EXAM MASTERMIND KAS TEST- 05

1) Match the following:

POET LITERARY WORK
1) SOMESHWARA I A) GATHASAPTHASATI
2) HALA B) USHA PARINAYAM
3) GANGADEVI C) MANASOLLASA
4) KRISHNADEVARAYA D) MADURAVIJAYAM

(1) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 2-A

(2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

(3) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

(4) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
POET LITERARY WORK
SOMESHWARA I MANASOLLASA
HALA GATHASAPTHASATI
GANGADEVI MADURAVIJAYAM
KRISHNADEVARAYA USHA PARINAYAM

2) Consider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force

(FATF):

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A. It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989.
B. Its secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Co-Operation and
Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
❖ It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G-7 summit
in Paris.
❖ The FATF assesses the strength of a country’s anti-money laundering and
anti-terror financing framework.
❖ However, it does not go by individual cases.
Objective
❖ To set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory
and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist
financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international
financial system.
Member Countries
❖ The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organization-
the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council.
❖ India is also a member country of the FATF.
Headquarters
❖ Its Secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Co-Operation
and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.

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 ❖ FATF plenary is the decision-making body of the FATF. It meets three
times per year.
Lists Under FATF
➢ GREY LIST
• Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and
money laundering are put in the FATF’s grey list.
• The inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the
blacklist.
➢ BLACKLIST
• Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs)
Are put in the blacklist.
• These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
• The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
the FATF has decided to suspend the membership of the Russian Federation.
jamaica and turkey removed from grey list
while North Korea and Iran continue to be in the black list
Monaco and venezuela - grey list

3) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Electoral Bonds?

A. Electoral Bond means a bond issued in the nature of promissory note.
B. Electoral Bonds are bearer banking instruments and shall not carry the name
of the buyer or payee.
C. The State Bank of India (SBI) has been authorized to issue and encash
Electoral Bonds through its select Designated Branches.
D. The amount of bonds not encashed within the validity period of fifteen days
shall be deposited by the authorized bank to the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) A and D Only

(2) B and C only

(3) A, B and C only.

(4) A, C and D only.

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ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Electoral Bonds
❖ Electoral Bond means a financial instrument for making donations to
political parties. It is in the nature of promissory note which shall be a
bearer banking instrument and shall not carry the name of the buyer
or payee.
❖ The bonds shall be issued in the denomination of Rs. 1000, Rs. 10,000, Rs.
1,00,000, Rs.10,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,00,000. The State Bank of India
(SBI) has been authorised to issue and encash Electoral Bonds through its
select Designated Branches.
❖ The Electoral bonds will not bear the name of the donor, the political party
might not be aware of the donor's identity.
❖ The bonds under this Scheme shall be available for purchase by any person
for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and
October as may be specified by the Central Government. An additional
period of thirty days shall be specified by the Central Government in the
year of general elections to the House of People.
❖ Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951 and which secured not less than
one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House
of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to
receive the Electoral Bonds.
❖ The Electoral bonds can be encashed only by an eligible political party by
depositing the same in their designated bank account. The Electoral Bond
deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account shall be credited on
the same day.
❖ The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date
of issue and no payment shall be made to any payee Political Party if the

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 Electoral Bond is deposited after the expiry of the validity period. The
amount of bonds not encashed within the validity period of fifteen days
shall be deposited by the authorised bank to the Prime Minister Relief
Fund.
❖ The face value of the bonds shall be counted as income by way of voluntary
contributions received by an eligible political party, for the purpose of
exemption from Income-tax under section 13A of the Income tax Act,
1961.

4) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds
Scheme (SGBs)?
A. The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples
thereof.
B. SGBs are issued by Reserve Bank of India on behalf of Government of India.
C. The Bonds are transferable in accordance with the provisions of the
Government Securities Act 2006 and the Government Securities Regulations
2007.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) A and B Only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold.

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❖ They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the
issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity.
❖ The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India.
❖ The tenor of the bond is 8 years.
❖ But early encashment/redemption of the bond is allowed after fifth year
from the date of issue on coupon payment dates.
❖ Bonds are sold through offices or branches of Nationalised Banks,
Scheduled Private Banks, Scheduled Foreign Banks, designated Post
Offices, Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd. (SHCIL) and the
authorised stock exchanges either directly or through their agents.
❖ The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in
multiples thereof. Minimum investment in the Bond shall be one gram
with a maximum limit of subscription of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for
Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) and 20 kg for trusts and similar
entities notified by the government from time to time per fiscal year
(April – March).
❖ In case of joint holding, the limit applies to the first applicant. The annual
ceiling will include bonds subscribed under different tranches during initial
issuance by Government and those purchased from the secondary market.
The ceiling on investment will not include the holdings as collateral by
banks and other Financial Institutions.
❖ The bond can be gifted/transferable to a relative/friend/anybody who
fulfills the eligibility criteria. The Bonds shall be transferable in
accordance with the provisions of the Government Securities Act 2006 and
the Government Securities Regulations 2007 before maturity by execution
of an instrument of transfer which is available with the issuing agents.
❖ The Bonds bear interest at the rate of 2.50 per cent (fixed rate) per annum
on the amount of initial investment.

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 ❖ These securities are eligible to be used as collateral for loans from banks,
financial Institutions and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC).
❖ Interest on the Bonds will be taxable as per the provisions of the Income-
tax Act, 1961. The capital gains tax arising on redemption of SGB to an
individual has been exempted.

5) Consider the following statements regarding UN Ocean Conference – 2022.

A. The UN Ocean Conference – 2022 took place in Nairobi.
B. The UN Ocean Conference - 2022 was co-hosted by Portugal and Kenya.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
(1) A Only.

(2) B Only.

(3) Both A and B.

(4) Neither A nor B.

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The UN Ocean Conference - 2022 (27 June to 1 July) was co-hosted by
Portugal and Kenya.
❖ The UN Ocean Conference – 2022 took place in Lisbon.
❖ More than 6,000 participants, including 24 Heads of State and
Government, and over 2,000 representatives of civil society attended the
Conference, advocating for urgent and concrete actions to tackle the ocean
crisis.
Areas of Focus at the Conference
1) Protecting or exceeding 30% of national maritime zones by 2030.
2) Achieving carbon neutrality by 2040.
3) Reducing plastic pollution.

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 4) Increasing renewable energy use.
5) Allocating billions of dollars to research on ocean acidification, climate
resilience projects and to monitoring, control and surveillance.

6) Mount Etna, which erupted recently, is located in which country?

(1) Philippines

(2) Italy

(3) Indonesia

(4) Japan

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Mount Etna is an active strato-volcano located on the east coast of Sicily in Italy.
Recently, the volcano has erupted causing a volcanic storm.
Volcanic storms can happen in particularly violent eruptions or with volcanoes
located near the sea. Volcanologists observed volcanic lightning over the Mount
Etna in 2021, after the one witnessed in 2015.

7) ‘BiodiverCities by 2030 Initiative’ is associated with which organisation?

(1) World Bank

(2) World Economic Forum

(3) International Monetary Fund

(4) NITI Aayog

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

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 ❖ World Economic Forum’s ‘BiodiverCities by 2030 Initiative’, in
collaboration with the Alexander von Humboldt Institute and the
Government of Colombia has recently released a report.
❖ As per the new report, cities contribute nearly 80 per cent to the global
economy and also account for nearly three-fourths of greenhouse gas
emissions. Nearly half of the GDP in cities around the world or USD 31
trillion is at risk of disruption from nature loss.

8) What is the main objective of the ‘Digital Sansad App’?

(1) Enables the citizens to follow the proceedings in Parliament

(2) Enable digital filing of complaints in constituencies by citizens

(3) Provide platform for discussion of MPs in Virtual Form

(4) Provide Metaverse of Parliamentary constituencies.

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, which
enables people to follow the proceedings in Parliament.
❖ It also contains the live telecast of Sansad proceedings. Citizens can access
general information on MPs, on budget speeches since 1947, House
discussions from 12th Lok Sabha to 17th Lok Sabha.
❖ The app will also help members of parliament access services such as
checking personal updates.

9) Which of the following schemes has been formulated in collaboration with

“Pradhana Manthri Mathsya Sampada Yojana” for financing 100 deep sea fishing
boats in the Karnataka State Budget 2022-2023?

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 (1) Mathsya siri

(2) Bestha siri

(3) Jala siri

(4) Sagara siri

ANSWER: (1)

Explanation:

A special scheme called ‘Mathsya Siri’ is formulated, for the first time in the
State, in collaboration with “Pradhana Manthri Mathsya Sampada Yojana” for
financing 100 deep sea fishing boats in the Karnataka State Budget 2022-2023.

10) ‘Punyakoti Dattu Yojane’, announced in the Karnataka State Budget 2022-
2023, encourages public and the private institutions to adopt cows in the Goshalas
by paying Rs

(1) 10,000 annually

(2) 11,000 annually

(3) 20,000 annually

(4) 22,000 annually

ANSWER: (2)

Explanation:

‘Punyakoti Dattu Yojane’ announced in the Karnataka State Budget 2022-2023,

encourages public and the private institutions to adopt cows in the Goshalas by
paying Rs.11,000 annually.

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11) Free coaching facility will be provided through online platform in Karnataka
for KPSC, UPSC, SSC, Banking, Railway, CDS, NEET, JEE and other various
competitive examinations under a new scheme named

(1) Mukhyamantri Vidhyarthi Margadarshini.

(2) Mukhyamantri Vidhyarthi Vahini.

(3) Mukhyamantri Spardha Sanjeevini.

(4) Mukhyamantri Spardha Margadarshini.

ANSWER: (1)

Explanation:

❖ Free coaching facility will be provided through online platform for KPSC,
UPSC, SSC, Banking, Railway, CDS, NEET, JEE and other various
competitive examinations under a new scheme named Mukhyamantri
Vidhyarthi Margadarshini.
❖ This was announced in Karnataka State Budget 2022-2023.

12) “Saasive Thandavalu” book was written by

(1) B V Bharathi

(2) Nemichandra

(3) Prathibhanandha Kumar

(4) Latha Krishnamurthy

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ “Saasive Thandavalu” is a book written by B V Bharathi.
❖ It deals with a woman who battled cancer and is now leading a healthy life,
serving as an inspiration to millions of patients battling cancer.

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13) Consider the following statements regarding Non-fungible Tokens (NFTs):
A. Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with
unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
B. Like cryptocurrencies, they can be traded or exchanged at equivalency.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
(1) A Only.

(2) B Only.

(3) Both A and B.

(4) Neither A nor B.

ANSWER: (1).
Explanation:
Non-fungible Tokens (NFTs)
❖ Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with
unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each
other.
❖ An NFT is a digital asset that represents real-world objects like art,
music, in-game items and videos. They are bought and sold online,
frequently with cryptocurrency, and they are generally encoded with the
same underlying software as many cryptos.
❖ Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at
equivalency. This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies,
which are identical to each other and, therefore, can serve as a medium for
commercial transactions.
❖ They are digital representations of assets and are compared with digital
passports because each token contains a unique, non-transferable identity
to distinguish it from other tokens. They are also extensible, meaning you
can combine one NFT with another to “breed” a third, unique NFT.

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 ❖ NFTs are like physical collector’s items but digital. So instead of getting
an actual oil painting to hang on the wall, the buyer gets a digital file
instead.
❖ They also get exclusive ownership rights. i.e NFTs can have only one
owner at a time. NFTs’ unique data makes it easy to verify their ownership
and transfer tokens between owners. The owner or creator can also store
specific information inside them. For instance, artists can sign their artwork
by including their signature in an NFT’s metadata.
❖ "Tokenizing" the real-world tangible assets makes buying, selling, and
trading them more efficient while reducing the probability of fraud.
❖ NFTs can also function to represent individuals' identities, property rights,
and more.
❖ Terra Nulius was the first NFT (started in 2015) on Ethereum
Blockchain, although this project was merely an idea that only allowed to
customise a short message which was then recorded on the blockchain.

14) ‘X’ is a phenomenon in which the amount of junk in orbit around Earth
reaches a point where it just creates more and more space debris, causing big
problems for satellites, astronauts and mission planners. Here ‘X’ refers to
(1) Quadrilateral Space Syndrome

(2) Kesslers Syndrome

(3) Turners Syndrome

(4) Downs Syndrome.

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Kesslers Syndrome is a phenomenon in which the amount of junk in orbit around
Earth reaches a point where it just creates more and more space debris, causing
big problems for satellites, astronauts and mission planners.

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15) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Samudrayaan
Mission?
A. Samudrayaan Mission is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned
submersible.
B. It carries 3 human beings to a water depth of 6000 meters in the ocean.
C. The projected timeline of mission is five years for the period 2020-2021 to
2025-2026.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) A and B Only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Samudrayaan Mission is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned
submersible to carry 3 human beings to a water depth of 6000 meters
in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean
exploration. It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96
hours in case of emergency.
❖ The manned submersible will allow scientific personnel to observe and
understand unexplored deep-sea areas by direct interventions. Further, it
will enhance the capability for deep sea man rated vehicle development.
❖ The projected timeline is five years for the period 2020-2021 to 2025-
2026.
❖ National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, an autonomous
institute under MoES, has developed 6000m depth rated Remotely

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 Operated Vehicle (ROV) and various other underwater instruments such
as Autonomous Coring System (ACS), Autonomous Underwater Vehicle
(AUV) and Deep-Sea Mining System (DSM) for the exploration of deep
sea.

16) First Ramsar site of Karnataka is

(1) Ranganthittu Bird Sanctuary.

(2) Mandagadde bird Sanctuary.

(3) Dandeli wildlife sanctuary.

(4) Bankapura peacock Sanctuary.

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ Ranganthittu Bird Sanctuary is the first Ramsar site of Karnataka
❖ 4 K.M.s from Srirangapatna and 18 K.M.s from Mysore is the
Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary that allows a close view of birds, both exotic
and familiar.
❖ The sanctuary is also famous for crocodiles that resemble mud banks.
❖ Birds from as far away as Siberia make this their home.
❖ River Kaveri spreads among stones and lagoons to form a group of islands
full of lush green vegetation making this place an ideal haven for birds
which migrate here from all over the world.

17) Smart cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) was
launched by
(1) Ministry of Rural Development

(2) Ministry of Education

(3) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

(4) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs

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ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched Smart
cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR), which is a joint
initiative of MoHUA, National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) and
leading Indian academic institutions of the country.
❖ The initiative has been launched as a part of the Azadi Ka Amrut Mahotsav
(AKAM) celebrations across the country.
❖ Under the program, 15 premier architecture & planning institutes of the
country will be working with Smart Cities to document landmark projects
undertaken by the Smart Cities Mission.
❖ The documents will capture the learnings from best practices, provide
opportunities for engagement on urban development projects to students,
and enable real-time information flow between urban practitioners and
academia.

18) Which Tiger reserve in India won the prestigious TX2 award 2022?
(1) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(2) Bandipur Tiger Reserve

(3) Nagarahole Tiger Reserve

(4) Mukundra Tiger Reserve

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (Erode district, Tamil Nadu) has been
given the prestigious TX2 award 2022 after its tiger numbers doubled to
80 since 2010.

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 ❖ Apart from the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, the Bardia National Park
in Nepal has won this year’s TX2 award for doubling the population of
wild tigers.
TX2 Award
❖ The TX2 Award is given to reserves that achieve a “remarkable and
measurable increase in its tiger population since 2010”.
❖ It is presented by World Wildlife Fund (WWF) along with Conservation
Assured Tiger Standards, Fauna and Flora International, Global Tiger
Forum, IUCN’s Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme,
Panthera, United Nations Development Programme, The Lion’s Share, and
Wildlife Conservation Society.

19) The third edition of the joint military exercise “EX DHARMA GUARDIAN-
2022” was held between
(1) India and Thailand

(2) India and Japan

(3) India and Bangladesh

(4) India and China.

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The third edition of the joint military exercise “EX DHARMA
GUARDIAN-2022” between India and Japan was conducted from 27
February to 10 March 2022, at Belagavi (Belgaum), Karnataka.
❖ The 15th Battalion the Maratha Light Infantry Regiment of the Indian
Army and 30th Infantry Regiment of Japanese Ground Self Defence Forces
(JGSDF) participated in this 12 days long joint exercise.

5th edition - rajasthan

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20) Which among the following banks has launched a dedicated centralized
processing cell named ‘Surya Shakti Cell’ with the objective of strengthening the
existing financing arrangement for solar power projects ?
(1) State Bank of India

(2) ICICI

(3) HDFC

(4) Bank of Baroda

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
State Bank of India (SBI) has launched a dedicated centralized processing cell
named ‘Surya Shakti Cell’ with the objective of strengthening the existing
financing arrangement for solar power projects.

21) Consider the following statements regarding Mission Raftaar:

A. Mission Raftaar is a ‘Mission’ undertaken by Ministry of Railways.
B. It is envisaged to achieve a target of doubling average speed of freight trains.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
(1) A Only.

(2) B Only.

(3) Both A and B.

(4) Neither A nor B.

ANSWER: (3).
Explanation:
Mission Raftaar is a ‘Mission’ undertaken by Ministry of Railways, for speed
enhancement and to achieve a target of doubling average speed of freight trains
and increasing the average speed of Superfast /mail/Express trains by 25 kmph.

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22) Who is the first Indian to win the prestigious Zurich Diamond League Final
2022 in Switzerland?
(1) Anjum Chopra

(2) Manika Batra

(3) Neeraj Chopra

(4) Hima Das

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Tokyo Olympic gold medalist Neeraj Chopra has become the first Indian to win
the prestigious Zurich Diamond League Final 2022 in Switzerland.

23) Which among the following schemes is related to ‘Meri Policy Mere Hath’
campaign?
(1) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

(2) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana

(3) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana

(4) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ The Union Ministry of Agriculture has initiated a campaign named ‘Meri
Policy Mere Hath’, which aims to provide information to all farmers
regarding their existing Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PM-FBY)
policy, land records, the process of claim and grievance redressal. The
policy related information would be furnished at the door steps of farmers.
❖ The PM-FBY was launched in the year 2016 and has entered into the 7th
year of implementation in 2022.

24) Consider the following statements regarding Bitcoins:

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A. Ecuador is the first country in the world to make bitcoin a legal tender.
B. Bitcoin is a decentralized cryptocurrency.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
(1) A Only.

(2) B Only.

(3) Both A and B.

(4) Neither A nor B.

ANSWER: (2).
Explanation:
In 2021, El Salvador became the first country to accept Bitcoin as legal tender,
alongside the US dollar that has been the official currency in the country for two
decades.
Bitcoin
❖ Bitcoin is a type of digital currency that enables instant payments between
sender and the receiver.
❖ Bitcoin was first introduced in the year 2009.
❖ Bitcoin is decentralized i.e it is not issued by any central authority.
❖ Satoshi Nakamoto proposed bitcoin, which was an electronic payment
system based on mathematical proof.
❖ Bitcoin is the first example of a growing category of money called as the
cryptocurrency.
❖ Bitcoin is created digitally by a community of people that could be joined
by anyone. Bitcoins are mined using computer power in a distributed
network.

25) Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
A. JJM envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural
household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.

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B. It is implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the above statement/s is/are NOT true?
(1) A Only.

(2) B Only.

(3) Both A and B.

(4) Neither A nor B.

ANSWER: (4)

Explanation:

Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)

❖ Jal Jeevan Mission is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking
water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all
households in rural India.
❖ JJM envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural
household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by
2024.
❖ It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
❖ The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as
mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water
management, water conservation, rainwater harvesting.
❖ The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water
and will include extensive Information, Education, and communication as
a key component of the mission.
❖ Jal Jeevan Mission focuses on water service delivery and not just building
water supply infrastructure. The motto of the Jal Jeevan Mission is ‘no one
is left out’, thus ensuring every household irrespective of its socio-
economic status, gets tap water supply.

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 ❖ The mission strives for the freedom of mothers and sisters from centuries
old drudgery of fetching water for household, and improving their health,
education and socio- economic condition.
❖ The Mission is bringing ‘ease of living’ and adding pride and dignity to
rural families.

26. Which of the following dynasties involved in Tripartite Struggle for Kannauj?
A. Chola
B. Gurjar Pratihara
C. Rashtrakuta
D. Sena
E. Pala

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and E only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, C and D only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The Tripartite Struggle, also known as the Kannauj Triangle Wars,
took place in the 8th and 9th centuries, between the three great Indian
dynasties, the Palas, the Pratiharas, and the Rashtrakutas, for control
over the Kannauj area of northern India.

27. Match the following dynasties with their founders:

A. Rashtrakuta i. Simuka
B. Hoysala ii. Dantidurga
C. Kalyani Chalukya iii. Sala

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 D. Satavahana iv. Tailapa

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
(3) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Rashtrakuta-Dantidurga
❖ Hoysala-Sala
❖ Kalyani Chalukya-Tailapa
❖ Satavahana- Simuka

28. Consider the following departments created during the times of the Delhi
Sultanate:
A. Diwan-i-Mustakhraj: Department of arrears
B. Diwan-i-Ishtiaq: Department of pensions
C. Diwan-i-Khairat: Department of charity
D. Diwan-i-Bandagan: Department of Foreign Affairs

Which of following departments match with their main function/duty?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) B, C and D only

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:

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Departments created during the times of the Delhi Sultanate.
❖ Diwan-i-risalat : Department of Religious affairs.
❖ Diwan-i-arz: Department of Military
❖ Diwan-i-Ishtiaq: Department of pensions
❖ Diwan-i-Mustakhraj: Department of arrears
❖ Diwan-i-kohi: Department of agriculture
❖ Diwan-i-insha: Department of correspondence
❖ Diwan-i-Bandagan: Department of slaves
❖ Diwan-i-Qaza-i-Mamalik: Department of justice
❖ Diwan-i-Khairat: Department of charity

29. Consider the following statements about the rule of Delhi sultans:
A. He shifted the capital from Lahore to Delhi.
B. He Started the Chahalgani system of 40 loyal nobles
C. During his time copper coins (Jital) were in use.

Above statements are related to which of the following Delhi Sultanate?

(1) Balban
(2) Iltutmish
(3) Qutubuddin Aibak
(4) Alauddin Khilji

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Iltutmish (1211 - 1236 AD)

❖ Iltutmish was a slave of the Sultan of Delhi, Qutubuddin Aibak.

❖ He was son in law of Qutbuddin Aibak.
❖ He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi.

24
 ❖ He started feudalistic system Iqtha/ iqthadari
❖ He Started the Chahalgani system of 40 loyal nobles
❖ During his time copper coins (Jital) were in use
❖ He nominated his daughter Raziya as his successor.

30. Consider the following statements:

A. Battle of Tarain was fought between Prithviraj III and Ghori.
B. Prithviraja Raso was written by Jayanaka.
C. Dhanga-Deva of Chandella dynasty issued the Khajuraho inscription.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ The Battles of Tarain: The Tarain battles changed the course of the history of
the Indian subcontinent as they led to the establishment of the first Islamic
sultanates in India.

o Both the first battle of Tarain (1191 CE) and the second battle of Tarain (1192
CE) were fought between Mohammed Ghori and Prithviraj Chauhan.

❖ The famous work "Prithviraj Raso" was written by Chand Bardai. It was
written in Braj Bhasha. An epic poem, it demonstrates the life and contributions
of the 12th century king, Prithviraj Chauhan.

❖ Dhanga-Deva of Chandella dynasty issued the Khajuraho inscription.

25
31. Consider the following statements with reference to Mysore Diwans:
A. Diwan K. Seshadri Iyer established Mysore Representative Assembly.
B. Diwan C Rangacharlu was responsible for establishing the Mysore
Oriental Library.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The Representative Assembly in Mysore was founded by Rangacharlu, the
first diwan after the restoration of Monarchy, in the year 1881; with 144
nominated members and thus prepared the ground for a responsible
government.
❖ C.Rangacharlu was the first diwan of King Chamarajendra Wadiyar X. The
construction of Mysore Oriental Library was started in the year 1891
during the reign of Kind Chamarajendra Wadiyar X and at that time his
Diwan was C. Rangacharlu.
❖ In 1943, this library was renamed as Oriental Research Institute.
❖ Till the year 1961, this library remained as a part of the Department of
education. And in the year 1961, it became part of the renowned University
of Mysore, which was established in the same year.

32. Consider the following pairs:

(Pass) (Connects)
A. Bomdi-La Pass Tibet

26
 B. Diphu Pass Myanmar
C. Nathu La Pass Nepal

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(1) B only
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Bomdi-La Pass-Tibet
❖ Diphu Pass -Myanmar
❖ Nathu La Pass - Sikkim to China's Tibet Autonomous Region.

33. Consider the following Pairs:

A. Razia i. First and the last female sultan of Delhi.
B. Balban ii. Iron and Blood Policy.
C. Qutub-ud-din Aibak iii. Lakh Baksh
D. Sikandar Lodi iv. First Battle of Panipat

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(1) Only one pair
(2) Only Two pairs
(3) Only Three Pairs
(4) All four pairs.

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Qutb-ud-din Aibak
❖ He was the leader of Muhammad Ghori's cavalry.

27
 ❖ He is regarded as the founder of the slave dynasty.
❖ He commenced the construction of Qutub Minar and dedicated it to Sufi
saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki.
❖ He was also known as “Lakh Baksh”.

Razia Sultana
❖ Iltumish nominated his daughter Razia to the throne of Delhi.
❖ Razia Sultan was the first woman to usurp the throne of Delhi.

Balban
❖ Chahalghani was cancelled by him.
❖ Followed Iron and blood policy.
❖ Known as Jilai-i-Ilahi: (Shadow of God).
❖ He is known as the restorer of Sultanate of Delhi.
❖ Famous Persian poet Amir Khusrow was in his court.
❖ Introduced department known as Barid system.
❖ Rituals Implemented: Sijada (prostration) and Paibos (kissing Sultan's
feet).

First Battle of Panipat

❖ The First Battle of Panipat (21 April 1526) was fought near a small village
of Panipat ( Haryana), this marked the beginning of Mughal Empire in
India.

❖ The battle was fought between the invading forces of Zahir-ud-din

Babur and the last empire of the Delhi Sultanate, Lodi Empire during
the rule of Ibrahim Lodi.

34. Consider the following statements about the rule of Delhi sultans:
A. Iltutmish's appointment as Sultan was not accepted by the Turkish chiefs,
Chahalgani, and he fought continuously with them.

28
 B. Balban, also known as the shadow of God, introduced department known
as barid system.
C. Alauddin Khalji had to face the severe attempts of invasion by Mongols at
various times including the attempt of Chengiz Khan.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Iltutmish (1211 - 1236 AD)
o Iltutmish was a slave of the Sultan of Delhi, Qutubuddin Aibek.
o Chahalgani system: It was a group of 40 nobles who played an
important role in the administration of Delhi Sultanate. It was a
selected body of Turkish nobles.
o Chahalghani was an initiation made by Iltutmish.
❖ Razia Sultana’s rule created differences with Chahalgani (40 nobels).
❖ Chengiz khan invaded India during the reign of Iltutmish. He was the
founder and first Great Khan of the Mongol Empire.
❖ Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-86)
o Balban abolished Chahalghani.
o He established defence department known as Diwan-i-Ariz.
o Balban introduced Persian customs and traditions such as sijada,
paibos (kissing feet of sultan), jamnibas (kissing hands), Naurauz
(Persian new year).

35. Consider the following statements about the Sijada and Paibos:

29
 A. Sijada means prostration.
B. Paibos means kissing the foot of the sultan to appreciate his power.
C. Both were introduced from Persia into India by Muhammad Bin Thuqlaq
of the Delhi Sultans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

Ghiyasuddin Balban(1266-86)

❖ Balban abolished Chahalghani.

❖ He established defence department known as Diwan-i-Ariz.
❖ Balban introduced Persian customs and traditions such as sijada, paibos
(kissing feet of sultan), jamnibas (kissing hands), Naurauz (Persian new
year).

36. Consider the following statements:

A. Balban introduced the system of ‘chehra’ or facial recognition in his
military.
B. Firoz Tughlaq was the first Sultan to impose Haque-i-Sharb (irrigation
tax).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only
(2) B only

30
 (3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Alauddin Khalji (1296-1316):
❖ The Dagh and Chehra system was introduced by Alauddin Khilji.
❖ Ala-ud-din introduced a system of chehra, an identity card system for every
soldier.
❖ Dagh to brand horses to be used specifically for wars.
❖ He also ordered for the maintenance of detailed register of soldiers to
prevent false musters and corrupt practices.
❖ He paid the salaries in cash.

Firoz shah Tughlaq (1351-89):

❖ Born in 1309 and ascended the throne of Delhi after the demise of his
cousin Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
❖ He was the first to link rivers and provide irrigation with the help of four
canals.
❖ He imposed water cess Haque-i-Sharb (irrigation tax).
❖ The British called him the ‘father of the irrigation department’ because of
the many gardens and canals that he built.
❖ He established the Diwan-i-Khairat — Department for charity.
❖ He established the Diwan-i-Bandagan — department of slave.

37. Consider the following statements:

A. He introduced the system of branding of horses in his military.
B. He set up a new capital at siri.
C. Use of liquor and intoxicants were banned in his administration.

31
 D. Barids (intelligence officer) and munhiyans (secret spies) were appointed
by him for Price regulations.

With reference to medieval Indian rulers, above statements are related to which
sultan?
(1) Jalaluddin Khilji
(2) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(3) Alauddin Khilji
(4) Iltutmish

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Alauddin Khalji (1296-1316):
❖ The Dagh and Chehra systems were introduced by Alauddin Khilji.
❖ Chehra system encompassed an identity card system for every soldier.
❖ He introduced the system of branding horses (Dagh) in his military.
❖ He also ordered for the maintenance of detailed register of soldiers to
prevent false musters and corrupt practices.
❖ He paid the salaries in cash to soldiers.
❖ He set up a new capital at Siri.
❖ Use of liquor and intoxicants were banned in his administration.
❖ Barids (intelligence officer) and munhiyans (secret spies) were appointed
by him for price regulations.

38. The Miller Committee was constituted by Krishnaraja Wadiyar IV, the
Maharaja of Mysore in the year 1919. It was set up for which of the following
reason?
(1) It was set up for the development of logistics sector.
(2) It was set up for agriculture reforms in Karnataka
(3) It was set up to promote women’s education in Karnataka

32
 (4) It was set up to investigate the status of backward classes in Karnataka.

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Under the leadership of Justice Lesley C. Miller, a Backward Class
Commission was appointed in 1918. It was only after this that the first
reservation rule came into force in 1921.
❖ Miller committee was to report on steps necessary for the adequate
representation of communities in the public service.

39. Krishna III invaded North India in 963 AD and defeated the Pratihara ruler.
To which of the following dynasties did Krishna III belong?
(1) Pala
(2) Rashtrakuta
(3) Pallava
(4) Chola

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Rashtrakutas
❖ The Rashtrakutas were originally known to be the feudatories of the
Western Chalukyas of Vatapi.
❖ They ruled from Manyakheta in Karnataka.
❖ Dhantidurga was the founder of Rashtrakuta dynasty, he defeated
Chalukyas of Badami.
❖ Krishna III was the greatest in Rashtrakuta dynasty.
❖ He defeated Parantaka Chola in battle of Takkolam.
❖ Krishna III invaded North India in 963 AD and defeated the Pratihara ruler.

33
40. With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, Khut, Muqaddam, and Patwari were
the
(1) Agricultural lands
(2) Water storage reservoirs
(3) Judicial officials working under the emperor
(4) Village functionaries working with the muqti

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ The provincial administration was overseen by Muqti, Iqtadars, and other
government officials. The landowners were known as Iqtadars.
❖ The Muqtis and Iqtadars were in charge of providing the Sultans with
troops. A number of parganas were created for each province. Each
pargana was subdivided into a number of villages.
❖ Muqtis are landowner or landholders of land given by king and iqtas are
the land given by the king. Iqtas is the land area governed by the governors
appointed by sultans. Muqtis may have wanted to defy the orders of the
Sultans in order to exercise their control over money and military
resources. Accountants were appointed by the plate to check the amount of
revenue collected by the muqtis.

41. Match the following rivers with their origin

River Origin
A. Godavari 1. Mahabaleshwar
B. Krishna 2. Mansarovar Lake
C. Narmada 3. Trimbakeshwar
D. Brahmaputra 4. Amarkantak Hill

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

34
 (2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Godavari- Trimbakeshwar
❖ Krishna- Mahabaleshwar
❖ Narmada- Amarkantak Hill
❖ Brahmaputra-Mansarovar Lake

42. Which geological structure in India has two drainage systems, one towards
the Bay of Bengal and another towards the Arabian Sea?
(1) Malwa Plateau
(2) Aravalli Mountains
(3) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(4) Bundelkhand region

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ The Malwa region occupies a plateau in western Madhya Pradesh and
south-eastern Rajasthan with Gujarat in the west.
❖ It lies in Madhya Pradesh between Aravali and Vindhyas.
❖ It is composed of extensive lava flow and is covered with black soils.
❖ It is composed two drainage systems, one towards the Bay of Bengal and
another towards the Arabian Sea.

43. Consider the following statements:

35
 A. Black soil needs less irrigation compared to other soils.
B. Mountain soil has a lot of coarse materials.
C. Red Soil predominates in the Sunderbans area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Black Soil
❖ These soils are black in colour and are also known as regur soils.
❖ Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton
soil.
❖ The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e., clayey material.
❖ They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.

Mountain Soils
❖ The formation of these soils is mainly governed by the characteristic
deposition of organic matter derived from forests and their character
changes with parent rocks, ground-configuration and climate.
❖ The forest soils are very rich in humus.
❖ Mountain soil has a lot of coarse materials.

Red soil
❖ Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in
the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
❖ It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

Alluvial Soil

36
 ❖ Alluvial Soil predominates in the Sunderbans area.

44. Which of the following statements given below is/are correct?

A. The Eastern Ghats are a highly discontinuous range along the east coast of
India.
B. The Eastern Ghats passes through five states.
C. Sheveroy and Nallamala hills are parts of Eastern Ghats.
D. The Eastern Ghats do not intersect with the Western Ghats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, B, C and D

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Eastern Ghat
❖ The eastern ghats stretch parallel to India's eastern coastal lowlands.
❖ It is a chain of highly broken and detached hills starting from the Mahanadi
in Odisha to the Vaigai in Tamil Nadu.
❖ The Jindhagada peak is the highest point in the Eastern Ghats (1690
meters). It is sometimes referred to as Arma Konda or Sitamma Konda.
❖ The Maliya range's peaks and ridges have a height range of 900-1,200
meters, with Mahendra Giri (1,501 meters) being the highest point.
❖ The Eastern Ghats intersect with the Western Ghats at Sathyamangalam
Tiger Reserve.

37
45. In India, the radial drainage pattern could be found in which of the following
places?
A. Amarkantak Hills
B. Girnar Hills
C. Mikir Hills
D. Western Ghats

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

ANSWER: (1)

Explanation:

❖ Drainage Pattern
o It refers to the system of flow of surface water mainly through
the forms of rivers and basins.
❖ Radial Drainage Pattern:
o The radial drainage pattern develops around a central elevated
point and is common to conically shaped features such as
volcanoes.
o When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the
drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’.
o E.g. The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range; Narmada
and Son (tributary of Ganga), Amarkantak Hills, Girnar Hills and
Mikir Hills.

38
46. Consider the following statements:

A. Kodagu is the only district in Karnataka where there is no railway line

present.
B. E. Sreedharan is known as father of Konkan Railway.
C. The district of Raichur does not have a national highway running through
it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (4)

Explanation:

❖ Kodagu is the only district in Karnataka where there is no railway line

present.
❖ E. Sreedharan is known as father of Konkan Railway.
❖ Raichur and Kodagu do not have a national highway running through it.

47. Consider the following industries in Karnataka:

A. The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant was the first iron and steel factory
established in Bhadravathi, Karnataka. (1923)
B. Haveri is called as the ‘Manchester of Karnataka’ due to its numerous
cotton mills.

39
 C. Karnataka is the leading raw silk producer in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) B only
(2) A and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant
• It is located in the city of Bhadravathi, Karnataka in India.
• It was started as the ‘Mysore Iron Works’ on January 18, 1923, by Sir M
Visvesvaraya.
• It is located far from the country's main coal-producing areas.

Manchester of Karnataka

❖ Davangere is called as Manchester of Karnataka.

❖ It is called so due to its numerous cotton mills, many of which were of
national and international repute.
❖ Availability of cotton led to the establishment of many cotton mills in the
city.

Karnataka as a silk producer

❖ Karnataka produces the most raw silk (65 %)

❖ Major Silk Centres: Tumakuru, Doddaballapur, Bengaluru and Mysuru.
❖ India is the second-largest producer of silk in the world.

48. Consider the following regions in India.

40
 A. Kuttanad of Kerala
B. Koraput of Odisha
C. Pampore of Kashmir

Which one of the following categories rightly indicate the given above regions of
India?

(1) Regions known for products obtained the status of Geographical Indication
Tag
(2) Regions known for Globally Important Agricultural Heritage systems
(3) Only Regions having Mean Sea Level above 2000 meters with an
agricultural aspect
(4) Successful regions for Organic farming and dryland farming in India

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)
❖ GIAHS was started by the Food and Agricultural Organization.
❖ GIAHS are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine
agricultural biodiversity, resilient ecosystems, and a valuable cultural
heritage.

❖ Three recognised GIAHS sites in India:

➢ Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.

➢ Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.

➢ Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.

49. With reference to India, the locally known rainfall 'mahawat' occurs
mainly due to

41
 (1) Southwest monsoon
(2) Northeast monsoon
(3) Western disturbances
(4) Depression in the Bay of Bengal

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Mahawat
❖ Winter rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh is
locally known as ‘mahawat’.
❖ Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for Rabi crops.
❖ The locally known rainfall 'mahawat' occurs mainly due to Western
disturbances.

50. Which of the following developmental works were undertaken during the
administration of Diwan Sir M. Visvesvaraya?
A. Establishment of Mysore Bank
B. Establishment of Kannada Sahitya Parishattu
C. Construction of Vani Vilasa Sagar dam on Vedavati River.
D. Construction of KRS Dam on Kaveri River.
E. Construction of famous Brindavan Gardens in KRS dam.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, D and E only

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:

42
Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya

❖ In memory of the contributions of Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, 15th

September is celebrated as Engineers Day.
❖ He served as the 19th Diwan of Mysore, from 1912 to 1919.
❖ He was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1955.
❖ He built the famous Krishnaraja Sagara (KRS) dam in Mysore.
❖ He established Mysore Bank.
❖ He established Kannada Sahitya Parishattu.
❖ Vani Vilasa Sagara across the river Vedavathi was built by
the Mysore Maharajas during pre-independence era. The project was
initiated by the regent Queen Maharani Kempa Nanjammani Vani Vilasa
Sannidhana, who was a widow of Maharaja Chamaraaja Wadiyar. She is
known for her exemplary social works.
❖ Sir Mirza Ismail, the Diwan of Mysore, a man with a penchant for gardens,
founded the Brindavan Gardens.

51. Consider the following statements:

A. In India, Panchayat Raj was first established in Nagour district of
Rajasthan.
B. 73rd amendment act has given practical shape to Article 39 of directive
principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:

43
 ❖ Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) is a system of rural local self-government
in India.
❖ National Development Council, in an effort to organize and reconstruct
local self-government at rural level appointed a committee headed by
Balwant Rai Mehta (1957) to come up with recommendations regarding
the same.
❖ PRI was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grass roots level and was entrusted
with the task of rural development in the country.
❖ The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of Rajasthan in
Nagour district on 2nd Oct 1959. The second state was Andhra Pradesh.
❖ This amendment implements the article 40 of the DPSP which says that
“State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with
such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function
as units of self-government”.

52. Consider the following statements about the Constitution (Seventy-third

Amendment) Act, 1992:
A. It provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati raj in every state.
B. It added a new Schedule to the Constitution with18 functional items of the
panchayats.
C. One-third of the total number of seats to be reserved for women in
panchayats elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) B and C only

(2) C only

(3) A only

(4) A, B and C

44
ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament
in December 1992. Through these amendments, local self-governance was
introduced in rural and urban India.
❖ It provides for three-tier system of panchayats at village, intermediate
block/taluk/mandal and district levels except in States where population is
below 20 lakhs (Article 243B).
❖ Seats at all levels are to be filled by direct elections under Article 243C (2).
❖ One-third of the total number of seats to be reserved for women.
❖ The Eleventh Scheduled of the Constitution places as many as 29
functions within the purview of the Panchayati Raj bodies.

53. Which of the following committee is NOT related to Panchayat Raj system?
(1) Balawant Rai Mehta committee

(2) L. M. Singvi committee

(3) Tarapore committee

(4) Gadgil Committee

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) was the first committee that
recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘Democratic
Decentralization’ which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
❖ L M Singhvi Committee:
o The committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1986
with the main objective to recommend steps to revitalise the
Panchayati Raj systems for democracy and development.

45
 o The committee recommended that the Panchayati Raj systems
should be constitutionally recognised. It also recommended
constitutional provisions to recognise free and fair elections for the
Panchayati Raj systems.
❖ Gadgil Committee
o In 1988, the Congress government set up a committee on policy and
Programmes under the chairmanship of V.N.Gadgil.

Its recommendations were as follows:

o The Panchayati Raj institutions should be given constitutional status.
o Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered structure with panchayats at the
village, block, and district levels.
o Panchayati Raj institutions should be given a five-year term.
o At all three levels, members of the Panchayats should be directly
elected.
o Women, SCs, and STs should be provided adequate reservation.
o The creation of a State Finance Commission to oversee the
distribution of funds to the Panchayats.
o Establishment of a State Election Commission to oversee the
conduct of panchayat elections.
❖ Tarapore committee:
o The Reserve Bank of India established the S.S Tarapore Committee
to propose a roadmap for full convertibility of the rupee on the
capital account.

54. Which of the following are the provisions of the 73rd constitutional
amendment Act?
A. SC/ST reservation to be provided in panchayat elections at all the three
tiers in accordance with their population percentage.

46
 B. The members elected through by-election will hold office only for the
remaining term.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
o Reservation of seats:
o For SC and ST: Reservation to be provided at all the three tiers in
accordance with their population percentage.
o For women: Not less than one-third of the total number of seats to
be reserved for women, further not less than one-third of the total
number of offices for chairperson at all levels of the panchayat to be
reserved for women.
o The state legislatures are also given the provision to decide on the
reservation of seats in any level of panchayat or office of chairperson
in favour of backward classes.
❖ The Act provides for a five-year term of office to all the levels of the
panchayat. However, the panchayat can be dissolved before the completion
of its term.
❖ But fresh elections to constitute the new panchayat shall be completed –
o before the expiry of its five-year duration.
o in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months
from the date of its dissolution.

47
 ❖ The members elected through by-election will hold office only for the
remaining term.

55. Which of the following factors are considered while creating Union
territories?
A. Cultural distinctiveness
B. Strategic importance
C. Special treatment for backward and tribal people
D. If the area is in conflict between two states
E. Political and administrative consideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A, B, D and E only

(2) A, B, C and E only

(3) A, B and E only

(4) B. C, D and E only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ A Union Territory (UTs) is a type of administrative division in the
Republic of India.
❖ The States Reorganization Act of 1956 established the UTs. The
Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act of 1956 introduced the concept of
the UT.
❖ The union territories have been created for a variety of reasons. These are
mentioned below:
o Political and administrative considerations – Delhi and Chandigarh.
o Cultural distinctiveness – Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and
Daman and Diu.

48
 o Strategic Importance – Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
Lakshadweep.
o Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people –
Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later
became states.

56. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
A. Part VIII of the Indian constitution deals with the union territories of India.
B. The administration of every Union Territory shall be done by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ Article 239 to 241 (Part VIII) deals with Union Territories of India.
❖ Andaman and Nicobar Island was the first UT of Independent India
(1956).
❖ There is no uniformity in administrative system of UTs.
❖ Every UT is administered by the President acting through an administrator
(agent of the President and not head of state) appointed by him (Art 239).
❖ President can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an
adjoining union territory.
❖ Lieutenant Governor -> Delhi, Puducherry, A&N Islands, J&K and
Ladakh.
❖ Administrator -> Chandigarh, Dadra-Nagar Haveli and Daman-Diu and
Lakshadweep.

49
57. Choose the wrong one from the following:
(1) Lakshadweep is under the jurisdiction of Kerala high Court.

(2) Andaman Nicobar is under the jurisdiction of Madras high court.

(3) Daman and Diu is under the jurisdiction of Bombay high court.

(4) Puducherry is under the jurisdiction of Madras high court.

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

Union Territories Jurisdiction of High court (HC)

1 Andaman & Nicobar Calcutta High Court
Islands
2 Delhi Delhi High Court
3 Dadar & Nagar Haveli – Bombay High Court
Daman & Diu
4 Chandigarh High Court of Punjab &
Haryana
5 Puducherry Madras High court
6 Lakshadweep Kerala High court
7 Jammu and Kashmir Jammu and Kashmir High court

8 Ladakh Jammu and Kashmir High court

58. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

50
 A. The 69th Constitutional amendment provided special status to union
territory of Delhi designated it as National Capital Territory of Delhi.
B. The strength of the council of ministers of Delhi is fixed 15% of total
strength of the assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ The Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act of 1991 accorded a special status to the
Union Territory of Delhi by designing it as the National Capital Territory
of Delhi.
❖ Further, it says that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the
Chief Minister of the state which will ‘aid and advise’ the Lieutenant
Governor.
❖ As per article 239AA of Indian Constitution, the number of ministers
cannot exceed ten percent of Delhi assembly seats. Therefore, there can be
a maximum of seven Ministers (10% of 70 Delhi assembly seats).

59. Consider following statements about the Autonomous District Councils under
the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
A. They do not have judicial powers within the state.
B. In general, they have up to 30 members with a term of five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

51
 (3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Presently, 10 Autonomous Councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
and Tripura are formed by virtue of the Sixth Schedule.
❖ Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of up to 30
members.
❖ Autonomous district councils have judicial powers within the state.

60. U. N. Dhebar commission and Dilip Singh Bhuria commission are related to
which of the following?
(1) Study related to Union Territories

(2) Study related to Border states

(3) Study related to reservations

(4) Study related to Minority issues.

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:

❖ The Constitution requires president to appoint a commission to report on

the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled
tribes.
❖ Hence in 1960, a commission was appointed that was headed by U. N
Debhar.
❖ Second commission was appointed in 2002 under the chairmanship of
Dilip Singh Bhuria.

52
61. Consider the following statements about the urban local governments in India:
A. All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people
of the municipal area.
B. Only the Supreme Court and the High Courts can interfere in the electoral
matters of municipalities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ The system of Municipalities or Urban Local Governments was
constitutionalized through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of
1992.
❖ The provisions in this amendment are included in Part IXA. Therefore, it
gave a constitutional foundation to the local self-government units in urban
areas.
❖ All the members of municipality shall be elected directly by the people
of municipal area.
❖ For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial
constituencies to be known as wards.
❖ The state legislature may provide the manner of election of chairperson of
a municipality.
❖ Only the Supreme Court and the High Courts can interfere in the
electoral matters of municipalities.

53
62. Consider the following statements about the local governments in India:
A. The provisions of the Panchayat Raj part are generally not applicable to the
Union Territories.
B. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as a member of panchayat
on the ground he is less than 21 years of age.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ The provisions of the Panchayat Raj part are generally not applicable to
the Union Territories. But the President may direct that they would apply
to a union territory subject to such exceptions and modifications as he
may specify.
❖ The minimum eligible age to contest panchayat raj election is 21 years.
❖ Further, all questions relating to disqualification shall be referred to an
authority determined by the state legislatures.

63. With reference to the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act,
1996 consider the following statements:
A. Based on the recommendations of Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee, PESA

Act was enacted in 1996.

B. PESA Act is applicable to sixth schedule areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

54
 (3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ Government sets up Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee for extending the
provisions of 73rd and 74th amendments to scheduled areas. Based on
the recommendations of this committee PESA act is formulated.

Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996:

❖ The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 “to provide for the extension of the
provisions of Part IX of the Constitution related to the Panchayats to the
Scheduled Areas”.
❖ It is now applicable in the Fifth Schedule areas, which deals with the
administration of the districts dominated by the tribal communities and is
in force in 10 states of the country.
❖ Fifth Schedule states include Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra
Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Rajasthan and Telangana.

Objectives
o To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to
the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas with certain modifications.
o To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population.
o To have village governance with participatory democracy and to
make the Gram Sabha a nucleus of all activities.
o To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with
traditional practices.
o To safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of tribal
communities.

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64. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
A. Power to manage village markets.

B. Ownership of minor forest produce.

C. Enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of

any intoxicant.
D. Exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A and D only

(2) B and D only

(3) A, B, C and D

(4) A, B and D only

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996.
❖ The Gram Sabhas under PESA Act were entrusted with wide-ranging
powers to:
o Enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and
consumption of any intoxicant.
o Ownership of minor forest produce.
o Prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take
appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a
Scheduled Tribe.
o Manage village markets by whatever name they are called.
o Exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes.

56
 o Exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social
sectors.
o Control over local plans and resources for such plans including tribal
sub-plans.

65. Consider the following statements about the Union Territories in India:
A. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union
Territories.
B. Administrator's Advisory Committee of the Union Territories is chaired by
the union Home minister.

Which of the above statements above are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:

❖ All the six Union Territories without legislature have the forum of Home
Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC) and Administrator's Advisory
Committee (AAC).
❖ While HMAC is chaired by the union home minister, Administrator's
Advisory Committee (AAC) is chaired by the Administrator of the
concerned UTS.
❖ The Member of Parliament and elected members from the local bodies are
members of these committees.

57
 ❖ The Committee discusses the general issues relating to social and
economic development of the UTS

66. Consider the following statements about the Union Territories in India:
A. Presently there are eight union territories in India.
B. Among the union territories of India, only 2 have legislative assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ Union Territories (UTs) are federal territories and are administered by
the Union Government of India. They are also known as centrally
administered territories.
❖ The UTs were introduced in the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The
concept of the UT was added by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment)
Act, 1956.
❖ India currently has 8 Union Territories (UTs) – Delhi, Andaman and
Nicobar, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu,
Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry.
❖ Among eight union territories only the National Capital Territory of
Delhi, Union Territory of Puducherry and Union Territory of Jammu
& Kashmir have legislative assemblies.

58
67. The 83rd Amendment of Indian constitution amended Article 243 M to
provide that no reservation in Panchayats be made in favour of SC/ST in which
state?
(1) Orissa

(2) Arunachal Pradesh

(3) Meghalaya

(4) Nagaland

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The provision relating to the reservation of seats in panchayats (both
members and chairpersons) for the scheduled castes is not applicable to
the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
❖ This is because the state is inhabited fully by indigenous tribal people and
there are no scheduled castes. This provision was added later by the 83rd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000.

68. Consider the following statements about the State Election Commission in
India:
A. State election commissioner can be appointed by President of India.
B. Establishment of State Election Commission is the voluntary provision
under 73rd constitutional amendment act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

59
ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
State Election Commission:
❖ Establishment of State Election Commission is the compulsory provision
under 73rd constitutional amendment act.
❖ The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral
rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in
the state election commission.
❖ It consists of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the
Governor.
❖ His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by
the Governor.

69. Consider the following statements:

A. First Municipal Corporation in India was set up at Madras.
B. Lord Mayo is called as the father of local self-government in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation.
❖ The institutions of urban local government originated and developed in
modern India during the period of British rule.
❖ In 1688, the first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras.
❖ In 1726, the municipal corporations were set up in Bombay and Calcutta.

60
 ❖ Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of
local self-government. He is called as the father of local-self-government
in India.
❖ The Royal Commission on decentralization was appointed in 1907 and it
submitted its report in 1909. Its chairman was Hobhouse.

70. Which of the below is a correct statement regarding inferior goods?

(1) Demand of a goods decreases with increases in people's income
(2) Demand of a goods increases with increases in people's income
(3) Demand of a goods decreases with decrease in people's income
(4) Demand of a goods increase with decrease in people's income

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ An inferior goods is an economic term that describes a goods whose
demand drops when people’s incomes rise.
❖ An inferior good is one whose demand drops when people's incomes rise.
❖ When incomes are low or the economy contracts, inferior goods become a
more affordable substitute for a more expensive good.
❖ Inferior goods may refer to the brand of products purchased, items
purchased, or instance of how something occurs (i.e., taking a bus vs.
driving a new car).
❖ Inferior goods are the opposite of normal goods, whose demand
increases even when incomes increase.
❖ Inferior goods also oppose luxury goods, items of higher quality often sold
at a premium that are not needed.

71. Recently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the Repo rate.
Generally, it indicates that

61
 A. The central bank is following tight monetary policy.
B. It leads to decrease in the interest rate of banks.

Which of the statement(s) give above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ A contractionary monetary policy is focused on contracting (decreasing)
the money supply in an economy. This is also known as Tight Monetary
Policy.
❖ Tight monetary policy refers to the actions that a central bank takes to limit
inflation. When RBI adopts a contractionary monetary policy, it increases
Policy Rates (Interest Rates) like Repo, Reverse Repo, MSF, Bank
Rate etc.
❖ When monetary policy is tightened, the interest rates are increased by the
central bank and money supply is reduced. It leads to increase in the
interest rate of banks as well.

72. With reference to the "National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development" (NaBFID) consider the following statements:
A. It is established as a principal Development Financial Institution (DFIs)
for infrastructure financing.
B. It is placed under the purview of the Department of Economic Affairs.

Which of the statement(s) give above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

62
 (3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development
(NaBFID) is established as the principal Development Financial
Institution (DFIs) for infrastructure financing.
❖ NaBFID was announced in the Budget 2021.
❖ NaBFID will be governed by a Board of Directors. The Chairperson will
be appointed by the central government in consultation with RBI.
❖ It is placed under the purview of the Department of Financial Services.

73. In a business scenario, practice of reducing the size of a product while

maintaining its sticker price is known as
(1) Skimpflation

(2) Shrinkflation

(3) Scrapflation

(4) Stagflation

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Skimpflation is related to the practice of reducing the quality of products
while continuing to market them at the same.
❖ Shrinkflation is the practice of reducing a product's amount or volume per
unit while continuing to offer it at the same price.
❖ Stagflation is the simultaneous appearance in an economy of slow growth,
high unemployment, and rising prices.
❖ Scrapflation describes changes in the composition of a product while
price, quantity, and quality remain the same.

63
74. Consider the following statements regarding the Neobanks:
A. They are the fintech firms, with only a digital presence.
B. They do not have a bank license of their own.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (3)
❖ A Neobank is a kind of digital bank without any branches. Rather than
being physically present at a specific location, neobanking is entirely
online.
❖ They leverage technology and artificial intelligence to offer personalized
services to customers while minimizing operating costs.
❖ In India, these firms don't have a bank license of their own but rely on
bank partners to offer licensed services.
❖ These neobanks also offer branded debit cards.

75. Consider the following statements related to Banking system of India:

A. C. D. Deshmukh became first Indian governor of Reserve Bank of India.
B. Imperial bank was nationalized and renamed State Bank of India in 1955.
C. Presently, State Bank of Sikkim is with in RBI’s regulatory powers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A and C only

(2) A and B only

(3) C only

64
 (4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance
with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
❖ The inaugural officeholder was the British banker Sir Osborne Smith,
while Sir C. D. Deshmukh was the first native Indian governor.
❖ Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India after
nationalization in the year 1955.
❖ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought the State Bank of Sikkim
under its regulation in 2021.
❖ It was not regulated by Reserve Bank of India unlike other banks until
February 21, 2021.

76. Consider the following statements:

A. There is no minimum or maximum ceiling for Cash Reserve Ratio
(CRR).
B. Statutory liquidity ratio is mandated under RBI act, 1934
C. Banks must keep CRR deposits with RBI

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A only

(2) A and C only

(3) B and C only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

65
 ❖ Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): Banks must keep this deposit with RBI.
RBI doesn’t pay interest on it. RBI can fix any amount of CRR, legally
there is no minimum or maximum ceiling.
❖ Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of deposits
that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold
or other securities. It is mandated under Banking regulation act, 1949.

77. Which of the following measures of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) will
help in controlling the Inflation in the economy?
A. Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
B. Increase in Bank rate
C. Increase in Repo rate
D. Decrease in Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code:

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) A, C and D only

(4) A, B and C only

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ In economics, inflation (or less frequently, price inflation) is a general rise
in the price level of an economy over a period of time.
❖ Measures of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) will help in controlling
the Inflation by Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Increase in Bank
rate, Increase in Repo rate.
❖ Higher CRR, Bank rate and Repo rate means a lower amount of money
available with banks to lend out or invest in turn it lowers the liquidity thus
it helps to control the inflation.

66
78. Consider the following statements related to Economic survey:
A. It is prepared by Chief Economic Advisor of the Department of Economic
Affairs.
B. An Economic Survey is a six-volume document
C. There is a constitutional obligation to prepare and present this in parliament
a day before the Union Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A, B only

(2) A only

(3) C only

(4) B and C only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ An Economic Survey is a two-volume document prepared by the Chief
Economic Advisor of the Department of Economic Affairs.
❖ There is no constitutional obligation to prepare or present Economic
Survey but usually, it is tabled in the parliament a day before the Union
Budget.

79. Consider the following statements regarding Bhoota Kola:

A. It is a regional version of Yakshagana, a theatre form that primarily
originated from Kerala.
B. During the performance, local folklore called ‘paddanas’ are often recited.
C. It is worshipped by Tulu people.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A, B and C

(2) B and C only

67
 (3) C only

(4) B only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ Bhoota Kola is an annual ritual performance where local spirits or deities
are worshipped.
❖ There are several ‘Bhootas’ who are worshipped in the Tulu-speaking belt
of Dakshina Kannada, Uttara Kannada and Udupi districts.
❖ It is usually performed in small local communities and rural areas.
❖ The divine medium starts their traditional performances as the local
folklore called ‘paddanas’ are recited.
❖ The Kola (or dance performance for the Gods) is basically performed in an
area near the temple of the village deity which is usually close to large open
fields.
❖ The ritual involves music, dance, recital, and elaborate costumes.
❖ It is not a regional version of Yakshagana.
❖ The names of the few popular boothas are Panjurli, Bobbarya, Pilibootha,
Koti Chennaiah, Kalkuda, etc.

80. Endosulfan is often seen in the news in India. It is in the context of —

(1) Genetically modified crops

(2) Bio-weedicide

(3) An insecticide which leads to physical deformities from birth

(4) Alien invasive species

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ Endosulfan is an organochlorine insecticide which was first introduced in
the 1950s and is commonly known by its trade name Thiodan.

68
 ❖ It is linked to a slew of grave medical conditions, such as neurotoxicity,
physical deformities, poisoning and more.
❖ It is sprayed on crops like cotton, cashew, fruits, tea, paddy, tobacco etc.
for control of pests such as whiteflies, aphids, beetles, worms etc.
❖ Endosulfan is listed under both the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior
Informed Consent and the Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants.

81. Which of the following Reports & Indices are released by the National
Statistical Office (NSO)?
A. Wholesale price Index (WPI)
B. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
C. Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) merged with the Central
Statistical Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
❖ NSO is headed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MOSPI).
❖ Consumer Price Index (CPI), Index of Industrial Production (IIP), Periodic
Labour Force Survey (PLFS) are released by the National Statistical Office
(NSO).

69
 ❖ Wholesale price Index (WPI) is released by the Office of Economic
Advisor under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

82. Which of the following is NOT an example of direct tax?

(1) Corporate Tax

(2) Service Tax

(3) Income Tax

(4) Security Transaction Tax

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer and paid directly
to the government by those who are subjected to it.
❖ The Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and
collecting direct taxes as well as formulating other direct tax policies.
❖ A taxpayer pays a government a direct tax for a variety of reasons, such as
real property tax, personal property tax, income tax or asset taxes, Gift
Tax, Capital Gains Tax, and so on.
❖ An indirect tax is a tax that is collected through a middleman from the
person who suffers the tax's ultimate economic burden.
❖ Examples of an Indirect Tax: Sales Taxes, Excise Taxes, Value-Added
Taxes (VAT), Gross Receipts Tax, Service Tax, Customs Duty, Excise
Duty, Value Added Tax, Goods and Services Tax.
❖ Examples of a direct Tax: Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Minimum
Alternate Tax, Capital Gain Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, Commodities
Transaction Tax, Alternate Minimum Tax.

70
83. Consider the following statements related to Goods and Services Tax (GST):
A. GST has subsumed direct taxes.
B. GST Council was set up under Article 279A (1).
C. Excise duty on liquor, stamp duty and electricity taxes are exempted
from GST.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(1) A Only

(2) B and C Only

(3) A and B only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ The Goods and Services Tax has subsumed indirect taxes like excise duty,
Value Added Tax (VAT), service tax, luxury tax etc. It is essentially a
consumption tax and is levied at the final consumption point.

❖ GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A, introduced by

the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
❖ Exemptions under GST

o Petroleum and tobacco products are currently exempted.

o Excise duty on liquor, stamp duty and electricity taxes are also exempted.

84. Consider following statements

A. NABARD, NHB, SIDBI and EXIM banks are 100% owned by
government.

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 B. NABARD was established on the recommendations of B Sivaramman
Committee.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
❖ EXIM BANK, NABARD and NHB are 100% owned by government of
India. While SIDBI is owned by SBI, LIC, IDBI other public sector banks,
insurance companies.
❖ NABARD came into existence on 12 July 1982 by transferring the
agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then
Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
❖ It was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt.
Indira Gandhi on 05 November 1982. Set up with an initial capital of
Rs.100 crore, its’ paid-up capital stood at Rs.17,080 crore as on 31 March
2022.
❖ Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between
Government of India and RBI, NABARD today is fully owned by
Government of India.
❖ NABARD’s initiatives are aimed at building an empowered and financially
inclusive rural India through specific goal-oriented departments which
can be categorized broadly into three heads: Financial,
Developmental and Supervision.
❖ NABARD was established on the recommendations of B Sivaraman
Committee.

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85.With reference to Priority Sector Lending (PSL), which of the following
constitute PSL?
A. Agriculture
B. Export credit
C. Social infrastructure
D. Renewable Energy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(1) A and C only

(2) A, B and C only

(3) B, C and D only

(4) A, B, C and D

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Priority Sector refers to those sectors which the Government of India and
Reserve Bank of India consider as important for the development of the
basic needs of the country.
❖ Different Categories of the Priority Sector are Agriculture, Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social
Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, Others
❖ The provisions of "Priority Sector Lending" shall apply to Regional Rural
Banks, Small Finance Bank, Local Area Banks, Urban Co-operative
Banks, Commercial banks, etc.

86. In which of the following organizations, both India and Japan have common
membership?
A. Asia – Africa Growth corridor

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 B. G-4 Nations

C. East Asia summit

D. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)

Select the correct answer using code below.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A, B and D

(4) A, B, C and D

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ India and Japan share a global vision of peace, stability, and shared
prosperity, based on sustainable development.
❖ The G4 is a group of four countries- Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan–
aspiring to become permanent members of the United Nations Security
Council (UNSC).
❖ Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is the informal strategic dialogue
between India, USA, Japan, and Australia with a shared objective to
ensure and support a “free, open and prosperous” Indo-Pacific region.
❖ The Asia-Africa Growth Corridor is an agreement between India-Japan for
the socio-economic development of Asia and Africa.
❖ East Asia Summit comprises the ten member states of the ASEAN
(Association of Southeast Asian Nations) which are Brunei, Cambodia,
Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand, and Vietnam, along with 8 other countries namely Australia,
China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the
USA.

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87. ‘Senna spectabilis’, recently seen in news is a/an:
(1) Invasive species

(2) Extinct species

(3) Keystone species

(4) A disease associated with monkeys

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ Senna spectabilis is a plant species of the legume family (Fabaceae) native
to South and Central America.
❖ They are often grown as an ornamental in front yards, parks, gardens,
buildings etc. due to their bright yellow flowers that bloom during the
summer months.
❖ The plant has become an invasive alien species in parts of Africa and
South Asia after it was introduced for resources such as firewood as well
as to help combat deteriorating ecosystems affected by deforestation
and desertification.
❖ Senna spectabilis has taken over between 800 hectares and 1,200 hectares
of the buffer zones of the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) in the
picturesque Nilgiris hill district.

88. Recently, ‘Hybrid DMH 11’ crop in news, is related to

(1) Wheat

(2) Mustard

(3) Corn

(4) Cotton

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

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Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) has approved the
“environmental release” of indigenously developed genetically modified (GM)
Mustard Seeds.
DMH (Dhara Mustard Hybrid)-11
❖ DMH (Dhara Mustard Hybrid)-11 is a genetically modified variety of
mustard developed at the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop
Plants by Deepak Pental, a scientist and former vice-chancellor of Delhi
University.
❖ The process of Hybridisation involves crossing two genetically dissimilar
plant varieties that can be from the same species. The first-generation (F1)
offspring from such crosses generally have higher yields than what either
individual parent can yield.
❖ Likewise, the hybrid mustard DMH-11 contains two alien genes isolated
from a soil bacterium called Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.
❖ The respective genes are ‘barnase’ and ‘barstar’.
❖ Barnase codes for a protein that impairs pollen production and renders the
plant into which it is incorporated male-sterile. This plant is then crossed
with a fertile parental line containing, in turn, the second ‘barstar’ gene that
blocks the action of the barnase gene.
❖ The resultant F1 progeny is both high yielding as well as capable of
producing seed/ grain. It is capable of seed production as the barstar gene
is present in the second fertile line.

89. India’s first-ever wildlife sanctuary for the slender loris was recently declared
to be set up in
(1) Gujarat

(2) Telangana

(3) Karnataka

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 (4) Tamil Nadu

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ The state government of Tamil Nadu has notified the establishment of
Kadavur Slender Loris Sanctuary.
❖ The slender lorises (Loris) are a genus of loris native to India and Sri
Lanka.
❖ Slender lorises spend most of their life in trees, traveling along the tops of
branches with slow and precise movements.
❖ They generally feed on insects, reptiles, plant shoots, and fruit.
❖ They are found in tropical rainforests, scrub forests, semi-deciduous
forests, and swamps.

90. Consider the following pairs.

Famous Place River
A. Dharmasthala Netravati
B. Kukke Subrahmanya Kumaradhara
C. Hampi Tungabhadra

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B & C

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ The Netravati River has its origins at Bangrabalige valley, Yelaneeru
Ghat in Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka, India. This
river flows through the famous pilgrimage place Dharmasthala.

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 ❖ The Kumaradhara River passes through two major towns: Kukke
Subrahmanya and Uppinangadi.
❖ The Tungabhadra River passes through historical site of Hampi.

91. Consider the following statements regarding the currency depreciation in

India:
A. Currency depreciation increases the country’s export activity.
B. Imports become cheaper
C. Tourism to abroad becomes expensive

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) B and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ Currency depreciation means a fall in the value of domestic currency,
that is, rise in exchange rate.
❖ Economic effects of currency depreciation:
o Exports become cheaper
o Imports become expensive
o Tourism abroad becomes expensive
o Investments abroad becomes expensive
o Sending remittances abroad becomes expensive while those on
receiving end are gainers as they get more rupees in exchange for
foreign exchange.

92. Which of the following statements about Tuberculosis (TB) is/are correct?

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 A. It is a viral disease that affects lungs of humans.
B. There is no vaccine for TB.
C. TB is highly transmissible, especially in air.
Select the correct option from the code given below:

(1) A only

(2) B and C only

(3) C only

(4) A and C only

ANSWER: (3)

Explanation:

❖ TB is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

❖ TB most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB)
❖ TB is spread from person to person through the air. When people with
lung TB cough, sneeze or spit, they propel the TB germs into the air.

❖ BCG vaccine is presently the vaccine available for the prevention

of Tuberculosis (TB).

93. Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal
(NGT):

A. It is a statutory body.
B. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6
months of filing the same.
C. The decisions of NGT are binding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A and B only

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 (2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B and C

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
NGT (National Green Tribunal)
❖ It is a statutory body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act,
2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to
environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural
resources.
❖ NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within
6 months of the filing of the same.
❖ The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural
justice.
❖ The decisions of NGT are binding. The Tribunal's orders are enforceable
as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.
❖ New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal,
Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai shall be the other four place of sitting of the
Tribunal.
❖ The Tribunal is headed by the Chairperson who sits in the Principal Bench
and has at least ten but not more than twenty judicial members and at least
ten but not more than twenty expert members.
❖ The chairperson, judicial members and Expert members shall hold
office for a term of 5 years and are not eligible for reappointment. All the
members are appointed by the Central Government.

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94. Stagflation is characterized by which of the following?

A. Low Employment
B. High Inflation
C. Low Demand
D. Slow economic growth rate

Select the correct answer using the following options:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B, C and D

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Stagflation is an economic condition when stagnant economic growth,
high unemployment, and high inflation combine together. Simply put,
stagflation is a situation of stagnant growth and rising inflation.
❖ It is described as a situation in the economy where the economic growth
rate slows down, the level of unemployment remains steadily high and yet
the inflation remains high and there exists low demand at the same time.

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95. Phillips Curve describes the relationship between unemployment and
inflation. Which of the following is the relationship established by the curve?
A. Lower the inflation, higher the unemployment.
B. Higher the inflation, lower the unemployment.
C. Higher the inflation, higher the unemployment.
D. Lower the inflation, lower the unemployment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A only

(2) C only inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of
inflation in an economy.
(3) A and B only

(4) C and D only

ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
❖ The Phillips curve is a graphic representation of the inverse
relationship between unemployment and inflation.
❖ According to the hypothesis, the lower the unemployment rate, the
higher the rate of inflation, and vice versa.
❖ As a result, high levels of employment can only be obtained when
inflation is high.

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding India’s

commitment towards climate action announced by the Prime Minister at the 26th
Conference of Parties of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change at Glasgow in 2021?
A. Reach 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030.
B. 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
C. Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from
now to 2030.

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 D. Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2030.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) C and D only

(3) A and B only

(4) A, C and D only

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:
❖ The Government of India has articulated and put across the concerns of
developing countries at the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties
(COP26) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) held recently in Glasgow, United Kingdom.

Five Nectar Elements (Panchamrit):

o India has presented the following five nectar elements (Panchamrit) of
India’s climate action:
(1) Reach 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030.

(2) 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.

(3) Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from

now to 2030.
(4) Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030,

over 2005 levels.

(5) Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2070.

97. Which one of the following is NOT the most likely measure the
Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(1) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports

(2) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds

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 (3) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

(4) Following an expansionary monetary policy.

ANSWER: (4)
Explanation:
❖ Global factors such as the Russia-Ukraine conflict, soaring crude oil
prices and tightening of global financial conditions are the major
reasons for the weakening of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
❖ With Expansionary of monetary policy there will be increase in money
supply, it leads to slide of Indian rupee against dollar.
❖ Government/RBI Steps in to Curb Rupee Fall.
• To cut non-essential imports and increase exports. These include steps to
curb the import of non-essential goods and encourage the export of
domestic goods, which will help in addressing the current account deficit.
• Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds
• Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing.

98. Consider the following statements regarding Glyphosate:

1. It is a key herbicide used in sugarcane and maize.

2. Recently, India has become the first country to ban Glyphosate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (1)
Explanation:

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 ❖ Glyphosate is an herbicide. It is applied to the leaves of plants to kill
weeds.
❖ Usage in India
➢ It has a very good market size in the tea sector of West Bengal and
Assam.
➢ Presently, its consumption is highest in Maharashtra as it is
becoming a key herbicide in sugarcane, maize and many fruit crops.
❖ In 2015, the Word Health Organization published a study that found
glyphosate “probably carcinogenic to humans”.
❖ France, Italy, and Vietnam banned its use after the finding.
❖ In India the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has restricted
the use of glyphosate, citing health hazards for humans and animals.
However, it is not banned.

99. Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

A. He was the first Home Minister of India.

B. The title 'Sardar' was conferred to Vallabhbhai Patel for his efforts in
Bardoli Satyagraha.
C. National Unity Day is celebrated every year on 31st October on his birth
anniversary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) B and C only

(2) A, B and C

(3) A and B only

(4) A and C only

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:

85
 ❖ Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime
Minister of India.
❖ It was women of Bardoli who bestowed the title Sardar for the first time,
which in Gujarati and most Indian languages means Chief or Leader.
❖ National Unity Day is celebrated in India on 31st October. The day is
celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel who
had a major role in the political integration of India.
❖ The Statue of Unity is built in honor of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

100. Consider the following statements regarding the National Payments

Corporation of India (NPCI):

A. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and State Bank of India

(SBI).
B. RuPay card payment scheme was launched by the NPCI.
(1) A only

(2) B only

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B

ANSWER: (2)
Explanation:
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
❖ It is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and
settlement systems in India.
❖ It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’
Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement
Systems Act, 2007.

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❖ Some of the current products that were launched under the National
Payments Corporation of India are
o RuPay
o National Common Mobility Card
o Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
o Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
o Bharat Bill Payment System.

87