CLASS 11TH (NEET)

MKNA/101 Milestone Test-1 Phase-1

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 11/06/2023 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Basic Maths & Calculus, Vector, Units & Dimension
Chemistry : Some basic concept of chemistry & Atomic Structure
Botany : Cell : The unit of Life
Zoology : Structural Organization in animals except Earthworm, Frog and Cockroach-Animal tissues basics
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section - II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section
B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

Space for rough work

 (Section-I) PHYSICS
SECTION – A 1
2
6. of I
Value = ∫ ( 2x + 1) dx is
0
1. The 10th term from the end in the AP 5, 8, 11,…. (1) 26 (2) 13
is 95 then the number of terms in the AP are 13 13
(1) 38 (2) 40 (3) (4)
2 3
(3) 42 (4) 43
7. ( ) dx
dy
If y = sin 3 3x 3 , will be
2. sin 20° sin 70° – cos 20° cos 70° = (1) cos3 ( 3x )
3

(1) 1 (2) 0
1 3
(2) ( )
sin 3 9x 2
(3) (4)
2 2 (3) 27x 2 sin 2 ( 3x 3 ) cos ( 3x 3 )

(4) 3sin 2 ( 3x 3 ) cos ( 3x 3 )

3. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the
following vectors 2iˆ + 2ˆj – kˆ and 6iˆ – 3jˆ + 2kˆ
8. The dimensional formula of gravitational constant
ˆi + 10ˆj – 18kˆ ˆi + 10ˆj + 18kˆ is
(1) (2)
5 17 5 17 (1)  M –1L3T –2  (2)  M 2 L2 T −2 
 
ˆi – 10ˆj – 18kˆ ˆi + 10ˆj + 18kˆ
(3) (4) (3)  ML3T −3  (4)  ML−3T −3 
5 17 5 17
9. Dimensional formula of force is
4. Figure shows ABCDEF as a regular hexagon. (1) [MLT–2] (2) [M–1LT]
     (3) [ML T]
–1
(4) [MLT–1]
What is the value of AB + AC + AD + AE + AF

10. Let=A A cos θˆi + A sin θˆj be any vector another
 
vector B which is perpendicular to A can be
expressed as
(1) Bcos θˆi – Bsin θˆj
  (2) Bsin θˆi – Bcos θˆj
(1) AO (2) 2AO
  (3) Bcos θˆi + Bsin θˆj
(3) 4AO (4) 6AO
(4) Bsin θˆi + Bcos θˆj
5. If dimension of A and B are different, then
which of the following operation is valid? 11. The value of sin ( –150° ) is
A 3 3
(1) (2) e –A/B (1) (2) –
B 2 2
(3) A− B (4) A+ B 1 1
(3) (4) –
2 2
Space for rough work
12. Which of the following may represent the curve 1 dy
x = 2y – 3 14. If y = sin x 2 , will be,
2 dx
1
(1) cos x 2 (2) x cos x 2
2
(1) 1 2
(3) x cos x 2 (4) sin x
2
π /2
15. Find out value of I = ∫ sin 2x dx
– π /2
(2)
(1) zero (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) 2

1
16. The dimension of is that of
(3) µ0 ∈0
(1) Velocity (2) Time
(3) Capacitance (4) Distance
  
17. If A = ˆi + ˆj and B = ˆi – k,
ˆ the angle between A
(4) 
and B is
(1) zero (2) 180°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
13. Which of the following can represent the curve  
x 2 = –2y? 18. If A 3iˆ – 4ˆj + kˆ and B = 4ˆj + piˆ + kˆ for what
=
 
value of p, A and B will be Perpendicular ?
(1) 3
(2) – 3
(1)
16
(3) –
3
 
(4) A and B cannot be collinear

(2) 19. Two sides of a triangle is represented by a = 3jˆ

and b = 2iˆ – k.
ˆ The area of triangle is
(1) 5 (2) 3 5
3
(3) (3) 5 (4) 5
2

20. The value of sin 30° is

(1) 0 (2) 1/2
(4) (3) 3 (4) 3/2

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[2]
21. Value of sin 2 60° is 28. If the resultant of n forces of different
(1) 1/4 (2) 3/4 magnitudes acting at a point is zero, then the
minimum value of n is
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/ 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
22. If two vectors 2iˆ + 3jˆ – kˆ and –4iˆ – 6ˆj – λkˆ are
parallel to each other then value of λ be 29. Can the resultant of 2 vectors be zero
(1) 0 (2) –2 (1) Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in
(3) 3 (4) 4 magnitude and direction
(2) No
  (3) Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in
23. Two vectors A and B are at right angles to
each other, when magnitude but opposite in sense
    (4) Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in magnitude
(1) A+B= 0 (2) A–B=0
    2π
(3) A×B = 0 (4) A.B = 0 making an angle of with each other
3
30. The dimensional formula for Linear momentum
24. The position vectors of points A, B, C and D are is
A = 3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5k,
ˆ B = 4iˆ + 5jˆ + 6k,C
ˆ = 7iˆ + 9ˆj + 3kˆ
(1) MLT –1 (2) M –1LT
and D= 4iˆ + 6ˆj then the displacement vectors (3) ML–1T (4) MLT –2
 
