REVIEWER

1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was

installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were
visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that
collects information.

2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate
offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet
Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected
networks. Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to
an organization and is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization,
employees, or others with authorization. Extranets provide secure and safe access
to suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.

3. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network
resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking
trend does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the corporate
network. Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network, such as security
and compatibility with corporate software and devices.
4. What is an ISP?
 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for
networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network
communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect
to the Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different
networking devices in one.
Explanation: An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides
access to the Internet for businesses and individuals.

5. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network

architecture. (Not all options are used.)

 Security = Protect the network from unauthorized access.

 Provide redundant links and devices
 Scalability = Expand the network without degrading the service for
existing users.

6. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do

this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal
servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network
Explanation: Intranet is a term used to refer to a private connection of LANs and
WANs that belongs to an organization. An intranet is designed to be accessible only
by the organization’s members, employees, or others with authorization.

7. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

 New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
 A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
 A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an
existing electrical outlet.
 Explanation: Powerline networking adds the ability to connect a device to the
network using an adapter wherever there is an electrical outlet. The network uses
existing electrical wiring to send data. It is not a replacement for physical cabling,
but it can add functionality in places where wireless access points cannot be
used or cannot reach devices.

8. A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The

technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see
the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network
characteristics has been violated in this situation?
 fault tolerance
 scalability
 security
 Quality of Service (QoS)
 reliability
Explanation: Network security includes protecting the confidentiality of data that is
on the network. In this case, because confidential data has been made available to
unauthorized users, the security characteristic of the network has failed.

9. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all
options are used.)
 DSL: high bandwidth connection that runs over a telephone line
 Dialup Telephone: typically has very low bandwidth
 Setellite: not suited for wooded areas
 Cable: uses coaxial cable as medium
Explanation: DSL is an always-on, high bandwidth connection that runs over
telephone lines. Cable uses the same coaxial cable that carries television signals
into the home to provide Internet access. Dialup telephone is much slower than
either DSL or cable, but is the least expensive option for home users because it can
use any telephone line and a simple modem. Satellite requires a clear line of sight
and is affected by trees and other obstructions. None of these typical home options
use dedicated leased lines such as T1/E1 and T3/E3.
10. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various
network media? (Choose two.)
 the types of data that need to be prioritized
 the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
 the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
 the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
 the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
Explanation: Criteria for choosing a network medium are the distance the selected
medium can successfully carry a signal, the environment in which the selected
medium is to be installed, the amount of data and the speed at which the data must
be transmitted, and the cost of the medium and its installation.

11. What type of network traffic requires QoS?

 email
 on-line purchasing
 video conferencing
 wiki
Explanation: Video conferencing utilizes real-time audio and video communications.
Both of these are time-sensitive and bandwidth-intensive forms of communication
that require quality of service to be active on the network. QoS will ensure an
uninterrupted user experience.

12. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions
would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)
 implementing a firewall
 installing a wireless network
 installing antivirus software
 implementing an intrusion detection system
 adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
Explanation: Technically complex security measures such as intrusion prevention
and intrusion prevention systems are usually associated with business networks
rather than home networks. Installing antivirus software, antimalware software, and
implementing a firewall will usually be the minimum requirements for home networks.
Installing a home wireless network will not improve network security, and will require
further security actions to be taken.
13. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select
the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose
three.)
 VTY interface
 console interface
 Ethernet interface
 boot IOS mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 router configuration mode
Explanation: Access to the VTY and console interfaces can be restricted using
passwords. Out-of-band management of the router can be restricted in both user
EXEC and privileged EXEC modes.

14. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

 the AUX interface
 the console port interface
 the switch virtual interface
 the first Ethernet port interface
Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that
provides a means for remotely managing the device.

15. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in
IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
Explanation: Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will
cause the IOS to complete the rest of the command.
16. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the
current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were
not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work
with the file in NVRAM?
 Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
 Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
 Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
Explanation: The technician does not want to make any mistakes trying to remove
all the changes that were done to the running configuration file. The solution is to
reboot the router without saving the running configuration. The copy startup-config
running-config command does not overwrite the running configuration file with the
configuration file stored in NVRAM, but rather it just has an additive effect.

17. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after

issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
Explanation: To interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute, a user enters
the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination. Tab completes the remainder of parameters or
arguments within a command. To exit from configuration mode to privileged mode
use the Ctrl-Z keystroke. CTRL-R will redisplay the line just typed, thus making it
easier for the user to press Enter and reissue the ping command.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to

switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the
switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin
 linevtyin
Explanation: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface
configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is
required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line
console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the
enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged
EXEC mode.
19. A technician configures a switch with these commands:
SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

 Telnet access
 SVI
 password encryption
 physical switch port access
Explanation: For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be
configured. This allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.

20. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous
level in the command hierarchy?
 end
 exit
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C
Explanation: End and CTRL-Z return the user to the privileged EXEC mode. Ctrl-C
ends a command in process. The exit command returns the user to the previous
level.

21. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
 RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
 The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in
RAM.
 The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
 RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
 RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.
Explanation: RAM stores data that is used by the device to support network
operations. The running configuration is stored in RAM. This type of memory is
considered volatile memory because data is lost during a power cycle. Flash
memory stores the IOS and delivers a copy of the IOS into RAM when a device is
powered on. Flash memory is nonvolatile since it retains stored contents during a
loss of power.
22. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on
Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)
 Branch2!
 RM-3-Switch-2A4
 Floor(15)
 HO Floor 17
 SwBranch799
Explanation: Some guidelines for naming conventions are that names should:
Start with a letter
Contain no spaces
End with a letter or digit
Use only letters, digits, and dashes
Be less than 64 characters in length

23. How is SSH different from Telnet?

 SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band
access.
 SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and
using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends
messages in plaintext.
 SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term
must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
 SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is
used to connect to a device from a console connection.
Explanation: SSH is the preferred protocol for connecting to a device operating
system over the network because it is much more secure than Telnet. Both SSH and
Telnet are used to connect to devices over the network, and so are both used in-
band. PuTTY and Terra Term can be used to make both SSH and Telnet
connections.
24. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what
order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order
to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not
all options are used.)

first mode user EXEC mode

second mode privileged EXEC mode

third mode global configuration mode

final mode line configuration mode

Explanation: The configuration mode that the administrator first encounters is user
EXEC mode. After the enable command is entered, the next mode is privileged
EXEC mode. From there, the configure terminal command is entered to move to
global configuration mode. Finally, the administrator enters the line console
0 command to enter the mode in which the configuration will be entered.

25. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

 It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
 It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
 It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
 It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
 It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
 It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
Explanation: Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). SVIs are
created in software since there is no physical hardware associated with them. Virtual
interfaces provide a means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using
IP. Each switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-
the-box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.

26. What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces,
including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?
 ipconfig
 ping
  traceroute
 show ip interface brief
Explanation: The show ip interface brief command is used to display a brief
synopsis of the condition of the device interfaces. The ip config command is used to
verify TCP/IP properties on a host. The ping command is used to verify Layer 3
connectivity. The traceroute command is used to trace the network path from source
to destination.
27. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are
used.)
 User EXEC mode: limited number of basic monitoring commands
The first entrance into the CLI of an IOS device
 Privileged EXEC mode: accessed by entering the enable command
identified by a prompt ending with the sharp character
 Global config mode: changes made affect the operation of the device as
a hole
accessed by entering configure terminal command

28. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all
options are used.)
The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
 Tab: Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
 Space bar: displays the next screen
 ? : provides context-sensitive help
 Up Arrow: Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
 Ctrl-C: cancels any command currently being entered and returns
directly to privileged EXEC mode
 Ctrl-Shift-6: Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or
traceroute

29. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented
by running-config?
 the command
 a keyword
 a variable
 a prompt
Explanation: The first part of the syntax, show, is the command, and the second
part of the syntax, running-config, is the keyword. The keyword specifies what should
be displayed as the output of the show command.
30. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network
administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is
the result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will
be restored.
Explanation: With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of
the current operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in
NVRAM. The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is
restarted.

31. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in
plain text in a configuration file?
 (config)# enable password secret
 (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
 (config-line)# password secret
 (config)# service password-encryption
 (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
Explanation: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in
configuration files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption
command. This command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

32. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command

into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN
links.
 This command prevents someone from viewing the running
configuration passwords.
 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret
password command.
  This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are
currently stored in NVRAM.
 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service
personnel who are required to do router maintenance.
Explanation: The startup-config and running-config files display most passwords in
plaintext. Use the service password-encryption global config command to encrypt all
plaintext passwords in these files.

33. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not
dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: In order for two computers to be able to communicate effectively, there
must be a mechanism that allows both the source and destination to set the timing of
the transmission and receipt of data. Flow control allows for this by ensuring that
data is not sent too fast for it to be received properly.

34. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when

a PC is sending data to the network?
 Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
 Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
 Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
 Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
Explanation: When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport
layer sends segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the
network access layer, which creates frames and then converts the frames to bits.
The bits are released to the network media.

35. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
(Choose three.)
 ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
  FTP
 NAT
 PPP
Explanation: DNS, DHCP, and FTP are all application layer protocols in the TCP/IP
protocol suite. ARP and PPP are network access layer protocols, and NAT is an
internet layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite.

36. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)
 ISOC = Promotes open development
 ISO = largest developer or international standard
 IANA = responsible for overseeing and managing IP address
Explanation: The EIA is an international standards and trade organization for
electronics organizations. It is best known for its standards related to electrical
wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount networking equipment.

37. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

 bits
 data
 frame
 packet
 segment
Explanation: Application data is passed down the protocol stack on its way to be
transmitted across the network media. During the process, various protocols add
information to it at each level. At each stage of the process, a PDU (protocol data
unit) has a different name to reflect its new functions. The PDUs are named
according to the protocols of the TCP/IP suite:
Data – The general term for the PDU used at the application layer.
Segment – transport layer PDU
Packet – network layer PDU
Frame – data link layer PDU
Bits – A physical layer PDU used when physically transmitting data over the medium

38. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of
the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4
address?
 DNS server address
  subnet mask
 default gateway
 DHCP server address
 Explanation: There are several components that need to be entered when
configuring IPv4 for an end device:
 IPv4 address – uniquely identifies an end device on the network
 Subnet mask – determines the network address portion and host portion for
an IPv4 address
 Default gateway – the IP address of the router interface used for
communicating with hosts in another network
 DNS server address – the IP address of the Domain Name System (DNS)
server
DHCP server address (if DHCP is used) is not configured manually on end devices.
It will be provided by a DHCP server when an end device requests an IP address.

39. What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
 encapsulation
 encoding
 segmentation
 flow control
Explanation: When a message is placed inside of another message, this is known
as encapsulation. On networks, encapsulation takes place when one protocol data
unit is carried inside of the data field of the next lower protocol data unit.

40. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in

the TCP/IP model?
 internet
 transport
 network access
 session
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport,
internet, and network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is
responsible for routing messages. The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model
but is rather part of the OSI model.
41. For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a
Telnet message is being prepared to be sent over the network?
Place the options in the following order:

The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next layer. First

The TCP header is added. Second

The IP header is added. Third

The Ethernet header is added. Fourth

42. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium
by the NIC of a host?
 file
 frame
 packet
 segment

43. Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two
statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the
process? (Choose two.)
  ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of
RouterB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.
Explanation: In order to send data to HostA, ServerB will generate a packet that
contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote network and a frame
that contains the MAC address of the default gateway device on the local network.

44. Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it requests

data from a server and the server takes too long to respond?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: If a computer makes a request and does not hear a response within an
acceptable amount of time, the computer assumes that no answer is coming and
reacts accordingly.

45. A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used
to decode the received transmission?
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.

46. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of
the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network
  physical
 session
 transport
Explanation: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the
TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the
TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP
internet layer. The OSI application, presentation, and session layers are functionally
equivalent to the application layer within the TCP/IP model.

47. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during
encapsulation?
 physical layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
Explanation: Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the
network layer. Physical addresses are edded at the data link layer. Port addresses
are added at the transport layer. No addresses are added at the physical layer.
48. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?
 They are sent to a select group of hosts.
 They are sent to all hosts on a network.
 They must be acknowledged.
 They are sent to a single destination.
Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages
are addressed to a specific multicast group.

49. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

 Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is
mounted in racks.
 They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the
destination.
 They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
 They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote
networks.
Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both.
They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols
have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment. Network protocols
are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in
both local and remote networks.
50. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?
 Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from
the same vendor.
 A client host and a server running different operating systems can
successfully exchange data.
 Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
 Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
Explanation: An advantage of network devices implementing open standard
protocols, such as from the TCP/IP suite, is that clients and servers running different
operating systems can communicate with each other. Open standard protocols
facilitate innovation and competition between vendors and across markets, and can
reduce the occurrence of monopolies in networking markets.

51. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages
should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem
Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take
through the network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL
modem is used to provide Internet connection for a home or an organization.

52. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

What is the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI) on Switch0?

 192.168.5.10
  192.168.10.5
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.5.0
Explanation: After the enable command is issued, the show running-
configuration command or the show ip interfaces brief command will display the
IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI).

53. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
 to enable the switch to be managed remotely
 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit
frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through
the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a
virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as
default gateways.

54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives
the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing
the command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global
configuration mode.
Explanation: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure
terminal, or a shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged
EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated
by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable
command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal
command.
55. What term describes a network owned by one organization that provides
safe and secure access to individuals who work for a different organization?
 extranet
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service

56. What term describes storing personal files on servers over the internet to
provide access anywhere, anytime, and on any device?
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network

57. What term describes a network where one computer can be both client and
server?
 peer-to-peer
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service

58. What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home
or from a small remote office?
 SOHO network
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
59. What term describes a computing model where server software runs on
dedicated computers?
 client/server
 internet
61. What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN
using an electrical outlet?
 powerline networking
 internet
 intranet
 extranet

62. What term describes a policy that allows network devices to manage the
flow of data to give priority to voice and video?
 quality of service
 internet
63. What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs to
an organization?
 intranet
 internet
 extranet
 peer-to-peer

64. What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a business or
campus network?
 BYOD
 internet
 intranet
 extranet

65. At which OSI layer is a SOURCE IP ADDRESS added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
  data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer

66. At which OSI layer is a destination PORT NUMBER added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 application layer

67. At which OSI layer is DATA ADDED to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
 application layer
 data link layer
 network layer
68. At which OSI layer is a SOURCE IP ADDRESS added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 application layer

69. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network
that participate directly in network communication?
 Servers
 Intermediary device
 Host
 media
Explanation: Hosts are all computers connected to a network that participate
directly in network communication.
70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer

72. At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer

73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer

74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit
the data?
 Wireless
 Fiber optic cable
  Copper cable


75. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

 Host
 Router
 Switch