MCQs

in
Biotechnology
(at Post graduate level)

Chief Editor

Dr.V.Violet Dhayabaran
Head
Department of Biotechnology
Bishop Heber College (Autonomous)
Trichy-620017, Tamil Nadu, India

Sub Editors
Foreword
Preface

(Dr.V.Violet Dhayabaran)
 Contents

Semester Title of the paper Page No.

Cell and Molecular biology

I Biochemistry

Microbiology

Bioinstrumentation

II Animal Biotechnology

Plant Biotechnology

Industrial Biotechnology

Research methodology

III Gene technology

Immunology

Medical Biotechnology

Stem cell biology

IV Environmental
biotechnology

Biotechnology management
 M.Sc BIOTECHNOLOGY

Semester 1
Core : Cell and Molecular biology Course code : P15BT101

Unit - I
1. Cell Theory is based on
a) All living things are made up of cells
b) Cells are the smallest working units of all living things
c) All cells come from preexisting cells through cell division
d) All of the above
2. Who postulated that the cell is the basic unit of life and all organisms are formed
of one or more cells?
a) E.VanBeneden
b) M.J.Schleidenand T.Schwann
c) Hugo van Mohl
d) Robert Hooke
3. Definition of Cell is..
a) Cell is the smallest unit
b) Capable of performing life functions
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
4. Cellular function is carried out by
a) Organelles
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell wall
d) Enzymes
5. Cancer occurs when cells_____
a) Duplicate
b) Replicate
c) Initiate
d) All of the above
6. Cellular reactions are mediated by
a) Organelles
b) Cytoplasm
 c) Cell wall
d) Enzymes
7. Cells are measured in
a) picomoles (pm)
b) micrometres (µm)
c) millimetres (mm)
d ) milli moles

8. Most cells lie in the range of_____ of a millimetre.

a) 1/100th to 1/1000th
b) 1/10th to 1/100th
c) 1/10th to 1/1000th
d) None of the above
9. The smallest cell found is a mycoplasma cell and is about
a) 0.1 micron in diameter
b) 0.01 micron in diameter
c) 0.001 micron in diameter
d) 0.0001 micron in diameter
10. The longest cells are the_____ .
a) Hair cells
b) Muscle cells
c) Nerve cells
d) Skin cells
11. The longest cells are the nerve cells, measuring about a_____ in length
a) millimetre
b) metre
c) micrometer
d) centimeter
12. The largest cells are represented by
a) Eggs of fishes
b) Eggs of reptiles
c) Eggs of birds
d) None of the above
13. The cell shape is often determined by
a) The function which it performs
 b) According to the size
c) According to the morphology
d) None of the above
14. Amoeba is a single - celled
a) Animal
b) Plant
c) Fungi
d) None of the above
15. Chlamydomonas is a single – celled
a) Animal
b) Plant
c) Fungi
d) None of the above

16. They do not have structures surrounded by membranes and having few internal
structures are called
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
17. Most of the living organisms having this kind of cells and contain organelles
surrounded by membranes called
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
18. The five phases of cell cycle are
a) G1, G2, S, M, C
b) G1, M, G2, S, C
c) G1, S, G2, M, C
d) C, M, G1, G2, S
19. Main mitotic cell division occurs during
a).M phase
b).G2 phase
c).S phase
d).G1 phase
20. Before a cell starts dividing_____
a).Chromosomes are duplicated
b).Chromosomes are condensed
c).Chromosomes are migrated
d).Chromosomes are divided
21. Meiosis process occurs during the formation of_____
a) Sperms
b) Eggs cells
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
22. Significance of mitosis is
a) Provides growth & development to organs
b) Old decaying & dead cells of body are replaced by mitosis
c) Helps the cell in maintaining proper size & equilibrium in the amount of
DNA & RNA in the cell
d) All of the above
23. The term Meiosis was coined by
a) E.VanBeneden
b)J.B.Farmer
c) Hugo van Mohl
d) Robert Hooke
24. Meiosis shuffles genes in _____
a) Old combinations
b) Frequent combinations
c) New combinations
d) All of the above
25. Different stages of first Meiotic cell division are
a) Leptotene ,Zygotene&Pachytene
b) Diplotene&Diakinesis
c) Metaphase, Late anaphase &Telophase I
d) All of the above
26. Different stages of second Meiotic cell division are
a) Prophase I & II
b) Anaphase I & II
c) Telophase II
d) All of the above
27. Significance of Meiosis is
a) Maintains a definite & constant number of chromosomes in the organisms
b) By crossing over brings genetic change
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
28. In animals, peroxisomes are most prominent in_____
a) Small blood vessels
b) Glomeruli
c) Liver and kidney tissue
d) All of the above
29. The organelle produces energy by the process of oxidative phosphorylation
is_____
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi body
d) Lysosomes
30. The organelle which functions is package and to deliver proteins is
a) Lysosome
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus
31. The organelle which functions in cellular respiration is
a) Lysosome
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus

32. Thread like structures are

a) Chromatin fibres
b) Chromosomes
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondria
33. Cell organelles are located within the ____ of the cell.
a) Nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
 c) Cell membrane
d) Lysosomes
34. Sacs containing digestive enzymes_____
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi body
d) Lysosomes
35. In 1665- English Scientist_____discovered cells while looking at a thin slice of
cork.
a) Robert Hooke
b) Anton van Leuwenhoek
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Schleiden& Schwann
36. The primary role of peroxisomes in animal cells is_____
a) To detoxify hydrogen peroxide
b) To detoxify nitrogen peroxide
c) Both A & B
d) None of the above
37. The shape of the Nucleus may be_____
a) Spherical & Elliptical
b) Oval & columnar
c) Cuboidal & spindle
d) All of the above
38. Hetero Chromatins are
a) Darkly stained
b) Metabolically active
c) Less coiling or nocoiling
d) Lightly stained
39. The cell shape is determined by their
a) Function
b) Motility
c) Size
d) None of the above
40. What will happen to a cell which is placed in a hypertonic solution?
a) cell will gain water and shrink
 b) cell will lose water and shrink
c) cell will gain water and swell
d) cell will lose water and swell
41. How many statements are there in Modern Cell Theory?
a) one statement
b) two statements
c) three statements
d) four statements
42. The Cell Theory is used in_____
a) Disease
b) Health
c) Medical Research and Cures
d) All of the above
43. Phagocytosis process is otherwise called as
a) Cellular Eating
b) Cellular Drinking
c) Both A & B
d) None of the above
44. Pinocytosis process is otherwise called as
a) Cellular Eating
b) Cellular Drinking
c) Both A & B
d) None of the above
45. Plastids are major organelles found in the cells of
a) Plants
b) Algae
c) Animals
d) Both A & B
46. Microbodies are specialized as containers for_____
a) Digestive activity
b) Metabolic activity
c) Cellular activity
d) None of the above
47. Most mitochondrial proteins are encoded in the_____
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
 b) Lysosomes
c) Golgi body
d) Nucleus
48. The endoplasmic reticulum functions to:
a) Transport materials
b) Destroy old cell parts
c) Make ribosomes
d) Package proteins
49. Genetic material is contained within the ___ of the cell.
a) Ribosomes
b) Cytoplasm
c) Nucleus
d) Nucleolus
50. This organelle is responsible for destroying worn-out cell parts
a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondrion
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Ribosomes

Unit 1
1. d 2.b 3.c 4.a 5.b 6.d 7.b 8.c 9.a 10.c

11. b 12.c 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.b 18.c 19.a 20.a

21. c 22.d 23.b 24.c 25.d 26.d 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.d

31. c 32.a 33.b 34.d 35.a 36.a 37.a 38.a 39.a 40.b

41. d 42.d 43.a 44.b 45.a 46.b 47.d 48.a 49.c 50.a

Unit - II
51. Sara would like to film the movement of chromosomes during cell division. Her
best choice for a microscope would be a
a) Light microscope, because of its resolving power.
b) Transmission electron microscope, because of its magnifying power.
c) Scanning electron microscope, because the specimen is alive.
 d) Light microscope, because the specimen is alive.
52. The cytoskeleton organizes
a) Metabolic activity
b) Enzymatic activity
c) Catalytic activity
d) The structures and activities of the cell.
53. The cytoskeleton is a _____ extending throughout the cytoplasm
a) Chromatin fibers
b) Oxidative molecules
c) Network of fibers
d) All of the above
54. The cytoskeleton interacts with
a) Receptor proteins
b) Motor proteins
c) Ribosomal proteins
d) None of these
55. The cytoskeleton contains
a)Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Intermediate filaments
d) All of the above
56. Microfilaments are made up of_____
a) Fibrous subunits
b) Actin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Myolin
57. Intermediate filaments are made up of_____
a) Fibrous subunits
b) Actin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Myolin

58. Microtubules are the central structural supports in_____

a) The tissues
b) The cell
c) Chromosomes
 d) Cilia and Flagella.
59. Microtubules composition is based on_____
a) α - tubulin
b) β - tubulin
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
60. The _____ controls what enters and leaves the cell.
a) Mitochondrion
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Nucleus
d) Cell membrane
61. Which structure is directly responsible for the formation of proteins within the
cell?
a) Lysosomes
b) Vacuoles
c) Centrioles
d) Ribosomes
62. Microtubule Associate Proteins (MAPs) are mostly present in_____
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Brain
d) Connective tissue
63. The families of Motor proteins are
a)Myosin
b) Kinesins
c) Dyneins
d) All of the above
64. The bending of cilia and flagella is driven by the arms of a motor protein
called_____
a)Myosins
b) Kinesins
c) Dyneins
d) All of the above
65. A dimer with _____bound has a different conformation from a _____ bound
dimer
a) GDP, GTP
 b) GDP, GMP
c) GTP, GDP
d) None of these
66. Myosin is a Molecular Motor for
a) Fibrous filaments
b) Kinesin filaments
c) Dynein filaments
d) Actin Filaments
67. Cell junctions are
a) Tight junctions
b) Gap junctions
c) Plasmodesmata
d) All of the above
68. Molecular Composition of Tight Junctions are
a) Claudin
b) Occludin
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
69. The functions of Gap junctions are
a)Regulation & Extracellular signals
b) Electrically connect cells
c)Comprised of connexons
d) All of the above
70. Cell death is caused by the process of _____
a) Necrosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
71. Cell death is due to _____
a) Unexpected cell damage
b) Accidental cell damage
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
72. The chenmical& physical events that causes necrosis process, are
a) Toxins & Radiation
b) Heat & Trauma
 c) Infections
d) All of the above
73. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts.
Based on this information, it could not be
a) A cell from a pine tree.
b) A yeast (fungus) cell.
c) A bacterium.
d) Actually, it could be any of the above.
74. Tight junctions seals gap between
a) Epithelial tissues
b) Connective tissues
c) Gap junctions
d) None of these
75. You would expect a cell with an extensive Golgi apparatus to
a) Make a lot of ATP
b) Secrete a lot of material.
c) Move actively.
d) Store large quantities of food
76. Desmosomes connects _____ in one cell to the next cell
a) Microfilaments
b) Actin filaments
c) Microtubules
d) Intermediate filaments
77. Gap Junctions allows the_____ from cell to cell
a) Small water soluble molecules
b) Small fat soluble molecules
c) Small solid particles
d) All of the above
78. In Greek, the word NEC means
a) Composition
b) Dead
c) Protection
d) Regulation
79. The term Gangrene refers to
a) Sufficient amount of contiguous tissue necrotizes
b) Release of harmful chemicals into the surrounding tissue
 c) Both a & b
d) None of these
80. The standard therapy of necrosis is _____
a) Surgical removal of the affected tissue
b) Using medicinal plants
c) Using powerful chemicals
d) Using natural herbs
81. A microbody is a cytoplasmic organelle of a _____ shape
a) Cylindrical
b) Globular
c) Heart
d) Finger like
82. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?
a) Mitochondrion . . . photosynthesis
b) Nucleus . . . cellular respiration
c) Ribosome . . . manufacture of lipids
d) Central vacuole . . . storage
83. Microbodies are the specialized containers for _____
a) Metabolic activity
b) Motility
c) Structural analysis
d) Food storage
84. Various types of microbodies include_____
a)Peroxisomes &Glyoxisomes
b) Woronin bodies &Glycosomes
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
85. Of the following organelles, which group is involved in manufacturing
substances needed by the cell?
a) Lysosome, vacuole, ribosome
b) Ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER
c) Smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole
d) Vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER
86. Glyoxysomes are found in
a) Germinating seeds of plants & filamentous fungi
b) Growing animals & bacteria
 c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
87. Glyoxysomes are peroxisomes with an additional function of
a) Citric acid cycle
b) TCA cycle
c) Glyoxylate cycle
d) All of the above
88. Cells must communicate in order to,
a) Proliferate
b) Differentiate
c) Migrate
d) All of these
89. Ribosomes are the components of cells that make_____ from amino acids
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates
d ) Enzymes
90. Ribosomes are about_____ in diameter
a) 0.2nm
b) 2nm
c) 20nm
d) 200nm
91. Electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because
a) Electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls.
b) Bacteria are so small.
c) Their organelles are small and tightly packed together
d) With few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in
individual macromolecules.
92. Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
a) The presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
b) Whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membranes
c) The presence or absence of ribosome
d) Whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism
93. Ribosomes are composed of _____
a) 75% ribosomal RNA and 25% ribosomal proteins
 b) 25% ribosomal RNA and 75% ribosomal proteins
c) 65% ribosomal RNA and 35% ribosomal proteins
d) 35% ribosomal RNA and 65% ribosomal proteins
94. Ribosomes were first observed in the mid-1950s by
a) Richard B. Roberts
b)George Palade
c) E.VanBeneden
d) Hugo van Mohl
95. The term "ribosome" was proposed by_____ in 1958:
a) George Palade
b) E.VanBeneden
c) Richard B. Roberts
d) Hugo van Mohl
96. Classification of mutations according to quality
a) Substitution mutation& Frame-shift mutation
b)Reverse mutation&Forward mutation
c)Germline mutation& Somatic mutation
d) Lethal mutation& Non-lethal mutation
97. _____ is themost common developmental defect of the forebrain in man -
associated with hedgehog pathway mutations
a) Holoprosencephaly
b) Mesoprosencephaly
c) Monoprosencephaly
d)Multiprosencephaly
98. There are_____ factors that increase mutation rates
a) physical and biological
b) chemical and mutated
c) physical and chemical
d) chemical and biological
99. Classification of mutations is according to direction of
a) Substitution mutation& Frame-shift mutation
b)Reverse mutation&Forward mutation
c)Germline mutation& Somatic mutation
d) Lethal mutation& Non-lethal mutation
100. Classification of mutations according to viability is..
a) Substitution mutation& Frameshift mutation
b)Reverse mutation&Forward mutation
 c)Germline mutation& Somatic mutation
d) Lethal mutation& Non-lethal mutation

Unit 2

51. d 52.d 53.c 54.b 55.d 56.b 57.a 58.d 59.c 60.d

61. d 62.c 63.d 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.d 68.c 69.d 70.c

71. c 72.d 73.c 74.a 75.b 76.d 77.a 78.b 79.c 80.a

81. b 82.d 83.a 84.c 85.b 86.a 87.c 88.d 89.a 90.c

91. b 92.b 93.c 94.b 95.c 96.a 97.a 98.c 99.b 100.d

UNIT III
1.What is the exact name of the classical Watson-Crick double helix
DNA?…………….
(a) A-DNA (b) Z- DNA (c) X-DNA(d) B -DNA
2. Usual method of DNA replication is ……………..
(a) Semiconservative (b) Conservative
(c) Dispersive (d) Non conservative
3. Escherichia coli fully labeled with 15N is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The
two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have ……………….
a) Different density and do not resemble parent DNA
b) Different density but resemble parent DNA
c) Same density and resemble parent DNA
 d) Same density but do not resemble parent DNA
4. DNA polymerase helps in ………..
(a). Splitting of two DNA strands ( b)proof reading of DNA
(c) Renaturation of DNA (d) Joining monomers of DNA
5. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in front of replication fork is
…………
a) DNA gyrase (b) DNA polymerase 1 (c) DNA ligase (d) DNA
topoisomerase
6. DNA having labeled thymidine is allowed to replicate in medium having non-
radioactive
thymidine. After three duplication, the DNA molecules having labeled thymidine
shall be…….
(a) One molecule (b) Two molecule
(c) Four molecule (d) Eight
7. Ligase is an enzyme required for …………..
(a) Breaking of DNA (b) Joining DNA bits
(c) Renaturation of DNA (d) Proof reading
8. The one which is capable of self-replication is ……..
(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Enzyme (d) Protein
9.Klenow fragment without free nucleotides exhibits
(a) nickase activity (b) exonuclease activity (c) endonuclease activity(d)
no activity10. 10.DNA replication in eukaryotes commences……….
(a) From both ends of a chromosome simultaneously
(b) Several sites along DNA of a chromosome simultaneously
(c) From centromere to either end
(d) From one end of chromosome to the other
11. Who established that RNA can be genetic material?
(a) Griffith (b) Conrat (c) Lederberg (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei
12. Gene is a …………………
(a) Segment of DNA (b) Segment of chromosome
(c) Functional unit of DNA (d) DNA segment capable of crossing over
13. The RNA primer is removed from the okazaki fragment by
a) DNA Pol I b) DNA Pol II c) DNA Pol III d) RNA Polymerase.
14. Experimental material in the study of DNA replication has been ………………
 (a) Escherichia coli (b)Neurosporacrassa
(c) Pneumococcus (d) Drosophila melanogaster
15.Base sequence on one strand of DNA is GCATG.Replicated complementary
strand has…...
(a) GCATG b) GCATC (c) CGTAC (d) ATGCG
16. Nucleic acids are made of ……….
(a) Nucleotides b) Nucleosides (c) Amino acids d) Proteins
17. Frame shift mutation may occur as a result of…….
(a) formation of a thymine dimer (b) deamination of cytosine
(c) conversion of guanine to xanthine (d) none of the above
18. What is the average size of a mature t RNA?
(a) 100 bp (b) 120 bp (c) 80 bp(d)140bp
19. Which one is not true?
(a) A = T, G = C (b) A = G, T = C (c) C =G, T = A (d) G = C ,A = C
20. Which of the following mutations arise without exposure to external agents?
a).analogous mutation (b)induced mutations (c) spontaneous mutation (d)
None of these
21. Taylor demonstrated chromosome replication to be semi conservative is
………….
(a) Viciafaba (b) He La cell (c) Pea (d) Mouse
liver cell
22. Which of the following describes a DNA molecule?
a). Double helix of glucose sugars and phosphates.
b) Ladder-like structure composed of fats and sugars.
c). Double chain of nucleotides joined by hydrogen bonds.
d). A chain of alternating phosphates and nitrogenous bases.
23. DNA replication involves the breaking of bonds between ………
a). bases. b). sugars and bases. c). phosphates and bases. d). sugars and phosphates
24. Which of the following statements best describes DNA replication?
a).tRNA, by complementary base pairing with mRNA, produces proteins.
b).RNA nucleotides, by complementary base pairing with DNA, produce DNA.
c).DNA nucleotides, by complementary base pairing with DNA, produce DNA.
d).RNA nucleotides, by complementary base pairing with DNA, produce tRNA.
25. Semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in……..
a) E.coli b)S.pneumonaec) S.typhimuriam d)D.melanogaster
26. Which of the following biomolecule has a self repair mechanism……………
a) DNA, RNA & Protein b) DNA & RNA c) DNA only d) DNA & Protein
27. The protein involved in mismatch pair is……………..
a) Mut S b) Mut H c) Mut L d) All of these
28. Which of the following dimer formation is common?
a) thymine dimer b) cytidine dimer c) both a & b d) None of these
29. Dimer repair mechasim include…………….
a) excision repair b) photoreactivation c) recombinational repair d) all of these
30 . Thimine dimer is often corrected by light induced mechanism, the enzyme
involved in this is………
a) photolyase b) photoligase c) DNA glycosylase d) All of these
31. The function of DNA glycosylase in excision repair mechanism is……………..
a) Addition of base pair b) Addition of correct nucleotide
c) removal of incorrect base d) removal of phosphodiester bond
32. DNA repair mechanism is absent in………………
a) nuclear genome b) mitochondrial genome c) chloroplast genome d) both b
&c
33. Which mechanism of DNA polymerase help in preventing error during DNA
replication?
a) rechecking b) proof reading c) proof checking d) all of these
34. Rec A proteins are involved in…………….
a) BER b) NER c) SOS repair d) recombinant repair
35. Which DNA polymerase involved in BER?
a) DNA polymerase α b) DNA polymerase β c) DNA polymerase σ d) DNA
polymerase
36. Which of the following is dark repair?
a) NER b) BER c) both a & b d) none of these
37. The distortion in DNA helix due to thimine dimer formation is
called…………….
a) nick b) single strand break c) Kink d) repair
38. In base pair repair mechanism the lesion is removed by………….
a) DNA glycosylase b) excisionase c) Transposase d) Integrase
39. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in mechanism of DNA replication due to….
a).discontinuous rather than semi discontinuous
b).DNA primers instead of RNA primers
 c). Different enzymes for lagging and leading strand
d). unidirectional rather than bidirectional
40. DNA replication in prokaryotes commences…………………..
a).from centromere to either end b).from both ends of a chromosome
simultaneously
c).from one end of chromosome to other
d).several sites along DNA of a chromosome simultaneously
41. Which enzyme remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication
fork?
a). helicase b).DNA polymerase c) primase d).topoisomerase
42 .During which phase of the cell cycle in DNA replicated?
a)G Phase b) S phase c). G2 phase d). M phase
43.UmU C, UmU D gene family and Rec A proteins are involved in………..
a). BER b). NER c). SOS repair d).Recombinational repair
44. Which of the following chemicals inducedepurination?
a). Methyl ethane sulphonate b).nitrosoguanidine
c). ethyl ethane sulphonate
d).all of these
45. DNA glycosylase is an enzyme involved in base excision repair. The function
is…….
a). addition of correct base
b).addition of correct nucleotide
c).removal of incorrect base
d). removal of phosphodiester bond
46. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
(a) X-ray crystallography (b) Electron microscope
(c) Ultracentrifuge (d) Light microscope
47. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably be ……………
(a) Single stranded (b) Double stranded
(c) Triple stranded (d) Four stranded
48. Pneumococcus experiment proved that
(a) Bacteria do not reproduce asexually
(b) Bacteria undergo binary fission
(c) DNA is genetic material
(d) RNA may sometimes control production of DNA and proteins
49. Point mutation is ……………..
(a) Loss of gene (b) Change in base of gene
(c) Addition of a gene (d) Deletion of a segment of gene
50. A mutation at one base of first codon of a gene forms a nonfunctional protein.
It is
(a) Nonsense mutation (b) Reverse mutation
(c) Frame shift mutation (d)missense mutation

UNIT III

1.d 2.a 3.a 4.d 5.a 6.b 7.b 8.a 9.b 10.b

11.b 12.c 13.a 14.a 15.c 16.a 17.d 18.c 19.b 20.c

21.a 22.c 23.a 24.c 25.a 26.c 27.d 28.a 29.d 30.a

31.c 32.d 33.b 34.c 35.b 36.c 37.c 38.a 39.a 40.b

41.d 42.b 43.c 44.d 45.c 46.a 47.a 48.c 49.b 50.d

Unit -IV

1.The genetic code is:

a). ambiguous. b). overlapping. c). not degenerate. d). not truly
universal.
2. Transcription involves ………
(a) Synthesis of RNA and DNA
(b) Joining of amino acid in a polypeptide
 (c) Synthesis of RNA over ribosome
(d) Synthesis of DNA
3. Degeneracy of genetic code was discovered by ……..
(a) Khorana (b) Ochoa (c) McClintock (d) Bernfield and
Nirenberg
4. Genetic code consists of ………
(a) Adenine and guanine (b) Cytosine and uracil
(c) Cytosine and guanine (d) all of the above
5. Genetic code determines ………
(a) Sequence of amino acids in protein chain (b) Variations
(c) Constancy of morphological traits (d) Structural pattern
6. First deciphering of genetic code through trinucleotide synthesis was performed
by…...
(a) Beadle and Tatum (b) Watson and Crick (c) Nirenberg (d) Ochoa
7. Initiation of polypeptide chain is through………
(a) Lysine (b) Glycine (c) Leucine (d) Methionine
8. Codon of mRNA and anticodon of tRNA is made of …………..
(a) A set of three out U,A,C and G (b) A set of three and two respectively
(c) A set of two nitrogen bases (d) three and one nitrogen bases respectively
9. The term gene was coined by ……….
(a) McClintock (b) Morgan (c) Johannsen (d) De Duve
10. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of …….
(a) Serine and isoleucine (b) Cysteine and valine
(c) Tyrosine and tryptophan (d) Phenylalanine and methionine
11. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons are ………
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded (b) 64 types of tRNAs are present
(c) There are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense codons (d) Genetic code is
triplet 12. An anticodon of tRNA can recognize more than one codon of
mRNA. It is …….
(a) Wobble hypothesis (b) Gene flow hypothesis
(c) Template hypothesis (d) Richmond and Lang effect
13. Wobble hypothesis establishes……….
(a) Peptide chain formation (b) Initiation of peptide chain
(c) Termination of peptide chain (d) Economy in tRNA molecules
14. Site of tRNA that binds to mRNA molecule is ……………
(a) 3’ end (b) 5’ (c) Codon (d) Anticodon
15. Which of the following is true?
a). every amino acid is coded for by a single codon.
b). there are more amino acids than there are codons.
c). every codon codes for an amino acid.
d). each codon in a gene codes for no more than one single amino acid.
16.AUG is almost always the:
a). intron b). Exon c). Anticodon d). Initiation codon
17.Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the
genetic code is?
(a) Overlapping (b) Wobbling (c) Degenerate (d) Generate
18. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(a) Transcription (b) Watson (c) Boveri and Sutton (d)
Hershy and Chase
19. Information transfer from RNA to DNA is ……..
(a) Transcription (b) Translation (c) Replication (d)
Reverse transcription
20. A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence. The nucleotide sequence
of other chain would be ………………….
(a) TCGAAGCT (b) GCTAAGCT (c) TAGCATAT (d)
GATCCTAG
21. Which is not involved in protein synthesis?
(a) Transcription b) Initiation (c) Elongation d) Termination
22. Characters are transferred from parents to progeny through …………..
(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Protein d) Phospholipid
23. Arrangement of three successive bases in genetic code signifies………….
(a) Protein b) Amino acid (c) Nucleic acid d) Plasmid
24. Reverse transcriptase is……………
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) DNA dependent RNA
polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (d) RNA dependent DNA
polymerase
25. In some viruses RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that ………
(a) Their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA before replication
 (b) They cannot replicate y
(c) There is no hereditary information
(d) RNA can act transfer heredity
26. In split genes, the coding sequences are called as……….
(a) Exons (b) Introns (c) Cistrons (d) Operons
27. The number of base substitution possible in amino acid codons is ……………
(a) 261 (b) 264 (c) 535 (d) 549
28. Watson and Crick are known for their discovery that DNA is ………….
(a) Single stranded (b) Double stranded
(c) Having deoxyribose only (d) Template for rRNA synthesis

29. Coded information in nucleic acid depends upon …………..

(a) Arrangement of nucleotides (b) Position of nucleotides
(c) Number of nucleotides d) all of the above
30. According to (ochoa 1953) RNA polymerase has ……………….polypeptide
chains
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
31. DNA strand with nitrogen base sequence ATTGCC have sequence in mRNA
as…………
(a) UAACGG (b) ATCGCC (c) ATTGCA (d)
UGGACC
32. DNA sequence of ATTCGATG is transcribed as…………..
(a) AUUCGG (b) UAAGCUAC (c) CAUCGAAU (d) GUAGCUUA
33. Hereditary information is indicated by ………….
(a) Number of nucleic acids (b) Position of nucleic acids
(c) Sequence of nucleic acids (d) All of the above
34. What is correct for protein synthesis?
(a) Code transfer on mRNA (b) Code transfer on tRNA
(c) Coding is done by DNA strands (d) DNA coding takes place in
antiparallel fashion
35. Triplet codon refers to sequence of three bases on …………..
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) All of the above
36. Genetic code was discovered by frame shift mutation by …………..
(a) Crick (b) Watson (c) Franklin (d) Khorana
37. Who synthesized the first artificial gene?
 (a) Morgan (b) Nirenberg (c) Khorana (d) Mendel
38. One of the functions of gene is to…………….
a) Secrete vacuoles. b). Make copies of itself
c). Join amino acids to each other. d) Carry genetic information out of
the nucleus.
39. The product of transcription is……………
a). DNA. b). protein. c). mRNA. d). a ribosome.
40. A section of DNA has the following sequence of nitrogenous bases:
CGATTACAG which of the following sequences would be produced as a result
of transcription?
a). CGTUUTCTG b). GCTAATGTC c). CGAUUACAG d).
GCUAAUGUC
41. Which of the following best describes the function of mRNA?
a). It stays in the nucleus and is copied by DNA.
b). It carries amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
c). It makes up the ribosomes and provides the site for protein synthesis.
d). It is transcribed from the DNA and carries the information to the ribosome.
42. If the triplet code on a DNA molecule changes from ACT to AGC, the result is
called………….
a). mutation. b). metastasis. c). translation. d). transcription.
43. Which of the following terms describes the process shown below? DNA to
mRNA
a). Unzipping. b). Translation. c). Replication. d). Transcription.
44.During transcription:
a). nucleotides are polymerized by DNA polymerase
b). initiation occurs at a site recognized by the sigma factor.
c). only single gene-sized mRNA molecules are synthesized
d). both DNA strands of a single gene are used as templates simultaneously
45. Promoter regions are nucleotide sequences that:
(a) are involved in the initiation of transcription (b) are involved in transcription
termination
(c) contain the code for 1mRNA molecule (d) all of the above
46. A promoter sites on DNA………..
a) Initiates transcription b) Regulates termination
c) Codes for RNA d) Transcribes repressor.
47. The part of bacterial RNA polymerase responsible for recognizing the promoter
in the……
a) Alpha subunit b) Rho protein c) DNA Pol III d) Sigma Subunit
48. Genetic code is………….
a) The sequence of N2 bases in mRNA molecule that code for a protein
b) Is a triplet code c) is non- overlapping d) all of these
49. Which one of the following is termination codon?
a).UAA,UAG,UGA b).UUA.UGA,UUU c).UAA,UGA,UUA
d).UUA,UAG,UGG
50. Which among following is not a post transcriptional modification method?
a).splicing b).capping c).polyadenylation d).glycosylation

UNIT IV

1.d 2.a 3.d 4.d 5.a 6.c 7.d 8.a 9.c 10.d

11.d 12.a 13.d 14.d 15.d 16.d 17.c 18.d 19.d 20.a

21.d 22.a 23.b 24.d 25.d 26.a 27.d 28.b 29.a 30.d

31.a 32.b 33.d 34.a 35.a 36.a 37.c 38.b 39.c 40.d

41.d 42.d 43.d 44.b 45.a 46.a 47.d 48.d 49.a 50.d

UNIT V
1. The lac operon…………………..
a). is under negative and positive control.
b). is under positive control only.
c). is normally expressed constitutively.
d). is an example of tissue-specific expression.
2. RNA polymerase binds to the:
a). operator b). promoter c). repressor d). inducer
3. With regards to the trp operon,
a). tryptophan is an inducer. b). tryptophan is a co-repressor.
c). attenuation can halt replication.d). none of the above.
4. Under the system of genetic control of the trp operon,
a) when there are high levels of tryptophan in the medium, transcription of thetrp
operon
occurs at high levels.
b). when there is no tryptophan in the medium, transcription of thetrp operon occurs
at
high levels.
c). When there are high levels of tryptophan in the medium, transcription of CAP
occurs at high
levels.
d) When there are high levels of tryptophan in the medium, ribosomes “stall” and
reduce the
levels of tryptophan synthesized.
5. Regarding thetrp operon in B. subtilis, TRAP influences gene expression
a) by blocking transcription when levels of tryptophan are high.
b).by inducing transcription when levels of tryptophan are high.
c).by inducing translation when levels of tryptophan are high.
d).none of the above
6. When it comes to the arabinose operon, the AraC protein exerts
a). negative control b).positive control c). both negative and positive control d).
no control
7. Considering the location of genetic material in the interphase nucleus, certain
chromosomal territories appear to exist. Specifically,
a). each chromosome appears to occupy a discrete domain.
b). gene-poor regions of chromosomes are located outside the nucleus, whereas
gene-rich
regions are located inside the nucleus.
c). even-numbered chromosomes are located in the interior of the nucleus,whereas
odd- numbered chromosomes are located peripherally.
d). large chromosomes are more likely to be located in the center of the nucleus.

8. Transcription factors act as……………..

a). cis-acting regulatory elements
b). trans-acting regulatory elements
c). promoters
d). enhancers
9. SWI-SNF proteins are involved in:
a). basal translation b). RNA interference c). repression d) chromatin remodeling
10. Eukaryotic cells are able to carefully regulate precise levels of transcription in
specific genes encoding proteins through:
a). complex enhancer elements that can associate with multiple activator and
repressor proteins
b). production of different types of sigma factors
c). attenuation
d). all of the above
11). Which of the following methods of regulation is not present in prokaryotes?
a). DNA-binding proteinsb). attenuation
c). repressor proteinsd). chromatin remodeling
12. Which of the following can account for multiple proteins from a single primary
transcript?
a). alternative splicingb). reverse transcription
c). 5' methylationd) .polyribosomes
13. The term "chromatin remodeling" refers to
a). alteration of chromatin structure in association with transcription.
b). a process that only bacteria perform since they contain no nucleus.
c). a process that is exclusively associated with transcription by RNA polymeraseIII
in eukaryotes.
d). alteration in chromatin structure to facilitate loading and translation by
ribosomes and, thus, enhance gene expression.
14. The phenomenon known as “RNAi” (RNA interference) is commonly used
experimentally to
a).reduce expression of a specific target gene.
b).reduce transcription rate from an entire genome.
c)interfere with replication.
d).enhance gene expression.
15. Three post transcriptional modifications which often seen in the maturation of
mRNA in eukaryotes are……..
a). 5'-capping, 3'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing
b). 3'-capping, 5'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing
c). removal of exons, insertion of introns, capping
d). 5'-poly(A) tail addition, insertion of introns, capping
16 .E.Coli is capable of growth using the carbohydrate……….
(a)sucrose (b) Glucose (c) Galactose (d) all the above

17. The gene expression can be regulated a during………….

(a) Transcription (b) mRNA processing (c) mRNA turnover (d) all of these
18. Who proposed that genes control the production of enzymes?
(a) R.D Kornberg (b) Beadle and Tatum (c) A.E. Garrod (d) T.H. Morgan
19. Regulator gene controls chemical synthesis (Operon concept) by…
(a) Inhibiting transcription of mRNA (b) Inhibiting enzymes
(c) Inhibiting passage of mRNA (d) Inhibiting substrate enzyme
reaction
20. A promoter sites on DNA………..
a) Initiates transcription b) Regulates termination
c) Codes for RNA d) Transcribes repressor.
21. Tryptophan operon is a…………..
(a) Catabolic operon (b) anabolic operon (c) both a&b (d) none of these
22. In operon model, RNA polymerase binds to…………………
(a) Structural gene (b) Promoter gene (c) Regulator (d) Operon
gene
23. A gene which synthesizes a repressor protein is ………
(a) Operator gene (b) Structural gene (c) Promoter gene (d) Regulator
gene
24. Synthesis of DNA over RNA template / terminism occurs in …………
(a) TMV (b) Retrovirus (c) Rous Sarcoma Virus (d) T2
25. Genes regulate growth and differentiation through………
(a) Transcription and translation (b) Transduction and translation
(c) Transformation (d) Translation
26. In Escherichicoli, lac operon is induced by ……..
(a) Lactose (b) Promoter gene (c) b-galactosidase (d) I-gene
27. Lac operon is ………
(a) Arabinose operon (b) Repressible operon
(c) Inducible operon (d) Overlapping genes
28.Wild type Escherichiacoli growing on medium having glucose is transferred to
lactose containing medium.Which change occurs?
 (a) Lac operon is induced (b) Lac operon is suppressed
(c) All operons are induced (d) The bacterium stops dividing
29. Environmental agent triggering transcription from an operon is…….
(a) Inducer (b) Regulator (c) Derepressor (d) Controlling factor
30. Nuclear DNA sends information for protein synthesis through………
(a) tRNA (b) mRNA (c) rRNA d) All of the above
31. Products of gene required to activate another gene are called ………
(a) Catalases (b) Coenzymes (c) Episomes (d)
Transcription factors
repressor
32. Operator gene of lac-opreon is turned on when lactose molecules bind to…….
protein
(a) Promoter site (b) mRNA (c) Operator gene (d) Regulator gene
33. Which of the following transports lactose into the cell?
a). RNA polymerase. b). β- galactosidase.
c). galactosidase permease. d). none of the above.
34. Which of the following involve negative control of transcription through a
repressor protein?
(a) Enzyme repression (b) Enzyme induction (c) Alternative sigma factor
(d) a and b
35. A gene is a section of DNA that codes for a protein, this unique sequence of
bases will code for the production of a unique protein is:
a. Exon b. Intron c. Regulatory sequence d.Non-of these
36.Gene expression mechanism is more complicated in …………. cell .
a. Eukaryotic cell b.Prokaryotic cell c. both a & b d. none of these
37.Monocistronic mRNA are present in __________.
a. Eukaryotic cell b.Prokaryotic cell c. both a & b d. none of these
38.Smallest length of DNA undergoing mutations ,such sites were named as muton
by …..
a. Benzer b. Griffith c. T.H.Morgan d. Watson and crick
39. Actual site of transcription initiation is occurs in __________.
a. Promoter gene b. Operator gene c. Regulator gene d.none of these.
40. The regulator gene produces a substances called ________ which is an allosteric
protein.
a. Repressor b.Supressor c. both a&b d. none of these
41. A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is………………………….
a.Structural gene b. Regulator gene c. Operator gene d. Promoter gene
42. Structural unit of gene is also known as ………………….
a.Open reading frame b.inducer c.stimulator d.operon
43 In the presence of high levels of tryptophan……………
a) attenuator allows transcription of trp structural genes
b) attenuator propagates transcription
c) attenuator terminates transcription
d) none of the above
44. Introns are removed from the RNA molecules by the process of ……………..
a. Splicing b.cappingc.polyadenylation d. all of these
45…… is a triplet of messenger RNA which helps in translation during protein
synthesis.
a. Codon b. triplet of nucleotide c. both a &b d. ribosome
46…….. is a another name of gene.
a.Cistronb.ORF c. recon d. none of these
47. Products of gene required to activate another gene are called ………..
(a) Catalases (b) Coenzymes (c) Episomes (d) Transcription
factors
48. Nobel Prize for one gene one enzyme hypothesis was given to …….
(C) Watson and crick b) Sutton and Boveri c)Avery etal d) Beadle
and Tatum
49. Genes which need to be coordinately regulated but are not in operons may be
regulated by……
(a) common transcription factor binding domains (b) TATA boxes
(c) CAAT regeions (d) GC regions

50. In operon concept, the operator gene combines with………

(a) Regulator protein to switch off structural gene transcription
(b) Regulator protein to switch on structural gene transcription
(c) Inducer to switch off structural gene transcription
(d) Regulator gene to switch off structural gene transcription
UNIT V

1.c 2.b 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.a 8.b 9.d 10.a

11.d 12.d 13.a 14.a 15.a 16.b 17.d 18.b 19.a 20.a

21.b 22.b 23.d 24.b 25.a 26.a 27.c 28.a 29.a 30.b

31.d 32.c 33.c 34.a 35.a 36.a 37.b 38.a 39.a 40.c

41.a 42.a 43.a 44.a 45.c 46.a 47.d 48.d 49.a 50.a
Semester 1
Core 2: Biochemistry Course code : P15BT102

UNIT-I

1. Who introduced the term pH and H+ ?

a) Sorenson b) Lehinger c) William Carvy d) Gelvin
2. The range of pH in any solution should be in …………
a) 0-14 b) 0-7 c) 7-14 d) 1-10
3. Select one example for strong acid and alkali from the following pair.
a) HCL/NaOH b) HCl/ CH3COOH c) H2O/NaOH
d) H2O/CH3COOH
4. The normal pH of the blood is ………………
a) 7.4 b) 8.00 c) 6.75 d) 7.75
5. The average of pH of urine is…….
a) 5.6 b) 6.0 c)6.4 d) 7.0
6. The pH of erythrocytes and muscle are …….
a) 7.20 and < 6 b) 7.20 and > 6 c) 6.70 and <7 d) 6.70 and
>7
7. The pH of pure water is…………
a) neutral b) acidic c)alkali d) nil
8. The acid is a ……. donor and the base is a ……. acceptor
a) proton and proton b) electron and elctron
c) neutron and electron d) proton and electron
9. Acid/Base concept was first introduced by……..
a) Bronsted-Lowry b) Sorenson c) Rutherford d) Newton
10. The difference between an acid and its corresponding base is the presence
and absence of ……
a) electron b) proton c) neutron d) both a and b
11. In general, a strong acid is having a corresponding ……… base
a) weak b) strong c) both a and b d) either a or b
12. In general, a weak acid is having a corresponding ……… base
a) weak b) strong c) both a and b d) none of the
above
13. Examples for commonly referred alkalies are……..
a) NaOH b)KOH c) both a and b d) none of the above
14. The substance which can function both as acids and bases are referred to as
………..
a) amphipathies b) ampholytes c) amphoacids d) amphobases
15. …………… is the best example for ampholytes
a) NaOH b)KOH c) water d) HCl
16. A relationship among pH, acid and base was derived by…………. equation
a) Michalis-Menton b) Henderson-Hasselbalch c) Sorenson d)
Lowry
17. A solution that resists a change in pH on the addition of acid and base is
……
a) strong acid b) buffer c) water d) strong alkali
18. Buffer solutions…………….
a) will always have a pH of 7
b) are rarely found in living systems
c) cause a decrease in pH when acids are added to them.
d) tend to maintain a relatively constant pH
19. Buffers are the mixture of …….. and ………..
a) weak, conjugate b) strong, conjugate c) weak, strong d) weak,
weak
20. Important buffer system of extracellular fluid is ……..
a) Bicarbonate b) Disodium hydrogen c) haemoglobin d)
Phosphate
21. Important buffer system of intracellular fluid is ……..
a) Bicarbonate b) Disodium hydrogen c) haemoglobin d)
Phosphate
22. Haemoglobin buffer system contains……….
a) Bicarbonate b) Disodium hydrogen c) carbonic d)
Phosphate
23. Quantitatively, the most significant buffer system in plasma is…………
a) Phosphate buffer system
 b) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
c) Lactic acid-lactate buffer system
d) Protein buffer system
24. Slight changes in biochemical reaction have a significant ………. effect
a) physiological b) turbidity c) temperature d) salinity

25. Polyprotic acids such as H3PO4, can act as acid-base buffers …………
a) only in combination with polyprotic bases b) if their concentration is
kept low
c) at pH values around neutrality d) at pH values around any
of their pKa's
26. The pH of a solution is determined by ……………..
a) concentration of salt b) relative concentration of acids and
bases
c) dielectric constant of the medium d) environmental effect
27. The reactions of molecules …………….
a) arethe reactions of the functional groups
b) are independent of the functional groups
c) require an enzyme in all cases
d) all of the above
28. Which of the following indicates that the pK of an acid is numerically equal
to the pH of the solution when the molar concentration of the acid and its
conjugate base are equal?
a) Michaelis-Menten equation b) Haldanes equation
c) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation d) Hardy-Windberg law
29. Molecules in which the atoms are held together by ……… bonds have the
strongest chemical linkages.
a) noncovalent b) covalent c) ionic d) hydrogen
30. Salt dissolves well in water as water molecules ……….
a) form hydrogen bonds with the positively and negatively charged ions
b) make nonpolar covalent bonds with the positively charged ions only
c) surround the ions because of their charge but do not form hydrogen bonds
d) electrons with the ions to make polar covalent bond
31. The amino acid, histidine is a/an ……………..
 a) weak base b) weak acid c) strong
acid d) strong base
32. Bronsted acid becomes …………….. upon losing a proton.
a) highly reactive b) its conjugate acid
c) its conjugate base d) a hydronium ion
33. Most of the important functional groups in biological molecules contain
………..
a) oxygen and/or nitrogen and are acidic b) oxygen and a phosphate
c) nitrogen and a phosphate d) oxygen and/or nitrogen and are
polar
34. What is the concentration, in moles/liter, of the hydrogen ion, if pH of a
solution is 7?
a) 7 b) 7 x 10-7 c) 5 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-7
35. Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?
a) methanol b) ethanol c) butanol
d) octanol
36. If protein is made exclusively from nonpolar amino acids, then it will this
protein interact with water?
a) be repelled by water b) It will be attracted to water
c) It will form a membrane in water d) It will act as a buffer and stabilize
the pH
37. A compound that is capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water ……….
a) is probably held together by noncovalent bonds
b) contains at least some polar covalent bonds
c) should act as a good buffer for acids and bases
d) does not dissolve well in water
38. A biological polymer contains alanine, tyrosine, and lysine. Which of the
following will be true about this molecule?
a) DNA b) Strong base c) Phospholipid d) Protein
39. The effectiveness or capacity of a buffer solution can be affected by ………
a) molar concentration of the buffer components
b) concentration of the conjugate base to the weak acid
c) both (a) and (b)
d) temperature of buffer components
40. H2O and CH4 are both examples of ………….
 a) molecules b) ions c) acids d) none of these
41. Hydrogen bonds and hydrophilic interactions are types of ………….
a) weak chemical bonds that hold together the atoms within a molecule
b) strong chemical bonds that hold together the atoms within a molecule
c) weak chemical bonds that link together separate molecules
d) strong chemical bonds that link together separate molecules
42. A solution with pH = 5 is …………. than a solution with pH = 7.
a) 2 times more basic b) 10 times more basic
c) 10 times more acidic d) 100 times more acidic
43. The lone pair electrons on oxygen in a H20 molecule ……….
a) carry a partial positive charge b) are not important for the properties of
water
c) carry a partial negative charge d) form covalent bonds in ice
44. Which of the following statements about water is correct?
a) It is critical for many of the chemical processes found in living systems
b) Polar substances that can form hydrogen bonds will dissolve in it
c) Nonpolar substances like oils are not soluble in it
d) All of the above
45. The strength of an acid depends on ………….
a) number of neutrons gain b) electronegativity
c) number of double bonds d) number of protons released
46. Which of the following statements about covalently bonded molecules is
false?
a) Electrons are shared between the atoms that make up the molecule
b) Noncovalent bonds may also be present, especially if the molecule is large
c) Such molecules often result from the interaction of ionized atoms
d) The chemical bonds that hold the molecule together are relatively strong
47. The secondary structure is primarily maintained by …………
a)van der waal force b)hydrogen bond c)ionic bond d)hydrophobic bond
48. All of the following can be classified as biomolecule except ……..
a)lipid b)proteins c)carbohydrates d)polyvinyl
49. Which functional groupis least important in biochemistry?
a)amine b)ester c) hydroxyl d)aromatic
50. Free energy is termed as ………….
a)entropy b) enthalpy c)buoyancy d)kinetic force
1) a 2) a 3) b 4) a 5) b 6) b 7) d 8) b 9) a 10)
b

11) 12) c 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 20)
a b d d d a a a a

21) 22) c 23) 24) 25) a 26) c 27) 28) 29) 30)
b a b a b a a

31) 32) 33) c 34) 35) a 36) 37) 38) 39) c 40)
b a a b a b b

41) c 42) 43) 44) 45)a 46)a 47) 48) c 49) 50)
b b d d b a

UNIT – II

1. The general formula of monosaccharide is ……….

a) CnH2nOn b) C2nH2On c) CnH2O2n d) CnH2nO2n
2. The aldose sugar is ………….
a) Glycerose b) Ribulose c) Erythrulose d) Dihydoxyacetone
3. The smallest monosaccharide having furanose ring structure is……….
a) Erythrose b) Ribose c) Glucose d) Fructose
4. A triose sugar is ………….
a) Glycerose b) Ribose c) Erythrose d) Fructose
5. The pentose sugar present mainly in all cells is ………..
a) Lyxose b) Ribose c) Arabinose d) Xylose
6. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
a) Glucose and fructose b) Glucose and galactose
c) Galactose and mannose d) Lactose and maltose
7. The number of isomers of glucose is ………..
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
8. Two sugars which differ from one another in configuration by aanomeric
carbon atom are termed….
 a) Epimers b) Anomers c) Optical isomers d) Stereoisomers
9. Isomers differing as a result of variations in configuration of the —OH and
—H on carbon atoms 2, 3 and 4 of glucose are known as ………
a) Epimers b) Anomers c) Optical isomers d) Steroisomers
10. Hyaluronic acid is found in ………….
a) Joints b) Brain c) Abdomen d) Mouth
11. A sugar alcohol is …………..
a) Mannitol b) Trehalose c) Xylulose d) Arabinose
12. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is ………
a) Glycogen b) Pectin c) Trehalose d) Sucrose
13. The sugar found in DNA is …….
a) Xylose b) Ribose c) Deoxyribose d) Ribulose
14. The sugar found in RNA is …………..
a) Ribose b) Deoxyribose c) Ribulose d) Erythrose
15. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
a) Isomaltose b) Maltose c) Lactose d) Trehalose
16. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
a) Sucrose b) Trehalose c) Isomaltose d) Agar
17. Glycosidic bond is present in …………
a) glucose b) maltose c) fructose d) erythrose
18. Mutarotation refers to change in ……………
a) pH b) Optical rotation c) Conductance d) Chemical properties
19. Iodine gives a red colour with ………….
a) Starch b) fructose c) Glycogen d) Inulin
20. Amylose is a constituent of …………………
a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Glycogen d) None of these
21. The constituent unit of inulin is …………..
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Mannose d) Galactose
22. The polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of invertebrates is …………….
a) Pectin b) Chitin c) Cellulose d) Chondroitin sulphate
23. Which of the following is a heteroglycan?
a) Dextrins b) Agar c) Inulin d) Chitin
24. The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is
…………….
 a) Dermatansulphate b) Chondroitin sulphatec) Keratansulphated)
Heparansulphate
25. Keratansulphate is found in abundance in …………
a) Heart muscle b) Liver c) Adrenal cortex d) Cornea
26. The predominant form of glucose in solution is ……………
a) acyclic form b) hydrated acyclic form c) glucofuranose d)
glucopyranose
27. Examples for cardiac glycosides …….
a) digoxin b) digitoxin c) both a and b d) none of these
28. A carbohydrate found in germinating seeds is …………
a) maltose b) fructose c) Glucose d) Lactose
29. The following examples are important heteropolysaccharides except……
a) amylopectin b) heparin c) peptidoglycan d) hyaluronic acid
30. Streptomycin antibiotic belongs to the group of ………..
a) protein b) carbohydrate c) aminoacid d) lipid
31. In maltose, the linkage is …..
a) β.1.4 linkage b) β.1.2 linkage c) α.1.4 linkage d) α.1.2 linkage
32. Starch consists of …….
a) unbranched amylose and branched amylopectin
b) branched amylose and branched amylopectin
c) unbranched amylose and unbranched amylopectin
d) none of these
33. Cellulose is made up of repeating units of …….
a) β.1.4 linkage between D-glucose units b) β.1.2 linkage between D-
glucose units
c) α1.4 linkage between D-glucose units d) α.1.2 linkage between D-
glucose units
34. Amylopectin has ….
a) β.1.4 and β.1.6 linkage b) β.1.2 linkage c) α.1.4 and α.1.6 linkage d)
α.1.2 linkage
35. Chitin consists of ……..
a) N-acetylmuramic acid b) N-acetyl glucosamine
c) D-glucose units d) N-acetylmuramic acid and N.acetyl glucosamine
36. A lipid is formed by the condensation reactions between……
a)Carbon and hydrogen b)Fatty acids and alcohol
 c)Fatty acids and amino acids d)Fatty acids and amines
37. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding lipids…….
a)Lipids are insoluble in water b)Lipids are insoluble in ethanol
c)Lipids are soluble in benzene d)Lipids are insoluble in chloroform
38. Fats consists of………..
a)alcohol linked by ester bonds to 3 fatty acids
b)glycerol molecule linked by ester bonds to 3 fatty acids
c)glycerol molecule linked by ester bonds to a fatty acid
d)glycerol molecule linked by ester bonds to 4 fatty acids
39. Cardiolipin is a……..
a)Glycolipids b)phopholipids
c)Simple lipids d)none of these
40. Phytosterol include……….
a)ergosterol b)stigmasterol c)both a and b d)cholesterol
41. Which of the following is a Phospholipid?
a)Oleic acid b)Glycogen c)Prostaglandin d) Sphingomyelin
42. The highest phospholipids content is found in……….
a) Chylomicrons b) VLDL c)LDL d) HDL
43. An example of a saturated fatty acid is………….
a) Palmitic acid b) Oleic acid c)Linoleic acid d) Erucic
acid
44. The fatty acid present in cerebrosides is……..
a) Lignoceric acid b) Valeric acid c) Caprylic acid d) Behenic
acid
45. In humans, a dietary essential fatty acid is………
a) Palmitic acid b) Stearic acid c) Oleic acid d)
Linoleic acid
46. Which of the following is omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid?
a) Linoleic acid b) α-Linolenic acidc) γ-Linolenic acid d)
Arachidonic acid
47. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissues is …………
a) Phospholipid b) Cholesterol c) Sphingolipids d)
Triacylglycerol
48. Glycosphingolipids are a combination of ……………
a) Ceramide with one or more sugar residues b)Glycerol with
galactose
 c)Sphingosine with galactose d)Sphingosine with phosphoric
acid
49. Higher alcohol present in waxes is ………… alcohol
a) Benzyl b) Methyl c) Ethyl d) Cetyl
50. All of the following are omega-6-fatty acids except………….
a) Linoleic acid b) α-Linolenic acidc) β-Linolenic acid d) Arachidonic
acid