AB and CD are  
(1) Perpendicular 31. = –iˆ + 2ˆj then A will be
If A
(2) Parallel
(1) 5 (2) 5
(3) Antiparallel
(4) Inclined at an angle of 60° (3) 1 (4) 2

      32. The value of a unit vector in the direction of

25. If A × B =A.B , then angle between A and B
vector A = 5iˆ – 12ˆj, is
will be
(1) 30° (2) 45° (1) î (2) ĵ
(3) 60° (4) 90° (3) (i + ˆj) / 13 (4) (5iˆ – 12ˆj) / 13
  33. Find the approx. % relative error in Z, if
26. If A and B are perpendicular vectors and
     A4 B1/3
vector A= 5i + 7 j – 3k and B= 2iˆ + 2ˆj – ak.
ˆ Z= and the percentage error in the
CD 3/ 2
The value of a is measurements of A, B, C and D are 4%, 2%, 3%
(1) –2 (2) 8 and 1% respectively.
(3) –7 (4) –8 (1) 21 % (2) 15 %
 (3) 18 % (4) 25 %
27. If a vector P making angle α, β, and γ
respectively with the X, Y and Z axes 34. 0.4iˆ + 0.8jˆ + ckˆ represents a unit vector, where c
respectively. Then sin 2 α + sin 2 β + sin 2 γ = is-
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0.2 (2) 0.2
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) 0.8 (4) 0
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[3]
35. The component of a vector is:- 42. Position time curve of a particle moving along
(1) always less than its magnitude x-axis is as shown in x-t curve. The position of
(2) always greater than its magnitude particle at t = 4s will be,
(3) always equal to its magnitude
(4) none of these

  
SECTION – B

36. A i=
If = , B –2ˆj and C = kˆ , the value of
  
A + B + C is (1) 4 3m (2) 2 3m
(1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 2m (4) 1m
(3) 5 (4) 3 43. The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is
37. What is the component of 3iˆ + 4ˆj along ˆi + ˆj ? (1) 5 (2) 4
1 ˆ ˆ 3 ˆ ˆ (3) 2 (4) 3
(1)
2
( )
i+ j (2)
2
( )
i+ j
44. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and
5 ˆ ˆ 7 ˆ ˆ
(3)
2
( )
i+ j (4)
2
( )
i+ j 0.301 in appropriate significant figures is
(1) 663.821 (2) 664
 
38. If A + B is a unit vector along x-axis and (3) 663.8 (4) 663.82
 
=A ˆi – ˆj + k,
ˆ then what is B ?
ˆj + kˆ ˆj – kˆ 45. A child pulls a box with a force of 200 N at an angle
(1) (2) of 60° above the horizontal. Then the horizontal and
(3) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ (4) ˆi + ˆj – kˆ vertical compounds of the force are:-

39. The unit vector along ˆi + ˆj is:

(1) k̂ (2) ˆi + ˆj
ˆi + ˆj ˆi + ˆj
(3) (4)
2 2 (1) 100 N, 173.2 N (2) 86.6 N, 100 N
(3) 100 N, 86.6 N (4) 100 N, 0 N
40. The sum of the magnitude of two forces acting
at point is 18 and the magnitude of their 46. A force 𝐹𝐹 is given by F= at + bt 2 , where t is
resultant is 12. If the resultant is at 90° with the time. The dimensions of 𝑎𝑎 and 𝑏𝑏 are
force of smaller magnitude, what are the, (1)  MLT −3  and  MLT −4 
magnitudes of forces
(1) 12, 5 (2) 14, 4 (2)  MLT −1  and  MLT −3 
(3) 5, 13 (4) 10, 8 (3)  MLT −1  and  MLT −2 
41. The diameter of a wire is measured to be 0.0250 (4)  MLT −2  and  MLT 0 
× 10–4 m. The number of significant figures in
the measurement is
(1) five (2) four
(3) three (4) nine
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[4]
47. In terms of time 𝑡𝑡 and distance 𝑥𝑥, the force 𝐹𝐹 is 49. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant
given
= by F A sin ( ct ) + Bcos ( Dx ) then and that of moment of inertia has the dimensions
of
A C
dimensions of and are given by (1) angular momentum
B D (2) time
(1) [M0L0T0], [M0LT–1] (3) velocity
(2) [MLT–3], [M0L0T–1] (4) frequency
(3) [MLT–2], [M0L–1T0]
(4) [M0LT–1], [M0L0T0] 50. If energy (𝐸𝐸 ), velocity (𝑣𝑣 ) and time (𝑇𝑇 ) are
chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
48. The scalar quantity among the following is dimensional formula of surface tension will be
(1) weight of body
(1)  Ev −2T −1  (2)  Ev −1T −2 
(2) work
(3) elementary area (3)  Ev T   E −2v −1T −3 
−2 −2
(4)
(4) magnetic field strength

