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ISRO Scientist CE
ISRO Scientist Civil 2020 English

90 mins 240 marks 80 questions

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ISRO Previous Year Paper

Scientist Civil 2020 Paper
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80 Questions

Que. 1 The type of bond in a brick masonry, containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called:
1. Stretcher bond
2. English bond
3. Flemish bond
4. Header bond
Correct Option - 2

Que. 2 The unit of moment of inertia of an area is

1. kg/m
2. kg/m2
3. m4
4. m3
Correct Option - 3

Que. 3 A steel rod of 30 mm diameter and 3 m length is subjected to an axial pull of 50 kN. If E = 200 ×
109 Pa, the elongation of the rod will be
1. 2.225 mm
2. 1.062 mm
3. 0.525 mm
4. 3.152 mm
Correct Option - 2

Que. 4 The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly
increasing load is always
1. Linear
2. Parabolic
3. Cubic
4. Circular
Correct Option - 3

Que. 5 Every material obeys Hooke’s law within its

1. Dimensional limit
2. Plastic point
3. Limit of proportionality
4. Failure limit
Correct Option - 3

Que. 6 An ideal flow of a liquid obeys

1. Continuity equation
2. Newton’s law of viscosity

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3. Newton’s second law of motion

4. Dynamic viscosity law
Correct Option - 1

Que. 7 A pipe contains an oil of specific gravity 0.9. A differential manometer connected at the two points
A and B shows a difference in mercury levels as 15 cm. The difference of pressure at the two points
A and B will be (Note: consider the density of mercury as 13600 kg/m3)
1. 18688 N/m2
2. 15981 N/m2
3. 288 N/m2
4. 6528 N/m2
Correct Option - 1

Que. 8 Hydrograph is the graphical representation of

1. runoff and time
2. surface runoff and time
3. ground water flow and time
4. rainfall and time
Correct Option - 1

Que. 9 The quantity of water retained by the subsoil against gravity is known as:
1. Yield
2. Porosity
3. Specific yield
4. Specific retention
Correct Option - 4

Que. 10 A soil has a bulk density of 2.3 g/cm3 and water content 15%, the dry density of soil sample is
1. 2.0 g/cm3
2. 1.5 g/cm3
3. 1.0 g/cm3
4. 2.5 g/cm3
Correct Option - 1

Que. 11 The seepage exit gradient in a soil is the ratio of

1. Total head to the length of the seepage
2. Flow line to slope
3. Head upstream to that at downstream
4. Head loss to the length of the seepage
Correct Option - 4

Que. 12 A phreatic line is defined as the line within a dam section below which there is/are-
1. Negative equipotential lines

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2. Positive hydrostatic pressure

3. Positive equipotential lines
4. Negative hydrostatic pressure
Correct Option - 2

Que. 13 A saturated soil sample has water content of 40% and specific gravity of soil particle is 2.7. The
void ratio of the soil is
1. 0.4
2. 0.52
3. 1.08
4. 2.0
Correct Option - 3

Que. 14 Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation is known

1. bleeding
2. creeping
3. segregation
4. shrinkage
Correct Option - 3

Que. 15 Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to _____.

1. larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
2. proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
3. lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
4. larger proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
Correct Option - 1

Que. 16 If d and n are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced
beam, the lever arm of the beam, is
1. d
2. n
3. d + n/3
4. d - n/3
Correct Option - 4

Que. 17 Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement bars of different diameters should not
be less than:
1. One diameter of thinner bar
2. One diameter of a thicker bar
3. Sum of the diameters of the thinner and thicker bars
4. Twice the diameter of the thinner bar
Correct Option - 2

Que. 18 Characteristics load means that value of load which has a _______ % probability of not being
exceeded during the life of structure.