1) a 2) b 3) a 4) a 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) b 9) a 10)
a

11) 12) c 13) c 14) 15) 16) c 17) 18) 19) c 20)
a a d b b a

21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) c 28) 29) 30)
b b b c d d a a b

31) 32) 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40) c
a a a c b b b b b

41) 42) c 43) 44) 45)d 46)a 47) 48) c 49) 50)
d a a d d a

UNIT – III

1. Amino acids are …..

a) building blocks of carbohydrates b) building blocks of nucleic
acids
c) building blocks of lipids d) building blocks of proteins
2. Amino acids has…….
a) both amino group and carboxyl group b) both amino group and keto
group
c) amino group only d) carboxyl group only
3. The simplest amino acid is………
a) Proline b) methionine c) glycine d) serine
4. Which of the following amino acid is a ‘α-helix terminator’?
 a) tryptophan b) phenyl alnine c) tyrosine d) proline
5. The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is …..
a) Serine b) Valine c) Alanine d) Methionine
6. Which of the following amino acid has the buffering capacity?
a) Tryptophan b) cysteine c) histidine d) arginine
7. Which of the following is an α imino acid ?
a) serine b) threonine c) valine d) proline
8. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins ……
a) L-amino acids only b) D-amino acids only
c) both L and D amino acids d) none of these
9. Sulphur containing amino acids are ……
a) Cysteine and methionine b) Methionine and threonine
c) Cysteine and threonine d) Cysteine and serine
10. Aromatic amino acids include ………
a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan b) Phenylalanine, serine and
tryptophan
c) Threonine, tyrosine and tryptophan d) Asparagine, tyrosine and
tryptophan
11. Positively charged basic amino acids are ……….
a) Lysine and arginine b) Lysine and asparagine
c) Glutamine and arginine d) Lysine and glutamine
12. Acidic amino acids include ……….
a) Arginine and glutamate b) Aspartate and asparagine
c) Aspartate and lysine d) Aspartate and glutamate
13. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are …….
a) serine and alanine b) Alanine and valine
c) serine and threonine d) Valine and isoleucine
14. The 21st amino acid is ……..
a) hydroxy lysine b) hydroxyl proline c) selenocysteine d) citrulline
15. Absorbance at 280nm exhibited by protein is due to ………….
a) aliphatic amino acids ) all amino acids
c) Non-polar amino acids d) aromatic amino acid
16. Which of the following is amino acid has indole ring in its side chain?
a)Tyrosine b)Histidine c)tryptophan d)Phenyl alanine
17. Amino acids with hydroxyl OH group include …….
 a)serine b)threonine c)tyrosine d)all of these
18. Which of the following amino acid has amide group in its side chain ?
a)Cysteine b)lysine c)glutamine d)isoleucine
19. Aspartamine, an artificial sweetener is made of …..
a)Aspartate and glutamate b)Asparagine and Glutamate
c)Aspartate and phenylalanine d)Aspartate and glycine
20. Which of the following amino acids are considered as semi-essential amino
acids?
a)Asparagine and histidine b)Tryptophan and arginine
c)Histidine and arginine d)Histidine, arginine and tryptophan
21. D-amino acids occur naturally in small amounts in …..
a)Bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall b)Fungal chitinous cell wall
c) Cellulosic plant cell wall d)All of these
22. Aromatic aminoacids are relatively………..
a) polar b)non-polar c)neutral d) rigid in structure
23. Tryptophan is the precursor of plant hormone, ……….
a)auxin b)cytokinin c)kinetin d)gibberellin
24. Ornithine and citrulline for urea synthesis are derivatives of …..
a)cysteine b)arginine c)Histidine d)methionine
25. Which of the following biomolecule has the most diversity in function?
a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)nucleic acids d)lipids
26. A peptide bond formation between 2 amino acids is accompanied by …….
a)deamination b)addition of water
c)loss of water d)decarboxylation
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding proteins?
a)Insulin is a protein hormone b)Proteins are genetic material in some
viruses
c)Collagen is a structural protein d)Capsid of virus is made up of proteins
28. A tripeptide has …..
a)One peptide bond b)Two peptide bonds
c)Three peptide bonds d)None of these
29. Which of the following is not a protein?
a)immunoglobulin b)androgen
c)snake venom d)collagen
30. Which is the major protein present in hair and nail?
 a)ferittin b)keratin c)resilin d)actin
31. All are transport proteins except …..
a)Haemoglobin b)ferittin c)myoglobin d)
lipoprotein
32. Which of the following amino acid is a alpha helix terminator ?
a)cysteine b)alanin c)proline d)isoleucine
33. The amyloid protein deposition associated with Alzheimer’s disease is
composed of
a)Alpha helix b)Beta pleated sheets c)Beta bends d)Tertiary
structure
34. The most common amino acid in beta bend is ……..
a)cysteine b)glycine c)serine d)methionine
35. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of-
a)Hemoglobin b) Myoglobin c) Insulin d) Collagen
36. Choose a nano peptide out of the followings ……
a) Oxytocin b) Vasopressin c) Bradykinin d) All of the above
37. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH?
a) Valine b) Leucine c) Isoleucine d) None of the followings
38. Which out of the following amino acids is a precursor for a mediator of
allergies and inflammation?
a) Histidine b) Tyrosine c) Phenyl Alanine d) Tryptophan
39. Which out of the following amino acid is a precursor of niacin (Vitamin)?
a) Tyrosine b)Threonine c) Tryptophan d) Phenylalanine
40. The greatest buffering capacity at physiological pH would be provided by a
protein rich in which of the following amino acids?
a) Serine b) Cysteine c) Alanine d) Histidine
41. Which of the following peptide is cyclic in nature?
a) Glutathione b) Gramicidin c) Metencephalin d) Leuencephalin
42. Which of the following amino acid is a limiting amino acid in pulses?
a) Leucine b) Lysine c) Methionine d) Glutamine
43. Which out of the following is not a heme protein ?
a) Catalase b) Myeloperoxidase c) Glutathione peroxidase d)
Aconitase
44. All the below mentioned proteins are metalloproteins except ……
 a)Carbonic anhydrase b) Xanthine oxidase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase d) Superoxide dismutase
45. Which out of the following antibiotic is peptide in nature?
a) erythromycin b) Gramicidin c) Ciprofloxacin d) Tetracycline
46. Choose the anticancer peptide out of the followings.
a)Bleomycin b) Methotrexate c) Cytosine Arabinoside d)
DideoxyInosine
47. Which of the following amino acids is most compatible with α- helical
structure?
a)Tryptophan b) Alanine c) Leucine d) Proline
48. Amino acids are bonded together by …..
a)Amide bond b)Hydrogen bond c)Peptide bond
d)glycosidic bond
49. All the following are amino acids except ……..
a)lysine b)protamine c)glycine d)valine
50. The highest concentration of cystine can be found in …….
a)melanin b)keratin c)collagen d)myosin

1) d 2) a 3) c 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) d 8) a 9) a 10) a

11) a 12) d 13) c 14) c 15) d 16) c 17) d 18) c 19) c 20) c

21) a 22) b 23) a 24) b 25) b 26) c 27) b 28) b 29) b 30) b

31) d 32) c 33) c 34) b 35) d 36) d 37) d 38) a 39) c 40) d

41) b 42) c 43) d 44) c 45)b 46)a 47) b 48) c 49) b 50) b

UNIT –IV ENZYME KINETICS

1. Enzymes are …………..

a) Carbohydrate b) RNA c) Proteins d) Fats
2. The term enzyme is coined by ……………..
a) Pasteur b) Buchner c) Urey Miller d) Kuhne
3. The fastest enzyme is ……………..
 a) Pepsin b) Carbonic unhydrase c) DNA gyrase d) DNA
polymerase
4. Fat is hydrolysed by the enzyme known as……………..
a) Trypsin b) Lipase c) pepsin d) Amylase
5. The term apoenzyme is applicable to………………….
a) Simple enzyme b) Protein part of conjugate
enzyme
c) Organic cofactor of a conjugate enzyme d) Inorganic cofactor of a
conjugate enzyme
6. Enzymes…………………………
a) Do not require activation energy b) Do not change requirement of
activation energy
c) Increase requirement of activation energy d) Lowest requirement of
activation energy
7. Zymogen is……………….
a) Enzyme poison b) Enzyme modulator c) Enzyme precursor d) Enzyme
inhibitor
8. Allosteric enzyme possesses……………..
a) Active site and an allosteric site b) Active site and two types of allosteric
sites
c) Active site and three types of allosteric sites d) Three types of allosteric
sites
9. Enzyme generally have………………..
a) Different pH and different temperature optima
b) Same pH but different temperature optima
c) Different pH but same temperature optima
d) Same pH and temperature optima
10. The enzyme which forms the peptide bond is known as………………….
a) peptidaseb)carbonic anhydrase c) peptidyltranferase d)
phosphatase
11. A 2 week old child was brought to emergency. The parents were fearful that
the child has been given some poison as they noted black discolourization
on the diaper. A diagnosis of alkaptonuria was made and the child was
given vitamin C as a supplement. Alkaptonuria occurs due to reduce
 activity of homogentisic acid oxidase enzyme. What is the role played by
vitamins C in this defect?
a) Acts as an oxidant b) Act as a co-enzyme
c) Acts as an inducer d) Acts as a positive allosteric
modifier
12. Which out the following is a substrate specific enzyme?
a)hexokinase b)thiokinase c) lactase d)decarboxylase
13. Which out the following is not asubstrate specific enzyme?
a)gluokinase b)fructokinase c)hexokinase
d)phosphofructokinase
14. When the velocity of the enzyme activity is plotted against substrate
concentration, which of the following is obtained?
a)hyperbolic curve b)parabola
c)straight line with positive slope d)straight line with negative
slope
15. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
a)repressor b)inhibitor c)modulator d)regulator
16. Which was the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?
a)disulfiram b)oseltamivir c)protease inhibitors d)DIPF
17. Which was the following is an example for reversible inhibitor?
a)DIPF b)penicillin c)iodoacetamide d)protease inhibitor
18. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?
a)at active site b)allosteric site c)does not bind on enzyme
d)binds on substrate
19. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on
which of the following factor?
a)Km b)product formation c)size of the enzyme
d)pH of optimum value
20. What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?
a)it acts by reducing the activation energy b)it acts by increasing the
activation energy
c)it acts by decreasing the pH d)it acts by increasing the Ph
21. The enzyme, tyrosinase, is activated by………………
a) Iron b) Copper c) Zinc d) Potassium
22. Lock and key model was proposed by……..
 a) Fischer b) Koshland c) Kuhne d) Arrhenius
23. Trypsin are active in……………….
a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) neutral d) None of these
24. Koshland’s theory of enzyme action is known as…………….
a) Reduced fit theory b) Lock & key theory
c) Induced fit theory d) Enzyme coenzyme theory
25. The enzymes involved in feedback inhibition are called………………
a)Allosteric enzymes b) Holoenzymes c) Apoenzymes d) Coenzymes
26. In catalytic region small portion of molecules are involved in catalysis is
called ………..
a) Duplication site b) absorption site c) active site d) inactive site
27. Regulators of enzymatic reactions are classified as ………..
a) Inhibitors b) converters c) activators d) both a and c
28. Kind of molecules at which enzymes act are classified as …….
a) Solutes b) concentrates c) nitrates d) substrates
29. Categorization of enzymes is based on …………..
a) level of carbon dioxide b) their working site c) level of oxygen d) level
of nitrogen
30. Example of inorganic cofactors is ……….
a) metal ions b) potassium ions c) nitrogen ions d) Sulphur ions
31. Substances that acts as biocatalysts are considered as …….
a) by product b) products c) enzymes d) catalysts
32. Vital vitamins that plays role as coenzymes does not includes …….
a) salicylic acid b) thiamine c) riboflavin d) folic acid
33. An enzyme that joins the ends of two strands of nucleic acid is ……..
a) helicase b) polymerase c) Ligase d) synthetase
34. Substrate concentration that produces exactly 1/2 of maximum reaction rate
is stated by..
a) Michaelis equation b) Menten equation
c) Bernoulli equation d) Michaelis-Menten equation
35. Complex that forms when a substrate binds to enzyme is called ………..
a) enzyme-substrate complex b) enzyme complex
c) substrate complex d) structural complex
36. Which option describes the Steady State assumption of the Michaelis-
Menten Equation?
 a) rate of formed enzyme-substrate complex is equal to the breakdown of
said complex
b) The rate of the reaction is measured when the reaction is in its transition
state
c) The state of the reaction at which the Km is at its largest value
d) When the rate of synthesis of the reaction is greater than the rate of
degradation
37. Glycogen phosphorylase, which mobilizes glycogen for energy ,requires
which of the following as a cofactor?
a )pyridoxal phosphate b)tetra hydro folate c)adenosylcobalamine
d)coenzyme A
38. Any of the following processes except one involved at the active site of an
enzyme to accelerate the rate of reaction………
a)catalysis by bond strain b)catalysis by proximity and
orientation
c)non covalent catalysis d)acid base catalysis
39. A given substrate may be acted upon by a number of different enzyme,each
of which uses the same substrate(s) and produces the same product (s).The
individual members of a set of enzymes sharing such characteristics are
known as…..
a)group specific enzymes b) isoenzymes c)substrate specific enzymes
d)allosteric enzyme
40. A recently diagnosed hypertensive patient has been prescribed an ACE
inhibitor which is known to act by lowering V max, what is the possible
mechanism of inhibition of this drug?
a)competitive b)non competitive c) uncompetitive d)none of the
above
41. Which statement out of the following is incorrect about the effect of
increasing temperature on enzyme activity?
a) raising the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules
b) aten degree centigrade rise in temperature will increase the activity of the
most enzyme by 50 to 100 percent
c)most animal enzyme rapidly become denature at temperatures above 40 C
d)storage of enzyme at 5C or below is generally not suitable.
42. Group 1 co-enzyme participates in which of the following reactions?
 a)oxidation reduction b)transamination c)phosphorylation d) all
of the above
43. Which out of the following co enzyme takes part in hydrogen transfer
reaction in the electron tanstport chain?
a)tetrhydrofolate b)methyl cobalamine c)co enzyme Q d)biotin
44. The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate involves the participation of as
a co enzyme…
a)NAD+ b)NADPH c)biotin d)all the above
45. The activities of many enzyme membranetransporters and other protein can
be quickly activated or inactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino
acid residues. This regulation is called as….
a)allosteric modificationb) covalent modification c) induction d)repression
46. Kinetic energy comes from ………..
a)motion b) energy c)enzyme d)potential
47. Which one of the following not among the 6 internationally accepted
classes of enzymes?
a)hydrolases b) ligases c)oxidoreductase d)polymerase
48. In human body the optimum temperature for enzymatic activities is
…………
a)37°C b)40°C c)25°C d)30°C
49. Optimum pH for pepsin ………..
a)5.5 b)7.4 c)4.1 d)1.4
50. Enzymes are mostly ………….. in their chemical nature.
a)lipids b)steroids c)proteinaceous d)all

1) c 2) d 3) b 4) b 5) b 6) d 7) c 8) b 9) d 10)
c

11) 12) 13) c 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 20)
b c a b d d b a a

21) 22) 23) 24) c 25) a 26) c 27) 28) 29) 30)
b a b d d b a
 31) c 32) 33) c 34) 35) a 36) 37) 38) 39) 40)
a d b a b b a

41) 42) 43) c 44) c 45)a 46)a 47) 48) 49) 50)
d a d a d c

UNIT V METABOLISM

1. Glycolytic pathway regulation involves ……….

a) allosteric stimulation by ADP b) allosteric inhibition by
ATP
c) feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP d) all of the above
2. During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing
glucose is used to synthesize ATP. Remaining 60% …….
a)is lost as heat b)is used to reduce NADP
c)remains in the products of metabolism d)is stored as fat.
3. Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose
catabolism?
a)There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving
force for the pathway
b)High levels of ATP keep the pathway going in a forward direction
c)The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
d)Glycolysis occurs in either direction
4. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as ………
a) a concentration gradient across a membrane b)ADP c)ATP
d)NAD+
5. A kinase is an enzyme that …………..
a)removes phosphate groups of substrates
b)uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
c)uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
d)removes water from a double bond
6. For every one molecule of glucose when it is oxidized, it produced
………….. molecule of pyruvic acid.
a)1 b)2 c) 3 d)4
7. In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor to glycogen is ……..
a)glucose-6-P b)UTP-glucose c)UDP-glucosed)glucose-1-P
8. The active form of glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated, while the
dephosphorylation of which active form occurs?
a)Glycogen synthase b)Glycogen semisynthase
c)Glycogen hydrolase d)Glycogen dehydrogenase
9. The amount of energy received from one ATP is ……..
a)76 kcal b)7.3 kcal c)760 kcal d)1000 kcal
10. The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the ………..
a)intermembrane space b)plasma membrane
c)cytosol d)mitochondrial matrix
11. When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium
concentration then …..
a) thegibbs free energy will be positive b) the gibbs free energy will be
negative
c) more products will be formed d) both (b) and (c)
12. Which of the following is not true about glycolysis?
a)ADP is phosphorylated to ATP via substrate level phosphorylation
b)The pathway does not require oxygen
c)The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of
glucose that enters
d)The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each
mole of glucose
13. In glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate
from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADR No such high-energy phosphate
donor has ever been isolated in mitochondria because ………..
a)the techniques for isolating the phosphate donor are not refined enough
b)no such phosphate donor exists
c)the high-energy phosphate donor is very short-lived and difficult to isolate
d)None of the above
14. ATP belongs to which general category of molecules?
a)Polysaccharides b)Proteins c)Nucleotides d)Amino acids
15. The glycolytic pathway (glucose → 2 pyruvate) is found ………..
a)in all living organisms b)primarily in animals excluding particles
c) only in eukaryotes d) only in yeast
16. Which of the following could act as an uncoupler of electron transport
during ATP synthesis?
a)TheFo base-piece of ATP synthase b)Dinitrophenol
c)neither (a) nor (b) d)Both (a) and (b)
17. Altering the flux of metabolites through the rate-determining step of a
pathway can be done by …
a)Allosteric control of the enzyme activity
b)Diffusional coupling between adjacent active sites
c)Genetic control of the enzyme concentration
d)Covalent modification of the enzyme
18. Phosphofructokinase, the major flux-controlling enzyme of glycolysis is
allosterically inhibited and activated, respectively by ………..
a)ATP and PEP b)AMP and Pi c)ATP and ADP d)Citrate and ATP
19. Which of the following enzyme regulates glycolysis steps?
a)Phosphofructokinase b)Hexose kinase c)Pyruvate kinase d)All of these
20. During glycolysis, the major energy generating step involves ……….
a)pyruvate kinase b)phosphoglycerate kinase
c)glyceraldehyde-3 –dehydrogenase d)Phosphofructokinase
21. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate………
a)activates fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase b)activates phosphofructokinase
c)inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase d)both (b) and (c)
22. Glucose from the breakdown of glycogen is obtained in ……….
a)the liver by phosphorolysisb)the muscles by phosphorolysis
c)the muscles by hydrolysis d)both (a) and (b)
23. Organelle which involved in fatty acid metabolism is ….
a) ribosome b) mitochondria c) ER d) lysosome
24. Hexose monophosphate pathway is otherwise called as……
a) pentose phosphate pathway b) phosphogluconate pathway
c) both a and b d) none of these
25. Which cannot convert acetyl CoA derived from fatty acids into glucose…….
a) animals b) plant c) microorganism d) both a and b
26. Formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate requires how many
ATP, GTP and NADH?
a) 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH b) 2 ATP, 4 GTP and 2 NADH
c) 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 4 NADH d) 2 ATP, 4 GTP and 4 NADH
27. In mammals, who are the suppliers of glucose for the use of brain, muscles
and erythrocytes?
a)liver b)kidney c)both a and b d)liver, kidney and
spleen
28. Of the following which compounds can be converted in to glucose using
gluconeogenesis?
a) pyruvateb) lactatec) alanined) all of these
29. Which are the principal molecules that transport amino groups from
extrahepatic tissues to liver?
a)alanineb)glutaminec)none of thesed)both a and b
30. For each molecule of glucose formed from pyruvate, how many high-energy
phosphate groups required?
a) six b)five c)four d)three
31. Pyruvate decarboxylae enzyme requires the co-enzyme ………
a)biotin b)thiamine c) auxin d)streptomycin
32. In kreb’s cycle …………..
a)energy is stored in the form of ATP b) energy stored in the form of
ADP
c)energy liberated from ADP d)energy liberated from ATP
33. Inkreb’s cycle,a sixcarbon compound is formed by the combination of acetyl
CoA and ….
a) citric acid b)malic acid c)oxaloacetic acidd)succinic acid
34. During one kreb’s cycle number of carbon dioxide, molecule released is
…….
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
35. Most enzymes that take part in kreb cycle are located in ………….
a)cytoplasmb) mitochondrial matrixc)plasmamembrance d) inner
mitochondrial membrane
36. In kreb’s cycle, GTP is formed by ………….
a)oxidative phosphorylation b)substrate level phosphorylation
c) cyclic photophosphorylationd)non-cyclic photophosphorylation
37. Enzyme in TCA cycle are located in the matrix of mitochondria expect one
which is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.Name the enzyme ?
a)citrate synthase b)succinate dehydrogenase
c)malate dehydrogenase d)alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase
38. Inkreb’s cycle, the hydrogen of malate is accepted by ……
a)FMN b)FAD c)NAD d)CoA
39. The TCA cycle is an oxidative pathway requiring oxygen for operation. The
enzyme which consumes oxygen during the operation of the cycle is …..
a)isocitrate dehydrogenase b)aconitase c) hydrolyase d)none of the
above
40. Last electron acceptor in respiration cycle is …….
a)oxygen b)carbon dioxide c)hydrogend)NADH
41. Which is the total yield of ATP in TCA cycle in eukaryotic cell?
a)30 b)34 c)36 d)38
42. Which of the following ETC components accept only one electron?
a)coenzyme Q b) cytochrome b c) FAD d)FMN
43. Which of the following has highest redox potential in the respiratory chain?
a)oxygenb)NAD C)FMN d)FAD
44. The prosthetic group of NADH dehydrogenase is …..
a) FMNb)NADHc)FADd)NADPH
45. Beta-oxidation of the fatty acid is promoted by which of the following?
a)ATP b)NAD+ c) FADH2 d)acetyl CoA
46. How many carbon are removed from fatty acyl CoA in one turn of beta
oxidation spiral?
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d)4
47. The complete oxidation of odd chain fatty acid produces which is following?
a) propionyl coA b)acetyl coA c) both a and b d) none of these
48. The activation of long chain fatty acid requires which is following
components?
a)2ATP b) 2ATP and CoA c) fatty acyl carnitine d) GTP
49. The conversion of Acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA requires which of the
following?
a)biotin b) ADP c)NADPH d)folic acid
50. NADPH is synthesized by the action of which of the following enzymes?
a)glucose -6-hydrogenase b) pyruvate dehydrogenase
 c)glycerol kinase d)lipoprotein lipase

1) d 2) a 3) a 4) c 5) b 6) b 7) c 8) a 9) b 10)
c

11) 12) c 13) 14) c 15) a 16) 17) 18) c 19) 20)
d b d a d a

21) 22) 23) 24) c 25) a 26) a 27) c 28) 29) 30)
b d b d d a

31) 32) 33) c 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) c 39) 40)
a a b b b b d c

41) 42) 43) 44) 45)b 46)b 47) c 48) 49) 50)
a b a a b a a

Semester 1

Core 3: MICROBIOLOGY Course

code : P15BT103

UNIT I
1. Vaccines against anthrax and rabies were made by……………
a) Behring b) Kitasata
c) Pasteur d) Alexander
2. The spontaneous generation of microorganisms was disproved by…………
a) Spallanzani b) Pasteur
c) Tyndall d)All of them
3. Techniques required to grow bacteria on solid media were developed
by……………
a) Pasteur b) Koch
c) Leeuwenhoek d) Ivanowsky
4.Eukaryotes consist of ……..
a) Algae b) Fungi
c) Protozoa d) All of them
5. Archaeobacteria consists of ………………..
a) Methanogens b)Halophiles
c) Thermoacidophiles d) All of them
6. Use of agar as a solidifying agent for microbiological media was suggested
by ………
a) R.Koch b) F.Hesse
c) R.J.Petri d) D.H.Bergey
7.Streptomycin was discovered by ………….
a) Hershey b) Chatton
c) Waksman d) Stanley
8. Discovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis was made by …………
a) R.Koch b) O.Bang
c) A.Fraenkel d)H.Ricketts.

9.Which microscope has two eyepieces for both eyes?

a) binocular b)compound
c) electron d)inverted

10………………staining gives dark background with clear cells

a)Gram stain b) negative stain
c)Simple stain d) differential stain

11.Refractive index of immersion oil is …………

a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 2.0 d) 2.5
12.The hereditary substance in all microbial cells is …………
a)ATP b)DPN
c) DNA d)AMP

13.Fluorescent microscope uses a ……….

a) mercury vapour arc lamp b) halogen lamp
c) normal lens d) concave lens

14.In Grams staining, iodine is used as a …………..

a) primary stain b)decolouriser
c) mordant d)counterstain

15.Which of the following is not a differential staining technique?

a) endospore staining b) negative staining
c) acid fast staining d)Grams staining

16.Transmission electron microscope includes …………..

a) electron gun b)vacuum system
c)electromagnetic lens d) all the above

17.Fritz Zernicke was awarded nobel prize for constructing …………

a) phase contrast microscope b)bright field microscope
c) dark field microscope d)fluorescent microscope

18.Capsules are viewed by ………………

a) Negative stain b)gram stain
c) Ziehl-Neelson stain d) fluorescent stain

19.Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

a) cyanobacteria b) methanogens
c) fungi d) archaebacteria

20.Which group is not included in Haeckel’s classification?

a) monera b) protista
c) animalia d) plantae

21.Which is not a domain in Woese classification?

a) Archaebacteria b) eukarya
c) bacteria d) Protista
22.Who is credited as father of microbiology?
a) A.V.Leeuwenhoek b) L.Pasteur
c).R.Koch d) R.Hooke
23.Which is not a group of Archaebacteria?
a) methanogens b) halophiles
c)thermophiles d) mesophiles

24.Viruses range in size from ………..

a)20-400nm 20-200 nm b)1-100nm
c) 400-1000nm d)100-400nm

25.A chemical component found in capsid of all viruses is …………….

a) Protein b) DNA
c) RNA d)lipids

26.Which of the following is not a RNA virus?

a) Vaccinia b)Rabies
c) Polio d)Ebola

27.Plant viruses mostly have ………….

a) ss-DNA b)ss-RNA
c) ds-DNA d)ds-RNA

28.Baltimore’s viral classification divides viruses into …………

a) 6classes b)7 classes
c)5 classes d)8 classes

29……………… was the first drug used for HIV treatment.

a) Acyclovir b)dideoxyinosine
c) dideoxycytidine d) Azidodeoxythymidine
Azidothymidine (AZT)
30.Edward Jenner is associated with which viral disease?
a) small pox b)chicken pox
c) polio d)rabies

31.Woese divided living organisms into ………..

a) 2 domains b) 3 domains
c) 4 domains d) 5 domains

32.Which of the following is not a division in Bergeys system?

 a)Mendosicutes b)tenericutes
c) firmicutes d) granicutes

33.Which among the following is a budding bacteria?

a) Hyphomicrobium b) Flexibacter
c) Myxococcus d) Methanococcus

34.The swan necked flasks were used by Pasteur to…………..?

a) disprove the theory of spontaneous generation b) prove that microbes
cause disease
c)learn the chemical structure of microbes d) devise a classification
scheme

35.Which microscopy is used to observe Treponema pallidum?

a) Dark field b) Bright field
c) Electron d) Fluorescent

36.Mitochondria are found in ……………

a) all prokaryotes b) all eukaryotes
c) all bacteria d)all living forms

37. The average radius of prokaryotic cell is ………..

a) 0.5-2.0µm 0.1 to 5.0 (μm) b) 5.0-10.0µm
c) 1.0-4.0µm d) 1.0-10µm

38. Which of the following is likely to contain structures composed of NAG

&NAM?
a) Spheroplast b) Mycoplasma
c) E.coli d) Amoeba

39. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surfaces are used for…………
a) Motility b) Sexual reproduction
c) Adherence to surface d) Adherence to surface

40. Bacteriological media that are composed of exact composition of

ingredients is known as ………..……. media
a) Designated b) Exact
c) Defined d) Selective

41. Which method allows determining the number of viable cells in a specimen?
 a) Turbid measurement b) Dry weight
measurement
c) Total plate count d) none of these

42. E.coli capable of transferring F plasmid to recipient E.coli are called……….

a) F+ cells b) F- cells
c) Competent cells d) Prophage cells

43. ……… are the cells, where F plasmid is incorporated into the bacterial
chromosomes
a) F+ cells b) F’ cells
c) F- cells d) Hfr cells

44. Organisms using organic compounds as electron donors are called………

a) Lithotrophs b) Phototrophs
c) Chemotrophs d) Organotrophs

45. An organism having optimal growth when the hydrogen ion concentration is
very
high is ……………
a) Osmotolerant b) Acidophile
c) Neutrophile d) Aerotolerant
anaerobe

46. Autotrophic bacteria are those which ……….

a) make their own food b) form a long chain glycocalyx
c) are highly susceptible to pencillin d) produce a blue green
pigment

47. The organism which obtains its energy from chemicals is designated
as……………
a) Prototrophs b) Chemotrophs
c) Organotrophs d) Autotrophs

48. Peptone water and nutrient broth are examples of…………..

a) Selective medium b) Enriched medium
c) Basal medium d) None of these
49. Which technique is performed quantitatively to determine the number of
bacteria?
a) Pour plate b) Spread plate
c) Both a & b d) Streak plate

50. Cell counting can be carried out by………….

a) Direct microscopic count b) Colorimeter
c) Spectrophotometer d) Biochemical analysis

KEY FOR UNIT I

1c 2d 3b 4d 5d 6b 7c 8a 9b 10b

11b 12c 13a 14c 15b 16d 17a 18a 19c 20a

12c
13b
21d 22a 23d 24a 25a 26a 27c 28d 29d 30a

31b 32d 33a 34a 35a 36b 37a 38c 39a 40c

41c 42a 43d 44d 45b 46a 47b 48c 49c 50a

UNIT II

1.Microbes that grow at low temperatures are known as ……….

a) neutrophils b) psychrophiles
c) thermophils d)mesophiles

2. Microaerophiles that need more carbon dioxide are called as ………….

a) barophiles b)capnophiles
c)osmophiles d)halophiles

3. Peptones are enzymatic digests of ……………..

 a) meat b)casein
c)soyameal d) all of the above

4 .In a solid media, the percentage of agar added is …………..

a)1.5-2% b) 3.0-3.5%
c) 4-5% d) 6-7%

5 .Sulphur is needed by microbes for the synthesis of …………..

a) amino acids b) vitamins
c) lipids d) sugar

6.Bacteria that grows over wide range of temperature is known as ……………

a)eurythermal b)stenothermal
c)cardithermal d) mesothermal

7.Agar melts at a temperature of……………..

a) 40C b) 100C 85C
c)60C d) 70C

8.Which is the chief component of fungal cell wall?

a) cellulose b)chitin
c) peptidoglycan d) sugar

9.Which of the following is not a component of bacterial cell wall?

a) peptidoglycan b)teichoic acid
c) lipopolysaacharides d) chitin

10.Which bacteria is acid fast?

a) Mycobacterium sp b) E.coli
c) Bacillus sp. d) Staphylococcus sp.

11.Which of the following bacteria are photosynthetic?

a) E.coli b) Bacillus sp.
c) cyanobacteria d) Klebsiella sp.

12.Which of the following is not a flagellated bacteria?

a) Bacillus sp. b) Salmonella sp.
c) Vibrio sp. d) Psedomonas sp.
13.At which phase are antibiotics produced by bacteria?
a) Lag phase b) Log phase
c) stationary phase d) decline phase

14.Which of the following bacteria has the longest generation time?

a) E.coli b) Mycobacterium sp.
c)Proteus sp. d) Staphylococcus sp
.
15.Which of the following is a spore former?
a) Bacillus anthracis b) E.coli
c) Proteus sp. d) Staphylococcus sp.

16.Name the oil used for oil immersion lens?

a) coconut oil b ) cedar wood oil
c) neem oil d) castor oil

17.Which group of organisms obtain energy from oxidation of organic or

inorganic chemicals?
a) chemotrophs b)phototrophs
c) autotrophs d) organotrophs

18.Plasmids integrated into the host cell’s chromosomes are called …………
a) mesosomes b) episomes
c) genome d) replicon

19.Transformation was first observed in ………….

a) Streptococcus pyogenes b)Streptococcus mutans
c) Haemophilus influenzae d)Streptococcus pneumonia

20. Bacterial conjugation was first demonstrated by ………………

a) Griffith b) Beedle and tatum
c) Lederberg and Tatum d) Zinder and Lederberg

21.Bacterial conjugation is mediated by ………..

a) F plasmids b) R- Plasmid
c) Ti plasmid d) Colicin factor

22.Another name for glycocalyx is …………….

a) slime layer b)peptidoglycan layer
c) periplasmic layer d)polysaccharide layer
23.About 40% of the cell membrane consist of ………….
a) pseudomurein b)polysaccharide
c) peptidoglycan d)phospholipid

24. Alternate name for pilus is………….

a) flagella b)cilia
c) fimbriae d)plasmid

25……….. is a bacteria without cell wall

a) halobacteria b)mycoplasma
c) thermomonas d) mycobacterium

26.Which among the following produce swarming motility?

a) Pseudomonas b)Proteus
c) Salmonella d) E coli

27.Green algae contain ………….

a)chlorophylls a,b b)chlorophylls a,c
c) chlorophylla,e d) chlorophyll a,d

28.Cross walls separating hyphal cells are called ………….

a) pores b)layers
c) septa d)walls

29.The process by which microbes disturb the normal health of the host is
……….
a) parasitism b)mutualism
c) commensalism d)synergism

30.Which of the following processes do not generate ATP?

a) photophosphorylation b)oxidative phosphorylation
c) Calvin-Benson cycle d)substrate level
phosphorylation

31.In aerobic respiration among prokaryotes, number of ATP molecules

generated from 1 molecule of glucose is ……..
a) 36 b)38
 c) 32 d)34

32.Which of the following is a method of vertical gene transfer in prokaryotes?

a) binary fission b)conjugation
c) transformation d) transduction

33.When the F plasmid is absent in bacteria, these cells are called………..

a) F+ b)F-
c) Hfr d)prophage

34.Which of the following is not a member of Anoxygenic phototrophic

bacteria?
a) purple bacteria b)purple non S bacteria
c) green bacteria d)green S bacteria

35. In prokaryotic cell, 70S ribosome unit splits into …………..

a) 40S,60S b)30, 40S
c)50, 20S d) 30,50S

36. Anaerobic respiration for the first time was discovered by ……….
a)Hans Kreb b)Melvin Calvin
c)Kostychev d)Blakslee
37.Cellular respiration occurs in ………….organelle
a) ribosome b) nucleus
c ) mitochondria d)all of the above

38.One molecule of ATP contains …………..K cal energy

a)760 K cal b)7.3Kcal
c)73 K cal d) 76K cal

39.Krebs cycle in eukaryotes occur in ………..

a)matrix of mitochondria b)cytochrome
c)ribosome d)cytoplasm

40.Allophycocyanin is a photosynthetic pigment found in …………

a)all plants b)blue green algae
c)red algae d)both b and c

41.Photosynthetic pigment carotenoids are present in ……….

a) only pigment system II b) only in pigment system I
 c) both the pigment system c) none of the above

42.Fermentation is an example of ………….

a) Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration
c) both a & b d) hydrolysis

43. In the first step of Calvin cycle, the CO2 is accepted by …………..
a)3-phosphoglyceric acid b)ribulose 5 phosphate
c)ribose 5 phosphate d)ribulose 1,5 diphosphate
44.Photorespiration is accomplished in …………..
a)chloroplasts b)peroxisomes
c)mitochondria d)all the three

45.One molecule of NH3 is released per molecule of CO2 released in case of

………
a) dark reaction b) photorespiration
c) both a & b d) none

46.What is the chief metabolite of photorespiration?

a ) glycolic acid b)oxalo acetic acid
c)3-phospho glyceric acid d)glycine

47.Glucokinase is found in ……………..

a)liver b)pancreas
c)heart d)kidney

48. Oxygen released as a result of photosynthesis is a by-product of………

a) Reducing NADP+ b) splitting the water molecules
c) chemiosmosis d) photosystem I

49. What are the products of linear photophosphorylation?

a) Heat and fluorescence b) ATP and P700
c) ATP and NADPH d) ADP and NADP
50. An organism that expresses a transgene called …………
a) Clone organism b) Mutated organism
c) Somaclonal organism d) Transgenic organism
KEY FOR UNIT II

1b 2b 3d 4a 5a 6a 7b 8b 9d 10a
11c 12a 13d 14b 15a 16b 17a 18b 19d 20c

12c
13b
21a 22a 23d 24c 25b 26b 27a 28c 29a 30c

31b 32a 33b 34d 35d 36c 37c 38b 39a 40d

41c 42c 43d 44d 45b 46a 47a 48a 49c 50d

UNIT III

1.Which is not a disinfectant?

a) Formaldehyde b) Chlorine
c) methanol d) Phenol

2.Pathogenic microorganisms are usually ………..

a) Mesophilic b)Thermophilic
c) Psychrophilic d) Halophilic

3.Minimum time used for sterilization by autoclaving is ………..

a) 15 min b) 75 min
c) 1 hour d) 2 hours.

4.Heat labile solutions can be sterilized by ………..

a) Autoclaving b)Filtration
c) Lyophilization d) Streaming

5.The widely used method of sterilization of milk in dairy industries is

…………..
a)Filtration b) Pasteurization
c)radiation d) Heating

6.Autoclave uses ……………… for sterilization

 a) Steam b) Steam under pressure
c) Hot air d) Cold air

7.An example of non ionization type of radiation which is microbicidal is …….

a) Gamma rays b) X-rays
c) UV rays d) None of the above

8.U-V Rays are strongly absorbed by ………..

a) DNA b)cell wall
c) Ribosomes d) Cytoplasm

9.Isopropyl alcohol is frequently used as ……………..

a) antiseptic b) disinfectant
c) sterilant d)all of these

10.The wavelength of visible light is ………..

a)400-750nm 380 - 700 nm b)200-400nm
c) 550-750nm d) 600-850nm

11.Foods can be preserved by ………….

a) sorbic acid mostly used b) benzoic acid
c) acetic acid d) all of these

12.Which among the following are highly heat labile?

a) lipids b)proteins
c) sugars d) none

13.At 15 pounds of pressure per square inch, the temperature of steam rises to
………
a) 105C b)110C
c) 121C d)127C

14.Moist heat kills microbes by ………

a) degrading nucleic acid b)disrupting cell
membrane
c) coagulating proteins d)all these

15.Pasteurisation employs the temperature of ………..

a) 65C for 30 minutes b) 85C for 30 minutes
 c) 65C for 120 minutes d) 121C for 30 minutes

16.Which bacteria are lanceolate shaped?

a)S.pneumoniae b)E.coli
c)Bacillus d)S.aureus

17. The average size of cells during the expotential phase of growth is
………….
a) Greater than the lag phase b) Lesser than the lag
phase
c) Equal to the lag phase d) None of these

18.Microwave will heat materials that contain ………..

a) proteins b) metals
c) water d) lipid

19.Which of the following is most bactericidal?

a) autoclaving b) freeze drying
c) membrane filtration d) deep freezing

20.The commonly used disinfectant for the decontamination of safety cabinet &
rooms is…………..
a)Chloroform b) Formaldehyde
c) ethanol d) Isopropanol

21. Chemical substances produced by some microorganisms that inhibit growth

of other microorganisms are known as ……………
a) Sterliant b) Antibiotics
c) Disinfectant d) Lysol

22. Mycoplasmas are not inhibited by penicillins because they …………….

a) produce penicillinase b)are gram positive
c) are eukaryotes d) do not have cell wall.

23.The cephalosporins belong to ………. class of antibiotics

a) macrolide b) polyenes
c) β-lactams d) aminoglycosides

24.Which of the following antibiotics express the antimicrobial action by

interference with DNA/RNA synthesis?
 a) Penicillin b) Tetracycline
c) nystatin d) Cephalosporins

25. Nalidixic acid prevents bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme
……….
a)DNA polymerase b)Reverse transcriptase
c)DNAgyrase d) DNA ligase

26.Most drug resistance occurs due to ……….

a)Transduction b) Translation
c) Mutation d) Conjugation

27.The best method of skin disinfectant is ……………

a) Spirit b) 100% alcohol
c)Tincture iodine d) Cetrimide

28.Protein synthesis is inhibited by …………..antibiotic

a) Vancomycin b) Gentamycin
c)Penicillin d) Ampicillin

29.Which of the following antibiotics act on the cell membrane of bacteria?

a) Nalidixic acid b) Chloramphenicol
c) erythromycin d) Polymyxin

30.Streptomycin, tetracycline, & macrolides inhibit ………..

a) replication b) transcription
c) Ribosome function d) Cell wall synthesis.

31. Antibiotic that binds to RNA polymerase interfering with the initiation of
transcription is …………….
a)Penicillin b) Tetracycline
c ) rifampicin d) Erythromycin

32.The structural component found in all viruses is …………..

a)envelope b)spikes
c) DNA d) capsid

33.Dry heat is often used to sterilize ………..

a) saline solutions b)bacterial media
c) oily materials d)hospital blankets
 34.Ethylene oxide is used to …………
a) sterilize plastics b)disinfect table tops
c) kill bacteria on skin d)sterilize chemicals

35.The Penicillin family of antibiotics is used against ……………

a) gram positive bacteria b)gram negative bacteria
c) viruses d)fungi

36.Who was the first scientist to give clear cut evidence of a virus?
a)Loius Pasteur b)Leeuwenhoek
c)Iwanowsky d) Mayer

37.Bacteria containing prophages are called …………….

a)integrase b)lysogenic bacteria
c)excisionase d) heteroduplexes

38.Beta lactamase hydrolyses …………….

a)Penicillin b) chloramphenicol
c) acyclovir d) amantidine
39. Which drug inhibits plasma membrane synthesis?
a) tetracycline b) Polymyxin B
c) Penicillin d) rifampin

40. Bacteriophage mediated transfer of genetic material between bacteria is

called…….
a) Transformation b) Transfection
c) Conjugation d) Transduction

41. Protein produced by bacteria that inhibit the growth of other bacteria is
called……….
a) Vaccine b) Antibiotic
c) Bacteriocins d) R factor
42. During expotential growth, the growth rate is ……………….
a) Number of generation per unit time b) Reciprocal of generation
time
c) Equal to the lag phase d) None of these
 43. In contrast with moist heat, dry heat probably damages microbes by
…………..
a) Denaturing protein b) Denaturing nucleic acids
c) Disrupting disulfide bonds in protein d) oxidizing molecules

44. Quaternary ammonium compounds are a type of …………..

a) Soap b) Detergents
c) Alkylating agent d) Phenol

45. Which of the following causes thymine dimer?

a) Dry heat b) Autoclaving
c) UV radiation d) Ethylene oxide
46. Heat labile components are sterilized by ………….
a) Moist heat b) Membrane filteration
c) Autoclaving d) UV radiation
47. Generation time is …………
a) growing time b) Time for the initial
adjustment
c) doubling time d) Both a &b

48. A cluster of polar flagella is called ………..

a) Lophotrichous b) Amphitrichous
c) Monotrichous d) peritrichous
49. Teichoic acids are typically found in …………
a) Cell wall of gram positive bacteria b) membranes of gram negative
bacteria
c) Cell wall of gram negative bacteria d) Outer membrane of Gram -ve
bacteria
50. The processes of freeze drying a cell suspension is carried out at
………………
a) -60 to -78ᵒ C b) -20 to -30ᵒ C
c) -10 to -30 d) -15 to -35
KEY FOR UNIT III

1c 2a 3a 4b 5b 6b 7c 8a 9b 10a

11b 12b 13c 14c 15a 16a 17b 18c 19a 20b
12c
13b
21b 22d 23d 24c 25c 26d 27c 28b 29d 30c

31c 32d 33d 34a 35b 36c 37b 38a 39b 40d

41b 42a 43b 44b 45c 46b 47c 48a 49a 50a

UNIT IV

1.Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric N2 by special cells called ……….

a) heterocysts b)myxospores
c) endospores d)exospores

2.Bacillus thuringiensis is a ……………..

a) human pathogen b)non pathogen
c) plant pathogen d)entomopathogen

3.Agar agar is extracted from ……………….

a) protozoa b)algae
c) fungi d)lichens

4. Microorganism used as biopesticides is ………………

a) Fungi b) Protozoa
c) Bacteria d) All the above

5. Lyophilization is a process of ………………

a) Freeze drying b) irradiation
c) heat drying d) chemical treatment

6. Which of the following is used for phytoremediation?

a) Helianthus annus b) Thalspia enerulescens
c) Brassica juncea d) All the above

7. CFU stands for ……………

 a) Colony forming units b) Cell forming units
c) Colony following units d) None of these

8. Xenobiotics are ……………….

a) Antibodies used against bacteria b) Non-biodegradable
Compounds
c) Antiviral therapy against AIDS d) Mercury containing
compounds

9. Which among the following is a photosynthetic bacterium?

a) Rhodospirillum ruburum b) P.putida
c) B.polymyxa d) Serratia fixii

10. An autoclave normally sterilizes material by heating the material at

……………..
a) 100C -10minutes b) 121 C- 15 minutes
c) 110 C- 30 minutes d) 120 C- 10 minutes

11. Which of the following is not used as chemical preservative?

a) Benzoic acid b) Propionic acid
c) Sulphur dioxide d) Phenol

12. Peptidoglycan is also known as ………….

a) NAG & NAM b) Mureinmucopeptide
c) Mesodiaminopimetic acid d) Cellulose

13. Agar used as a solidifying agent is obtained from…………

a) Bones of dead animal b) Banana
c) Starch d) Sea weed

14. The use of living organism to degrade environmental pollutant is

called………………
a) Micro-remediation b) Nano remediation
c) Bioremediation d) All of these

15. The processes of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called ……….
a) Microbial extraction b) bioextraction
c) biofilteration d) bioleaching
 16. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean
up oil spills?
a) B.substilis b) P.putida
c) P.denitrificans d) B.denitrificans

17.Exsitu bioremediation involves the ……………

a) Biodegradation of pollutants by microbes directly
b) Removal of pollutants & collection at a place to facilitate microbial
degradation
c) Degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
d) None of these

18. The processes of converting environmental pollutant into harmless product

by microbe
is known as ………….…
a) Exsitu conservation b) Intrinsic bioremediation
c) Extrinsic bioremediation d) Biofilteration

19. Microorganisms remove metals by

a) Adsorption &Complexation b) Adsorption &
precipitation
c) Adsorption &voltalization d) All the above

20. A physio chemical interaction between heavy metal ions & microbial
surface is
called……..
a) Biotransformation b) Bioconversion
c) Biosorption d) Biomining

21. Which of the following does not kill endospores?

a) Autoclaving b) Incineration
c) Hot air sterilization d) Pasteurization

22. Leaf eating insect larvae is controlled in gardens through addition of

endospores……..
a)Rhizobium b) T.ferroxidans
c) S.cerevisae d) B.thuringensis

23. A prokaryote that carries out photosynthesis in a manner similar to that plant is
a …….
 a) Photoaututroph b) Chemoautotroph
c) Photoheterotroph d) Prion

24. A type of reproduction in which a prokaryote replicates its DNA & divides is
……….
a) Conjugation b) Transduction
c) Binary fission d) transformation

25. The processes of destroying the bacteria using heat or chemical action ……….
a) Lytic infection b) Lysogenic infection
c) Sterilization d) Gram staining

26. IPM stands for ……….

a) Integrated plant management b) Integrated pest
manufacture
c) Integrated pest management d) None of these

27. Most effective pesticides are ………

a) Carbamates b) Organophosphates
c) Organochlorines d) large quantity of humus

28. The rate of degradation and microbial resistance to toxic pollutants remain
better when
…………
a) Mixed cell population is used b) Individual cell is used
c) Mixed cell population with metal is used d) Individual cell with metal is
used

29. Which of the following bacteria is considered as biological leaching?

a) T.thiooxidans b) T.ferroxidans
c) Ferrobacillus terroxidans d) All of these

30. The process of photosynthesis is …………..

a) Reductive exergonic and catabolic b) Reductive endergonic and
catabolic
c) Reductive exergonic and anabolic d) Reductive endergonic and
anabolic

31. …………….. is the photosynthetic organism which does not release oxygen
a) Blue green algae b) Green algae
 c) Green sulphur bacterium d) Lichens

32. An essential process connected with photosynthesis is …………..

a) Synthesis of glucose b) Photolysis of water
c) Photophosphorylation d) Break down of glucose

33. The hydrogen donor in bacterial photosynthesis is …………..

a) Water b) Ammonia
c) Sulphur d) Hydrogen sulphide

34. Light is necessary in the processes of photosynthesis to ………….

a) Split carbon dioxide b) Release energy
c) Produce ATP & reducing substance d) Combine carbon dioxide &
water

35. Photosynthetic pigments absorb …………..

a) UV radiation b) Gamma radiation
c) IR radiation d) Visible radiation

36. Bacterial photosynthesis comes from …………

a) H2S b) NH3
c) H2S04 d) H2O

37. During photosynthesis, oxygen is evolved from ……………..

a) Water b) Carbohydrate
c) Protein d) Sunlight

38. The chlorophyll pigments present in purple bacterium are ………….

a) Chlorophyll b,c b) Chlorophyll a,b
c) Chlorophyll a,c d) Chlorophyll b,d

39. Phytoremediation cleans up the polluted soils by using ………….

a) Plants b) weeds
c) Anaerobic bacteria d) fungi

40. Aldolase acts on the substrate …………..

a) fructose 1,6 bisphosphate b)triose phosphate
c) dihydroxy acetone phosphate d) glyceraldehydes 3 phosphate
 41. Which of the following bacteria is used to leach the copper?
a) A.niger b) A.oryzae
c) A.flavus d) R.stolonifer

42. The wood decay is ………….

a) Destruction of lignocelluloses by fungi b) Active wound
c) Heart wood d) Sap wood

43. Which of the following could be used to grow viruses in the laboratory?
a) Chicken eggs b) Cell culture
c) Bacteria d) All the above

44. Prophage refers to …………….

a) Viral genome outside the host cell b) genome of virus integrated to
bacteria
c) Viral genome in the culture medium d) Newly synthesized viral
genome

45. Which of the following characterize prions?

a) Prions are simply protein molecules b) They cause cruelzfeld-
Jakob disease
c) Cause normal protein to change shape d) All the above

46. Name the processes that involve both release & enveloping of the virus?
a) Lysogeny b) Conjugation
c) Reverse transcriptase d) Budding

47.Which of the following bacteria is used to leach copper?

a) A.niger b)A.oryzae
c) A.flavus d) R.stolonifer

48. Which microbe yields petroleum as its metabolic product?

a) X.campestris b) Pseudomonas sp.
c) Acinetobacter sp. d) Bacillus sp.