(Section - II) CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A 54. A gaseous hydrocarbon X was burnt in excess of
oxygen. A 0.112 dm3 sample of X, at 1 atm &
51. 4.6 1022 atoms of an elements weighs 13.8 gm. 273 K gave 0.88 gm of CO2.
The gram atomic mass of the elements is :  y y
C x H y   x  O 2  xCO 2  H 2 O
(1) 120 gm (2) 180 gm  4 2
(3) 35.5 gm (4) 108 gm Number of C-atoms in one molecule of X are –
(1) 1 (2) 2
52. In the reaction, (3) 3 (4) 4
4NH 3g  5O 2g  4NOg  6H 2 O l  , when
55. 16 g of SO x occupies 5.6 litre volume at S.T.P.
one mole of ammonia and one mole of O2 are
Assuming ideal gas nature, the value of x is :
made to react to completion.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1.0 mole of H 2 O is produced (3) 3 (4) None of these.
(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced.
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed 56. Spectral region for Balmer series
(4) None of these (1) Ultraviolet region
(2) Visible region
(3) Infrared region
53. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is (4) None.
given by the expression
57. n-factor of H 3 PO 4 , H 3 PO3 and H 3 PO 2 are
(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2
respectively
(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2n2
(1) 3, 2, 1 (2) 3, 3, 3
(3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 3, 2, 2
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[5]
58. No. of radial node for 4s orbital 64. Assertion (A) : Combustion of 16 g of methane
(1) 1 (2) 2 gives 18 g of water.
Reason (R) : In the combustion of methane,
(3) 3 (4) 4 water is one of the products.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
59. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at correct explanation of A
OºC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 2L (2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same
(4) Both A and R are false.
conditions ?
C3 H8  5O 2  3CO 2  4H 2 O 65. Photoelectric effect is observed if its
(1) incident frequency (v) > threshold frequency
(1) 7L (2) 6L (v0)
(3) 5L (4) 10 L (2) incident frequency (v) < threshold frequency
(v0)
(3) May be both (1) & (2)
60. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a
(4) None
compound are CH 2 O and 180 g respectively.
What will be the molecular formula of the
compound ? 66. Set of isoelectronic species is
(1) C9 H18 O9 (2) CH 2 O (1) N 2 ,CO 2 CN  ,O 2
(2) N, H 2S,CO
(3) C6 H12 O6 (4) C2 H 4 O2
(3) N 2 ,CO,CN  ,O22
(4) Ca, Mg, Cl
61. Which of the following species are paramagnetic
(1) Zn 2 (2) Cu  67. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B (19%) and
11
B (81%). Average atomic weight for boron in
(3) Cr 3 (D) Zn the periodic table is
(1) 10.8 (2) 10.2
(3) 11.2 (4) 10.0
62. Identify the pairs which are not of isotopes ?
12
(1) 6 X,13
6 Y (2) 35
17
37
X, 17 Y 68. find the mass of the SO 2 which contain exactly
14 same number of O-atom as there are in 50g
(3) X, 14
7 Y (4) 8
X, 59 Y
6 5
CaCO3.
(1) 48 g (2) 32 g
63. What is the weight of oxygen required for the (3) 16 g (4) 64 g
complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene ?
69. Calculate the molar mass of sucrose C12H22O11.
(1) 2.8 kg (2) 6.4 kg (1) 328g mol1 (2) 342g mol1
(3) 9.6 kg (4) 96 kg
(3) 360g mol1 (4) 442g mol1

Space for rough work

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70. 200 g ethene polymers to form polyethene as per 76. which of the following is never true for cathode
given reaction. rays ?
n CH 2  CH 2   —CH (1) They possess kinetic energy
n
 2  CH 2— (2) They contain negatively charged particles
200 (3) Specific charge for different gases is
(1) 200 ng (2) g
n different.
(3) 200 g (4) None (4) they travel in a straight line.

77. Correct graph for de-Broglie wavelength

71. Find mass of CO2 formed by the decomposition
of 20 g CaCO3.
1500K (1)
CaCO3s   CaOs  CO 2g
(1) 4.4 g (2) 8.8 g
(3) 17.6 g (4) 13.2 g

72. Four 2 L containers contain O2, He, CO2 & NH3 (2)
gases. Ratio of atoms in the container is :
(1) 2:1:3:4 (2) 4:3:1:2
(3) 3:1:2:4 (4) 1:2:3:4

73. H 2g  Cl2g  2HClg (3)

14L 12 L
Correct set of composition after reaction is-
H 2g Cl2g HClg
(1) 14 L 12 L 0 (4)
(2) 12 L 0 24 L
(3) 2L 0 20 L
(4) 2L 0 24L.
78. 100 mL of PH3 when completely decomposed
74. 310 represents produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change
(1) 2p (2) 3s in volume of the gas is –
(3) 3p (4) 3d PH3 (g) → 2P(s) + 3/2 H2 (g)
(1) 50 mL increase
75. If the energy of a photon is given as (2) 500 mL decrease
3.031019 J then, the wavelength (λ) of the (3) 900 mL decrease
photon is : (4) No change
(1) 6.56 nm (2) 65.6 nm
(3) 656 nm (4) 0.656 nm

Space for rough work

[7]
79. The correct formula for energy in nth orbit 85. Number of orbital in d-subshell is
z2 (1) 3 (2) 7
(1) 13.6  2 ev / atom (3) 1 (4) 5
n
z2
(2) 313.6  2 kcal / mol
n SECTION – B
z2
(3) 1312  2 kJmol1 86. If ionization energy for hydrogen atom is 13.6
n eV, then ionization energy for He+ will be
(4) All of these. (1) 54.4 eV (2) 6.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 24.5 eV
80. Radius of third orbit of He+ atom is
(1) 1.2805 Å (2) 23.805 Å 87. A solution of sulphuric acid has density of d
(3) 238.05 Å (4) 2.3805 Å g/ml and it is x% H 2SO 4 by wt. The normality
of this solution is :
81. The number of proton and neutron present in 49d 49x
(1) (2)
26Fe respectively.
56 10x 10d
(1) 30, 26 (2) 26, 30 10x 10d
(3) d (4)
(3) 25, 52 (4) None 49 49x