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1. 5
2. 20
3. 95
4. 99
Correct Option - 3

Que. 19 Upon mixing water to the concrete ingredients, hydration takes place. The correct sequence of
stages of hydration process are:
1. Hardening, setting, loss of workability
2. Loss of workability, setting, hardening
3. Setting, loss of workability, hardening
4. Hardening, loss of workability, setting
Correct Option - 3

Que. 20 A column splice is used to increase :

1. length of the column
2. strength of the column
3. cross – sectional area of the column
4. none of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 21 The distance traveled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction time is known as
1. Sight distance
2. Stopping distance
3. Lag distance
4. Permissible distance
Correct Option - 3

Que. 22 As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in hill roads
not bound by snow is
1. 1 in 15
2. 1 in 12.5
3. 1 in 10
4. Equal to camber
Correct Option - 3

Que. 23 The time by which an activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the early start of
the succeeding activities is known as:
1. Duration
2. Total float
3. Free float
4. Interfering float
Correct Option - 3

Que. 24 One Newton’s force produces an acceleration of

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1. 1 cm/sec2 while acting on a body of 1 gm mass

2. 1 cm/sec2 while acting on a body of 1 kg mass
3. 1 m/sec2 while acting on a body of 1 kg mass
4. 1 m/sec2 while acting on a body of 1 gm mass
Correct Option - 3

Que. 25 Effective buckling length of a steel angle connected by double rivets is

1. 0.7 L
2. 0.85 L
3. L
4. 1.3 L
Correct Option - 2

Que. 26 Web crippling in steel beam occurs due to:

1. Column action of compression flange
2. Failure of web under concentrated load
3. Excessive bending moment
4. Secondary bending moment
Correct Option - 2

Que. 27 The self-weight of a steel roof truss in N/m2 may be computed by: (span = l)
1. (l/3) + 5
2. [(l/3) + 5] × 10
3. (l/3) - 5
4. [(l/3) - 5] × 10
Correct Option - 2

Que. 28 A 40 cm diameter circular timber column is 4 m long. The slenderness ratio of the column is
1. 4
2. 10
3. 20
4. 40
Correct Option - 4

Que. 29 For a given aggregate ratio increasing the water cement ratio:
1. Increases the strength
2. Decreases shrinkage
3. Increases shrinkage
4. Does not cause any change in shrinkage.
Correct Option - 3

Que. 30 Generally the ratio of different ingredients (Cement Sand and aggregate) in concrete mix of grade
M20 is:
1. 1: 2: 4

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2. 1: 1.5: 3
3. 1: 3: 6
4. 1: 1: 2
Correct Option - 2

Que. 31 Which of the following is not considered in the design of the isolated footings?
1. Bending moment
2. Shear
3. Punching stress
4. Torsion
Correct Option - 4

Que. 32 In limit state approach, spacing of main reinforcement controls primarily:

1. Collapse
2. Deflection
3. Cracking
4. Durability
Correct Option - 3

Que. 33 What is the angle of dip at magnetic poles of earth?

1. Zero
2. 45°
3. 90°
4. 180°
Correct Option - 3

Que. 34 If the reduced bearing of line AB is N 30° E and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure
respectively of the line AB will be:
1. + 86.6 m, + 50 m
2. + 50 m, + 86.6 m
3. + 86.6 m, - 50 m
4. - 86.6 m, + 50 m
Correct Option - 1

Que. 35 A circular curve has 300 m radius and 60-degree deflection angle. The length of curve and tangent
length respectively are:
1. 200 m, 150 m
2. 314.16 m, 173.21 m
3. 305.68 m, 158.73 m
4. 450 m, 220 m
Correct Option - 2

Que. 36 The ranging operation in a survey is a process of

1. Reconnaissance
2. Judging the distance

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3. Establishing intermediate points between terminals

4. Determination of slope
Correct Option - 3

Que. 37 Zenith is the point on the celestial sphere

1. Just below the observer's station
2. Just above the observer's station
3. Just on the left of the observer's station
4. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 38 The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is 2.78 and of coarse aggregate is 7.82 and the desired
fineness modulus of mixed aggregate is 6.14. What is the amount of fine aggregate to be mixed
with one part of coarse aggregate?
1. 55%
2. 50%
3. 45%
4. 40%
Correct Option - 2

Que. 39 Slump test is performed to measure

1. plasticity of concrete
2. Young’s modulus of concrete
3. Compressive stress of concrete
4. Tensile stress of concrete
Correct Option - 1