49.Which of the plant is effectively used for phytoremediation?

a) Vetriver b) Acacia
c) Rose d) Bamboo

50. Which of the following is a leguminous plant?

 a) Ground nut b)Potato
c) Tomato d)Beet root

KEY FOR UNIT IV

1a 2d 3b 4d 5a 6d 7a 8b 9a 10b

11d 12a 13d 14c 15d 16b 17b 18b 19b 20c

12c
13b
21a 22b 23a 24c 25c 26c 27b 28a 29d 30d

31c 32b 33d 34c 35d 36a 37a 38b 39a 40a

41d 42a 43d 44b 45d 46d 47d 48a 49a 50a

UNIT V

1.Penicillin & cephalosporins are the antibiotics which interfere with the
biosynthesis of ……………..
a) Protein b) Peptidoglycan
c) DNA d) Lipids

2.All the following human diseases are caused by spirochetes except ………….
a) syphilis b)lyme disease
c) leptospirosis d)food poisoning

3.Members of the genus Mycobacterium share the characteristic of being

…………
a) acid fast b)easy to cultivate
c) cocci d) cell wall less

4.Cholera red reaction is named for the product …………….

a) methyl red b)nitrosoindole
c) red pigment by vibrio d)nitrates

5.What is the number of beta subunits of cholera toxin?

a) 4 b)6
c) 5 d) 8

6.Rabies virus multiplies within the ………………

a) prostrate glands b)pancreas
c) salivary glands d)pituitary glands

7.Name the bacterium that causes lyme disease?

a) Treponemapallidum b)Borreliahermsii
c)Borreliaburgdorferi d)Leptospira

8.S.pneumonia was first observed by…………….

a)Pasteur b)Koch
c)Jenner d)Lister

9.Complete hemolysis is known as ………….

a)alpha b) beta
c)gamma d)delta

10.Which protein is not involved in virulence of Streptococcus pneumonia?

a)pneumolysin b)neuraminidase
c)hemolysin d)endotoxin

11.Which type of flagella is seen in Salmonella sp?

a)lophotrichous b)monotrichous
c)peritrichous d)lophotrichous

12.Name the specific medium for the growth of Salmonella?

a)EMB agar b) Wilson-Blair bismuth
sulphite agar
c)MacConkey d)Nutrient agar

13.Which of the following antigen is an endotoxin?

a)H-antigen b)O-antigen
c)Vi-antigen d)LPS-antigen

14.Which of the following is significantly decreased during AIDS?

a) CD4 cells b) CD2 cells
c) B-cells d) RBC

15. Which of the following is not a structural gene in HIV?

a)GAG b)POL
c)ENV d) REV

16.Name the virus that is bullet shaped?

a)rabies b)HIV
c)ebola d)pox

17.Negribodies are viral inclusion bodies found in ………….

a)spinal cord b)brain
c)heart d)blood

18.Schizogony occurs in …………..

a)human b)mosquito
c)pigs d)cows

19.Which among the following is not a stage of erythrocytic schizogony?

a)trophozoite b)merozoite
c)schizont d)gametocyte

20.Which stage of plasmodium is called signet ring?

a)trophozoite b)merozoite
c)schizont d)gametocyte
 21.Which is not an organo phosphorous compound?
a)malathion b) parathion
c)methyl parathion d)carbaryl

22.Name the bacterium whose biosurfactants are involved in swarming motility.

a)P.aeruginosa b)B.subtilis
c)P.mirabilis d) S.aureus

23.Sulfonamide blocks …………. enzyme in folic acid synthesis

a)pteridine reductase b)dihydrofolate reductase
c)pteridine synthetase d)dihydrofolate synthetase

24.Phages that destroy host cell DNA, synthesize phage particles & cause lysis to
host cells are called as ………..
a) Temperate phage b) Prophage
c) Lytic phage d) Virulent phage

25. HIV has …………

a) 2-ss RNA b) 1 ss DNA
c) 2 ds RNA d) 1 ds DNA

26. Subtilysin is produced by ………….

a)B.subtilis b)P.aeruginosa
c)B.anthracis d)E.coli

27.The organ affected due to Pneumonia is …………………

a)lungs b) liver
c)heart d) intestine

28.Pneumococcal toxin binds to …………component of cell membrane

a)sugar b)Protein
c)amino acid d)cholesterol

29.Vibrio cholera was first isolated by ………………

a) Pasteur b)Leeuwenhoek
c)Robert Koch d)Jenner

30.TCP stands for ……………..

a)Toxin cooperative pilus b)Toxin combined pilus
c)Toxin clubbed pilus d)Toxin co regulated pilus

31.Selective medium for Vibrio cholera is ……………….

a)TCBS b)EMB
c)MacConkey d)Blood agar

32.Biochemically Salmonella sp. are ………………..

a)oxidase +, catalase + b)oxidase -, catalase +
c)oxidase -, catalase - d)oxidase +, catalase –

33.In which medium Salmonella produce jet black colonies?

a)Wilson Blair b)EMB
c)MacConkey d)Blood agar

34.Which of the following test is used for diagnosis of Salmonella?

a)VDRL b)WIDAL
c)ELISA d) PCR

35.Which among the following symptoms are not seen in Typhoid fever?
a)fever b)rash
c)diarrhea d)increased appetite

36.Which is the drug of choice for typhoid?

a)Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin
c) Tetracycline d) Kanamycin

37.Syphilis is caused by…………….

a)fungus b)spirochaete
c)algae d)virus

38.Which among the following is a zoonotic disease?

a)rabies b)syphilis
c)typhoid d)cholera

39.Freshly isolated rabies viruses are called as …………..

a)new virus b)street virus
c)virion d)phage
40.Which among the following is a major viral protein?
a)gp112 b)gp 40
c)gp 120 d)gp96

41.Which drug is ineffective against AIDS?

a)AZT b)lipinavir
c)ritonavir d)penicillin

42. Which bacteria are lanceolate shaped?

a)S.pneumoniae b)E.coli
c)Bacillus d)S.aureus

43.Canchre is seen in which stage of syphilis?

a) primary b)secondary
c) latent d) tertiary

44.Penicillin &cephalosporins are the antibiotics which interfere with the

biosynthesis of ……
a) Protein b) Peptidoglycan
c) DNA d) Lipids

45. The generation time for Vibrio cholera is ………….

a) 30 min b) 20 min
c) 40 min d) 60 min

46. How many subunits are seen in Vibrio toxin?

a) 5 b) 6
c) 4 d)2

47.What is the nature of Rabies DNA?

a) ss-RNA b)ds RNA
c) ss DNA d) ds DNA

48.Who first reported the transmission of malaria through mosquitoes?

a) Walter b) Ronald Ross
c) Jenner d) Crick

49.At which stage is schizont found?

a) exo erythrocytic cycle b) erythrocytic cycle
c) in mosquitoes d) in liver cells
50. Which is the genetic material of HIV?
a) 2 ssRNA b) 1 ssRNA
c) 2 ss d) 2 dsDNA

KEY FOR UNIT V

1b 2d 3a 4b 5b 6c 7c 8a 9b 10d

11c 12b 13b 14a 15d 16a 17b 18a 19d 20a

12c
13bc
21d 22a 23c 24c 25a 26a 27a 28d 29c 30d

31a 32b 33a 34b 35d 36a 37b 38a 39b 40c

41d 42a 43a 44b 45a 46d 47a 48b 49b 50a
Semester 1

Elective 1: Bioinstrumentation Course code : P15BT1:1

UNIT – I

1. A carbonated drink, whose pH=3, is _______________ times more acidic than

distilled water.

a. 4 b. 10 c. 100 d. 10,000

2. The pH of gastric juice of infants is _____.

a. 2.0 b. 4.0 c. 4.5 d. 5.0

3. Pure fraction of cellular components or the isolation of individual organelles from

cell homogenates is achieved through __________.

a. Spectrophotometry b. Differential centrifugation

c. X-ray diffraction d. Chromatography

4. During muscular exercise, if lactic acid content in the blood rises over 100 mg
per 100ml,then the pH of the blood _______.

a. slightly increases b. highly increases

c. slightly decreases d. markedly decreases

5. The average pH of urine is-------

a. 5.6 b. 6.0 c. 6.4 d. 6.8

6. In centrifugation process , the rate of sedimentation is based on

a. radius of the particle b. density of the medium

c. viscosity of the medium d. all of these

7. The pH of buffer is determined by pH= pKa+log[salt]/ [acid] which is also known as the
equation of
 a. Henderson- Joules b. Henderson-Smith
c. Henderson – Harris
d. Henderson-Hasselbalch

8. The chief buffering system in the blood is _______.

a. K2HPO4 and KH2PO4 b. B-protein and H- protein

c. NaHCO3 and H2CO3 d. Haemoglobin and H- haemoglobin

9. To determine the ultrastructure of a cell organelle, the most likely method to be used
would be _________.

a. Autoradiography b. Phase-contrast microscopy

c. Microdissection d. Electron microscopy

10. In centrifugation v refers to ______

a. rate of sedimentation b. gravitational force

c. shape of the particles d. viscosity

11. The rpm level for large capacity centrifuges is _________.

a.6000 rev min -1 b. 7000 rev min -1 c. 8000 rev min -1 d.9000 rev min -1

-1
12. The maximum speed 80,000 rev min is applicable to ______.
a. Small bench top centrifuges b. Ultra centrifuges

c. Analytical centrifuges d. All of these

13. Molecular weight of NaOH is _______

a. 39.99 mol/g b. 48mol/g c. 88mol/gm d.10mol/g

14. Centrifugation is classified on the basis of ------

a. purpose of centrifugation b. speed at which centrifuge is operated

c. method of the application of the sample d. all of these

15. The neutral pH range is ____

a.7.0 b. 0 c. 1.0 d. both a & b

16. Water can be considered to be ________

a. weak electrode b. buffer c. solution d. none of these

17. If the composition of a gas changes, the resistance changes and the electrical resistance of the
wire is temperature dependent. This principle is used in _____.
a. Thermal-conductivity cell b. Argon ionization detector
 c. Flame-ionization detector d. All of these

18. Centrifugal force (F) = ______ x radius

a. Angular velocity b. rpm c. rate of sedimentation d. gradient

19.In centrifugation process refers to …

a. velocity b. rate of sedimentation c. gravitation d. rpm
20. The sedimentation rate of the given particles depend upon-----
a. density of the particle b. radius of the particle
c. density of the medium d. all of these

21. The role of sucrose in centrifugation is to -----

a. separate sub cellular particles b. separate whole cells

c. bind DNA & RNA d. fractionate lipoproteins

22. The role of glycerol in centrifugation is -------

a. banding of membrane fragments b. separation of lipoproteins

c. separation of DNA & RNA d. DNA binding

-1
23. The centrifuge that functions with maximum speed of 6000 rev min is -----
a. analytical centrifuge b. large capacity centrifuge

c. clinical centrifuge d. preparative centrifuge

24. In the high speed refrigerated centrifuges the maximum level of rotor speed is
a. 15,000 rev/ min b. 25,000 rev/min
c. 60,000 rev/ min d. 80,000 rev /min

25. The rotor speed level of a preparative centrifuge is------

a. 10000 rev /min b. 20000 rev/min
c. 60000 rev/ min d. 80000 rev/min

26. In analytical centrifugation process “s’” stands for--------

a. temperature b. rate of sedimentation
c. mole gas constant d. relative molecular weight

2
27. Force (F) = ω x ?
a. r b. rpm c. rs d. cc
28. The maximum RCF for clinical centrifuge is----
a. 6000g b. 8000 g c.7000 g d. 5000g

29. The svedberg unit for viruses are

a. 40 to 1000 s b. 50 to 5000 s c. 20 – 1000 s d. 20 – 5000 s

30. The red blood cells can be isolated by using------

a. Ultra centrifuges b. Hand centrifuges
 c. Clinical centrifuges d. Preparative centrifuges

31. The maximum speed level of large capacity centrifuge is

a. 6500 g b. 7500 g c. 5000 g d. 2000 g

32. By using large capacity refrigerated centrifuges we can isolate

a. Yeast cells b. Nucleus c. Chloroplast d. All of these

33. Harvesting of bacteria and yeast cells in large volume can be done by using
a. Ultra centrifuge b. Continuous flow electrophoresis
c. Clinical centrifuges d. Hand centrifuges

34. The RCF volume of preparative centrifuge is

a. 10000g b. 30000g c. 60000g d. 40000g

35. The purity of DNA, viruses and proteins can be determined by using
a. Preparative centrifuges b. Analytical centrifuges
c. Clinical centrifuges d. Rotor centrifuges

36. The centrifuge that is used in the separation of protein and nucleic acid is

a. Ultra centrifuges b. Analytical centrifuges

c. Analytical ultra centrifuge d. All of these

37. ω2in centrifugation refers to

b. rcf
a. Angular velocity of the
rotor c. gravitation
d. time

38. “ r” in centrifugation refers to

a. molar gas constant c. b. molar co efficiency
density
d. solvent mobility
39. The process of cell separation from cell organelles is known as

a. subcellular fractionation b. cell lysis

c. cell elongation d. cell precipitation

40. The residual substance present intactly in a medium is known as

a. sedimentation b. homogenate
c. pellet d. liquid
41. Fractionation of the content of a homogenate is done by a classical biochemical
technique called

a. centrifugation b. differential centrifugation

c. sedimentation d. ultra centrifugation

42. The term pH was coined in the year

a. 1909 b.1919 c. 1900 d. 1999

43. Acid is a
a. proton donor b. neutron donor c. electron donor d. None of these

44. A base is a
a. neutron acceptor b. proton acceptor c. electron acceptor d. None of these

45. The equilibrium constant for acidic acid is

a. 1.8 x 10-5 b. 1.18 x 10-5 c. 1.80 x 10-5 d. 1.181 x 10-5

46. The resistance of buffers to change pH on addition of small amount of alkali or acid is
known as

a. buffer capacity b. buffer action c. buffer movement d. buffer equilibrium

47. The calomel electrode is made of a thick glass that is impermeable to

a. OH+ions b. H+ ions c. OH-ions d. Both H+ and OH- ions

48. The magnitude of the buffer action is called the

a. buffer capacity b. buffer action
c. buffer movement d. buffer constant

49. The enzyme reactions and the biological components are estimated between
a. 250 & 750 nm b. 260 & 750nm

c. 240 & 740nm d. 200 & 700nm

 2+ 2+
50. Ca an Mg ions are bound by
a. Ca ions b. Mg ions c. Phosphate ions d. Hydrogen ions
 UNIT I-KEY

1d 2d 3b 4d 5b 6d 7d 8c 9d 10a

11a 12b 13a 14d 15a 16a 17a 18a 19b 20d

21a 22a 23b 24b 25d 26b 27a 28c 29a 30c

31a 32d 33b 34c 35b 36d 37a 38a 39b 40b

41b 42a 43a 44b 45a 46b 47b 48a 49c 50c

UNIT – II

1. In 1906, Mikhail Tswett coined the term

a. Chromatography b. Microscopy c. Spectroscopy d. Electrophoresis

2. Which of the following is used as stationary phase in column chromatography?

a. Glass beads b. Silica gel c. Sand d. Gravels

3. The separation of proteins is done by

a. HPLC b. FPLC c. TLC d.HPTLC

4. Ninhydrin spray is used to identify

 a. Organic compounds b. Inorganic compounds

c. Amino acids d. Volatile compounds

5. HPLC column can sustain pressure upto

a.5.5 x 107 lbs b.15x 107lbs c. 20 x 107lbs d.50.5 x 107 lbs

6. Isocratic system means

a. multiple solvent system b. single solvent system
c. polar solvents system d. non-polar solvents system

7. FID can detect

a. Halogens b. N2 and Phosporous

c. organic compounds d. inorganic compounds

8. Polychlorinated compounds are detected by

a. FID b. NPD c. TLC d. ECD

9. Detectors of HPLC are based on the principle of

a. UV-Visible b. Visible c. IR d. NMR

10. In partition chromatography, the broadening of peaks can be reduced by

very small starting genes

rapid separation

slow separation and very small starting genes

rapid separation and very small starting genes

11. For the separation of non-polar material, the typical stationary phase
a. Benzene b. Alcohol c. Amides d. Water

12. For the separation of polar material, the typical stationary phase is
a. Benzene b. Amides c. Alcohol d. Water
13. For the separation of non-polar material, the typical mobile phase is

a. Alcohols or Amides b. Water c. Benzene d. All of these

14. In the separation of polar materials, the typical mobile phases are

a. Alcohol or Benzene b. Water c. Benzene d. All of these

15. In adsorption chromatography

a. The fraction of solutes bound is constant to the stationary phase

b. The fraction bound is not constant amount but decreases with

decreasing concentration.

c. Both a. and b.

d. None of these

16. In adsorption chromatography for the separation of small organic molecules and
proteins, the adsorbent used is

a. Alumina b. Silica gel c. Hydroxyapatite d. All of these

17. For separation of sterols and amino acid, by adsorption chromatography, the material used is
a. Hydroxyapatite b. Calcium phosphate gel c. Silica gel d. Alumina

18. For separation of nucleic acids by adsorption chromatography, the material used is
a. Alumina b. Silica gel c. Hydroxyapatite d. Activated Carbon
19.Adsorption of molecules is more strong in

a. adsorption chromatography in general

b. ion-exchange chromatography

c. paper chromatography

d. thin layer chromatography

20.The total volume of material, both solid and liquid in the column is known as
 a. Void volume b. Bed volume c. Elution volume d. Retention volume

21. In ion-exchange chromatography, the ion exchanger contains charged groups which are
a. non-covalently linked b. linked through hydrogen bonds
c. covalently linked d. linked via Vander Waal forces

22. A typical strongly acidic cation exchanger is

a. Sulfonic acid group b. Phenolic hydroxyl group
c. Quaternary amino group d. Carboxylic group

+
23. If an H is attached to a cation exchanger, the exchanger is said to be in
a. Acidic form b. Basic form c. Neutral form d. None of these

24. The ability of an ion exchanger to take up exchangeable ions is known as

a. Total capacity b. available capacity
c. ground capacity d. Measurable capacity

25. The available capacity of an ion-exchanger is dependent upon

a. pH b. Ionic strength c. Porosity of matrix d. All of these

26. If a protein is stable at pH value alone the isoelectric point, then the exchanger required is
a. Cation b. Anion c. Both a and b d. None of these

27. For extremely high resolution HPLC, the support usually is of mesh size
a. 50- 100 b. 100-200 c.200-400 d. 7400
28.In paper chromatography, when the stationary phase and mobile phase are both water,
then separation is because of ………

a. Adsorption

b. Partitioning between water molecules of similar nature

c. Partitioning between water molecules, because the physical structure of bound

water is very different from that of free water
 d. None of these

29. If a weekly ionized substance that requires a very low or high pH for
ionization, is chromatographed, the exchanger used is …..

a. strong b. weak c.medium d. neutral

30.……… reacts very strongly with amino group and is extremely useful in coupling enzymes,

nucleic acid, antibodies, antigens, proteins, etc.

a. Cyanogenbromide b. Activated Charcoal c. Agarose

d. Acrylamide

31. An ion-exchanger is used to separate single stranded-polynucleotide. A gradient of increasing

salt concentration at pH 2.0 is used for elution. Which elute first?

a. Tri-adenylic acid b. Penta-adenylic acid c. Hexa-

adenylic acid d. Hepta-adenylic acid

32. An enzyme with mol.wt 56,000 is used in catalytic amount to cleave a protein of mol.wt
65,000 into fragments of mol.wt at 43,000 and 22,000. Gel-chromatography is used to
assess

the results. Which proteins and in which order will be eluted?

a. 65,000-56,000-43,000-22,000 b. 65,000-43,000-22,000
c. 22,000-43,000-65,000 d. 22,000- 43,000- 56,000-65,000

33. A globular protein aggregates to form either a tetrahedral tetramer or a linear

tetramer. Mixture chromatographed on sephadex gel. The elutes which form first is

a. Tetraheral b. Linear c. Both a and b d. None of these

34. The Rf value of substance A and B are 0.34 and 0.68 when chromatographed on paper.
What is the ratio of distance proved after three hours, assuming that neither substance has
run off the paper?

a. A:B::2:1 b. A:B::1:2 c. A:B::1:1 d.A:B:2:2

35.Suppose that an enzyme is dissociated into four identical subunits and you want to test for the
enzymatic activity of the individual subunits, but it must be a gene with no tetramers

remaining in the sample. What chromatographic system would you choose to free
the monomers from tetramers?

a. Paper Chromatography b.Thin Layer Chromatography

c. Gel-Chromatography d. Affinity Chromatography

36. In attempting to purify a protein, it is found that the proteins tightly bound to DNA. When
DNAase is added to destroy DNA, it is found that the DNAase binds to the complex without

digesting DNA. To dissociate DNA protein complex 2M NaCl is added, the concentration
at which ion exchangers do not retard either DNA or protein. What will you use?

a. Affinity Chromatography b. Paper Chromatography

c. Gel Chromatography d. Ion-exchange Chromatography

37. In comparing a molecule of DNA that is circular with one that is linear both of mol.wt
6x106. Which would elute first for an agarose column?

a. Linear b. Circular c. Both a and b d. None of these

38. A procedure has been devised for purifying a particular enzyme using gel
chromatography. In an effort to increase the amount of material to be handled, a sample
used whose concentration of protein is ten times than that normally used, then how would
the enzyme elute ?

a. The enzyme elutes with void volume because it aggregates

 b. The enzyme elutes very slowly because of high concentration

c. Enzyme is inactivated

d. None of these

39. In GLC, if the liquid is adsorbed to the inner surface of a tube or column, the system is

known as

a. Capillary operation b. Open-tubular operation

c. Packed – column operation d. Both a and b

40. Sephadex cannot be prepared in a form that can accept molecules whose molecular
weight is greater than 5x106. This is solved by
a. decreasing the length of cross-linking molecules

b. increasing the length of cross-linking molecules

c. by prolonged swelling

d. by using dry beads

41. A linear polymer of D-Galactose and 3,6-anhydro-1-galactose is called

a. Dextran b. Agarose c. Acrylamide d. None of these

42. Polyacrylamide gels are prepared by cross-linking acrylamide with

a. 3,6-anhydro-1-galactose b. guanidium chloride

c. N-N’-methylene bisacrylamide d. TEMED

43. Maximum number of grams of a particular molecule that can penetrate the pores of a
particular weight of gel is known as

a. capacity of a gel b. strength of a gel

c. flexibility of a gel d. rigidity of a gel

44. The chromatographic behaviour of almost all substances in gels is

a. independent of temperature and pH

b. independent of ionic strength and buffer composition

c. both a and b

d. none of these

45. In GLC, if the liquid phase is adsorbed to a solid support. The process is known as

a. Capillary operation b. Open-tubular operation c. Packed – column

operation d. None of these

46.In thin layer chromatography, the spot size is reduced as compound to paper
chromatography because

a. time taken for separation is small

b. material used in thin layer is pulverised

c. material used in thin layer is fibrous

d. there is associated capillarity in material used

47. The mesh size of the support in columns is

a. larger mesh number, smaller is the particle

b. larger mesh number, larger the particle

c. both a and b

d. none of these
48. During adsorption chromatography, a single substance separating in multiple peaks is due to

a. Molecules being degraded during passage

b. Channelling

c. Retention

d. Rise in temperature

49. Channelling in adsorption chromatography is as a result of

 a. homogeneous bed in the column

b. in homogeneity in the column

c. presence of gas in the elution medium

d. elution solvent being water

50. The chemical used as spray to identify amino acids in TLC plate is

a. Phenol b. Ninhydrin c. Ammonia d.Iodine

UNIT – II KEY

1a 2b 3b 4c 5a 6b 7c 8d 9a 10d

11a 12b 13a 14b 15b 16a 17c 18c 19b 20b

21c 22a 23a 24a 25d 26b 27d 28c 29a 30a

31a 32b 33b 34b 35c 36c 37a 38a 39d 40b

41b 42c 43a 44c 45c 46b 47a 48b 49b 50b

UNIT – III

1. Agarose is a natural product purified from

a. Red Sea Weed Algae b. Heterophyta c. Rhodophyta d. Both a and c

2. In AGE techniques, agarose is used as a concentration of

a. 0-1% b. 4-5 % c. 1-3% d. 5-6%
3. The apparatus developed by Schwartz and Cantor in 1984 was
a. AGE b. PAGE c. PFGE d. CE

4. In capillary electrophoresis, the external diameter of capillary column

a. 150-375 µ b. 20-75 µ c. 75-100 µ d. 300-480 µ

5. To carry out capillary electrophoresis …………….. is required.

a.100 – 300V/cm b. 250 – 300V/cm
c.300 – 350 V/cm d. 200 – 300V/cm

6. _________ is used to identify point mutations that occurs in DNA.

a. AGE b. PAGE c. PFGE d. CE

7. Large no of proteins can be isolated by

a. PAGE b. AGE c .CE d. both a & b
8.DNA molecules have high molecular weight because _________

it penetrates through a weak cross linked poly acrylamide gel

it depends upon the size of the molecule

a. is true but it doesn’t match with b.

b. is true but it doesn’t match with a.

9.Hexagonal apparatus used in electrophoresis is

a. PFGEb. AGE c. CE d. PAGE

10. Bromophenol blue is used in ____

a. SDS – PAGE b. PFGE c. CE d. All of these

11. DNA is vizualised using UV transilluminator after staining with

a. Giemsa stain b. Cosmic blue c. Crystal violet d. EtBr

12. The concentration of the pores can be determined in agarose gel electrophoresis by
a. increasing the concentration of agarose b. decreasing the concentration of agarose
c. buffer concentration d. none of these

13. The word “Electrophoresis” means

a. borne by electricity b. electric field

c. electric mobility d. electrical instrument

14. The discovery of electrophoresis was by

a. Hemnis b. Michel c. Alexander Reuss d. Melvin
15. The distance travelled by the particles in one second under the potential gradient of one
volt per cm is called

a. electric magnification b. electric transportation

c. electrophoretic mobility d. all of these

16. The electrophoresis apparatus discovered by Chu et al., is…………..

a. AGE b. PAGE c. PFGE d. CE

17.Qualitative immunoelectrophoresis is carried out in agarose gel …………..buffer.

a. saline b. barbitone c. glucose d. SDS

18. TEMED refers to

a. tetra ethylene diamide b. tetra ethyl methylene diamine
c. tetra ethyl diamine d. tetra ethylene methyl diamine

19. The external diameter of capillary tube column is

a. 70-75 microns b. 60-750microns c. 0-10 microns d. 75 – 100 microns
20. Immunoelectrophoretic technique is described by

a. Raman b. Octane Oliver c. Bussard d. Chrissey Magthalene

21. The electrophoresis which is used to separate the particles in a large manner
a. AGE b. PAGE c. Continuous flow electrophoresis d. PFGE

22. The power source of capillary electrophoresis is

a. 250 – 300 v/cm b. 300 – 350 v/cm c. 200 – 500 v/cm d. 500 v/cm

23. The electrophoresis which is used to quantify the DNA is

a. PFGE b. CFE c. AGE d. CE

24. Two dimensional immunoelectrophoresis technique, developed by

a. Clarke and Freeman b. Bussard c. Wilson d. Crick

25. Electrophoresis with pH 8.6 facilitates the …………. to move towards the anode.
a. antibody b. antigen c. protein d. nucleic acids

26.Migration of ions in an electric field at a definite pH is called …………………..

a. centrifugation b. mass spectrometry c. electrophoresis d. pH metry

27. Electrophoresis was developed by ………………. (1937).

a. Arne W.K.Tiselius b. Geiger-Muller c. James Clark d. Wilson

28. The rate of the electrophoretic migration depends on

a. the pH of the medium b. strength of the electric field

c. size of the molecule d. All of the above

29. A voltage is applied to the gel for a period of

a. 10 hrs b. 1-4hrs c. 30 mins d. 30 secs
30.The phosphate buffer whose pH is 7.2, used in gel electrophoresis contains ……SDS.

a. 0.8% b.1% c. 0.2% d.0.5%

31.After electrophoresis, the gel removed from the apparatus is stained with ……………..

a. Simple stain b. Gram’s stain c. Coomassie blue d. Crystal violet

32. The protein and its molecular weight against the mobility shows an approximately
a. Linear relationship b. Perpendicular relationship

c. Straight relationship d. Proportional relationship

33. The proteins in the gel, move at a distance proportional to

a. electric field b. magnetic field c. electrophoretic mobility d. stability

34. The molecular weight of myosin is

a. 2,00,000 b. 92,000 c. 68,000 d. 11,700

35. The molecular weight of myoglobin is

a. 29,000 b. 36,000 c. 17,200 d. 43,000

36. A 0.8% agarose gel can accept DNA molecules with molecular weight as high as

a. 30x106 b. 20 x106 c.37 x106 d. 59 x106

37. The most convenient method to study DNA and RNA fragments by electrophoresis is by
a. PAGE b. AGE c. PFGE d. Immunoelectrophoresis

38. Submarine gel system easily resolves DNA upto

a. 100kb b. 1000kb c. 20 kb d. 50kb

39. Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis technique was developed in the year 1984 by
a. Peterson b. Fedrick c. Schwartz & Cantor d. Keith Wilson

40. The components used in PAGE are

 a. acrylamide b. bisacrylamide c. TEMED d. All of these

41. ……………………. is a fluorescent dye used to detect nucleic acids in agarose gels.

a. Coomassie blue b. Iodine c. Saffranin d. Ethidium bromide

42. The amount of ethidium bromide used to stain agarose gel is

a. 10µg/ml b. 0.5 µg/ml c. 2 µg/ml d.1.0 µg/ml

43.In SDS-PAGE, the shorter stacking gel is about ……. long.

a. 5cm b. 2cm c. 1cm d. 0.5cm

44. In PAGE the proteins move towards

a. cathode b. north pole c. south pole d. anode

45. The separation of proteins according to their isoelectric points in a pH gradient is called
a. electrophoretic technique b. isoelectric focusing

c. electric mobility d. continuous flow electrophoresis

46. Isoelectric focusing was discovered by

a. Svensson b. Raman c.Chu d. Mikkers

47. Isoelectric focusing is used to resolve plasma proteins up to

a. 10 bands b. 6 bands c. 100 bands d. 40 bands

48. The method of monitoring OD at different locations in gel to analyse bands is called
a. photometric scanning b. microscopic c. USG d. SEM

49. The viewing area in UV transilluminator is made up of

a. Glass b. Quartz c. Plastic d. silica

50. …………….(1992) designed a novel dark field illuminator.

a. Anbalagan b. Watson c. Wilson d. Raman

 UNIT – III KEY

1d 2a 3c 4a 5b 6a 7d 8a 9a 10a

11d 12a 13c 14c 15c 16a 17b 18b 19c 20c

21b 22a 23d 24a 25b 26c 27a 28d 29b 30c

31c 32a 33c 34a 35c 36d 37b 38c 39c 40d

41d 42b 43c 44d 45b 46a 47d 48a 49b 50a

UNIT - IV

1. Who proposed that light is made of waves of substances of electric and magnetic fields?
a. James Clark Maxwell b. Henderson c. Smith d. Harris

2. Mawell’s equation predicted the correct high speed of light as,

a. c=1000 km/s b. c= 2,000,000km/s c. c=300,000km/s d. c=100km/s

3. The interaction of electromagnetic radiation with matter is a

a. radiation b. quantam c. measurement d. intensity

4. . ………….. defined photons as light made of a stream of particles and bundles of energy.
 a. H.John b. G.N.Lewis c. Peterson d. Smith

5. Energy associated with radiation can be mathematically related to

a. sound b. rays c. waveform d. water

6. The distance between successive peaks in a wave is

a. frequency b. wavelength c. sound d. quantum

7. Number of successive peaks that pass a given point in 1 second is

a. wavelength b. waveform c. photon d. frequency

8. The wavelength range of the visible region is

a. 100- 200 nm b. 300-400 nm c. 10- 100 nm d.400-700nm

9.Wavelength between 200-400nm comprises the ………..of the spectrum.

a. Visible region b. UV region c. IR region d. UV-visible region

10. The wavelength above …………….is IR region

a. 300-400nm b. 100-200nm c. 700-2000nm d.10-20nm

11.The value of Plank’s constant (h) is

a. 6.624x10-34 J/s b. 5.324x10-34 J/s c. 4.888x10-34 J/s d. 6.622x10-34 J/s

12. The speed of light is

a. 4.0x1010cm/s b. 3.0x1010cm/s c. 2.2x1010cm/s d. 5.2x1010cm/s

13. The wavelength or frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted by an atom or

molecule is called ………… spectroscopy.
 a. quantitative b. qualitative c. emission d. atomic

14. IR spectroscopy is used to identify

a. No. of molecules b. No. of atoms c. functional groups d. No. of hydrogen

15. In IR spectroscopy, the frequency is measured in terms of wave numbers ranging from
-1 -1 -1 -1
a.1000-2000 cm b. 3000-2000 cm c.600-400 cm d.4000-650 cm

16. The finger print region of the IR spectrum falls between

a.1-10µ b. 2-7 µ c. 3-7 µ d.7-11 µ

17. Electron microscope comprises of

a. Polarizer and analyzer filters b. Electromagnetic lenses
c. Ocular lenses d. Fluorochromes

18. In 1996, scientists described a new tapeworm parasite that had killed at least one person. The

initial examination of the patient’s abdominal mass was most likely made using

a. brightfield microscopy b. darkfield microscopy

c. electron microscopy d. phase – contrast microscopy

19. Which of the following is not a modification of a compound light microscope?

a. brightfield microscopy b. darkfield microscopy

c. electron microscopy d. phase – contrast microscopy

 20.A phase contrast microscope is used

a. for increasing power

b. to study cells and their components in a living state using a phase difference in
the light rays

c. to localize cell structure stained with fluorochromes

d. for obtaining X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA

21. Magnification of a “compound microscope” does not depend upon

a. Focal length of objective c. tube length of eyepiece

b. focal length of eyepiece d. numerical aperture of objective

22. The maximum magnification possible with an electron microscope is

a. 200 times b. 20,000 times c. 2000 times d. 200,000 times

23. The resolving power of an electron microscope is

a.1A◦ b. 10 A◦ c. 100 A◦ d.1000A◦

24. Electron microscope was discovered by

a. R.Brown b. Zernike c. Wilson d. Knoll and Ruska

25.Resolving power of microscope means capacity to

magnify the image

distinguish between two organelles

distinguish between two objects

distinguish between two close points

26.Resolving power of a light microscope is

a. 0.1 µ b. 0.2 µ c. 0.3 µ d. 0.4 µ

27. In SEM the source of illumination is

a. infrared light b. ordinary light c. beam of electrons d. ultra violet light

28. How many times is the resolution of light microscope greater than the human eye?
a. 100 times b. 250 times c. 500 times d. 1000 times

29. The molecular organization of cell components can be revealed by

a. phase contrast microscope b. electron microscope
c. X-ray diffraction microscope d. all the above

30. The molecular organization of cell components can be revealed by

a. phase contrast microscope b. electron microscope
c. X-ray diffraction microscope d. all the above

31. Mass spectroscopy is used to determine molecular weights as high as

a. 4000 b. 2000 c. 5000 d.1000

32. The charged particles separated according to their masses is known as

a. NMR spectrum b. Mass spectrum c. IR spectrum d. UV spectrum

33. The trace metals in liquid is determined by

a. Mass spectroscopy b. NMR c.AAS d.PMR

34. The branch of science dealing with the study of interaction of electromagnetic radiation
is called

a. spectroscopy b. electronics c. radiology d. cryptology

35. Plank’s constant

 a. 6.6251 X 10 -27 b. 6.625 X 10 -27 c. 6.6225 X 10 -27 d. 6.602 X 10 -27

36. The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is

a. acceleration, deflection, detection, ionization

b. ionisation, acceleration, deflection, detection

c. acceleration, ionisation, deflection, detection

d. acceleration, deflection, ionisation, detection

37. Which one of the following statements about ionisation in a mass spectrometer is incorrect?

a. gaseous atoms are ionised by bombarding them with high energy electrons

b. atoms are ionised so they can be accelerated

c. atoms are ionised so they can be deflected

d. it doesn't matter how much energy you use to ionise the atoms

38. The path of ions after deflection depends on...

a. only the mass of the ion

b. only the charge on the ion

c. both the charge and the mass of the ion

d. neither the charge nor the mass of the ion

39. Which of the following species will be deflected to the greatest extent?

a. 37Na+ b. 35Na+ c. 37Na d.35Na2+

40.Which of the following is not a use for mass spectrometry?

a. calculating the isotopic abundance in elements

b. investigating the elemental composition of planets

c. confirming the presence of O-H and C=O in organic compounds

 d. calculating the molecular mass of organic compounds

41.Which one of the following statement about the mass spectrum of CH 3Br is correct?

a. the last two peaks are of equal size and occur at m/z values of 94 and 96

b. the last two peaks have abundances in the ratio 3:1 and occur at m/z values of 94 and 96

c. there is just one peak for the molecular ion with an m/z value of 95

d. there is just one peak for the molecular ion with an m/z value of 44

42. Which one of the following pieces of information cannot be obtained from an infra-red
spectrum?

the molecular mass

the presence of C=O bonds

the presence of O-H bonds

the identity of a compound through comparison with other spectra

43. To check that a secondary alcohol has been completely oxidised to a ketone you can...

check that the IR spectrum has absorptions at 3500cm-1 and 1650cm-1

check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 3500cm-1

check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 1650cm-1

check that the IR spectrum no absorptions at 3500cm-1 and 1650cm-1

44. The region of an infra-red spectrum where many absorptions take place is known as the

a. thumbprint region b. handprint region

c. footprint region d. fingerprint region

45. Proton NMR is useful for investigating the structure of organic compounds because
 organic compounds contain carbon atoms

organic compounds are mostly covalent

hydrogen atoms are found in all organic compounds

organic compounds have low boiling points

46. Which of the following statements about tetramethylsilane is incorrect?

it produces a single peak at d=10

it is inert

it is volatile and can be easily distilled off and used again

it is used to provide a reference against which other peaks are measured

47. Signals in a proton NMR spectrum do not provide information about

the relative number of hydrogen atoms in a particular environment

the number of chemically different hydrogen atoms on adjacent atoms

the environment of different hydrogen atoms in a molecule

the molecular mass of an organic molecule

48. The proton NMR spectrum of propane will consist of

a. a triplet and a singlet b. a triplet and a quartet

c. a doublet and a sextet d. a triplet and a septet

49. The proton NMR of 1-bromopropane will consist of

a. two doublets and a sextet b. a doublet and a septet

c. a singlet, a doublet and a triplet d. two triplets and a sextet

50. The proton NMR of 2-bromopropane will consist of

a. two doublets and a sextet b. a doublet and a septet

c. a singlet, a doublet and a triplet d. a singlet, a doublet and a triplet
 UNIT – IV KEY

1a 2c 3b 4b 5c 6b 7d 8d 9b 10c

11a 12b 13b 14c 15d 16d 17b 18a 19c 20b

21d 22d 23d 24d 25d 26c 27c 28c 29c 30c

31a 32b 33c 34a 35b 36b 37d 38c 39d 40c

41a 42a 43b 44d 45c 46a 47d 48d 49d 50b

UNIT -V

1. Assume E.coli are grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 16 N. After a
48 hour incubation period, the 16N would most likely be found in the E.coli’s.

a. carbohydrates b. lipids c.proteins d. water

2. If Pseudomonas sp. are supplied with radioactively labeled cytosine, after a 24-hour
incubation period this cytosine would most likely be found in the cells

a. carbohydrates b. DNA c. lipids d. water

3. If E.coli were grown in a medium containing the radioactive isotope 32P, the 32P would be
found in all the following molecules of the cell except

a. ATP b.carbohydrates c. DNA d. plasma membrane

4. In 1996, scientists described a new tapeworm that had killed at least one person. The
initial examination of the patient’s abdominal mass was most likely made using the patient’s
abdominal mass was most likely made using

a.brightfield microscopy b. darkfield microscopy

c. electron microscopy d. phase – contrast microscopy

5. Which of the following is not a modification of a compound light microscope?

a. brightfield microscopy b. darkfield microscopy
c.electron microscopy d. phase – contrast microscopy

6.A phase contrast microscope is used

for increasing power

to study cells and their components in a living state using a phase difference in
the light rays

to localize cell structure stained with fluorochromes

for obtaining X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA

7.Magnification of a “compound microscope” does not depend upon

a. focal length of objective b. tube length of eyepiece

c. focal length of eyepiece d. numerical aperture of objective

8. The maximum magnification possible with an electron microscope is

a. 200 times b. 20,000 times c. 2000 times d. 200,000 times

9. The resolving power of an electron microscope is

a.1A◦ b. 10 A◦ c. 100 A◦ d.1000A◦

10. Electron microscope was discovered by

d. Knoll and Ruska

a. R.Brown b. Zernike c. Wilson

11.Resolving power of microscope means capacity to

Magnify the image

distinguish between two organelles

distinguish between two objects

distinguish between two close points

12.Resolving power of a light microscope is

a. 0.1 µ b. 0.2 µ c. 0.3 µ d. 0.4 µ

13. In SEM the source of illumination is

a. infrared light b. ordinary light c. beam of electrons d. ultra violet light

14. How many times is the resolution of light microscope greater than the human eye?
a.100 times b. 250 times c. 500 times d. 1000 times

15. The molecular organization of cell components can be revealed by

a. phase contrast microscope b. electron microscope
c. X-ray diffraction microscope d. all the above

16. The molecular organization of cell components can be revealed by

a. phase contrast microscope b. electron microscope
c. X-ray diffraction microscope d. all the above

17. Spontaneous disintegration of the nuclei of some isotopes is called

a. Radioactivity b. Radioactive element c. Radioisotopes d. None of these
18. Radiation was first discovered by

a. Henri Bequerel b. Ernest Rutherford c. Rongent d. Cuery

19. In which year Ernest Rutherford discovered radiation in Uranium?

a.1899 b.1896 c.1886 d.1895

20. Atomic Number = __________

a. Z/N b. Z+N c. ZN d. Z=N

21. Atoms with same atomic number but different mass number are known as
a. Isoamines b. Isoamides c. Isotopes d. All of these
22. The atom of the nucleus contains

a. Negative charge b. Positive charge c. Neutral d. Both a & b

23. International unit of radioactivity is

a. kd b.rrm c. Curie d. Elsida

24. The age of rocks and fossils can be determined by

a. Radioimmunoassay b. Radio absorbance c. Radioisotopesd. Radio waves

25. One Curie is equal to

10 10 10 10
a. 3.8x 10 dps b. 3.7x 10 dps c. 33.7x 10 dps d. 3.77x 10 dps

26. The Beta particles are

a. High Speed Electrons b. High Speed Protons
c. Low Speed Electrons d. Low speed Neutrons

27. Alpha particles is present in the nucleus of

a. Helium atom b. Uranium atom c. Both a& b d. Thorium atom

28. Naturally found isotope is

a. Uranium b. Thorium c. Plutonium d. All of these

29. “A” refers to

a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. No. of neutrons d. No. of protons

30. “Z” refers to

a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. Atomic mass d. Atomic weight

31.Beta particles can be stopped by

a. 6mm Aluminum sheet b. 6mm Lead sheet

c. 16 mm Thorium sheet d. 10mm Lead sheet
32. Neutron ---- Proton + ___(B+ve )

a. Electron b. Negatron c.P

rot
on
d. Positron

33. In 1896, Henry Becquerel worked with the compound containing

a.Uranium b. Thorium c. Plutonium d. Radium

34. RIA was introduced by………..………

a. Berson b. Hudson c. Ronsun d. Vadson

35. Radiation can be measured and identified by
a. Crystallography b. Autoradiography c. GM Counter d. None of these

36. Radiotracers are used to detect

a. migration of birds b. blood clotting

c. concentration of blood in serum d. None of these
37. Of the following name/symbol combinations of elements, which one is WRONG?

a.Uranium/U b.Sulfur/S c.Nitrogen/N d.Potassium/P

38. Of the following symbol/name combinations of elements, which one is WRONG?

a. C/carbon b. B/barium c. F/fluorine d. N/nitrogen

-7
39. The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.676 x 10 m. How much energy

is emitted as the excited electron falls to the lower energy level?

a. 7.43 x 10-19 J b. 5.30 x 10 -20 J c. 6.05 x 10-19 J d. 3.60 x 10-20 J

40. The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.

no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.

two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.

it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an

electron simultaneously.

electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals
singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.

41. Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe electrons in atoms
is incorrect?

n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......

l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... , (n+1)

ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0, .... , (+l)
ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.
42. Radium undergoes alpha decay. The product of this reaction also undergoes alpha decay.

What is the product of this second decay reaction __________ ?

a. Po b. Hg c. U d.Rn

43. Nuclei above the belt of stability can lower their neutron-to-proton ratio by_____

a. gamma emission b. positron emission c. beta emission d. electron capture

44. The three radioactive series that occur in nature end with what element __________ ?

a. Hg b. Bi c. Po d. Pb
45. What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it
undergoes beta decay?

a. the mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2.

b. the mass number does not change and the atomic number decreases by 2.

c. neither the mass number nor the atomic number change.

d. the mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1.