88. In a given atom no two electrons can have the

82. Correct formula for Heisenberg uncertainty
same values for all the four quantum numbers.
principle is
This is called
h h (1) Hund’s Rule
(1) x p  (2) x v 
2 4 (2) Aufbau principle
h h (3) Uncertainty principle
(3) E t  (4) x p  (4) Pauli’s Exclusion principle.
4 
89. Which of the following is not permissible
83. An electron is one of the 3d orbital, the value of arrangement of electrons in an atom ?
n, l, m is (1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
(1) 3, 1, 0 (2) 3, 0, 0 (2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –1/2
(3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 4, 0, 0 (3) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = –1/2
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –1/2
84. Maximum number of electrons in L shell is
90. Calculate the wave number for the longest
(1) 2 (2) 8
wavelength transition in the Balmer series of
(3) 18 (4) 32 atomic hydrogen.
(1) 1.523106 m 1 (2) 1.523107 m 1
(3) 3.046 106 m 1 (4) 3.046 107 m 1

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91. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to determine the 96. The mass of a molecule of water:
exact position and exact momentum of an electron (1) 30 × 10–24 kg
simultaneously. (2) 3 × 10–26 kg
Reason (R) : the path of an electron in an atom is
clearly defined. (3) 1.5 × 10–26 kg
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) 2.5 × 10–27 kg
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 97. Total number of spectral lines for transition of an
correct explanation of A. electron from 4th orbit to 1st orbit is
(3) A is true and R is false. (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Both A and R are false. (3) 6 (4) 10

92. Density of a 2.0 M solution of acetic acid 98. A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-
(CH3COOH) in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality emits the same energy into two parts of
of the solution is (Atomic mass : H=1, C=12, wavelength 1 and 2 respectively. The
O=16) wavelength λ is related with 1 and 2 as :
(1) 3.2 mol kg–1 (2) 2.22 mol kg–1
(3) 1.84 mol kg –1
(4) 2.0 mol kg–1 2 
(1)  (2)  1 2
1 2 1 2
93. The mass of an electron is 9.11031 kg If its 2 2

25 (3)  1 2
(4)  1 2
K.E. is 3.0 10 J, calculate its wavelegnth.
1 2 
2
1 2
(1) 896.7 Å (2) 896.7 nm 99. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order
(3) 896.7 pm (4) None of decreasing energy. The correct option is :
(1) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
94. Degenerate orbitals for third shell in (2) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
Monoelectronic species. (3) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(1) 4 (2) 1 (4) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
(3) 5 (4) 9
100. Calculate the average atomic mass of hydrogen
95. Calculate the energy associated with photon if using the following data :
light having wavelength 600 nm. Isotope % Natural abundance Molar mass
h  6.626 1034 J  s  1
H 99.985 1
 
(1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
2
H 0.015 2
(3) 3 eV (4) 4 eV (1) 1.0015 (2) 1.0008
(3) 1.00215 (4) 1.00025

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 (Section-III) BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. When the centromere is located close to the end
101. The famous aphorism /saying ‘omnis cellula-e- of a chromosome, the chromosome is known as
cellula’ was added to the cell theory by (1) Sub-metacentric
(1) Theodore Schwann (2) Acrocentric
(2) Matthias Schleiden
(3) Robert Hooke (3) Metacentric
(4) Rudolf Virchow (4) Telocentric

102. All bacterial cells are

106. Given below are two statements;
(1) Motile
(2) Enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall Statement I : Membrane-bound organelles of the
(3) Prokaryotic endomembrane system coordinate cellular
(4) Capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen functions.
Statement II : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are
103. Consider the two statements
considered a part of the endomembrane system.
Statement I : Plant cells possess cell walls,
plastids and a large central vacuole which are In the light of the above statements, choose the
absent in animal cells. most appropriate answer from the options given
Statement II : Animal cells have centrioles below
which are absent in almost all plant cells.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
correct
104. Identify the incorrect statement (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(1) Despite great morphological difference
between eukaryotic cells and prokaryotes,
they are remarkably similar metabolically. 107. Regarding endoplasmic reticulum in a
(2) The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are eukaryotic cell
made up of 60S and 40S subunits. I. SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
(3) The rough part of rough endoplasmic II. RER has ribosomes attached to ER
reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes III. In prokaryotes only RER are present
in the process of synthesizing lipid. (1) Only I and II are correct
(4) The nucleolus is where the structural (2) Only I and III are correct
RNA for the cells ribosomes is (3) Only II and III are correct
transcribed from DNA.
(4) I, II and IIII are correct

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108. Which of the following are NOT considered as 112. Often described as infoldings of bacterial cell
the part of endomembrane system? membrane, which of the following structures
(A) Mitochondria help in cell wall formation and DNA
(B) Endoplasmic Reticulum replication?
(C) Chloroplasts (1) Inclusion bodies
(D) Golgi complex
(2) Chromatophores
(E) Peroxisomes
(F) Vacuole (3) Fimbriae
(G) Lysosome (4) Mesosomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below 113. Which component of the endomembrane system
(1) A, D and E only of a eukaryotic cell is frequently observed in
(2) B and D only cells involved in protein synthesis and secretion?
(3) A, C and E only (1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) A and D only (2) Golgi complex
109. What type of chromosomes will not have a short (3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
and a long arm? (4) Chloroplasts
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
114. A characteristic 9 + 2 arrangement of axonemal
(3) Sub-metacentric (4) Both 1 and 2 microtubules is seen in
(1) Cilia and flagella
110. Fimbriae in bacterial cells (2) Centriole
(1) Play an important role in motility (3) Filaments in axons of neurons
(2) Attach the cell to the rocks in a stream (4) Actin myofilaments
and also to the host tissues
(3) Provide surface area for the location of 115. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
enzymes (1) Lysosomes Carry hydrolytic enzyme
(2) Ribosomes Double membrane bound cell
(4) Form a tube like structure for passage of
organelles
DNA during bacterial conjugation
(3) Golgi apparatus Important site of
formation of glycoproteins and
111. Regarding cell membrane glycolipids
(I) The lipid content mainly is (4) Amyloplasts Plastids that store
phosphoglycerides (a type of phospholipid) carbohydrates
(II) Proteins can move laterally within the
overall bilayer 116. The middle lamella in plant cells
(III) The membrane is selectively permeable (1) Is mainly made up of silica
(2) Holds or glues the different neighbouring
(1) Only I and II are correct
cells together
(2) Only I and III are correct (3) Is never traversed by plasmodesmata
(3) Only II and III are correct (4) Is primarily composed of proteins
(4) I, II and III are correct
117. DNA is not present in
(1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosomes
(3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria

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118. Match the following and select the correct 121. How many microtubules are associated with the
answer structure of centriole?
List I List II (1) 9 (2) 18
(A) Centriole (i) Infoldings in
(3) 27 (4) 11
mitochondria
(B) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(C) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids 122. Which of the following plastids store fats?
(D) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia (1) Elaioplast (2) Aleuroplast
or flagella (3) Proteinoplast (4) Amyloplast
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii 123. Which of the following is true about
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv mitochondria except
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (1) Semi-autonomous organelle
(2) Compartmentalisation is present
119. Which one of the following organelle in the (3) Matrix contain 80S ribosomes
figure correctly matches with its function? (4) Both A and B

124. The membrane of vacuole is called

(1) Plasma membrane
(2) Tonoplast
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell Wall

125. Which of the following is true about

microbodies
(1) minute vesicular structures
(1) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis (2) membrane bound structures
(2) Golgi apparatus, formation of (3) Found in both plants and animals
carbohydrate (4) All of the above
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein
synthesis 126. Trans face of the Golgi body is
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation (1) Nucleus facing face
of glycoproteins (2) Cell membrane facing face
(3) Maturing face
(4) Both 2 and 3
120. In human beings, the membrane of erythrocyte
has
(1) Approximately 40% proteins and 52% 127. Which of the following is true about axoneme
lipids except
(2) Lipid on the outer side and carbohydrate (1) It has nine doublets of peripheral
on the inner side microtubules
(3) Approximately 52% proteins and 40% (2) 2 centrally located microtubules
lipids (3) Nine radial spokes
(4) Fatty acid on the outer side and Phosphate (4) Central sheath is absent
on the inner side
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128. In plant cell the concentration of ions is more in 133. Assertion (A) : The concentration of ions is
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Vacuoles significantly higher in the cytoplasm than in the
(3) Equal in both (4) Nucleus vacuole.
Reason (R) : The tonoplast facilitates the
129. Which of the following is true for lysosomes
(1) Membrane bound vesicles transport of a number of ions actively into the

(2) Formed by golgi body vacuole.

(3) Rich in hydrolytic enzymes Choice for Assertions and Reason
(4) All of the above (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
130. Which of the following is true about cell wall
(1) Protects cell from mechanical damage (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
(2) Permeable to water the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Absent in animals (3) (A)is true, but (R) is false
(4) All of the above
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

131. Which of the following observations cannot be

credited to Schleiden and Schwann? 134. Given below are two statements:
(1) All plants are composed of different kinds Statement I : Mycoplasma the smallest cell are
of cells which form the tissues of the plant
only 0.3 µm in length.
(2) Animal cells have a thin outer layer which
is today known as ‘plasma membrane’ Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell
(3) Cells divide and new cells are formed wall
from pre-existing cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) The presence of cell wall is a unique
character of the plant cells. most appropriate answer from the options given
below
132. Identify the correct statement (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
I. Both the cilium and flagellum emerge
correct
from centriole like structure called the
Basal body. (2) Both statement I and statement II are
II. Centrosome is an organelle usually correct
containing two cylindrical structures
called centrioles. (3) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) Only I (2) Only II incorrect
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect

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 138. Match each item in Column I with one item in
135. Match List I with List II Column II and choose your answer from the
codes given below
List I List II Column I Column II
(a) Chromoplasts (I) Proteins I. Cristae 1. Flat membramous
sacs in stroma
(b) Amyloplasts (II) Oil and fats
II. Cisternae 2. Infoldings in
(c) Aleuroplast (III) Starch mitochondria
(d) Elaioplasts (IV) Carotene III. Thylakoids 3. Disc shaped sacs in
Golgi apparatus
Choose the correct answer from the option given
Codes :
below
I II III
(1) 1 2 3
a b c d (2) 3 1 2
(3) 2 3 1
1 IV I III II (4) 1 3 2
2 IV III II I
139. What is true about ribosomes?
3 IV II III I
(1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where
4 IV III I II S stands for sedimentation coefficient
(2) These are composed of r-RNA and
proteins
(3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(4) These are forms lipid
SECTION – B
140. Which one of the following structures between
two adjacent cells is an effective transport
136. Which of the following is/are a surface structure pathway?
of the bacterial cell but do play a role in (1) Plasmodesmata
motility? (2) Chromatophore
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
I. Flagella
(4) Plasmalemma
II. Pili
III. Fimbriae 141. The main arena of various types of activities of a
cell is
(1) Only I (2) Only II (1) Plasma membrane (2) Mitochondrion
(3) Only II and III (4) Only III (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus

142. Plasmodesmata are

137. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in (1) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi apparatus (2) Locomotory structures
(3) Membranes connecting the nucleus with
(3) Microbodies (4) Nucleolus plasmalemma
(4) Connections between adjacent cells
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143. Cell theory was proposed by 147. The organelle common among prokaryotic and
(1) A botanist eukaryotic cell is
(2) A zoologist (1) Centrosome (2) Ribosome
(3) A botanist and a zoologist (3) Peroxisome (4) Glyoxysome
(4) A psychologist
148. Cell theory earlier proposed by Schleiden and
144. How many types of chromosome an present in Schwann failed to explain
nucleus (1) How new cells are formed
(1) 2 (2) How cells die
(2) 3 (3) How cell division takes place
(3) 4 (4) How plant cell is different from animal cell
(4) All
149. Which one of the following is not a constituent
145. Identify the accurate explanation of mesosome is of cell membrane?
(1) A specialized structure of prokaryotic cell (1) Cholesterol (2) Glycolipids
formed by extension of plasma membrane (3) Vitamin (4) Phospholipids
into the cytoplasm
(2) The middle layer of the prokaryotic cell 150. Polysome is formed by
wall (1) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(3) The organelle of eukaryotic cell which (2) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
helps in lipid synthesis endoplasmic reticulum
(4) The middle layer of eukaryotic cell wall (3) A ribosome with several subunits
(4) Ribosomes attached to each other in a
146. How many of the following cell organelles are linear arrangement
membranous?
Endoplasmic reticulum, Nucleus, Lysosomes,
Vacuoles, Ribosomes, Centrioles
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 2

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 (Section-IV) ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
154. Identify the given labelled cell and choose the
correct option regarding cell labelled as 'A'.
151. Match Column I with Column II and choose the
correct option
Column I Column II
(A) Smooth muscle (i) Fusiform cells
fibres
(B) Skeletal muscles (ii) Multinucleated
(C) Cardiac muscles (iii) Intercalated discs
(iv) Biceps
(v) Stomach wall
(vi) Abdominal wall (1) The unit of neural system
(1) A – (ii), (v), (vi); B – (i), (iv) ; C – (iii) (2) Excitable cell
(2) A – (i), (v) ; B – (ii), (iv), (vi); C – (iii)
(3) A– (i), (v) ; B – (iv), (vi); C – (ii), (iii) (3) When it is suitably stimulated, an
electrical disturbance is generated
(4) A – (i), (ii), (v) ; B – (iv), (vi) ; C – (iii)
(4) It provides protection and support to
152. Pick out the incorrect pair neurons
(1) Tendon – joins skeletal muscles to bones
(2) Cartilage – solid, pliable matrix 155. Given below are two statements
(3) Bone – non-pliable, fibreless matrix Statement I : In unicellular organisms, all
(4) Areolar tissue – support framework for functions are performed by a single cell.
epithelium
Statement II : In the complex body of
multicellular animals, the same basic functions
153. Match the following columns and choose the
are carried out by different group of cells in a
correct option
well organized manner.
Column I Column II
(A) Adipose tissue (i) Nasal septum In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the option given
(B) Stratified (ii) Blood and lymph
below.
epithelium
(C) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Skin of terrestrial (1) Both statement I and statement II are
vertebrates correct
(D) Fluid connective (iv) Store fat (2) Both statement I and statement II are
tissue incorrect
(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii) incorrect
(3) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii) (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(4) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii) correct

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156. In which of the following are the tissues, their 158. Statement A : Osteocytes are present singly in
location and function are correctly matched ? lacuna, but chondrocytes may occur singly or in
groups
Tissue Location Function Statement B : Most of cartilages in vertebrate
embryo is replaced by bones in adults
Endothelium (1) Only statement A is correct
Cuboidal
(1) of blood Diffusion (2) Only statements B is correct
epithelium
vessels (3) Both statement A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Brush-
bordered PCT of 159. Select the incorrectly matched option
(2) Absorption
columnar nephron (1) Tight junction – prevents leakage through
epithelium tissue layer
(2) Gap junction – allow faster cell to cell
Protection connectivity
Moist (3) Adhering junction – for rapid ion transfer
Compound from
(3) surface of (4) Adhering junction – cements
epithelium chemical
buccal cavity neighbouring cells
stress

