presence of designers, 1980s, as well as leading Superclásico rivals
publishers, artists and literary enthusiasts from Boca Juniors and River Plate.
the industry. He was briefly the manager of Mexico and Italian
In addition to the winning cover, three more Serie A club Sampdoria in the 1990s.
designers were acknowledged by the jurors in Menotti coached Argentina’s national team
appreciation of their remarkable command of between 1974 and 1983.
graphics and visual narratives. He was convinced the side did not get the
These designers are Gunjan Ahlawat for the recognition it deserved when it won the World
book, “The Penguin Book of Indian Poets” Cup in 1978 because the country was ruled by a
published by Hamish Hamilton- an imprint of military junta responsible for widespread human
Penguin Random House; Saurav Das for “Azad rights violations.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
151. Answer: C About Drone Didi Yojana
The Ministry of Skill Development and NAMO Drone Didi Scheme was launched by
Entrepreneurship (MSDE) signed a Memorandum Prime Minister Sh. Narendra Modi through Video
of Understanding (MoU) with Mahindra & Conferencing on 30th of November 2023.
Mahindra Ltd to conduct two Pilot Projects under The main objective behind starting this scheme is
the Drone Didi Yojana. to empower women members of Self Help
Launched earlier this year, the scheme aims to Groups by providing them a mode and platform to
train 15,000 women to operate drones for earn more.
agricultural purposes such as fertilizing crops, This scheme is also known by some other names
monitoring crop growth and planting seeds, in the whole the country like “NAMO Drone Didi
thereby creating new livelihood opportunities for Yojana” or “Pradhanmantri Drone Didi Scheme”
women through imparting skills in new technology or “Prime Minister Drone Didi Scheme”.
areas. The initiative aims to supply drones to 15,000
Under this partnership, MSDE and M&M will women Self Help Groups (SHGs) to rent to
conduct two Pilot Projects at the National Skill farmers for agriculture purposes.
Training Institute (NSTI), situated in Hyderabad The government of India under the NAMO Drone
and Noida, to skill 500 women in exclusive Didi Scheme will provide drones on subsidised
batches of 20 women each. prices to Women Self Help Groups.
The 15-day curriculum, approved by the These Drones can be used by the members of
Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), will Women Self Help Groups for rental purposes.
be delivered through Remote Pilot Training A subsidy of 80% of Drone Cost or a maximum of
Organisation (RPTO) instructors at these Rs. 8,00,000/- will be provided to Women Self
Centres. Help Groups (SHGs) to purchase drones for
The learning and outcomes from the Pilot commercial purposes under the NAMO Drone
Projects will assist MSDE in scaling up the Drone Didi Scheme.
Didi Yojana at identified NSTIs/ITIs across the A loan Facility from the National Agriculture India
country. Financing Facility (AIF) will also be available for
As further support to the intent of the Drone Didi Women SHGs to cover the remaining cost of the
Yojana, M&M will soon roll out Drone training for drone.
women at the company’s skilling centres at The interest rate payable on a loan from AIF is
Zaheerabad, Telangana, and Nagpur, 3% per year.
Maharashtra.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
It is mandatory to complete the drone fly training Cashback Options: Users can earn up to 5%
program to avail of the subsidy on the purchase cashback on dining and entertainment, travel,
of drones under the Namo Drone Didi Scheme. fashion,
It is to be estimated that, Beneficiaries of the electronics, and grocery purchases.
Namo Drone Didi Scheme can earn an additional Additionally, they can earn 3% cashback on
income of Rs. 1,00,000/- per year with the help of select online platforms like Amazon, Flipkart, and
drones which is provided to them under the Namo PayZapp, and 1% cashback on other spends.
Drone Didi Scheme. Instant Digital Issuance: Seamless digital
Only Women Self Help Groups are eligible to onboarding with instant digital card issuance and
claim the subsidy to purchase drones under the instant online and offline shopping with Tap &
NAMO Drone Didi Scheme. Pay.
Drone will only be used for rental purposes for Control and Management: Users have complete
Agricultural Activity. control through PayZapp, including card control
settings, and real-time tracking on spends,
152. Answer: A rewards, EMIs, statements, and repayments.
HDFC Bank has launched "PIXEL," an end-to- Customer Service: Complete digital customer
end, mobile app-based customizable DIY digital service support available 24/7.
card range. PIXEL will be offered in 2 variants –PIXEL Play
PIXEL is aimed at customers characterised by and PIXEL Go.
digital fluency, unique preferences, and distinct Both card variants offer up to 50 50-day credit-
financial behaviours. free periods.
PIXEL is a first-of-its- kind range of digital credit PIXEL Play: A 'Build Your Own Card' variant
card series that offers seamless app-based offering customisable benefits including
issuance, complete digital lifecycle management, merchants for accelerated cashback, card color,
user engagement and digital servicing. and billing date.
Key Features : Targeted at users seeking digital customization
Customization: Customers can customise the and credit card benefits.
maximum value, choice of merchants for earning PIXEL Go: Designed for beginners entering the
cashback, choice of online platforms for credit card world, offering flexibility in payments
cashback, card colours, billing dates, and through pay-in-parts.
repayment options including low-cost EMIs. Banking tech company, Zeta, is the technology
provider for Pixel.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
About HDFC Bank Limited : Transaction Limits According to NPCI: The UPI
Founded : August 1994 Lite wallet is designed for small transactions, with
Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra, India transaction limits set by the National Payments
MD & CEO : Sashidhar Jagdishan Corporation of India (NPCI) at up to Rs 500 per
Tagline : We Understand Your World transaction.
About Paytm :
153. Answer: E Founded : August 2010
One97 Communications, the parent company of Headquarters : Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India
Paytm, has launched the UPI Lite wallet to
simplify payments, particularly for low-value 154. Answer: D
transactions. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), a global leader
Key Highlights : in IT services, consulting, and business solutions,
Convenience: Paytm's UPI Lite wallet offers a has announced the creation of a Global Artificial
seamless payment experience, eliminating the Intelligence (AI) Center of Excellence in Paris,
need to enter a PIN for each transaction. during the Choose France Summit, hosted by
Transaction Limits: Users can make instant President Emmanuel Macron.
transactions of up to Rs 500 each using the UPI The center will focus on designing and evolving
Lite wallet. AI to address business efficiencies and societal
Additionally, they can add up to Rs 2,000 to their priorities, particularly in areas like brain-computer
wallet twice a day, totalling Rs 4,000 daily. interface, empathy in machines, and AI's role in
Utility: Paytm emphasizes the UPI Lite wallet as arts and culture.
an essential tool for everyday transactions, The new AI center will be situated in the
providing convenience and efficiency. upcoming TCS PacePort™ in the La Défense
Bank Integration: Integration with major banks area of Paris.
ensures a reliable payment experience for users. Inauguration is scheduled for June 2024, making
Leading banks such as Axis Bank, HDFC Bank, it the 7th such facility in TCS' global Pace
State Bank of India, and YES Bank are part of network, joining locations like Amsterdam,
this collaboration. London, New York, Pittsburgh, Toronto, and
Collaboration: One97 Communications Limited The TCS AI Center of Excellence in Paris will
collaborates with prominent Payment System leverage TCS’ global ecosystem of startups,
Providers to establish a robust and reliable academia, and research organizations to bring
framework for the UPI Lite wallet.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
the best of global capabilities to French Secretary Posts, Director (IB), Registrar General
companies. of India and senior officers were also present
The plan for the new AI center, unveiled at a during the interactive session.
summit attended by 300 global CEOs, will be
inaugurated in June 2024. 156. Answer: E
TCS commenced operations in 1992, and since The Ramcharitmanas, Sahrdayaloka-Locana, and
then acquired TKS- Teknosoft in 2006, and Alti in Panchatantra have been included in the United
2013, to boost its presence in the region. Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
About TCS : Organization’s (UNESCO) Memory of the World
Founded : 1968 Asia-Pacific Regional Register, marking a
Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra, India significant achievement for India.
Chairman : Natarajan Chandrasekaran UNESCO has recognized a total of 20 items from
CEO : K. Krithivasan the Asia Pacific region in its Memory of the World
Regional Register for the 2024 cycle.
155. Answer: E These included three each from China and
The first set of citizenship certificates to 14 Indonesia, and two each from Malaysia,
people was issued under the Citizenship Mongolia, the Philippines, and Uzbekistan.
(Amendment) Act 2019 or CAA, nearly two The decision on the same was taken on May 7-8
months after the Centre notified it, initiating the in the 10th General Meeting of the Memory of the
process of granting Indian nationality to World Committee for Asia and the Pacific
persecuted non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, (MOWCAP) in Ulaanbaatar, the capital of
Afghanistan and Bangladesh. Mongolia.
Under the CAA, the qualification period of The addition of these 3 Indian literary legacies in
citizenship application has been reduced from 11 the register will attract more readers, and
to 5 years for undocumented non-Muslim researchers across the world to dive into the
migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and artistic world of expression.
Afghanistan who came to India before December Key Highlights :
31, 2014. Authors and Works:
Union Home Secretary Shri Ajay Kumar Bhalla Ramcharitmanas: Written by Goswami Tulsidas
handed over the citizenship certificates to the in the 16th century, a retelling of the Ramayana in
applicants in Delhi and highlighted salient the Awadhi dialect.
features of the CAA.