Que. 40 What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete
(fck) of M25 grade concrete?
1. 0.08
2. 0.11
3. 0.14
4. 0.17
Correct Option - 3

Que. 41 Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?
1. Compression test
2. Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
3. Split test
4. Tension test
Correct Option - 2

Que. 42 The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of
the material is
1. 1/7

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2. 2/7
3. 3/7
4. 4/7
Correct Option - 2

Que. 43 Two planks each of 50 mm × 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form a section
50 mm × 100 mm and used as a beam. If the shear force at a section is 1000 N, what is the
maximum shear on the glue?
1. 0.15 MPa
2. 0.3 MPa
3. 0.6 MPa
4. 2.4 MPa
Correct Option - 2

Que. 44 At a certain point in a structural member, there are perpendicular stresses 80 N/mm2 and 20
N/mm2, both tensile. What is the equivalent stress in simple tension, according to the maximum
principal strain theory? (Poisson’s ratio = 0.25)
1. 0 N/mm2
2. 20 N/mm2
3. 60 N/mm2
4. 75 N/mm2
Correct Option - 4

Que. 45 Two simply supported beams are made up of the same material and are of the same cross section.
Both beams carry uniformly distributed loads of equal intensities. One beam is 2 m long and the
other is 4 m long. The 2 m long beam shows a central deflection of 1 mm. What is the central deflection of
the 4m long beam?
1. 16 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 8 mm
4. 1 mm
Correct Option - 1

Que. 46 When the ratio of the long to short dimension of the slab is greater than X, the slab shall be
designed as one-way slab, where X is
1. 1.1
2. 1.5
3. 1.8
4. 2.0
Correct Option - 4

Que. 47 A reinforced concrete cantilever porch has thickness t. The main reinforcement steel will be
placed:
1. At mid-thickness.
2. At t/3 from the top.

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3. Close to the bottom surface.

4. Close to the top surface.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 48 A purely cohesive soil was tested by unconfined compression test. The mean unconfined
compression strength was obtained as 50 kN/ sq.m. The net ultimate bearing capacity of the soil
adopting terzaghi's concept will be (adopt bearing capacity factor = 5.7, 1 kg approximately equal to 10 N).
1. 90 kN/sq.m
2. 120 kN/ sq.m
3. 142.50 kN/sq.m
4. 162.50 kN/ sq.m
Correct Option - 3

Que. 49 Web buckling occurs in a beam due to excessive

1. Direct tensile stress in the web
2. Bending tensile stress in the web
3. Torsional shear stress in the web
4. Compressive stress in the web
Correct Option - 4

Que. 50 In an isolated reinforced concrete footing of effective depth d, the stress in punching shear is
checked
1. at the centre of the column
2. at the face of the column
3. at a distance d/2 away from the face of the column
4. at a distance d/2 away from the centre of the column
Correct Option - 3

Que. 51 An ISJC 200 channel section has the following details: width of flange 70 mm, depth of channel
200 mm, the thickness of flange tf = 7.1 mm, a moment of inertia Ixx = 1161.2 cm4: The distance
of shear centre from the centre of the web will be
1. 16.82 mm
2. 18.58 mm
3. 22.87 mm
4. 27.87 mm
Correct Option - 4

Que. 52 Relative humidity is

1. Something concerned with air conditioning
2. The ratio of moisture present in air to the capability of air to hold maximum moisture
3. The ratio of actual humidity to absolute humidity
4. Representative of amount of moisture held in air
Correct Option - 2

Que. 53

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As per the Indian Standard specification for drinking water (IS 10500 : 2012), what is the maximum
acceptable limit of Fluoride (as F), in mg/l
1. 0.03
2. 0.70
3. 1.00
4. 30
Correct Option - 3

Que. 54 A trapezoidal channel with base of 6 m and side slope of two horizontal to one vertical conveys
water at 17 m3/sec with a depth of 1.5 m. The flow situation in the channel is:
1. Critical
2. Supercritical
3. Subcritical
4. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 55 Consider the following statement associated with critical path:

1. Critical path is the most important sequence of activities which has no float and which determine
the project completion period
2. Critical path is the largest path with shortest duration within which the project can be completed
3. The difference between early start time and late finish time must be equal to the activity duration
4. Cannot pass through dummy activity
Which is among the above are correct statements?
1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option - 3

Que. 56 Peak Gust wind speed as per IS 875 (Part 3) - 2015, for design loads is defined as:
1. Wind speed associated with maximum wave length
2. Wind speed associated with maximum frequency and velocity
3. Wind speed associated with maximum amplitude
4. Wind speed associated with maximum amplitude and wave length
Correct Option - 3

Que. 57 As per IS 875 (part 3): 2015, while considering the wind load acting in the direction normal to the
individual structural element or cladding unit, the following is not considered
1. Material density coefficient
2. Internal and external pressure coefficients
3. Surface area
4. Design wind pressure
Correct Option - 1

Que. 58

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As per Indian Standards, linear dynamic analysis shall be performed to obtain the design lateral force for all
buildings other than:
1. Rectangular buildings lower than 15 m in seismic zone I
2. Regular building lower than 15 m in seismic zone II
3. Regular building lower than 10 m in seismic zone II
4. Rectangular buildings lower than 10 m in seismic zone I
Correct Option - 2

Que. 59 A tube of aluminium of 40 mm external diameter and 20 mm internal diameter is snugly fitted on a
solid steel rod of 20 mm diameter. The composite bar is subjected to an axial compressive force P.
If the stress on steel bar is 70 N/mm2, the stress in the aluminium tube and corresponding value of P will be:
(E for steel: 2 × 105 N/mm2 and E for aluminium 7 × 104 N/mm2)
1. 24.5 N/mm2, 45.08 kN
2. 36.5 N/mm2, 60.10 kN
3. 54.5 N/mm2, 73.10 kN
4. 73.80 N/mm2, 92.60 kN
Correct Option - 1

Que. 60 A timber beam of rectangular section of length 8 m is simply supported. The beam carries a
uniformly distributed load of 12 kN/m, over the entire length and a point load of 10 kN at 3 m from
the left support. If the depth is two times the width and stress in the timber is not to exceed 10 N/mm2, what
is the suitable depth of the section?
1. 412 mm
2. 512 mm
3. 612 mm
4. 712 mm
Correct Option - 2

Que. 61 The ruling gradient in a hill road is 6% and a horizontal curve is provided for a radius of 75 meters.
The compensated gradient of the road will be
1. 3%
2. 4%
3. 5%
4. 6%
Correct Option - 3

Que. 62 If the average sewage from a city is 95 × 106 l/day and the average five-day BOD is 300 mg/l, the
population equivalent of the city is: (assume 5 day BOD percapita at 20°C = 0.075 kg/day)
1. 2,10,000
2. 3,80,000
3. 5,10,000
4. 6,25,000
Correct Option - 2

Que. 63

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A pipe 1500 m long and 200 mm in diameter is laid at a slope of 1 in 200 for the first half length and a slope
of 1 in 100 for the second half length. The pressure at the upper and lower ends are respectively 1 kg/cm2
(98.1 kN/m2) and 0.5 kg/cm2 (49.05 kN/m2). If coefficient of friction f = 0.04, the discharge in cum/sec will
be
1. 0.0324
2. 0.0415
3. 0.0489
4. 0.0521
Correct Option - 1

Que. 64 In an unconfined compression test, a sample clay 100 mm long and 50 mm in diameter fails under
a load of 150 N at 10% strain. What is the shearing resistance taking into account the effect of
change in cross-section of the sample?
1. 0.068 N/mm2
2. 0.088 N/mm2
3. 0.034 N/mm2
4. 0.044 N/mm2
Correct Option - 1

Que. 65 The density of a fully saturated specimen of clay having a water content of 40% is 1.88 gm/cc. On
oven drying, the density drops to 1.74 gm/cc. The shrinkage limit of the specimen will be (adopt γω
= 1.0 gm/cc)
1. 13.12%
2. 16.18%
3. 22.99%
4. 26.88%
Correct Option - 3