Protection 160. Read the following statements (A–E)

A = Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian
Squamous from
(4) Alveoli tube posses ciliated epithelium
epithelium mechanical B = Lining of stomach is simple cuboidal
stress epithelium
C = PCT is lined by epithelium with microvilli
D = Large Ducts of gland posses simple
157. Match the following column and choose the
cuboidal lining
correct option E = Squamous epithelium lining of alveoli
Column I (Tissue) Column II helps in gaseous exchange
(respective How many of the above statements are true ?
location) (1) 3 (2) 2
(a) Dense regular (i) Skin (3) 4 (4) 1
(b) Loose connective (ii) Ligament
161. P is the tissue of intestinal lining and Q is the
tissue
tissue of moist surface of pharynx. Identify P
(c) Dense irregular (iii) Beneath skin and Q respectively
tissue (1) P = Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium ;
(iv) Tendon Q= Compound epithelium
(1) (a) – (i), (iv) ; (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii) (2) P = Brush bordered columnar epithelium ;
(2) (a) – (ii), (iv) ; (b) – (i), (c) – (iii) Q= Compound epithelium
(3) P = Ciliated epithelium ; Q= Transitional
(3) (a) – (ii), (iv) ; (b) – (iii) ; (c) – (i)
epithelium
(4) (a) – (iv) ; (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (ii) (4) P = Compound epithelium ; Q= Brush
bordered cuboidal epithelium

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 164. Mark the correct statements with respect to
162. Salivary glands are multicellular and exocrine in connective tissue
nature, while generally hormone secreting (a) It has dense regular connective tissue as
glands are – and – in nature.
tendon and ligament
(1) Multicellular ; endocrine
(2) Unicellular ; apocrine (b) Matrix of bone has collagen fibres
(3) Multicellular; exocrine (c) Areolar connective tissue does not have
(4) Unicellular ; merocrine mast cells
(d) Dense connective tissue has both collagen
163. Identify figures a,b and c and then choose the and elastin fibres
correct option (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c)

(a) 165. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)

I. Simple epithelium covers the dry surface
of the skin, the moist surface of buccal
cavity and pharynx
II. In dense regular connective tissue, the
collagen fibres have similar orientation
(b) III. Most of the cartilages are replaced by
bones in adults among vertebrates.
IV. Bones have a hard and non–pliable
ground substance, rich in calcium salts
I II III IV
(c) (1) T F F F
(2) T T F F
(3) F T T T
A B C (4) F T T F
(1) Pseudostratifie Multicellular Transitional
d epithelium gland epithelium
166. Statement A : All cells of connective tissue
(2) Multicellular Unicellular Simple
gland gland cuboidal secrete fibres
epithelium Statement B : Fibres provide strength, elasticity
(3) Transitional Goblet cells Compound and flexibility to the tissue
epithelium epithelium (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Unicellular Multicellular Compound (2) Only statement B is correct
gland gland epithelium (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are correct

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167. Select incorrect statement with respect to 172. Smooth muscle fibres are present in all of the
cartilage following except
(1) The matrix is solid, pliable and resists (1) Biceps of upper arm
compression (2) Wall of urinary bladder
(2) Chondrocytes are enclosed in the lacunae (3) Wall of gastrointestinal tract
(3) Calcium salts may or may not be present (4) Wall of blood vessels
in the matrix
(4) Have blood supply that runs deep into 173. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the functions of bones.
matrix (1) Support and protect the softer tissue and
organs
(2) Serve weight bearing functions
168. Which of the following cells do not occur in the (3) They also interact with smooth muscles
matrix of areolar connective tissue? attached to them to bring about
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Chondrocytes movements
(3) Macrophages (4) Plasma cells (4) They provide structural frame to the body

169. Match the type of simple epithelium in column I

with its appropriate location in Column II 174. Which of the following is incorrect about
Column I Column II tissue?
a. cuboidal (i) Lining of stomach (1) Tissue is a group of similar cells along
epithelium and intestine with intercellular substances that perform
b. columnar (ii) Blood capillaries similar function
epithelium (2) Epithelial tissue always develops from
c. Squamous (iii) Germinal epithelium ectoderm
epithelium (3) In epithelial tissues, cells are compactly
d. Cilited columnar (iv) Fallopian tube packed with little intercellular matrix
epithelium (4) Bronchus bears cilia on free surface
(1) a → (ii), b → (i), c → (ii), d → (iv)
(2) a → (iii), b → (i), c → (ii), d → (iv) 175. What is not true about basement membrane?
(3) a → (i), b → (ii), c → (iii), d → (iv) (1) Epithelial tissue rests on a basement
(4) a → (iii), b → (iv), c → (ii), d → (i) membrane that separates it from
underlying connective tissue
170. Epithelium with irregular boundaries is (2) It is formed of glycoproteins, and
(1) squamous (2) Cuboidal collagen fibres
(3) Columnar (4) Pseudostratified (3) Diffusion across basement membrane
helps in exchange of materials
171. The epithelium, found in air sacs of lungs (4) It facilitates communication between
forming a diffusion boundary, is adjacent cells by forming tight junctions
(1) Simple squamous
(2) Simple cuboidal 176. Cell junctions can be observed in
(4) Simple columnar ciliated (1) Skeletal muscles and smooth muscles
(3) Simple columnar (2) Smooth muscles and cardiac muscle
(3) Skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles
(4) Smooth muscles only

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 181. Find out incorrect statement about the cartilage
177. Which statement is correct regarding the (1) Chondrocytes are present in a space of
epithelia of small intestine and PCT ?
matrix called lacuna
(1) Both are having simple columnar
epithelia with microvilli (2) Each lacuna contains 8 – 10 chondrocytes
(2) Both are having (3) Cartilage is avascular
stratified columnar epithelia (4) Cartilage is more abundant in vertebrate
(3) Both are having simple epithelia with
embryo
microvilli
(4) Both are having stratified epithelia but
cells are of different shapes 182. Which type of epithelium present on the linning
of seminiferous tubules of testis ?
178. Which of the following is correct match with
respect to types, location and (1) Simple squamous
(2) Pseudostratified
Types Location Function (3) Simple cuboidal
epithelium
(4) Simple columnar
(1) Simple Trachea Capturing dust
squamous particle
ciliated 183. Cartilage is present in all of the following
(2) Stratified Skin Impervious to structures of body, except
keratinized water & dry
(1) Intercalated disc (2) Tip of nose
(3) Pseudostratified Large Exchange of
ciliated bronchus gases (3) Nasal septum (4) Epiglottis
(4) Cuboidal Intestine Increase
surface area 184. Choose the incorrect pair
for absorption
Cells of areolar Function
179. Choose correct match of function with respect to tissue
the cell junction (1) Plasma Produce antibodies
(1) Tight junction – Prevents leakage of
(2) Fibroblast cell Secretes fibres and
substance across the membrane in
epithelial tissue matrix
(2) Gap. junctions – Allows movement of (3) Mast Phagocytic
molecules across the membrane (4) Macrophage Ingest cell debris
(3) Adhering junction – held adjoining cells
together
(4) More than one option is correct 185. Hyaline or glass–like cartilage is found in
(1) Nasal septum, larynx, tracheal rings
180. Which of the following cells secrete vasodilator,
(2) Tip of nose, tracheal rings, costal cartilage
vasoconstrictor and anticoagulant ?
(1) Acidophil (2) Mast cells (3) Nasal septum, pubic symphysis, in
(3) Neutrophil (4) Monocyte between vertebrae
(4) Tip of nose, eustachian tube, larynx
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 SECTION - B 190. Which of the following is true for simple
epithelium but do not hold true for compound
epithelium?
186. The correct statement with respect to the
(1) Consist of single layer
epithelial tissue is (2) Perform protective function
(I) Cells are compactly packed (3) Present in our skin
(II) Cells have no intercellular matrix (4) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(III) Cells have little intercellular material
(IV) It is single or multilayered 191. Select the correct option which includes w.r.t.
(1) I & IV (2) II & III simple epithelium.
a. It has protective function as it does in our
(3) I, III & IV (4) All of the above
skin.
b. It lines body cavities, small ducts and
187. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and alveoli of lungs.
choose the correct location c. Consists of two or more cell layers.
d. Found in the wall of blood vessels.
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only
(3) a & d only (4) b & d only

192. Mark the odd one w.r.t. exocrine glands.

(1) Modified columnar or cuboidal cells
(1) Buccal cavity, pharynx bronchioles (2) Their products are released through ducts
(2) Urinary bladder, Ureter, Oesophagus or tubes
(3) Buccal cavity, pharynx, tubular part of (3) Their secretory cells always degenerates
after forming secretion
nephron
(4) Mucus secreting glands are unicellular
(4) Pharynx, larynx, PCT gland

188. Find the incorrect with respect to smooth muscle 193. Non–keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(1) Spindle shaped is not present in
(2) Fibres are unbranched (1) Buccal cavity
(3) Involuntary (2) Pharynx
(3) Vagina
(4) Nuclei peripheral
(4) Large ducts of salivary gland

189. What happens to bone when it is kept in dil 194. Hyaline cartilage is present in
HCl? (1) Ear pinna
(1) Decalcified, becomes soft and non (2) Pubic symphysis
flexible (3) Nasal septum
(2) Calcified, becomes soft and flexible (4) Eustachian tube
(3) Decalcified, becomes soft and flexible
(4) No change

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195. Select the odd pair from the following. 198. Select the correct statement regarding blood.
(1) Bone – Lacuna (1) Cells are absent
(2) Cartilage – Lamellae (2) Fibres are present
(3) Adipose tissue – Shock absorber (3) matrix is secreted by its cells
(4) Areolar tissue – Adipocyte (4) Fibres are absent

196. Consider the following features : 199. Which of the following gives bone its strength?
a. Vascularised (1) Calcium salts
b. Cells have rapid cell division (2) Collagen fibres
c. Little intercellular matrix (3) Matrix
d. Cells are loosely arranged (4) More than one option is correct
How many of the given statements are correct
for epithelial tissue? 200. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue
(1) One (2) Two in the body of complex animal originates from
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm (4) Both (1) & (3)
197. Cells of germinal epithelium are
(1) Cube like cells
(2) Flattened cells with irregular boundaries
(3) Tall and slender cells
(4) Tall cells bearing cilia

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