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Panchatantra: Attributed to Vishnu Sharma, cooperation in education, arts, sciences and
penned around the 3rd century BCE, is known for culture.
its 'story within a story' structure.
Sahrdayaloka-Locana: Written by Acharya 157. Answer: D
Anandvardhan, commented upon by philosopher Indian merchant payment company Pine Labs
Abhinava Gupta, focusing on Indian poetics and has partnered with Emirates NBD, one of the
aesthetic appreciation. major banks in the Middle East, North Africa and
Role of IGNCA: Turkey (MENAT) region to deploy its payment
The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts solutions to the bank's business clients.
(IGNCA) played a crucial role in securing the Emirates NBD will offer Pine Labs' newly
inclusion of these works during the 10th launched credit issuing platform to deliver
MOWCAP meeting. merchant acquiring solutions for its corporate and
MOWCAP Overview: institutional clients, initially in the United Arab
In the Asia Pacific region, a specific branch called Emirates, then across the Kingdom of Saudi
the Memory of the World Committee for Asia and Arabia and Egypt.
the Pacific (MOWCAP) was established in 1998. These solutions will enable the bank’s clients to
MOWCAP covers 43 countries, representing one improve their digital payment solutions for both
of UNESCO's five regional programs. online and in-store payments.
There are 494 inscriptions on the International About Pine Labs
MoW Register, as of May 2023, according to the Pine Labs is an Indian company that provides
UNESCO website. MOWCAP Regional Register point-of-sales systems and payment systems.
has inscribed 65 items from Asia-Pacific Founded in 1998.
countries. B Amrish Rau, CEO, Pine Labs.
About UNESCO :
Formation : 16 November 1945 158. Answer: C
Headquarters : Paris, France Legendary Indian banker Narayanan Vaghul, the
Director General : Audrey Azoulay recipient of the Padma Bhushan Award in 2009,
Members : 194 member states and 12 associate has passed away.
members Narayanan Vaghul was the youngest head of a
UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United bank when he took over as chairman of the Bank
Nations (UN) with the aim of promoting world of India at the age of 44 in the year 1981.
peace and security through international

