Based on the Latest Syllabus prescribed by the Maharashtra State Board of

Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Pune - 04

STD. X
Science and Technology Part - 1

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Salient Features
• A compilation of Most Important Questions
• A great resource for expeditious and exhaustive board exam

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preparation
• Written as per Latest Board Paper Pattern
• Includes selective questions from 2019 - 2022 Board Papers
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• Important inclusion: ‘Smart Tip’, ‘Assignments’ and ‘Time
Management’ to solve the Activity Sheet
• Includes Model Activity Sheet for self evaluation
• Inclusion of QR Code for students to access ‘Solution’ for the
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Model Activity Sheet.

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Scan the adjacent QR Code to access Board Activity

Sheets and Solutions of March 2020, December 2020
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and March 2022.

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Printed at: Print to Print, Mumbai

© Target Publications Pvt. Ltd.
No part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, C.D.
ROM/Audio Video Cassettes or electronic, mechanical including photocopying; recording or by
any information storage and retrieval system without permission in writing from the Publisher.

Balbharati Registration No.: 2018MH0022 P.O. No. 5968

TEID: 2477
 PREFACE
IQB Science and Technology Part - 1: Std. X is a treasure house of the
Most Important Questions that would help students face the Board
Examination confidently. This book is created in accordance with the Latest
Board paper Pattern.
IQB (Important Question Bank) covers various types of questions such
as Find the odd one out, Complete the Table/Chart, Questions based on
diagrams, etc. along with answers. Moreover, the questions provided are
arranged in a chapter-wise format so that students can easily prepare for the
examination. The book also includes four Assignments for practice to boost

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students’ confidence.
Smart Tip serves several purposes such as giving students an insight
into approaching a question, making them aware of commonly made mistakes,
cracking a question by efficient lateral thinking and demonstrating easy

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methods to cross-verify the answer. Time Management is provided with Paper
Pattern (on the adjacent page) to aid students to solve the activity sheet within
the allotted time.

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We have provided One Model Activity Sheet at the end of the book that
enables students to assess their level of preparation for the Board examination.
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We have provided QR Code for students to access the ‘Solution’ given for the
Model Activity Sheet.
Selected questions from the Board Papers of March 2019, July 2019,
March 2020, December 2020 and March 2022 with answers have been
included to give the student an idea about the kind of questions asked in the
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previous examinations.
Armed with an arsenal of carefully crafted questions and relevant
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answers, we are confident that this book will cater to the needs of students and
effectively assist them to achieve their goal.
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Publisher
Edition: Third
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Disclaimer
This reference book is transformative work based on textbook 'Science and Technology Part - 1; Reprint: 2022'
published by the Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research, Pune. We the
publishers are making this reference book which constitutes as fair use of textual contents which are transformed
by adding and elaborating, with a view to simplify the same to enable the students to understand, memorize and
reproduce the same in examinations.
This work is purely inspired upon the course work as prescribed by the Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook
Production and Curriculum Research, Pune. Every care has been taken in the publication of this reference book
by the Authors while creating the contents. The Authors and the Publishers shall not be responsible for any loss
or damages caused to any person on account of errors or omissions which might have crept in or disagreement of
any third party on the point of view expressed in the reference book.
© reserved with the Publisher for all the contents created by our Authors.
No copyright is claimed in the textual contents which are presented as part of fair dealing with a view to provide
best supplementary study material for the benefit of students.
 PAPER PATTERN
 There will be separate question papers for Part 1 and Part 2 of 40 marks
each.
 Duration of each paper will be 2 hours.
Question Total Time
Type of Questions
No. Marks Management
Q.1 (A) 5 Questions of 1 mark each (MCQs) 05 10 mins
Q.1 (B) 5 Questions of 1 mark each 05 10 mins
3 Questions of 2 marks each 10 mins
Q.2 (A) 04

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(Scientific Reasoning) (Solve any 2)
5 Questions of 2 marks each 15 mins
Q.2 (B) 06
(Solve any 3)