46. Which type of radioactive decay results in no change in mass number and atomic number for

the starting nucleus?

a. beta b. positron emission c. alpha d. gamma

47. A Geiger-Muller tube is a _____

. a. gas ionization detector

b. cloud chamber
c. fluorescence detector
d. spectrophotometer

48. The time required for radioactivity in an original sample to be reduced to half its origin
level is known as

a. Half life b. radiation c. radioactivity d. radioactive element

49. Which one of the following hydrocarbons produces NMR spectrum with more than
one peak?

a. methane b. ethane c. butane d. cyclobutane

50. Which compound has a molecular ion at m/z = 58, an Infra red absorption at 1650cm-1
and just one singlet in its NMR spectrum?
a. butane b.CH3COCH3 c. CH3CH2CHO d. 2-methylpropane
 UNIT – V KEY

1c 2b 3b 4a 5c 6b 7d 8d 9d 10d

11d 12c 13c 14c 15c 16c 17a 18b 19b 20b

21c 22a 23c 24c 25b 26a 27a 28d 29b 30a

31a 32d 33a 34a 35c 36a 37d 38b 39a 40c

41b 42a 43c 44d 45d 46d 47a 48a 49c 50b
Semester II

Core IV: Animal Biotechnology Course code : P15BT204

UNIT I- Animal Cell Culture

1. Which of the following technique/s are involved in animal biotechnology?

a. production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology
b. rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
c. alteration of genes to make it more desirable
d. all of these

2. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of ………..
a. insulin b. somatostatin c. mabs d. thyroxine

3. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was ……….
a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Influenza vaccine c Small pox vaccine d Polio vaccine

4. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures?

a) Interferon b. mab c. vaccines d. all of these

5. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was ……..
a. Primate kidney cell line b. CHO cell line
c. Dog kidney cell line d. mouse fibroblast cell line

6. Recombinant proteins are synthesized in ………

a. animals b. host cell by rDNA technology
c. cells that are produced by protoplast fusion d.mutated cell lines

7. Hybrid antibodies are ………..

a. antibodies produced in cell cultures b. antibodies designed using rDNA technology
c. antibodies produced in invivo d. both a and b

8. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production
of
animals with a desirable genotype is ………..
a. protoplast fusion and embryo transfer b. hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer d. all of these

9. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is

called…………….
a. gene cloning b. animal cloning c. cell cloning d. all of these
10. Disaggregating of cells can be achieved by …………
a.Physical disruption b. Enzymatic digestion c. Chelating agent d. Chemical
agent

11. Hybrid antibodies are …………

a. produced in cell cultures b. designed using rDNA technology in cell
cultures
c. antibodies produced invitro d. both a and b

12. ………………. antibodies are a type of single cell antibodies produced by cell culture
a. Hybridoma cells b. Finite cells c. Monoclonal d. suspension
cells

13. What is the function of aminopterine in hybridoma cell production?

a. Blocks DNA synthesis b. Blocks salvage pathway
c. Prevents growth of myeloma cells d. Blocks the synthesis of Ig by B cells

14. The aminoacid L-glutamine acts as ……..in animal tissue culture medium
a. growth factor b. adherence factor c. toxin d. indicator

15. The tissue culture media should be maintained at the physiological pH of around
………
a. 7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 8

16. Serum media is an example of ………..

a. Artificial media b. Natural media c. Defined media d. Modified media

17. Cell proliferation is very slow in ………….

a. Serum media b. Serum free media c. Defined media d. Modified media

18. L-Glutamine synthesizes large amount of ……………. in animal tissue culture media
a. Protein b. Nitrogen c. Ammonium d. Enzymes

19. HEPES buffer is a …………………

a. 4-(2-hydroxyethyl)-1-piperazine ethane sulfonic acid
b.4-2hydroethylene piperazine ethanosulphate
c.Hydroxyethylene piperazine ethane sulphuric acid
d..Hydroxyethanolic sulfonic acid

20. The chemically defined medium is commonly supplemented with …………..

a. 10-20% FBS b. 10-20% HBS c. 10-20% GBS d. 10-20%
BSA
21. ………… breeding is used for choosing parent organisms for obtaining desired
characteristics in offspring
a. Active b. Reproductive c. Selective d. Random

22. The animal tissue culture media can be sterilized by …………

a. membrane filtration b. autoclaving c. chemical d. none of the
above

23. Trypsin has an optimal operating pH of about ………….

a. 7.5-8.5 b. 6.5-7.5 c. 8.5-9.5 d. 3.5-5.5

24. Phenol red exhibits the colour transition from yellow to bright pink at pH…………..
a.6.2 b. 7.8 c. 8.2 d. 9.5

25. A cell that requires solid substratum for its growth is said to be …………
a. anchorage independent b. anchorage dependent c. continuous cells d. monolayer

26. The tissue culture flask is provided with vented cap with pore size of about ……..
a. 0.3µm b. 0.2µm c. 0.4µm d. 0.6µm

27. The membrane used in filter sterilization is commonly made up of ………….

a. Cellulose acetate b. Polyvinyl sulfonate c. Polyvinyl chloride d. Polyether
sulfonate

28. The animal cell line requires ………….percentage of the carbondioxide for growth
a. 5-10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 80%

29. ……………… is the process where the cells attain the same phase in the cell cycle
a. Maturation b. Mutation c. Hybridization d.
Synchronization

30. ………….. is the technique involving passing of a single stream of cells through
a laser beam
a. FACS b. centrifugal separation c. chromatography d. microscopy

31. DNA synthesis can be inhibited in the cell at ……….. phase to attain synchrony
a. G phase b. S phase c. M Phase d. G1 phase

32. Which of the following act as an inhibitor of DNA synthesis?

a. Hydroxyurea b. Aminopterin c. Thymidine d. All the above
33. Estrous synchronization refers to…………
a. period of heat b. hormone releasing c. Releasing offspring d. period of
breeding

34. Fusion of two different cells can be achieved by …………

a. cell synchronization b. cell hybridization c. cloning d. breeding

35. Determining the living cells in the medium refers to ……….

a. cell count b. cell viability c. chemical reaction d. total cells

36. Haemocytometer was invented by ……….

a. Landstainer b. Louis-Charles c. Strober d. Margulies

37. HEPES buffer maintains the pH of the medium in the range …………
a. 6.8 b. 6.8-8.2 c. 7.2 d. 7.2-8.2

38. How many phases will occur during the estrous synchronization?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 3
39. Which is the longest phase in estrous cycle?
a. Go phase b. G1 phase c. S phase d. M phase

40. Pick out the correct culture media for culturing animal cells
a. MS media b. NA media c. RPMI d. LB media

41.Cells are grown and maintained at ………………….temperature and gas mixture

a.37 °C, 5% CO2 b. 40 °C, 2% CO2 c. 30 °C, 1% CO2d. -4 °C, 5% CO2
42.Passaging is also known as ………………
a.Subculture b. disaggregation c. Fusion d. none of these
43.The maintenance of growth of cells under laboratory conditions in suitable culture
medium is known as…………..
a.Secondary culture b. monolayer c. Primary culture d. population doubling
44.Cell lines which have a limited life span and grow through a limited number of cell
generations are ……………….
a. continuous cell lines b. primary cell lines c. Finite cell lines d. hybrid cell lines
45. The culturing of the cells for their re-aggregation to form a tissue-like structure
represents…………..
a. Organ culture b. Histotypic culture c. organotypic culture d. Karyotyping
46.Cells shown not to require attachment for growth is said to be…………..cells
a. Anchorage dependent b. Anchorage independent c. primary d. Secondary
47.When the bottom of the culture vessel is covered with a continuous layer of cells, it is
called…………
a.Suspension culture b. monolayer culture c. finite cell line d. cross contamination
48.Karyotyping is important as it determines…………………
a.Origin of species b. changes chromosomes c. both a & b d. functions of cells
49.Who demonstrated that the cells can survive and divide in vitro?
a.Jolly 1903 b. Ross Harrison 1907 c. Aleix Carriel 1912 d. Ender 1940
50.Culture technique involving the recombination of different cell types to form a more
defined tissue or an organ is known as ……………….
a.Organ culture b. Histotypic culture c. organotypic culture d. Karyotyping

KEY-UNIT I

1d 2c 3d 4d 5a 6b 7b 8b 9b 10b

11c 12c 13a 14a 15a 16b 17a 18a 19a 20a

21c 22a 23a 24c 25b 26b 27a 28a 29d 30a

31b 32d 33a 34b 35b 36b 37b 38b 39a 40c

41a 42a 43c 44c 45b 46b 47b 48c 49a 50c

UNIT II
1.Vaccinia virus belongs to the family …………………..
a.Pox viridae b.herpesviridae c.hepatnaviridae d.lentiviridae
2.Which is not an infective form of vaccinia virus?
a.IMV b.CEV c.EEV d.SEV
3.Defective helper dependent vectors in Herpes virus are known as …………..
a.replicons b.amplicons c.herpes fragments d.defective units
4.Name the virus that can be seen with a light microscope
a.Retro virus b.Baculovirus c.Adenovirus d.Herpes virus
5.The carrying capacity of Baculovirus is ………..kbp
a.15 b.20 c.25 d.10
6.Which is not a histone in DNA of SV-40 virus?
a.H2A b.H3A c.H2B d.H3
7.Which virus can infect both dividing and non- dividing cells?
a.Adeno virus b.Herpes virus c.Baculovirus d.Vaccinia virus
8.Insulin has …………. amino acids in 2 poly peptide chains
a.43 b.51 c.62 d.53
9.Which among the following is not used to treat cystic fibrosis?
a. DNase I b. Alginate lyase c. both d.hGh
10.Which is a ss-DNA virus having cap & rep genes?
a.AAV b.Herpes c.Vaccinia d.Baculo
11.Which virus targets heparan sulphate on host cell?
a.SV-40 b.AAV c.Vaccinia d.Herpes
12.Which protein inhibits PKR, an activator of INF?
a.K3L b.K4L c.K2L d.K1L
13. Anti-antibody vaccines are known as ……………..
a.anti idiotype b.r-live c.r-subunit d.edible
14. Which enzyme lacks proof reading of DNA replication?
a.reverse transcriptase b.polymerase c.ligase d.helicase
15. Interferons were discovered in the year ……………..
a. 1957 b.1967 c.1977 d.1987
16. Mucous in lungs of cystic fibrosis is due to alginate produced by …………..
a.Pseudomonas sp b.Bacillus sp. c.E.coli d.Staphylococcus sp
17.Which enzyme is not seen in retrovirus?
a.integrase b.polymerase c.reverse transcriptase d.helicase
18.How many external spikes are seen in HIV?
a.71 b.72 c.74 d.75
19. Which is not a transcriptional unit of retrovirus?
a.gag b.pol c. env d.rep
20………………is the second generation insulin
a.humulin b.r Insulin c.mutein d.recombin
21.HSV1 produces …………..
a. cold sores b. hot sores c.STD d.blisters
22.Vaccinia virus harbours …………………………….. genes
a.250 b.350 c.120 d.450
23……………………. form of baculovirus is released during secondary infection
a.budded virus b.crystal virus c. spiked virus d. dormant virus
24……………………is an example of RNA virus
a. AAV b. HIV c. Adeno virus d.Baculovirus
25.Which among the following is a receptor for Adeno virus?
a.Hep2 b.heparin sulphate c. CAR d.REP
26.Which among the following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with
chronic active hepatitis ?
a. HbsAg b.H3Ag c. H3Ag d. H2BAg
27.Which virus does not integrate to host chromosome?
a.AAV b.HIV c. Adenovirus d. SV-40
28.Name the virus that can infect only replicative cells
a. Retrovirus b.AAV c. SV-40 d. Baculovirus
29.Which among the following is essential for adeno viral replication?
a. E1 b.E4 c. E3 d. E2
30.Which virus has the least carrying capacity?
a. AAV b. AV c. Vaccinia Virus d. Retro virus
31.Which virus has the largest carrying capacity?
a. Vaccinia virus b. AV c. AAV d. Retrovirus
32.Which protein helps in attachment of Retro virus to host cells?
a. gp140 b.gp17 c. gp120 d. gp27
33.Which group of insects are affected by Baculo virus?
a. Lepidoptera b. hymenoptera c. diptera d. all the above
34.SV-40 virus was first identified in rhesus monkey kidney cells in the year……………..
a. 1960 b.1961 c. 1950 d. 1970
35.Which is not a viral particle coded by SV-40 virus?
a. VP1 b. VP2 c. VP3 d. VP4
36. Which is not a transcriptional unit of retro virus?
a. gag b.pol c. env d. rep
37. The plasmid used in preparation of Hepatitis viral vaccine is ……….
a. E.coli b. Yeast c. YAC d. BAC
38.How many amino acids differ between human and cattle insulin?
a. 1-3 b.2-4 c. 5-6 d. 1-2
39.Human growth hormone is produced by………….
a. pituitary gland b. Islets c. Liver d. Kidney
40.How many pituitary glands are required to provide Hgh for 1 child for 1 year?
a. 8 b. 6 c. 5 d. 4
41.Haemophilia A is a defect in factor……………
a. VII b. IX c. X d.VIII
42.The gene for haemophilia is present on ………….. chromosome
a. X b. Y c. 21 d. 18
43.tpA prevents ……………….
a. blood clot b. wounds c.heart attack d. injury
44.Interferons are antiviral proteins of ……………. line of defence.
a. First b. second c. Both a and b d. none
45.The major advantage of r-vaccine is that it ……………
a. is cheap b). shows no reversion c. is easily available d. needs no
storage
46.Which virus targets heparin SO4 on host cell?
a. SV-40 b. Adeno c. AAV d. Herpes Simplex
47.Which viral ORF is continuous?
a. HIV b.AAV c. Adeno virus d. Vaccinia
48.Name the protective protein coat of baculo virus
a. Polyhedron b. Capsid c. Capsomers d. Hexamer
49.Gypchek is the registered trade name of …………… virus.
a. Baculo virus b.AAV c.Adeno virus d. SV-40
50.ITR means ……………
a. Inserted terminal repeat b.Inverted terminal repeat
c. Internal terminal repeat d. Integrated terminal repeat
KEY
1a 2c 3b 4b 5a 6b 7a 8b 9d 10a

11a 12a 13a 14a 15a 16a 17d 18b 19d 20c

21a 22a 23a 24b 25c 26a 27c 28a 29a 30a

31a 32c 33d 34a 35d 36d 37b 38a 39a 40a

41d 42a 43a 44a 45b 46a 47d 48a 49a 50b

UNIT III

1. The first successfully cloned animal by embryonic stem cell method is………
a. monkey b. gibbon c. sheep d.rabbit
2. Babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was popularly called
as…………
a. Invitro babies b. test tube babies c. invitro-invivo babies d. all of these

3. Inter breeding refers to……………

a. breeding within sps b. breeding between different
sps c. breeding among related sps d. Terminal crossing

4. Grading up in breeding refers to ……..

a. Cross breeding b. Line breeding c. Repeated breeding d. Terminal
breeding

5. The peripheral region of ovary contains islands of cells called …………

a. Germinal epithelium b. Graffian follicle c. Follicle fluid d.
Mycoplasma cells

6. The condition where a person has low number of sperms is called ………………
a. Azoospermin b. GraffianFollicle c. oligosoermic d. HMG

7. During invitro maturation, the oocytes are maintained in …………….

a. Serum medium b. T6 medium c. cumulus oocytes d. Earl’s solution

8. The first successful test tube process occurred in …………..

a. 1960 b. 1958 c. 1978 d. 1990

9. Atresia refers to …………..

a. ovary follicle death b. Ovary maturation c. Ovary stimulation d. Folliculogenesis

10. Artificial insemination is employed by ………..

a. ART b. Breeding c. Semen extender d. Semen stimulation

11. The pregnancy rate depends on ……………

a. Total motile sperm count b Total sperm count c. Swim up test d. None of these

12. Preservation of oocytes can be carried out by ………

a. Cryoprotectant b. Glycerol c. Mineral oil d. slow frozen

13. Development of ovarian follicles can be induced by ………………

a. HCG b. PMSG c. LH d. AMH

14. The sperm and oocytes can be stored for long time under the temperature …………..
a. -196°C a. -80°C c. -20°C d. -4°C

15. Super ovulation is primarily the result of …………….

a. Decreased atresia in medium b. increased atresia in medium
c. Increased atresia in large follicles d. decreased atresia in the small follicles

16. Over stimulation of matured egg leads to ……………….

a. ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome b. cystic fibrosis c.uterine cancer d. None of
these

17. Retrieving of large number of eggs in the medium is called …………..

a. Invitro fertilization b. artificial insemination c. Super ovulation d. oocytes
collection

18. The response to gonadotrophin can be calculated by …………….

a. Antral follicle count b swim up test c Total sperm count d. viability count

19. …………… hormone is injected to increase the rate of pregnancy by stimulating ovary
a. HCG b. FSH c.PMSG d. FSH & PMSG

20. Pick out the correct electrical supply to transfer the gene in to the cell by electroporation
a. 100mV b. 200mV c. 300-400mV d. 50-100mV

21. Solutions with high salt concentrations might cause an electrical discharge called
as………….
a. Electrolytic effect b. input Impedance c. output impedance d. arcing

22. Introducing the DNA into the living cells using the glass micropipette is called………
a. Electroporation b. Lipofection c. Biolistic method d. Microinjection

23. An explosive force that fires the bullet with DNA gold coated beads to the target cell is
………
a. Biolistic method b. Transformation c. Electroporation d. PEG method

24. Uptake of DNA by the calcium phosphate method is ………

a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. transformation d. Pinocytosis

25. Which of the vector is commonly used to transfer the gene in to the cells?
a. Adenoviral vector b. SV40 vector c. Simian viral vector d. Influenza

26. Lentiviruses are a family of …………

a. Retroviridae b. Rhodoviridae c. Baculoviridae d. Poxviridae

27. Lipofection generally uses a …………… to aggregate with genetic material

a. Cationic charge b. Anionic charge c. Zwitter ion d. all the above

28. Gene gun method was invented by ………….

a. Ed Wolf b. Nelson Allen c. John C Sanford d. Cornell

29. Transferring of nuclear somatic cells to the cytoplasm of enucleated egg is called
………
a. Embryonic cell transfer b. Somatic nuclear cell transfer c.Embryo transfer d. cloning

30. Which of the following is a cryoprotectant?

a. Glycerol b. DMSO c. Both A&B d. PEG

31. ………… is the process of preserving structurally intact living cells in very low
temperature
a. Freezing b. sublimation c. Dehydration d. cryopreservation

32. When the individual produces a duplicate of an existing animal, the process is said to be
…………
a. Reproductive cloning b. Therapeutic cloning c. Embryo cloning d. pluripotent

33. Which of the following is a 16 celled stage?

a. Trophoblast b. Blastocyst c. Morulla d. Embryoblast

34. The magnetic nanoparticles are made up of ……………

a. Silicon oxide b. Iron oxide c. Nitrous oxide d). Cupric oxide

35. Transferring of nucleic acid into the target cell by magnetic field is called………..
a. Electroporation b. Magnetofection c. Microinjection d. Lipofection

36. Transferring of nucleic acid into the target cell by hypodermic syringe is called
……………
a.Lipofection b. Magnetofection c. Microinjection d. Macroinjection

37. Processes of changing the frozen solid form of cells to liquid form by warming
is……….
a. Heating b. Sterilizing c. Thawing d. inhibiting

38.Processes of separating fast moving sperm from sluggish moving sperms called……..
a. IUI b. IVF c. AFI d. ITI

39. The processes of breeding the animal often without registration just for profit said to
be…….
a. Backyard breed b. Pure breed c. Cross breeds d. Inbreed

40. Which of the following would test the value for selective breeding of an individual's
genotype?
a. Swim up test b. Progeny test c. Motility test d. None of the above
41. A healthy woman can produce approximately......................number of oocytes
a. 300 b. 200 c. 400 d. 100

42. A sperm donor will usually donate his semen to a sperm bank under a contract ranging
from...............months
a. 1-3 months b. 4-6 months c. 20-24 months d. 6-24
months

43. Artificial insemination was first performed in.................

a. monkey b. dog c. mice d. human

44. The first test tube baby was born on....................

a. July 25 1978 b. June 25 1978 c. March 25 1978 d. August 25 1978

45. Ovary secretes.....................hormone during oestrous cycle

a. oestrogen b. progesterone c. relaxin d. all the above

46. …………….. hormone is excreted in urine during pregnancy

a.progesterone b. oestrogen c. FSH d. both a & b

47. Ovaries are collected and maintained in PBS at..................

a. 37ᵒC b.30ᵒ-32ᵒC c. 35ᵒC d. -3ᵒC
48. .................helps to check the abnormal pregnancy
a. ultrasonography b. laproscopy c. microinjection d. scanning
49. Drug induced ovulation in superovulation is called............
a. fertility drug b. PMSG c. fecundity d. catrotide
50. The term endometriosis refers to.....................
a. infertility b. cyst formation c) tumour d. both a & b

KEY

1c 2b 3a 4c 5b 6a 7c 8c 9a 10a

11a 12d 13a 14a 15a 16a 17c 18a 19a 20c

21d 22d 23a 24c 25a 26a 27a 28c 29b 30c

31d 32a 33c 34b 35b 36d 37c 38a 39a 40b

41c 42d 43b 44a 45d 46b 47b 48a 49a 50d
 UNIT IV

1. 95% of all transgenic animals are ………….

a. mice b.fish c.sheep d.cows

2. A transgenic animal carries a ………….. gene

a. inserted b. desired c. Foreign d. long

3.Trangenic animals are produced for ………….

a. disease model b. enhanced proteins c. novel products d. all the above

4.The term …………… was coined to convey the idea that milk from transgenic farm
animals can be a source of human pathway drugs
a. farming b. pharming c. farm d. transgene

5.Which among the following does not support the use of mice for studies on gene
transfers?
a. short oestrous cycle b. short gestation period c. short generation time d. small size

6.DNA can be introduced to mice by ………………

a. liposomes b. gene transfer c. retro virus d. AAV

7.Embryonic cells are harvested from the inner cell mass of the …………… of mouse
a. blastocysts b. Ovary c. Uterus d.heart

8.Transgene in animals are expressed in their ……………

a. milk b. eyes c. ovary d. genes

9.Which gene acts as a Chloride channel?

a. CFRT b. CTFR c. CFTR d. CTRF

10.Which enzyme dissolves blood clots?

a. Urokinase b. hexokinase c. sucrose d. lactase

11.Name the protein that is secreted in milk & is used for AIDS treatment
a. CD2 b. CD4 c. CD3 d. C2D

12.Alzheimer’s patients have …………… accumulated at the end of brain cells

a. senile plaques b. neurons c. nephrons d. neuro fibrills

13. Taq polymerase is obtained from ……………….

a. bacterium b.virus c.fungi d.algae
14.Which among the following is a maker gene?
a. HSV-tk b. tk c. HSV d. AAV-tk

15.Ganciclovir is an analog of ……………..

a. adenine b. cytosine c. thymidine d. guanine

16.Which effect is created when a gene is altered but not shut down?
a. targeted mutation b. simple mutation c. single mutation d. no mutation

17. Shut down of a gene means ………….

a. turning on b. regulation c. turn-off d. modify

18.Which organ of cow is used as bioreactor?

a. Uterus b. Mammary gland c.Lliver d. Intestine

19.BST hormones essential for milk production in cows are produced by…………..
a. pituitary gland b. thyroid gland c. liver d. pancreas

20.r BST can be produced by …………..bacterium

a. Staphylococcusspecies b.Pseudomonasspecies c.E.coli d.Proteus species

21.rBST increases milk production by ……………..%

a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d.65

22.Which bacteria is responsible for mastitis?

a. E.coli b. Pseudomonas c. Proteus d.Staphylococcus

23.Name the protein that can resist mastitis

a. lysostaphin b. nystatin c. dystrophin d. lipoprotein

24.Anti hemophilic factor IX gene was fused with ……………… gene

a. BLG b. VIII c. BGL d. BG

25.COLIAI gene encode ………..

a. collagen b. Starch c. Amyloid d. lipids

26.Which amino acid is predominant in the production of Keratin?

a. Thronine b. Cystine c.leucine d. isoleucine

27.Which protein is used for treatment of coronary thrombosis?

a. tpA b. LPA c. Kinase d. Citrase

28.Winter flounder gene was responsible for production of protein ………….

a. antifreeze b. β-galactosidase c. growth hormone d. crystalline
protein

29. ……………. gene produces growth hormone in transgenic fish.

a. neomycin resistance b. β galactosidase c. rainbow trout d. Winter
flounder

30.Antifreeze protein expression was studied in …………… fish.

a. gold fish b. trout c. salmon d. king fish

31.Spiders belong to the family ………………….

a. arachnids b. arthropods c. lepidoptera d. hymenoptera

32.The first animal patent was given to a genetically altered ……………..

a. pig b. mouse c. rat d. rabbit

33.The protein in transgenic goat’s milk can be used to treat ………….

a. Lung cancer b. Liver cancer c. brain cancer d.coronary thrombosis

34…………………… gene possessing transgenic sheet will be an useful bioreactor

a. AT b. HT c. hα, AT d. HAT

35.How many transgenic cows are needed for world’s annual production of factor 1X?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 100 d. 50

36……………….. is an example of cyclodiene insecticide

a. methyl parathion b. dieldrin c. DDT d. eldrin

37.Which type of transgenic fish can be mated to establish the transgenic lives?
a. founder fish b. king fish c. cat fish d. trout

38. What is the dose of irradiation given to obtain germline chimeras?

a. 10 rads b. 540-660 rads c. 300-400 rads d. 750 rads

39.The introduction of ……………genes helped the transgenic sheep to produce more wool
a. isocitrate lyase b. malate synthetase c. Both a & b d. citrate lyase

40………………….. was the first cow to be cloned with a gene for agricultural production
a. Annie b. Ann c. Dolly d. Polly

41. …………….. gene codes for the enzyme β-glucuronidase

a. GUS b. lac c. Try P d. Arg

42.Which among the following is a fusagen?

a. PVP b. PEG c. fus d. PGE

43. ……………. cell lines of mouse have been used to assay oncogenes
a. Onc b. mOnc c. 3T3 d. T3

44.Which of the following is an iron binding protein?

a. Lactoferrin b.ferrin c. lactin d. IBP

45.Which of the following is not used for selection of a transgene?

a. HRPT b. antibiotic resistance c. PCR d. gene knock out

46.The process of injection of sections of chromosomes instead of DNA is …………

a. transomics b. microinjection c. Chromjection d. naked DNA

47. Dolly, the first animal produced through cloning is a …………

a. camel b. rat c. cow d. sheep

48. The production of pharmaceuticals from livestock is called …………..

a. xenotransplantation b. probe c. neutraceuticals d. pharming

49. Thermal Cycler’ is used in the reaction ……….

a. enzyme linked immuno sorbant assay b. PCR
c. ligation d. immobilization reaction

50. Which one of the following organism is used for the large scale production of
recombinant insulin?
a. Plasmodium b. Rhizobium c. Agrobacterium d. E.coli

KEY
1a 2c 3d 4b 5d 6c 7a 8a 9c 10a

11b 12a 13a 14a 15c 16a 17c 18b 19a 20c

21a 22d 23a 24a 25a 26b 27a 28a 29c 30c

31a 32b 33d 34c 35a 36b 37a 38b 39c 40a

41a 42b 43c 44a 45d 46a 47d 48a 49b 50d
 UNIT V

1.Gene augmentation means, gene …………

a. replacement b. repair c. repair d. addition

2.The first gene therapy was performed for treating ……….

a. cystic fibrosis b. SCID c. diabetes d. haemophilia

3.SCID is an example of ………… treatment

a.Invitro b. invivo c.exvivo d. both A&B

4. When was the human genome project completed?

a.2003 b.2004 c.2005 d. 2001

5. ………………….. gene codes for reverse transcriptase

a.Env b. pol c. gag d. rep

6. A retroviral vector can carry a therapeutic DNA of…………. kb

a.2 b. 6 c.10 d. 15

7. ADA gene is present in chromosome ……………

a.8 b. 15 c. 18 d. 20

8. ADA gene was transferred to stem cells in the year …………….

a.1995 b. 1990 c. 1985 d. 1980

9. Patients of familiar hypercholesterolemia lack…… receptors on liver cells

a. HDL b. LDL c. VLDL d. VDL

10. A plasmid with a retrovirus , therapeutic gene & promoter is called a ……………..
a. Plasmovirus b. plasmid c. Phagemid d. provirus

11. The maximum carrying capacity of a plasmovirus is …………….

a. 3 .5 kb b. 3 .2 kb c. 3 .4 kb d. 3 6 kb

12. Which viral DNA does not integrate to host genome ?

a. AAV b. Adeovirus c. hypes virus d. retrovirus

13. AAV can integrate into human chromosome …………..

a. 20 b. 18 c. 19 d. 16

14. In defective CFTR gene, …………..ions accumulate within the cells

a. chloride b. sodium c. calcium d. hydrogen
15. In using AAV to treat CF, the vector persisted for ………….days
a. 60 b.70 c. 80 d. 90

16. Which virus is considered as an ideal vector for invivo gene therapy of nervous
disorders?
a. AV b. AAV c. HSV d. VV

17.The lipid –DNA complexes are referred to as …………..

a. liposomes b. lipoflex c. lipid ball d. lipoDNA

18.TNF is a protein produced by……………….

a. Lymphocytes b. macrophages c. B-cells d. T-cells

19.Which of the following is an example of suicide gene?

a. thymidine kinase b. phosphorylase c. kinase d. polymerase

20.Ganciclovir is an example of ………………..

a. adenine b. thymidine c. cytosine d. guanine

21.Triphosphate- GCV complex inhibits ………………… enzyme.

a. helicase b. gyrase c. DNA polymerase d. ligase

22.Which viral vector is used in suicide gene therapy?

a. HSV b. AV c. AAV d. Retro virus

23. Which is a tumour suppressor gene?

a. P-53 b. P-54 c. P55 d. P-56

24.Which of the following glycoprotein is present on the envelope of HIV ?

a.gp75 b. gp85 c. gp120 d. gp200

25.Antisense therapy refers to ……………………..

a. Inhibition of transcription b.Inhibition of translation
c.Both a & b d. Inhibits DNA production

26. The protein overproduced in malignant glaucoma is ………………

a. IGF-1 b. IF-2 c. IGF-4 d. IF-4

27. Oligonucleotides that bind to target proteins are called …………

a. Promotors b. Aptamers c. DNA fragments d. Primers

28.RNA molecules that can serve as biocatalysts are ……….

a. enzymes b. ribosomes c. ribozymes d. bioenzymes
29. Which genome was sequenced in 1981?
a. mitochondria b. ribosome c. golgi complex d. ER

30.The idea of HGP was conceived in the year …………

a. 1980 b. 1984 c. 1982 d. 1986

31.Who was the first director of HGP?

a. James Watson b. Crick c. Craig d. Collins

32.The estimated budget by IHGSC for HGP was ……………

a. 2billion$ b. 3billion$ c. 4billion$ d. 5billion$

33. In which chromosomal map, genes respond to chemical dyes?

a. cytogenetic map b.gene map c. physical map d. linkage map

34.The human genome is composed of ……………..billion base pairs

a.3.3 b.3.2 c. 3.4 d. 3.6

35. Which is the largest human gene?

a. dystrophin b.insulin c.HGF d. thyroid

36.Which is the largest human chromosome?

a. 23 b.18 c. 1 d. 8

37. Which is the smallest chromosome in humans?

a. X b. 20 c. Y d. 10

38. How many genes of human are close to bacteria?

a. 200 b. 100 c. 300 d. 400

39. What percentage of DNA of humans is identical to chimpanzees?

a. 90 b. 100 c. 95 d. 96

40.What is the percentage of genome that is occupied by introns?

a. 30 b. 40 c. 20 d. 24

41.Intergenic DNA is also known as ………………..

a. header DNA b. JunkDNA c. Exons d. ITR

42. Which chromosome has the richest gene content?

a. 19 b. 18 c. X d. Y

43. Which was the first sequenced eukaryote?

a. Human b. Yeast c. rat d. pig

44.Probes are used to identify …………….

a. RFLP b. STS c. SNP d. all the above

45.Which technique is used to separate large DNA fragments?

a. PFGE b.PCR c. AGE d. FISH

46.The technique used to localize a gene on a chromosome is ……………….

a. PFGE b. PCR c. AGE d. FISH

47.Repeated sequences constitute about ……………….% of human genome

a. 20 b. 50 c. 60 d. 65

48.Approximately ……………. % of genome has no known functions

a. 97 b. 95 c. 8 d. 65

49.Phenotypic differences between individuals are ……………%

a. 0.5 b. 1.1 c. 0.1 d. 1

50.Shotgun sequence is employed in ……………….vectors.

a.BAC b. YAC c.PBR32 d.phagemids

KEY

1a 2b 3c 4a 5b 6a 7d 8a 9b 10a

11b 12b 13c 14a 15b 16c 17a 18b 19a 20b

21c 22a 23a 24c 25b 26a 27b 28c 29a 30b

31a 32b 33a 34b 35a 36c 37c 38a 39b 40d

41b 42a 43b 44d 45a 46d 47b 48a 49c 50a
 Semester II

Core V: Plant Biotechnology Course code : P15BT205

UNIT I
1. DNA value in a plant is generally expressed as the amount contained in the nucleus of a
………..
a) cell b) tissue c) gamete d) chromosome
2. Amount of DNA present in plant species can be termed in ……….
a) C value b) A value c) D value d) G value
3. 1pg of plant DNA is approximately equal to ……………. Mbp
a) 10 b) 100 c) 1000 d) 10000
4. The plant which is having smallest genome ….. and the size is……….
a) Nicotiana, 775 Mbp b) Arabidopsis, 125 Mbp
c) Mycoplasma, 99 Mbp d) Gellidium, 1021 Mbp
5. The plant which is having largest genome ….. and the size is……….
a) Fritillaria assyriaca, 124,852 Mbp b) Thiomargratta, 7750 Mbp
c) homo sapiens, 3.2 Gbp d) Nicotiana, 775 Mbp
6. Which one of the following is the first sequenced plant species……
a) Nicotiana b) Arabidopsis c) Oryza d) Zea
7. Plants with a higher DNA content and particular chromosome structures are more
resistant to …………damage
a) radiation b) heat c) stress d) none of these
8. Highest chromosome number is present in ………… plant
a) Sedum suaveolens b) Fritillaria assyriaca c) Arabidopsis thaliana d) Nicotiana
tabacum
9. Lowest chromosome number is present in ………… plant
a) Sedum suaveolens b) Fritillaria assyriaca c) Haplopappus gracilis d) Nicotiana
tabacum
10. Which is true among the following sentences?
a) An increase in the number of chromosomes is usually associated with a reduction in
chromosome size
b) the size of a chromosome in two species of same genera is very different
c) The quantity of DNA in each chromosome is also very different
d) all of these
11. The longest tandem repeated sequences are coding for …….
a) large rRNA b) small rRNA c) tRNA d) mRNA
12. Alleles can be thought of as different ………… forms
a) protein b) nucleic acid c) lipids d) carbohydrates
13. The word “ploidy” refers to ……
a) chromosome b) genes c) chromosome set d) chromosome thread
14. If there is only one pair of each type of chromosome in the nucleus of each
somatic cell, then an organism is said to be ……
a) diploid b) ploidy c) monoploidy d) polyploidy
15.The condition of having multiple sets of chromosomes in the gamete is called as ….
a) ploidy b) diploidy c) monoploidy d) polyploidy
16. The gamete which is having only one chromosome set is called as……
a) ploidy b) diploidy c) haploid d) polyploidy
17. A chemical that makes the chromosome number double is ………….
a) ethidium bromide b) colchicine
c) ethylene methyl sulfonate d) methlylene methyl sulfonate
18. The mode of action of colchicine in doubling the chromosome is ……
a) disables the fibers that pull the chromosome pairs apart prior to cell division
b) preventing cell division during mitosis
c) both a and b
d) initiates DNA replication
19. DNA sequences that can move directly throughout the genome in a DNA form are
called as …
a) histones b) transposons c) helicase d) okazaki fragments
20. Vectors which are used to construct physical maps of plant genome are……..
a) BAC b) YAC c) PAC d) HAC
21. Which region of Arabidopsis genome has more transposons than other region?
a) telomere b) centromere c) small arm d)aster fibers
22. …………. can be used to enhance plant breeding efforts and to speed up the creation of
cultivars.
a) seasonal cultivation b) pesticide c) herbicide d) markers
23. The range of genetic markers that are available includes ………..
a) AFLP (Amplified fragment length polymorphism) and RFLP (Restriction fragment
length polymorphism)
b) RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), SNP (single-nucleotide polymorphisms),
SSR (simple sequence repeats)
c) both a and b
d) none of these
24. ……….. are first generation markers and employing ……….. method
a) RFLP, restriction digestion b)RFLP and cloning c) RFLP and PCR d) RFLP and
oxidation
25. Sequences (10 bp) used in RAPD analysis should appear once in every ……..
nucleotides
a) 103 b) 106 c) 102 d)10 4
26.SSRs (simple sequence repeats) are otherwise called as…….
a) microsatellites b) macrosatellites c)arraysatellite d) pseudosatellite
27.QTL stands for…….
a) Qualitative trait loci b) Quantitative trait loci
c) Quality trait loci d) Qualitative tandem loci
28. Separate genomes are present in …….. and ……… organelles of plant cells.
a) mitochondria, chloroplast b) chloroplast and ribosomes
c) ribosomes and golgi bodies d) mitochondria and golgi bodies
29. chloroplast genomes is seems to be inherited in ……..
a) Mendelian ways b) mutation c) non-Mendelian ways d) semi-Mendelian ways
30. Chloroplast DNA (cpDNA) otherwise called as……….
a) planton b) plasmid c) plastid d) plastome
31. The size of chloroplast DNA generally ranges between …….
a) 100 – 120 kb b) 220 to 255 kb c) 320 to 355 kb d) 420 to 455 kb
32. Chloroplast does not contain ……. and …… in its structure
a) 5 methyl cytosine and histone b) 5 methyl guanine and histone
c) 5 methyl adenine and histone d) 5 methyl thymine and histone
33. The growth regulators in plant tissue culture media are required in very minute
quantities like ……..
a) g mol l-1 b) mg mol l-1µ c) µ mol l-1 d) nano mol l-1
34. The auxin hormones involved in the processes of ……..
a) elongation of stem and internodes b) tropism, apical dominance, abscission c) rooting
d) all of these
35. Name the scientist who isolated auxins first from coleoptile tips?
a) Fitting b) Haberlandt c) Went d) Kurasawa
36. Examples for auxins are…….
a) indole- 3-acetic acid (IAA) and indole-3-butyric acid (IBA)
b) naphthalene acetic acid (NAA) and naphthoxyacetic acid (NOA)
c) para-chlorophenoxyacetic acid (p-CPA), dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D and 2,4-T)
d) all of these
37. The major natural auxin is ………
a) indole-3-butyric acid b) naphthalene acetic acid c)indole-3-acetic acid d) 2,4-D
38.Cytokinins hormones are concerned with the processes of ……
a) cell division b) modification of apical dominance c) shoot differentiation d) all of
these
39. Cytokinins induced shoot proliferation by the release of …………..
a) specific hormone b) specific enzyme
c) specific gas d)axillary buds from apical dominance.
40.The natural cytokinins are a series of …………… molecule
a) guanine b) cytosine c) adenine d) thymine
41. Gibberelines were initially isolated from the fungus …………..
a) Gibberella oxyporoum b) Gibberella flavus c) Gibberella solani d)Gibberella
fujikora
42.Gibberelines are having the presence of …….. ring in their structure
a) gibbane b) zibbane c) cytidine d) benzene
43.Gaseous hormone is….
a) auxin b) gibberellines c) cytokinins d) ethylene
44. Ethylene-forming enzyme is……
a) ACC oxidase b) ACC aminase c) ACC hydratase d) ACC transferase
45. Abscisic acid is structurally similar to….
a) carotene b) phytene c) flavones d) aromatic
46. Jasmonic acid may plays a major role in regulating the formation of ……..
a) vegetative storage proteins b) vegetative transport proteins c) embryo proteins d)
none of these
47. A small peptide ………….. has been identified as being a hormone involved in disease
resistance
a) jasmonate b)salicylate c) systemin d) florigenin
48. The most recently recognized potential hormone is the ……………
a) oligosaccharin b) brassinosteroids c) polyamines d) none of these
49.The precursor for the production auxin, IAA is ……….
a)alanine b) proline c) tryptophan d) phenylalanine
50. The precursor for the formation of gibberellins is……………
a) geranylgeranyl diphosphate b) geranylgeranyl monophosphate
c) geranylgeranyl triphosphate d) geranylgeranyl tetraphosphate
51. High concentration of ethylene is present in ………….
a) young leaves b) meristamatic regions c) buds d) ripening fruits
52. The precursor of ethylene is
a) tryptophan b) serine c) methionine d) cysteine
53. All the following are functions of ethylene except
a) promote senescence b) enhances abscission
c) promote ripening d) induces cell division
54. All are ethylene inhibitors except
a) phenyl mercuric acetate b) Ag+ c) amionooxy acetic acid d) aminoethoxy vinyl
glycine
55. Which of the following ion is an ethylene inhibitor?
a) Mg2+ b) NH3+ c) Ag+ d) Cl-
56. Which of the following is a bioassay for ethylene?
a) chlorophyll preservation test b) triple pea test
c) riceseedling growth inhibition test d) excised radish cotyledon enlargement test

1. c 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.a 6.b 7.a 8.a 9.c 10.d

11.a 12.a 13.c 14.a 15.d 16.c 17.b 18.c 19.b 20.a
21. b 22.d 23.c 24.a 25.b 26.a 27.b 28.a 29.c 30.d
31. b 32.a 33.c 34.d 35.c 36.d 37.c 38.d 39.d 40.c
41. d 42.a 43.d 44.a 45.a 46.a 47.c 48.b 49.c 50.a
51.d 52.c 53.d 54.a 55.c 56.b

UNIT-II

1. The media preparation area should have ample storage space for……………
a) chemicals b) culture vessels and closures
c) glasswares required for media preparation and dispensing d) all of the above
2. Within the transfer area of plant tissue culture lab, there should be a source of
……………
a) electricity & gas b) compressed air and vacuum c)both a&b d)none of
the above
3. Laminar airflow contains ……. filter
a) compressed air b)efficiency c)HEPA d)none of the above
4. ……… are required to grow regenerated plants for further propagation and for
growing plants to maturity.
a) plant tissue culture lab b)Greenhouse c)both a&b d)none of the above
5. Plants are ………………. before being transferred to the field conditions.
a) acclimatized b)hardened c)both a&b d)none of the above
6. Requirements of tissue culture are………..
a) sterile environment b) nutrient medium c) aeration d) all
of the above
7. …..includes sterilization of dishes and vessles to be used as well as the nutrient
medium
a) sterile environment b) nutrient medium c) aeration d) all
of the above
8. Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium and calcium are…………
a) macro nutrients b)micro nutrients c)mineral salts d)Nutrient medium
9. Iron, manganese, zinc, boron and copper are……….
a) macro nutrients b)micro nutrients c)mineral salts d)Nutrient medium
10. Micropropagation method involves ……………
a) direct organogenesis b) indirect organogenesis c) both a and b d) none
of these
11. Root initiating factors are…….
a) auxins b)cytokinins c)gibberlins d)indoleacitic acid
12. Shoot initiating factors are…………
a) auxins b) cytokinins c) gibberlins d) indoleacitic acid
13. The term “totipotency” was coined by…………….. in 1902.
a) Murashige b) Warnick c) Haberlandt d)Christianson
14. All living plant cells have the potential and have all the genetic information to
regenerate an entire plant called………..
a) totipotency b) organogenesis c) somatic embryogenesis d) cybrids
15. A distinct amount of callus forms first and then new organs are initiated within this
callus is called as…………..
a) direct organogenesis b) indirect organogenesis
c) embryogenesis d)All of the above
16. The methodology that bypasses a callus stage is called……………..
 a) direct organogenesis b) indirect organogenesis
c) embryogenesis d)All of the above
17. . ………….. is the best-known natural auxin.
a) BAP b)Thidiazuron c) Zeatin d) IAA
18. 2,4-D is often associated with ……………..
a) genetic abnormalities b) organogenesis c) somatic embryogenesis d)
cybrids
19. An unorganised mass of cells are called as………culture
a) embryo b)synthetic seed c)ovary d)callus
20. …………….. will overcome the embryo abortion due to incompatibility barriers
a)plant tissue culture b) organ culture c)callus culture d)embryo culture
21. The most widely used nutrient medium for plant tissue culture is …………..
a) MS medium b) B5 medium c)Nitsch medium d) SH medium
22. ………….. is acting as a primary carbon source in plant tissue culture media.
a)fructose b)sucrose c)maltose d)glucose
23. The first successful report of continuously growing cultures of tomato root tips was
made by …… a)White b) Skoog c) Maneval d) Kotte
24. …….. is usually regulated by auxin and cytokinin ratio
a) shoot culture b) root culture c) both shoot and root culture d) none of the
above
25. The term artificial seed was first coined by……….. in 1997
a) Murashige b)Skoog c)Miller d)Mc Carty
26. A somatic embryo entrapped in a biodegradable synthetic polymer coating that act as
an……..
a) artificial seed b) artificial embryo c) artificial endosperm d) artificial
seed coat
27. Synthetic seeds possess the ability to convert in to……..
a) seeds b) plant c) endosperm d) embryo
28. Synthetic seeds are prepared by encapsulating the ………… embryos obtained from
the tissue
 a) somatic b)germline c)totipotent d) synthetic polymer
29. Somatic embryos are mixed with …………
a)CaCl2 b) MgCl2 c) Na-alginate d)Ca-alginate
30. The size of the capsule is controlled by varying the inner diameter of the………
nozzle
a) pippete b)culture tube c)culture plate d)beaker
31. Synseeds are breed …………. propagules
a) artificial b) Similar c) multi d) true
32. Artificial seeds are produced at……. and in…….. of a year
a) any time, any season b) Specific time, winter season
c) Specific time, Autumn season d) any time, winter season
33. Artificial seeds are useful for preserving…………..
a) seeds b) vitamins c) germplasm d)all of the above
34. Synthetic seeds can be produced with………….. duration
a) short time b) long time c) Both a & b d) none of the above
35. Synthetic somatic embryos produced using the 100mM solution of ………….
a) CaCl2 b) MgCl2 c) Na-alginate d)Ca-alginate
36. Limitations of the storage of synseeds are ……..
a) Lack of dormancy b) lack of stress tolerance c) poor conversion d) all
of the above
37. Encapsulated somatic embryoids are called as ….
a) embryogenesis b) synthetic seeds c) Cryopreservation d) deep
freezing
38. Ion exchange reaction occurs and sodium ions are replaced by calcium ions forming
………… beads
a) CaCl2 b) MgCl2 c) Na-alginate d) Ca-alginate
39. The limited storage time of artificial seeds is due to ………….. environment in the
capsule
a) micro b) aerobic c) anaerobic d) microphillic
40. The technique of haploid production through anther culture introduced by ……..
 a) Maheshwari b) Skoog c) Went d) Nitsch
41. Pollen culture is otherwise called as ………
a) anther culture b) microspore culture c) Both a & b d) none of the
above
42. Production of hybrid plants through the fusion of protoplasts of two different plant
species is called ………
a) somatic hybridization b) organogenesis
c) somatic embryogenesis d) somoclonal variation
43. ………. can derive a mature plant from a single microspore.
a) anther culture b) microspore culture c) both a & b d) none of the
above
44. Most plant species can undergo organogenesis proceed through…….
a) direct organogenesis b) indirect organogenesis c) embryogenesis d)All of
the above
45. ……………is somatic hybrid between brinjal and tomato
a)bomato b) pomato c) potato d) brinjal
46. …….. involves the culturing of embryo developed from a somatic cell
a) embryo culture b) somatic embryo culture c) suspension culture d) all of the
above
47. ……… needs to be constantly agitated at 100-250 rpm
a) embryo culture b) somatic embryo culture c) suspension culture d) all of the
above
48. ………....seeds obtained from inter-specific crosses
a) orchid b) hybrid c) pomato d) none of the above
49. .………. is obtained by crossing wheat and barley plants
a) Pisam sativum b) Pusa sawani c) Brassica indiana d) Hordeum
bulbosum
50. ….... is a hybrid formed by the fusion of somatic cells of two varieties or species
a)protoplast b) synthetic seed c) somatic hybrid d) all of the above
KEY - UNIT -II
 1. a 2.c 3.c 4.b 5.c 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.c

11.a 12.b 13.c 14.a 15.b 16.b 17.d 18.a 19.d 20.d

21. a 22.b 23.a 24.c 25.a 26.d 27.b 28.a 29.c 30.a

31. d 32.a 33.c 34.a 35.a 36.d 37.b 38.d 39.c 40.a

41. b 42.a 43.c 44.a 45.a 46.b 47.c 48.a 49.d 50.c

UNIT III

1. Germplasm refers to …………..

a) mRNA collection b) hereditary material c) protein bank d) biobank
2. Name the global body which has been established for germplasm conservation …….
a) IBPGR (International Board of Plant Genetic Resources)
b) NRCPB (National Research Centre for Plant Biotechnology)
c) NIPGR (National Institute of Plant Genome Research )
d) Monsanto
3. Which can be preserved as gene banks?
a) plant cells b) tissues c) organs d) all of these
4. DMSO (Dimethyl sulfoxide) is used as
a) Gelling agent b) alkaylating agent c) Chelating agent d) Cryoprotectant
5. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is
a) Manitol b) Sorbitol c) Mannose d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)
6. Cybrids are produced by
a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
d) None of the above
7. Vegetatively propagated plants can be conserved through ……. Methods
a) in vitro b) in vivo c) both a and b d) none of these
8. Genetically engineered materials and recalcitrant seeds can be preserved by ……….
a) in vitro b) in vivo c) both a and b d) none of these
9. Identify the approaches involved in invitro germplasm conservstion ………….
a) cryopreservation b) cold storage c) low-pressure and low-oxygen d) all of
these
10. Chemicals used in the method of cryopreservation……
a) solid CO2 b) liquid N2 c) both a and b d) None of these
11. Compounds which can prevent the damage caused to cells by freezing are called as
…….
a) cryoprotectants b) cryodevelopers c) cryoservants d) cryosoldiers
12. Most widely used cryoprotectants are ………
a) DMSO b) sucrose c) glycerol d) all of these
13. Which cells are having better survival rate after cryopreservation?
a) dehydrated b) imbibed c) immobilized d) all kinds of cells
14. For freezing the plant materials, the used temperature range is ………….
a) -70°C to -196°C b) 70°C to 196°C a) -70°C to 196°C a) 70°C to -196°C
15. For long term storage, the temperature at …….. in ……….. is ideal
a) -70°C and liq N2 b) -196°C and liq N2 c) -70°C and CO2 d) -196°C and
CO2
16. Staining methods to determine the viability of frozen cells includes…….
a) triphenyl tetrazolium chloride b) Evan’s blue

c) Flouresceine diacetate d) all of these

17. Large genbank was first established by ……… in …………
a) Nitsch, Italy b) Lee, Japan c) Vavilove, Leningrad d)
Gaire, Rome
18. Compounds that are directly involved in growth and development of plants are called
as ……..
a) enzymes b) vitamins c) primary metabolites d) secondary metabolites
19. Compounds which are not essential for the functioning of the plant are called as ….
a) enzymes b) vitamins c) primary metabolites d) secondary metabolites
20. Secondary metabolites are belong to the group of ………….
a) inorganic b) organic c) gas d) metals
21. Secondary metabolites play important ecological roles in …………
a) defence b) tritrophic interaction c) attractantsd) all of these
22. Several goals of metabolic engineering includes …………
a) introduction of novel pathways
b) increase in the production of desirable metabolite
c) suppression of production of undesirable compounds
d) all of these
23. Plant secondary metabolites generally includes…………
a) terpenoids b) alkaloids c) phenylpropanoids d) any
one these
24. Largest class of secondary metabolites acting as natural products are …………
a) terpenoids b) alkaloids c) phenylpropanoids d)
all of these
25. Both alkaloids and phenylpropanoids are generally produced from ………….
a) amino acids b) metals c) salts d) ions
26. Terpenoids derived by the repetitive fusion of branched …………….. units
a) sugar b) isoprene c) phytene d) isopentene
27. Plant secondary metabolite production at in vitro condition can be done by
…….
a)anther culture b) suspension culture c) embryo culture d) pollen culture
28. Latest metabolic engineering technique involved in enhanced expression can be
achieved by ...
a) over expression b) suppression c) transcription factor d) tissue-specific expression
29. Maximum application of plant cell culture technology today is in the production of
……
a) secondary metabolites b) nutrients c) Edible vaccines d) proteins
30. The work on GFP, widely used as a reporter gene, won the Nobel Prize in ………
a) Medicine/Physiology-2000 b) Chemistry-2008
c) Physics-2008 d) Biochemistry-2007
31. The method of plasmid isolation by alkaline lysis was published by ……..
a) Mandel and Higa b) Sharp and Lederberg
c) Temin and Baltimore d) Birnboim and Doly
32. Alec Jeffery’s name is associated with ………
a) DNA sequencing b) DNA Fingerprinting
c) RNA sequencing d) Site directed mutagenesis
33. The name Kary Mullis is associated with …………
a) RFLP b) PCR c) Chain Termination reaction d) RAPD
34. The group associated with first man made recombinant DNA molecules:
a) Daniel Nathans, Arber, Kary Mullis
b) Paul Berg, Annie Chang, Boyer, Stanley Cohen
c) Howard Temin, Sydney Brenner, Philip Sharp
d) Tim Hunt, Paul Nurse, Leyland Hartwell
35. The model plant used for plant biology studies is …………..
a) Drosophila melanogaster b) Arabidopsis thalliana
c) Caernoharbitis elegans d) Salmonella typi
36. GFP protein was originally isolated from ………….
a) Arabidopsis thaliana b) Aequoria victoria
c) Caernoharbitis elegans d) Drosophila melanogaster
37. The first crop plant genome sequenced is …………
a) Maize b) Wheat c) Rice d) Barley
38. The first transgenic plant to be produced is …………
a) Rice b)Maize c) Cotton d) Tobacco
39. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait.
a) Insect resistance b) High protein content
c) High vitamin A content d) High lysine content
40. DNA fingerprinting refer to
a) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals
b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
c) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
d) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
41. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?
a) Plasmid b) Cosmid c) Phasmid d) binary vector
42. The first pharmaceutical product produced through genetic engineering and tested by
clinical trials is ……….
a) streptomycin b) Avicidin c) gleomycin d) tetracyclin
43. Example for the large-scale production of pharmaceutical protein in plants with
viral vectors is …….
a) αα-galactosidase b) pencillin acylase c) acyl transferase d)
monooxygenase
44. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionized plant genetic engineering, one limitation
of its use is that it ………
a) cannot infect broadleaf plants b)cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants.
c) cannot transmit prokaryotic genes d)does not infect cereal plants such as corn and
rice.
45. Which of the following is not an application of genetic engineering in plants?
a) nitrogen fixation b) DNA vaccines
c) resistance to glyphosate d) production of insecticidal proteins in
plants
46. Hairy root cultures for the production of secondary metabolites can be achieved with
………….
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
c) Rhizhobacter solani d) Pseudomonas fluroresence
47. Recent advanced techniques introduced for plant genetic engineering is/are …….
a) TALENs b) CRISPR/Cas9 c) both a and b d) Agrobacterium
48. Starch content of potatoes can be increased by using a bacterial gene, known as
 a) sucrose phosphate synthase gene b) ADP glucose pyrophosphorylase
gene
c) polygalactouranase gene d) none of the above
49. Which tropical fruit crop has been successfully engineered to be protected against a
lethal virus?
a) Passion fruit b) Papaya c) Mango d) Lychee
50. Which of the following metabolites are implicated in stress tolerance?
a) Proline b) Betaines c) both (a) and (b) d) Citrate
51. Which of the following gene is responsible for resistance against chilling?
a) Glycerol 1 phosphate acyl transferase b) Polygalactouranase
c) ACC deaminase d)Sucrose phosphate synthase gene
52. Which of the following gene detoxifies herbicide phosphinothricin?
a) Nitrilase b) Glutathione S-transferase (GST)
c)Phosphinothricin acetyl transferase d) All of these
53. Transgenic plants with increased tolerance to aluminum have been produced by
making plants that
a) secrete phytosiderophores into the soil
b) make more metal-binding peptides like phytochelatins
c) bind aluminum to the cell wall
d) secrete citrate into the soil
54. Transplastomics
a) targets genes in the chloroplast
b) provides exceptionally low yields of protein products
c) produces genes that are released in pollen
d)offers little opportunity for practical use
55. Plants containing genes encoding cytokines and blood clotting factors are used in
a) nutrition improvement b)pharmaceutical production
c) vaccine production d)textile production
56. Which of the following gene is transferred to plants that detoxify the herbicide
atrazine?
 a) Nitrilase b) Glutathione S-transferase (GST)
c) Phosphinothrium acetyl transferase d) All of these
57. Which of the following has been widely used to provide resistance against plant
viruses?
a) Virus resistance genes from bacteria
b) Expression of virus coat protein genes in transgenic plants
c) Expression of anti-virus genes in vectors that transmit viruses
d) Expression of ribonuclease (RNase) genes in host plants
58. Antisense technology
a) selectively blocks expression of a gene
b) combines genetic material from different species
c) combines organelles and cells
d) alters or transfers cells
59. Which of the following compounds has been produced in transgenic plants to
improve tolerance to salt stress and water deficit?
a) Sucrose b) Mannitol c)Nicotine d)Octopine