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Between 1981 and 1985 he headed the Polyclinic in Sector-31, and the Primary Health
development bank ICICI Ltd. as its Chairman & Center in Wazirabad.
CEO. It was under him that ICICI Ltd transformed The program capitalizes on the naturally
from a development bank to India’s second- heightened tactile sensitivity possessed by
largest private sector commercial bank. visually impaired individuals.
Narayanan Vaghul, 88, started his career in State The launch of Savera coincides with the
Bank of India. establishment of the National Cancer Institute at
In 2023, Narayanan Vaghul released his memoir, AIIMS Jhajjar, equipped with 1,000 beds.
called ‘Reflections’ which carried a vivid account This comprehensive approach signifies Haryana’s
of his experiences spanning several decades in commitment to providing accessible and
India’s financial sector. advanced cancer care to its citizens.
Mr Vaghul is credited with laying the foundation of Khattar stated that cancer often goes
a new era in Indian banking through the creation undiagnosed until its later stages, ranging from
of the Universal Banking model to cater to the stage 2 to stage 4, impacting various parts of the
needs of varied segments of customers. body.
It was he who introduced the concept of credit Similarly, breast cancer is also one of those
rating in India and established CRISIL in 1987. cancers.
About 90,000 women across the country lose
159. Answer: B their lives every year due to breast cancer.
Haryana Chief Minister Shri Manohar Lal, About Haryana :
inaugurated the ‘Savera’ program initiated by the Governor : Bandaru Dattatreya
Medanta Foundation in collaboration with the Chief Minister : Manohar Lal Khattar
Health Department in Gurugram, aimed at early Capital : Chandigarh
detection and prevention of breast cancer, a National Park : Kalesar National Park
growing concern among women. Wildlife Sanctuary : Bhindawas Wildlife & Bird
This groundbreaking initiative marks the first of its Sanctuary, Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary
kind in the country, focusing on detecting
breast cancer in its early stages among women. 160. Answer: D
Key Highlights : The Central Consumer Protection Authority
In its initial phase, the program will be launched at (CCPA) has released draft guidelines on the
the Civil Hospital in Sector-10 of Gurugram, the prevention and regulation of greenwashing for
public consultation.