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8 Questions of 3 marks each 45 mins
Q.3 15

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(Solve any 5)
2 Questions of 5 marks each 20 mins
Q.4 05
(Solve any 1)
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To Review and Re-checking - 10 mins
Total 40 Marks 120 mins

CHAPTER WISE WEIGHTAGE

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Sr. Marks with

Chapter Name Marks
No. option
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1. Gravitation 03 05
2. Periodic classification of elements 04 06
3. Chemical reactions and equations 04 06
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4. Effects of electric current 05 07

5. Heat 03 05
6. Refraction of light 05 07
7. Lenses 04 06
8. Metallurgy 04 06
9. Carbon compounds 05 07
10. Space missions 03 05
Total 40 60
 INDEX

No. Types of Questions Page No.

1. Multiple Choice Questions 1
 Assignment for Q.1 (A) 14
2. Find the Odd One Out 15
3. Find Out the Correlation 18
4. Match Pairs 22

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5. True or False 26
6. Give Name/Molecular Formula 31

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 Assignment for Q.1 (B) 35
7. Give Scientific Reasons 37

8.
Assignment for Q.2 (A)
Solve Numerical Problems
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51
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9. Laws/Define/Principles 75
10. Write a Short Note 81
11. Chemical Reactions 90
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12. Table/Flowchart 95
13. Give Difference Between 100
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14. Short Answers 105

15. Complete the Paragraph 131
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16. Diagram Based Questions 133

17. Paragraph Based Questions 151
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18. Long Answers 156

 Assignment for Q.2 (B), Q.3 and Q.4 172
 Model Activity Sheet 178
Note: Textual exercise questions are represented by * mark.
Textual solved examples are represented by + mark.
 Detailed Analysis of Question Paper
Science and Technology Part - 1
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of a calculator is not allowed.
iii. The numbers to the right of the questions indicate full marks.
iv. In case of MCQs (Q. No. 1(A)) only the first attempt will be
evaluated and will be given credit.

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v. For each MCQ, the correct alternative (A), (B), (C) or (D) with
sub-question number is to be written as an answer.

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For Eg: (i) (A), (ii) (B), (iii) (C)
vi. Scientifically correct, labelled diagrams should be drawn wherever
necessary.

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Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative. [5]

● This question carries 5 marks. It contains 5 multiple choice type

questions of 1 mark each. All questions are compulsory.
● In MCQ, students are expected to write the correct option in the
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answer. Example: i. (A)

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Q.1. (B) Solve the following questions. [5]

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● This question carries 5 marks. It contains 5 sub-questions of

1 mark each. All sub-questions are compulsory.
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● It includes various question types such as ‘Find the odd one

out’, ‘Find out the correlation’, ‘Make pairs’, ‘True or False?’
and ‘Give name/molecular formula/ Identify the figure’.
● In ‘Find the odd one out’, students are expected to identify the
odd one out of 4 – 5 components. Students must give an
appropriate explanation, only if asked in the question.
● In ‘Find the correlation/Complete the analogy’, students are
expected to identify the correlation between two components
and rewrite it. Students must give an appropriate explanation,
only if asked in the question.
 ● In ‘Match the column/Make pairs’ (2 columns), students are
expected to match the contents of Column I, with those in Column
II appropriately, and write the answer in a tabular format.
● In ‘Match the column’ (3 columns), students are expected to
match the contents of Column I, with those in Column II and
Column III appropriately, and write the answer in a tabular
format.
● In ‘True or false’, students are expected to mention whether the
sentence is true or false. Students must write the correct
statement, only if asked in the question.

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In case the format of the question varies from those given
above, students are expected to read the question carefully and
attempt it accordingly, in the appropriate format.

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Q.2. (A)

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Give scientific reasons. (Any Two)

This question carries 4 marks. It contains 3 sub-questions of

[4]
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which any 2 are to be attempted. Each sub-question carries
2 marks.
● It includes scientific reasoning questions.
● Wherever applicable, students are expected to write answers in
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points for better presentation.

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Q.2. (B) Solve the following questions. (Any Three) [6]

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● This question carries 6 marks. It contains 5 sub-questions of

which any 3 are to be attempted. Each sub-question carries
2 marks.
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● It includes various question types like ‘Solve numerical

problems’, ‘laws/define/principles’ ‘Write a note’, ‘Complete
the table/flowchart’, ‘Give difference between’, ‘Write
properties/characteristics/advantages/effects/uses’, ‘Chemical
reactions with equations’ and ‘Give examples’.
● In ‘Solve numerical problems’, students must write answer/s
with correct unit/s.
● In ‘Complete the table/flowchart’, students are expected to add
appropriate information in the table/flowchart and redraw it.
 ● In ‘Give difference between’ students are expected to write
required number of independent differences between two
components. Students may write the differences in a tabular
format for better presentation.
● In ‘Give examples’, students are expected to give minimum
4 examples based on a particular concept or process.
● Wherever applicable, students are expected to write answers in
points for better presentation.
In case the format of the question varies from those given
above, students are expected to read the question carefully and
attempt it accordingly, in the appropriate format.

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Q.3. Solve the following questions. (Any Five) [15]

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● This question carries 15 marks. It contains 8 sub-questions of
which any 5 are to be attempted. Each sub-question carries
3 marks.
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● It includes various question types like ‘Label the diagram and
explain’, ‘Complete the table/flowchart’, ‘Solve numerical
problems’, ‘Complete the diagram and explain’, ‘Answer
questions based on the figure’, ‘Write answers with
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explanation’, ‘Write laws, theory and explain’, ‘Complete the

paragraph’, ‘Explain with the help of examples’ and ‘Suggest
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remedies/measures’
● In ‘Complete the table/chart’, students are expected to add
appropriate information in the table/chart and redraw it.
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● In ‘Complete the paragraph’ students are expected to rewrite

the completed paragraph and underline the answers.
● Wherever applicable, students are expected to write answers in
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points for better presentation.

In case the format of the question varies from those given
above, students are expected to read the question carefully and
attempt it accordingly, in the appropriate format.
Q.4. Solve the following questions. (Any One) [5]

● This question carries 5 marks. It contains 2 sub-questions of which

any 1 is to be attempted. Each sub-question carries 5 marks.
● It includes various question types like ‘Draw a figure and give
explanation’, ‘Correct the given diagram and explain’,
‘Classify with detailed explanation’ ‘Read the given paragraph
and answer questions based on it’, ‘Complete the table/chart
and give explanation’, ‘Answer the questions in detail’,
‘Answer questions based on the figure’, ‘Make a concept

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diagram and give explanation’.
● In ‘Correct the diagram and explain’ students are expected to draw
a new corrected, labelled diagram and write a detailed explanation.

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● In ‘Complete the table/chart’, students are expected to add
appropriate information in the table/chart and redraw it giving a

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detailed explanation.
● Wherever applicable, students are expected to write answers in
points for better presentation.
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In case the format of the question varies from those given
above, students are expected to read the question carefully and
attempt it accordingly, in the appropriate format.
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 [Q.1 (A)]
1 Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct alternative.

CHAPTER 1: GRAVITATION

1. The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the _______.
(A) centres (B) vertices
(C) foci (D) tangents
2. Value of gravitational constant G on the moon will be_______.

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(A) 1/6 value of G on the earth
(B) 6 times value of G on the earth
(C) same as that of value of G on the earth

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(D) twice value of G on the earth
3. According to Newton’s first law, mass is the measure of _______ of an

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object.
(A) heaviness (B) inertia
(C) gravity (D) weight
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4. What will be the weight of a person on earth, who weighs 9 N on the
moon?
(A) 3 N (B) 15 N
(C) 45 N (D) 54 N
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5. True free fall is possible only in _______.

(A) air (B) vacuum
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(C) aeroplanes (D) deep ocean

Ans: 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B)
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CHAPTER 2: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

1. Lithium (Li), _______ and potassium (K) is Dobereiner’s triad.

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[Dec 2020]
(A) magnesium (Mg) (B) aluminium (Al)
(C) sodium (Na) (D) calcium (Ca)
2. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, properties of elements are
periodic function of their _______. [Mar 2020]
(A) Atomic numbers (B) Atomic masses
(C) Densities (D) Boiling points
*3. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of alkali metals is _______.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 7

Multiple Choice Questions 1
*4. Alkaline earth metals have valency 2. This means that their position in
the modern periodic table is in _______.
(A) group 2 (B) group 16
(C) period 2 (D) d-block
*5. Molecular formula of the chloride of an element X is XCl. This
compound is a solid having high melting point. Which of the following
elements will be present in the same group as X?
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si
*6. In which block of the modern periodic table are the nonmetals found?
(A) s-block (B) p-block
(C) d-block (D) f-block

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7. Halogen which is liquid at room temperature is______.
(A) fluorine (B) astetine
(C) bromine (D) iodine

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8. The correct decreasing order of atomic radius is:
(A) F > O > S (B) F > S > O

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(C) S > F > O (D) S > O > F
9. When a small piece of beryllium was added to water taken in a beaker,
what will you observe?
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(A) Vigorous chemical reaction occurs with evolution of a gas.
(B) Formation of precipitate is seen.
(C) Colour of solution turns black.
(D) No reaction occurs.
10. Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the
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group of the modern periodic table?

(A) Atomic radius (B) Metallic character
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(C) Valence electrons (D) Number of shells

11. The correct increasing order of reactivity of alkaline earth metals with
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water is:
(A) Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba (B) Be < Mg < Ca < Ba < Sr
(C) Ba < Mg < Ca < Sr < Be (D) Be < Ca < Mg < Sr < Ba
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Ans: 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B)

7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A)

CHAPTER 3: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

1. What happens when a piece of zinc metal is added to copper sulphate

solution?
(A) Copper sulphide is formed.
(B) Colourless solution of zinc sulphate is formed.
(C) Copper sulphate solution is not affected at all.
(D) Hydrogen sulphide gas is evolved.
 Std. X: IQB
2
Science and Technology Part - 1
2. Which of the following gases turns lime water milky?
(A) H2 (B) CO2 (C) NO2 (D) SO2
3. Which of the following is CORRECT for double displacement reaction?
(A) Ions are exchanged.
(B) Ions are not produced.
(C) One substance is formed from two or more substances.
(D) Two or more substances are produced from one substance.
4. Which among the following is double displacement reaction?
(A) AgNO3 + NaCl  AgCl + NaNO3
(B) Pb + CuCl2  PbCl2 + Cu
(C) 2Mg + O2   2MgO

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(D) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
5. A student takes 1 g of sodium hydroxide. He adds it to 50 mL of water

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taken in a plastic bottle and shakes the content well. Which of the
following observation is correct?

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(A) Sodium does not dissolve in water.
(B) A white precipitate is formed.
(C) The temperature of the reaction solution increases.
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(D) The resulting solution is acidic.
6. Which gas is liberated when aluminium metal reacts with dilute
hydrochloric acid?
(A) H2O2 (B) H2 (C) Cl2 (D) O2
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7. The conversion of ferrous sulphate into ferric sulphate is _______

reaction. [Dec 2020]
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(A) oxidation (B) displacement

(C) electrolysis (D) reduction
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Ans: 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B)

7. (A)
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CHAPTER 4: EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Heating effect of electric current is not observed in_______.

(A) electric oven (B) electric iron
(C) electric motor (D) fuse
2. The live and neutral wires have potential difference of ______.
(A) 0 V (B) 100 V (C) 220 V (D) 440 V
3. If 220 V potential difference is applied across an electric bulb, a current
of 0.5 A flows in the bulb. What must be the power of the bulb?
(A) 99 W (B) 110 W (C) 150 W (D) 220 W

Multiple Choice Questions 3
 4. Two bulbs are connected in series in a circuit. If the filament of a bulb
breaks then, ________.
(A) second bulb will glow brighter
(B) second bulb will not glow
(C) there will be overloading in the circuit
(D) resistance of the circuit will decrease
5. To detect magnetic field produced by current carrying conductor ______
is used.
(A) voltmeter (B) magnetic needle
(C) electromagnet (D) galvanometer
6. If the current through wire is increased,

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(A) resistance of the wire increases.
(B) resistance of the wire decreases.
(C) intensity of magnetic field produced around the wire increases.

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(D) intensity of magnetic field produced around the wire decreases.

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*7. Which of the statement given below correctly describes the magnetic
field near a long, straight current carrying conductor?
(A) The magnetic lines of force are in a plane, perpendicular to the
conductor in the form of straight lines.
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(B) The magnetic lines of force are parallel to the conductor on all the
sides of the conductor.
(C) The magnetic lines of force are perpendicular to the conductor
going radially outward.
(D) The magnetic lines of force are in concentric circles with the wire
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as the centre, in a plane perpendicular to the conductor.

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8. Observe the following diagram and choose the correct alternative:

[Mar 2019]
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Magnetic lines of force Magnetic lines of force

N N
P Q P Q
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S S

R1
R R1 R2
A 2 A
+ +  + + 
A B
5V 5V

(A) The intensity of magnetic field in A is larger than in B.

(B) The intensity of magnetic field in B is less than in A.
(C) The intensity of magnetic field in A and B is same.
(D) The intensity of magnetic field in A is less than in B.
 Std. X: IQB
4
Science and Technology Part - 1
 9. Magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular loop can be
doubled by
(A) doubling the number of turns in the loop.
(B) changing shape of the loop to square.
(C) halving the number of turns in the loop.
(D) using alternating current.
10. When electric current is passed through the solenoid, it shows magnetic
lines of force similar to a_______. [July 2019]
(A) bar magnet (B) horse shoe magnet
(C) disk magnet (D) spherical magnet.
11. The magnetic lines of force inside the solenoid are parallel to each other.

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This indicates that _______
(A) the intensity of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform at
every point.
(B) the intensity of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is zero.

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(C) the intensity of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is non-
uniform.

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(D) the intensity of the magnetic field outside the solenoid is non-
uniform.
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*12. Electromagnetic induction means ______.
(A) charging of an electric conductor
(B) production of magnetic field due to a current flowing through a
coil
(C) generation of a current in a coil due to relative motion between
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the coil and the magnet

(D) motion of the coil around the axle in an electric motor
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13. In_______ appliance, Fleming’s Left Hand rule is not used.

(A) electric fan (B) mixer
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(C) computer (D) electric generator

Ans: 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C)
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7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C)

13. (C)
Hint: 3. Power = V  I = 220  0.5 = 110 W
4. When the filament of either of the bulb breaks, circuit will become
open circuit and current will not flow through it.
8. Circuit shown in figure A contains resistances in series. Hence,
total resistance of circuit is higher as compared to circuit with
parallel resistances shown in figure B.
As a result, larger current flows in circuit shown in figure A
generating magnetic field of higher intensity.

Multiple Choice Questions 5
 CHAPTER 5: HEAT

1. Choose the proper method to measure the temperature of water.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. During transformation of liquid phase to solid phase, the latent heat is

_______.
(A) absorbed

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(B) given off
(C) used to increase temperature
(D) used to decrease temperature

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3. Latent heat per unit mass of a substance is its _______.

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(A) specific heat (B) heat capacity
(C) specific latent heat (D) latent heat capacity
4. When ice of 0 °C is heated to convert into steam, for what values of
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temperature, thermometer dipped into ice shows constant reading for
some time?
(A) 0 C and 4 C (B) 4 C and 100 C
(C) 0 C and 100 C (D) 0 C, 4 C and 100 C
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5. Heat energy absorbed by water at 100 C during transformation into

steam is called its _______.
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(A) latent heat of melting (B) latent heat of fusion

(C) latent heat of steaming (D) latent heat of vaporization
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6. When water in the ice trays in a refrigerator freezes to form ice

_______.
(A) heat is given out and temperature decreases
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(B) heat is given out and temperature increases

(C) heat is given out and temperature is maintained
(D) its volume decreases
7. Water expands on reducing its temperature below_______ C.
[Mar 2019]
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
8. The vapour content in the air is measured using a physical quantity
called _______. [Mar 2020]
(A) Absolute humidity (B) Relative humidity
(C) Dew point (D) Humidity
 Std. X: IQB
6
Science and Technology Part - 1
 Ans: 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C)
7. (B) 8. (A)
Hint: 1. For a thermometer to read correct temperature of water, its bulb
should be completely inserted inside the water but it should not
touch surface of the container.

CHAPTER 6: REFRACTION OF LIGHT

1. The incident and refracted ray are

(A) on the opposite sides of normal at the point of incidence and lie in
same plane.
(B) on the opposite sides of normal at the point of incidence but lie in

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different planes.
(C) on the same side of normal and lie in same plane.
(D) on the same side of normal but lie in different planes.

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2. When rays of light are incident on a glass slab, then the incident ray and

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emergent ray are _______ to each other.
(A) perpendicular (B) parallel
(C) opposite (D) concurrent
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3. Light rays are passed through glass slab for various values of incident
angle (i). Corresponding values of angle of refraction (r) and angle of
emergence (e) are measured. Which one of the following options gives
correct relation between the three?
(A)  i = r < e (B)  i = e < r
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(C)  i = r > e (D)  i = e > r

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4. A ray of light makes an angle of 50 with the surface S1 of the glass
slab. Its angle of incidence will be_______. [Mar 2019]
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 140 (D) 0
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5. The velocity of light is _______in different media.

(A) 3  108 m/s (B) same (C) different (D) infinite
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3
*6. If the refractive index of glass with respect to air is , what is the
2
refractive index of air with respect to glass?
1 1 2
(A) (B) 3 (C) (D)
2 3 3
7. Substances in the order of optically denser to optically rarer medium are:
(A) Diamond, glass, water, air
(B) Glass, diamond, water, air
(C) Glass, water, diamond, air
(D) Diamond, water, glass, air

Multiple Choice Questions 7
 8. The actual position of a star is slightly _______ than apparent position of
star.
(A) lower (B) higher
(C) nearer (D) farther
*9. We can see the sun even when it is little below the horizon because of
_______.
(A) reflection of light (B) refraction of light
(C) dispersion of light (D) absorption of light
10. Study the following diagrams in which the path of a ray of light passing
through a glass prism as traced by four students is shown. The student
who has traced the path correctly is:

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(A) (B)

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(C) (D)

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11. If we gradually increase the angle of incidence of a ray of light passing
through prism then _______
(A) angle of deviation goes on decreasing.
(B) angle of deviation decreases but after certain value of incident
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angle, deviation angle increases.

(C) angle of deviation goes on increasing.
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(D) angle of deviation increases but after certain value of incident

angle deviation angle decreases.
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12. Colours in the order of maximum deviated to minimum deviated are:

(A) Blue, violet, red, green (B) Violet, blue, red, green.
(C) Blue, green, red, violet (D) Violet, blue, green, red.
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13. How will you place the second prism

with respect to the first prism shown in R
the given figure to obtain white White V
light
emergent light?

First prism (P1)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 Std. X: IQB
8
Science and Technology Part - 1
Ans: 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D)
7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (D)
13. (C)
Hint: 13. To obtain white emergent light from two prisms, the second prism
should be placed parallel to the first prism but in an inverted
position as shown in the figure below.
Second prism (P2)

R White
R light
White V

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light V

First prism (P1)

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CHAPTER 7: LENSES

1. A _______ lens always produces virtual and diminished image.

(A) biconvex (B) biconcave
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(C) planoconvex (D) bifocal
2. While finding the focal length of convex lens, the image obtained is
________.
(A) real and erect (B) real and inverted
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(C) virtual and erect (D) virtual and inverted

3. According to Cartesian sign conventions for lenses
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(A) all distances in direction of incident ray are taken positive.

(B) all distances in direction of incident ray are taken negative.
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(C) height above the principal axis is negative for concave lens.
(D) height above the principal axis is negative for convex lens.
4. A student obtains a clear image of a candle on a screen with the help of
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a convex lens. He now wants to focus on a distant tree and obtain a clear
image. In which direction should he move the lens in order to get a clear
image?
(A) Behind the screen
(B) Away from the screen
(C) Towards the screen
(D) At a very long distance from the screen.
5. To obtain an image of the same size as that of an object using a convex
lens, the object should be placed ________.
(A) at 2F2 (B) Between F2 and 2F1
(C) at 2F1 (D) at infinity

Multiple Choice Questions 9
6. If radius of curvature of a biconvex lens is increased, without changing
the thickness of the lens, then focal length of the lens will _______.
(A) be decreased
(B) remain unchanged
(C) be increased
(D) be first decreased and then increased
7. The power of a convex lens of focal length 25 cm is ________.
[Mar 2022]
(A) 4.0 D (B) 0.25 D
(C) –4.0 D (D) –0.4 D
8. For a particular glass lens f = – 4 m. Only this much data was provided

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to a student. He was told to calculate the power of lens and to find out
type of lens given to him. His answer must be _______.
(A) Power : + 2 dioptre ; Convex lens

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(B) Power : + 1 dioptre ; Concave lens
(C) Power : – 0.25 dioptre ; Concave lens

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(D) Power : – 2 dioptre ; Convex lens
Ans: 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C)
7. (A) 8. (C)
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Hint: 6. Focal length varies directly with radius of curvature.
1 1
7. Power of lens = = = 4.0 D
focal length in metre 0.25
As, focal length of convex lens is always positive, power of
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convex lens is also positive.

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SMART TIP
While calculating power of lens, it is important to consider the value
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of focal length in metre.

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CHAPTER 8: METALLURGY

1. The soft metal which can be cut with knife is_______.

(A) sodium (B) aluminium
(C) copper (D) silver
2. The flame colour of a copper strip is ______.
(A) red (B) bluish green
(C) white (D) brown
3. Which of the following elements reacts vigorously with water?
(A) Mg (B) K (C) Al (D) Ca
 Std. X: IQB
10
Science and Technology Part - 1
4. What will you observe when calcium is treated with water?
(A) It reacts violently with water.
(B) It reacts slowly to form calcium oxide.
(C) Bubbles of hydrogen gas are formed which stick to the surface of
calcium.
(D) Bubbles of oxygen gas are formed.
5. The CORRECT increasing order of reactivity of metals is _________.
(A) Mg < Al < Zn < Fe (B) Al < Zn < Fe < Mg
(C) Fe < Zn < Al < Mg (D) Zn < Mg < Fe < Al
6. When an iron nail is kept dipped in freshly prepared copper sulphate
solution taken in a test-tube, _______.
(A) the blue colour of the solution changed to green

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(B) the green colour of the solution changed to blue
(C) the solution becomes colourless
(D) the colour of the solution did not change

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7. In which of the following pairs the displacement reaction does NOT occur?
(A) CuSO4 solution and silver metal
(B) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
(C) CuSO4 solution and Zn metal
(D) FeSO4 solution and Al metal nt
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8. The greenish layer formed over the surface of copper vessels is of ______.
(A) copper chloride (B) copper sulphide
(C) copper oxide (D) basic copper carbonate
9. Which of the following CAN be used for giving glitter to a corroded
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copper article?
(A) Lemon juice (B) Tamarind juice
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(C) Silver nitrate solution (D) All of these

10. In the Wilfley table method, the particles of gangue are separated by
m

_______ separation method. [Mar 2020]

(A) Magnetic (B) Froth floatation
(C) Hydraulic (D) Gravitational
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11. Gold plated ornaments is the example of _______. [Mar 2022]

(A) Electroplating (B) Alloying
(C) Anodizing (D) Galvanizing
Ans: 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A)
7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (A)

CHAPTER 9: CARBON COMPOUNDS

1. Which of the following contains –COOH functional group?

(A) Butanone (B) Butanol
(C) Butanoic acid (D) Butanal

Multiple Choice Questions 11
2. The functional group in butanone is _______.
(A) ether (B) ester
(C) ketone (D) aldehyde
3. Which of the following contains –OH functional group?
(A) Butanone (B) Butanol
(C) Butanoic acid (D) Butanal
4. _______ is one of the combustible components of L.P.G. [Mar 2022]
(A) Ethane (B) Propane
(C) Methane (D) Ethene
5. Which of the following compounds will burn with a sooty flame?
(A) Benzene (B) Propanol

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(C) Ethanoic acid (D) Butane
6. Which of the following compounds will burn with clean blue flame?
(A) Benzene (B) Naphthalene

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(C) Butane (D) Oleic acid

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7. Which of the following compounds will burn with a sooty flame?
(A) Naphthalene (B) Propanol
(C) Ethane (D) Butane
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8. When ethanol reacts with sodium, the products are _______.
(A) sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(B) sodium ethoxide and oxygen
(C) sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
(D) sodium ethoxide and carbon dioxide
e

9. When few drops of acetic acid are added to a test tube containing
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sodium bicarbonate powder, a gas is evolved. Which of the following is

CORRECT about the gas evolved?
(A) It burns with pop sound.
m

(B) It turns lime water milky.

(C) It has a foul smell of rotten eggs.
(D) It has a fruity smell.
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10. Which of the following represents esterification reaction?

(A) CH3COOH + NaOH   CH3COONa + H2O
Acid
(B) CH3COOH + C2H5OH  catalyst
 CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(C) 2CH3COOH + 2Na  2CH3COONa + H2
(D) CH3COOC2H5 +NaOH  CH3COONa + C2H5OH
11. When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, the product formed _______.
(A) is odourless
(B) has pungent odour
(C) has a foul smell of rotten eggs
(D) has a fruity smell
 Std. X: IQB
12
Science and Technology Part - 1
Ans: 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C)
7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (D)

CHAPTER 10: SPACE MISSIONS

1. The astronomical object closest to us is _______ in our galaxy.

[Mar 2020]
(A) Mars (B) Venus
(C) Jupiter (D) Moon
2. The artificial satellites work on _______ energy.
(A) gravitational (B) fuel
(C) solar (D) potential

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3. While launching a satellite in its orbit, the _______ velocity is given to
the satellite in tangential direction.
(A) critical (B) escape

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(C) highest (D) lowest

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4. The minimum velocity of the spacecraft to escape from earth’s
gravitational force must be _______. [Dec 2020]
(A) 112 km/s (B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 1.12 km/s (D) 0.112 km/s
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5. The functioning of the satellite launch vehicle is based on _______.
[Mar 2022]
(A) Newton’s first law of motion
(B) Newton’s second law of motion
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(C) Newton’s third law of motion

(D) Newton’s universal law of gravitation
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6. Presence of water on moon was first discovered by satellite_______ sent

by ISRO in 2008.
m

(A) Sputnik (B) Aryabhatta

(C) Chandrayaan-1 (D) IRNSS
7. _______ satellite in the INSAT and GSAT series is used specially in the
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field of education.
(A) IRS (B) EDUSAT
(C) Aryabhatta (D) IRNSS
Ans: 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C)
7. (B)


Multiple Choice Questions 13