KEY- UNIT- III

1. b 2.a 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.c 7.a 8.a 9.d 10.c

11.a 12.d 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.d 17.c 18.c 19.d 20.b

21. d 22.d 23.d 24.a 25.a 26.d 27.b 28.c 29.a 30.b

31. d 32.b 33.b 34.b 35.b 36.b 37.c 38.d 39.c 40.a

41. d 42.b 43.a 44.d 45.a 46.b 47.c 48.b 49.b 50.c

51. a 52.c 53.d 54.a 55.a 56.b 57.b 58.a 59.b

 UNIT IV

1. The virus mediated gene transfer using genetically modified bacteriophages is called
……
a) transfection b) transduction c) transformation d) conjugation
2. The ability of cells to take up DNA fragments from surrounding is called ……
a) transfection b) transduction c) transformation d) conjugation
3. Which of the following bacterium is considered as ‘natural genetic engineer’?
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium radiobactor
c) Psueudomonas putida d) Thermus aquaticus
4. The removal or replacement of tumor causing genes from Ti plasmid is termed as
a) gene replacement b) disarming c) insertional inactivation d) gene displacement
5. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a
a) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
b) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in monocots
c) Gram positive soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
d) Gram positive soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
6. Which of the following statements are true for agrobacterium mediated gene transfer?
a) Vir genes are essential for gene transfer b) T-DNA borders are essential for gene
transfer
c) both a and b d) none of these
7. Ti plasmid vectors include
a) binary vectors and cointegrate vectors b) cointegrate vectors and multiple vectors
c) multiple vectors and binary vectors d) Ti plasmid based vector
8. Which of the following chemical enhances vir gene expression?
a) cyanidine b) glutennin c) acetosyringone d)dextran
9. Chemicals used for gene transfer methods include
a) poly ethylene glycol b) CaCl2 c) dextran d) all of the above
10. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is
a) electrofusion b) electrofission c) electrolysis d) electroporation
11. The transformation method that uses tungsten or gold particle coated with DNA
accelerated at high velocity is called
a) acceleration method b) high velocity method
c) particle gun delivery method d) DNA particle delivery method
12. The method widely used for transforming invitro animal cell cultures that uses lipid
vescicles or liposomes …………..
a) lipotransformation b) liposome mediated transformation
c) lipofection d) lipid mediated DNA transfer
13. DNA solution injected directly into the cell using micromanipulators is called
a) macroinjection b) micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
c) microfection d) microinjection
14. Fibre mediated DNA delivery uses
a) silicon carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
b) aluminium carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
c) boron carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
d) lead carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
15. The injection of DNA into developing inflorescence using a hypodermic syringe is
called
a) macroinjection b) micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
c) microfection d) microinjection
16. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate in an appropriate host cell, to which
the desired gene are integrated for cloning, is called as
a) Plasmid b) linker c) vector d) adapter
17. Which of the following statement is true?
a) a vector should have an origin of replication b) a vector should have selectable markers
c) a vector should have unique restriction sites d) all of these
18. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having
a) an origin of replication b) suitable marker genes
c) unique restriction sites d) control elements
19. Extra chromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria which
is widely used as vector is called….
a) phagemid b) cosmid c) plasmid d) bacterial vectors
20. The first engineered plasmid vector is…..
a) pBR 322 b) pUC vectors c) pSC101 d) pUC 19
21. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is
a) pBR 322 b) pUC vectors c) pSC101 d) pUC 19
22. Group of vectors used for plant transformation is called as ……..
a) pCAMBIA b) pUC c) pBR322 d) pSC101
23. pCAMBIA stands for ………..
a) centre for advancement of molecular biology in International agriculture
b) centre for application of molecular biology in International agriculture
c) company for application of molecular biology in International agriculture
d) centre for application of molecular biology in International agronomy
24. Selection markers mainly based on the principle of ………….
a) viability b) color formation c) hormone production d) yield parameters
25. Selection markers mainly targeting the substances …….
a) herbicide b) antibiotic c) antimetabolite d) all of these
26. The mostly used antibiotic selection marker is ……….
a) kanamycin b) tetracyclin c) ampicillin d) streptomycin
27. The gene responsible for providing resistance against streptomycin is…………
a) aminoglycoside adenyltransferase
b) hygromycin phosphotransferease
c) neomycin phosphotransferase
d) kanamycin phosphotransferse
28. The widely used antimetabolite marker gene is…………
a) dihydrofolate reductase b) dihydrofolate oxidase
c) dihydrofolate oxidase d) dihydrofolate hydratase
29. Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
c) Agrobacterium radiobactor d) Thermus aquaticus
30. The most common vectors for plants are
a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors
b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors
c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors
d) T4 phage vectors
31. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?
a) manures b) biofertilizers c) resistant varieties d) all of these
32. Pyrethrin is obtained from
a) Azardirachta indica b)Urticadioca c) Tagetus erecta d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium
33. Which one is the green manure/ biofertilizer?
a) Sesbania b) Rice c) Oat d) Maize
34. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has
a) Rhizobium b) Cyanobacteria c) Mycorrhiza d) large quantity of humus
35. The most quickly available source of nitrogen to plants are
a) amide fertilizers b) ammonia fertilizers c) nitrate fertilizers d) ammonia nitrate
fertilizer
36. Most effective pesticide is
a) carbamates b) organophosphates c) organochlorines d) All of these
37. Which is true for DDT? It is
a) not a pollutant b) an antibiotic c) an antiseptic agent d) a non degradable pollutant
38. Which is major component of Bordeaux Mixture?
a) coppersulphate b) sodium chloride c) calcium chloride d) magnesium sulphate
39. Which one is correctly matched?
a) carbamates- malathion b) organophosphates- carbofuran
c) carbamates- malathion d) organochloride- endosulphan
40. IPM stands for
a) integrated pest manufacture b) integrated plant management
c) integrated plant management d) integrated pest management
41. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has
 a) Rhizobium b) Cyanobacteria
c) Mycorrhiza d) large quantity of humus
42. Green manuring increases the crop yield by
a) 5-10% b) 15-25% c) 30-50% d) 80-90%
43. Insecticides generally attack
a) respiratory system b) nervous system c) muscular system d) circulatory system
44. Organisms associated with sorghum and cotton, which provide nutrition to them are
a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter b) Azotobacter, Azospirillum
c) Anabaena, Rhizobium d) Rhizobium, Azotobacter
45. Azolla as biofertilizer, increases the yield of rice fields by
a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 50%
46. The conversion of nitrogen to ammonia or nitrogenous compounds is called as
a) Nitrogen assimilation b) Nitrogen fixation c) Denitrification d) Nitrification
47. Plants absorbs N2 in the form of
a) nitrites (NO2-) b) nitrates (NO3-) c) ammonium (NH4+) d) all of the above
48. Plants cannot absorb molecular N2 in the atmosphere because
a) N2 has double bonds making it highly stable b) Abundance in the atmosphere
inhibits absorption
c) N2 has triple bonds making it highly stable d) None of these
49. Symbiotic N2 fixing cyanobacteria are present in all except
a) Anthoceros b) Azolla c) Cycas d) Gnetum
50. All the following are free living N2 fixers except
a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter c) Rhodospirillum d) Clostridium

KEY- UNIT –IV

1. b 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.a 8.c 9.d 10.d

11.c 12.c 13.d 14.a 15.a 16.c 17.d 18.d 19.c 20.c

21. a 22.c 23.a 24.a 25.c 26.d 27.a 28.a 29.a 30.b
 31. d 32.d 33.a 34.b 35.c 36.b 37.d 38.a 39.d 40.d

41. b 42.c 43.a 44.a 45.d 46.b 47.d 48.c 49.b 50.a

UNIT-V

1.Plantibodies are useful to treat …………… in humans

a)protect from pests b) plant-pathogen infection c) protect from pathogens
d)Dental caries and Herpes Virus
2. …….. are an attractive storage organ for plantibodies
a) Plant root b) Plant seeds c) Plant leaf d) Plant stem
3. Plantibodies can be purified ……… in …………….
a)costly, small quantities b)costly, large quantities
c)cheaply, large quantities d)cheaply, small quantities
4. The toxins encoded by Cry genes are from…………..
a) insect larvae b) beetles c) aphids d) crystal proteins
5.About 15% of world corn yield lost was mainly caused by……….
a) insect b) insect larvae c) pupa d) larvae
6. Bacillus thuringensis can able to produce………… for the pest control
a) delta-endo toxin b) crystal proteinsc) CRY proteins d)All of the above
7.There is no risk of spreading animal diseases to humans as the antibodies are produced by
a)Animals b)Bacterial cultures c) Plants d) Fungal cultures
8.Insect larvae belongs to the order of …………..
a) Lipidoptera&Coleopera b) Homoptera&Orthoptera c) Both a & b d) None of
these
9. The company name called …………. hold the exclusive plantibody licence
a) Pepicyte b)Multicyte a) Emicyte d)Epicyte
10.Plant diseases are due to …….
a) bacteria& fungus b) virus &viroids c)both a & b d) none of the above
11. Plant viruses are ………..
a)Tobacco mosaic virus(TMV) b)Cauliflower mosaic virus(CaMV)
c)both a & b d) none of the above
12.The AMPs are ………. used in transgenic plants
a) antimicrobial proteins b) antifungal proteins
c) antimonomer proteins d)antiviral proteins
13.The discovery of plant viruses causing disease is often accredited to Martinus Beijerinck
who determined, in ……….
a) 1868 b) 1878 c) 1888 d) 1898
14. Beetles belongs to the order ………….
a) Lipidoptera b)Coleopera c) Homoptera d)Orthoptera
15.Plants such as……. are used to express plantibodies
a)Potato & corn b)tomato & tobacco c) tobacco & corn d)potato & tomato
16. Lipidoptera is commonly called as ………….
a) boll worm b) beetles c) aphids d) grasshopper
17.Agrobacterium contains a circle of DNA called……… that carries the desired genes
a) Ti plasmid b) Ri plasmid c) nod gene d) gus gene
18.The main role of transgenic plants are …………..
a) Improve agricultural value of plant b) produce proteins for human
needs
c) Modified plants can be used to study effects of genes d) all of these
19.Weed killers which are collectively referred to as ………
a) Herbicides b) Pesticides c)Fungicides d)Weedicides
20.Plant transformation methods are …….
a)Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Microprojectile Bombardment
c)Electroporation d) all of these
21.Fusion of protoplasts of two different plant species, such hybrids are called …………
a)somatic plants b) somatic hybrids c) cybrids d) hybrid plants
22.Batch culture and Continuous culture are the types of………
a) anther culture b) microspore culture c)suspension culture d)embryo
culture
23.Anther or ovary culture produce variable proportions of ……….. plants depending upon
the species and culture conditions
a) haploid b) non haploid c)both a & b d) none of the above
24………… is a natural genetic engineer and causes crown galls
a)Agrobacterium b) root nodules c) Rhizobium d) all of the above
25. …….. are cells without a cell wall
a) meristems b) root nodules c) Protoplasts d) plant cells
26. T-DNA genes of the Ti plasmids is transferred to the plant cells during the……...
process.
a) root nodule b) somatic hybrid c) cybrid d) tumor formation
27. ……….. is the method of using short electrical pulses of high field strength to
facilitate DNA uptake
a) Chemical-induced Fusion b) Electrofusion c) particle bombardment d)
gene gun
28. …….. is used to fire tiny gold or tungsten particles coated with DNA into cells using an
explosive charge.
a) Chemical-induced Fusion b) Electrofusion c) shotgun d) Pollen Tube
Pathway
29.Bacteria attains ………….. for over all crop loss
a) 1st position b) 2nd position c) 3rd position d) 4th position
30. ……… proteins present naturally in insects, animals, plants and humans are potential
source of plant resistance
a) Antifungal b) Antiviral c) Antimicrobial d) all of the above
31……….. are unwanted and useless plants that grow along with the crop plants
a) herbicides b)Weeds c) Weed killers d) pesticides
32………….. are also affected by herbicides
a) pollens b) crops c)fields d) microbes
33……….. genes from mammals, transferred and expressed in plants to provide resistance
against insects.
a)Gyrase inhibitors b) Proteinase terminators
c) Gyrase terminators d) Proteinase inhibitors
34.Cotton, maize, potato are the ……..
a) Bt crops b) transgenic plants c) crop pants a) all of the above
35………… capable of killing weeds without affecting crop plants, not toxic to animals and
microorganisms
a)Herbicides b)Weeds c) Weed killers d)pesticides
36. …….. composed of a protein coat and a nucleic acid core
a)Viruses b)Bacteria c)Fungi d)Nematodes
37.Viruses are very small infectious particles called ………
a)Gus genes b) virions c) nuclic acids d) RNA
38. The process of producing more nucleic acid within the host cell is called as ……..
a)Transcription b) Replication
c) Transcription and replication d) Transformation
39. ………… carry genetic information encoded in their nucleic acid, which typically
specifies two or more proteins.
a)Viruses b)Bacteria c)Fungi d)Nematodes
40. Weed killers which are referred to as ……….
a) herbicides b)weeds c) fungicides d) pesticides
41. The method ………… refers to breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and
minerals or higher protein and healthier fats.
a) bioenhancing b) micropropagation c)biofortification d) All of the
above
42. ………and………are an important factor contributing towards destruction of crop
plants
a) pests and birds b) insects and animals c) birds and animals d) insects and
pests
43. Flat bean crop varieties are released for ………..
a) insect resistance b) pest resistance c) fungal resistance d) insect pest resistance
44. Flat bean crop varieties are resistance against………diseases
a) jassids b) aphids c) fruit borer d) all of the above
45. Plant breeding is used to improve the ……… in crops
a) plant quality b) food quality c) nutritional quality d) all of the above
46.These are the crops ………and ……… holding its improved nutritional quality
a) maize hybrids b) atlas 66 c) both a and b d) none of the above
47. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), New Delhi has developed many
vegetable crops rich in…….
a) hormones b) hybrids c) vitamins and minerals d) all of the above
48. Physical mutation breeding is inducing mutations by ..……..
a)X-rays b) γ-rays c) UV rays d) all of the above
49. Chemical mutation breeding is inducing mutations by ..……..
a) Sodium azide b)ethylmethanesulphonate c) both a and b d) none of the above
50. A new variety called Prabhanikranti which is resistant to………..
a) black spot ring virus b) yellow mosaic virus c)tobacco mosaic virus d) none of the
above

KEY UNIT - V

1. d 2.b 3.c 4.d 5.b 6.d 7.c 8.c 9.d 10.c

11. c 12.a 13.d 14.b 15.c 16.a 17.a 18.d 19.a 20.d

21. b 22.c 23.b 24.a 25.c 26.d 27.b 28.c 29.c 30.c

31. b 32.b 33.d 34.a 35.c 36.a 37.b 38.c 39.a 40.a

41. c 42.d 43.d 44.d 45.c 46.c 47.c 48.d 49.c 50.b
Semester II

Core VI: Industrial Biotechnology Course code : P15BT206

UNIT-I

1. In anaerobic environment, sugar (CnH2mOm) in dough is converted into

a) Glucose b) water c) alcohol d) carbon monoxide
2. Beer may be produced by……………….
a) Germinating barley b) Fermenting grape c) Fermentation of rice d) All of these
3. Yield coefficient represents………………..
a) Total product produced b) conversion efficiency of a substrate into product
c) Conversion rate of a substrate into product d) production time of biomass or product
4. The continuous cultures are not widely used in industry because……………
a) They are not suited for the production of secondary metabolites
b) Contamination or mutation can have a disastrous effect on the operation
c) Government will not give license for pharmaceuticals produced in continuous cultures
d) All of the above
5. The lowest yield of ATP /is in………………..
a) Fermentation b) Aerobic respiration c) Anaerobic respiration d) Same in (a),(b) & (c)
6. In continuous bioreactor the flow rate controls the rate of product productivity is called
a) Turbidostat b) Chemostat c) Level state d) pH
7. Which of the following is used to calculate mass of substrate in the reactor?
a) Flow rate x substrate concentration in the reactor
b) Volume of reactor x substrate concentration in reactor
c) Flow rate x mass of reactor
d) Volume of reactor x Flow rate
8. If biomass yields are constant, then biomass productivity growth continuous reactor is
a) Always decrease with dilution rate b) increase with dilution rate until washout
c) remain constant irrespective to dilution rate d) decrease with dilution rate until washout
9. Fluidized bed bioreactors provide higher mass transfer rates than packed bed reactor?
a) Mixing is higher in fluidized bed bioreactors
b) Particles move with the fluid in a fluidized bed bioreactor
c) Immobilized particles are smaller in the fluidized bed bioreactors
d) all of the above
10. Mixing per unit volume is observed to be poorest in…………..
a) Continuous packed bed reactor b) continuous fluidized bed bioreactor
c) Continuous airlift bioreactor d) none of the above
11. A culture system with constant environmental conditions maintained through continual provision of
nutrient and removal of wastes is called …………culture system.
a) Continuous b) Batch c) Fed-batch d) Semi continuous
12. Fed batch reactors is used to produce vinegar because……………….
a) It maintain low ethanol concentrations b) It maintain low acetic acid concentrations
c) Acetic acid bacteria tend to ferment at high ethanol concentrations d) all of the above
13. A fed-batch reactor initially contains 2 litre of medium. If it was fed at 1 litre per hour, then after 10
hours, the volume of the reactor will be……………..
a) 1 litre b) 2 litre c) 3 litre d) 13 litre
14. In a fluidized bed reactor, the function of the disengagement zone is to………….
a) reduce loss of particles from the reactor
b) reduce the velocity of the particles near the surface of the reactor
c) reduce foaming problems
d) all of the above
15. Swirling and vortex formation can be prevented by…………………..
a) using baffles b) using diffusion ring with turbines c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
16. The power consumption in a stirring vessel can be assessed by using a……………
a) dynamometer b) strain gauge attached to agitator shaft
c) watt meter attached to agitator motor d) all of these
17. The oxygen transfer rate in a bioreactor will increase if…………….
a) oil is added b) antifoam is added
c) detergent like molecules are added d) increase in the reactor temperature
18. Which of the following impellers are used for wide range of viscosities?
a) paddles b) turbines c) propellers d) none of these
19. Which of the following type(s) of stirrer can be used for microbiological processes?
a) Mig b) Intermig c) Turbine d) All of these
20. If liquid density and viscosity remains constant, then the Reynolds number in a stirred tank reactor will
vary with the………………
a) impeller diameter b) square root of the impeller diameter
c) square of the impeller diameter d) cube of the impeller diameter
21. The reason of using a flat disk in a Turbine is……………..
a) to create high shear conditions
b) to break up bubbles more efficiently than the impeller blades
c) to ensure that the bulk of the energy consumption occurs at the blades
d) all of the above
22. Aerated bioreactor increase oxygen transfer rates with the addition of detergents because it
a) Enhances bubble coalescence b) Causes bubbles to expand
c) Discourages bubble coalescence d) Increases the surface tension of the liquid
23. Which of the following(s) is/are non-mechanically agitated reactors?
a) Stirrer tank reactor b) Bubble column c) Air lift reactor d) Both (b) and (c)
24. Which of the following impellers will provide radial flow?
a) Paddles b) Flat blade turbines c) Disk flat blade turbines d) All of the above
25. The production of substances in industrial microbiology occur in the sequence…………….
a) fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste, inoculation
b) inoculation, downstream processing, fermentation, removal of waste
 c) inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
d) removal of waste, inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing
26. In batch fermentation………………..
a) substrates are added to the system all at once and runs until product is harvested
b) nutrients are continuously fed in reactor and the product is siphoned off during the run
c) new batches of microorganisms are screened for increased yield
d) small-scale production is used to synthesize product
27. Secondary metabolites……………….
a) are essential to microbe function
b) are by-products of metabolism that are not important to microbe function
c) are products that require additional processing before they can be packaged
d) are harvested during the exponential phase of growth
28. The microrganism useful for fermentation are……………..
a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) Fungi d) None of these
29. Basic principle in industrial microbiology is……………..
a) Suitable growth conditions b) Fermentation
c) Providing aseptic conditions d) All of these
30. Antifoam agent is……………..
a) Silicon compounds b) Corn oil c) Soybean oil d) All of these
31. For the production of ethanol the raw material used is……………….
a) Molasses b) Cellulose c) Sulphite waste liquor d) None of these
32. The culture medium should not………………
a) Be sterilized easily b) Be cheap and readily available
c) Allow high yield of undesired products d) All of these
33. ………..starch is used as a major C source for glutamic acid production.
a) soy meal b) Molasses c) Hydrolyzed cassava d) Potato
34. Carbon sources used in media formulation are following except……………
a) Carbohydrates b) Oils and fats c) Hydrocarbons d) Peptones
35. Ammonia, ammonium salts, and urea are the most commonly used..........sources in the fermentation
process
a) Carbon b) Enzyme c) Nitrogen d) Minerals
36. Followings are the essential minerals for all media except……………..
a) Calcium b) Potassium c) Magnesium d) Manganese
37. Chelating agents prevent formation of insoluble………………
a) Calcium precipitates b) Metal precipitates c) Enzyme precipitates d) Product precipitates
38. Power consumption by agitation is
a) a function of physical properties b) a function of operating conditions
c) a function of vessel and impeller geometry d) all of the above
39. If liquid density and viscosity remains constant, then the Reynolds number in a stirred tank reactor will
vary with the
a) impeller diameter b) square root of the impeller diameter
c) square of the impeller diameter d) cube of the impeller diameter
40. Mixing in an anaerobic sludge blanket reactor is due to ………………
a) rapid change in water temperature throughout the reactor
b) release of gases by the microbial populations
c) swimming of microbes
d) none of the above
41. The lowest yield of ATP is in ……………….
a) fermentation b) aerobic respiration c) anaerobic respiration d) a and b
42. The lowest biomass yield in a culture of E.coli will be in ……………….
a) an aerated batch culture containing a initial high concentration of glucose
b) an aerated batch culture containing a initial low concentration of glucose
c) an aerated fed-batch reactor having a low glucose concentration
d) an aerated continuous reactor having a low glucose concentration
43. ………… is an efficient method of producing energy from biomass
a) composting b) fermentation c) recycling d) regeneration
44. Fermenters are designed for …………
a) aerobic processes b) anaerobic processes c) both a & b d) antibiotic production
45. Main type(s) Industrial fermentation processes are/is …………..
a) Stable fermentation b) batch fermentation c) continuous fermentation d) both a and b
46. In batch fermentation, each fermentation is a ………
a) discontinuous process b) continuous process
c) factor independent process d) stable process
47. The limitation overcome by continuous fermentention over batch fermentation is …………
a) nutritional balance b) pH maintanence c) aeration d) mixing of oxygen
48. Most of fermentation media contain one aminoacid, that is ……..
a) alanine b) glutamic acid c) aspartic acid d) valine
49. Commonly employed strain of microorganism for fermentation is ……….
a) Corynebacterium glutamicum b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) E. coli d) C. albicans
50. The lowest yield of ATP is in ……………….
a) fermentation b) aerobic respiration c) anaerobic d) None of the above

ANSWER KEY- UNIT I

1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. a

11. a 12. a 13.b 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. c

21. c 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. d

31. a 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. b

41. a 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. d 46.a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. a

UNIT II
1. Batch culture is ……….
a) closed process b) open process c) both d) none of these
2. Reynold’s number is used to characterize……..
a) energy b) flow c) mixing d) adsorption
3. Which one of the following agitators is used most commonly?
a) propellor b)turbine c) M/G d)intermig
4. Tyndallization is useful where a medium is affected by………..
a) temperature of above 100ºC b) where spoels are present
c) both a & b d) none of these
5. Aeration in a bioreactor is provided by……
 a) dampeller b) baffles c) sparger d) all the above
6. The most effective mode of media sterilization by removal is…..
a) sedimentation b) filtration c) centrifugation d) adsorption
7. The time required for centrifugation is directly proportional to…….
a) the viscosity of the medium
b) the difference in the density of the particle and the medium
c) the square of particle radius
d) both a & b
8. Which one of the major methods employed in depth filtration is……
a) diffusion b) electrostatic interaction c) flocculation d) sedimentation
9. Filtration of the final product through …….. filter to generate sterile product followed by its aseptic filling?
a) 0.22 um b) 0.33 um c) 0.44um d) all the above
10. Which one of the following agent is used for precipitation of proteins?
a) ammonium sulfate b) ethanol c) both a and b d) none of these.
11. Who received the nobel prize in medicine in 1977 for the development of RIA for insulin?
a) Yalow b) Petri c) Smith d) Johanson
12. ………is a process wherein colloids come out of suspension in the form of floc
a) flocculation b) centrifugation c) filtration d) sonication
13. ……….. is a dehydration process typically used to preserve a perishable material or make the material
more convenient for transport
a) lyophilization b) incineration c) both a & b d) none of the above
14. The production of substances in industrial microbiology occur in the sequence…………
a) inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
b) fermentation ,downstream processing, removal of waste ,inoculation
c) removal of waste,fermentation,inoculation,down stream processing
d) inoculation, fermentation, removal of waste,down stream processing
15. To describe components of an airlift bioreactor which of the follow-ings are generally included?
a) Flotsam, jetsam, downzone b) Disengagement zone, air riser, downcomer
c) All of the above d) Air comer, disentanglement zone, downsizer
16. Gadens proposed the classification of fermentation in…………….
a) 1955-1959 b) 1965-1985 c) 1990-1995 d) 1996-1998
17. Constructing product formation model was given by……………
a) Deindoerfer b) Wang c) Bailey d) Gadens
18. ……….is the process in which fermentation process is carried in batches.
a) batch fermentation b) SSF c) submergé fermentation d) continuos fermentation
19. Fermentation is carried out in a glass coated vessel called as……………….
a) fermenter b) chemostat c) turbidostat d) baffles
20. The cell number or biomass of batch culture exhibits curve of ……
a) J shape b) C-shape c) S-sigmoidal d) none of these
21. Cell population is maintained is steady state in which type of culture?
a) batch b) red batch c) continuous d) all of these
22. Which fermentor produces the product with the help of bubbles………..
a) loop fermentor b) bubble column c) Air lift d) tower fermentor
23. Quiescent zone is present in which type of……………..fermentor
a) loop b) air lift c) tower d) bubble column
24. Continuous culture is of……..
a) closed b) open c) both d) none of these
25. The main function(s) of a draft tube in an air lift fermenter is/are to
a) distribute shear forces throughout the reactor and minimise bubble coalescence
b) increase the solubility of oxygen
c) concentrate shear forces near the disengagement zone
d) concentrate shear forces around the sparger
26. In an airlift bioreactor, the air sparging region is called
a) disengagement zone b) downcomer c) none of these d) air riser
27. In large scale fermentation, the preferred method of sterilization is……
a) chemical b) radiation c) filtration d) heat
28. The enzyme urease can be best purified by employing……
a) ion-exchange chromatography b) covalent chromatography
c) reversed phase chromatography d) hydrophobicity interaction chromatography.
29. Which of the following is not a method for concentrating dilute protein solutions insolving simply
removal of water?
a) dialysis b) dry gel filtration c) ultrafiltration d) ultracentrifugation
30. The time required for centrifugation is directly proportional to……….
a) the viscosity of the medium b) the difference in the density of the particle and the medium
c) the square of particle radius d) the square of angular velocity
31. Sephadex G-25 and biogel P-30 are the mostceridely used material in……….
a) ion exchange chromatography b) gel filtration chromatography
c) thin layer chromatography d) affinity chromatography
32. Which of the following is not a purification technique for an isolated concentrated product solution?
a) crystallization b) chromatography c) electrophoresis d) pervaporation
33. Which of the following is the non mechanical method for cell distruption?
a) thermolysis b) impingement c) ultrasonication d) milling
34. Membranes used in filtration are made up of……………..
a) polythersulfon b) polyvinyl chloride c) cellulose d) polyacrylamide
35. Secondary metabolites are produced in …………….Gadens fermentation
a) anaerobic b) aerobic c) both a & b d) none of these
36. Which type of gadens fermentation produce secondary metabolites…………..
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) all the above
37. Type II Gadens fermentation produces ATP as a product in the synthesis of……………..
a) Lactic acid b) Citric acid c) both a & b d) ethanol
38. Which type of fluid can be used in bioreactor for the process of medium formulation?
a) turbulence fluid b) streamlines fluid c) both a & b d) none of these
39. For scaling up of a bioreactors, the following parameter is assumed to be constant?
a) airflow rate b) diameter of the impellor c) both a& b d) none of these
40. Oxygen transfer is influenced by the………
a) presence of cells in broth b) temperature
c) gas pressure and oxygen partial pressure d) all of the above
41. Which type of Gadens classification produce energy as a main product?
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Both a & b
42. Gadens fermentation includes…………types of classification?
 a) 7 b) 5 c) 3 d) 2
43. Main type(s) Industrial fermentation processes are/is …………..
a) Stable fermentation b) batch fermentation c) continuous fermentation d) both a and b
44. In batch fermentation, each fermentation is a ………
a) discontinuous process b) continuous process
c) factor independent process d) stable process
45. The limitation overcome by continuous fermentention over batch fermentation is …………
a) nutritional balance b) pH maintanence c) aeration d) mixing of oxygen
46. Intensity of turbulence is represent by the impellor is called as……..
a) Reynold’s number b) power number c) mixing time d) calculation time
47. Density of the fluid…………..by gas bubbles
a) increased b) decreased c) first decrease than increased d) none of the above
48. For scalling up of bioreactors, the following parameter is assumed to be constant…………
a) airflow rate b) diameter of the impellor
c) agitation speed d) volumetric mass transfer coefficient
49. In a bioreactor baffles are incorporated for………………..
a) prevent vertex and to improve aeration efficiency b) maintain uniform suspension cell
c) minimize the size of air bubble for create aeration d) maintain uniformity
50. ………… fermentor is widely used in brewing industry.
a) Nathan fermentor b) Stirred fermentor c) Tubular tower fermentor d) airlift fermentor

ANSWER KEY - UNIT II

1.a 2.b 3.b 4.c 5.c 6.b 7.a 8.a 9.a 10.c
11.a 12.a 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.d 18.a 19.a 20.c
21.c 22.b 23.c 24.b 25.a 26.d 27.b 28.b 29.d 30.a
31.b 32.c 33.a 34.a 35.b 36.c 37.b 38.a 39.a 40.d
41.a 42.c 43.d 44.a 45.a 46.a 47.b 48.a 49.a 50.a

UNIT III

1. The first aminoacid produced commercially is ………………

a) L-glutamic acid b) L-lysine c) cystine d) methionine
2. The Candida species require fermentation equipment lined with plastic because they are extremely
sensitive to………..
a) traces of cobalt b) traces of nickel c) traces of iron d) traces of copper
3. Alexander Flemming named first isolated penicillin as ……
a) 2-pentenyl pencillin b) n-heptyl penicillin
c) phenoxymethyl penicillin d) benzyl penicillin
4. Amino acid dehydrogenases from Bacillus megaterium can be used for the ………………
a) amination of α-keto acids to produce L-amino acids b) to add methyl group to L-amino acids
c) to eliminate carboxylic group d) all the above
5. Auxotrophic mutatant is characterized by……………..
a) it lacks the formation of regulatory end product b) it can form regulatory end product
c) it does not need special effluents d) It need vitamins to survive
6. The bacterium that was first used for large scale manufacture of glutamic acid is….
a) Corynebacterium glutamicum b) Clostridium tetanus
 c) Aspergillus niger d) Pseudomonas putida
7. Biosynthesis of L-glutamic Acid is required ………….. as cofactor
a) biotin b) aspartate c) tocopherol d) cholesterol
8. Microorganisms should have ………… enzymes are capable of producing glutamic acid
a) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase b) pyruvate carboxylase
c) both a and b d) none of the above
9. Which increase the membrane permeability to export glutamic acid during fermentation is….
a) Biotin limitation b) Addition of saturated fatty acids
c) Addition of penicillin d) all the above
10. Inexpensive carbon source used in the production aminoacid is …………
a) glucose b) maltose c) acetate d) maltate
11. Microorganisms used in the production of Lysine aminoacid is ………..
a) Corynebacterium glutamicum b) Brevibacterium flavum
c) both a and b d) Candida albicans
12. Carrier proteins in fermentation process are used to ………..
a) release the product b) oxygen supply
c) meet the nutritional requirement d) provide nitrogen source
13. Widely used bacterial species in the production of aminoacid is…………
a) Corynebacterium glutamicum b) Clostridium tetanus
c) Aspergillus niger d) Pseudomonas putida
14. The strain of the yeast S. cerevisiae is carefully selected for ………..
a) its capacity to produce abundant gas quickly b) its viability during ordinary storage
c) its ability to produce desirable flavour d) all the above

15. The range of pH and temperature maintained for yeast growth in fermentation process is
a) 4.4-4.6 and 25-26 °C b) 5.4-5.6 and 28-26 °C
c) 5.4-5.6 and 25-26 °C d) 4.4-7.6 and 25-26 °C
16. Commonly employed strain of microorganism for fermentation is ……….
a) Corynebacterium glutamicum b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) E. coli d) C. albicans
17. The correct order of the major steps involved in the production of alcoholic beverages is…..
a) malting, mashing, fermenting, maturing, and finishing
b) malting, mashing, fermenting, finishing and maturing
c) fermenting, malting, mashing, maturing and finishing
d) maturing, malting, mashing, fermenting and finishing
18. Vinegar is the product resulting from the conversion of ……………
a) ethyl alcohol to acetic acid b) acetone to acetic acid
c) maltose to acetic acid d) both a and b
19. SCP are the …………. cells of selected micro-organisms such as algae, yeast, bacteria molds, and higher
fungi
a) dried b) aerated c) fermented d) acidified
20. ………… fermentor is widely used in beer production
a) Nathan fermentor b) Stirred fermentor
c) Tubular tower fermentor d) airlift fermentor
21. Metabolites which are produced by the metabolism required for the maintenance of the minimum life
process of a microbe are known as…………….
 a) primary metabolites b) secondary metabolites c) essential nutrients d) both a and b
22. The primary metabolites are produced in abundance at …………………
a) an early stage of growth b) throughout the life
c) late stage of growth d) middle stage of growth
23. ………. are those metabolites, which are not produced directly by the metabolism required for the vital
life process of microbes, instead are produced by some specialized metabolic process
a) primary metabolites b) secondary metabolites c) essential nutrients d) both a and b
24. Most of the secondary metabolites are derived from …………..
a) primary metabolites b) aminoacid biosynthestic pathway
c) essential nutrients d) digestion of food
26. Select the wrong pair of source and product
a) Amphotericin-B - Streptomyces nodosus
b) Chloramphenicol - Streptomyces venezuelae,
c) Erythromycin - S. eythirus,
d) Gentamycin - Bacillus brevis
27. Nitrogen source for fermentation at lab level and industrial level are …….
a) beef extract and beef extract b) peptone and beef extract
c) peptone and veg meal d) beef extract and peptone
28. Trace elements added in fermentation medium are ………
a) Fe, Cu, b) Mn, Mo, Co c) both a and b d) Mo and Co
29. Two important parameters during growth in a fermenter were ……
a) pH b) foam c) both a and b d) none of these
30. …… are not employed as nutrient source in recombinant protein production due to purity reason
a) Molasses b) Glucose c) Nitrate d) Vitamins
31. Which chemical is deliberately raised in many media to increase the buffering capacity?
a) Nitarte b) Phosphorus c) Ammonia d) Manganese
32. Some microorganism can't synthesize specific nutrients such as ……
a) aminoacids b) vitamins c) both a and B d) none of the above
33. ………..starch is used as a major C source for glutamic acid production.
a) Soy meal b) Molasses c) Hydrolyzed cassava d) Potato
34. ………….. has been used as the sole C substrate in cephalosporin production.
a) Valerate b) Methly oleate c) Oleic acid d) Palmitic acid
35. In Antibiotic production by many microorganism is influenced by the type and concentration of the ……..
in the culture medium.
a) Nitrogen b) silica c) Vitamins d) Aminoacids
36. Chelating agents are added to media to prevent…………
a) the problem of insoluble material b) the problem of aeration
c) the problem of mixing d) the problem of pH stability
37. Most of fermentation media contain one aminoacid, that is ……..
a) alanine b) glutamic acid c) aspartic acid d) valine
38. Important carbon sources in fermentation medium are………….
a) starch b) dextrose c) glucose d) all the above
39. Important nitrogen sources in fermentation medium are ………….
a) corn steep b) wheat gluten c) both a and b d) none of the above
40. Anti foaming agents used in fermentation medium is/are ……...
a) vegetable and animal oil b) silicone
c) polyoxyalkylene derivatives d) all the above
41. Amino acids are building blocks of …….
 a) Protein b) lipids c) nucleic acids d) vitamins
42. Principle raw materials used for the production of aminoacids are…….
a) biotin & yeast extract b) peptone & Biotin
c) glucose & starch hydrolysates d) maltose & starch hydrolysate
43. The compound needed for the excretion of glutamic acid is…….
a) phosphate b) sulfur c) biotin d) ascorbic acid
44. The energy for the production of glutamic acid is derived from ……..pathway
a) glyoxylate pathway b) pentose pathway c) urea pathway d) citric acid pathway
45. The term Single Cell Protein was coined by……………
a) Scrimshaw b) Kyowa Hakko c) C. L. Wilson d) Levenspiel
46. Precursor for the production of tryptophan is……………….
a) Indole b) Biotin c) Nitrate d) Glutamic acid
47. Which of the following fermented product employed in analytical area?
a) vitamins K b) cephalosporin c) Glucose oxidase d) Glutamic acid
48. The first enzyme produced industrially was ……
a) lactase b) taka-diastase c) proteinase d) pencilinase
49. Lactase enzyme produced by…..
a) Corynebacterium b) Aspergillus c) Mucor d) Rhizopus
50. α and β both amylases could be produced by ………… species
a) Trichoderma b) Aspergillus c) Bacillus d) E.coli

ANSWER KEY- UNIT III

1. a 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. c

11. c 12. a 13.a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c

21. a 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. b

31. c 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. a

41. b 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. c 46.a 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. c

UNIT IV

1. One of the best edible species mushrooms under cultivation is…….

a) Sahiwal b) Kasur C) Jhang d) Lahore
2. One of the edible species mushrooms under cultivation is……..
a) Valvaria volvacea b) Armillariella mellea
c) Amani a maesaria d) Amanita phalloides
3. Some fungi are poisonous such as amanita & Jack-o' lantern mushroom, they are termed as ……..
a) toadstools b)poisonous c) harmful d) toxic
4. Aflatoxins are most carsinogenic toxins which are produced by……..
a) aspergillus b) spergillus c) carcinogillus d) thombogillus
5. Mushrooms and puffballs appear rapidly because of
 a) rapid cell division b) rapid elongation of hyphae
c) rapid water absorption d) rapid multiplication and inflation of vacuoles
6. Varieties released in mushroom production is………
a) Pleuotus florida b) hypsizygus ulmarius c) both a and b d)none of these
7. Mother spawn is nothing but the mushroom fungus grown on a …
a) grown on a grain based medium b) liquid culture c) lyophilized culture d) dried culture
8. Chemical used in mushroom cultivation is …
a) calcium carbonate b) sodium c) pottasium d) iron
9. Most popular mushroom type is
a) button mushroom b) oyster mushroom c) paddy starw mushroom d) none of these
10. Technique of SCP is introduced by
a) Gregor Mendel b) Louis Pasteur c) Professor Scrimshaw d) Ian Wilmot
11. Using SCP, amount of protein can be produced by algae grown in ponds(per acre) is
a) 20 tons b) 30 tons c) 40 tons d) 50 tons
12. Substrate used by microorganisms to produce single-cell proteins includes………
a) methane gas b) industrial wastes c) agricultural wastes d) all of above
13. By using single-cell protein, amount of protein produced by 50 kgs of yeast is
a) 180 tons b)100 tons c) 300 tons d) 250 tons
14. Protein extracted from mixed or pure cultures of yeasts, bacteria, algae and fungi is called
a) triple cell protein b) single cell protein c) double cell protein d)tetra cell protein
15. Spirulina is a
a) Edible fungus b) biofertilizer c) biopesticide d) single cell protein
16. Single cell production is enabled through
a) batch operation systems b) continuous operation systems
c) discontinuous operation system d) unique operation system
17. The term SCP was introduced by
a) Gregor Mendel b) Louis Pasteur c) Professor Wilson d) Ian Wilmot
18. Main criticisms of SCP are
a) high levels of RNA b) uric acid accumulation
c) kidney stone formation and gout d) all of these
19. Wide variety of substrates that have been used for SCP production are
a) hydrocarbons b) alcohols c) wastes from various sources d) all of these
20. Among the gaseous hydrocarbons, which one has been most widely studied as a source of SCP?
a) Methane b) propane c) butane d) potone
21. Which source needs four-organism mixture for the production of SCP?
a) Methane b) propane c) butane d) potone
22. Among the following which organism does not included in four-organism mixture?
a) Hyphomicrobium b) Flavobacterium c) Acinetobacter d) Corynebacterium
23. During petroleum refining, the crude oil is distilled at atmospheric pressure known as
a) Topping b) mashing c) filtering d) crushing
24. The bacterium used for SCP production when methanol used as a source is …
a) Methylophilus b) Corynebacterium c) yeast d) pseudomonas
25. The enzyme responsible for the oxidation of uric acid is …
a) uricase b) uric phosphatese c) urea synthase d) urea reductase
26. The upper limit of nucleic acid consumption per day in addition to the quantity present in the usual diet for
adults is ……
a) 2 gm b) 4gm c) 8gm d) 10
27. Which of the nitrogenous bases are getting converted into uric acid during digestion?
a) Adenine b) guanine c) cytosine d) adenine and guanine
28. The first human hormone produced in bacteria is…………….
a) somatotrophin b) insulin c) testosterone d) Trophin
29. Steroids are……………….
a) Water soluble b) water insoluble c) in high pH water soluble d) in low pH water soluble
30. In 1979, human growth hormone was successfully produced in genetically modified bacteria by
a) Dr. Baxter's team b) Mcgraw-hill team c) Shaw team d) Pasteur team
31. The nucleus present in steroid compound is………
a) Phenanthrene b) benzene c) pyranose d) pyrrole
32. Sterols are …………….
a) alcohols derived from steroids b) hydrated steroids
c) oxidized steroids d) reduced steroids
33. Steroids and sterols are widely distributed in
a) bile salts b) adrenal-cortical c) sex hormones d) all of these
34. The main steroid hormones produced by the gland(s) is/are …….
a) corticosterone b) cortisol c) aldosterone d) all of these
35. Testerone was produced from dehydroepiandrosterone using …………
a) Corynebacterium sp b) Methylophilus c) Azotobacter d) Nitrosomonas
36. Cholesterol produced from 4-dehydroeticholanic acid and 7-hydroxycholesterol using ………
a) Nocardia spp b) Methylophilus c) Azotobacter d) Nitrosomonas
37. First microbial transformation of steroid was carried out by the conversion of ……….
a) Rhizopus b) Methylophilus c) Azotobacter d) Nitrosomonas
38. First microbial transformation of steroid was the conversion of
a) progesterone to 11 – α hydroxy progesterone b) progesterone to 15– α hydroxy progesterone
c) progesterone to 9– α hydroxy progesterone d) progesterone to 3 – α hydroxy progesterone
39. The conversion of cortisol to prednisolone was achieved by
a) Corynebacterium simplex b) Psedomonas bacteria
c) Corynebacterium glutamaticum d) Saccharomyces cerevisae
40. A major microbial transformation of steroid in recent times is the…….
a) cleavage of the C17 side chain of sterols b) cleavage of the C11 side chain of sterols
c) cleavage of the C9 side chain of sterols d) cleavage of the C10side chain of sterols
41. Best steroid source for the production of pharmacologically active steroids is ….
a) diosgenin b) pectin c) sphingoside d) cerebroside
42. Which is the steroid source for the production of pharmacologically active steroids is ….
a) Dioscorea spp b) Digitalis spp c) Nastermium spp d) Withania spp
43. The phytosterols used in microbial transformations are ……
a) β- sitosterol b) stigmasterol c) campesterol d) all of these
44. Best mutant used in microbial transformation is ………
a) Mycobacterium spp b) Nocardia spp c) Pseudomonas spp d) Methanogens
45. Solvent used in fermentation medium to dissolve steroid is ………
a) Acetone b) ethanol c) propylene glycol d) all of these
46. Non-ionic surface-acting agents used in steroid transformation fermentation medium is ……
a) Tween 80 b) SDS c) teepol d) all of these
47. Fungus used in the microbial transformation of steroids are…
a) Rhizopus nigricans b) Curvularia lunata c) Cylindrocarpon radicicola d) all of these
48. Bacteria used in the microbial transformation of steroids are…
a) Mycobacterium sps b) Corynedbacterium simplex c) Streptomyces spp d) all of these
49. Steroid transformations require a temperature of about
a) 28°C b) 32°C c) 37°C d)30°C
50. The microbial transformation fermentation is usually completed in
a) four to five days b) three to five days c) two to four days d) two to five days

UNIT IV- Answer Key

1a 2a 3 a 4 a 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 c

11 a 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 d 16 b 17 c 18 d 19 d 20 a

21 a 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 a 26 a 27 d 28 b 29 b 30 a

31 a 32 a 33 d 34 d 35 a 36 a 37 a 38 a 39 a 40 a

41 a 42 a 43 d 44 a 45 d 46 a 47 d 48 d 49 a 50 a

UNIT V

1. Biogas is
a) methane rich fuel b) ecofriendly and pollution free source
c) propane rich fuel d) both a and c
2. High value of BOD shows
a) water is normal b) water is highly polluted
c) water is less polluted d) none of these
3. Who showed that Saccharomyces causes fermentation forming products beer and buttermilk?
a) Louis Pasteur b) Alexandar Fleming c) Selman Waksman d) Schatz
4. Rennet is used in…
a) bread making b) fermentation c) cheese making d) antibiotic production
5. Which of the following can be application of fermentation?
a) tanning of leather b) curing of tea c) production of wine d) all of these
6. Biogas is produced by….
a) aerobic breakdown of biomass b) anaerobic breakdown of biomass
c) with the help of methanogenic bacteria d) both b and c
7. Vinegar is obtained from the molasses with the help of…….
a) Rhizopus b) Acetobacter c) yeast d) both b and c
8. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is removed in alcoholic fermentation from
a) pyruvic acid b) nitric acid c) sulphuric acid d) hydrochloric acid
9. Alcoholic fermentation is carried by yeast known as
 a) Wilmot cerevisiae b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Lactobacillus d) lactobacillus cerevisiae
10. Pyruvic acid in alcoholic fermentation reduced to acetaldehyde which further reduced into
a) carbon dioxide b) methanol c) ethanol d) methane
11. Pyruvic acid in alcoholic fermentation leads to….
a) glucose b) lactose c) lactic acid d) acetaldehyde
12. The term anaerobic means
a) without bacteria b) without oxygen c) without ATP d) with oxygen
13. The concept of putting microbes to help clean up the environment is called
a) pasteurization b) bioremediation c) fermentation d) biolistics
14. Which of the following is not employed as an oxidation method?
a) Oxidation ponds b) Trickling filters d) Contact aerators d) All of these
15. The filtering medium of trickling filters is coated with microbial flora, known as
a) zoological film b) geological film c) zooglocal film d) none of these
16. The biogas production process takes place at the temperature…
a) lesser than 25°C b) 25-40°C c) 45-60°C d) all of these
17. Advanced treatment is generally used to treat waste water to
a) remove coarse solids b) remove settleable solids
c) reduce BOD d) remove additional objectionable substances
18. Treatment of municipal water supplies is based upon
a) coagulation, filtration, chlorination b) chlorination, filtration, coagulation
c) filtration, coagulation, chlorination d) coagulation, chlorination, filtration
19. Break down synthetic waste polychlorinated biphenyls by microbes is called………….
a) bioinformatics b) biolistics c) biotechnology d) bioremediation
20. Iron bacteria can produce
a) slime b) undesirable odors and tastes c) both a and b d) extreme acidity
21. The magnitude of BOD of wastewater is related to
a) bacterial count b) amount of organic material
c) amount of inorganic material d) all of the above
22. A dense bacterial population caught in a tangled web of fibers sticking to a surface describes
a) coagulation b) a biodisc c) a biofilm d) the membrane filter technique
23. Biogas production is……………
a) a temperature-dependent process b) a temperature independent process
c) an oxygen dependent process d) none of the above
24. The acetate-utilizing methanogens are responsible for
a) 20% of methane produced in biogas reactor b) 50% of methane produced in biogas reactor
c) 70% of methane produced in biogas reactor d) 85% of methane produced in biogas reactor
25. Which of the following is responsible for the corrosion problem?
a) Iron bacteria b) Sulfur bacteria c) Slime forming bacteria d) All of these
26. Water testing relies on the detection of certain indicator organisms known as
a) acid-fast bacteria b) bacteroids c) coliforms d) dinoflagellates
27. According to Total Coliform Rule, the maximum containment level goal for total and fecal coliforms is set
at……………..
a) 0 b) 100 cells/ml c) 1000 cells/ml d) 10,000 cells/ml
28. The preferred method of evaluating the microbiological characteristics of water is …..
a) Most probable number b) Biochemical oxygen demand
 c) Membrane filter technique d) Defined substrate test
29. Which of the methods is an emerging approach to the bioremediation of contaminants?
a) Microbial fuel cells b) Anaerobic digesters
c) Industrial septic systems d) All of the above
30. The addition of easily metabolized organic matter to a natural microbial community with the purpose of
increasing the rate of biodegradation is called……………
a) Nutrient amendment b) Nutrient stimulation c) Cometabolism d) Carbonization
31. In ………., microorganisms that produce acids are used to solubilize desirable metals
a) Bioremediation b) Biodegradation c) Bioleaching d) Bioacidification
32. The addition of active microbes to soil or water with the purpose of accelerating microbial processes is
called…………….
a) Bioremediation b) Biodegradation c) Bioaccentuation d) Bioaugmentation

33. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills…
a) Bacillus subtilis b) Pseudomonas putida
c) Pseudomonas denitrificans d) Bacillus denitrificans
34. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called
a) bioextraction b) microbial extraction c) biofiltration d) bioleaching
35. Exsitu bioremediation involves the…
a) exsitu bioremediation b) intrinsic bioremediation
c) extrinsic bioremediation d) none of these
36. Which of the following bacterium is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes…
a) Trichoderma spp b) Aspergillus niger c) Pseudomonas putida d) all of these
37. Microorganisms remove metals by…..
a) adsorption and complexation b) adsorption and precipitation
c) adsorption and volatilization d) all of these
38. Chlorella spp are widely used in the removal of
a) organic wastes b) hydrocarbons c) heavy metals d) all of these
39. A non directed physio chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and microbe is called
a) biotransformation b) bioconversion c) biosorption d) biomining
40. Function of streptococcus during milk fermentation is to
a) produce aerobic environment b) produce anaerobic environment
c) form lactic acid d) all of these
41. In anaerobic (without O2) environment, sugar (CnH2mOm) in dough is converted into ……
a) glucose b) water c) alcohol d) carbon monoxide
42. Beer may be produced by
a) germinating barley b) fermenting grape c) fermentation of rice d) all of these
43. In dough, starch is digested into sugar through
a) amylase b) protease c) maltase d) lactase
44. Which is not an advantage of the fermented food?
a) Makes the food more digestible b) Increase storage life
c) Synthesize vitamins d) Decrease intestinal microflora
45. Which is not fruit or vegetable based fermented product?
a) wine b) beer c) vinegar d) sauerkraut
46. Identify the correct sequence during the industrial production of substances
 a) Inoculation, screening, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
b) Screening, Inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
c) Fermentation, screening, inoculation, removal of waste, downstream processing
d) Fermentation, inoculation, inoculation, removal of waste, downstream processing
47. The organisms used in the process of fermentation
a) metabolize all the oxygen in food b) produce water in the food.
c) utilize all the nutrients in a food d) produce products, such as acids etc
48. Which of the following organism is found at the initial stages in the batter of idli
a) Leuconostoc mesentroides b) A. niger c) Bacillus subtilis d) none of these
49. Pickles and sauerkraut share a common inoculums which is
a) Lactobacillus plantarum b) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
c) Lactobacillus acidophilus d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
50. During malting, barley and other grains are broken down by..
a) heating to 95 b) lagering c) amylases d) yeasts

UNIT V- Answer Key

1d 2b 3 a 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 c

11 d 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 c 16 d 17 d 18 a 19 b 20 c

21 b 22 c 23 a 24 c 25 b 26 c 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 c

31 c 32 d 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 b 37 d 38 c 39 c 40 b

41 c 42 a 43 a 44 d 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 a 49 a 50 c
Semester II

Elective: Research Methodology Course code : P15BT2:1

Unit 1 - Research Design

1. An intermediate step to gain reliable knowledge in the field of research is

a. Hypothesis b. Data collection c. Methodology d. workplan
2. A research that establish fundamental facts and relationships within a discipline or field of
study.
a. Descriptive b. Basic c. Applied d. All three
3. Research that deals with abstract of ideas is called
a. Emprical b. Applied c. Conceptual d. Basic
4. The specific techniques, tools or procedures applied to achieve a given objective in research
is
a. Methodology b. Methods c. Experiment d. All three
5. Methodology performed in research includes
a. Questionnaire b.Group Discussion c. Statistics d. All three

6. Professionals aim to solve problems with the help of__________ research

a. action research b. basic research c. predictive research d. orientational
research
7. Results obtained from already obtained data is called as
a. Primary data b. Secondary data c. Experimental data d. Statistical data
8.A criteria of good research involves
a. Data collection b. Statistical analysis c. Identifying and solving problem d. Survey

9.A good research relies on the

a.Pre existing data b.Result interpretation c. Review of literature d.All three
10.What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher
advance an ideological or political position?
a. Evaluation research b. Basic research c. Action research d. Orientational research
11.Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a. Deductive method b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method
12. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?
a. Deductive method b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method
13.Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a. it most simply means “explanation” b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system d. all of the above are correct

14. An advantage to do research in life science is to solve problems in

a. Society b. Life stock c.Health issues d. All three
15.Which of the following describes the objective of research?
a. Hypothesis b. Solution to problem c. Data collection d. Methodology
16. The standard and quality of a scientific journal relies on its
a. Impact factor b. Publication c. Subscription frequency d. Cost
17. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-
effect relationships?
a. non experimental b. experimental c.Quantitative d. Comparative
18. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable
19. What is the opposite of a variable?
a. a constant b. an extraneous variable c. dependent variable d.Independent variable
20. In research, the measure that does not “vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable b. method c. constant d. control group
21. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?
a. quantitative research b. qualitative research c. mixed research d. none of the
above
22. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?
a. quantitative research b. qualitative research c. mixed research d. none of the
above
23. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a. the collection of non numerical data b. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s
hypotheses c. research that is exploratory d. research that attempts to
generate a new theory
24. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called
_______.
a. a constant b. a variable c. a cause-and-effect relationship d. a descriptive
relationship
25. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a (n):
a. categorical variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. intervening
variable
26. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
27. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics
except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. it relies on the collection of non numerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
28. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-
and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research
b. experimental Research
c.Quantitative Research
d. Qualitative Research
29. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable
30. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot
manipulate the independent variable.
a. basic research b. quantitative research
c. experimental research d. causal-comparative and correlational research
31. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. resistance to manipulation b. manipulation of the independent
variable
c. the use of open-ended questions d. focuses only on local problems
32. A positive correlation is present when _______.
a. two variables move in opposite directions. b. two variables move in the same
direction. c. one variable goes up and one goes down d. several variables
never change.
33. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the
quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research b. basic research c. quantitative research d. mixed method
research
34. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a
stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
a. action research b. basic research c. quantitative research d. mixed model
research
35. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. experimental research b. historical research c. replication d. archival
research
36. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research b. experimental research
c. ethnography d. correlational research
37. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables? a. age, temperature,
income, height b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance c. gender,
religion, ethnic group d. both a and b
38. Research is
a. Futile Activity
b. An activity which contribute the growth of the country
c. An interesting activity
d. An activity that adds happiness and prosperity
39. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary
independent variable of interest is categorical?
a. causal-comparative research b. experimental research c. qualitative research d. mixed
research
40. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. age b. annual income c. grade point average d. religion
41. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive b. Negative c. Perfect d. They are not correlated
42. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two
variables, it is very important to avoid _______.
a. checking the strength of relationship b. jumping to the conclusion of causality
c. checking the direction of the relationship d. expressing a relationship with a correlation
coefficient
43. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She
develops
a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent
involvement
has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her
model,
greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher
student
achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable d. Mediating or intervening variable

44. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research
methods?
a. Experimental b. Causal-comparative c. Correlational d. Ethnography
45. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10 b. -.95 c. +.90 d. -1.00
46. Which of the following is nottrue?
a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem
47. A condition where the researcher is devoid of his own capability is called as
. Anonymity b. Confidentiality c. Deception d. Desensitizing
48. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical issues is the
primary approach used by the federal government and most professional organizations?
a. Deontological approach b. Ethical skepticism c. Utilitarianism d. None of the
above
49. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and
staff? a. Confidentiality b. Anonymity c. Ethics d. Discretion
50. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. Guidelines b. A commitment c. Informed consent d. Private information

Key unit 1:

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.D

6.A 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.

D
 11. 12. 13. 14.D 15.
A B D B

16. 17. 18. 19.A 20.

A B B C

21. 22. 23. 24.B 25.

C B B C

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

D A B D D

31. 32. 33. 34.D 35.

B B D B

36. 37. 38. 39.A 40.

B D B D

41. 42B 43D 44.A 45.

A . . D

46. 47. 48. 49.A 50.

B A C C

Unit -2 Research Problem

1. Which of the following is not an essential element of report writing?

a. Research Methodology b. Reference c. Conclusion d. None of these
2. Testing hypothesis is a ________
a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics c. Data preparation d. Data analysis
3 .What is the purpose of doing research?
a. To identify problem b. To find the solution c. Both a and b d. None of these
4. Which method can be applicable for collecting qualitative data?
a. Artifacts (Visual) b. People c. Media products (Textual, Visual and sensory) d. All of
these
5.The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction b. Method c. Data analysis d. Discussion
6. Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature b. Statements of predicted relationships
between variables c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted d. b and c
7. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study b. Are often generated as the
data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed c. Are never used d. Are always stated after the
research study has been completed
8. A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study d. All of the above
9. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies
a. The research participant’s b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of
interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures
10. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the
study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it
includes
the research hypothesis d. All of the above

11. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life b. Practical issues c. past research d. Theory
12. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.
a. Experimental group b. Control group c. Treatment group d. Independent group
13. When a citation includes more than ____ authors,only the surname of the first author is
cited followed by et al.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
14. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
a. State the first and last name of the author b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
15. The abbreviation et al represents the number of
a. References b.Pages c. Authors d. Bibliography
16. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.
a. Italics b. Abbreviations c. Headings d. Both a and b
17. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of you
study for a conference or for publication is
a. Whether the study is free from flaws b. Whether the study is important enough to justify
in presentation or publication c. Whether others would be interested in the work d. All of
the above
18. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports?
a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
b. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible
c. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
19. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
a. Results b. Abstract c. Method d. Footnotes
20. The abstract should be about how many words?
a. 50 b. 75 c. 120 d. 300
21. In which of the following sections the results are interpretated and evaluated
completely?
a. Introduction b. Method c. Results d. Discussion
22. In which of the following sections the a step-by-step account of work details are
specified? a. Introduction b. Abstract c. Procedure d. Design
23. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.
a. Line graph b. Bar graph c. Scatterplot d. Vertical graph
24. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of
data.
a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics c. Conclusion d. All of the above
25. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and
making
Inferences are the difference between _______.
a. Central tendency and common tendency b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive
properties c. Descriptive and inferential d. Positive skew and negative skew
26. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysis
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
c. They provide nominally scaled data
d. None of the above
27. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a
dependent
variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.
a. Regression analysis b. Regression coefficient c. Regression equation d. Regression line
28. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two
quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs b. Pie graphs c. Line graphs d. Scatterplots
29. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores,
then the distribution of scores would be _____.
a. Positively skewed b. Negatively skewed c. Not skewed at all d. Normal
30. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regressions?
a. One b. One or more c. Two or more d. Two
31.The main purpose of research in education is to _________
a) Help in the personal growth of an individual
b) Help the candidate become an eminent educationist
c) Increase job prospects of an individual
d) Increase social status of an individual
32._______ refers to inferring about the whole population based on the observations made
on a small part.
a) Deductive inference
b) Inductive inference
c) Pseudo-inference
d) Objective inference
33. Sampling is advantageous as it ________
a) Helps in capital-saving
b) Saves time
c) Increases accuracy
d) Both (a) and (b)
34.Random sampling is helpful as it is __________.
a) An economical method of data collection
b) Free from personal biases
c) Reasonably accurate
d) All the above
35.Research and Development become the index of development of country. Which of the
following reasons are true with regards to this statement?
a) Because R&D reflect the true economic and social conditions prevailing in a country
b) Because R&D targets the human development
c) Because R&D can improve the standard of living of the people in a country
d) All the above
36.The data of research is ______
a) Qualitative only
b) Quantitative only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
37.The longitudinal approach of research deals with _________.
a) Horizontal researches
b) Long-term researches
c) Short-term researches
d) None of the above
38. Survey research studies _________
a) Circumstances
b) Events
c) Populations
d) Processes
39. Action research is a type of _______
a) Applied research
b) Quantity research
c) Survey research
d) Population research
40.Hypothesis relates ________
a) Constant to variables
b) Constant to constant
c) Variables to constant
d) Variables to variables
41. I n the purposive method of sampling design, items are selected according to
___________
a) Law of certainty
b) Law of probability
c) Personal judgement
d) None of the above
42.Primary data for the research process be collected through _______.
a) Experiment
b) Survey
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
43. A researcher wants to study the relationship of family size to income. He classifies his
population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab in
order. Which technique of sampling is he working with?
a) Cluster sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Stratified random sampling
d) Systematic sampling
44.A research problem is not feasible if __________________
a) It consists of independent and dependent variables
b) It has utility and relevance
c) It is new and adds something to knowledge
d) It is researchable
45. Determining the relationship between two or more variables occurs in _____________.
a) Correlational research
b) Action research
c) Naturalistic observation
d) Survey research
46.Participant observation is the process of immersing a researcher in the study of ______
a) Outcomes
b) Methods
c) People
d) Options
47.'Ethnography' describes _______
a) Culture
b) Way of life
c) Progeny
d) Both (a) and (b)
48.Tippit table refers to ____________
a) Table of random digits
b) Table used in sampling methods
c) Table used in statistical investigations
d) All the above
49.Type-I Error occurs if ___________________
a) the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
b) the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false
c) both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) None of the above
50. _________ is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.
a) Area sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Purposive sampling
d) Systematic sampling

Key :Unit -2

1.D 2D 3.C 4.D 5.B

6.D 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.

B

11. 12. 13. 14.B 15.

C B A C

16. 17. 18. 19.D 20.

D D D D

21. 22. 23. 24.A 25.

D C B C

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

B A A A C
31. 32. 33. 34.D 35.
B B D D

36. 37. 38. 39.A 40.

C A C D

41. 42. 43C 44.A 45.

C C . A

46. 47. 48. 49.A 50.

C D D D

Unit -3 Report Writing

1.The terms of reference for producing a specific report are given by the:

a. Peer reviewed journal

b. Secondary data
c. Primary Data
d. All three

2.The index forms a part of the

a. Glossary
b. Appendix
c. Introduction
d. All three

3.Which of the following is not a subsidiary part of a formal report?

a. Glossary
b. Appendix
c. Table of Contents
d. Bibliography

4.The chronological development of information in the body of the report is done according
to the:
a. Sequence of events occurred
b. Collection of data
c. According to the researcher’s order
d. All the three

5. The glossary is the list of:

a. Technical terms in the report
b. Diagrams included
c. References
d. Subjects covered in the report

6. Reports present conclusions based on:

a.Intuitiion
b.beleif
c.Impression
d.Investigation

7. Good research report will always provide________

a. Focus on the objectives proposed
b .irrelevant data
c. Data and references
d. All the above

8. What is presented in the findings section of a research report?

a.A discussion of the results
b.The quantitative or qualitative data that was collected
c.The theoretical foundations for the research study
d.The methods that were used to collect the data

9. What is presented in the discussion section of a research report?

a.The numerical data that was collected
b.The reasons for undertaking the study
c.A comment on the results presented in the findings section
d.Your plans for future research
10. The conclusion of a research report
a.Can introduce new information.
b.Must be based only on material presented in the report.
c.Is the same as the abstract except that it is presented at the end of the report.
d.Should focus only on the findings of the research.

11.It is unusual for final reports to have a section with

a.Expenditure Statement
b.Executive summary.
c.Forwards and recommendation.
d.All three.

12. Which report section is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the
research question?
a. Glossary
b. Appendix
c. Introduction
d. Objectives

13. The result section of a qualitative research in a readable form is represented in______
a.Diagrams
b.Graphs
c.Tables
d.Words

14.Which among these phrases is best avoided in a report?

a.Average consumption
b.Normal respondents
c.Frequently repeated data
d.All three

15. The report is NOT

a.research proposal
b.A basis of decision making
c.Future secondary data
d.All three

16. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classrooms are
assigned to treatment or control conditions. After the study, the researcher finds out that the
students in the control group are higher achievers than those in the experimental group. He
found no treatment effect. The failure to find an effect may be due to:

a. A treatment effect
b. A testing effect
c. A differential selection effect
d. A maturation effect

17. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship
between two variables is causal?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity

18. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and dependent
variables are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is accurate?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity

19. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also
influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.
a Confounding variable
b. Third variable
c. Second variable
d. Both a and b are correct

20. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure that
the investigators agree with what took place is known as ____________.
a. Interpretive validity
b. Researcher bias
c. Multiple operationalism
d. Investigator triangulation

21. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the
participant’s own words.

a. Participant feedback

b. A verbatim

c. Data triangulation

d. Investigator triangulation

22. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity?

a. Peer review
b. Theory triangulation

c. Extended fieldwork

d. Random assignment

23. The use of several measures of a construct is called:

a. Multiple operationalism

b. Multiple construct measurement

c. Operationalism

d. Methods triangulation

24. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their
performance on the dependent variable is called ________.

a. Instrumentation

b. Maturation

c. Regression

d. None of above

25. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.

a. There is a demographic research

b. The study fails

c. Some participants do not complete the study

d. The study is very brief

26. The method that consists of collection of data through observation and experimentation,
formulation and testing of hypothesis is calledMCQ bio
a) empirical method b) scientific method
c) scientific information d) practical knowledge
27. Information acquired by experience or experimentation is called as
a) empirical b) scientific c) facts d) scientific evidences

28. “All living things are made up of cells

Blue whale is a living being
Therefore blue whale is made up of cells’ the reasoning used here is
a) Inductive b) deductive c) both a and b d) hypothetical-deductive

29. Who was the proponent of deductive method

a) Francis Bacon b) Christian Huygenes c) Aristotle d) Issac Newton

30. The reasoning that uses general principle to predict specific results is called
a) inductive b) deductive c) both a and b d) hypothetico-deductive

31. The reasoning that uses specific observations to construct general principles is
a) inductive
b) deductive
c) both a and b
d) hypothetico-deductive

32. Inductive method was first proposed by

a) Francis Bacon
b) Christian Huygenes
c) Aristotle
d) Issac Newton

33. The method that starts with formulation of hypothesis and testing of hypothesis in
sequential steps where deduction applied is
a) inductive
b) deductive
c) both a and b
d) hypothetico-deductive

34. Who was the proponent of hypothetico deductive method

a) Francis Bacon
b) Christian Huygenes
 c) Aristotle
d) Issac Newton

35. All research process starts with

a) hypothesis
b) experiments to test hypothesis
c) observation
d) all of these

36. The method of reasoning in which a conclusion is drawn from two statements is called
a) empiricism
b) inductive method
c) hypothesis
d) Syllogism

37. Which of the following is a theory data collection analysis method

a) inductive
b) deductive
c) both a and b
d) hypothetico-deductive

38. Inductive reasoning is

a) data collection analysis method
b) theory data collection analysis method
c) data collection method
d) both and b

39. Constructive method that is used for construction of scientific theories in maths and
logic is a variant of
a) inductive
b) deductive
c) both a and b
d) hypothetico-deductive

40. “Human beings are made up of cells” “Cats are made up of cells”
“Pinus is made up of cells” “Ferns are made up of cells” “Therefore all living beings up
of cells’”
The reasoning used here is
 a) inductive
b) deductive
c) both a and b
d) hypothetico-deductive

41. Scientific method involves

a) Formulation of hypothesis
b) testing of hypothesis
c) analysis of data and drawing conclusion
d) all of the above

42. In scientific method, a predictive statement about observation that can be tested
scientifically is called
a) Truth
b) evidence
c) proof
d) hypothesis

43. The hypothesis which the researcher tries to disprove is called

a) alternate hypothesis
b) ad hoc hypothesis
c) null hypotheis
d) auxillary hypothesis

44. Hypothesis
a) must be based on existing knowledge
b) must be simple with high predictability
c) must be empirical
d) all of these

45. Negation of alternate hypothesis is called

a) null hypothesis
b) ad hoc hypothesis
c) alternate hypothesis
d) auxillary hypothesis

46. Testing of hypothesis is called

a) alternate hypothesis
b) experiment
 c) analysis
d) interpretation

47. At the end of research process,

a) the hypothesis will always be approved
b) the hypothesis may be rejected
c) the hypothesis may be approved or rejected
d) all of these

48. Scientifically acceptable general principle formulated to explain a phenomenon based

on experimental evidence is called
a) Law
b) Theory
c) proof
d) evidence

49. Theory is
a) dynamic
b) static
c) always true
d) none of these

50. Which of the following statements are true about law

a) law is a summary of large number of facts
b) often a statement or equation
c) Law is a universally accepted theory
d) all of the above

Key Unit -3:

1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.D

6.D 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.

B

11. 12. 13. 14.C 15.

A D D D
16. 17. 18. 19.D 20.
C A B A

21. 22. 23. 24.B 25.

B D A C

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

B A B C B

31. 32A 33. 34.B 35.

A D C

36. 37. 38. 39.B 40.

D B A A

41. 42. 43. 44.D 45.

D D C A

46. 47. 48. 49.A 50.

B C B D

Unit IV
1. The word ‘statistic’ in German means
a) Calculation b) government c) maths d) classification
2. The application of statistical methods in biology is called
a) Statistics in biology b) statistic in vivo c) biostatistics d) all of these
3. Biostatistics is also called as
a) Statistics in biology b) biometeorology c) biometry d) both a and b
4. Who is regarded as the father of biostatistics?
a) Fischer b) Karl Pearson c) Francis Galton d) Francis Bacon
5. The term ‘biometry’ was coined by
a) Fischer b) Karl Pearson c) Francis Galton d) Walter Weldon
6. The branch of biostatistics that deals with methods of collection, organization and
presentation of data is called as
a) Infererntial biostatistics b) Descriptive biostatistics
 c) both a and b d) comparative biostatistics
7. The branch of biostatistics that deals with testing of hypothesis, making predictions using
data collected is called as
a) Inferential biostatistics b) Descriptive biostatistics
c) both a and b d) comparative biostatistics
8. In biostatics, group of individuals taken for study is called as
a) block b) population c) group d) flock
9. The characteristics or quantity that may vary from one individual to another is called
a) Static group b) variable c) dynamic group d) dynamism
10. Variables whose values can be expressed numerically are called
a) quantitative variables b) qualitative variables c) absolute variables d) continuous variables
11. Collections of Information in a frequency is called
a) Data b) population c) Frequency d) none ore these
12. Total Number of Individuals in a particular are is referred
a) Frequency b) population c) analysis d) variation
13.The Middle item of the given series is
a) Mode b) mean c) median d)SD
14. Most repeated frequency in a series is known as
a) Mode b) mean c) median d)SD
15.The data which is collected by the investigator himself with a specific objective
a) Primary data b) secondary data c) population d) variable
16.The data has already been collected by some other investigator or agency referred
a) Primary data b) secondary data c) population d) variable
17. A tentative statement that offers an answer or explanation for a problem is knows as
a) Hypothesis b) data c) deviation d) sample.
18. Classified data is mostly presented in
a) Table b) graph c) diagram d) data
19.The Median for the following series 17,16,15,18,16
a)12 b)14 c)16 d)16
20.The Mode for the following series 8,9,10,10,10,12,15,17,19,19,20
a)10 b) 12 c)11 d) 15
21. The normal curve is
a) a convenient fiction. b)a bell-shaped distribution)the standard against which all other
distributions are assessed. d)the typical frequency curve for psychological data.
22. The normal curve is
a) bimodal. b) symmetrical. c) multimodal. d) asymmetrical
23. For a normal curve, the mean, median and mode are
a)the mean is always the largest and the mode always the smallest.
b)all equal. c)all zero. d)all different.
24. Which of the following is the most accurate?
a) If your scores do not follow the normal distribution then your statistical analysis will not
be very accurate.
b) If you have more than thirty scores then it is essential that they are normally distributed.
c) There are many statistical tests which will tell you whether your scores are normal
distribute
d) Quite substantial deviations from the normal distribution generally make relatively little
difference to your statistical analysis
25. Kurtosis refers to:
a) the relative steepness or shallowness of a curve compared to the normal distribution.
b) the relative steepness or shallowness of a curve compared to the rest of the data.
c)the narrowness of the range of scores.
d)the number of steps in a histogram.
26.A flat curve is technically:
a)leptokurtic b)a platypus. c) a platypoid. d) None of these.
27. Data is called
a) Collection of Information b) Downloaded document c) hard copy d) frequency
28. The relationship between two frequencies is referred
a) Mean b) Correlation c) mode d) None of these.
29.The middle value of the given frequency
a) mean b) median c) mode d) SD
30. The distribution of repeated frequencies in a series is called
a)SD b) correlation c) regression d) mode.

Keys:
1. B 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.D 6. B 7.A 8.B 9. B 10.A
11.A 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.A 19.D 20.A
21. C 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.A 26.D 27.A 28.B 29.B 30. D
Unit – V

1. A good qualitative problem statement:

a. Defines the independent and dependent variables b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find

2. The “tool” function of theory is to:

a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories
3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of peoplee to be used in the study
d. Describe the study

4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive
development of school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive
development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities to
conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the variables
being investigated

5.A qualitative research question:

a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above

6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart
of
the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose

7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information
obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True b. False c. Not to be predicted d. all of these

8. One step that is notincluded in planning a research study is:

a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research

9. Sources of researchable problems can include:

a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above

10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is
that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
c. All of these d. None of these

11. Which of the following is a function of theory?

a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory

12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to
do
which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodologicalproblems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above

13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not
recommended by grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False
c.to be calculated
d.the data is invalid for the source

14. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?

a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such asthe correctness of having prayer in schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use

15. Which of the following is not

a database containing information to be used during the literature review?
a. ERIC
b. PsychINFO
c. SocioFILE
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases
16. Computer database searches can be done:
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above

17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above

18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally
______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. b and c

19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly stated”?
“The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of patients
with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. The
study was conducted on one of the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a
374-bed community hospital.”
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated
c.well established
d.not to be used for data analysis

20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?

a. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic
performance?”
b. “What effect does playing high school footballhave on students’ overall grade point
average
during the football season?”

21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriateparticipants, research methods, measures, and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion

23. Research hypotheses are ______.

a. Formulated priorto a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c

24. Hypotheses in qualitativeresearch studies usually _____.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generatedas the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

25. A research plan _____.

a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above

26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures

27. The Introduction section of the research plan

a. Gives an overview ofprior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it
includes
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above

28. According to your text, which of the following is nota source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
Answers:
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. D 28. D

Semester III
Core VII: Gene technology Course code : P15BT207

1. A plant called Rauwolfia serpentina is under the threat of extinction. To save this plant,
whichtechnique is highly useful?
a. genetic engineering b. DNA finger printing
c. hybridoma technology d. in vitro culture
2. Which group of enzymes are popularly called “Molecular stickers”?
a. Restriction Endonuclease b. Ligases
c. RNA polymerase d. DNA polymerase
3. A clone is a group of organisms produced by…………
a. Asexual method and genetically similar b. Asexual method and genetically dissimilar
c. Sexual method and genetically similar d. Sexual method and genetically dissimilar
4. Match the following:
a. Restriction endonuclease p . Kary Mullis
b. DNA Finger printing q. Kohler and Milstein
c. Polymerase chain reaction r. Alec Jaffrey’s
d. Monoclonal antibodies s. Arber
a. a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q b. a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
c. a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s d. a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
5. Some of the steps involved in Gene Cloning are given below
i. Insertion of isolated gene to the vector
ii. Introduction of recombinant vector to the host
iii. Isolation of desired gene
iv. Expression of recombinant gene in host
v. Extraction of recombinant gene product
The correct sequence of steps involved are
a. iii, i, iv, ii, v b. iii, i, ii, iv, v
c. i, ii, iii, iv, v d. ii, i, iii, iv, v
6. E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because………….
a. it supports the replication of recombinant DNA
b. it is easy to transform
c. it is free from elements that interferes with replication and recombination of DNA
d. all of these
7. Which one of the following statements about Restriction Endonuclease is true?
a. All restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sites
b. All restriction endonucleases cut DNA at random sites
c. All restriction endonucleases join DNA segments at specific sites
d. All restriction endonucleases join DNA at random sites
8. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site called as…………..
a. Ligation site b. Ori
c. Recognition sequence d. Replication site
9. Restriction endonucleases, when present in a host cell act on foreign DNA molecule and
cleave them, but they do not act on host DNA molecule. It happens because………………
a. Restriction endonuclease cannot act on host DNA
b. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes
c. Host DNA is methylated hence restriction endonucleases can’t act.
d. Restriction endonucleases become inactive when they reach host DNA
10. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from………
a. E.coli only b. E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage
c. Saccharomyces d .Retroviruses
11. The presence of Restriction endonucleases were postulated in 1960 by………….
a. Khorana b. Watson
c. Crick d. Arber
12. Restriction endonucleases are also called as………….
a. Molecular scissors b. Molecular stickers
c. DNA synthesis d. Polymerases
13. In restriction endonuclease EcoR1, “E” stands for………….
a. extraction b. the first letter of the genus in which it is present
c. endonuclese d. endangered
14. EcoR1 cleaves DNA at…………………..
 a. 5/G AATTC3/ b. 5/GTT↓AAC3/
3/ CTTAA G5/ 3/ CAA↑TTG5/
c. 5/C↓AATTG3/ d. 5/GGGCC↓T3/
GTTAA↑C5/ 3/CCCGG↑A5/
15. Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequences on DNA called as………
a. non-coding sequences b. satellites
c. palindromes with rotational symmetry d. tandem repeats
16. Main tools required for recombinant DNA technology are……….
a. vector, desired gene
b. vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host, restriction enzymes, ligases
c. desired gene, host, vector
d. vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host
17. An example for autonomously replicating mini chromosome is…………..
a. virus b. phage
c. plasmid d. lichen
18. T4 DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from………
a. E.coli b. T4 phage c. Saccharomyces d. Retroviruses
19. Using of genetic technique in forensic science is also called…………..
a. genetic finger printing b. In vitro culture
c. hybridoma technology d. gene therapy
20. cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means…………..
a. competetive DNA b. chemical DNA
c. complex DNA d. complementary DNA
21. Match the following
1. Restriction endonucleases p. Small DNA segments used in DNA finger
prints
2. Ligases q. Molecular scissors
3. Probe r. Virus free plants
4. Meristem culture s. Molecular stichers
a. 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r b. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
c. 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p d. 1-p, 2-s, 3-q, 4-r
22. A segment of DNA that reads the same from forward and backward is called……………..
a. palindromic DNA b. complementary DNA
c. plasmid DNA d. copy DNA
23. The restriction endonucleases are called so because………..
a. they have a very restrictive or site specific endonuclease activity
b. they cut DNA at a few restricted sites
c. they restrict the entry of foreign DNA into the cell by cleaving the DNA due to their
endonuclease activity
d. their distribution is restricted to only some bacterial cells
24. Which one of the following organism is used for the large scale production of recombinant
insulin?
a. Plasmodium b. Agrobacterium
c. Rhizobium d. E.coli
25. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves……………
a. cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and joining with ligase
b. cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with endonuclease
c. cleaving and joining DNA with restriction endonuclease
d. cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and joining with polymerase
26. ECOR1 is a…………….
a. DNA ligase enzyme b. restriction endonuclease
c. a vector used for insulin synthesis d. a plasmid used as a vector
27. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by joining together…………….
a. one mRNA with a DNA segment b. one mRNA with a tRNA segment
c. two mRNA molecules d. Two DNA segments
28. A gene produced for recombinant DNA technology contains a gene from one organism
joined to the regulatory sequence of another gene. Such a gene is called as………….
a. oncogene b. junk gene
c. chimeric gene d. None of the above
29. Restriction endonucleases have the ability of cutting
a. DNA at random sites b. DNA at specific sites
c. Both a and b d. DNA and RNA at random sites
30. Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA
a. Externally b. Internally
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither a nor b
31. Insulin, a protein, consisting of…………….
a. 2 Polypeptide chains b. 3 Polypeptide chains
c. 4 Polypeptide chains d. more than 4 Polypeptides chains
32. The first human protein produced through recombinant DNA technology is………………
a insulin b. erythropoietin
c. interferon d. somatostatin
33. Humulin, a genetically engineered insulin was produced for the first time by………….
a. Biocon India Limited b. Glaxo
c. Elililly and Company d. Cipla
34. The first licenced drug produced through genetic engineering is………….
a. interferon b. insulin
c. penicillin d. somatotropin
35. The bacterium used for gene transfer in plants is…………
a. E.coli b. Rhizobium
c. Azatobacter d. Agrobacterium
36. Match the following Scientists associated with
1. Murashige and Skoog p . Restriction Endonuclease
2. Milstein and Kohler q. Golden rice
3. Potricus and Beyer r. Plant Tissue culture media
4. Arber and Nathan s. Hybridoma Technology
a. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s b. 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q
c. 1-r, 2-s, 3-q, 4-p d. 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
37. POMATO, is…..
a. a transgenic plant
b. a plant obtained through protoplast hybridization
 c. a plant obtained by organ culture
d. a plant developed by plant breeding method
38. Chimera, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means
a.Competetive DNA b. Chemical DNA
c. Complex DNA d. Recombinant DNA
39. Which of the following statements is true about developing cDNA?
a. Mature mRNA directs the formation of the DNA
b. Mature mRNA doesn’t contain introns
c.DNA taken from the nucleus is used
d.Both a&b are true
40. S1 nucleases cut ………………..
a. Double stranded DNA b.circular DNA
c. Recognition sequence d. Replication site
41. …………………enzyme is used for adding nucleotide at the end of the DNA strand.
a. Terminal transferase b.Ligase
c. Kinase d. Alkaline phosphatase
42. Chromosome jumping was observed by…………
a.Collins&Wissman b.Alec Jaffery
c.Schwartz et.al d. GIllmet et.al
43. Cutting certain genes out of molecules of DNA requires the use of special ……………..
a. degrading nucleases. b. restriction endonucleases.
c. eukaryotic enzymes. d. viral enzymes.
44. In Cohen and Boyer's recombinant DNA experiments, restriction endonucleases were
used to……..
a. isolate fragments of cloned bacterial plasmids.
b. isolate fragments of frog DNA that contained an rRNA gene.
c. cleave the bacterial plasmid.
d. All of these are correct.
45. A DNA library is…………….
a. a general collection of all genes sequenced thus far.
 b. a collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular
organism.
c. a DNA fragment inserted into a vector.
d. all DNA fragments identified with a probe.
46. A method used to distinguish DNA of one individual from another is …………..
a. polymerase chain reaction. b . cDNA.
c. reverse transcriptase. d. restriction fragment length
polymorphism.
47. Which of the following cannot be used as a vector?
a. phage b. plasmid
c. bacterium d. All can be used as vectors.
48. Who won Nobel prize for physiology for their discovery of restriction endonucleases?
a. Jacob and Monad b. Smith, Nathans and Arber
c Watson and Crick d. Alec Jaffrey’s and Milstein
49. After combining DNA fragments in a cloning experiment, ___ is used to covalently join
the DNA segments.
a. Restriction endonuclease b. DNA Ligase
c. Reverse transcriptase d. DNA polymerase
50. Which one of the following enzyme is used to avoid the recircularization of DNA?
a.alkaline phosphatase b.Phosphokinase
c.S1 nuclease d. all of these.

UNIT I

1. d 2.b 3.a 4.a 5.b 6.d 7.a 8.c 9.c 10.b

11. d 12. a 13.b 14.a 15.c 16.b 17.c 18.b 19.a 20.d
21. a 22.a 23.a 24.d 25.a 26.b 27.d 28.d 29.b 30.a
 31. a 32.a 33.a 34.b 35.d 36.c 37.a 38.d 39.d 40.b
41.a 42.a 43.b 44.d 45.b 46.d 47.d 48.2 49.b 50.a

Unit II

1 . A shuttle vector is usually constructed by endonucleases, a group of enzymes that cleave

DNA of
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
2. Yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs. are normally
a. shuttle‐vectors b. Expression vectors
c. Plasmid vectors d. Replication Vectors
3. ………behave both as plasmids and as phages
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
4. YACs behave like ………existing chromosomes
a. Artificially b. Naturally
c. Two mRNA molecules d. Two DNA segments
5.Blue colonies contain………White colonies contain…………..
a. empty vector, recombinant DNA b. empty DNA , recombinant vector
c. DNA Vector , recombinant Vector d. All of the above
6. MACs could represent a tool for studying the structure and function of chromosomes
of…..
a. Higher eukaryotes b. Higher prokaryotes
c. Lower eukaryotes d. Lower prokaryotes
7. Bacterial artificial chromosome's usual similar cloning vector called ……..
a. BAC b. HAC
c.YAC d. PAC
8.The specific features of Vectors are……….
a. Depends upon the type of gene b. Transferring the genetic material
c. Acts like a vehicles d. All of the above
9. Plasmids are widely used as………
a. Apoproteins b. Glycoproteins
c. Lipoproteins d. Cloning Vehicles
10.Vectors are the vehicles that carry the ……..for cloning.
a. Gene b. Clone
c. Sequence d. Chromosomes
11. Different forms of Plasmids are
a. Covalently closed circles (CCC. &Open circles (OC.
b. Linear or straight DNA plasmid
c. Super coiled circles
d. All of the above
12. Yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs. can be amplified in
a. Oncogene b. Junk gene
c. Chimeric gene d. Bacteria
13..…………is a mixture of unmodified & modified phage λ DNAs
a. Topoisomerase Enzyme b. Gyrase Enzyme
c. Ligase enzyme d. Restriction enzymes
14. Expression vectors allowing the exogenous DNA to be
a. Inserted b. Stored
c. Expressed c. All of the above
15.Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil ……..causing a disease called Crown gall disease
a. Virus b. Protozoan
c. Algae d. Bacterium
16. Shuttle vectors can propagate in
a. E.coli only b. E.coli and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c. Saccharomyces d. Retroviruses
17.The crown gall is a…………
a. Animal tumor b. Plant tumour
c. Both A& B d. None of the above
18. BACs are often used to sequence the genome of organisms, e.g of this is
a. Genome organization b. Human Genome Project
c. Genome Mapping d. DNA polymerase
19……… packaged as single stranded DNA in viral particles
a. Phagemid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
20.These are used for DNA sequencing &Site-specific in-vitro mutagenesis
a. Phages b. Cosmids
c. Plasmids d.YAC
21.In the life cycle of M13 phage, the stage III contains ………….minutes of post infection
a.19 minutes b. 20 minutes
c. 21 minutes d.22 minutes
22. In Human Genome Project the sequenced parts are rearranged ……..
a.In silico b. In vivo
c. Invitro d. All of these
23.Enzymes which attack & cleaves foreign DNA are called……..
a. Topoisomerase Enzyme b. Gyrase Enzyme
c. Ligase enzyme d. Restriction enzymes
24. A………..contains an f1 origin of replication from a F1 phage
a. Phagemid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
25. Common gene components of BACs are
a. repE b. parA and parB
c. Selectable marker d. All of the above
26. The genomes of several large DNA viruses and RNA viruses have been cloned as
a. BAC b. HAC
c.YAC d. PAC
27. ...........can be used as a type of cloning vector in combination with filamentous phage
M13.
a. Phagemid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
28. The infectious property of these BACs has made the study of many viruses such as
a. Herpesviruses b. Poxviruses
c. Coronaviruses d. All of these
29. Utilizing YACs and BACs lead to
a. Unpredictable problems b. Inborn Diseases
c. Tay Sacs Disease d. None of these
30. A phagemid can be replicated as a…….
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
31. HACs contained DNA of interest such as
a. Telomeric sequences b. Centromeric sequences
c. Monomeric sequences d. Both a & b
32.YAC and BAC are widely used for
a. Cloning small DNA fragments b. Cloning large DNA fragments
c. Cloning small Introns d. Cloning large Exons
33. A normal human DNA is about
a.3  108bp b. 3  109bp
c. 2 108bp d. 2 109bp
34. ………DNA is 1st cleaved by Hind-III enzyme
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
35.BAC is used for
a. Transforming b.Cloning
c. Both a & b d.None of the above
36.BAC can hold …………. inserts, avg……..
a. Small,150kb to 350 kbp b. Large,100kb to 350 kbp
c. Large, 150kb to 350 kbp d. Small,100kb to 350 kbp
37.BAC contains….
a. Chloramphenicol-resistance gene b. Ampicillin resistance gene
c. Chloramphenicol gene d. Ampicillin gene
38.………is the only vector that can hold a megabase or more of DNA
a. BAC b. YAC
c. HAC d. PAC
39.YAC start out as a circular plasmid and is ……………. prior to use
a. Circular b. Coiled
c. Linearized d. Super coiled
40.YAC can clone large DNA fragments of about
a. 100 kb to 3000 kb b. 200 kb to 3000 kb
c. 300 kb to 3000 kb d. 400 kb to 3000 kb
41………..are the vectors that can shuttle between more than one host.
a. Shuttle‐vectors b. Expression vectors
c. Plasmid vectors d. Replication Vectors
42. .………..recognizes the methyl group at appropriate sites
a. Virus b. Protozoan
c. Algae d. Bacterium
43. Genetic approaches on either linear or circular targeting vectors to carry the…….
a. Homologous recombination b. Heterologous recombination
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
44. ……….were created before human artificial chromosomes
a. HACs and BACs b. PACs and BACs
c. YACs and PACs d. YACs and BACs
45. In M 13 phage, the M- strands for…….
a. Mexico city b. Munich city
c. Madagasker City d. Merryland City
46. Most of the vectors for use in eukaryotic cells are constructed as……….
a. Shuttle‐vectors b. Expression vectors
c. Plasmid vectors d. Replication Vectors
47. Tobacco, Tomato plants are used for ………..cloning
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid
48. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome is a DNA construct based on
a. Col plasmid b. E plasmid
c. PBR322 plasmid d. F plasmid
49. Which of these is a key characteristic of an Ideal vector?
a. High molecular weight
b. Multiple site for a single number of restriction enzyme
c. Self replication ability
d. It must have 10 phenotypic markers.
50. The combination of Cos ends and plasmids are called as…..
a. Plasmid b. Bacteria
c. Cosmid d. Fosmid

UNIT II

1. a 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.a 6.a 7.d 8.d 9.d 10.a

11. d 12. d 13.d 14.c 15.d 16.b 17.b 18.b 19.a 20.a
21.b 22.c 23.d 24.a 25.d 26.a 27.a 28.d 29.a 30.a
31. d 32.b 33.b 34.c 35.c 36.c 37.a 38.b 39.c 40.a
41.a 42.d 43.a 44.d 45.b 46.a 47.a 48.d 49.c 50.c

UNIT -III
1.Gene sequencing method is essential………..
a. To know the molecular weight of the protein
 b. To know the amino acid sequence
c. To understand the function of gene
d. All of these.
2. ------------- method is the first readily available sequencing method.
a. Maxam and Gilbert b. Sanger
c. Next generation sequencing d. Wilmut
3. Maxam and Gilbert method is otherwise known as……
a.Plus –minus method b.chemical mediated sequencing
c.Chain termination method d.both b and c
4.3’ end of the DNA molecule always has……
a.OH b.PO4
c.NH4 d.COOH
5. Dideoxy nucleotide is a synthetic nucleotide molecule which lacks---------
a.OH groups at the 3’ end b.H groups at the 3’ end
c.PO4 at the 5’ end d. none of these
6.During replication,which molecule play a vital role for the formation of phosphodiester
bond?
a.3’ hydroxyl group b. 3’ phosphate group
c.5’ amino group d. 5’ carboxyl group
7. Sanger method of DNA sequencing developed in the year……………
a.1977 b.1980
c.1987 d.1990
8. Which one of the following radioisotopes is used for labelling the DNA during the
sequencing?
a.32p b.35p
c.both a&b d.38p
9. Autoradiography method used for……..
a. detecting radioactivity b.quantifying radioactivity
c.botha&b d. None of these
10. -------- is the first sequenced organism in 1977 by Cambridge university.
 a. lamda phage 174 b. Arabidopsis thaliana
c.Adenovirus d.Hepatitis
11. ddNTPS are……………….
a.dedeoxy nucleotide triphosphate.
b. dideoxy nucleotide triphosphate.
c. dimer deoxy nucleotide triphosphate.
d. dideoxy nucleotide tetraphosphate.
12. Which one of the following organism having single stranded DNA genome?
a.M 13 b.E.coli
c.lambda phage d.Retrovirus
13. DNA sequencing is much easier than RNA sequencing due to ……
a. greater stability of DNA b. is more fast
c.is more reliable d. all of these
14. What is the role adding sodium dodecyl sulfate during isolation-purification of plasmid
DNA?
a. it causes cell lysis b. removes RNA
c. improves recovery of the DNA d.it brings the plasmid out of the cell.
15. In DNA isolation, Phenol is used to……..
a. precipitate DNA b. denature and extract the proteins
c. improves the recovery of DNA d. none of these
16.PBR322 has…….
a.50 copies/cell b.15 copies/cell
c.500 copies/cell d.5 copies/cell
17……………………… affects replication of chromosomes but allows the
extrachromosomal DNA replication.
a.chloramphenicol b.amphicillin
c.kannamycin d.streptomycin
18…………………….DNA is not possible to run through agarose gel electrophoresis?
a.Open circular DNA b.Circular DNA
c. Chromosomal DNA d. Phage DNA
19.Polyanions are…….
a.polynucleotide of DNA b.polynucleotide of RNA
c.botha&b d.none of these
20. Which size of the DNA can be separated by 0.8% agarose gel electrophoresis?
a.0.5 to 10 kb b.10 to 20 kb
c.5 to 10 kb d.50 to 100 kb

21. Defined medium is………

a.components are unknown b. all the components are known
c.both a&b d. none of these
22.Lysozyme is found in……..
a.egg white b.saliva
c.tears d.all of these
23. Boom method is used for……….
a.purification of DNA b.lysis of cell wall
c.precipitation the protein. d.all of these
24. Luria bertani medium is a…..
a. defined medium b.selective medium
c.undefined medium d.none of these
25.Which one of the following is a example for defined medium?
a. Nutrient agar medium b. M9 medium
c. Luria bertani medium d.none of these
26………………… agent is distrupting the cell membrane during the isolation of DNA?
a.EDTA b. Lysozyme
c. both a&b d. none of these.
27. EDTA is………
a.ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
b.ethyldiamino tetra acetic acid
c. ethane diamine tri acetic acid
d. ethylene deoxytrichloroacetic acid
28. In DNA recovery, before the phenol extraction the cell extract is treated with…….
a.Proteinase K b.pronase
c.protease d.all of these
29.DNA is……………. molecule
a.negatively charged b.positively charged
c.neutral charged d.botha&b
30………………chromatography is used to purify the DNA
a.ion-exchange chromatography b.column chromatography
c.thin layer chromatography d.paper chromatography.
31. During the bacterial DNA isolation, DNA will be in a solution of……………..
a.aqeous phase b.pellet
c.interphase d.all of these
32. At which temperature, absolute ethanol efficiently precipitates polymeric nucleic acids?
a._20⁰C b.-25⁰C
c.-37⁰C d.-40⁰C
33.pBR322 derived from……
a.pBR313 b.COLE1
c. both a&b d. none of these
34. pBR327 is a………….
a.first generation plasmid b.second generation plasmid
c. third generation plasmid d.fertility plasmid
35. Second generation of plasmid synthesis starts from………..
a.1977 b.1967
c.1957 d.1997
36. Who prepared the plasmid pBR322?
a. Bolivar and Rodriguiz b. Brown and Robert
c. Bernez and Rotriguiz d. Bolivar & Robert
37. pAT 153 and pXf3 is a derivative plasmid of……..
a. pBR322 b.pUC
c.YAC d.BAC
38. pBR322 is………………..bp long.
a.4362 b.4363
c.6342 d.6343
39.pBR327 is derived from pBR322 by deletion of nucleotide between………………
a.1427 to 2516 b.1247 to 2156
c. 127 to 516 d. 247 to 256
40. ---------------- is served as marker gene in pBR322.
a.amphicillin b. tetracyclin
c. both a&b d. none of these.
41.In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain
elongation?
a.the incorporation of a regular DNA nucleotide
b.the incorporation of a dideoxynucleotide
c.denaturation of the double-stranded test fragments
d.when the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon
42.In recombinant DNA technology, a selected gene is removed from an animal, plant, or
microorganism, and is inserted into what?
a. An oligonucleotide b. a primer
c. A cloning host d. a vector
43. The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel in the gel electrophoresis technique
is primarily based on what factor?
a. The size of the DNA fragments b. The number of DNA fragments
c The negative charge of the DNA d. The volume of the DNA sample loaded
44.Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs. are used in sequencing DNA because:
a. ddNTPs are fluorescent.
b. ddNTPs are incorporated very efficiently into DNA by DNA polymerase.
c. ddNTPs cannot be incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase.
d. ddNTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.
45. Which of the following is NOT required for a PCR reaction?
a. A thermostable DNA polymeraseb. Dideoxy-dNTPs (ddNTPs.
c. Primersd. Template DNA
46. Plasmid vectors used in cloning often contain a gene for the N-terminal 146 amino acids
of the enzyme β-galactosidase. What is the purpose of including this gene in the vector?
a. It allows selection of E. coli host cells that contain the plasmid.
b. It allows selection of E. coli host cells that contain plasmid in which the insert has been
ligated.
c. It cleaves the insert to allow it to be ligated into the vector.
d. It enables the plasmid vector to replicate in E. coli host cells.
47.If you wanted to clone the largest DNA fragments possible, which vector element would
you use?
a. plasmid b. bacteriophage lambda
c. YAC d. cosmid
48. An enzyme found in retroviruses (like HIV. that can be used to prepare DNA fragments
from mRNA is called----------
a. reverse transcriptase b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA polymerase d. integrase
49. To be useful in the preparation of recombinant DNA, a plasmid must have…………
a. No origin of replication
b. An origin of replication
c. The ability to alternate between the linear and circular forms
d. Restriction endonuclease activity
50. The bacterium used as the model for genetic recombination and engineering in plants
is………………
a. Salmonella typhimurium b. E.coli
c. Torulopsis glabrata d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

UNIT III

1. d 2.a 3.b 4.a 5.a 6.a 7.a 8.a 9.c 10.a

 11. b 12. a 13.d 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.a 18.a 19.a 20.a
21. d 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.a 27.d 28.a 29.a 30.a
31. a 32.b 33.a 34.a 35.a 36.a 37.a 38.a 39.a 40.c
41.b 42.d 43.a 44.d 45.b 46.b 47.c 48.a 49.b 50.d