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The draft guidelines state that all green claims concealing, omitting, or hiding relevant
must be backed by “verifiable” evidence and full information, by exaggerating, making vague,
disclosures regarding claims should be made false, or unsubstantiated environmental claims
either directly or through QR code or web links. and use of misleading words, symbols, or
“Generic terms such as’ clean’, ‘green’, ‘eco- imagery, placing emphasis on positive
friendly’, ‘eco-consciousness’, ‘good for the environmental aspects while downplaying or
planet’, ‘minimal impact’, ‘cruelty-free’, ‘carbon– concealing harmful attributes”.
neutral’ and similar assertions shall not be used Guidelines will apply to all advertisements and
without adequate qualifiers and substantiation Service providers, product sellers, advertisers,
and adequate disclosure,” the draft guidelines advertising agencies, or endorsers whose service
stated. is availed for the advertisement of such goods or
The draft guidelines define Greenwashing as “any services.
deceptive or misleading practice, which includes

Computer Knowledge

161. Answer: A Installation

Embedded OS is the specialized OS for use in The process of copying software programs from
computers which are built into larger systems. secondary storage media to the hard disk.

162. Answer: B 164. Answer: C

CC (Carbon Copy) UNIX is not owned and licensed by a company

 To type the e-mail address of the other

165. Answer: C
recipients’ in this box, each address is
Primary Key is a special key that uniquely
separated by a comma (,).
identifies each record in the table. It has a unique
 When you complete the mail and click the
value for each row of data, and it cannot contain
"Send" button, then the mail will
null values.
automatically be sent to all the recipients.
Super Key is a set of one or more attributes
 Here, all the recipients will know who the
whose values uniquely determine each entity in
other recipients are.
the database table.
Candidate Key is a set of columns in the table
163. Answer: D
from which primary key can be selected to identify

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
each record. Every database table may have one Find and Replace
or more candidate keys.
 Ctrl + H

166. Answer: D
172. Answer: B
Colossus was the world's first electronic digital
The first laptop computer available to the public
programmable computer. It used a large number
was the Osborne 1. The Osborne Computer
of valves (vacuum tubes). It had paper-tape input
Corporation released this model in 1981. It cost
and was capable of being configured to perform a
$1795 at the time of release.
variety of Boolean logical operations on its data,
but it was not Turing-complete.
173. Answer: B
Runtime polymorphism
167. Answer: E
In cryptography, data are sent in such a way that
 Runtime polymorphism means we will
they look completely different from the original
declare a method with same name and
data. Thus, cryptography ensures secure transfer
same parameter/signature in the different
of data over an unsecured network.
class is called runtime polymorphism.
 Runtime polymorphism or Late Binding or
168. Answer: C
Overriding or dynamic binding
A term used to describe services over a network
by a collection of servers is refers to Cloud
174. Answer: B
computing
Phishing is a cybercrime in which a target or
targets are contacted by email, telephone or text
169. Answer: B
message by someone posing as a legitimate
Verification means are we building Product Right
institution to lure individuals into providing
and Validation means are we building Right
sensitive data such as personally identifiable
Product.
information, banking and credit card details, and
passwords.
170. Answer: D
In Power Point, the Header & Footer button can
175. Answer: A
be found on the Insert tab in Text group.
The Scottish mathematician John Napier
published his discovery of logarithms in 1614. His
171. Answer: A

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
purpose was to assist in the multiplication of 179. Answer: B
quantities that were then called sines. The UNIX is a multitasking operating system
where many users can work at a single time. It is
176. Answer: B open source and works on the basis of
"Mnemonic", a "memory trick" is used in commands. The “IS” command is used to repeat
"Assembly language". It is low level symbolic the entire last command line.
language that is translated by the assembler.
Mnemonics are used to depict various operations 180. Answer: D
and commands in Auxiliary memory is also called secondary
assembly language. memory.

177. Answer: C 181. Answer: C

The first (retroactively) RISC-labeled processor Spark lines are graphs that can fit into one cell
(IBM 801 – IBM's Watson Research Center, mid- and gives information about the data.
1970s) was a tightly pipelined simple machine Spark lines are not charted objects; instead, they
originally intended to be used as an internal exist as background images within a cell. They
microcode kernel, or engine, in CISC designs, but will instantly update when the data change. Excel
also became the processor that introduced the Spark lines are customizable.
RISC idea to a somewhat larger public.
A complex instruction set computer (CISC /ˈsɪsk/) 182. Answer: A
is a computer in which single instructions can MIDI stands for Musical Instrument Digital
execute several low-level operations (such as a Interface, is a technical standard that describes a
load from memory, an arithmetic operation, and a protocol, digital interface and connectors and
memory store) or are capable of multi-step allows a wide variety of electronic musical
operations or addressing modes within single instruments, computers and other related devices
instructions. to connect and communicate with one another.

178. Answer: C 183. Answer: B

Fortran is a general-purpose, compiled imperative Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
programming language that is especially suited to needs to be refreshed frequently to maintain the
numeric computation and scientific computing. data.

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DRAM is used for data or program code that a A page break is a marker in an electronic
computer processor needs to function. It is used document that tells the document interpreter that
in personal computers (PCs), workstations and the content which follows is part of a new page.
servers.
Random access allows the PC processor to 188. Answer: B
access any part of the memory directly rather A field is the smallest piece of information in the
than having to proceed sequentially from a database. Different fields comprise to form what
starting place. is known as a record. For instance, if a table has
details about the employees, then the name,
184. Answer: D number, department etc. are the fields.
For representing binary digits, the hexadecimal
notation is used commonly. Another advantage of 189. Answer: C
using it is that a hexadecimal digit represents a FORTRAN is an abbreviation which stands for the
nibble which is one half of a byte which has range term “formula translation”. It is a machine
from 00 to FF where F is 15 in decimal system. independent, high-level programming language
which is used for mathematical & scientific
185. Answer: A purposes.
Thermal printers are inkless.
190. Answer: A
186. Answer: D E-R model uses top-down approach; Bottom-up
The Binary language uses only two numbers that approach is known as normalization.
are 0 and 1 which are assigned to particular
characters for the computer to understand the 191. Answer: B
input. A computer later converts these characters Reboots can be either cold (alternatively known
into numbers for its own understanding and then as hard) where the power to the system is
processes the instructions and later converts physically turned off and back on again, causing
them back to characters as per the numbers an initial boot of the machine, or warm
assigned to them to show the desired output. (alternatively known as soft) where the system
restarts without the need to interrupt the power.
187. Answer: B
192. Answer: C

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 IBPS RRB PO Mains Previous Year Question Paper - 2023
Animation refers to a process of creating an microprocessor as 4004. Different
illusion of motion of static images. This feature is microprocessors developed afterwards with more
available in the PowerPoint application of Office number of pins and different functionalities.
Suite.
197. Answer: A
193. Answer: A A Primary key is always linked to a unique
IBM- also known as International business variable. So it acts as a unique identifier for the
machines is the company based out of the United data in the table. Hence, it is used to prevent
States of America. It developed the first computer duplicability of data in the table. It makes sure
called as IBMPC in the year 1981. that the data to which the key is attributed is not
duplicated anywhere in the database otherwise
194. Answer: D that data would not be inserted.
UDP and TCP protocols are used for providing
end-to-end connectivity between nodes in a 198. Answer: C
network as they use connectionless and 10 and 500 are valid minimum & maximum zoom
connection oriented services, respectively. The sizes in MS word.
end-to-end communication between nodes is the
responsibility of the Transport layer. 199. Answer: C
Multi-programming started in third generation.
195. Answer: A
Swapping concept comes in terms of process 200. Answer: C
scheduling. Scheduler removes process from John Ambrose Fleming is said to be inventor of
CPU for duration and reduces the degree of vacuum tubes, it was invented in 1904. They
multiprogramming. And after some time these were a basic component for electronics
process can again throughout the first half of the twentieth century,
be reintroduced into main memory. which saw the diffusion of radio, television, radar,
sound reinforcement, sound recording and
196. Answer: C reproduction, large telephone networks, analog
Intel is the company renowned in manufacturing and digital computers, and industrial process
of ICs and microprocessors. It built the first Intel control.

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