Que. 66 A camera equipped with a 152 mm focal length lens is used to take a vertical photograph from a
flying height of 2780 m above mean sea level. If the terrain is flat and located at an elevation of
500 m, the scale of the photograph will be
1. 1 : 15000
2. 1 : 20000
3. 1 : 22000
4. 1 : 24500
Correct Option - 1

Que. 67 Rain fall intensities in mm/hr at half an hour interval during a 4-hour storm were: 5, 9, 20, 13, 6, 8,
16 and 3 mm/hr. If the corresponding observed runoff is 27.45 million m3 from a basin having an
area of 1830 Km2? The ϕ-index for storm is
1. 6.25 mm/hr
2. 6.7 mm/hr
3. 7.2 mm/hr
4. 7 mm/hr
Correct Option - 3

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Que. 68 An activated sludge tank is 30 m in long 9 m wide and has liquid depth of 4 m. The influent
sewage flow rate is 3.5 MLD. The primary effluent has BOD of 130 mg/l and suspended load of 15
mg/I. The MLSS concentration in the aeration tank is 1800 mg/I. The Corresponding F/M ratio is
1. 0.19
2. 0.23
3. 0.32
4. 0.46
Correct Option - 2

Que. 69 As per IS 456-2000, deformed bars may be used without end anchorage provided
1. Minimum spacing between the adjacent rod is ensured
2. Sufficient cover is provided to the reinforcement bars
3. Development length required is satisfied
4. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 70 A propped cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a moment M at the propped end. The support
moment at the fixed end will be
1. M
2. M/2
3. M/3
4. 2M
Correct Option - 2

Que. 71 Consider a 3 × 3 real symmetric matrix A such that the two of its Eigen values are a ≠ 0 and b ≠ 0
x1 y1
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤

with respective Eigen vectors ⎢ x 2

⎥ , ⎢ y2 ⎥ . If a ≠ b, then x1 y1 + x2 y2 + x3 y3 equals
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
x3 y3

1. a
2. b
3. ab
4. 0
Correct Option - 4

Que. 72 The area enclosed between the straight line y = x and the parabola y = x2 in the x – y plane
is____________
1. 1/6
2. 1/4
3. 1/3
4. 1/2
Correct Option - 1

Que. 73 The right circular cone of largest volume that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m radius a height of
1. 1/3 m
2. 2/3 m

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3. 11/3 m
4. 4/3 m
Correct Option - 4

Que. 74 Consider the function f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 in the domain [-1, 2]. The global minimum of f(x) is:
1. -5
2. 0
3. -1
4. -7
Correct Option - 1

Que. 75 The solution of x

dy
4
+ y = x with the condition y (1) = 6
is
dx 5

1.
4
x 1
y = +
5 x

2. y =
4x
4

+
4

5 5x

3. y =
x
4

+ 1
5

4. y =
x
5

Correct Option - 1

Que. 76 The inverse Laplace transform of the function F (s) =

1
is given by
s(s+1)

1. f (t) = sin t
2. f (t) = e-t sint
3. f(t) = e-t
4. f(t) = 1 - e-t
Correct Option - 4

Que. 77 Laplace transform of cos(ωt)is s

. The laplace transform of e-2t cos(4t) is
2 2
s +ω

1. s−2

2
(s−2) +16

2. s+2

2
(s−2) +16

3. s−2

2
(s+2) +16

4. s+2

2
(s+2) +16

Correct Option - 4

Que. 78 A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4 bolts. Items are drawn from the box at random one at a time
without replacement. The probability of drawing 2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
1. 2/315
2. 1/630
3. 1/1260
4. 1/2520

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Correct Option - 3

Que. 79 Consider an unbiased cubic dice with opposite faces coloured identically and each face coloured
red, blue or green such that each colour appears only two times on the dice. If the dice is thrown
thrice, the probability of obtaining red colour on top face of the dice at least twice is _______
1. 7

27

2. 10

127

3. 19

27

4. 1

Correct Option - 1

Que. 80 The argument of the complex number

1+i
, where i = √−−
−
−1 , is
1−i

1. π
2. −
π

3. π

4. 2π
Correct Option - 3

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