UNIT - IV
1.E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because………..
a. it supports the replication of recombinant DNA
b. it is easy to transform
c. it is free from elements that interferes with replication and recombination of DNA
d. all of these
2.During gene therapy, the possible ways through which the genes can be introduced into the
cell are
a. micro injection b. some viruses
c. both 1 and 2 d. erythrocytes
3. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into an animal cells is called
a. transversion b. conversion
c. inversion d. transfection
4. With reference to biotechnology, microinjection is a method of
a. injecting a solution of DNA into the nucleus of a cell
b. injecting nutrients into a cell culture media
c. injecting microbes into a cell culture media
d. injecting medicine to human beings
5. A segment of DNA that reads from the same forward and backward is called
a. palindromic DNA b. complementary DNA
c. plasmid DNA d. copy DNA
6. Which one of the following organism is used for the large scale production of recombinant
insulin?
a. Plasmodium b. Agrobacterium
c. Rhizobium d. E.coli
7. The bacterium used for gene transfer in plants is……………
a. E.coli b. Rhizobium
c. Azatobacter d. Agrobacterium
8. Bacterial DNA is not cleaved by their own restriction enzymes because bacteria add------
--- to their own DNA.
a.Peptides b.Glyphosphate
c.Methyl groups d.Nucleotides
9. The length of poly A tail is about------------
a.20-250bp b.6-14 bp
c.9-50 bp d.10-125 bp
10. Biolistic transformation method is proposed by,
a.Sanford et.al b. Van der krol
c.Schwartz et.al d.Kary mullis
11. The most popular method of extraction&purification of plasmid DNA proposed
by……….
a.Bimbom and Doly b.Gorden
c.Gillam et.al d.Collins
12.Which one of the following organisms is normally the next choice after E.coli as a host
in gene technology?
a.S.cerevisiae b. Pseudomonas
c. Bacillus d. Mammalian cells
13. Polyethylene glycol stimulates-------------- and therefore DNA uptake occurs.
a.Pinocytosis b.Phagocytosis
c.Endocytosis d. None of these.
14.Which one of the following chemical not used for transfer the DNA?
a. PEG b.DEAE
c. DMSO d. All of these.
15. Liposomes are……………
a. artificial phospholipid vesicles b.synthetic organelle
c.both a&b d.none of these.
16. Which statement is NOT true about a retrovirus?
a. It may cause cancer or AIDS.
b. It contains reverse transcriptase.
c. It is known to cause diseases only in animals, not in humans.
d. It has the capacity to integrate cDNA into the host DNA of the cell it infects.
17.One bacterial cell passes DNA to a second cell in the process of ………
a.transformation. b.transduction.
c.conjugation. d.infection.
18.Bacterial cells pick up free pieces of DNA from the medium–pieces that were secreted
by
live bacteria or released from dead bacteria–in a process called ………….
a.transformation. b.transduction.
c.conjugation. d.infection.
19. Bacteriophages carry portions of bacterial DNA from one cell to another in a process
called
a.transformation. b. transduction.
c. conjugation. d.infection.
20. Microinjection method of DNA transfer preferred………
a. Plants cells only b .Animal cells only
c. Both animal and plant cells d. Actinomycetes
21. Electroporation enhances the transformation efficiencies by………..
a.Colcemide treatment b.CaCl2 treatment
c.EtBr treatment d. None of these
22. Transfer of recombinant plasmid into E. coli cells needs
a. Heat treatment b. UV rays treatment
c. CaCl2 treatment d. Lysis
23. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into an animal cells is called
a. Transversion b. Conversion
c. Inversion d. Transfection
24. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionized plant genetic engineering, one limitation of
its use is that it …………..
a. cannot infect broad leaf plants.
b. cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants.
c. cannot transmit prokaryotic genes.
d. does not infect cereal plants such as corn and rice.
25…………… method of direct gene transfer using bacteria into the target cell, tissue,
organ or organism.
a. bactofection b.lipofection
c.electofusion d. Lysis
26. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is…..
a. electroporation b electrofision
c.electrofusion d.electrolysis
27. Which of the following chemical enhance the vir gene expression?
a.cyanidin b. glutenin
c. acetosyringone d. dextran
28. Chemical used for gene transfer method includes……..
a.dextran b.poly ethylene glycol
c. CaCl2 d. all the above
29. Which of the following statements are true for agrobacterium mediated gene transfer?
a.vir gene are essential for gen transfer
b.T-DNA borders are essential for gene transfer
c. both a&b
d. none of these
30. Which of the following bacterium consider as natural genetic engineer?
a.Agrobacterium tumefaciens b.Agrobacterium radiobacter
c.Psueudomonas putida d.Thermus aquaticus
31. The removal or replacement of tumor causing gene from Ti plasmid is termed as…………
a.gene replacement b.gene displacement
c.disarming d.insertional inactivation
32. The transformation method that uses golden or tungsten particles coated with DNA
accelerated at high velocity is…………….
a.acceleration method b.high velocity method
c.particle gun delivery method d.DNA particle delivery method
33. DNA solution directly injected into the cell using micromanipulators is called as…..
a.microinjection b.macroinjection
c.microfection d.micromanipulator mediated gene transfer.
34. The injection of DNA into developing inflorescence using a hypodermic syringe is
called………..
a.microinjection b.macroinjection
c.microfection d.micromanipulator mediated gene transfer
35.Fibre mediated DNA delivery uses…….
a.silicon carbide b.aluminium carbide
c.boron carbide d.lead carbide
36. Which of the following is NOT a critical function of competence factors?
a. Transportation of DNA fragments into bacterial cells.
b. Binding of DNA to a cell surface receptor.
c. Degradation of one strand of the transforming DNA.
d. Degradation of the bacterial chromosome in the presence of single stranded DNA.
37. Which of the following is not a protein or group of proteins required for conjugation to
occur?
a.the relaxosome. b.pilin protein.
c.the origin of transfer. d.coupling protein.
38. How is genetic transfer different from sexual reproduction?
a.In genetic transfer, genetic material is transferred from one individual to another.
b. In sexual reproduction, genetic material from two individuals is mixed equally.
c. In both processes, the individual donating genetic material retains their original
complement of genetic material.
d. None of these.
39. How might the results of Bernard Davis's U tube experiment have been different if each
strain were only mutant for a single gene?
a.There would be no difference.
b.Transformation by small pieces of DNA could restore gene function.
c.Conjugation would not be required to change the phenotype of the bacterial strains.
d.none of these
40. The end result of F factor mediated conjugation:
a. is that both strains are F+.
b. involves transfer of the entire bacterial chromosome.
c. converts the recipient strain to F+ and the donor to F-.
d. A and B.
41. How might the function of extracellular endonucleases help protect the bacterium from
infection by viruses?
a. They would prevent the virus from binding to the outside of the bacterial cell.
b. They would destroy the viral coat, so it cannot inject its genetic material.
c. They would cut the viral DNA into small pieces.
d. All of the above.
42. What do transduction, transformation, and conjugation have in common?
a. All require presence of an outside factor to facilitate gene transfer.
b. In all three processes, DNA is transferred as a single stranded molecule.
c. They all transfer large pieces of DNA into recipient cells.
d. All of the above.
43. Virulent phages generally follow the ……… cycle when infecting bacteria.
a.lysogenic b.lytic
c.both a&b d.none of these
44. Hfr strains of bacteria contain ………… that include some genes from the bacterial
chromosome.
a.F factors b.G factors
c. H factors d.R factors
45. Conjugation involves …………….. of genetic material from one bacterium to another.
a. direct transfer b. indirect transfer
c. virus mediated transfer d. Vector mediated transfer
46. Which of the following is a description of generalized transduction?
a. Inaccurate excision of prophage can occasionally remove a small portion of the bacterial
chromosome.
b. Random pieces of bacterial DNA can become incorporated into a phage coat.
c. Pieces of bacterial DNA may be released into the culture medium when a cell is lysed.
d. All of these.
47. How is genetic transfer different from sexual reproduction?
a. In genetic transfer, genetic material is transferred from one individual to another.
b. In sexual reproduction, genetic material from two individuals is mixed equally.
c. In both processes, the individual donating genetic material retains their original
complement of genetic material.
d. None of these.
48. Which type(s. of genetic transfer lead to incorporation of new DNA into the bacterial
chromosome?
I. Conjugation mediated by F factor
II. Hfr mediated conjugation
III. Transduction
IV. Transformation
a.I and II only b.III and IV only
c.II, III, and IV d.none of these.
49. A clone is a group of organisms produced by
a. asexual method and genetically similar
b. asexual method and genetically dissimilar
c. sexual method and genetically similar
d. sexual method and genetically dissimilar
50. Transgenic organisms are……………….
a. produced by gene transfer technology
b. extinct organisms
c. naturally occurring and endemic
d. produced by traditional plant breeding technique

UNIT IV

1. d 2.b 3.d 4.a 5.a 6.d 7.d 8.c 9.a 10.a

11. a 12. a 13.a 14.c 15.c 16.d 17.a 18.a 19.b 20.b
21.a 22.c 23.d 24.c 25.a 26.a 27.c 28.d 29.c 30.a
31.d 32.c 33.a 34.b 35.a 36.d 37.c 38.c 39.b 40.a
41.d 42.d 43.a 44.a 45.a 46.d 47.c 48.c 49.c 50.a

UNIT - V
1.The technique is used to study protein-DNA interaction both outside and with in the cell is
called…….
a. RAPD b. RFLP
c. DNA finger printing d. DNA foot printing
2.RFLP represents a stretch of DNA that serves as a ………. for mapping a specified gene.
a. Cofactor b. Marker
c. Template d. Primer
3.RAPD is a method based on…………technique
a. Western blotting b. PCR
c. FPLC d. RFLP
4. .PCR was invented by………
a. Claude Bernard b. Kary Mullis
c. Alec. J. Jeffrey d. Ross Harrison
5.DNA fingerprinting was invented by………..
a. Claude Bernard b. Kary Mullis
c. Alec. J. Jeffrey d. Ross Harrison
6.The only difference between people (or any animal. is the order of…………..
a. Chemical Structure b. Protein Structure
c. DNA Sequence d. Base pairs
7.Denaturation temperature normally occur around…….
a. 55° C b. 72° C
c. 92° C d. 97° C
8. Annealing temperature normally occur around…….
a. 55° C b. 72° C
c. 92° C d. 97° C
9. Extention temperature normally occur around…….
a. 55° C b. 72° C
c. 92° C d. 97° C
10.Northern Blotting is useful to probe………
a. DNA b. RNA
c. Protein d. Enzyme
11. Western Blotting is useful to probe………
a. DNA b. RNA
c. Protein d. Enzyme
12. Southern Blotting is useful to probe………
a. DNA b. RNA
c. Protein d. Enzyme
13.PCR was invented in the year……..
a. 1884 b. 1885
c. 1984 d. 1985
14. DNA fingerprinting was invented in the year…………
a. 1884 b. 1885
c. 1984 d. 1985
15. Tiny amount like ………of materials are usually sufficient for PCR amplification
a. 1 nano Mole b. 2 nano Moles
c. 3 nano Moles d. 4 nano Moles
16.In PCR amplification,the Magnesium chloride act as a
a. Cofactor b. Marker
 c. Template d. Primer
17.The purpose of GUS reporter system is to analyze the activity of a promoter in a……
a. Quantitative way b. Qualitative way
c. Both A & B d. None of these
18.A technique used to distinguish between individuals of the same species using their DNA
is called
a. DNA foot printing b. DNA finger printing
c. Southern Blotting d. Western Blotting
19. Three steps that are involved in PCR are…
a. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
b. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
c. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
d. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
20.The GUS reporter system is useful in……molecular biology
a. Animal b. Plant
c.Virus d. Bacteria
21. The purpose of GUS reporter system is to analyze the activity of a ………either in a
quantitative way or through visualization of its activity in different tissues.
a. Promoter b. Activator
c. Reportar d. Restriction factor
22. The GUS reporter system is based on ……….enzyme.
a. ɑ-glucuronidase b. ß-glucuronidase
c. γ-glucuronidase d. λ-glucuronidase
23. Beta-glucuronidase enzyme is extracted from the bacterium………
a. Salmonella spp. b. Bacillus spp.
c. Clostridium spp. d. E.coli spp.
24………. Enzyme, when incubated with some specific colorless or non-florescent
substrates, can transform them into coloured or fluorescent products.
a. ɑ-glucuronidase b. ß-glucuronidase
c. γ-glucuronidase d. λ-glucuronidase
25. The common substrates for gus histochemical staining is
a. 5 bromo 3 chloro 3 indolyl glucoronide
b. 5 bromo 4 chloro 3 indolyl glucoronide
c. 5 bromo 4 chloro 3 indolyl glucoronide
d. 5 bromo 4 chloro 3 indolyl glucoronide
26. For gus histochemical staining, the product of the reaction is in …….. color
a. Yellow b. Green
c. Blue d. Red
27. The GUS reporter system was originally developed by………
a. Richard Anthony Jefferson b. Robert Brown
c. Jeffrey Collins d. Richerd Mathew
28. ……. embryo showing gus expression
a. Wheat b. Corn
c. Rice d. Barlie
29. An organism is suitable for a gus assay if it has no…….or if the activity is very……
a. γ-glucuronidase, low b. γ-glucuronidase, high
c. ß-glucuronidase, low d. ß-glucuronidase, high
30. The GUS reporter system assay is not useful in most………….
a. Vertebrates and Molluscs b. Invertebrates and Molluscs
c. Molluscs and Chordates d. Invertebrates and Chordates
31. VNTR's are……
a. Variable number of tandem repeats b. Variable numerical tandem repeats
c. Variable number of telomeric reactions d. Variable number of telomeric
repeats
32. The DNA markers are highly useful for ……….of genomes
a. Probe b. Gene Targeting
c. Gene silencing d. Genetic mapping

33. RFLPs, VNTRs,STRs and SNPs are the ………. ,used in DNA fingerprinting
technology
 a. Probes b. Primers
c.Markers d. Cofactors
34. VNTR's are otherwise called as…….
a. Mini satellites b. Micro satellites
c. Macro satellites d. Biochips
35. A DNA molecule can be cut into different fragments by a group of enzymes called
restriction endonuclease,These Fragments are called as………
a. Poly linkers b. Poly tails
c. Polymorphisms d. Plyomorphisms
36. Southern hybridization and Polymerase chain reaction are used in the field of……
a. Western Blotting b. Northern Blotting
c. RFLP d. RAPD
37.Single gene-based diseases are detected specifically by……..
a. RFLP b. RAPD
c. VNTRs d.SNPs
38. VNTRs are made up of ……….of short base sequence (10-100bp.
a. Mini satellites b. Biochips
c.Poly linkers d. Tandem repeats
39. VNTRs are made up of short base sequence ranging from……….bp
a.0.1-1.0 b. 1-10
c. 10-100 d.10-1000
40. Microsatellite are short repeat units ranging from……..copies
a. 1-3 b.10-30
c. 10-300 d. 1-300
41. ……..are more popular than VNTRs
a. Probes b. STRs
c. Markers d. Mini satellites
42. STR's are otherwise called as…….
a. Mini satellites b. Micro satellites
c. Macro satellites d. Biochips
43. VNTRs are ………..distributed throughout the genome
a. Evenly b. Not evenly
c. Mutually d. Equally
44. Microsatellites are ………..distributed throughout the genome
a. Evenly b. Not evenly
c. Mutually d. Equally
45. PCR can be efficiently and conveniently used to identify the ………..of polymorphism
a. Depth b. Length
c. Copy d. Size
46. It is estimated that the human genome contains at least ……….. SNPs.
a. 1 million b. 2 million
c. 3 million d. 4 million
47. DNA CHIP technology is most commonly used to screen………..hybridization with
oligonucleotide
a. RFLP b. RAPD
c. VNTRs d. SNPs
48. Fragments are separated on the basis of size using a process called………….
a. Gel electrophoresis b. Northern Blotting
c. RFLP d. RAPD
49. DNA is ……….. charged,DNA is separated on basis of……..
a. Positively,size b. Negatively,size
c. Positively,length d. Negatively,length
50. A ……….is added which combines with the DNA fragments to produce a fluorescent
image
a. Gel loading dye b. radioactive material
c. Sequence d. Primers

UNIT V
 1. d 2.b 3.b 4.b 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.a 9.b 10.b
11. c 12. a 13.d 14.c 15.b 16.a 17.a 18.b 19.b 20.b
21. a 22.b 23.d 24.b 25.b 26.c 27.a 28.c 29.c 30.a
31. a 32.d 33.c 34.a 35.c 36.c 37.a 38.d 39.c 40.b
41.b 42.b 43.b 44.a 45.b 46.c 47.d 48.a 49.b 50.b

Semester III

Core VIII: Immunology Course code : P15BT208

Unit - 1
1. Nonspecific host defenses that exist prior to exposure to an antigen is called
a) acquired immunity b) innate immunity c) adaptive immunity d) all of these

2. Innate immunity is also called

a) familial b) genetic c) inborn d) all of these

3. Innate immunity involves all except

a) anatomic barriers b) phagocyte c) inflammatory mechanisms d) antibody production

4. First line of defense include

a) skin b) mucus c) lysozyme secretion d) all of these

5. Skin prevents pathogen entry

a) dead cells of the skin outer layer prevents pathogen entry
b) skin secretes oil by sebaceous gland that makes surface acidic
c) skin secretes sweat by sudoriferous glandthat makes surface acidic
d) all of these
6. Stomach clear out pathogens by
a) secreting HCl b)secreting digestive enzymes c) both a and b d) none of these

7. Vaginal bacterial symbionts like Lactobacilli prevents pathogen by

a) producing lactic acid thereby reducing pH b) secreting antibiotics
c) secreting toxins d) none of these

8. Bodies internal defense or second line of defense include

a) phagocytes b) fever c) interferons d) all of these

9. The functions of macrophages include

a) phagocytosis b) antigen presenting cells c)
cytokine production d) all of these

10.Kupffer cells are macrophages found on

a) lung b) bone c) nephrons d) liver

11. Neutrophils are

a) phagocytes b) short lived leucocytes c)
involved in second line of defense d) all of these

12. Tissue damage caused by wound or invading pathogenic organisms induces a complex
sequence of events collectively known as
a) opsonisation b) phagocytosis c) inflammation d) none of these

13. Temperature rising chemicals are called

a) pyrogens b) thermogens c) both a and b d) none of these

14. The internal second line of defense involves all except

a) natural killer cells b) complement system c) interferons d) antibodies
15. Antiviral glycoproteins released by living cells in response to viral attack and induce a
viral resistant state to neighbouring cells is called as
a) natural killer cells b) complement system c) interferons d) phagocytes

16. Any substance or molecules that interact with antibodies are called
a) antigens b) antibodies c) epitope d) immunogens

17. Antigens can be

a) proteins b) carbohydrates c) nucleic acids d) all of these

18. Any molecule that induces or elicits an immune response are

a) antigens b) antibodies c) epitope d) immunogens

19. Majority of antigens are

a) proteins b) carbohydrates c) nucleic acids d) lipids

20. Amolecule that reacts with specific antibody but is not immunogenic by itself is called
a) carrier b) antigen c) hapten d) immunogen

21. Haptens are immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein

a) covalently to a carrier protein b) covalently to an antibody
c) covalently to a paratope d)none of these

22. Haptens cannot activate T cell or B cells due to

a) its low molecular weight antigens arbuscules b) its inability to bind to MHC
c) both a and b d) none of these

23 A complete antigen is capable of

a) inducing an immune response b) can interact with antibody
c) induces antibody production d) all of these

24. Which of the following is a hapten

a) Cyanide b) paracetamol c) Penicillin d) none of these

25. An incomplete antigens

a) are also called as haptens
b) are immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein
c) cannot induce antibody production by itself 33
d)all of the above

26. An antigen is
a) A highly specific protein produced by the body in response to a foreign body
b) A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms
c) An antibody produced by the body that stimulates the production of
 antibodies by the body’s immune system
d) A chemical substance that stimulates the production of antibodies by the
body’s immune system

27. CD40 ligand is seen only on

a) Macrophages b) Cytotoxic T cells c) Helper T cells d) Dentritic cells

28. High titres of antinuclear antibodies are indicative of

a) Parasitic infections b) Fungal diseases
c) Autoimmune diseases d) Bacterial diseases

29. Which of the following is an auto immune disease?

a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus b) Type 2 Diabetes mellitus
c) Haemophilia A d) Sickle cell anemia

30. DNA vaccines elicit protective immunity against a microbial pathogen by activating
a) Humoral immune system b) Cellular immune system
c) Both a and b d) None of these

31. Which is the first immunoglobulin class to be produced in a primary response to an

antigen and also the first immunoglobulin to be synthesised by the neonates:
a) IgA b) IgB c) IgD d) IgM

32. In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is :
a) Killer T cells b) Plasma cells c) Helper T cells d) Cytotoxic T cells

33. What is a characteristic of early stages of local inflammation?

a) Fever b) Anaphylactic Shock
c) Release of histamine d) Attack by cytotoxic T cells

34. An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?

a) The antibody binding site
b) The heavy chain constant regions only
c) Variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
d) The light chain constant regions only

35. Which of the following is not true about helper T cells?

a) They function in cell mediated and humoral responses
b) They are activated by polysaccharide fragments
c) They bear surface CD4 molecules
d) They are subject to infection by HIV

36. The second most abundant Ig is

a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
37. The most effective Ig is
a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE

38. IgM is a
a) pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites b) tetramer with 8 antigen binding sites
c) monomer with 2 antigen binding sites d) dimer with 4 antigen binding sites

39.The Ig that mediates allergic reaction is

a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE

40. The Ig involved in host defence against parasitic infection (helminths)

a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE

41. The bonds involved in antigen-antibody interactions are

a) weak hydrogen bonds and vanderwalls forces b) strong covalent bonds
c) strong di- sulphide bonds d) all of these

42. Which of the following statement is true?

a) all immunogens are antigens but all antigens are not immunogens
b) all immunogens are antigens and all antigens are immunogens
c) all immunogens are not antigens but all antigens are immunogens
d) all immunogens are proteins and all proteins are immunogens
43. Any agents that may stimulate the immune system and enhance the response without
having any specific antigenic effect by itself.
a) antigens b) allergens c) adjuvants d) carriers

44. Small chemical groups on the antigen molecule that can react with antibody
a) epitope b) paratope c) isotope d) allotope

45. Which of the statements are true regarding antigen

a) generally self-molecules and molecules with low molecular weight are non-immunogenic
b) an antigen generally has many epitopes
c) heteropolymers are more immunogenic than homopolymers
d) all of these

46. Injection of anti-venom to a patient for snake bite is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
47. Newborns get their antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

48. Vaccination is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

49. Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infected. This immunity is
an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

50. Skin is the largest organ in the body and protects us by preventing pathogen entry. This
is an example of
a) Naturally acquired innate immunity b) Artificially acquired adaptive immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Answers

1. b 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. d
 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. d

11. d 12. c 13. a 14. d 15.c

16. a 17. d 18.d 19.a 20.c
21.a 22.c 23.d 24.c 25.d
26.d 27.c 28.C 29.a 30.c)
31.d 32.c 33.c 34.c 35.b
36. c 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. d
41. a 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d
46. d 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. a

UNIT – 2 Cellular Responses

1. The repeated expose of same type disease is called as

a. Endemic disease b.Contagious disease c. Epidemic Disease d.Both a &b

2. The Immunity rendered by the response of an antigen to specific B and T lymphocytes is
a. Adaptive Immunity b. Innate Immunity c. Cell mediated response d. Both a & b
3. Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called
a. Humoral Immunity b. Innate Immunity c. Cell mediated Immunity d. All the three
4. Antimicrobial proteins are classified under_____________defense.
a. First line b. Second line c. Third line d. Both a & b
5.Immune response in which antigen are specific to T cells is called as
a. Humoral Immunity b. Innate Immunity c. Cell mediated Immunity d. All the three
6. The immunity that transfers antibodies through placenta is called as
a.Artificially Acquired passive Immunity b. Naturally Acquired Active Immunity
c. Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity d. Artificially Acquired Active Immunity
7. Fluid that remains after blood has clotted and cells have been removed
a.Serum b.Antiserum c. Plasma d.Lymph
8. B cells that are stimulated will actively secrete antibodies and are called
a. Immunoglobins b.Memory cells c.Plasma Cells d. Both b & c
9. T cells regulate proliferation and activity of
a. B cells b. macrophages c. neutrophils d. All the three
10.ADCC is regulated by the activation of
a. B cells b.T cells c. Plasma cells d.Both a & c
11. Active cytotoxic T cells are secreated against
a. Virus b. bacteria c. endotoxins d.All the three
12. The (detrimental) reaction that result is due to the exposure of
a. Tollerogen b. Allergen c. Immunogen d. All the three
13. An example of APC is
a. Macrophage b. monocyte c. lymphocyte d. null cell
14. ____________ of antigens are -presenting by APCs and processed into fragments.
a. Exogenous antigens b. Endogenous antigens c. Auto antigens d. Tumour antigens
15. The capacity to stimulate the production of antibodies or cell-mediated immune
responses. a.Antigenicity b. Immunogenicity c. Tollerogenicity d. All the three
16. _______substances that are not immunogenic by itself but if couple to a larger carrier
molecule they become immunogenic
a. Complete Adjuvant b. Incomplete Adjuvant c.Hapten d.Both a and b
17. ________ are portions of antigen molecules that interact with antibody.
a. Epitope b.Paratope c. Complement binding site d.Both a and c
18.Substances that increases the ability of an antigen to stimulate the immune system.
a. Incomplete Adjuvant b. Adjuvant c.Hapten d.Both a and b
19. The specific antigen that exists in different individuals is
a. Auto antigen b.Heterophillic antigen c.Alloantigen d.Xenogenic
20. A kind of common antigen, existing among individuals is
a. Auto antigen b.Heterophillic antigen c.Alloantigen d.Xenogenic
21. Glycoprotein molecules that are produced by plasma cells in response to an immunogen
are called as
a.Albumin b.Globulin c. Antiserum d. Serum
22. Region of antibody which can bind to complement or cells is called as
a. Fc region b. Constant Regions c.Fab region d.Both and b
23.Immunoglobin that enhances phagocytosis, neutralizes toxins is called as
a. IgM b. IgG c.IgA d.IgE
24.Immunoglobin that bound to mast cells and basophils throughout bodyis called as
a. IgM b. IgG c.IgA d.IgE
25. Immunoglobin thatare produced in Secretions are called as
a. IgM b. IgG c.IgA d.IgE
26. The antibody derived from a single B cell clone is called as
a. Polyclonal b. Monoclonal c. Immunoglobulin d. Both b and c
27. ________ produced the first monoclonal antibodies
a. Von Behring b.Ehrlich c. Milstein d. Kohler
28. Mab are produced by the combination of _________cells with healthy cells
a. Myeloma b.Hepatic c. liver d. Both a and b
29.Serum Antibody Titre Determined is determined by
a. PCR b.Spectrophotometer c. Elisa Reader d.Both b and c
30.The fully humanized Mab is___________
a. Infliximab b. Adalimumab c. AfelimoMab d.CDP870
31. Degranulation of the cell,triggered by cross-linking of adjacent IgE molecules, releases
a. Aminoacid b. Antibody c. Histamine d.Protein

32. Molecules that display peptide antigens to cytotoxic T cells are called as
a. MHC II b. MHC I c.APC d.All the three
33. MHC II is activated by
a. Antigens b. APC c. CD8 d. Both a &c
34.A specific helper T cell binds to the displayed complex via its TCR secretes
a.Antibody b. Plasma cells c. cytokines d.Antiserum
35. The presence of both Anti A and B is found in ________ blood group
a. A b.B c. AB d. O
36.Antigens synthesized within cells, including self and unself protein are received by
a. BCR b.IIMHC c. IMHC d.TCR
37. Antigens that comes outside the cells, including self and unself protein are received by
a. BCR b.IIMHC c. IMHC d.TCR
38. Example of Professional APC is
a. Endothelial cells b. fibroblast, c. Dendritic cell d. epithelial cells,
39. Find the Odd among the series
a. Dendritic cells b. Macrophage c. B lymphocyte d.Endothelial cells
40.An example of antigen capturing is
a.Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c.Endocytosis d.All the three
41.The most efficient APC, can present antigens to naive T cells to elicit primary immune
response.
a. Dendritic cells b. Macrophage c. B lymphocyte d.Endothelial cells
42. Find the odd in the series
a.FcγRⅡ b.C3bR c.mannose receptor d.BCR
43. Dendritic cells fond in body fluid are called as
a.Interdigitating b Langerhans cell (LC) c.Veiled cell d.Lymph
44. Dendritic cells fond in non lymphoid tissue are called as
a.Interdigitating b Langerhans cell (LC) c.Veiled cell d.Blood
45.Dendritic cells fond in lymphoid tissue are called as
a.Interdigitating b Langerhans cell (LC) c.Veiled cell d.Blood
46.Macrophages are originated by ______ in blood
a.Eosinophils b. Lymphocyte c. Dendritic cells d.Monocyte

47.The invariant chain is lysed by

a. Pepsin b. ligase c. Protease d.All of these
48. Polymeric antigens are degraded by the activation
a.ATP b. UDP c. Ubiquitin d.ADP
49. Cytosolic protein is degraded by
a. Exocytosis b. pinocytosis c. Phagocytosis d.Endocytosis
50. Endosomes are found by the engulfing
a. Vitamins b.proteins c.Carbohydrates d. lipids
ANSWERS UNIT-2

1.C 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.
D

11.D 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.C 17.A 18. 19. 20.
B A A B B C C

21.B 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.B 27.C 28. 29. 30.
A B D C A C B

31.C 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. C 37.B 38. 39. 40.
A C C D C D D

41.A 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.D 47.C 48. 49. 50.
D C B A A A D

Unit-III: Infection and Immunity

1.Complements are………… which are present in blood medium

a) Serum Componentsb) Serum Proteins

c) Vaccines d) None of these

2.Primary role of …………. is cell lysis

a) Inflammation b) Glomeruli

c) Blood Vessles d) Complement System

3.Adaptive Immunity is under

a) First line of defence b) Second line of defence

c) Third line of defence d) All of these

4. The Greek word “Vacca” means

a) Goat b) Cow

c) Mice d)Calf

5………...vaccine is injected by the 9 months old baby

a) Smallpox b) Cowpox

c) Chickenpox d) Measles

6. Vaccination is normally injected through…..

a) Vein b) Muscle

c) oral d) All of the above

7. Vaccines are not always effective, because……

a) a) Weakened Pathogen b) Defective immune systems

c) Harmless pieces of a pathogen d)Disabled Pathogen

8. ………is a dye which emits greenish fluorescence under UV light.

a) Fluorrenin b) Flacsscein

c) Fluorescein d) Sulfer Fluorus

9.Hallmark Signs of Inflammation are given below. Match and identify the answer

a) Rubor- Heat, Color- Redness,Tumor- Swelling,Dolor- Pain, Functio laesa- loss of function

b) Rubor- Redness, Color- loss of function,Tumor- Pain,Dolor – Swelling, Functio laesa-

Heat

c) Rubor- Redness, Color- Pain,Tumor- loss of function,Dolor- Redness, Functio laesa-

Swelling

d) Rubor- Redness, Color- Heat,Tumor- Swelling,Dolor –Pain, Functio laesa- loss of function

10.Dose of…….. Stimulate a primary response and thus the production of specific memory
cells
a) Weakened Pathogen b) Disabled Pathogen

c) Harmless pieces of a pathogen d) All of these

11.The Immune system is designed to eliminate ……..

a) Pathogens b) Mutagens

c) Complements d) Antibodies

12. In ………ELISA, the plate is coated with Antibody to detect specific antigen

a) Direct b) Indirect

c) Competitive d) All of these

13.Accumulation of neutrophils and macrophages leads to

a) Tissue repair b) Tissue sedimentation

c) Tissue accumulation d) Tissue damage

14.Applications of ELISA are….

a) HIV test b) detecting egg allergens

c) detecting milk allergens d) All of these

15. A disease caused by human immunodeficiency virus is called ………..

a) HIV b) AIDS

c) Immunodeficiency d) All of these

16.Naturally Acquired Active Immunity

a) Mother to Foetus b) Vaccines

c) Serum from diseased individuals d) Chickenpox

17. Immunization is the most generally applicable way of preventing ………..

a) Infectious disease b) Pathogens

c) Harmful organisms d) All of the above

18. In an ELISA test,a person's serum is diluted…….

a)200-fold b) 300-fold
c) 400-fold d) 500-fold

19. The leukocyte cells are otherwise called as

a) RBC b) WBC

c) both a & b d) None of these

20. Effects of inflammation normally present in

a) Small blood vessels b) Glomeruli

c) Joints d) All of the above

21.Two arms of the Immune systems are

a) Natural/Innate immunity b) Adaptive/Acquired immunity

c) both a & b d) None of these

22. In 1721 Lady Mary Wortley Montagu brought the knowledge of techniques against……..

a) Smallpox b) Cowpox

c) Chickenpox d) Measles

23. ……..is a powerful technique that utilizes fluorescent-labeled antibodies to detect specific
target antigens.

a) RIA b) Immunofluorescence

c) ELISA d) RAPD

24.Artificially Acquired Passive Immunity

a) Mother to Foetus b)Vaccines

c) Serum from diseased individuals d) Chickenpox

25. ........... is a suspension of weakened, live, or killed microorganisms

a) Serum Componentsb) Serum Proteins

c) Vaccines d) None of these

26.Third line of defense leads to

a) Inflammation & dilation b) vessel leakage & WBC action

c) antibody production d) fever

27. First line of defense takes place by Physical, Mechanical & Biochemical barriers. Which
is correct ?

a) Physical- Skin, Mechanical- Mucus, Biochemical-Saliva

b) Physical- Epithelial layer, Mechanical-Sneeze, Biochemical-Tears

c) Physical- Vomit, Mechanical- Cough, Biochemical-Mucus

d) Physical- Cilia action in trachea, Mechanical- Vomit, Biochemical-earwax

28.Inflammation is the body's reaction to injury and is known as the body's…….

a) First line of defence b) Second line of defence

c) Third line of defence d) All of these

29.Antibodies are otherwise called as….

a) Immunoglobulins b) Ig

c) Gamma globulin Proteins d) All of the above

30. Edward Jenner observed that milkmaids infected with ……… through their interactions

a) Smallpox b) Cowpox

c) Chickenpox d) Measles

31. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity is associated with……

a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity

c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
32. CD40 ligand is seen only on

a) Macrophages b) Cytotoxic T cells

c) Helper T cells d) Dentritic cells

33. High titres of antinuclear antibodies are indicative of

a) Parasitic infections b) Fungal diseases

c) Autoimmune diseases d) Bacterial diseases

34. Which of the following is an auto immune disease?

a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus b) Type 2 Diabetes mellitus

c) Haemophilia A d) Sickle cell anemia
35. DNA vaccines elicit protective immunity against a microbial pathogen by activating:

a) Humoral immune system b) Cellular immune system

c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

36. What is a characteristic of early stages of local inflammation?

a) Fever b) Anaphylactic Shock

c) Release of histamine d) Attack by cytotoxic T cells

37. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with

a) antigen. b) factor B.
c) antigen-IgG complexes. d) bacterial lipopolysaccharides.

38. Which is the first immunoglobulin class to be produced in a primary response to an

antigen and also the first immunoglobulin to be synthesised by the neonates:

a) IgA b) IgB

c) IgD d) IgM

39. An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?

a) The antibody binding site

b) The heavy chain constant regions only

c) Variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
d) The light chain constant regions only

40. J-chains are associated with:

a) IgG.

b) polymeric immunoglobulins (more than two Fab’s).

c) serum IgA

d) IgE.

41.Allergy to penicillin is an example of………..

a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity
c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
42. Type IV Hypersensitivity is also called as…..
a) Immediate Hypersensitivity b) Delayed Hypersensitivity
c) Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity d) Immune Complex Hypersensitivity
43. The most common class of antibody involved in Type II Hypersensitivity is…

a) IgG b) IgM

c) IgE d) IgD

44. Patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have

a) increased numbers of severe viral infections.
b) increased numbers of severe bacterial infections.
c) low gamma globulin levels.
d) frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia.

45.Type III Hypersensitivity is triggered by……

a) Mast cells and IgE

b) K cells and IgG
c) deposition of antigen and antibody complexes
d) Th cells
46.Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA) is an example of…….

a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity

c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
47.”Wheal and flare”reaction is characteristic raction associated with identification of…..
a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity
c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
48. The variable regions in the light chains participate in:

a) Fc receptor binding. b) epitope binding.

c) affinity of the complement receptors. d) interaction of the Fab with cytokines.

49. IgD participates in antigen recognition by:

a) immature T cells. b) NK cells.

c) macrophages. d) B cells.

50.Allergies to sea foods, eggs etc is an example of…..

a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity

c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity

Unit-III : ANSWERS

1. b 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.b 8.c 9.d 10.d

11. a 12. a 13.d 14.d 15.b 16.d 17.d 18.c 19.b 20.d

21. c 22.a 23.b 24.c 25.c 26.c 27.b 28.b 29.d 30.b

31. b 32.c 33.c 34.a 35.c 36.c 37.c 38.d 39.c 40.b

41.a 42.b 43.a 44.b 45.c 46.b 47.a 48.b 49.d 50.a
 UNIT – 4 Transplantation and Tumor Immunology

1. Self-tissue transferred from one body site to another from same individual is called
as……..

a)Isograft b) Allograft c) xenograft d) both a and b

2.Antigens determining histocompatibility are coded in ---------- different loci

a)46 b) 23 c) 40 d) 42

3.MHC loci is closely linked and is inherited as a complete set of --------

a)Haploid b) Allele c) diploid d) loci

4. Which type of grafts are rejected rapidly ?

a)Kidney b) Cornea c) Skin d) liver

5. The significance of lymphocytes in graft rejection was first studied by………….

a)Davidson Janel b) James Ferry c) Edward Jenner d) Avrion Mitchison

6. The technique of identifying MHC polymorphism is called as -----------

a)Graft rejection b) Isotyping c) Haplotyping d) Tissue typing

7. The survival rate of allograft is prolonged in the case of ------------

a)Thymic deficiency b) Thymectomy c) Tcell primed injection d) All three

8. The success ratio of a transplant in HLA typing is ----------

a)3/6 b) 2/6 c) 4/6 d) 6/6

9. The survival percentage rate is more in ---------- transplantation

a) Small intestine b) kidney c) liver d) eye

10. Give an example of a immunsuppressive drug that acts as a mitotic inhibitor

a)Campath-1h b) azathioprine c) anti CD25 d) anti CD50

11. Host APCs present peptides from donor MHC in

a)Direct Allorecognition b) Indirect Allorecognition c) Cross liked Allorecognition

d) Both a&b

12. Synthetic implantation is also called as

 a) allograft b) xenograft c) Isograft d)heterograft

13.Gene complex whose alleles encode polymorphic cell surface glycoproteins is called as
a)APC b)MHC c)HLA d)Both b and c

14. Class I antigens are encoded in ----------- nomenclature

a)A b)DR c) DQ d)K

15. Cell proliferation is the principal used in -------------screening technique

a)HLA typing b)mixed lymphocyte reaction c)Irradiation d)All three

16.Delayed type hypersensitive reactions occurs in

a)Chronic rejection b)Antibody mediated rejection

c)Cellular rejection d)All three

17. --------------- are called as effector T cells

a)CD 4 b)CD 8 c)Interleukins d)Both a &b

18.The mechanism of donor APCs with intact donor MHC is called as

a)Direct Allorecognition b) Indirect Allorecognition c) Cross liked Allorecognition

d) Both a&b

19. The mechanism of host APCs present intact donor antigen taken up as a membrane patch

a)Direct Allorecognition b) Indirect Allorecognition c) Cross liked Allorecognition

d) Both a&b

20. ----------- are essential T cell response.

a)Cytokines b)T cell receptors c) MHC d)all of these

21.Chronic allograft nephropathy requires the transplantation -------------grafts.

a)Kidney b)heart c)lung d)eye

22.Coronary artery disease requires the transplantation -------------grafts.

a)Kidney b)heart c)lung d)eye

23. Bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome disease requires the transplantation -------------grafts.

a)Kidney b)heart c)lung d)eye

24.An example of Glucocorticosteroids acting as immunosuppressant drug is ----------.

a) Azathiprine b)Prednisone c)Cyclosporin d)Tacrolimus

25. The greatest genetic disparity is gained by -------------.

a)Isograft b) Allograft c) xenograft d) both a and b

26.An example of a known oncogenic virus is:

a. Herpes zoster b.HIV-2 c.Epstein-Barr virus. D.Vesicular stomatitis virus.

27.A graft between members of the same species is termed an:

a.Autograft. b.Isograft. c.Xenograft. d.Allograft.

28. Which one of the following statements is false. Rejection of a second (set) skin graft
from the same allogeneic donor:

a.Can be blocked by azathioprine (an antimitotic agent).

b.Proceeds at the same speed as the first graft rejection.
c.Shows specificity for the graft donor.
d.Can be transferred to a naive recipient with lymphocytes.

29. The human major histocompatibility complex:

a. Is termed H-2 b. Provokes the most intense allograft reactions

c. Contains only class I and class II genes
d. Is not expressed as codominant antigens on the cell surface

30. Mitosis occurs when mixing lymphocytes of two individuals:

a.In presence of mitomycin C. b. In presence of anti-CD4.

c. Who are identical twins. d. Of differing MHC class II haplotype.

31. Graft vs host disease occurs on injecting adult T-cells of strain A into:

a. F1(A × B) animals. b. Unirradiated strain B. c. Irradiated strain A. d. Strain A fetuses.

32. Which of the following allogeneic grafts does not require immunosuppression:

a. Kidney b. Liver. b. bone marrow. c. cartilage.

33.The fetus may be protected from maternal transplantation attack by:

 a.Luteinizing hormone. b.Presence of HLA class I on the fetus
c.HLA-G on the extravillous cytotrophoblast. d.C3 convertase on the syncitiotrophoblast.

34 Strongly immunogenic tumors appear:

a.In virtually all cancers. b.Only in lymphoma and leukemia.

c.In immunosuppressed patients. d.Only in experimental animals

35. A B-cell lymphoma will express a unique tumor antigen called:

a. p53. b. Endosialin. c. SM-3. d.Idiotype.

36. Bone marrow purging in myeloid leukemias can be successfully carried out using
antibodies to:

.aCD3. b.CD33. c.CD5. d.CD45.

37. Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also sometimes found on
tumors are known as:

a.Oncofetal antigens. b. HTLV-1. c. Maternal. d. Neonatal.

38. CD44 is a molecule which may be involved in:

a.Neoplastic transformation. b.Metastatic spread.

c.Tumor surveillance. d.Antigen recognition.

39. The normal immunological control of tumors is referred to as:

Immunological tolerance.
Immune surveillance. Type III hypersensitivity.
Immunological silence.

40. Which of the following is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease:

a.Myasthenia gravis. b.Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. d.Pernicious anemia.

41. Which of the following antibodies are of most use for the diagnosis of pernicious
anemia:

a.Anti-parietal cell. b.Anti-thyroid peroxidase. c.Anti-nuclear. d.Anti-IgG Fc

42. The disease most frequently seen in association with pernicious anemia is:
a.Multiple sclerosis. b.Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
.c. Rheumatoid arthritis. d.Graves' disease.

43. HLA-DR2 is a risk factor for:

a.Multiple sclerosis. b. Insulin-dependent (type I) diabetes.

c.Ankylosing spondylitis. d.Rheumatoid arthritis.

44. Which of the following is incorrect 'Natural antibodies' are often:

a.Autoreactive. b.polyspecific. c.Reactive with bacterial carbohydrates. d.High affinity

IgG.

45. Which of the following is incorrect: T-helpers can be bypassed by:

a. Failure of regulatory T-cells. b. Polyclonal activation of B-cells.

c. Idiotypic mechanisms. d. Antigenic cross-reaction.

46. In the NZB model of autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

a.There are no T-cell regulatory abnormalities.

b.Disease is unaffected by neonatal thymectomy
c.The red cell autoantibodies cause disease.
d.CD5+ B-cells are not involved in pathogenesis.

47. Neonatal myasthenia gravis is thought to be caused by:

a.An inherited genetic defect.

b.Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the TSH receptor.
c.Anti-idiotype to maternal IgG.
d.Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the acetylcholine receptor.

48. In celiac disease there is T-cell sensitivity to:

a.Vitamin B12. b.Gluten. c. -adrenergic receptors. d.Gastric H+-K+ dependent ATPase.

49. Glomerulonephritis associated with pulmonary hemorrhage is referred to as:

a.Pemphigus vulgaris. b.Goodpasture's syndrome.

c.Systemic lupus erythematosus. d. Lambert–Eaton syndrome.

50. In rheumatoid arthritis the non-lymphoid synovial tissue shows aberrant expression of:
a.Immunoglobulin genes. b.T-cell receptor genes. c. MHC class I. d.MHC class II.

UNIT- 4 ANSWERS

1.A 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.
C

11.B 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.B 17.D 18. 19. 20.
A C A B B C A

21.A 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.A 27.D 28. 29. 30.
B C B C B A D

31.A 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. B 37.A 38. 39. 40.
D C C B B B B

Unit-V :
41.A 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.C 47.C 48. 49. 50.
Immunotechniques
D A D A B B C

1. Immunization is the most generally applicable way of preventing

a) infections b) injury

c) infectious disease d) Immunity

2. Precipitation reactions are

a) Immunodiffusion b) Immunoelectrophoresis

c) Both a & b d) None of these..

3. FACs are…..

a) Fluid-Activated Cell Sorter b) Fluorescence-Antigenic Cell Sorter

c) Fluorescence-Activated Cell Sorter d) All of the above

4. Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk?

a) IgG b) IgM
c) IgA d) IgD
5. Class switching of immunoglobulins occurs
a) Usually with booster immunizations, going from IgM to IgG
b) binds complement
c) causes the histamine release
d) mediates immunoglobulin class switching
6. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest
concentration?
a) IgG b) IgM
c) IgA d) IgD
7. Individuals of blood group type AB
a) are Rh(d)-negative.

b) are "universal recipients" of transfusions.

c) have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

d) have the same haplotype.

8. The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on the glomerular basement membrane in a

kidney tissue section is the
a) precipitin test. b) complement fixation test.
c) agglutination test. d) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

9. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
a) IgE antibody. b) IgG antibody.
c) sensitized T cells. d) complement.

10. Complement damage is generally limited to the immediate area in which complement is

activated because of the:

a) short half-lives of the activated complement components and their rapid inactivation.

b) very low concentrations of the inactivated complement components in serum.

c) the inability to activate the system in the presence of IgG antibodies.

d) once activated, the destructive activities of complement are non-specific.

11. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn
caused by Rh incompatibility?
a) atopic or anaphylactic b) cytotoxic
c) immune complex d) delayed

12. Which one of the following does NOT contain C3b?

a) classic-pathway C5 convertase b) alternative-pathway C5 convertase
c) classic-pathway C3 convertase d) alternative-pathway C3 convertase
13. Proteins from two samples of animal blood, A and B, were tested by the double-
diffusion (Ouchterlony) test in agar against antibody to bovine albumin. Which sample(s)
contain horse blood?

a) sample A b) sample B
c) both samples d) neither sample

14. An Rh-negative woman married to a heterozygous Rh-positive man has three children.
The probability that all three of their children are Rh-positive is
a) 1:2. b) 1:4.
c) 1:8. d) zero.

15. The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
a) it can be administered orally. b) it provides antibody more rapidly.
c) antibody persists for a longer period. d) it contains primarily IgM.

16. On January 15, a patient developed an illness suggestive of influenza, which lasted 1
week. On February 20, she had a similar illness. She had no influenza immunization during
this period. Her hemagglutination inhibition titer to influenza A virus was 10 on January 18,
40 on January 30, and 320 on February 20. Which one of the following is the MOST
appropriate interpretation?
a) The patient was ill with influenza A on January 15.
b) The patient was ill with influenza A on February 20.
c) The patient was not infected with influenza virus.
d) The patient has an autoimmune disease.

17. . A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
a) systemic anaphylaxis. b) serum sickness.
c) an Arthus reaction. d) cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

18. A kidney biopsy specimen taken from a patient with acute glomerulonephritis and
stained with fluorescein-conjugated anti-human IgG antibody would probably show
a) no fluorescence.
b) uniform fluorescence of the glomerular basement membrane.
c) patchy, irregular fluorescence of the glomerular basement membrane.
d) fluorescent B cells.

19. The location of complement activation is determined by:

a) the location of Fc receptors. b) the location of dendritic
cells.

c) the location of specific antibody/antigen complexes. d) b and c.

20. During serum sickness, kidney damage occurs as immune complexes form. Why?

a) The immune complexes are filtered by the kidneys and damage results from concomitant
complement activation and neutrophil activity.

b) Antigen presenting cells rapidly bind all of the complexes in their MHC-encoded
receptors.

c) Free antigen activates PAMP receptors in the kidneys which rapidly activate adaptive
immunity.

d) The immune complexes bind to Mast cells and are destroyed.

21. Contact dermatitis generally occurs against substances that are too small to induce an

immune response. How do these substance induce an immune response?

a) These substances form depots and are then slowly released into the blood.

b) These low molecular weight substances react with liver enzymes and are difficult to
eliminate.

c) These substances bind to tissues and cells, resulting in a larger total antigenic size

which can then stimulate an immune response.

d) The substances trigger the complement cascade and cause neutrophils to accumulate

and to serve as antigen presenting cells.

22. Sensitization to foods is minimized by secretory IgA antibodies by:

a) The inflammatory response that occurs in the presence of food, these antibodies and

complement.

b) Destroying the antigen presenting cells that would normally present the food

antigens to T cells in the gut.

c) Blocking the penetration of intact food products into the gut.

d) All of the above

23. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are
MOST likely to be caused by

a) interleukin-2. b) slow-reacting substance A

(leukotrienes).
c) serotonin. d) bradykinin.

24. Which of the following is NOT true of interleukins?

a) They are cytokines which can be produced by various cells of the immune system.
b) They are hormones which allow one cell to communicate with another cell.
c) They are in need of receptors on the target cell in order to mediate their effects.
d) They are able bind antigen with a high level of specificity.
25. An antigenic determinant is
a) a small topological feature of a large micromolecule such as A DNA
b) specifically recognized by a epitope
c) specifically recognized by a paratope
d) specifically recognized by the T4 protein
26. Antigen-antibody reactions can result in the following:
a) Agglutination b) complement fixation
c) virus neutralization d) All of the above
27. Cytokines
a) are polypeptide hormones synthesized by specialized cells
b) are lymphokines and monokines
c) help to control and regulate the immune response
d) All of the above
28. Cytokines are
a) Produced by cells of the immune system in response to various physiological stimuli
b) able to stimulate an increase in antibody production
c) able to activate T-cells
d) All of the above
29.ELISA….

a) Enzyme Liked Immuno Servant Assay b) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbant Assay

c) Enzyme Liked Immuno Sorbant Assay d) Enzyme Linked Immuno Servant Assay
30. AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that kills
a) B lymphocytes. b) lymphocyte stem cells.
c) CD4-positive T lymphocytes. d) CD8-positive T lymphocytes.

31.Antibody titer refers to the:Top of Form

a) Affinity of specific antibody.

b) Avidity of specific antibody.

c) Concentration of specific antibody.

d) Highest dilution of antibody still able to give a positive result in a test system.

32. The affinity of an antibody can be determined by measuring:

a) Its concentration b) The valency of antigen binding.

c) The amount of antibody bound at various antigen concentrations.
d) Its ability to neutralize bacterial toxins.

33. Latex particles are often used in:

a) Agglutination tests b) Affinity chromatography

c) Affinity measurements d) Adjuvants

34. The RAST measures:

a) Antigen concentration b) IgE antibodies.

c) IgM antibodies. d) Agglutination.

35. Surface plasmon resonance is a system based on:

a) Fluorescence b)Radioactivity.

c) Reflected light. d) Molecular resonance.

36. Characterization of antigens by electrophoresis and immunofixation relies on the

reaction of antigen and antibody in (or on):

a) Agar. b) Streptavidin.

c) Gold-plated sensor chip. d) Latex particles.

37. Western blots are primarily used to detect:

a) Protein. b) Carbohydrate.
c) Lipid. d) RNA.

38. SDS-PAGE separates proteins on the basis of:

a) Isoelectric point. b) Sedimentation coefficient.

c) Degree of glycosylation. d) Size.

39. The pepscan technique is most useful for determining:

a) Antibody structure.

b) Discontinuous epitopes recognized by antibodies.

c)Epitopes recognized by T-cells.
d) MHC haplotypes.

40. HAT medium is used to:

a) Immortalize B-lymphocytes.

b) Culture B-lymphocytes.
c) Select for hybrids in the hybridoma technique.
d) Kill B-cell hybridomas.

41. Human monoclonal antibodies can be obtained:

a) Using Epstein-Barr virus immortalization of T-cells.

b) Easily from human hybridomas selected with HT medium.

c) Using transgenic xenomouse strains.

d) By a single point mutation of a mouse monoclonal antibody.

42. Coating a cell with specific antibody facilitates its selection by:

a) Sedimentation rate. b) Buoyant density.

c) Adherence to plastic surfaces. d) Magnetic beads coated with anti-Ig.

43. A T-cell hybridoma

a) Is obtained by continuous culture of T-cells with antigen.

b) Is obtained by cloning antigen-specific splenic T-cells.
c) Is obtained by fusing T-cells with a T-cell tumor cell line and cloning.

d) multiplicity of T-cell receptor specificities.

44. Which of the following is not used as a direct conjugate to the antibody for visualizing
tissue antigens:

a) Fluorescein b) Anti-immunoglobulin.

c) Alkaline phosphatase. d) Peroxidase.

45. The use of green fluorescent protein in flow cytofluorimetry permits measurement of:

a) Cell size. b) Cell granularity.

c) Antibody secretion. d)Intracellular gene expression

46. The activation of lymphocytes cannot be assessed by:

a) Mitosis b) Cytokine release.

c) Phagocytosis. d) Cytotoxicity

47. The functional activity of neutrophils can be assessed by:

a) The nitroblue tetrazolium test b) A plaque test for antibody

c) Proliferation d) Limiting dilution analysis

48. The TUNEL technique can be employed to measure:

a) Precursor frequency b) Apoptosis.

c) Directional migration of neutrophils. d) Phagocytosis.

49. Antibody-secreting cells can be enumerated by:

a) Mitosis. b) Cytokine release.

c) Total antibody content. d) ELISPOT.

50. Introduction of a gene into a cell using calcium phosphate precipitate is termed:

a) Electroporation. b) Homologous recombination.

c) Biolistics. d) Transfection.
Unit-V : ANSWERS

1. c 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.a 6.a 7.b 8.d 9.a 10.a

11.d 12.c 13.b 14.c 15.b 16.a 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.a

21.c 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.c 26.d 27.d 28.d 29.b 30.c

31. d 32.c 33.a 34.b 35.c 36.a 37.a 38.d 39.c 40.c

41.c 42.d 43.c 44.b 45.d 46.c 47.a 48.b 49.d 50.d
Semester III

Core IX:Medical Biotechnology Course code : P15BT209

MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY-MCQ Paper Code: P15BT309

UNIT I

1. The amplified target DNA of the PCR product is………..

a. restriction fragment b. recombine c. Replicon d. amplicon
2. The first human protein produced through recombinant DNA technology is………….
a. insulin b. erythropoietin c. interferon d. somatostatin
3. The first licensed drug produced through genetic engineering is………….
a. interferon b. insulin c. penicillin d. somatotropin
4. Insulin is a protein, consisting of………………
a. 2 polypeptide chains b. 3 polypeptide chains
c. 4 polypeptide chains d. more than 4 polypeptides chains
5. In DNA finger printing, even a smallest amount of DNA obtained from samples collected
at
crime place, can be multiplied into millions of copies by using a technique called……….
a. autoradiography b. southern blotting c. polymerase chain reaction d. electrophoresis
6. In DNA finger printing, the DNA from the gel is transferred to……. for hybridization
a. nitrocellulose membrane b. agarose c. autoradiogram d. PCR
7. A part of nucleic acid used to find a gene by hybridization is called……………….
a. vector b. clone c. probe d. cybrid
8. The third phase of the PCR reaction involves…………
a. detection of amplification product b. amplification of DNA
c. breakdown of DNA d. obtaining isolated DNA
9. A small, 15-30 bases long nucleotide sequences used to detect the presence of
complementary
sequences in DNA sample during DNA finger printing is called………………
a. RFLP b. Probe c. VNTR d. reporter
gene
10. A segment of DNA that reads the same forward and backward is called
a. palindromic DNA b. complementary DNA c. plasmid DNA d. copy DNA
11. Which one of the following organism is used for the large scale production of
recombinant
insulin?
a. Plasmodium b. Agrobacterium c. Rhizobium d. E.coli
12.Thermal Cycler is used in …………….
a. enzyme linked immuno sorbant assay b. ligation reaction
c. polymerase chain reaction d. immobilization reaction
13. Which of the following sequence is a palindrome?
a. 5' ACGGATTCGC 3' b. 5' TATA 3' c. 5' CCATT 3' d. 5' CCAGG
3'
14. The creation of a DNA fingerprint involves all except which of the following
techniques?
a. southern blot b. northern blot c. PCR d.
electrophoresis
15. The recombinant human insulin was produced by………
a. Herbert Boyer b. Stanley Norman Cohen c. Peter Lobban d. Dale Kaiser
16. Increased ALP is a marker of …………………….. cancer
a. liver b. kidney c. bone d. lung
17. The selection of chiral stationary phase is to separate………………….
a. enantiomers b. products c. ingredients d.none of the
above
18.Polysaccharide-based chiral stationary phases (CSPs) are widely used for………..
a. analytical and preparative b.analytical c. preparative d. loading
19. Chiral (asymmetric) environment that interacts differently with each of the two
enantiomers
as they adsorb on the………………..
a. primary phase b. secondary phase c. decline phase d. stationary
phase
20. Prof. Pirkle used small molecules as the chiral selector that belongs to which
type………….
a. pirkle type b.cyclodextrins c.macrocyclic antibiotics d.template CSPs
21. Which among the following is a macrocyclic antibiotics……………..
a.teicoplanin b. vancomycin c. both a & b d. None of the
above
22. The cyclodextrins are used as…………
a. mobile phase b. stationary phase c. decline phase d. all the
above
23. SFC is considered a………….. technique
a. normal phase b. mobile phase c. reverse phase d. stationary
phase
24. Most of the liquid solvent is replaced by pressurized………
a. carbon dioxide, and only a small percentage of an organic solvent
b. only a small percentage of an organic solvent
c. only a small percentage of carbon dioxide
d. All the above
25. Separation of the various isomers is achieved by…………….
a. 0.1% of ethanesulfonic acid b. 0.1% hexane-ethanol
c. 0.1% hexane d. 0.1% ethanol
26.The biosensors based on the use of enzymes involving catalytic action are ……..
a. amperometric b. potentiometric c. catalytic biosensors d. biosensors
27.Biosensors which do not use enzymes but instead make use of antibodies are called…….
a. potentiometric b. catalytic c. bioaffinity d.
amperometric
28.Whole cell biosensors were also developed during ……..
a. 1877 b. 1777 c. 1677 d.1980
29.A biosensor consists of ……….. for sensing the concentration of a substance.
a. transmitter b. biological component c. amplifier d. conductor
30.In vitro medical diagnostics has a world-wide market of US $ …. Billion per annum.
a. 1 b. 9 c. 1000 d. 18
31.Amperometric biosensor- satellite G devices are used for detection of ………….
a. electric current b. glucose c. enzyme d. cell
32.……………. is the enzyme used in glucose biosensors
a. oxidase b. reductase c. glucose oxidase d. glucose
33.During the reaction in a biosensor, a biological component such as ………is needed.
a. a cell or enzyme b. product c. control d. liquid
34.The response during the whole process of glucose biosensors is depicting the ………..
a. conc.of glucose in blood b. blood pressure c. fever d. cold
35.The electrode in biosensors performs as………..
a. circuit b. transducers c. ampere d. diffuser
36.In the environmental biotechnology, biosensors are used to detect the ……………
a. living cells b.glucose c. pesticides d. energy
37. Which of the following is NOT required for a PCR reaction?
a. A thermostable DNA polymeraseb. Dideoxy-dNTPs (ddNTPs)
c. Primersd. Template DNA
38. A method used to distinguish DNA of one individual from another is ……….
a. PCR b. RFLP c. RAPD d. cDNA
39. The length of poly A tail is about------------
a. 20-250bp b. 6-14 bp c. 9-50 bp d. 10-125 bp
40. Platelet transfusion is indicated for the treatment or prevention of……………..
a. bleeding b. activators c. inhibitors d. none of the above
41.Platelets are stored at………………temperature
a. 20-24°C b. -196°C c. 35°C d. -2°C
42. Platelets have ABO antigens on their surface and may have reduced survival if
transfused to
an……………….
a. ABO incompatible recipient b. B recipient c. O positive recipient d. A recipient
43. PAS refers to……………….
a. Platelet human solution b.Platelet additive solution
c. Platelet service solution d. Platelet serum solution
44. FFP is indicated for the treatment of patients with bleeding due to ………………….
a. multiple clotting factor b. prothrombin complex c. stroma d. all of these
45. Buffy coats contain large number of………………
 a. WBC b. RBC c. both a & b d. none of the
above
46. Human albumin solution (HAS) does not contain …………….
a. clotting factors b. blood group antibodies c. both a & b d.plasma
47. Factors V and Factor II are……………….
a. thrombin b. plasminogen nnc. prothrombin d. fibrin
48. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) contains……………….
a. factor II, VII, IX, X b. factor IX, X c. factor II, VII d. factor VIII
49. High-dose intravenous immunoglobulin is used as replacement therapy in patients to
treat………………
a. autoimmune diseases b. gene replacement c. cytokine therapy d. all the
above
50. Anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the plasma of platelet components may rarely
cause……………….
a. rejection b. allergy c. death d. hemolysis

MBT KEY UNIT I

1d 2a 3a 4a 5c 6a 7d 8b

9b 10a 11d 12c 13b 14c 15a 16b

17a 18a 19d 20a 21c 22b 23a 24a

25a 26c 27c 28d 29b 30b 31b 32c

33a 34a 35b 36c 37d 38a 39a 40a

41a 42a 43b 44a 45b 46c 47c 48a

MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY-MCQ
UNIT II

1.Which of the following is believed to be a key cause of immortalization of cancer cells in

many tumours?
a.Complete loss of telomeres b. Inactivation of telomerase
c. Reactivation of the telomerase enzyme d. Shortening of telomeres
2.Which of the following is characteristic of a malignant rather than a benign tumour?
a. Undergoes metastasis b. Develops a blood supply
c. Cells divide an unlimited number of times d. Grows without needing a growth signal
3.Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming
secondary tumours is called………….
a.diapedesis b.metastasis c.proliferation d.replication
4.Which of the following method does not require PCR?
a.RFLP b.RAPD c.VNTR d.Microsatellite
5.Which among the following is not a cancer biomarker?
a.TA b,TL c.microsatellite d.cytoscopy
6.Which technique is the golden seal for TL determination?
a.hybridization b.cytoscopy c.slot blot method d.Q-FISH
7.Enhanced telomerase activity is not seen in…………………..
a.stem cells b.cancer cells c.germ cells d.somatic cells
8. ………… are tumours of connective tissues
a.carcinoma b.sarcoma c.leukemia d.lymphoma
9.Which is not a feature of benign tumour?
a.localized b.small size c.metastasis d.lump
10.Increased ALP is a marker of …………………….. cancer
a.liver b.kidney c.bone d.lung
11.Elevation of calcitonin indicates …………….. cancer
a.prostrate b.intestine c.bone d.thyroid
12………………….. marker is used to detect Hodgkin lymphoma
a.thyroglobulin b.ferritin c.microglobulin d.alpha
fetoprotein
13.The first fluorescence based flow cytometry was developed in ……………
a.1962 b.1964 c.1966 d.1968
14.Which among the following bacteria possess telomere?
a.E.coli b.Bacillus c.Borrelia d.Proteus
15……………….is the nucleotide sequence of telomere in vertebrates…………..
a.TTCGGG b.TTAGGG c.TATGAG
d.TTGAGG
16.Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)………….
a.are used to determine the position of restriction sites in a genome
b.are used in physical mapping
c.are used in genetic mapping
d.usually occur as multiple (more than 2) alleles in a genome
17.Chain termination DNA sequencing…………..
a. requires a DNA polymerase b. uses trideoxynucleotides
c. requires two primers d. uses chemical degradation of DNA

18.PCR is used for……………

a.reverse transcribing RNA into DNA b.digesting proteins
c.digesting DNA d.copying plasmids
19.Microsatellites ……….
a.are genome-wide repeat sequences b.can be used in physical mapping of
genomes
c.can be used in genetic mapping of genomes d.are usually longer than 200 bp
20.The shotgun method…………
a.is used in sequencing of genomes b.requires computers

c.is more accurate than the clone contig method d. is normally used with large genomes

21.Dideoxynucleotides are used in…………

a.PCR b.Southern hybridization c.Transformation d.Cloning
22.A genome marker………..
a.must occur in multiple (more than 2) alleles b.must be a repeated DNA sequence
c.must be a unique DNA sequence d.must be at least 50 bp long
23. ………….. vaccine uses a part of a protein to elicit immune response
a.DNA b.synthetic c.edible d.traditional
24.A microsatellite is a tract of repetitive DNA of ……………………bp
a.2-5 b.4-6 c.8-10 d.15-20
25.Microsatellites are often referred to as, except ………………….
a.SSR b.STR c.VNTR d.MSI
26.The first human disease attributed to MSI was…………………………
a. Xeroderma pigmentosum b.SCID c.Multiple sclerosis d.cystic
fibrosis
27.Components of the MMR system are encoded by……………
a. MLH1 b.MHC c.MLC d.MHL
28.Normal cells divide for a limited number of times and the process is called…………
a.immortality b.senescence c.apoptosis d.invasion
29.For vertebrates, the sequence of nucleotides in telomeres is ………..
a.TTAGGG b.TTGGAG c.AATTGG d.TTAAGG
30.A small fraction of which bacterial chromosomes have telomeres?
a.E.coli b.Streptomyces c.Bacillus d.Proteus
31.Which viral genome incorporates into host genome?
a.Adeno virus b.Adeno associated virus c.retro virus d.baculo
virus
32.HSVtk is an example of ………………….gene
a.suicide b.reporter c.mutated d.onco
33.Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
a.p56 b.p55 c.p53 d.p51
34.Driver genes represent………….
a.killer gene b.non pathogen gene c.mutant gene d.oncogene
35.Immune stimulating proteins are……………
a.apoproteins b.cytokines c.Igs
d.IFNs
36.Which of the following is involved in gene silencing?
a.antisenseoligo nucleotide b.siRNA c.shRNA d.TGF
37.Which of the following property is not characteristic of mesenchymal stem cell?
a.anti-proliferative b.anti-EMT c.anti-angiogenic d.anti-
apoptotic
38.Which virus cannot be genetically modified to kill tumor cells?
a.retro virus b.adenovirus c.baculovirus d.herpes virus
39.CFTR is a …………….. channel
a.Na b.chloride c.calcium d.copper
40.Which is not a barrier in gene therapy for cystic fibrosis?
a.mucous b.glycocalyx c.macrophages d.epithelial cells
41.Which among the following virus has a small packing capacity?
a.Adeno virus b.Adeno associated virus c.retro virus d.vaccinia
virus
42.Which among the following is expressed on the apical surface of AECs?
a.dextran b.sialic acid c.protein d.cytokines
43.Name the scientist who first proposed gene therapy for HIV treatment
a.Bordon b.Friedmann c.Anderson d.Baltimore
44.Which was the first protein used in gene therapy for HIV infection?
a.M10 b.p53 c.M15 d.rev
protein
45.The other name for intracellular antibodies is………….
a.endobodies b.intra Abs c.intrabodies
d.intrakines
46.How many exons are found in dystrophin gene?
a.79 b.75 c.70 d.69
47.Dystrophin protein is replaced by …………….. protein
a.diatrophin b.utrophin c.urotrophin d.microtrophin
48.Virus from which all viral genes are removed is called as……………
a.replicon deficient b.crippled c.empty virus d.gutless
49.When was Alzheimer’s disease first described?
a.1905 b.1906 c.1907 d.1908
50.Apolipoprotein E is found on chromosome……………….
a.19 b.18 c.23 d.20

MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY-KEY

UNIT II

1c 2a 3b 4a 5d 6a 7d 8b 9c 10a
11d 12b 13d 14c 15b 16a 17c 18a 19b 20b
21a 22a 23b 24a 25d 26a 27a 28b 29a 30b
31b 32a 33c 34d 35b 36d 37d 38c 39b 40d

41a 42b 43d 44a 45c 46a 47b 48d 49b 50a
 UNIT-III

1. The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of pigment…………….

a) cytochrome b) iodophore c) urochrome d) xanthochrome
2. Average pH of the urine ranges from………………
a) 6.5-7.0 b) 4.5-5.0 c) 8.0-8.5 d) 5.0-5.5
3. Refractometer is used to determine the……………….of urine
a) pH b) ketone bodies c) sugar d) specific gravity
4. ……………..is the condition of glucose in urine
a) Glycosuria b) Ammonia c) Phosphate d) Ketone
5. Which of the following denotes the presence of Ketone bodies in urine?
a) acetoacetic acid b) beta-hydroxybutyric acid c) acetone d) All the above
6. Bilirubin comes from the breakdown of ……………in red blood cells
a) creatine b) fats c) glucose d) hemoglobin
7.The renal threshold of glucose is around…………….
a) 160 mg/100 ml b) 180 mg/100 ml c) 120 mg/100 ml d) 190 mg/100 ml
8. The presence of hemoglobin in urine is called ……………….
a) glycosuria b) ketonuria c) albuminuria d) hemoglobinuria
9. …………..is important in determining the presence of glomerular damage
a) Albumin b) Proteins c) Yeast d) pH
10. Pseudomonas sp. is able to reduce nitrate in urine to………………..
a) ammonia b) urea c) nitrite d) phosphate
11. The presence of white blood cells in the urine usually signifies a…………………
a) kidney damage b) urinary tract infection c) liver failure d) anemia
12 ……………measures the number of young red blood cells being produced
a) Reticulocyte count b) Leucocyte c) Erythrocyte d) Hemocytometer
13. Hametopoesis occurs in the……………
a) bone marrow b) kidney c) liver d) lungs
14. Factors VIII or IX can be assayed if the patient is thought to have………………
a) leukemia b) haemophilia c) phenylketonuria d) Parkinson diseases
15. …………………..test is used to test red blood cells for compatibility
a) Coombs test b) Antiglobulin test c) Hemoglobin d) Allergy test
16. Screening test for coagulation disorder is ………
a) AGT test b) Anticoagulant test c) prothrombin time d) None of the above
17. Urethritis is ……………...
a) inflammation of the urethra b) bleeding in urethra
c) failure of urethra d) cyst in urethra
18. A bladder infection is called………………
a) infection b) swelling c) bleeding d) cystitis
19. Which of the following is a symptom of UTI?
a) Pelvic pain b) burning during urination c) smell in the urine d) All the
above
20 ………………...is a serious infection with risk of bacteremia
a) Pyelonephritis b) Acute prostatitis c) Chronic prostatitis d) Dysuria
21. Chyle is formed by mixing fats with……….
a) proteins b) glucose c) lymph d) bile

22. Chyle is……………….

a) partly digested liquefied food b) fats mixed with lymphs to form a milky fluid
c) small, slippery masses of food d) undigested food that enters stomach
23. White spot in meat is formed due to presence of…………………….
a. P. expansum b. Sporotrichum carnis c. both a&b d. P. oxalicum
24. Non- bacterial ropiness or sliminess in milk and milk products may be due to
the………….
a. stringiness caused by mastitis and in particular by fibrin and leucocytes from the cow's
blood.
b. sliminess resulting from the thickness of the cream
c. stringiness due to thin films of casein or lactalbumin during cooling
d. all of the above
25. The yoghurt is made from…………..
a. Lactobacillus bulgaricus b. Streptococcus thermophilus
c. S. cremoris d. mixed culture of (a) and (b)
26. A brown color in milk may result from……………….
a. Pseudomonas putrefaciens b. the enzymatic oxidation of tyrosine by P. fluorescens
c. both (a) and (b) d. S. marcescens
27. Pseudomonas syncyanea produces a………………
a. bluish gray to brownish color in milk in its pure form
b. brownish color to bluish gray in milk in its pure form
c. gray to brownish color in milk
d. yellow color in milk
28. Acidophilus milk used for intestinal disorders requires a pure culture
of…………………
a. Lactobacillus bulgaricus b. Streptococcus thermophilics
c. Lactobacillus acidophilus d. None of the above
29. A yellow color in the creamy layer of milk may be caused by………………
a. Pseudomonas synxantha b. Pseudomonas syncyanea c.both a&b d. S. marcescens
30. The chief type of spoilage in sweetened condensed milk may be……………….
a. gas formation by sucrose fermenting yeasts b. thickening caused by micrococci
c. mold colonies growing on the surface d. all of the above
31. The most important kind of chemical spoilage of canned foods is the hydrogen swell
which is favored by…………….
a. increasing acidities of foods b. increasing temperature of storage
c. imperfection in the tinning and lacquering d. all of these
32. Which of the following intrinsic factors influences food spoilage?
a. Temperature b. Humidity c. Food composition d. All of the above
33. Fumonisins are………………
a. Bacterial toxins in milk b. Fungal contaminants of corn
c.Viral lysis products d. All of the above
34. A part of nucleic acid used to find a gene by hybridization is called……………….
a. vector b. clone c. probe d. cybrid
35. The third phase of the PCR reaction involves…………
a. detection of amplification product b. amplification of DNA
c. breakdown of DNA d. obtaining isolated DNA
36. A small, 15-30 bases long nucleotide sequences used to detect the presence of
complementary sequences in DNA sample during DNA finger printing is called…………..
a. RFLP b. Probe c. VNTR d. reporter gene
37. Diethyl pyrocarbonate is used as a preservative for………………
a. Spice b. fruit juice c. nuts d. vegetables
38. Appertizing is a process called canning and is named after………………
a. Nicholas Apert b. Michael Apert c. John Apert d. Williams Apert
39. Food additives may be used to……………
a. destroy nutrients. b. disguise faulty products c. deceive customers. d. enhance
appearance
40. Platelet transfusion is indicated for the treatment or prevention of……………..
a. bleeding b. activators c. inhibitors d. none of the
above
41. Platelets are stored at………………temperature
a. 20-24°c b. -196°c c. 35°c d. -2°c
42. 60-65% of body water is……………….
a. extracellular fluid b. intracellular fluid c. both a & b d. none of the
above
43.Lleakage of lymphatic fluid from the lymphatic vessels leads to……………
a. chylothorax b. friability c. psoriasis d. all the above
44. Chylomicrons are………….
a. fluid b. diseases c. fat globule d. both a & b
45. Pink rots in eggs is caused by the strains of……………..
a. Pseudomonas b. Pseudomonas fluorescens
c. Micrococcus or Bacillus sp d. none of the above
46.Yellow discolorations in meat are caused by ……….
a. Micrococcus b. Flavobacterium c. both a&b d. Pseudomonas
syncyanea
47. Green rots in eggs is chiefly caused by……………..
a. Pseudomonas fluorescens b. Micrococcus or Bacillus species
c. Molds or yeasts d. all of the above
48. Black rots in eggs is most commonly caused by…………………..
a. Proteus sp. b. Micrococcus sp. or Bacillus sp c. molds or yeasts d. all of these
49. Black spot in meat is produced mainly by……………….
a. Cladosporium b. Thamnidium c. Mucor d. Rhizopus
50. Lactic acid bacteria in meats may be responsible for…………………
a. slime formation at the surface or within especially in presence of sucrose
b. production of green discoloration
c. souring
d. all of the above

KEY –Medical- UNIT III

1c 2a 3d 4a 5b 6a 7a 8d 9a 10c

11b 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 a 16 b 17a 18d 19b 20b

21.c 22.b 23.b 24.d 25.d 26c 27a 28c 29a 30d

31.d 32.c 33. b 34.d 35.b 36.b 37.b 38.a 39d 40a

41a 42b 43a 44c 45a 46c 47a 48a 49a 50d
 Medical- Unit IV

1.The product of glycogenolysis in muscle is ……..

a.lactate b.lacose c.glucose d.galacose
2.Which among the following is not a function of insulin?
a.glycolysis b.glycogenesis c.gluconeogenesis d.glycogenolysis
3.Insulin promotes the transfer of …….. into the cells
a.potassium b.phosphate c.fats d.both a &b
4.Which hormone blocks the release of insulin?
a.epinephrine b.secretin c.glucagon d.nephrine
5.Which hormone promotes the release of insulin?
a. epinephrine b.secretin c.glucagon d.nephrine
6.During release of insulin, proinsulin is cleaved with the release of ……………..
a.C peptide b.D peptide c.A peptide d.E peptide
7.Which of the following is not a feature of diabetes?
a.polyuria b.thirst c.hyperglycemia d.weight gain
8.High proinsulin concentrations are usually noted in patients with …………..
a.beta cell tumours b.increase in C peptide
c.both a&b d.hyperglycemic patients
9……………. is an example of an enzyme inhibitor
a.fluoride b.chloride c.halogen d.iodide
10.Glucose oxidase oxidises glucose to ……………
a.gluconic acid b.glucose P c.galactose d.galacturonic
acid
11. Glycolytic pathway regulation involves……….
a.allosteric stimulation by ADP b.allosteric inhibition by ATP
c.feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP d.all of the above
12. During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing glucose is
used to synthesize ATP. Remaining 60%
a. is lost as heat b.is used to reduce NADP
c. remains in the products of metabolism d.is stored as fat.
13. Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose catabolism?
a.There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving force for the
pathway
b.High levels of ATP keep the pathway going in a forward direction
c.The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
d.Glycolysis occurs in either direction
14. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as……..
a.a concentration gradient across a membrane b.ADP c.ATP d.NAD+
15. A kinase is an enzyme that………
a.removes phosphate groups of substrates
b.uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
c.uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
d.removes water from a double bond
16. For every one molecule of glucose which is oxidized, __________ molecules of
pyruvic acid are produced
a.1 b.2 c .3 d.4

17. In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor of glycogen is……….

a.glucose-6-P b.UTP-glucose c.UDP-glucose d.glucose-1-P
18.Which of the following gets dephosphorylated?
a.Glycogen synthase b.Glycogen semisynthase
c.Glycogen hydrolase d.Glycogen dehydrogenase
19. The amount of energy received from one ATP is………
a.76 kcal b.7.3 kcal c.760 kcal d.1000 kcal
20. The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the………..
a.intermembrane space b.plasma membrane
c.cytosol d.mitochondrial matrix
21. When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium concentration
then…….
a.the gibbs free energy will be positive b.the gibbs free energy will be negative
c.more products will be formed d.both (b) and (c)
22. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
a.ADP is phosphorylated to ATP via substrate level phosphorylation
b.The pathway does not require oxygen
c.The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose that enters
d.The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each mole of glucose
23. In glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate from 1,3-
bisphosphoglycerate to ADR No such high-energy phosphate donor has ever been isolated
in mitochondria because……………
a.the techniques for isolating the phosphate donor are not refined enough
b.no such phosphate donor exists
c.the high-energy phosphate donor is very short-lived and difficult to isolate
d.None of the above
24. ATP is from which general category of molecules?
a.Polysaccharides b).Proteins c).Nucleotides d).Amino acids
25. The glycolytic pathway (glucose → 2 pyruvate) is found………..
a.in all living organisms b.primarily in animals excluding particles
c.only in eukaryotes d.only in yeast
26. Phosphofructokinase, the major flux-controlling enzyme of glycolysis is allosterically
inhibited and activated respectively by………….
a.ATP and PEP b.AMP and Pi c.ATP and ADP d.Citrate and
ATP
27. Which of the following regulates glycolysis steps?
a.Phosphofructokinase b.Hexose kinase c.Pyruvate kinase d.All of these
28. During glycolysis, the major energy generating step involves………
a.pyruvate kinase b.phosphoglycerate kinase
c.glyceraldehyde-3 –dehydrogenase d.Phosphofructokinase
29. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate …………..
a.activates fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase b.activates phosphofructokinase
c.inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase d.both (b) and (c)
30. Glucose from the breakdown of glycogen is obtained in ……………
a.the liver by phosphorolysis b.the muscles by phosphorolysis
c.the muscles by hydrolysis d.both (a) and (b)
31. Glycogen has …………..
a.α-1,4 linkage b.α-1,6 linkages c.α-1,4 and α-1,6 linkages d.α-1,4 and β-1,6
linkage
32. Carbohydrates are ……………..
a. polyhydroxy aldehydes and phenols b. polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
c. polyhydroxy ketones and phenols d. polyhydroxy phenols and alcohols
33. Structural polysaccharides include ……….
a. cellulose, hemicellulose and chitin b. cellulose, starch and chitin
c. cellulose, starch and glycogen d. cellulose, glycogen and chitin
34. Nutritional polysaccharides are ……….
a. starch and glycogen b. starch and chitin c. starch and cellulose d. starch and glucose
35. Glycogen in animals are stored in ………..
a. liver and spleen b. liver and muscles c. liver and bile d. liver and adipose
tissue
36. Carbohydrates accounts …………
a. 30% in plants and 20% in animals b. 30% in plants and 10% in animals
c. 30% in plants and 1% in animals d. 50% in plants and 50% in animals
37. Smallest carbohydrates are trioses. Which of the following is a triose?
a. glucose b. ribulose c. ribose d. glyceraldehyde
38. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
a. glucose b. dihydroxyacetone c. erythulose d. none of these
39.Name the enzyme that convert fructose to fructose 1 P
a.fructokinase b.glucokinase c.fructose phosphatase d.fructose
40.Aldolase produces ………………
a.DHAP b.aldose c.fructose d.lactose
41.Glucokinase catalyses galactose to ……………….
a.glucose 1 P b.galactose 1 P c.galacturonic acid d.glucose
42.Lactate is converted to pyruvate by the enzyme ……………
a.lactase b.pyruvate dehydrogenase c.lactate dehydrogenase d. pyruvate kinase
43.Phosphoenol pyruvate is converted to pyruvate by ………..
a.lactase b.pyruvate dehydrogenase c.lactate dehydrogenase d. pyruvate kinase
44.Glucose is reduced by which of the following methods?
a.glycogenesis b.glyconeogenesis c.glucogenolysis d.gluconeogenesis
45.Glucagon is produced by …………….cells of islets of Langerhans
a.alpha b.beta c.gamma d.delta
46.Which hormone is secreted during fear, anxiety and anger?
a.nephrine b.epinephrine c.norepinephrine d. glucagon
47.Name the polypeptide found in the hypothalamus and delta cells of pancreatic islets
a.somatostatin b.epinephrine c.norepinephrine d. glucagon
48…………. is a condition where hyperglycemia leads to coma
a.ketoacidosis b.acidosis c.ketosis d.glycemia
49.Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor?
a.chloride b.fluoride c.bromide d.cyanide
50.Increased hunger is called as ……
a.polyuria b.polydipsia c.polyphagia d.glucosuria

KEY –Medical- UNIT IV

1a 2c 3d 4a 5c 6a 7d 8c 9a 10a

11 d 12 a 13 c 14 d 15 d 16 c 17d 18a 19a 20a

21.b 22.b 23.c 24.c 25.b 26d 27c 29a 30c

28b
31.c 32.a 33. d 34.d 35.d 36.b 37.a 38.c 39a 40a

41b 42c 43d 44a 45a 46b 47a 48a 49b 50c
 Medical MCQ-Unit V

1.Which country has the world’s most stringent standards for approval of new drugs?
a.USA b.Europe c.India d.Australia
2.Investigational new drug application is filed to the ………………
a.WHO b.FDA c.Patent office d.NDA
3.Which of the following studies is a prerequisite for filing new drug application?
a.invitro b.clinical c.preclinical d.exvivo
4.Which is an application made for approval of generic drugs?
a.NDA b.ANDA c.IND d.INDA
5.New drug application will not be reviewed by……………………
a.statistician b.microbiologist c.physicist d.pharmacologist
6.Indian company has to seek permission for manufacture of new drugs from
………………
a.DCGI b.ANDA c.IND d.INDA
7.For the approval of a new drug, RMS and CMS validation takes ……………. days
a.65 b.70 c.50 d.55
8.Assessment report by CMS takes ……..days or less
a.90 b.80 c.70 d.60
9.Which among the following is not a possible action sent by FDA to a sponsor?
a.not approvable b.approvable c.approval d.less approvable
10.What is the time taken for approval of an application for new drug in India?
a.12-18months b.12 months c.18-24months d.24months
11. What is the time taken for approval of an application for new drug in USA?
a.18months b.12 months c.18-24months d.24months
12. What is the time taken for approval of an application for new drug in Europe?
a.18months b.12 months c.18-24months d.24months
13……………… refers to studies or trials done in people
a.experiment b.protocol c.clinical research d.research
14. Phase 3 of clinical trial takes about …………years
a.1-4 b.4-6 c.6-8 d.10
15. Identification of ………………… compound is a pre requisite for bringing a new drug
to market
a.new b.lead c.good d.effective
16. How many phases are involved in the process of a lead molecule becoming a drug?
a.2 b.3 c.4 d.5
17. India accounts for ……………..% of global burden of disease
a.21 b.31 c.41 d.51
18.Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
a.CVD b.diabetes c.TB d.cancer
19.A serious issue in clinical trial is ……………………
a. the large number of deaths b.high cost c.long time d.more personnel needed
20. Clinical trial laws were amended in ………………….. in India
a.2001 b.2002 c.2005 d.2000
21. Which of the following is not a component of clinical trial data management?
a.collection b.integration c.validation d.grouping

22.Who among the following is not a key member involved in data management?
a.data manager b.developer c.clinical data associate d.clinician
23.Data from a clinical trial are stored in
a.CDMS b.CDSM c.MSCD d.DSMS
24.Which among the following is not a mission of CDM?
a.consistency b.accuracy c.collection d.validity
25.Receipt of CRFs pass through ..............entries to reach clinical data management
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4
26.Selfmedication is more prevalent among................
a.women b.men c.children d.literate
27. Unjustified self-medications and non-adherence to drug regime may lead to ..............
a. dangerous effects b.cure c.remedy d.quick recovery
28. Self-medication is practiced for quick and effective relief of symptoms of................
ailments.
a.major b. minor c.serious d.unrecognized
29.Overdose or misuse of drugs affects ..................................
a.kidney b.eye sight c.liver d.heart
30. High rates of self-medication of NSAIDs does not include................
a. ibuprofen b.piroxicam c.diclofenac d.ranitidine
31.Which one of the following characterizes phase I drug testing?
a. involve patients with different kinds of cancer
b. patients who have highly effective treatment alternatives.
c.It uses a single dose level to ascertain response rates.
d.It always involves completely predictable toxicities.
32.Which one of the following characterizes phase II drug testing?
a.It uses a single dose of drug determined from the Phase I experience.
b.It always treats divergent pathologies in a single trial.
c.It is the first human clinical experience with a new agent.
d.It always leads to a new drug approval from FDA.
33.Phase III drug testing involves……………..
a.small patient numbers b.can be done without approval.
c.comparison between treatments d.demonstrates superiority of the new approach.
34.Which one of the following characterizes animal models in drug development?
a.limited to the mouse model b. always require primate drug development.
c.important in drug development d. eliminated by modern technology.
35.Currently, consent documents for the general population be written at what grade level?
a. 4th grade b. 8th grade c.12th grade d.At the investigator’s discretion
36.Which of the following is a required element of an informed consent?
a.Clearly defined potential toxicities b. participation is required after consent is
signed
c.Guarantee of clinical improvement d.Guarantee of health care at no cost
37.The ease of comprehending informed consent include all of the following
EXCEPT………
a.Use upper case throughout document b.Break content into short sentences.
c.Use font size no smaller than 12 point. d.Arrange content with subheadings.
38.Drug Accountability Record records the ………….
a.number of study agents b. control of investigational medications
c.patient charges for reimbursement d.the study agent’s dose intensity
39.All of the following are common examples of endpoints used in drug development
research except……………
a.Time to progression b.Best clinical response
c.Percentage of patients who withdraw from study d.Quality of Life measures
40.Which of the following FDA documents are “binding” requirements for investigators
conducting drug development research?
a.Knowledge b.Guidance documents c.Regulations d.GCP (Good Clinical Practice)
41.For what purpose does the IRB review the informed consent?
a.Protect the Institution b.Protect the subject
c.Provide information about proposed research trials d.Protect the Sponsor
42.How long must clinical research records be kept?
a.For 2 years b.For 2 years after FDA approval
c.For 7 years after end of study d.Until last patient on the study dies
43.Which of the following is NOT an ESSENTIAL element of ethical research?
a.Valuable scientific question b.Balance of risks and benefits
c.Subject selection based on locality d.Independent review
44.What is the definition of an Adverse Event?
a.Any sign or symptom during the course of a clinical trial
b.Any event which the PI decides to report during the course of a clinical trial
c.Administration of the wrong dose of study agent
d.Patient participating in a clinical trial withdraws from study
45.Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring protocol integrity?
a.Principal Investigator b.Study Coordinator c.Study Monitor d.The study research
team
46.Why do sponsors conduct monitoring visits?
a.For casual visits b.Try to find new investigators
c.Check on the use of grant money d.Ensure that subject’s rights are
protected
47.Which of the following is not an objective of routine monitoring visits?
a.To check on subject enrollment b.To verify CRF data against source
documents
c.To collect completed CRFs d.investigator sign the Investigator
Agreement
48.As defined in the Belmont Report, the ethical principle of beneficence related to the
general rule:
a.obtain consent form subjects
b.maximize possible benefits and minimize potential risks
c.the burdens of research should be shared equally
d.the benefits from research should be applied first to those who cannot afford them
49.To conduct federally funded research, the regulations require institutions to have which
of the following?
a. Certificate of Confidentiality b. A contract for goods and services
c. Human subject protection regulations d. Business Associate agreement
50.Recruitment advertisements for subjects, a part of the informed consent process
must……..
a. contain all the federal elements of consent b.be reviewed and approved by the IRB
c. only be in written formats d.be in both English and non-English
languages

KEY-Medical MCQ-Unit V

1a 2b 3b 4b 5c 6a 7b 8a 9d 10a

11a 12b 13c 14a 15b 16c 17a 18c 19a 20c

21d 22d 23a 24c 25b 26a 27a 28b 29c 30d

31a 32a 33c 34c 35b 36a 37a 38b 39c 40b

41b 42b 43c 44a 45a 46d 47d 48b 49c 50b
Semester III

Elective III: Stem cell Biology Course code :

P15BT3:1

UNIT – I

1. Diploid germ cells transforming as matured haploid cells are called as ……………..
a. Embryo b. Zygote c. Gametes d. All the three

2. …………………….is a cellular division that occurs in gonads

a.Mitosis b. Blastrulation c. Meiosis d. Both aand c

3. The end product of Oogenesis is ………………………..

a. egg b. Zygote c. Ovule d. Ova

4. The primordial germ cell from the process of spermatogenesis

produces……………….number of sperms
a. 2 b. 8 c. 4 d. 6

5. The part of the sperm that has hydrolytic enzyme is …………………..

a. head b. centriole c. Plasma membrane d. Acrosome

6.The selective area that screens the entry of sperms into the ovum is called as
………………..
a. Plasma membrane b. Zona pellucida c. Both a &b d.Nucleus

7. The region of the egg where yolk is the most concentrated is called as ………………
a. Animal hemisphere b. Vegetal pole c. Vegetal hemisphere
d.Animal pole

8.Swift repeated mitotic cell divisions of the zygote is called as……………

a. Gastrulation b. Cleavage c. Bastrulation d. Fertilization

9.The unicellular cells transforming as multicellular with an end product called

………………
a. Zygote b. Gastrula c. Blastrula d. Embryo

10. The 32nd stage of cell division is termed as …………………..

a. Blastomeres b. Morula c. Neurula d. Neural crest

11. The end phase of cleavage is called as ……………

a. Blastrulation b.Fertilization c. Gastrulation d. Both a and c
12. The outer layer of a blastula is termed as ……………………
a.Blastocoel b. Blastomere c. Trophoblast d.both b and c

13. The embryo consisting of primitive gut is called as ………

a.Blastula b. Trophoblast c. Gastrula d. All three

14.The process of gastrulation increases and depends on the yolk as it ……..

a. increase b. decrease c.equalizes d. is not affected

15. The lips of the blastopores further folds as ………

a. Trophoblast b Archenteron c.ectoderm d. endoderm

16. Neurulation is a process found in ………………

a.Fish b. Insects c. Amphibians d.All the three

17.Neural crest forms vital organs leading to ……………

a.neurons b. Synaptic nerves c. Melanocytes d.All the three

18. The anterior portion of the neural plate forms …………..

a.Brain b.Spinal Cord c.Ganglions d.all the three

19. Among the primary layers, which system is not formed by the mesoderm ?
a.Circulatory b. Excretory c. Reproductive d.Respiratory

20. Find the odd man from the below series

a.Tooth enamel b. Cornea c. Pituitary d. Urethra

21. Somatic cells are body cells characterized by …………..

a.2N b. N c. 4N d.All the three

22. Osteoplastare cells formed from the differentiation of ………………

a.Endoderm b. Ectoderm c. Mesoderm d. All the three

23.The fine division of zygote is termed as …………….

a.Morula b.Cleavage c.Blastrula d.Gastrula

24. The process of activation of egg is called as ………….

a.Embryogenesis b.Implantation c.Fertilization d.Oogenesis

25.The reorganisation of the Triploblastic layer is called as ……..

a.Gastrulation b. Organogenesis c.Blastrulation d. Both a and b

26.Stemcells biology is highlighted in the field of ……………..

 a.Heamatology b.Cytogenetics c.
Regenerative medicine d. All the three

27. Find the odd cell among the series

a.osteoclasts b. Erythrocytes c.chondrocytes d.myocytes

28.Stem cells are…………….

a. Totipotent b. Pluripotent c.Multipotent d. All the three

29.Mesenchymal cells are found in ………….

a. Adult Embryonic cells b.Bone marrow cells c. Germ line cells d. All the three

30.A stem is ………………when it has the potential to transform from single to an

organism
a Pluripotent b. Totipotent c. Multipotent d. Both b and c

31…………….stem cells are the product of fertilization.

a. Bone marrow b. Adult c.Germline d. Early embryonic

32. The peripheral cells found in a blastula are known as …………..

a. Umblicalcord b. Fetus c. Placenta d. Both a and b

33. The term Niche generally enumerates …………

a. location b. Vital source c. localized in a ‘protected’ environment d. All the three

34.Diabetes can be treated by ……………….types of stem cells

a. Bone marrow cells b. Adult cells c. Cord blood cells d. Germ cells

35.The undifferentiatedstem cells that replenish a damaged cell is called as ………………

a. Bone marrow cells b. Adult cells c. Cord blood cells d. Germ cells

36.Differentiation of cells from same lineage to organs is termed as …………..

a. Gastrulation b. Organogenesis c. Plasticity d. All the three

37.Somatic cells differentiating as cell lineage with a precursor is called as …………

a. Differentiation b. Trans differentiation c. Redifferentiation d. Dedifferentiation

38.Give examples ofstem cells that originates in bone marrow ………..

a.Embryo cells b. Hematopoietic Stem Cell c. Glial cells d. All the three

39.Find the odd in the series

a. Osteoplast b. Stroma c. Cartilage d. Thrombocytes
40.Regenerative medicine is a field which replaces ………..
a. organs b. Congenital defects c.cellular damage d. All the three

41. Parkinson disease can be targeted by stem cell therapy by replacing ………….
a. Acetyl CoA b. Seratonin c. Dopamine d. All the three

42.Ves Cell is a stem cell therapeutic used for …………….

a. Lung conjestion b. Renal failure c. Cardiac arrest d.Epilepsy

43.HSCT transplantation is one remedy for …………….

a. Anaemia b. Leukemia c. Thalasemia d. All the three

44. An example of adult epithelial stem cells is ……………….

a. Corneal b. Chondriomycytes c.Vascularwal cells d.Germ cells

45.Ischmia is treated by …………………..type of stem cells.

a.Mesenchymal b. Bone Marrow c. Muscle derived d. All the three

46.Stem cells that are excited with genetic expression and signalling are called as
a. Hscs b. Mscs c. iPs d. All the three

47. Stem cells originated from blastocyst stage of the embryo are called as……..
a Pluripotent . b. Totipotent c. Multipotent d. Both b and c

48. MSCs can be isolated from…………….

a. umbilical cord b. Fetal liver c. adipose tissue d. All the three

49. The concept of ‘stemness of each cell from another cell’.was devised by ……………
a. Julius Friedrich Cohnheim b. E Donnall Thomas

c. Rudolf Ludwig Karl Virchow d. James E Till

50.Stem cell niche was initially developed in ………………….

a. Mouse b. Human c. Drosophila d.C.elegans

KEY- UNIT -I

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.c 5.d 6.b 7.b 8.b 9.c 10.b

11.a 12.c 13.c 14.a 15.b 16.c 17.d 18.a 19.d 20.d
 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.c 25.a 26.c 27.b 28.d 29.d 30.b

31.c 32.c 33.c 34.c 35.b 36. c 37.d 38.b 39.d 40.d

41.c 42.c 43.c 44.a 45.d 46.c 47.a 48.d 49.c 50.c

UNIT –II

1. What defines stem cells?

a) Cells that can transform into any type of cell, such as blood, muscle, or skin cells.
b) Cells that are obtained from the inner mass of a pre-implanted embryo thereby
destroying the embryo.
c) Cells that have the ability to renew themselves continuously.
d) All of the above.

2. Who was the first scientist to conceive the idea of cellular differentiation?
a) Theodor Schwann
b) Robert Hooke
c) Alexander Maksimov
d) John Enders

3. What are the near term clinical applications of stem cells?

a) To replace or repair injured cells in patients
b) To be used to in organ regeneration
c) To make human clones after an individual accidently dies
d) Only 1 and 2

4.What are the broad categories of stem cells?

a) Adult, embryonic and umbilical cord stem cell
b) Totipotent, Pluripotent, and Multipotent stem cell
c) Both 1and 2
d) None of the above

5.What is a pluripotent stem cell?

a) Cells found in the inner mass of blastocyst that can differentiate into over 200
different cell types except placental cells
 b) Stem cells derived from adult tissue, cord blood, and bone marrow and that do not
differentiate into all the different cell types
c) Any progenitor cell found in human embryos
d) None of the above

6.What is the gold standard “stem cell”?

a) Fertilized human egg
b) Stem cells obtained from the inner mass of embryos
c) Stem cells obtained from umbilical cord blood
d) Stem cells obtained from bone marrow

7. What does pluripotency mean?

a)Self-renewal property of the cell
b)The ability to transform into any type of cell
c)The ability to form tumors
d)None of the above

8. What stem cell technology requires the transfection of cells with the following four genes
–
Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc?
a)Induced Pluripotent System (iPS)
b)Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)
c)Cloning
d)None of the above

9.Who is credited with discovering and developing iPS technology?

a)Shinyi Yamanaka b)John Gearhart c)John Enders d)Charles Darwin

10.What is the scientific challenge in developing a new therapy based upon embryonic stem
cell replacement?
a)Tissue rejection and tumor formation b)Hard to harvest
c)Slow to proliferate d)None of the above

11.Approximately how many embryonic stem cell lines are federally approved (as of
2011)?
a)20 b)100 c) 65 d)93

12.Which three U.S. professional sports leagues had players recently receive unapproved
stem cell treatments outside the U.S.?
a)NBA and MLB and NHL
b)NFL and MLB and NBA
c)NFL and NBA and NHL
d)NFL and MLS and NHL
13.Which of the following is true about embryonic stem cells?
a) They have been proven safe by the FDA
b) Scientist believe they can cure every disease
c) They come from abortions
d) Under certain conditions they can cause tumors

14.Which of the following is false about human embryonic stem cells?

a.They
a) can only be made from human embryos
b)b.Their production must destroy a human embryo
c.They are most often derived from material produced in a lab that would otherwise
c)
be most often be medical waste
d.Adult human stem cells were discovered decades before human ES cells.

15.Which of the following is true about iPS cells?

a)a) They were first made in the U.S.
b)b) They are not tumorigenic
c) Clinical trials using them are underway
c)
d) They are more powerful disease modeling tools than ES cells
d)
16. Which paradox is true about stem cells?
a. Most stem cell therapies will not transplant stem cells
b. Adult stem cell research does not always use only adult stem cells
e)
c. The developers of the first stem cell treatment did not know their treatment
involved stem cells
d) d. All of the above

17.What federal agency is the primary one charged with regulation of stem cell clinics?
a. FDA b .NIH c. FBI d.SEC

18. Which of the following is a false statement about cancer stem cells?
a. They can also be called "tumor initiating cells"
b. They are rare cells
c. They express many of the same genes as normal stem cells
d. They can be found in small numbers in every type of cancer

19.What statement about stem cell cosmetics is correct?

a.FDA-approved stem cell cosmetic treatments are becoming more widely
available
 b.Physicians who perform stem cell cosmetic treatments must have taken a
residency
that teaches them how to perform the procedures
c.Stem cell cosmetic treatments are scientifically proven to work
d.Stem cell cosmetic treatments are becoming widely available despite
generally not yet having been FDA approved
20.Which professional sports league has a policy on stem cell treatments?
a.NBA b.NFL c.MLB d.None of the above

21. The embryos used in the reproductive studies were created through…………….
procedures.
a. In vivo b. In vitro c. In silico d. Transplantation

22. Cell –Based Therapies to treat disease, is referred to as ……………… medicine.

a. Repair b. Rearrangement c. Replacement d. Regenerative

23. First the stem cells are ………………. capable of renewing themselves through
cell
division.
a. Specialized b. Unspecialized c. Undifferentiated d. Differentiated

24. Stem cells are capable of dividing and renewing themselves for ………….
period.
a.Short b. Permanent c. Long d. Medium

25. Human embryonic stem cells are generated by transferring cells from
…………..stage embryo.
a. Preimplantation b. Blastocyst c. Grastula d. Zygote

26. In original protocol, the inner surface of the culture dish is coated …………….
skin cells.
a. Human embryonic b. Monkey embryonic
c.Mouse embryonic d. Fly embryonic

27. Each cycle of subculturing the cells is referred to as a …………………..

a. Cell Line b. Cell Culture c. Passage d. Guard cells

28. Embryonic stem cells are cultures for a prolonged period without differentiating
are ………………...
a. Totipotent b. Pluriotent c. Separated d. Cell line

29. Transcription factors help turn ………………. on and off.

 a. