Infosys test 16

Test Summary
No. of Sections: 3
No. of Questions: 59
Total Duration: 95 min

Section 1 - Quantitative Ability

Section Summary
No. of Questions: 9
Duration: 35 min

Additional Instructions:
None

Q1. A 3 striped ag is formed with 8 different colours. Find the probability that no two adjacent stripes in a ag should have same
colour.

(a) 42/64

(b) 49/64

(c) 44/64

(d) 45/64

Q2. Probability of selecting in company A is 1/4. Probability of selecting in company B is 1/6. What is the probability of getting selected
in both and probability of not getting selected in both?

(a) 1/24

(b) 5/12

(c)1/12

(d) 5/24

Q3. An institution has 63 students studying Physics, Chemistry and Biology. 33 study Physics, 25 Chemistry
and 26 Biology. 10 study Physics and Chemistry, 9 study Biology and Chemistry while 8 study both Physics and Biology. Equal
numbers study all three subjects as those who learn none of the three.

How many study only one of the three subjects?

a. 21

b. 30

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 c. 39

d. 42

e. None of these

Q4. An institution has 63 students studying Physics, Chemistry and Biology. 33 study Physics, 25 Chemistry
and 26 Biology. 10 study Physics and Chemistry, 9 study Biology and Chemistry while 8 study both Physics and Biology. Equal
numbers study all three subjects as those who learn none of the three.

16. How many study all the three subjects?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 7

e. None of these

Q5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TEMPORARY which have as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 4

d. 3

Q6. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of alcohol and spirit is

3:1. If the ratio of alcohol and spirit has to be 1:3, the amount of spirit to be further added is .

a. 120 lt

b. 140 lt

c. 150 lt

d. 135 lt

Q7. In a sale, a perfume is available at a discount of 20% on the selling price. If the perfume’s discounted
selling price is Rs.3675.40, what was the original selling price of the perfume (in RS.)?
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 a. 4324

b. 4386.45

c. 4594.25

d. None

Q8. The number of ways in which AAABBBCCD can be arranged in such a way that 2 B’s always come together is

a. 3*8!

b. 3*7!

c. 6*7!

d. 6*8!

e. None of these

Q9. Answer the following question based on the diagram given below
The distance between the nodes are
AE = 5,
EG=20,
ED=1,
DC=1,
AB=4 ,
AD=7,
BG=10,
DF=5,
CG=9,
AF=13
what is the shortest route to reach C from A?

A) AC

B) AEDC

C) AEGFC

D) ABDC

E) NONE OF THESE

Section 2 - Reasoning Ability

Section Summary
No. of Questions: 10
Duration: 25 min
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 Additional Instructions:
None

Q1. “In scrabble game”, three letter word is formed using P, Q, R, S T, U. Find the pair of words which does not form the word with 3
letters

(a) R,S

(b) T,U

(c) S,T

(d) None of these

Q2. ABC is a triangle, Is side AB = 12?

(i) AC = 5 and BC = 13
(ii) ABC is a right angled triangle

(a) Only I alone is suf cient

(b) Only II alone is suf cient

(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

(d)Cannot be determined

Q3. 1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table - two on each side.
2. There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
3. J is between L and F.
4. G is between I and F.
5. H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
6. F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
7. There is a lady member between F and I. Who among the following is to the immediate left of F ?

(a) G

(b) H

(c) I

(d) J

Q4. Find x + y = ?
I. x2 = 25
II. y2 = 9
(i) x& y are negative
(ii) x& y are whole numbers
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 (a) Only I alone is suf cient

(b) Only II alone is suf cient

(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

(d) Cannot be determined

Q5. Garlic Breadsticks, Veg Pizza, Thai Fai Paneer, Choco Lava, Pasta and Fine Pepper Pizza are dishes that are provided to a person on
Friday and Saturday. Each day a person is provided with 3 dishes at 12.00, 14.00 and 16.00 hrs.
(a) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only on Friday.
(b) Veg Pizza and Thai Fai Paneer are provided on same day.
(c) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only before Pasta.
(d) Fine Pepper Pizza is provided only before Choco Lava.
If Garlic Breadsticks and Choco lava are delivered on Saturday, then, which one of the following could be true?

(a) Pasta is delivered on Friday at 14:00 hours

(b) Pasta is delivered on Saturday at 12:00 hours

(c) Veg Pizza is delivered on Saturday at 16:00 hours

(d) Thai Fai Paneersare delivered on Friday at 14:00 hours

Q6. Garlic Breadsticks, Veg Pizza, Thai Fai Paneer, Choco Lava, Pasta and Fine Pepper Pizza are dishes that are provided to a person on
Friday and Saturday. Each day a person is provided with 3 dishes at 12.00, 14.00 and 16.00 hrs.
(a) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only on Friday.
(b) Veg Pizza and Thai Fai Paneer are provided on same day.
(c) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only before Pasta.
(d) Fine Pepper Pizza is provided only before Choco Lava.
Starting from Friday 12.00, which of the following is the most probable sequence of dishes served to the person.

(a) Fine Pepper Pizza, Veg Pizza, Garlic Breadsticks, Choco lava, Thai Fai
Paneer, Pasta

(b) Fine Pepper Pizza, Choco lava, Garlic Breadsticks, Pasta, Thai Fai Paneer,
Veg Pizza

(c) Fine Pepper Pizza, Pasta, Garlic Breadsticks, Choco lava, Thai Fai Paneer,
Veg Pizza

(d) Fine Pepper Pizza, Veg Pizza, Pasta, Thai Fai Paneer, Garlic Breadsticks,
Choco lava,

Q7. Garlic Breadsticks, Veg Pizza, Thai Fai Paneer, Choco Lava, Pasta and Fine Pepper Pizza are dishes that are provided to a person on
Processing math: 100%Fridayand Saturday. Each day a person is provided with 3 dishes at 12.00, 14.00 and 16.00 hrs.
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 (a) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only on Friday.
(b) Veg Pizza and Thai Fai Paneer are provided on same day.
(c) Garlic Breadsticks is provided only before Pasta.
(d) Fine Pepper Pizza is provided only before Choco Lava.
If Thai Fai Paneers are delivered on Friday, then which of the following be true?

(a) Garlic Breadsticks is delivered on Friday at 14:00 hours.

(b) Garlic Breadsticks is delivered on Saturday at 16:00 hours.

(c) Pasta is delivered on Saturday at 12:00 hours.

(d) Veg Pizza is delivered on Saturday at 16:00 hours.

Q8. Is sin q>cosq ?

(i) cosq= 1/2
(ii) q is in the 4th quadrant

(a) Only I alone is suf cient

(b) Only II alone is suf cient

(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

(d)Cannot be determined

Q9. The given question consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a speci c order.
Choose the options that indicates a combination where the third statement can be logically deducted from the two statements and
that option will be your answer.
(A) A, R and G together are taller than S
(B) R & G are of same height
(C) S is shorter than R
(D) G is taller than S
(E) R, G and S are midgets
(F) G is taller than T

(a) BCD

(b) AEF

(c) CDE

(d) ACD

Q10. What is the perimeter of the square?

(i) If the side is doubled, perimeter also doubles.
(ii) If the perimeter triples, area becomes 9 times.
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 (a) Only I alone is suf cient

(b) Only II alone is suf cient

(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

(d) Both of the statement are not suf cient

Section 3 - Verbal Ability

Section Summary
No. of Questions: 40
Duration: 35 min

Additional Instructions:
None

Q1. A large percentage of the older population ______ not willing to vote for her, so the chances of her winning are very less.

(a) is

(b) are

Q2. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
The unique Iron Age Experimental Centre at Lejre, about 40 km west of Copenhagen, serves as a museum, a classroom and a place
to get away from it all. How did people live during the Iron Age? How did they support themselves? What did they eat and how did
they cultivate the land? These and a myriad of other questions prodded the pioneers of the Lejre experiment.
Living in the open and working 10 hours a day, volunteers from all over Scandinavia led by 30 experts, built the rst village in the
ancient encampment in a matter of months. The house walls were of clay, the roofs of hay - all based on original designs. Then
came the second stage - getting back to the basics of living. Families were invited to stay in the 'prehistoric village' for a week or
two at a time and rough it Iron Age-style.
Initially, this experiment proved none too easy for modern Danes accustomed to central heating, but it convinced the centre that
there was something to the Lejre project. Little by little, the modern Iron Agers learnt that their huts were, after all, habitable. The
problems were numerous - smoke belching out from the rough-and-ready replaces into the rooms and so on. These problems,
however, have led to some discoveries: domed smoke ovens made of clay, for example, give out more heat and consume less fuel
than an open re, and when correctly stoked, they are practically smokeless.
By contacting other museums, the Lejre team has been able to reconstruct ancient weaving looms and pottery kilns. Iron Age
dyeing techniques, using local natural vegetation, have also been revived, as have ancient baking and cooking methods.
What can be the title of the passage?

(a)Modern techniques nd their way into pre-historic villages

(b)Co-existence of ancient and modern times

(c)Glad to be living in the 21st Century

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 (d)Turning back time

Q3. Sheila was selected for the job as she already ________.

(a) has a little experience

(b) has little experience

(c) had a little experience

(d) had little experience

Q4. Teenagers are often priced out of the labor market by the government-mandated minimum-wage level because employers
cannot afford to pay that much for extra help. Therefore, if Congress institutes a
subminimum wage, a new lower legal wage for teenagers, the teenage unemployment rate, which has been rising since 1960,
will no longer increase.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

a. Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen when the minimum
wage has risen.

b. Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has

risen even when the minimum wage remained constant.

c. Employers often hire extra help during holiday

and warm weather seasons.

d. The teenage unemployment rate rose more quickly in the 1970's than it
did in the 1960's.

Q5. Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven's piano sonatas, the recitalist's performance was a delightfully free and
introspective one; nevertheless, it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite .

a. Appealing

b. Exuberant

c. idiosyncratic

d. controlled

Q6. A world would us of much complexity

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 Polarized - yoke.

Pluralistic – purge

Paradoxical - eece

Singular - repudiate

Q7. Among the many reasons for this defeat in the election was his arrogant assumption that his constituents
were incapable of understanding economic conditions and his unwarranted attack on his chief opponent.

were his arrogant assumption that his

constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions.

were his arrogant assumption that his constituents would be

incapable of understanding

Q8. The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the nancial year.

that these forms be submitted

for these forms to be submitted

these forms should be submitted

Q9. Trying to keep her balance on the icy surface the last
comp etit o r’ s ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted
into the soft snow.

the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski , and somersaulted
into the soft snow

the last competitor somersaulted into the soft

snow when the tip of her ski was caught by the pole.

the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted into the
soft snow.

Q10. Indentify which part has error in it.

. Brenden Mccullum, (A)

the effort of which(B)

was the highest individual score (C)

in a t20 game(D)

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 was adjudged(E)

the Man of the match.(F)

Q11. Being abandoned by our friends is the cause of great sorrow for us.

being abandoned by our friends, we feel great sorrow.

abandoned by our friends, sorrow is the result

we feel great sorrow when our friends abandon

us.

Q12. Because the monkeys under study are ____ the presence of human beings, they typically ____ human observers and go about their
business

a. ambivalent about - welcome

b. habituated to - disregard

c. pleased with - snub

d. inhibited by - seek

Q13. error spot

a. The six member committee were

b. Of the view that the present service conditions

c. of the employees of this company

d. are quite good

Q14. The feet extraordinarily _____ under what should have been extremely ____ circumstances.

Valiant - provocative

Paci ed - provoking

Skeptical - tranquil

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 Q15. In a complex the contribution of an individual to the eventual decision cannot be readily .

Hierarchy - isolated

Scenario - condescended

Phenomenon - realigned

Pedagogy - censored

Q16. More and more holiday makers choose to y to remote

islands in search of the perfect beach. Seeking sand, sun and palm trees, rather than centers of entertainment.

with sand, sun, palm trees and no entertainment.

they seek sand, sun and palm trees, rather than entertainment centres.

they seek sand, sun and palm trees rather than centers of entertainment.

Q17. ERROR SPOT

a. Manoj has not only opened

b. a textile, but also

c. a jewellery shop in the

d. village where we live.

Q18. The imposter eluded detection for so long because she conducted herself as though she were a licensed practitioner.

as though she were a licensed practitioner

as if she was a licensed practitioner

like she was a licensed practitioner

Q19. ERROR SPOT

a. Villas owners in the city,

b. who were till now paid property tax

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 c. for only the built-up area of the plot, will soon

d. Have to pay tax to the government for vacant land also.

Q20. The Truce turned out to be anything but _____ and in two days the things were again ____

a. Congenial - conducive

b. Cohesive - sanguinary

c. Acrimonious – disarranged

d. Amicable - unprecedented

Q21. To entice customers away from competitors, Red Label supermarkets have begun offering discounts on home
appliances to customers who spend
50ormoreonanyshoppingtriptoRedLabel. RedLabelexecutivesclaimthatthediscountprogramhasbeenahugesuccess, sincecashregisterreceiptsof50
or more are up thirty percent since the beginning of the program.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the claim of the Red Label executives?

a. Most people who switched to Red Label after the

program began spend more than $50 each time they shop at Red Label.

b. Most people whose average grocery bill is less

than $50 would not be persuaded to spend more by any discount program.

c. Most people who received discounts on home

appliances through Red Label's program will shop at Red Label after the
program ends.

d. Almost all of the people who have begun

spending $50 or more at Red Label since the discount program began are
long time customers who have increased the average amount of their
shopping bills by making fewer trips.

Q22. Because the monkeys under study are ____ the presence of human beings, they typically ____ human observers and go about their
business

ambivalent about - welcome

habituated to - disregard

pleased with - snub

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 inhibited by - seek

Q23. ERROR SPOT

a. He neglects

b. attending lectures

c. regularly

d. though college was only a few yards away from his house.

Q24. Given she previously expressed interest and the ambitious tone of her recent speeches, the senator's
attempt to convince the public that she is not interested in running for a second term is _.

Laudable

likely

authentic

futile

Q25. Many of her followers remain to her, and even those who have rejected her leadership are
unconvinced of the of replacing her during the current turmoil.

Opposed-Urgency

Friendly-Harm

Loyal-Wisdom

Cool-Usefulness

Q26. ERROR SPOT

a. Villas owners in the city,

b. who were till now paid property tax

c. for only the built-up area of the plot, will soon

d. Have to pay tax to the government for vacant land also.

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 Q27. The temperature dropped suddenly last night which will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.

and this will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the
frost.

and the resulting frost will kill the shoots that are emerging from the soil.

and as a result, the shoots will be killed by the

frost emerging from the soil.

Q28. V. S. Naipaul’s An Area of Darkness(A) / that costs Rs.

200 is available in all(B)/ Leading book shops.(C)/ No error(D).

Q29. The Truce turned out to be anything but _____ and in two days the things were again ____

Congenial - conducive

Cohesive - sanguinary

Acrimonious – disarranged

Amicable - unprecedented

Q30. Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven's piano sonatas, the recitalist's performance was a delightfully free and
introspective one; nevertheless, it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite .

Appealing

Exuberant

idiosyncratic

controlled

Common Content:

The piranha is a much-maligned sh. Most people think that this is a deadly creature that swarms
through rivers and creeks of the Amazon rainforest looking for victims to tear apart. And woe betide anyone unlucky enough to be in
the same water as a shoal of Piranhas. It takes only a few minutes for the vicious Piranhas to reduce someone to a mere skeleton.
The truth is that the piranha is really a much more nuanced animal than the mindless killer depicted in the
media. In fact, Piranhas are a group made up of approximately twelve different species. Each piranha

species occupies its own ecological niche. One type of piranha takes chunks out of the ns of other sh. Another type eats fruit falling from
trees
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100%the river. Each piranha species plays a unique role in the ecology of the rainforest oodplains. So what should you do next time
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 you hear someone talking about the “deadly piranha”? You can remind them that the piranha is not
always the notorious killer sh that the tough, muscular heroes of popular nature television shows would have us believe.
However, Piranhas are not always that deadly. In fact, they usually swim alone. They eat small sh as
well as seeds and fruits that fall into the water. Piranhas rarely attack people.
Piranhas swim in rivers and lakes in South America. And they are kept as pets around the world. Because they eat so much and can be
expensive to feed, some pet owners have released them into local waters. This practice has introduced Piranhas to habitats outside
their native range. In these new environments, many Piranhas have eaten large numbers of sh, frogs, and other water animals.

Q31. In paragraph 1, the author most likely uses the old-

fashioned expression “woe betide” to

highlight the danger posed by Piranhas

suggest that the reputation of the piranha is well-deserved

emphasize the sarcastic tone

indicate that the passage was written in the 19th

century

Q32. As used in paragraph 2, which is the best de nition for unique?

replaceable

important

individual

unusual

Q33. The primary purpose of the author is to

correct misconceptions about the piranha

illustrate the importance of Piranhas in rainforest

ecology

describe two different species of Piranhas

instruct the reader on what to say if someone describe the

piranha as “deadly”

Q34. As used in paragraph 2, which is the best synonym for notorious?

celebrated

disreputable

notable

renowned

Q35. In paragraph 1, the author uses hyperbole— characterized by the use of exaggeration for effect
—to describe the piranha. The author most likely uses hyperbole to

frame an argument that is supported in a later paragraph

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 create ambiguity so the reader cannot be sure which
position the writer supports

juxtapose the myth of the piranha with the truth about the
sh

evoke vivid images of nature television shows in

the reader’s mind

Common Content:

The Maastricht Treaty can be termed as the rst formal treaty that led to the creation of European Union. The treaty was signed on Feb
7th 1992 and came to the existence on Nov 1st 1993. Denmark, France and Great Britain rejected the treaty in its original format.
With the Edinburgh Agreement in Dec 1992 and second referendum on 18th May 1993, Denmark
adopted the treaty with exceptions, namely with provisions on Citizenship, Uni ed Economic and
monetary policies, and Defence policies and Justice and Home Affairs. The adoption of treaty required approval from citizens of each
member states. France narrowly adopted the referendum in September 1992, with 51.05% in favour. Britain has consistently opposed
the idea of currency uni cation with Euro, although some provisions of Maastricht treaty were supported.
Although the treaty initiated the uni cation of European community in areas of criminal justice and inter-
governmental cooperation, the advantages of Euro as a currency over national currencies for
stronger European economies have yet to be established. Almost all European states are following
an economic cycle of boom and bust, with UK’s economy showing a high correlation with that of US. Lack of a federal structure to
control in ation, interest rate and taxes in the European Union have made it dif cult for ECB to make effective monetary policies.
The success of EU depends on each state, and weak links in the system can destabilize the entire union, as has been the case with the
crisis in Greece, Ireland and Spain. With a uni ed monetary policy, the central bank has exposure to debts in weak economies. Politicians of
strong economies have to convince the parliament, the people and other member states about a justi able
bailout package. The risk on Euro increases with interest rate hikes. With economic growth, risk of in ation is high. Strong
economies opt for interest rate hikes to compensate in ation. Each country, its economy and people has different sensitiveness
towards in ation and interest rate hikes. When an
economy is faced with debt, unemployment and slow demand, interest rate hikes can be catastrophic. With
the abolishment of independent monetary policies, Euro faces the risk of dissolution.

Q36. . Infer why “interest rate hikes can be catastrophic”

in the context of the passage.

With a uni ed monetary policy, the usage of Euro as a

currency by the union countries carries
the possibility that it can even destabilize the entire union.

Each country’s economy has different sensitivity

to interest rate hikes

Weak economies cannot afford to hike interest rates.

The already slow economic growth of the countries will

be threatened.

Q37. The passage is primarily concerned with:

providing the context of a historical

phenomenon and the long-term advantages

underlying one interpretation of a historical

phenomenon

assessing the merits and weaknesses of a historical

phenomenon

discussing the historical importance of a treaty

Q38. Which of the following is the primary reason for problems like in ation and economic instability in the
European Union?
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 The central bank is exposed to debts of weak economies

Each country doesn’t have its own independent

monetary policy

The weak unions can destabilise the entire union

thus forcing the stronger economies to offer bailout
packages

An effective monetary policy cannot be framed because

of lack of federal structure.

Q39. According to the passage, what does the author mean with the conclusion “With the abolishment of
independent monetary policies, Euro faces the risk of dissolution” mean:

Providing a hypothetical scenario when the risk on Euro is

extremely high

The author is providing a scenario where the risk on Euro

is extremely high.

Highlighting the disadvantages of Euro

Providing a current scenario where the risk on

Euro has increased

Q40. Even though provisions of Maastricht treaty were supported, who constantly opposed the idea of
currency uni cation?

Britain

Ireland

France

Greece

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 Answer Key & Solution
Section 1 - Quantitative Ability
Q1
(b) 49/64

Solution

No Solution

Q2
(a) 1/24

Solution

No Solution

Q3
c. 39

Solution

No Solution

Q4
b. 3

Solution

No Solution

Q5
b. 5

Solution

No Solution

Q6
a. 120 lt

Solution

No Solution

Q7
a. 4324

Solution

No Solution

Q8
b. 3*7!

Solution

No Solution

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Q9 /
 B) AEDC

Solution

No Solution

Section 2 - Reasoning Ability

Q1
(d) None of these

Solution

No Solution

Q2
(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

Solution

No Solution

Q3
(d) J

Solution

No Solution

Q4
(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

Solution

No Solution

Q5
(d) Thai Fai Paneersare delivered on Friday at 14:00 hours

Solution

No Solution

Q6
(b) Fine Pepper Pizza, Choco lava, Garlic Breadsticks, Pasta, Thai Fai Paneer, Veg Pizza

Solution

No Solution

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Q7 /
 (c) Pasta is delivered on Saturday at 12:00 hours.

Solution

No Solution

Q8
(c) Both of the statements are suf cient

Solution

No Solution

Q9
(a) BCD

Solution

No Solution

Q10
(d) Both of the statement are not suf cient

Solution

No Solution

Section 3 - Verbal Ability

Q1
(a) is

Solution

No Solution

Q2
(c)Glad to be living in the 21st Century

Solution

No Solution

Q3
(c) had a little experience

Solution

No Solution

Q4
b. Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen even when the minimum wage remained constant.
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 Solution

No Solution

Q5
a. Appealing

Solution

No Solution

Q6
Pluralistic – purge

Solution

No Solution

Q7
were his arrogant assumption that his constituents would be incapable of understanding

Solution

No Solution

Q8
that these forms be submitted

Solution

No Solution

Q9
the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski , and somersaulted into the soft snow

Solution

No Solution

Q10
the effort of which(B)

Solution

No Solution

Q11
we feel great sorrow when our friends abandon

us.

Solution

No Solution

Q12
b. habituated to - disregard
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 Solution

No Solution

Q13
d. are quite good

Solution

No Solution

Q14
Skeptical - tranquil

Solution

No Solution

Q15
Hierarchy - isolated

Solution

No Solution

Q16
with sand, sun, palm trees and no entertainment.

Solution

No Solution

Q17
b. a textile, but also

Solution

No Solution

Q18
as if she was a licensed practitioner

Solution

No Solution

Q19
b. who were till now paid property tax

Solution

No Solution

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Q20
b. Cohesive - sanguinary

Solution

No Solution

Q21
b. Most people whose average grocery bill is less

than $50 would not be persuaded to spend more by any discount program.

Solution

No Solution

Q22
habituated to - disregard

Solution

No Solution

Q23
d. though college was only a few yards away from his house.

Solution

No Solution

Q24
futile

Solution

No Solution

Q25
Loyal-Wisdom

Solution

No Solution

Q26
b. who were till now paid property tax

Solution

No Solution

Q27
and the resulting frost will kill the shoots that are emerging from the soil.

ProcessingSolution
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 No Solution

Q28
D

Solution

No Solution

Q29
Cohesive - sanguinary

Solution

No Solution

Q30
Appealing

Solution

No Solution

Q31. emphasize the sarcastic tone

Solution

No Solution

Q32. individual

Solution

No Solution

Q33. correct misconceptions about the piranha

Solution

No Solution

Q34. renowned

Solution

No Solution

Q35. evoke vivid images of nature television shows in

the reader’s mind

Solution

Nomath:
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100%
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Q36. Weak economies cannot afford to hike interest rates.

Solution

No Solution

Q37. underlying one interpretation of a historical

phenomenon

Solution

No Solution

Q38. An effective monetary policy cannot be framed because of lack of federal structure.

Solution

No Solution

Q39. The author is providing a scenario where the risk on Euro is extremely high.

Solution

No Solution

Q40. Britain

Solution

No Solution

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