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AIRFRAME TEST
GUIDE
WOOD STRUCTURES

1. The strength of a well-designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the

 Glue.

2. Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials
used in aircraft repair?

 AC 43.13-1B.

3. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates

 Compression failure.

4. Which statement about wood decay is correct?

 Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount.

5. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided.

 They procedure a small effect on grain direction.

6. When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross-sectional areas which will develop
dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using.

 Circular or elliptical patches.

7. Which statement concerning wood decay is correct?

 any form or amount decay is not permitted

8. Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers
that appear as streaks on the surface.

 At right angles to the grain.

9. Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components.
This wood can be identified by its.

 Parallel a grain construction.

10. The cantilever wing uses.

 Not external bracing.

11. Any wooden member that has been overstressed is subject to which type of failure?

 Compression failure.

12. Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood with mineral streaks?

 Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay.

13. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to.

 Reduce weight.

14. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,

 A new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely.

15. Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated.

 When a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint on the
wood with not wood fibers clinging to the glue.

16. Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars.

 if the same quality wood used in both

AIRCRAFT COVERING

1) When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric,
which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating?

1. Aluminum foil.

2. Resin impregnated cloth tape.

3. Any one-part type metal primer.

4. Cellulose tape.

 1 and 4.

2) (8015) when and how is finishing tape applied on a fabric-covered aircraft?

 Doped on after the first or second coat of dope.

3) (8022) Fabric rejuvenator is used to.

 Restore the condition of dope coatings.

4) (8023) (1) Machine-sewn seams in aircraft covering fabrics may be of the folded-fell or French-
fell types. (2) A plain lapped seam is never permissible. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

5) (8019.1) Fungicide and mildewcide additives are important for fabric covered aircraft, such as

 Cotton and linen.

6) (8017) how many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French-fell seam?

 Four.
7) (8019) Moisture, mildew, chemicals, and acids have no effect on.

 Glass fabric.

8) (8021) the strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on

 Tensile strength.

9) (8016) The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be
used in covering any type of aircraft is the

 Speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading.

10) (8020) The best method of repair for a fabric-covered surface which has an L-shaped tear,
each leg of which is approximately 14 inches long, is to

 Sew with a baseball stitch from the center of the tear out toward the extremity
of each leg and then dope on a patch.

11) (8024) When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires
only intermediate grade, the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is

 70 percent of the original strength for intermediate fabric.

12) Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what porpoise?

 To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming

structures.
AIRCRAFT FINISHES

1) 8035) Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the

 First coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric.

2) (8027) If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for
several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will

 Cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove.

3) (8036) Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should

 Avoid touching the surface with bare hands.

4) (8032) A correct use for acetone is to

 Remove grease from fabric.

5) (8029) which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the
time of application?

 Wash primer.

6) 8028) what is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?

 Retarder.

7) (8031) Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to

 reflect ultraviolet from the fabric

8) (8038) what is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?

 Too much material applied in one coat.

9) (8040) which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?

 Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes.

10) (8034) what is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?

 Corrosion.

11) (8039) which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden
changes in temperature?

 Blushing.

12) (8033) which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces
during the finishing process?

 Static electricity buildup.

13) (8037) what is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?

 A glossy, blush-free finish.

14) (8026) If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches,
what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?

Note:
 2/3 x height = character width.
 1/6 x height = width for 1.
 1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing.
 1/6 x height = stroke or line width.

 52 inches.
 15) (8030) which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?

 Polyurethane.

SHEEL METAL AND NOM METALLIC

STRUCTURES

1. (8147) Mild steel rivets are used for riveting

 steel parts.

2. (8149) when riveting dissimilar metals together, what precautions must be taken to prevent an
electrolytic action?

 Place a protective separator between areas of potential electrical difference.

3. (8137) The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are

 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.

4. (8107) which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly
known to have been critically loaded?

 If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be
tipped in the same direction.
5. (8102) longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi-monocoque fuselage are called

 Longerons and stringers.

6. (8125) which part(s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from
bending the fuselage?

 Longerons and stringers.

7. (8111) (Refer to Figure 1.) Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression
made by a 100° countersink?

 1.

8. (8167) The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening
the part is called the

 Minimum radius of bend.

9. (8132) which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet
spacing?

 Rivet length.

10. (8113) what is one of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when
flush riveting?

 Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head.
11. (8139) which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying
agent used in its manufacture?

 2

12. (8087) The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original
is the

 Ribbon direction.

13. (8091) When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending
through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be

 Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn.

14. (8079) when making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a
good bond. The final cleaning should be made using

 MEK (methyl ethyl ketone).

15. (8121) A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the

 Diameter of the rivets being used.

16. (8138) The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated by the number

 2

17. (8106) A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of damaged aluminum skin. If a
double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be

 13/16 inch.

 The minimum row distance is 2-1/2 D. (D = diameter)

 4 D + 2-1/2 D = Total overlap.
 6-1/2 D = 13/2 D
 Given the rivet diameter (D) specified in this question:
 13/2(1/8") = 13/16 inches total overlap.
18. (8098.1) which of the following drill bit types work best when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar(c))
composite laminate?

 Carbide W-Point.

19. (8044) The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is

 Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.

20. (8045) The shop head of a rivet should be

 One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.

21. (8166) Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the

 Inside radius of the metal being formed.

22. (8154) which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?

 5056 aluminum.

23. (8069) Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can
generally be repaired by applying

 One or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface.

24. (8135) A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should

 Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head.

25. (8067) The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is

 S-glass.
There are two types of glass fibers used in aircraft composite structure: E glass and S glass.
E, or electrical glass, has a high dielectric strength and is designed primarily for electrical insulation. S, or
structural glass, has a high tensile strength and is used for structural applications.
26. (8092) if a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength
requirements in which document?

 TSO C22.

27. (8118) Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they

 Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.

28. (8075) which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally
considered the best for strength?

 60/40

29. (8143) which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?

 2117-T3

A 2117 rivet is known as an AD rivet. It may be driven as received, without further heat treatment.

30. R/ (8095) If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been
cleaned, their surfaces should be

 Covered with a thin coat of wax.

31. (8116) repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed skin metal wings
are usually

 Permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than
similar repairs to the upper surface.

32. (8086) which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of
damaged fastener holes in composite panels?
1. Microballoons.
2. Flox.
3. Chopped fibers.

 2 and 3.
33. (8157) (Refer to Figure 4.) The length of flat A is

 3.750 inches.

The length of flat A is its mold-line length of 4.00 inches, minus the setback.
The setback is the metal thickness (0.0625 inch), plus the bend radius (0.1875 inch) or 0.250 inch.
The length of flat A is 4.00 - 0.250 = 3.750 inches.

34. (8114) When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the
design of the patch should be

 The shear strength of the riveted joint.

35. (8140) a sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will
be

 1/4 inch.

This problem calls for joining two pieces of 0.040-inch material, using 3/32-inch rivets.
The total thickness of the material is 0.080 inch. The rivet should protrude through the material for 1-1/2
diameters, or 0.1406 inch (9/64 inch).
The total length of the rivet must be 0.080 + 0.1406, or 0.2206 inch. The nearest standard rivet to this length is
1/4 inch long (0.250 inch).

36. (8097) what is the most common method of cementing transparent plastics?

 Soak method.
37. (8080) when necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining
composite laminates?

 Water only.

38. (8160) (Refer to Figure 5.) What is the flat layout dimension?

 6.8 inches.

The dimension of flat A is 3.688 inches.

The dimension of flat B is 2.688 inches.
Using the bend allowance formula, we find that 0.441 inch of material is used to make the bend.
The total layout dimension is 3.688 + 2.688 + 0.441 = 6.817 inches .

39. (8057) When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut
so that

 The grain is perpendicular to the skin.

40. (8053) Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures

 Must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel.

41. (8115) which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct
size?

 Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.

42. (8088) which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?
1. High tensile strength.
2. Flexibility.
3. Stiffness.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.

 1 and 2.

43. (8130) the identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the

 Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.

44. (8176) (Refer to Figure 7.) What is dimension F?

Setback at D = .095
Setback at E = .068
Bend allowance at D = .150
Bend allowance at E = .112

 5.936.

Flat A is 1.00 inch, minus setback D (0.095 inch) = 0.905 inch.

Flat B is 3.00 inches, minus setbacks D and E (0.095 + 0.068 = 0.163 inch) = 2.837 inches.
Flat C is 2.00 inches, minus setback E (0.068 inch) = 1.932 inches.
Add to the total length of the three flats the amount of material needed to make both of the bends (0.150 inch for
bend D and 0.112 inch for bend E).
The total developed length (length F) is 0.905 + 2.837 + 1.932 + 0.150 + 0.112 = 5.936 inches.
45. (8048) The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length
is measured in

 Hundredths of an inch.

46. (8112) which is correct concerning the use of a file?

 Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals
such as lead or aluminum.

47. 47) (8161) if a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form block, a piece of dead
soft aluminum should first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened
in place. The bumping operation should be

 Started by tapping the aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working
down into the center.

48. (8098) what type of bit should be used to drill holes in Plexiglas?

 A specially modified twist drill.

49. (8054) Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft
because this type of construction

 Has a high strength to weight ratio.

50. (8119) which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?

 No external bracing is needed.

51. (8050) Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to

 Attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal.

52. (8077) Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by
1. Applying external heat.
2. Room temperature exposure.
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.
4. Applying pressure.

 1 and 4.

53. (8126) Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the

 Centers of rivets in adjacent rows.

54. (8063) When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may
indicate

 separation of the laminates.

55. (8066) A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is
described as a

 Thermoplastic.

56. (8164) The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which a simple L-shaped bracket
3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket
which will require the greatest amount of material is one which has a bend radius of

 1/8 inch.

57. (8062) One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to
damage is to

 Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.

58. (8043) Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated

 By the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven.
59. (8172) when bending metal, the material on the outside of the curve stretches while the
material on the inside of the curve compresses. That part of the material which is not affected
by either stress is the

 Neutral line.

60. (8153) what type loads cause the most rivet failures?

 Shear

61. (8136) Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time
after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration

 Must be reheat treated before use.

62. (8124) The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of

 Skin or covering.

63. (8165) If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are
not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be

 Found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the bend

radius.

64. (8093) which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastics?

 When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent
excessive tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided.

65. (8094) The coefficient of expansion of most plastic enclosure materials is

 Greater than both steel and aluminum.

66. (8081) Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by

 Filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers.

67. (8173) (Refer to Figure 6.) Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout.

Setback = .252
Bend allowance = .345

 A = .748, B = 1.496, C = 1.248.

Setback = R + T = 0.188 + 0.064 = 0.252 inch.

Dimension A is a mold line length of 1.00 inch, less one setback. This gives a length of 0.748 inch.
Dimension B is the mold line length of 2.00 inches, less two setbacks. This gives a length of 1.496 inches.
Dimension C is the mold line length of 1.50 inches, less one setback. This gives a length of 1.248 inches.

68. (8133) what is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat
treatment?

 To retard age hardening.

69. (8170) you can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by

 Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda.

70. (8083) Fiberglass laminates damage that extends completely through one facing and into the
core

 Requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing.

71. (8042) A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than
their application) is in the

 Number of locking collar grooves.

72. (8156) The length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural repair that involves the
joining of 0.032-inch and 0.064-inch aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is

 5/16 inch.

The two sheets of material to be riveted together have a total thickness of 0.096 inch.
The rivet installed in a No. 30 hole is a 1/8-inch rivet. It should extend through the material a distance of 0.1875
inch.
The total length of the rivet must be 0.096 + 0.1875 = 0.2835. The nearest standard rivet length to this is 5/16 inch
(0.3125 inch).

73. (8110) what is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft rivets?

 Three times the diameter of the rivet shank.

74. (8089) which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites?
1. Flexibility.
2. Stiffness.
3. High compressive strength.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.

 2, 3, and 4.
75. (8128) (Refer to Figure 2.) Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking.

 1

The type of countersinking shown in view 1 is preferred.

The type of countersinking shown in view 2 is acceptable.
The type of countersinking shown in view 3 is not acceptable.

76. (8060) how does acoustic emission testing detect defects in composite materials?

 By picking up the 'noise' of any deterioration that may be present.

77. (8090) If an aircraft's transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a
network over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be

 Crazing.
78. (8158) (Refer to Figure 4.) The amount of material required to make the 90° bend is

 0.3436 inch.

Using the formula in Figure 4, we find the total amount of material needed to make the bend is
0.3434 inch.
BA = 2pi(R + 1 / 2T) ÷ 4
= 6.28(0.1875 + 0.03125) ÷ 4
= 1.3737 ÷ 4
= 0.3434

79. (8127) Rivet pitch is the distance between the

 Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.

80. (8122) what should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?

 118°.

For most drilling, including that for hard metal, the cutting angle of a twist drill is ground to an
included angle of 118° (59° on either side of center).
81. (8159) (Refer to Figure 5.) What is the length of flat A?

 3.7 inches.

The length of flat A is its mold-line length of 4.00 inches, minus the setback.
The setback is the metal thickness (0.062 inch), plus the bend radius (0.250 inch), or 0.312 inch.
The length of flat A is 4.00 - 0.312 = 3.688 inches.

82. (8051) The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets is accomplished by utilizing

 A pulling tool.

83. (8068) which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?

 Zinc chloride will have no effect.

84. (8061) what precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal
honeycomb structure?

 Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere.

85. (8117) When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you should

 Straighten cold and reinforce.

86. (8064) How many of the following are benefits of using microballoons when making repairs to
laminated honeycomb panels?
1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners.
2. Improved strength to weight ratio.
3. Less density
4. Lower stress concentrations

 2, 3, and 4.

87. (8041) A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to

 Shear loads.

88. (8162) A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15° must be bent through an
angle of

 165°.

A closed angle is an angle that has been bent beyond 90°.

In order to form a closed angle of 15°, the sheet must be bent through an angle of 165° (180° - 15° =
165°).

89. (8100) Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist
drill.

 Forms the cutting edges of the drill point.

90. (8105) When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those
for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a

 Lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill.

91. (8168) The most important factors needed to make a flat pattern layout are

 Radius, thickness, and degree of bend.

92. (8169) a piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred
to as the

 Bend radius.

93. (8072) Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?

 Warp.

94. (8073) what reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular
ply of fabric?

 Warp clock (or compass).

95. (8049) The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud
diameter is measured in

 Sixteenths of an inch.

96. (8047) The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the

 Body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener.

97. (8150) The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032-inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy
should be equal to

 One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch.

98. (8052) Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite
structures primarily because of the

 Possibility of causing delamination.

99. (8084) Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for
fiberglass repairs is likely to result in

 An unairworthy repair.

100.(8152) Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial

 Shear failure.

101. (8146) A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be

 5/16 inch.

Each of the two sheets of material to be riveted together has a thickness of 0.0625 inch.
The total thickness of the material is 0.125 inch, and the 1/8-inch rivets should extend through the material for 1-
1/2 diameters, which is 0.1875 inch.
The total length of the rivet must be 0.3125 inch, which is 5/16 inch.

102. (8070) The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that has high resistivity and is
the most common is

 E-glass.

103. (8109) When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of

 140° and turn at a low speed.

104. (8148) A DD rivet is heat treated before use to

 Soften to facilitate riveting.

105. (8177) On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, allow for stretching by

 Subtracting the setback from both legs.

106. (8142) MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has

 An overall length of 5/16 inch.

An MS20426AD-6-5 rivet is a countersunk-head rivet made of 2117 aluminum alloy. It has a diameter of 6/32 inch
(3/16 inch) and an overall length, including the head, of 5/16 inch.

107. (8074) The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends
primarily on

 The orientation of the plies to the load direction.

108. (8106.1) What is the minimum edge distance allowed for aluminum alloy single lap sheet
splices containing a single row of rivets as compared to a joint with multiple rows, all rivets
being equal in diameter?

 The minimum edge distance for the single row is equal to that for the multiple
row.

109. (8120) Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up
from sheet metal, are normally

 Repairable, using approved methods.

110. (8065) the length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the

 Pot life.

111.(8085) The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by

 Laminating on new repair plies.

112. (8151) what is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?

 Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than
the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch.
113.(8131) When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained

 Only after a period of age hardening.

114.(8141) Most rivets used in aircraft construction have

 Dimples.

115. (8099) what is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of
aircraft structures?

 To join and reinforce intersecting structural members.

116. (8145) which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?

 MS20470AD-4-4.

The two pieces of material to be joined have a total thickness of 0.064 inch. The rivet used with this metal should
have a diameter of about three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. This would cause us to choose a rivet
with a diameter of 3 x 0.032 inch, or 0.096 inch. The closest rivet to this is one with a diameter of 1/8 inch (0.125
inch).
A 1/8-inch rivet should extend through the material for 3/16 inch, or 0.1875 inch.
The total length of the rivet must be 0.064 + 0.1875, or 0.2515 inch.
We would choose an MS20470AD-4-4 rivet. This is a universal head rivet, 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.

117.(8058) When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel,
the edges of the doubler should be tapered to

 100 times the thickness of the metal.

118. (8155) which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?

 Monel.

119. (8171) The purpose of a joggle is to

 Allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.

120.(8101) How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a
single row of rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?

 56.

The plate is 10 inches long and 5 inches wide. The rivets have a diameter of 1/8 inch and there is an edge distance
of two rivet diameters.
This requires two rows of rivets 9-1/2 inches long and two rows that are 4-1/2 inches long. The total length of the
rivet seams is 28 inches.
If the rivets are spaced every 1/2 inch (4D spacing), 56 rivets are needed.

121. (8056) which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for
entrapped water?
1. Acoustic emission monitoring.
2. X-ray.
3. Backlighting.

 2 and 3.

122.(8059) One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been
achieved is to

 Have mixed enough for a test sample.

123. (8096) Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must

 Be at least flame resistant.

124. (8134) under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their

 Low strength characteristics.

125. (8163) When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using a minimum radius for the type and
thickness of material,

 The layout should be made so that the bend will be 90° to the grain of the sheet.
126.(8174) (Refer to Figure 6.) What is dimension D?

Setback = .252
Bend allowance = .345

 4.182.

Setback = 0.252 inch.

Bend allowance = 0.345 inch.
Dimension A is a mold line length of 1.00 inch, less one setback. This gives a length of 0.748 inch.
Dimension B is the mold line length of 2.00 inches, less two setbacks. This gives a length of 1.496 inches.
Dimension C is the mold line length of 1.50 inches, less one setback. This gives a length of 1.248 inches.
Dimension D is the sum of dimensions A, B, and C, plus two bend allowances.
Dimension D = 0.748 + 1.496 + 1.248 + 0.345 + 0.345 = 4.182 inches.

127. (8071) A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than

 1 inch in diameter.

128. (8175) The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is
measured and marked

 One radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake.

129.(8108) what is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

 Two times the diameter of the rivet shank.

130. (8144) (Refer to Figure 3.) Which is the grip length of the flush rivet?

 3
The grip length of a rivet is the total thickness of the material held together by the rivet.
In this question, the grip length is dimension 3.

131.(8078) when repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely
to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to

 Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair.

132.(8046) One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that

 They can be installed with ordinary hand tools.

133.(8178) the aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which
method?

 Heat treatment.

134.(8123) Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock must have all

 Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum.

135. (8055) (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be due
to damage or to transition to a different internal structure.
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a ring
(coin tap) test. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

Statement (1) is true. A change in the sound made by the coin being tapped on a piece of composite structure
may be caused by damage or by a transition to a different type of internal structure.
Statement (2) is not true. The ring, or coin tap, test is a quick and unscientific type of test that gives an indication
of possible damage but does not accurately measure the extent of separation.

136. (8076) what is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess
resin during curing called?

 Bleeder.

137.(8104) what should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?

 90°.

For drilling soft metals, an included angle of about 90° (45° either side of center) is suitable.
For normal metals, an angle of 118° (59° on either side of center) is considered the standard lip angle.

138. (8082) Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure

 May be repaired.

139.(8103) Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by

 Burnishing.

140. (8129) what is indicated by a black 'smoky' residue streaming back from some of the rivets on
an aircraft?

 Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets and the skin.

 141.(8046.1) which of the following is one advantage HI-LOCK fasteners?

 Inability to be over- torqued.

142.(8138.1) which part of 2024-T3 aluminum alloy indicates the temper designation?

 T3

143.(8160.1) when conducting a tap test on a composite panel, which of the following sounds
would indicate delamination?

 Dull thud

WELDIND

1. (8202) Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?

 Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.

2. (8207) When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration,

 The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.

3. (8199) which statement concerning a welding process is true?

 The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the
atmosphere.
4. (8209) Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of
aluminum because it

 Aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.

5. (8203) how should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?

 Slightly carburizing.

6. (8193) The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should

 Be neutral and soft.

7. (8194) A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will

 Cool too rapidly.

8. (8208) Annealing of aluminum

 Removes stresses caused by forming.

9. (8211) The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum
consist of

 Helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon.

10. (8181) which statement is true in regard to welding heat-treated magnesium?

 The welded section does not have the strength of the original metal.
11. (8201) what purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum?

 Minimizes or prevents oxidation.

12. (8183) why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?

 To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film.

13. (8186) Welding over brazed or soldered joints is

 Not permitted.

14. (8195) Filing or grinding a weld bead is considered to be

 A way to bring about strength reduction in joint.

15. (8205) In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by
the

 Size of the tip opening.

16. (8190) In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the

 Amount of heat applied to the work.

17. (8187) which statement concerning soldering is correct?

 Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to

soldering.
18. (8184) Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a

 Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.

19. (8206.1) Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of

 Steel.

20. (8185) what method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?

 Welded patch plate.

21. (8179) In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to

 Prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.

22. (8188) A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has
been

 Tinned.

23. (8189) which of the following can normally be welded without adversely affecting strength?
1. Aircraft bolts.
2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing.
3. Spring steel struts.
4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy components.

 2

24. (8204) Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when
welding aluminum to use a

 Flux.
25. (8191) why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?

 It hardens the surface.

26. (8197) Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene

 Contain acetone.

27. (8196) Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI is

 Dangerously unstable.

28. (8210) If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel,

 The metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion.

29. (8182) The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be

 Neutral.

30. (8206.2) High pressure cylinders used to transport and store acetylene must

 Contain acetone.

31. (8180) which statement best describes magnesium welding?

 Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal .

32. (8198) A welding torch backfire may be caused by

 A loose tip.

33. (8200) Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding aluminum?

 Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod.

34. (8192) The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is

 Material compatibility.

35. (8180.1) which statement best describes magnesium welding?

 It can be welded successfully using the same type of joints type that are used for
aluminum.

36. (8205.1) when welding or cutting, the acetylene pressure gauge should never be set higher
than.

 15 PSI.

37. (8192.1) when selecting a welding rod, one of the most important factors to consider is to
ensure that.

 The proper AMS specification number is used.

ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING

1. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?

 So that air currents do not destabilize the scales.

2. (8223) which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters?

 Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation.

3. (8226) Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the

 Cyclic pitch control.

4. (8262) when used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what
material?

 Corrosion resisting steel.

5. (8224) what is the purpose of the free-wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system?

 It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the
equivalent of rotor RPM.

6. (8288) A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all-metal aircraft is used
primarily to

 Retain a set tension.

7. (8263) When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut can be threaded on a bolt or stud
through the insert with only the fingers, it should be

 Rejected.

8. (8238) what type of flap system increases the wing area and changes the wing camber?

 Fowler flaps.

9. (8215) In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of the cargo release is where the line of
action passes

 Through the center of gravity at all times.

10. (8266) what is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?

 1/8 inch.

11. (8265) how are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?

 Pulleys.

12. (8216) The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the relative wind is known as
the

 Angle of attack.

13. (8231) An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to

 Pitch.

14. (8271) Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pulley groove is evidence of

 Pulley misalignment.
15. (8282) If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved forward
and to the right, the left aileron will move

 Down and the elevator will move down.

16. (8283) if the travel of an airplane's controls is correct but the cables are rigged exceptionally
tight, what probable effect will this have when flying the airplane?

 The airplane will be heavy on the controls.

17. (8267) After repairing or re-covering a rudder, the surface should be rebalanced

 To manufacturer's specifications.

18. (8221) Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount during rotation are said to be
out of

 Track.

19. (8259) When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper installation, determine that

 The safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of four turns around the terminal
end shanks.

20. (8235) An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the

 Rudder.

21. (8233) The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by

 A line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel to the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft.
22. (8289) (Refer to Figure 9.) When the outside air temperature is 80°F, select the acceptable
3/16 cable tension range.

 117 pounds minimum, 143 pounds maximum.

Follow the vertical line for 80° Fahrenheit upward until it intersects the curve for 3/16-inch cable. This intersection
falls on the horizontal line for a nominal cable tension of 130 pounds.
The chart gives a tolerance of plus or minus 10% of the nominal reading. This gives a range between 117 pounds
as a minimum value (130 pounds - 13 pounds) and 143 pounds (130 pounds + 13 pounds) as the maximum value.

23. (8264) The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide

 Directional stability.

24. (8229) If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, this condition may be corrected
by

 Increasing the angle of incidence of the left wing, or decreasing the angle of
incidence of the right wing, or both.

25. (8240) The chord of a wing is measured from

 Leading edge to trailing edge.

26. (8292) which should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?

 Install critical stress panels or plates.

27. (8270) Very often, repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface.
Generally, flight control balance condition may be determined by

 The behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its hinge
points.

28. (8287) (Refer to Figure 8.) Identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and in
other places where operation over pulleys is frequent.

 3

The flexible control cable show in illustration 3 is used in aircraft primary control system where operation overs
pulleys are frequent. This cable is called a 7 by 19 cable and is made up of the seven strands of 19 wire each.

29. (8258) what nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct
amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control
cable?

 Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the
terminal.

30. (8242) what physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings?

 Span and chord.

31. (8228) Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual what other document could be used
to determine the primary flight control surface deflection for an imported aircraft that is
reassembled after shipment?

 Aircraft type certificate data sheet.

32. (8260) If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a
cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be

 The full rated strength of the cable.

33. (8214) A reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause the

 Tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis.

34. (8243) Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the airplane
about its

 Lateral axis.

35. (8248) Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll) is also movement

 Around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons.

36. (8278) Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as

 Lateral stability.

37. (8250) Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this
cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned

 With the nose into the wind.

38. (8218) The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking is to determine the

 Relative position of the blades during rotation.

39. (8281) Movement of the cockpit control toward the nosedown position during a ground
operational check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the trailing edge of the trim tab to
move in which direction?

 Upward regardless of elevator position.

40. (8252) The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by placing a straightedge and level
protractor on the

 Front spar.

41. (8222) One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter
transmission is to

 Automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure.

42. (8213) The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by

 Collective pitch changes.

43. (8284) During inspection of the flight control system of an airplane equipped with differential-
type aileron control, side-to-side movement of the control stick will cause

 Each aileron to have a greater up travel (from the streamlined position) than
down travel.

44. (8225) Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a helicopter is effected by movement of
the

 Cyclic pitch control.

45. (8254) Where is the buttock line or butt line of an aircraft?

 A width measurement left or right of, and parallel to, the vertical centerline.

46. (8256) Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing can usually be checked by utilizing
a

 Bubble level and special fixtures described by the manufacturer.

47. (8273) where does the breakage of control cable wires occur most frequently?

 Breakage usually occurs where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads.

48. (8245) The purpose of wing slats is to

 Reduce stalling speed.

49. (8269) the cable-operated control system of an all-metal aircraft, not incorporating a
temperature compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated hangar.
If the aircraft is operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will

 Decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold.

50. (8237) Washing-in the left wing of a monoplane, for purposes of rigging corrections after flight
test, will have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing?

 Both drag and lift will increase due to increased angle of attack.

51. (8239) If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence
than designated in the manufacturer's specifications, it will cause the

 Airplane to be off balance both laterally and directionally.

52. (8234) An airplane's center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity

 So that the airplane will have a nose-heavy tendency.

53. (8277) Aircraft flight control trim systems must be designed and installed so that the

 Pilot can determine the relative position of the trim tab from the cockpit.

54. (8247) Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused by

 An unsteady flow from turbulence.

55. (8246) the angle of incidence of an airplane at rest

 Does not change when in flight.

56. (8279) the purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to

 Assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces.

57. (8249) the primary purpose of stall strips is to

 stall the inboard portion of the wings first

58. (8220) if a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the
advancing blade is

 Less than the retreating blade.

59. (8227) Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most airplanes of conventional design,
contributes most to stability of the airplane about its

 Longitudinal axis.
60. (8275) which statement concerning the 100-hour inspection of an airplane equipped with a
push-pull tube-type control system is true?

 The threaded rod ends should be checked for the amount of thread engagement
by means of the inspection hole provided.

61. (8274) with which system is differential control associated?

 Aileron.

62. 8244) an airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been
set into motion has

 Poor longitudinal stability.

63. (8230) if the vertical fin of a single-engine, propeller-driven airplane is rigged properly, it will
generally be parallel to

 The vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis.

64. (8257) the vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated with swaged terminals, that
must be

 Checked with a go-no-go gauge before and after, to show compliance with the
manufacturer's requirements after the swaging operation.

65. (8217) A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by

 Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction.

66. (8253) where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a
particular aircraft?

 Aircraft service or maintenance manual.

67. (8241) When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will

 Also increase.

68. (8290) Differential control on an aileron system means that

 The up travel is more than the down travel.

69. (8251) The correct dihedral angle can be determined by

 Using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing.

70. (8219) In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, directional control is maintained by

 Varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades.

71. (8285) A universal propeller protractor used to measure the degrees of aileron travel should
be zeroed

 With the aileron in the NEUTRAL position.

72. (8272) Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than

 3°.

73. (8212) the auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or
accomplish which of the following?

 Torque and directional control.

74. (8255) where is fuselage station No. 137 located?

 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line.

75. (8236) The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the

 Lateral axis.

76. (8261) which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary
structures?

 Cotter pin.

77. (8280) If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward
and to the left, the right aileron will move

 Down and the elevator will move up.

78. (8276) If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the
probable cause is

 Worn attachment fittings.

79. (8232) As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of pressure will

 Move toward the leading edge.

80. (8286) The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure

 Degrees of flap travel.

81. (8268) Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and running it back and
forth over the length of the cable is generally a satisfactory method of

 broken strands.

82. (8261.1) when installing a castle nut, star alignment whit the correct pin hole at the

 Minimum recommended torque plus friction drag torque.

AIRFRAME INSPECTION

1. Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?

 14 CFR Parts 91.

2. (8304) Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal
Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected

 In accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation

Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.

3. (8293) which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD's) is true?

 Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the

maintenance records.

4. (8296) Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate
data require approval for return to service

 By the holder of an inspection authorization.

5. (8295) which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an
annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to
accomplish the repair)?

 An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may

approve the aircraft for return to service.

6. (8299) The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is

 10 hours.
7. (8302) For an individual (not a repair station) to conduct a complete 100-hour inspection on an
aircraft and approve it for return to service requires a mechanic certificate with

 Airframe and powerplant ratings.

8. (8297) an aircraft may be flown beyond the 100-hour inspection requirement to reach a place
where the inspection can be accomplished, provided it

 Does not exceed 10 flight hours.

9. (8301) An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown

 If a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.

10. (8300) which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to service
after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair?

 An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft
for return to service.

11. (8294) When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained
from

 Maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment

manufacturer.

12. (8298) where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or
disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?

 14 CFR Parts 43.

13. (8293.1) airworthiness directives (ADs) are designed to notify the

 Aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribe
the condition under which the product may continue to be operated.
AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEM

1. (8310) Aside from an external leak in the line, what will cause parking brakes to continually
bleed off pressure?

 An internal leak in the master cylinder.

2. (8350) If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the

 Strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected.

3. (8340) When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be

 Collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening.

4. (8311) why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed
tires be first inflated, fully deflated, and then reinflated to the correct pressure?

 To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire.

5. (8351) A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped

 An indefinite number of times.

6. (8332) what is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a
brake system?

 The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.

7. (8383) The purpose of an orifice check valve is to

 Restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
8. (8345) what is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an
independent brake system?

 Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature
changes.

9. (8333) When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing is
cushioned by

 The fluid being forced through a metered opening.

10. (8318) A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where the high pressure of the hydraulic
system (3000 psi) is used to operate brakes

 That is designed to work with lower pressure.

11. (8339) what type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to isolate the emergency brake
system from the normal power brake control valve system?

 A shuttle valve.

12. (8382) A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a

 Micronic filter.

13. (8375) Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The
primary purpose of the centering device is to

 Center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well.

14. (8378) A hydraulic system referred to as a 'power pack' system will

 Have all hydraulic power components located in one unit.

15. (8361) Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tires to help

 Deflect water away from the fuselage.

16. (8330) The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires by the holder of a private pilot
certificate on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be

 Preventive maintenance.

17. (8374) when installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft hydraulic cylinder, the open side of
the seal should face.

 The direction of fluid pressure.

18. (8307) In brake service work, the term 'bleeding brakes' is the process of

 Withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has
entered the system.

19. (8344) If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies intersects
aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having

 Toe-out.

20. (8354) what should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?

 Fluid level.

21. (8327) On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to

 Extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.

22. (8312) The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to

 Retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.

23. (8314) why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim
wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?

 As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have
been damaged or weakened.

24. (8357) If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake system, its position in the system will
be

 Between the brake control valve and the brake actuating cylinder.

25. (8367) Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of

 overinflation

26. (8353) The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from

 The aircraft service manual.

27. (8380) An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid
will be marked with

 A blue stripe or dot.

28. (8379) a flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788 will have a stripe running the length
of the hose. This stripe

 Is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting.

29. (8370) On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by

 Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is to the level of the filler plug.
30. (8321) Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the

 Wheel flange.

31. (8371) a pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive travel. A probable cause is

 Lack of fluid in the brake system.

32. (8346) If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but
functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is

 Low fluid.

33. (8305) Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to
aircraft tires?
1. Low humidity.
2. Fuel.
3. Oil.
4. Ozone.
5. Helium.
6. Electrical equipment.
7. Hydraulic fluid.
8. Solvents.

 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8.

34. (8317) many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type
is not adaptable to mechanical operation?

 Expander-tube type.

35. (8313) After performing maintenance on an aircraft's landing gear system which may have
affected the system's operation, it is usually necessary to

 Make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks.

36. (8316) if it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system,
what is the next most likely cause?

 Deteriorated flexible hoses.

37. (8348) Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the

 Proper operating position of the strut.

38. (8372) A landing gear position and the warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit
when the throttle is

 Retarded and gear is not down and locked.

39. (8349) Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to

 Reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.

40. (8337) The pressure source for power brakes is

 The main hydraulic system.

41. (8356) the left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane on which no recent brake service
work has been performed. The most probable cause is

 Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder compensating port.

42. (8319) A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type
tire is a

 Slippage mark.

43. (8322) Debooster valves are used in brake systems primarily to

 Reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.

44. (8335) A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to

 Limit the extension stroke.

45. (8329) what is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing
gear oleo strut?

 Maintain correct wheel alignment.

46. (8315) the braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is accomplished by compressing a rotating
brake disk between two opposite brake linings. How is equal pressure on both sides of the
rotating disk assured?

 By allowing the caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to

the rotor.

47. (8343) Aircraft tire pressure should be checked

 At least once a week or more often.

48. (8347) what is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?

 Straightens the nosewheel.

49. (8358) The hydraulic packing seals used in a landing gear shock strut are

 Used only with a specific type of fluid.

50. (8369) In shock struts, chevron seals are used to

 Prevent oil from escaping.

51. (8328) An automatic damping action occurs at the steering damper if for any reason the flow
of high-pressure fluid is removed from the

 Inlet of the steering damper.

52. (8373) An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a

 Split field series-wound motor.

53. (8324) on an air valve core stem, what indicates high-pressure type?

 An embossed letter 'H.'

54. (8331) Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally

 Use power brake control valves.

55. (8385) a special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds.
How many foot-pounds are required?

 36.6.

 Inch-pounds can be converted into foot-pounds by dividing by 12. 440 inch-pounds are 36.6 foot-pounds.

56. (8342) The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to

 Compensate for thermal expansion.

57. (8363) The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will

 Melt at a specified elevated temperature.

58. (8368) When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and
compress the strut completely at least two times to

 Ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles.

59. (8320) When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged from
the system is

 Firm brake pedals.

60. (8309) a pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is
depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is

 Air in the brake hydraulic system.

61. (8381) what condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge
when the hydraulic pump is operating?

 Inadequate supply of fluid.

62. (8338) which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically
operated multiple-disk type brake assemblies?

 Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot?

63. (8377) A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides

 A source for additional hydraulic power when heavy demands are placed on the
system.

64. (8323) The repair for an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of main landing gear wheels
determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of

 Inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center

pivotal point of the scissor torque links.
65. (8352) If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single-disk brakes has excessive brake
pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is

 Worn brake linings.

66. (8325) The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to

 Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.

67. (8366) Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an indication of

 Underinflation.

68. (8326) Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that have

 High landing speeds.

69. (8384) (Refer to Figure 10.) The trunnion nut on an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of
320 inch-pounds. To reach the nut, a 2-inch straight adapter must be used on an 18-inch
torque wrench. How many foot-pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the
required torque of the nut is reached?

 24
To solve this problem, use the formula: Tw = (Ta x L) / (L + A). (320 x 18) / (18 + 2) = 288 inch-pounds.
288 inch-pounds is divided by 12 to get 24 foot-pounds.
70. (8306) what would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?

 The brakes would drag.

71. (8336) The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to

 Ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.

72. (8334) Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause

 The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied.

73. (8376) what device in a hydraulic system with a constant-delivery pump allows circulation of
the fluid when no demands are on the system?

 Pressure regulator.

74. (8355) How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake
system?

 By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.

75. (8360) When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be

 Replaced.

76. (8359) Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing valves that

 Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side
entering the low pressure chamber.

77. (8365) how long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure?

 At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather).

78. (8364) What action, if any, should be taken when there is a difference of more than 5 pounds
of air pressure in tires mounted as duals?

 Correct the discrepancy and enter in the aircraft records.

79. (8308) To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression
resulting from landing impact,

 Various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow.

80. (8341) Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock
strut are found

 In the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.

81. (8362) The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are

 Short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking, and proper tire inflation.

82. (8365.1) what is the minimum amount of time to wait for tires to cool before checking tire
pressure

 3 hours
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
SYSTEM

1. (8417) Which of the following is adversely affected by atmospheric humidity if left

unprotected?
1. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid.
3. None of the above.

 2

2. (8413) what is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?

 The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing.

3. (8391) (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems as damage-preventing units.
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and pneumatic systems. Regarding the above
statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

4. (8470) Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication

 That air is entering the pump.

5. (8450) A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that
the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by
using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?

 The fluid level in the reservoir is low.

6. (8454) severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal
intake stroke will indicate which of the following?

 The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking open.

7. (8467) Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir, in order to service
the system, you must

 Relieve the air pressure.

8. (8493) A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is

 Internal leakage in the actuating unit.

9. (8463) Some hydraulic systems incorporate a device which is designed to remain open to allow
a normal fluid flow in the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an established rate.
This device is generally referred to as a

 Hydraulic fuse.

10. (8403) which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?

1. Minimum maintenance requirements.
2. Lightweight.
3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent loss due to fluid friction).
4. Simple to inspect.

 1, 2, 4.

11. (8448) Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft hydraulic systems because of

 High pressures and high rates of fluid flow.

12. (8495) Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure
or temperature should

 Not be straightened or bent further.

13. (8401) The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to

 Maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload

the pump.

14. (8475) A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from one side of an actuating
cylinder to the other side, under certain conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in
the

 Landing gear system.

15. (8456) The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic system equipped with a
power control valve should be adjusted

 With the power control valve held in the CLOSED position.

16. (8415) (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft
manufacturer's maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir or
unit.

(2) Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid.

Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

17. (8437) If an aircraft's constant-pressure hydraulic system cycles more frequently than usual
and no fluid leakage can be detected, the most probable cause is

 Low accumulator air preload.

18. (8400) what is the purpose of using backup rings with O-rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500
PSI?

 Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and
stationary part.
19. (8428) Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic fluid may be cleaned with

 Stoddard solvent.

20. (8439) what safety device is usually located between the driving unit and hydraulic pump drive
shaft?

 Pump drive coupling shear section.

21. (8443) In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety device incorporated to protect the
pump from overload is the

 Shear pin.

22. (8447) Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The
hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A 1/2-inch line connects the hand pump to an
actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand
pump and the actuator?

 100 PSI.

23. (8442) Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in use

 Contain a built-in means of system pressure regulation.

24. (8480) what is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?

 Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.

25. (8392) One of the distinguishing characteristics of an open-center selector valve used in a
hydraulic system is that

 Fluid flows through the valve in the OFF position.

26. (8462) The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated in a
pneumatic system is

 Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard.

27. (8412) The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called

 Viscosity.

28. (8484) To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,

 Reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air
gauge.

29. (8438) Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven hydraulic pumps to

 Relieve the pump pressure.

30. (8410) (Refer to Figure 12.) Which illustration(s) show(s) the correct spiral for Teflon backup
ring

 1 and 3.

 The correct spiral for a Teflon backup ring is shown in 1 and 3. View 1 show the ring before pressure is applied.
View 3 shows the way the ring shapes itself when pressure is applied.
31. (8485) How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is
inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?

 Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure
drop begins as it goes toward zero.

32. (8487) Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a

 Higher pressure than the system relief valve.

33. (8434) The primary function of the flap overload valve is to

 Prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds which would impose excessive
structural loads.

34. (8466) If an engine-driven hydraulic pump of the correct capacity fails to maintain normal
system pressure during the operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable cause is

 Restriction in the pump outlet.

35. (8436) If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic system, what
particular sequence, if any, should be followed?

 Units with the highest pressure settings are adjusted first.

36. (8451) Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the
main system pump. This fluid is retained to

 Supply fluid to the auxiliary pump.

37. (8432.1) what is commonly used to connect an emergency source of power and at the same
time disconnect the normal hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or wheel
braking system for operation (usually when the normal source system fails)?

 Shuttle valve.

38. (8446) If two actuating cylinders which have the same cross-sectional area but different
lengths of stroke are connected to the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert

 Equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed.

39. (8459) After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main
system hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until

 The fluid side of the accumulator has been charged.

40. (8455) What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one
direction, but restricts the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction?

 Orifice check valve.

41. (8421) which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid that has
chemical stability?

 Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point.

42. (8408) Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to

 Relieve system pressure.

43. (8477) a pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal.
However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available . This is an indication of a

 Leaking accumulator air valve.

44. (8406) Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-pressure system by the use of a

 Backup ring on the side of the O-ring away from the pressure.

45. (8418) which is a characteristic of synthetic base hydraulic fluid?

 High flash point.

46. 8435) A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called

 An actuating cylinder.

47. (8491) If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the engine-driven pump is running, but
there is no pressure after the engine has been shut off, it indicates

 No air pressure in the accumulator.

48. (8449) which is true regarding the ground check of a flap operating mechanism which has been installed?

 If the time required to operate the mechanism decreases with successive

operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.

49. (8479) in a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine-engine compressor
bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir?

 Air pressure regulator.

50. (8469) Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions?
1. Dampen pressure surges.
2. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump's capacity.
3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating.
4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.

 1, 2, 3.

51. (8473) A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it

 Delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.

52. (8453) The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to

 Relieve the pump of its load when no actuating units are being operated.

53. (8440) which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the highest pressure setting?

 Thermal relief valve.

54. (8424) Characteristics of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are

 Red color, petroleum base, will burn, uses synthetic rubber seals.

55. (8432) The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid from either the normal source
or an emergency source to an actuating cylinder is called a

 Shuttle valve.

56. (8478) If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system
is pressurized, what will result?

 The fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced.

57. (8494) A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an accumulator usually indicates

 Too low or no preload in the accumulator.

58. (8419) which statement about fluids is correct?

 All fluids readily transmit pressure.

59. (8445) Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. Pressure is usually expressed
in

 Pounds per square inch.

60. (8444) after installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump, it is found that the handle cannot be
moved in the pumping direction (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an incorrectly
installed

 Hand pump outport check valve.

61. (8431) (1) Materials which are Skydrol compatible or resistant include most common aircraft
metals and polyurethane and epoxy paints.
(2) Skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and natural fibers. Regarding the above
statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

62. (8386) To protect packing rings or seals from damage when it is necessary to install them over
or inside threaded sections, the

 Threaded section should be covered with a suitable sleeve.

63. (8388) which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?

 Check valve.
64. (8486) How many of these seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?

 Neoprene, Buna-N.

65. (8399) What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to
provide for simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?

 Four-port, closed-center valve.

66. (8409) (Refer to Figure 11.) Which fitting is an AN flared-tube fitting?

 1

An AN flared-tube fitting is shown as 1 in Figure 11. The AN fitting differs from the AC fitting shown as 2 because
of the Unthreaded portion of the fitting between the end of the threads and the flare cone.

67. (8452) The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is
called a

 Sequence valve.

68. (8429) how can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an airplane be determined?

 Consult the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.

69. (8396) The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished

 By operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles.

70. (8489) If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the accumulator is depressed, it
is evidence of

 A ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.

71. (8464) when hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail to function properly, how
are most systems protected against overpressure?

 A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft.

72. (8423) where can information be obtained about the compatibility of fire-resistant hydraulic
fluid with aircraft materials?

 Fluid manufacturer's technical bulletins.

73. (8481) One of the main advantages of Skydrol is its

 Wide operating temperature.

74. (8483) an emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the main hydraulic system reservoir by
the use of a standpipe. The supply line is connected to the

 Inlet of the main hydraulic system.

75. (8468) what happens to the output of a constant-displacement hydraulic pump when the
hydraulic system pressure regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir?

 The output pressure reduces, but the volume remains the same.
76. (8411) If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing materials, the correct
hydraulic fluid to service the system is

 Mineral base oil.

77. (8425) Characteristics of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are

 Blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural rubber seals.

78. (8397) Pneumatic systems utilize

 Relief valves.

79. (8405) the installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with

 Enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature
changes and to absorb vibration.

80. (8482) Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet
ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it
furnishes fluid to the

 Normal system power pump.

81. (8390) what function does the absolute pressure regulator perform in the pneumatic power
system?

 Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a stabilized source of air for the
compressor.

82. (8398) The component in the hydraulic system that is used to direct the flow of fluid is the

 Selector valve.
83. (8433) the primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to transform

 Fluid pressure into useful work.

84. (8458) how is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering the fluid system?

 By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible or
movable separator.

85. (8441) excluding lines, which components are required to make up a simple hydraulic system?

 Pump reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.

86. (8394) Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems

 As damage-preventing units.

87. (8457) a hydraulic accumulator is charged with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic
system pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will
be

 3,000 PSI.

 When hydraulic fluid flows into an accumulator, it compresses the air charge. The pressure of the air will be the
same as the pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
When the hydraulic system pressure is 3,000 psi, the pressure of the air in the accumulator will also be 3,000 psi.

88. (8476) Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally

 Discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.

89. (8461.2) Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are identified by which color code?

 Blue dot or stripe.

90. (8416) Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?

 Red

91. (8488) Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by

 Air in the system.

92. (8402) A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a

 Packing.

93. (8393) what type of packings should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a
system containing Skydrol?

 Packing materials made for ester base fluids.

94. (8430) Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to contamination from

 Water in the atmosphere.

95. (8426) if an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base hydraulic fluid, but phosphate
ester base hydraulic fluid is used, what will be the effect on the system?

 System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, and the seals will fail.

96. (8465) A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected by

 Hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line.

97. (8461.1) which seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?

 Buna-N.
98. (8474) a hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to.

 Rotary motion.

99. (8460) which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a main hydraulic system
incorporating a pressure regulator?

 Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.

100.(8395) An aircraft pneumatic system, which incorporates an engine-driven multistage

reciprocating compressor, also requires

 A moisture separator.

101.(8422) Characteristics of MIL-H-8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B) hydraulic fluid are

 Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

102.(8490) although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible, they are acceptable in the
remainder of a hydraulic tube providing they are less than what percent of the tube diameter?

 20

103.(8387) To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft hydraulic units, the most commonly
used type of seal is the

 O-ring seal.

104.(8420) Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are

 Mineral base and phosphate ester base.

105.(8496) In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent
accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a

 Malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.

106.(8404) If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into
place by tightening

 May distort the flare.

107.(8389) select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs pressurized fluid to one end of
an actuating cylinder and simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the other
end.

 Selector.

108.(8492) The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to

 Control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms.

109.(8472) which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?

 Butyl rubber.

110.(8407) what is one advantage of piston-type hydraulic motors over electric motors?

 There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled.

111.(8414) which is a characteristic of petroleum base hydraulic fluid?

 Flammable under normal conditions.

112.(8471) Quick-disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of

 Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or

entrance of air into the system.

113. (8456.1) which of the following safeguards ensures proper system operation and mitigates
damages to non-metallic component of the hydraulic system?

 When adding fluid to a system, use the type specified in the aircraft
manufacturer´s maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the
reservoir or unit being service.

114. (8427) what is used to flush a system normally serviced whit MIL-H-5606 hydraulic
fluid?

 Naphtha or varsol.
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEMS

1. (8500) what is ventilating air used for on a combustion heater?

 Carries heat to the places where needed.

2. (8580) Before a high-pressure oxygen cylinder is serviced, it must be the correct type and have
been

 Hydrostatically tested within the proper time interval.

3. (8524) which is considered a good practice concerning the inspection of heating and exhaust
systems of aircraft utilizing a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source?

 Supplement physical inspections with periodic operational carbon monoxide

detection tests.

4. (8557) when purging a Freon air-conditioning system, it is important to release the charge at a
slow rate. What is the reason for the slow-rate discharge?

 Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil.

5. (8547) The cabin pressurization modes of operation are

 Differential, unpressurized, and isobaric.

6. (8572) (Refer to Figure 14.) One hour after an oxygen system was charged for a leakage check,
the oxygen pressure gauge read 460 PSI at 63°F; 6 hours later the temperature was 51°F. (A 5
PSI change is the maximum allowable in a 6-hour period.) What pressure gauge readings
would be acceptable to remain within the allowable limits?

 445 to 450 PSI.

The pressure at the beginning of the leak test is 460 psi.

The temperature drops 12°F.
According to the curve, a 12° drop will cause a pressure change of 10 psi.
The pressure in the system with no leakage would be 450 psi.
The pressure is allowed to drop only five psi; therefore, the low pressure allowed in the system will
be 445 psi.

7. (8522) The point at which freon flowing through a vapor-cycle cooling system absorbs heat
and changes from a liquid to a gas is the

 Evaporator.
8. (8506) The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve

 All positive pressure from the cabin.

9. (8539) After cleaning or replacing the filtering element in a combustion heater fuel system, the
system should be pressurized and

 All connections checked for leaks.

10. (8505) The basic air-cycle cooling system consists of

 A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.

11. (8540) The operation of an aircraft combustion heater is usually controlled by a thermostat
circuit which

 Alternately turns the fuel on and off, a process known as cycling.

12. (8561) (1) A small amount of water in a vapor-cycle cooling system can freeze in the receiver-
dryer and stop the entire system operation.
(2) Water in a vapor-cycle cooling system will react with refrigerant to form hydrochloric acid
which is highly corrosive to the metal in the system. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 2 is true.

13. (8497) which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure bleed air to an air cycle
machine for pressurization and air-conditioning?

 Low or high pressure compressor.

14. (8564) When an aircraft's oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be

 Bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this
purpose.
15. (8559) in an operating vapor-cycle cooling system, if the two lines connected to the expansion
valve are essentially the same temperature, what does this indicate?

 The expansion valve is not metering Freon properly.

16. (8569) what is used in some oxygen systems to change high cylinder pressure to low system
pressure?

 Pressure reducer valve.

17. (8533) The function of the condenser in a freon cooling system is to

 Transfer heat from the Freon gas to ambient air.

18. (8519) The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen systems is

 Moisture.

19. (8504) what controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?

 Cabin altitude.

20. (8581) A contaminated oxygen system is normally purged with

 Oxygen.

21. (8554) what is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the evaporator of a vapor-cycle
cooling system?

 Low-pressure vapor.
22. (8542) (Refer to Figure 13.) Determine what unit is located immediately downstream of the
expansion valve in a Freon refrigeration system.

 Evaporator coils.

The refrigerant in this diagram flows in a clockwise direction.

Refrigerant leaves the compressor as a high-pressure vapor and passes through the condenser where
it becomes a high-pressure liquid. It then passes through the receiver-dryer to the expansion valve
where it becomes a low-pressure liquid. After leaving the expansion valve, it passes through the
evaporator coils where it absorbs heat from the cabin and becomes a low-pressure vapor.
Heat picked up from the cabin air changes the refrigerant from a liquid to a vapor in the evaporator.
The loss of this heat cools the cabin air.
After leaving the evaporator, the low-pressure vapor goes into the compressor where its pressure
and temperature are both raised.

23. (8558) when a vapor-cycle cooling system is not in operation, what is an indication that the
system is leaking Freon?

 Oil seepage.

24. (8518) for use in pressurized aircraft, which is generally the least complicated and requires the
least maintenance?

 Chemical oxygen generator systems.

25. (8525) On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the

 Main landing gear operated switch.

26. (8521) The point at which freon flowing through a vapor-cycle cooling system gives up heat
and changes from a gas to a liquid is the

 Condenser.

27. (8536) When servicing an air-conditioning system that has lost all of its freon, it is necessary to

 Check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, and add Freon.

28. (8556) in what position should the bottle be placed when adding liquid Freon to a vapor-cycle
cooling system?

 Vertical with the outlet at the bottom.

29. (8563) what type of oil is suitable for use in vapor-cycle cooling system?

 Special high grade refrigeration oil.

30. (8575) The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to

(1) Create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia.
(2) Permit operation at high altitudes.
Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

31. (8567) in the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operate?

 When the user breathes.

32. (8574) in a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the
fuselage skin?

 Pressure relief valves.

33. (8516) The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the

 Outflow valve.

34. (8510) what component in a vapor-cycle cooling system would most likely be at fault if a
system would not take a Freon charge?

 Expansion valve.

35. (8549) A pressurization controller uses

 Barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change.

36. (8532) The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor-cycle cooling system is
determined by temperature and pressure of the

 Freon in the outlet of the evaporator.

37. (8544) An aircraft pressurization cycle is normally considered to be

 One complete series of events or operations that recur regularly.

38. (8565) If oxygen bottle pressure is allowed to drop below a specified minimum, it may cause

 Moisture to collect in the bottle.

39. (8545) which best describes cabin differential pressure?

 Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure.

40. (8583) what may be used as a lubricant on oxygen system tapered pipe thread connections?

 Teflon tape.
41. (8529) what component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming
higher than airplane altitude?

 Negative pressure relief valve.

42. (8534) The function of an expansion valve in a freon cooling system is to act as a metering
device and to

 Reduce the pressure of the liquid Freon.

43. (8535) which prevents a sudden loss of pressurization in the event that there is a loss of the
pressurization source?

 Delivery air duct check valve.

44. (8527) The function of the evaporator in a freon cooling system is to

 Lower the temperature of the cabin air.

45. (8515) what type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag-type mask?

 Continuous flow.

46. (8513) how often should standard weight high-pressure oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically
tested?

 Every 5 years.

47. (8523) how is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?

 By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the
amount for which it is set.
48. (8582) how should you determine the amount of oxygen in a portable, high-pressure cylinder?

 Read the pressure gauge mounted on the cylinder.

49. (8562) When Refrigerant-12 is passed over an open flame, it

 Changes to phosgene gas.

50. (8531) If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the

 Outflow valve to close faster.

51. (8577) Oxygen systems in unpressurized aircraft are generally of the

 Continuous-flow and pressure-demand types.

52. (8543) When checking a freon system, a steady stream of bubbles in the sight gauge indicates
the charge is

 Low.

53. (8517) Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft,
cold air supplied by the

 Air cycle air conditioning.

54. (8512) what test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?

 Pressure test with water.

55. (8537) The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to

 Maintain the desired cabin pressure.

56. (8560) The purpose of a subcooler in a vapor-cycle cooling system is to

 Cool the Freon to prevent premature vaporization.

57. (8502) in the combustion heater, combustion air system, what prevents too much air from
entering the heaters as air pressure increases?

 Either a combustion air relief valve or a differential pressure regulator.

58. (8514) To be eligible for recharging, a DOT 3HT oxygen cylinder must have been hydrostatically
tested every three years and be retired from service after

 24 years or 4,380 filling cycles.

59. (8499) in a Freon vapor-cycle cooling system, where is cooling air obtained for the condenser?

 Ambient air.

60. (8579) If a high-pressure oxygen cylinder is to be installed in an airplane, it must meet the
specifications of the

 Department of Transportation.

61. (8555) what is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser of a vapor-cycle
cooling system?

 High-pressure liquid.

62. (8528) what is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air-conditioning
system?

 Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air.

63. (8548) (1) usually bleed air from a gas-turbine engine compressor can be safely used for cabin
pressurization.
(2) Independent cabin condition air machines (air cycle machine) can be powered by bleed air
from an aircraft turbine engine compressor. Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

64. (8571) High-pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their

 Green color and the words 'AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch
white letters.

65. (8550) what unit in a vapor-cycle cooling system serves as a reservoir for the refrigerant?

 Receiver-dryer.

66. (8568) The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen and other types of
commercially available compressed oxygen is that

 Aviation breathing oxygen has had all the water vapor removed.

67. (8546) Composite oxygen bottles that conform to DOT-E-8162 have a service life of

 15 years or 10,000 filling cycles whichever occurs first.

68. (8526) The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the

 Outflow valve opening.

69. (8501) Turbine engine air used for air-conditioning and pressurization is generally called

 Bleed air.
70. (8507) what component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the
low side of a vapor-cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air
temperature is too low?

 Compressor

71. (8520) where does the last stage of cooling in an air-cycle air-conditioning system occur?

 Expansion turbine.

72. (8585) which of the following are characteristic of a chemical or solid state oxygen system?

1. An adjustable oxygen release rate.

2. A volume storage capacity about three times that of compressed oxygen.
3. The system generators are inert below 400°F even under severe impact.
4. A distribution and regulating system similar to gaseous oxygen systems.

 2 & 3.

73. (8509) when charging a vapor-cycle cooling system after evacuation, the low-pressure gauge
fails to come out of a vacuum. What is indicated?

 Blockage in the system.

74. (8511) Frost or ice buildup on a vapor-cycle cooling system evaporator would most likely be
caused by

 Inadequate airflow through the evaporator.

75. (8530) if the liquid level gauge in a vapor-cycle cooling system indicates a low freon charge,
the system should

 Be operated for a period of time to reach a stable condition and then the Freon
level rechecked.
76. (8552) what is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the evaporator of a vapor-cycle
cooling system?

 Low-pressure liquid.

77. (8570) in a high-pressure oxygen system, if the pressure reducer fails, what prevents high-
pressure oxygen from entering the system downstream?

 Pressure relief valve.

78. (8573) An aircraft oxygen bottle may be considered airworthy if it has been hydrostatically
tested and identified

 With the test date, DOT number and serial number stamped on the cylinder near
the neck.

79. (8538) one purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air-conditioning system is to

 Provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of the aircraft.

80. (8576) (1) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5 percent pure and is practically water
free.
(2) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5 percent pure and is hospital quality. Regarding the
above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

81. (8508) How can it be determined that a vapor-cycle cooling system is charged with the proper
amount of Freon?

 Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.

82. (8566) what controls the amount of oxygen delivered to a mask in a continuous-flow oxygen
system?

 Calibrated orifice.
83. (8541) The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by

 Extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.

84. (8503) The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the selected altitude by

 Controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin.

85. (8498) at which component in an air-cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and
temperature drop?

 Expansion turbine.

86. (8551) what is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a vapor-cycle
cooling system?

 High-pressure vapor.

87. (8584) on transport category aircraft what might be an indication of an over pressure event of
the aircraft oxygen system?

 The green thermal expansion disk missing.

88. (8553) The evacuation of a vapor-cycle cooling system removes any water that may be present
by

 Lowering the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.

89. (8578) The purpose of the airflow metering aneroid assembly found in oxygen diluter demand
regulators is to

 Regulate airflow in relation to cabin altitude when in diluter demand position.

AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM

1. (8590) When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensators are adjusted to correct for

 Magnetic influence deviation.

2. (8618) A radar altimeter determines altitude by

 Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal.

3. (8601) A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude when the barometric scale is set at

 29.92" Hg.

4. (8636) where may a person look for the information necessary to determine the required
markings on an engine instrument?

1. Engine manufacturer's specifications.

2. Aircraft flight manuals.
3. Instrument manufacturer's specifications.
4. Aircraft maintenance manual.

 2 or 4.

5. (8602) A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.

1. Pressure.
2. Temperature.
3. Position.

 1 and 2.
6. (8622) Instrument panel shock mounts absorb

 Low frequency, high-amplitude shocks.

7. (8594) Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in
indication of the

 Altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a
prescribed equivalent altitude to be indicated.

8. (8621) When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an HSI, the indication is

 That function is inoperative.

9. (8639) A certificated mechanic may perform

 100-hour inspections of instruments.

10. (8606) The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating system is based on detection of

differential pressure at a point where the airstream flows in a direction

 Not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.

11. (8614) Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into

 Digital signals.

12. (8587) the operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauges is

 A Bourdon tube.

13. (8616) The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to

 Receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the
data to the appropriate display.
14. (8626) how would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate-of-climb speed (one
engine inoperative)?

 A blue radial line.

15. (8633) how is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?

 By an expanding-type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a

screw from the front of the instrument panel.

16. (8591) what will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected
inside a pressurized cabin during cruising flight?

 The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.

17. (8613) which condition would be most likely to cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum system?

 Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted.

18. (8625) which of the following instruments will normally have range markings?

 Cylinder head temperature gauge, airspeed indicator.

19. (8619) A radar altimeter indicates

 Altitude above ground level.

20. (8600) which instrument condition is acceptable and would not require correction?

1. Red line missing.

2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.

 5
21. (8642) The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to

 Represent the nose of the aircraft.

22. (8599) which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the
instrument?

1. Red line missing.

2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.

 2, 3, 7, 8.

23. (8646) when performing the static system leakage check required by Section 91.411, the
technician utilizes

 Negative pressure.

24. (8609) which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic compass inaccuracies may be
compensated for by mechanics?

 Deviation

25. (8610) who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?

1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating.

2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating.
3. A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument.
4. A certificated airframe repair stat

 3
26. (8595) The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static
pressure system integrity check is

 100 feet in 1 minute.

27. (8608) Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data

 Electrically.

28. (8627) The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates

 The desirable temperature range.

29. (8620) Resistance-type temperature indicators using Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits
may be used to indicate the temperatures of which of the following?
1. Free air.
2. Exhaust gas temperature.
3. Carburetor air.
4. Coolant (engine).
5. Oil temperature.
6. Cylinder head temperature.

 1, 3, 4, and 5.

30. (8624) which instruments are connected to an aircraft's pitot-static system?

1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.

 1, 3, and 5.

31. (8632) The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on the

 Design of the instrument case.

32. (8629) what marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped?

 White.

33. (8612) The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by
Section 91.411 are contained in

 Part 43, appendix E.

34. (8604) Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may

 Not be altered and are designed for a specific installation.

35. (8605) A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro receiver

 Electrically with wires.

36. (8611) what does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicates when the engine is
not operating?

 The existing atmospheric pressure.

37. (8597) When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92" Hg on the ground, the altimeter will read

 Pressure altitude.

38. (8603) A turn coordinator instrument indicates

 Both roll and yaw.

39. (8630) Aircraft instrument value should be marked and graduated in accordance with

 The specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual.

40. (8644) when an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure system is leak checked to comply with
the requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-
static system tester?

1. Vertical speed indicator.

2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.

 3

41. (8615) The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to

 Display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments.

42. (8634) Cases for electrically operated instruments are made of

 Iron or steel cases.

43. (8635) when installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is
properly marked?

 The instrument installer.

44. (8631) Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock-mounted to absorb

 Low-frequency, high-amplitude shocks.

45. (8592) The maximum deviation (during level flight) permitted in a compensated magnetic
direction indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part
23 is

 10°.

46. (8589) (1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct attention to operational ranges and
limitations.
(2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal
Regulations but are standardized by aircraft manufacturers. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

47. (8640) An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to

 Provide current return paths.

48. (8586) An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when

 Equipment is added that could effect compass deviation.

49. (8593) Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to

 Dampen the oscillation of the float.

50. (8638) The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil pressure gauge indicates

 Minimum and/ or maximum safe operating limits.

51. (8623) which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose?

 Install another instrument.

52. (8596) which statement regarding an aircraft instrument vacuum system is true?

 Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes are very susceptible to damage from
solid airborne particles and must take in only filtered air.

53. (8617) The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to

 Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current
flight situation.

54. (8628) what must be done to an instrument panel that is supported by shock mounts?

 Bonding straps must be installed across the instrument mounts as a current path.

55. (8607) Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using

 Chromel/alumel thermocouples.

56. (8637) A certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may

 Not perform repairs to aircraft instruments.

57. (8588) what is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass
called?

 Lubber line

58. (8641) How many of the following are controlled by gyroscopes?

1. Attitude indicator.
2. Heading indicator.
3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator.

 Three
59. (8598) which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aviation
mechanic?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not adjust.
8. Fogged.

 1, 4, 5, 6.

60. (8643) which instruments are connected to an aircraft's static pressure system only?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.

 1 and 3.

61. (8645) If a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located
by

 Isolating portions of the line and testing each portion systematically starting at
the instrument connections.

62. (8610.1) a certificated mechanic whit at least an airframe rating may perform

 Inspection and function check on aircraft instrument.

63. (8601.1) at sea level, when the overage atmospheric pressure is 14.7 PSI, the
barometric pressure is.

 29.92” Hg
COMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
SYSTEM

1. (8653) what component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surfaces of an
aircraft?

 Servo.

2. (8661) Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by

 Shock mounts.

3. (8663) when must the radio station license be displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two-
way radio?

 When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S.

4. (8696) How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equipment
under a seat?

 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring
deflection.

5. (8691) When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius should be at least

 10 times the diameter of the cable.

6. (8664) When would a U.S. resident NOT be required to hold a Federal Communications
Commission (FCC) Restricted Radio Telephone Operator Permit to operate two-way aircraft
VHF radio equipment?

 When flying or communicating within the United States.

7. (8654) what is the main purpose of a servo in an autopilot system?

 Move the control surface as commanded.

8. (8667) when must the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery be replaced (other than
reading the replacement date)?

 When the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.

9. (8657) what component is the sensing device in an electromechanical autopilot system?

 Gyro.

10. (8665) Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes

 Sense and loop antennas.

11. (8688) (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal
area of .125 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 225 MPH?

 2.069 pounds.

This computation is described in AC 43.13-2A.

The constant 0.000327 is multiplied by the frontal area of the antenna (in this case, 0.125 square foot). This
quantity is multiplied by the square of the never-exceed speed of the aircraft which is 225 MPH.
D = 0.000327 x 0.125 x 225^2 = 2.069 pounds

12. (8652) what will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed by its autopilot system in order to
correct for an error and the involved control surfaces are returned to streamline by the time
the aircraft has reached its correct position?

 Normal operation.
13. (8686) The preferred location of a VOR antenna on light aircraft is on

 Top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing forward.

14. (8656) the elevator channel of an autopilot controls the aircraft about which axis of rotation?

 Lateral.

15. (8694.9) (Refer to Figure 30.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A lightning detector system antenna.

16. (8660) When operationally checking an autopilot system on the ground, after the aircraft's
main power has been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged

 Only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up.

17. (8689) (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal
area of .137 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 275 MPH?

 3.387 pounds.
18. (8669) The preferred location of an ELT is

 As far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical fin.

19. (8658) a fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes?

 Three.

20. (8672) how may the operation of an installed emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be verified
during aircraft inspection?

 By tuning a communications receiver to the civil emergency frequency and

activating the ELT momentarily within five minutes after the hour.

21. (8694.8) (refer to figure 29.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A VOR and localizer antenna.

22. (8676) VHF radio signals are commonly used in

 Both VOR navigation and ATC communications.

23. (8687) the purpose of a localizer is to

 Align the airplane with the center of the runway.

24. (8694.4) (Refer to Figure 25.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A canted antenna.

25. (8682) Doublers are used when antennas are installed to

 Reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin .

26. (8694.5) (Refer to Figure 26.) Where is the strongest signal for this antenna?

 Above the antenna.

27. (8694) (Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical glideslope antenna?

 2

28. (8694.13) (Refer to Figure 34.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A VOR/glide slope antenna.

29. (8685) A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna mast and fuselage skin

 To prevent the entry of moisture.

30. (8693) (Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical DME antenna?

 1

The antenna shown in 1 is a DME or a radar beacon transponder antenna.

The antenna shown in 2 is a glide slope antenna.
The antenna shown in 3 is a VOR and localizer antenna.
The antenna shown in 4 is a VHF communications antenna.

31. (8671) how may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator
transmitter (ELT)?

 By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside of the

transmitter.

32. (8694.11) (Refer to Figure 32.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A radar beacon transponder antenna.

33. (8666) When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly along its entire length

 At 2-foot intervals.

34. (8650) in which control element of an autopilot system is an attitude indicator?

 Sensing.

35. (8677) on modern large aircraft, what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters
and performs autopilot functions?

 Flight management computer.

36. (8659) Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing
aircraft, is counteracted with

 A yaw damper system.

37. (8692) When installing a DME antenna, it should be aligned with the

 Centerline on the airplane.

38. (8681) after an automatic direction finding antenna has been installed, the

 Loop must be calibrated.

39. (8694.1) (Refer to Figure 31.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A marker beacon receiver antenna.

40. (8697) The purpose of a glideslope system is to

 Assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to the runway.

41. (8683) One antenna can be used for the radio range and standard broadcast bands in light
aircraft because the

 Two ranges are close together.

42. (8678) in the landing configuration GPWS typically monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air
data computer; instrument

 Landing gear and flap positions.

43. (8694.3) (Refer to Figure 24.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A dipole antenna.

44. (8649) in an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons?

 Followup signal.

45. (8695) The addition of avionics and associated antenna systems forward of the CG limit will
affect

 Empty weight and useful load.

46. (8651) what is the operating principle of the sensing device used in an autopilot system?

 The relative motion between a gyro and its supporting system.

47. (8673) Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into
the atmosphere at

 Low current levels.

48. (8694.14) (Refer to Figure 22.) What kind of antenna is this?

 This is a loop and sense antenna.

49. (8694.12) (Refer to Figure 33.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A VOR/glide slope antenna.

50. (8655) which channel of an autopilot detects changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?

 Elevator.
51. (8694.6) (Refer to Figure 27.) What kind of antenna is this?

 A radar beacon transponder antenna.

52. (8662) (1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on radio equipment.

(2) Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft in order to provide a low-impedance ground and

To minimize radio interference from static electrical charges. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 2 is true.

53. (8670) an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is normally activated by an inertial switch or
equivalent mechanism if subjected to a force of a prescribed intensity and duration. It must
activate when the force is applied

 Parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

54. (8647) what is the primary purpose of an autopilot?

 To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft during long periods of flight.
55. (8684) what characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should
be evaluated?

 Flutter and vibration.

56. (8668) An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery must be capable of furnishing power
for signal transmission for at least

 48 hours.

57. (8690) A DME antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will

 Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.

58. (8680) When an antenna is installed, it should be fastened

 So that loads imposed are transmitted to the aircraft structure.

59. (8694.7) (Refer to Figure 28.) What kind of antenna is this?

 An ELT antenna.
60. (8694.2) (Refer to Figure 23.) What is this antenna used for?

 This is an altitude encoder used with transponders.

61. (8648) which of the following provides manual maneuverability of the aircraft while the
autopilot is engaged?

 Flight controller.

62. (8675) An aircraft antenna installation must be grounded

 To the airframe.

63. (8679) In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to

 Receive an interrogation signal from a ground station and automatically send a

reply back.
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS

1. (8756) what must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to read during level flight when
the quantity of fuel remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?

 Zero.

2. (8718) which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most integral fuel
tanks?

 Riveting and resealing.

3. (8715) what flight safety-related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?

 Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.

4. (8739) what type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes
installed in each fuel tank?

 Electronic.

5. (8705) which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?

 Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.

6. (8763) A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and warning light is turned on when

 The fuel pressure drops below specified limits.

7. (8778) Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are

 Formed by the aircraft structure.

8. (8761) what method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to determine when the condition of
the fuel is approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?

 Fuel temperature indicator.

9. (8767) which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel
leak in an aircraft fuel system?

 A fuel system schematic.

10. (8706) (Refer to Figure 17.) What is the purpose of the pump crossfeed valve?

 Allow operation of engines from one tank.

11. (8750) how does temperature affect fuel weight?

 Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.

12. (8792) When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all valves located downstream of
boost pumps with the pumps

 Operating.

13. (8710.5) many fuel tanks incorporate _________________ valves to prevent fuel from flowing
away from the boost pump or tank outlet when the aircraft is in a high 'G' maneuver.

 flapper

14. (8710.4) Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent ______________________ caused by
changes in the attitude of the aircraft.

 surging

15. (8723) what is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?

 Steam cleans the tank interior.

16. (8746.1) A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the

 Amount of fuel in all tanks.

17. (8720) what is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?

 To maintain atmospheric pressure.

18. (8794) (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a pressure refueling receptacle and
control panel will permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of an aircraft.
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more advantages to a pressure fueling system in
light aircraft. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

19. (8745) One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that

 Several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.

20. (8789) what type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure relief valve?

 Sliding vane.

21. (8710.7) a transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what function?

 Converts fluid pressure directly through a transmitter to the indicator.

22. (8707.1) Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine aircraft

 Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition.

23. (8701) which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?

 Two separate independent systems.

24. (8776) If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which is known to be
uncontaminated with dirt or water, periodic checks of the aircraft's fuel tank sumps and
system strainers

 Are still necessary due to the possibility of contamination from other sources.

25. (8785) why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel systems of aircraft operating at high
altitude?

 To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven pumps.

26. (8759) what is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in integral fuel tanks?

 To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps.

27. (8726) why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?

 It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.

28. (8746.2) A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the amount of fuel used, fuel remaining,
current rate of consumption, and fuel

 Weight, aboard at takeoff.

29. (8793) The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and vapor from the fuel before it enters
the line to the carburetor is the

 Centrifugal-type pump.

30. (8710.3) what is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel tank and the fire wall
separating the engine?

 One-half inch.

31. (8796) (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines may become filled with vapor
and cause increased fuel flow.
(2) A measure of a gasoline's tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid vapor pressure
test. Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 2 is true.

32. (8766) which of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning
system?

 The manufacturer's maintenance manuals.

33. (8740) which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system incorporates a signal amplifier?

 Electronic.
34. (8771) (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of heat.
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a source of heat. Regarding the above
statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

35. (8752) When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of gallons, the measurement will be
more accurate because fuel volume

 Varies with temperature change.

36. (8757) what unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure warning limits?

 Pressure-sensitive mechanism.

37. (8735) Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?

 Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.

38. (8753) an electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system consists of an indicator in the cockpit
and a

 Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank.

39. (8799) what can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial growth problem in an aircraft
jet fuel tank?

 Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.

40. (8743) a probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?

 Capacitor.
41. (8728) When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff
position, engine RPM should

 Slightly increase before the engine starts to die.

42. (8709.1) Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to

 Drain off static charges.

43. (8784) Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to

 Act as check valves.

44. (8733) what should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank welded repaired

 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.

45. (8765) where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning signal on most aircraft engines?

 Fuel pressure line of the carburetor.

46. (8732) what should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?

 CO (2).

47. (8781) what minimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel
filler cover on utility category aircraft?

 The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade.

48. (8729) Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to
freezing as it passes through the filters. What are common methods of preventing this hazard?

 Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.

49. (8698) Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished

 Through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.

50. (8712) what is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank
when atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?

 Boost pumps.

51. (8762) which of the following would give the first positive indication that a change-over from
one fuel tank to another is needed?

 Fuel pressure warning.

52. (8702) A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff
weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel
jettisoning?

 Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25 and CAM 4b.

53. (8709.2) how many engine driven fuel pumps per engine are required for engines requiring
fuel pumps?

 One fuel pumps for each engine.

54. (8791) A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks on some turbine-powered
airplanes to tell when the fuel may be

 In danger of forming ice crystals.

55. (8755) In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system, the tank sensing unit is a

 Capacitor.

56. (8714) before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method, what important
precaution should be observed?

 The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.

57. (8800) what is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an aircraft fuel?

 7 PSI.

58. (8788) The location of leaks and defects within the internal portions of the fuel system can
usually be determined by

 Observing the pressure gauge and operating the selector valves.

59. (8790) To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, some aircraft are equipped with

 Booster pumps.

60. (8704) Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations is usually
prevented by

 Dump limits valves or a low-level circuit.

61. (8722) if it is necessary to enter an aircraft's fuel tank, which procedure should be avoided?

 Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an air-conditioned building.

62. (8775) why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?

 To reduce weight.

63. (8795) When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted fittings the line should

 Have at least one bend between such fittings.

64. (8786) Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?

 To limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere.

65. (8802) how may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved?

 By adding a knock inhibitor.

66. (8770) (1) Gas-turbine-engine fuel systems are very susceptible to the formation of ice in the
fuel filters.
(2) A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm the fuel. Regarding the above
statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

67. (8734) what method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without
removing the valve from the aircraft?

 Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump
on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.

68. 8738) which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating
system is true?

 It has no moving parts in the tank.

69. (8748) a capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system measures fuel in

 Pounds.

70. (8780) The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to

 Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.

71. (8710.1) a typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system allows how many of the
following?
1. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection.
2. Any engine can be fed from any tank.
3. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously.
4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system.

 1, 2, 3, and 4.

72. (8783) Fuel-boost pumps are operated

 To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.

73. (8779) what precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed fuel system is permitted to supply
fuel to an engine from more than one tank at a time?

 The tank airspaces must be interconnected.

74. (8768) In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible danger of allowing the fuel supply
in one tank to become exhausted before the selector valve is switched to another tank is
prevented by the installation of

 A fuel pressure warning signal system.

75. (8747) what is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a capacitance-type fuel quantity
indicating system?

 Fuel and air in the tank.

76. (8713) which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?

 Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.

77. (8717) Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through

 At least one single point connection.

78. (8736) when installing a rigid fuel line, 1/2 inch in diameter, at what intervals should the line is
supported?

 16 inches.

79. (8758) select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on turbine-powered aircraft.

 Engine bleeds air to a heat exchanger.

80. (8731) The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate

 Clogged fuel nozzle.

81. (8751) One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that the
indicator

 Can be located any distance from the tank(s).

82. (8741) A drip gauge may be used to measure

 The amount of fuel in the tank.

83. (8725) which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?

 Carbon dioxide.
84. (8782) what is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation fuels?

 Deteriorates rubber parts.

85. (8730) as a general rule, which statement is true regarding fuel leaks?

 Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considered
flight hazards when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.

86. (8772) (1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure indicator.

(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the fuel entering the carburetor. Regarding
the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

87. (8703) Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by

 Boost pumps.

88. (8707.2) How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to become plugged at the same
time, must be used in multiengine fuel systems?

 Two.

89. (8716) Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally placarded on
the

 Fuel control panel access door.

90. (8700) (1) the fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight personnel to close the valve
during any part of the jettisoning operation.
(2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must discharge clear of any part of the
airplane. Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

91. (8774) The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a

 Place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained.

92. (8727) The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump is to

 Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.

93. (8719) how is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged, single-speed, centrifugal-
type fuel pump?

 By the pump's design and internal clearances.

94. (8787) According to Part 23, what minimum required markings must be placed at or near each
appropriate fuel filler cover for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?

 The word 'Avgas' and the minimum fuel grade.

95. (8773) (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft positive-displacement fuel
pump. (2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump.
Regarding the above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

96. (8749) what are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
1. Sight glass.
2. Mechanical.
3. Electrical.
4. Electronic.
5. Bourdon tube.
6. Vane-type transmitter.
7. Litmus indicator.
8. Direct-reading static pressure type.

 1, 2, 3, 4.
97. (8769) (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine fuel system from ice
(2) an aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in the fuel screen. Regarding the above
statements

 Only No. 1 is true.

98. (8777) Aircraft defueling should be accomplished

 In the open air for good ventilation.

99. (8764) a transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves what function?

 Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.

100.(8744) why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel
level than a mechanical type?

 It measures by weight instead of volume.

101.(8760) what unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure warning system?

 Pressure-sensitive mechanism.

102.(8721) when inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what procedure should be
followed?

 Pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water.

103.(8710.6) Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine engines to prevent ____________
in the fuel from clogging system filters.

 ice crystals

104.(8737) The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is essentially a

 Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.

105.(8711) the use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some problems not normally
associated with aviation gasolines. One of these problems is

 Microbial contaminants.

106.(8724) An aircraft's integral fuel tank is

 A part of the aircraft structure.

107.(8710.2) A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor ignition caused by

 Lightning.

108.(8797) Microbial growth is produced by various forms of microorganisms that live and multiply
in the water interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could result if microbial growth
exists in a jet fuel tank and is not corrected?
1. Interference with fuel flow.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
3. Engine seizure.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.

 1, 2, 4.

109.(8699) The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a

 Lower landing weight.

110.(8708) what is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?

 To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.

111.(8801) If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended period of time, the inside
of the tank should be coated with a film of

 Engine oil.

112.(8754) what is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank?

 It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator.

113.(8798) The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is

 Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.

114.(8742) The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system consists of a bridge circuit,

 An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.

AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

1. (8825) To test generator or motor armature windings for opens,

 Place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments;
light should light.

2. (8826) what is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes?

 Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft - white.

3. (8907) what is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be in operation and still be an
intermittent duty circuit?

 Two minutes.

4. (8818) in a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the
movement of the brushes within the holder?

 The brush pigtail.

5. (8915) Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors, and inverters are best
accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and
equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by

 The equipment manufacturer.

6. (8886) what is the advantage of a current limiter?

 It will take overload for a short period.

7. (8893) One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is

 Greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.

8. (8900) which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light?

 Install a switch independent of the position light switch.

9. (8871) which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a No.
6 aluminum electrical cable?

 No. 6.

10. (8809) what is required when operating two aircraft ac generators in parallel?

 Frequency and voltage must both be equal.

11. (8860) what protection to wires and cables does conduit provides when used in aircraft
installations?

 Mechanical.

12. (8832) what does a rectifier do?

 Changes alternating current into direct current.

13. (8810) The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in passing through both the field and
armature windings, produces a

 High starting torque.

14. (8856) If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected

 Parallel to each other and in series with the switch.

15. (8897) If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and
is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output would
indicate

 Residual voltage.

16. (8867) The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are

 Current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.

17. (8904) A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the

 Resistance of the generator field circuit.

18. (8918) The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change

 Alternating current to direct current.

19. (8839) (1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series, shunt, and compound.
(2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are
Connected in series with the armature winding. Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

20. (8868) the navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single
switch which has an ON position and an OFF position, with no additional positions possible.
This switch is referred to as a

 Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position switch.

21. (8884) what is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load
current applications?

 To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life.

22. (8896) The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that contains twice as many loops as the
primary will be

 Greater and the amperage less than in the primary.

23. (8894) why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?

 To reduce the effects of eddy currents.

24. (8869) Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of

 Fuses.

25. (8855) Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation
could endanger a system frequently employ

 Guarded switches.

26. (8913) Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical
power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of

 A stepdown transformer and a rectifier.

27. (8859) During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be
determined that

 The terminal studs are anchored against rotation.

28. (8898) what is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?

 Flash the fields.

29. (8917) An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is

 An electronically operated switch.

30. (8919) what is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil
winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage?

 Primary will have one-third as many turns as it’s secondary.

31. (8854) When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be
connected in

 Series with the light.

32. (8925) The generator rating is usually found stamped on the

 Generator.

33. (8912.2) Static inverters are electronic devices that change DC to AC with the

 Use of an oscillator.

34. (8836) which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium
battery?

 Excessive current draw from the battery.

35. (8806) what is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor?

 High starting torque.

36. (8847) The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS
electrical connector is by

 Crimping.

37. (8815) how many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-
field type for each revolution of the rotor?

 Three.

38. (8866) To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will largely eliminate and provide a
steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in

 Parallel.

39. (8908) The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound dc
generator is to vary the

 Current flowing through the shunt field coils.

40. (8857) Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical junction boxes is considered to
be

 A shorting hazard.

41. (8916) a battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring

alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have

 An inverter.

42. (8895) certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all normal operation and battery
furnished dc electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate
no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by

 Rectifiers which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power.

43. (8880) The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are

 circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters.

44. (8873) which statement relating to electric wiring is true?

 When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined

that the strength of the cable-to-terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile
strength of the Cable itself.

45. (8926) Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the

 Field shoes.

46. (8804) One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of

 A shorted armature.

47. (8903) the strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from which it
is constructed and which of the following?

 The number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current (amperes)
passing through the coil.

48. (8922) how is a shunt-wound dc generator connected?

 Both fields are shunted across the armature.

49. (8932) When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by

 A switch in the cockpit.

50. (8834) When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be

 Disconnected from the circuit.

51. (8924) what is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon?

 RPM.

52. (8889) a certain switch is described as a single-pole, double-throw switch (SPDT). The throw of
a switch indicates the number of

 Circuits each pole can complete through the switch.

53. (8858) Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers
the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When
bundling open wiring, the bundles should

 Be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical

fault.

54. (8864) The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to continuous

 Current rating with the contacts closed.

55. (8842) when selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure,
which of the following should be considered?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Permissible voltage drop.
5. Amount of current to be carried.
6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).

 1, 3, 5.
56. (8910) (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green
light illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause?

 Short in the up limit switch.

In order for the red light to remain on when the landing gear is down and locked, there must be a
short in the up-limit switch that keeps wire 19 electrically connected to wire 8. This keeps power
supplied to the red light.

57. (8921) how are generators rated?

 Amperes at rated voltage.

58. (8909) (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly?

 3

The batteries in 1 are connected correctly in a series circuit.

The batteries in 2 are connected correctly in a parallel circuit.
The batteries in 3 are connected incorrectly in a parallel circuit. The polarity of the center battery is
reversed and it will act as a short circuit across the other two batteries.

59. (8890) When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable
size should be based are

 Current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.

60. (8881) if a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what
protection should be given the wire?

 Pass through conduit.

61. (8929) A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of

 A variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor.

62. (8914) During inspection of an anticollision light installation for condition and proper
operation, it should be determined that

 The anticollision light can be operated independently of the position lights.

63. (8848) The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on

 The ground side of a circuit.

64. (8930) Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of high output ac generator that
utilizes

 a brushless system to produce current

65. (8876) A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the

 Circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.

66. (8817) how does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature
operate?

 A friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet.

67. (8840) For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a
wire is by

 Crimping.

68. (8828) A voltage regulator controls generator output by

 varying current flow to generator field coil

69. (8838) which of the following are the major parts of a dc motor?
1. Armature assembly.
2. Field assembly.
3. Brush assembly.
4. Commutator.
5. Pole piece.
6. Rheostat.
7. End frame.

 1, 2, 3, 7.

70. (8875) what kind of switch should you install in a single wire circuit that required the switch to
be manually held in the ON position?

 Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position normally open (NO).

71. (8803) Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so
that the

 Motor can be operated in either direction.

72. (8883) what is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes,
continuous operation?
 Use the formula VD = RLA
 VD = Voltage drop
 R = Resistance per ft = .00644
 L = Length of wire
 A = Amperes

 4V.

73. (8927) In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a

circuit component and some value of resistance is read,

 The component has continuity and is not open.

74. (8874) Bonding connections should be tested for

 Resistance value.
75. (8899) The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact
that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased

 By means of a transformer.

76. (8863) When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the

 Input voltage must be maintained at a constant value.

77. (8831) During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is usually accomplished by

 An integral fan.

78. (8928) CSD driven generators are usually cooled by

 Oil spray.

79. (8833) what type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance?

 Megohmmeter.

80. (8827) to what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a dc generator
undercut?

 Equal to the width of the mica.

81. (8901) The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled by the

 Dc stator field current.

82. (8835) When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it

 Is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.

83. (8872) In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the
regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generator or alternator can
deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the generator or alternator rating?

 100

84. (8870) how does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wiring?

 Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible.

85. (8813) The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft
generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the

 Strength of the magnetic field.

86. (8822) The commutator of a generator

 Changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is

taken from the armature.

87. (8861) which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring?

 Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure.

88. (8862) If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage
and the (-) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the
voltmeter will read

 Backwards.

89. (8849) The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the

 Voltage output of the dc exciter.

90. (8853) Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in

 Amperes.

91. (8844) what is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire bundle?

 Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle.

92. (8892) The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the

 Wiring from too much current.

93. (8808) what is a cause of generator brush arcing?

 Low spring tension.

94. (8931) If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) scavenge oil filter is contaminated with metal,
you should

 Remove and replace the IDG.

95. (8877) how should a voltmeter be connected?

 In parallel with the load.

96. (8805) Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?

 Ring.

97. (8888) In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers

 Should not be used as circuit protective devices.

98. (8879) If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture,
the mechanic should

 Use a special moisture-proof type.

99. (8807) If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage regulator, the actual time the
voltage regulator points remain open

 Depends on the load carried by the generator.

100.(8933) A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature,
may be reconnected

 Only on the ground by maintenance personnel.

101.(8845) When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed
wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is

 One.

102.(8851) Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One
purpose of grounding is to

 Prevent development of radio frequency potentials.

103.(8850) If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the
possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by

 Dusting the cable with powdered soapstone.

104.(8887) Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls,
etc., the wires should be protected from chafing by

 Using a suitable grommet.

105.(8816) If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to open after the generator output
has dropped below battery potential, current will flow through the generator armature

 Opposite the normal direction and through the shunt field in the normal
direction.

106.(8920) in an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true?

 Real power equals apparent power.

107.(8837) How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted
together?

 The transformer will get hot in normal operation.

108.(8902) When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil
should

 Show very low resistance if it is a series field coil.

109.(8814) The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the

 Field assembly.

110.(8891) what is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses?

 Capacity matches the needs of the circuit.

111.(8812) The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through
the use of

 Interpoles.

112.(8923) The poles of a generator are laminated to

 Reduce eddy current losses.

113.(8878) A circuit protection device called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is
designed to be used in

 Heavy power circuits.

114.(8882) In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical
wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its

 Cross-sectional area.

115.(8829) which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator?

 Series wound.

116.(8843) how should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire
bundle?

 Staggered along the length of the bundle.

117.(8846) AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet

 Military specifications.

118.(8911) If any one generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is

 An out-of-adjustment voltage regulator.

119.(8820) The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to
providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily

 to prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection

120.(8821) Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because

 Individual strands will break easily after being nicked.

121.(8885) what is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse?

 Resettable and reusable.

122.(8906) When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single load, their
controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The
equalizer circuit operates by

 Increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high
generator until they are equal.

123.(8811) which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake?

 Landing light retraction motor.

124.(8905) The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive
voltage is present by

 Opening the shunt field circuit.

125.(8912.1) how can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed?

 Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.

126.(8824) which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?

 Reduce field strength.

127.(8841) which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the
wire size to use for an aircraft installation?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure.
5. Permissible voltage drop.
6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).

 2, 5, 6, 7.

128.(8823) An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the

 Rate of current used to charge the battery.

129.(8830) what is the most accurate type of frequency-measuring instrument?

 Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit.

130.(8819) A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require

 More current at low RPM than at high RPM.

131.(8865) Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of

 Stainless steel.

132.(8852) what is normally used to bond noncontinuous stainless steel aircraft components?

 Copper jumpers.
POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEMS

1. (8939) The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored
flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by

 A thrust lever.

2. (8940) (1) an airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and static air
pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight. (2) An airspeed indicator measures
the differential between pitot and cabin air pressures at any Moment of flight. Regarding the
above statements,

 Only No. 1 is true.

3. (8935) in a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is
sent to the skid control valve which

 Relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake.

4. (8936) An antiskid system is

 An electrohydraulic system.

5. (8967) which of the following are some uses for a DC-selsyn system?
1. Indicates position of retractable landing gear.
2. Indicates the angle of incidence of an aircraft.
3. Indicates the altitude of an aircraft.
4. Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler door position.
5. Indicates fuel quantity.
6. Indicates the rate of climb of an aircraft.
7. Indicates position of wing flaps.

 1, 4, 5, 7.
6. (8958) which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

 Gear downlock microswitch.

7. (8959) Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?

 Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up.

8. (8941) The angle-of-attack detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream

 Is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.

9. (8954) (Refer to Figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?

 Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.

In order for the amber indicator light to illuminate, all three of the landing gears must be in their up-
and-locked position.
The full retracted switches for the nosewheel, left wheel, and right wheel must all be closed.
10. (8947) (1) an antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid
point.
(2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a
System failure. Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

11. (8962) when a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at liftoff, which system is
deactivated?

 Antiskid system.

12. (8951) (Refer to Figure 19.) What is the indication of the red landing gear position light under
the following conditions?

Aircraft on jacks.
Landing gear in transit.
Warning horn sounding.

 extinguished.
13. (8952) (Refer to Figure 19). Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP
position and the gear does not retract?

 Replace electrical wire No. 12.

14. (8946) at what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function?

 When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid.

15. (8944) which of the following functions does a skid control system perform?
1. Normal skid control.
2. Normal braking.
3. Fail safe protection.
4. Locked wheel skid control.
5. Touchdown protection.
6. Takeoff protection.

 1, 3, 4, 5.

16. (8948) When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of
flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will
show

 Trim position.
17. (8961) what landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear
aircraft?

 A horn or other aural device and a red warning light.

18. (8953) which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal
to sound?

 Landing gear not locked down and throttles retarded.

19. (8960) In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and
fairing door operation is controlled by

 Sequence valves.

20. (8950) Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall

 Is imminent.

21. (8965) The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses

 A permanent magnet.

22. (8957) what safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear
strut?

 Ground safety switch.

23. (8964) The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the

 Rotor.
24. (8949) The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is
activated by

 Negative air pressure.

25. (8945) in the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow to the antiskid control box
because the landing gear

 Squat switch is open.

26. (8938) A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the
position of which of the following?

 Elevators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim.

27. (8955) (Refer to Figure 20.) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear
warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition?

 Any gear not down and locked, and one throttle retarded.
28. (8966) Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to

 Control electrical units automatically.

29. (8943) In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by

 An electrical sensor.

30. (8956) where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?

 On the main gear shock strut.

31. (8934) The purpose of antiskid generators is to

 Measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes.

32. (8942) (1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid system
automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and
parking. (2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheel speed sensors,
control Box, and control valves. Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

33. (8937) Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by

 A switch in the cockpit.

34. (8968) (1) A DC-selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote
mechanical movement or position. (2) A synchro-type indicating system is an electrical system
used for transmitting information From One point to another. Regarding the above
statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

 35. (8963) The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses

 An electromagnet.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION SYSTEMS.

1. (8995) what should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile
because of ice?

 Hot air.

2. (8983) what maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated

windshield system?

 Thermistors.

3. (8972) what controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?

 Distributor valve.

4. (8984) Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the

 Conductive coating.

5. (8986) how do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?

 By breaking up ice formations.

6. (8980) what is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?

 To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.

7. (8985) which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the system is not in
operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?

 Distributor valve.

8. (8979) what is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?

 To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically.

9. (8974) which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots
deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?

 Suction relief valve.

10. (8993) what are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields?

1. Blanket-type heating system.
2. An electric heating element in the windshield.
3. Heated air circulating system.
4. Hot water system.
5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid.
6. Ribbon-type heating system.

 2, 3, 5.

11. (8970) which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield
system?
1. Autotransformer.
2. Heat control relay.
3. Heat control toggle switch.
4. 24V dc power supply.
5. Indicating light.

 1, 2, 3, 5.
12. (8989) why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?

 It will restrict visibility.

13. (8973) what is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?

 Vane-type pump.

14. (8978) what method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system
Using surface combustion heaters?

 Thermo-cycling switches.

15. (8988) Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?

 Alcohol spray and heated induction air.

16. (8996) what is used as a temperature-sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?

 Thermistor

17. (8987) why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

 Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a

minimum.

18. (8992) which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an
aircraft?

 A brush or a squeegee.

19. (8971) what is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?

 Ammeter reading.
20. (8969) Prior to installation of a pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots, on the leading
edge of the wing, you should

 Remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.

21. (8976) some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the
airfoils and intake ducts. When this type of anti-ice system is usually operated during flight?

 Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.

22. (8991) what mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface?

 Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.

23. (8990) what is the principle characteristic of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?

 An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield
surface.

24. (8981) where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated
windshields?

 Imbedded in the glass.

25. (8982) Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing thermal anti-icing system are

 Compressor bleeds air and aircraft electrical system.

26. (8994) what icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?

 Carburetor ice.
 27. (8975) what may be used to clean deicer boots?

 Soap and water.

28. (8977) which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a
pneumatic deicer system?

 Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the
vacuum gauge.

FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS

1) (9009) why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between
two separate circuits?

 A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.

2) (9019) the thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch type fire-detection (single-loop)

system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are
connected in

 Parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.

3) (9004) which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference

temperature?

 Thermocouple.
4) (9002) Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called

 Photoelectrical devices.

5) (9025) which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on
an oxygen system?
1. Display 'No Smoking' placards.
2. Provide adequate fire-fighting equipment.
3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.
4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.

 1, 2, 3, and 4.

6) (9028) A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a

 Device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released.

7) (9001) Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of

 Detection.

8) (9016) Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with

 halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen

9) (9014) The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a

 Rate-of-temperature rise.

10) (9000) when air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors
containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?

 Green.
11) (8998) what occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?

 A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.

12) (9015) When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches
are wired in

 Parallel with each other and in series with the light.

13) (9022) on a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between
minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?

 Replace the extinguisher container.

14) (9010) A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by

 Weighing the container and its conten.ts

15) (9023) In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally
discharged is indicated by the absence of a

 Yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.

16) (9012) The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection
systems is

 Dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.

17) (9003) A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by

 Installing a new indicating element.

18) 9008) Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector

 Senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber.

19) (8999) The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are

 Water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical and halogenated hydrocarbons.

20) (9013) A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate
because

 It generates a small current when heated.

21) (9024) If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve, it should be

 Used only on the original discharge valve assembly.

22) (9006) The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is

 Dry powder chemical.

23) (9027) Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the

 Replacement of damaged sensing elements.

24) (9017) In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems,

(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or
Shorted.
(2) Before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be
checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.
Regarding the above statements,

 Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

25) (9007) Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected
by which instrument?

 Photoelectric cell.
26) (8997) in what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?

 Cockpit and/or cabin.

27) (9011) what is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?

 Brown.

28) (9026) which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic?

 Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).

29) (9021) (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when
the surrounding area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.)

 215 to 302 PSIG.

 For this problem, we must interpolate.

 33°F is 0.3 of the way between 30° and 40°.
 215 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 209 and 230 PSIG,
 And 302 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 295 and 317 PSIG.
 At 33°F the acceptable pressure range is between 215 and 302 PSIG.
30) (9018) what method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire-extinguisher
system?

 A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.

31) (9020) (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-
extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both
minimum and maximum pressure.)

 45 to 73°F.

 For this problem, we must interpolate.

 330 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 319 and 356, and 73° is 0.3 of the way between 70° and 80°.
 330 PSIG is 0.52 of the way between 317 and 342, and 45.2 is 0.52 of the way between 40° and 50°.
 The fire extinguisher could have a pressure of 330 PSIG over a temperature range of 45° to 73°F.

32) (9005) A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if
the

 Horn is nonmetallic.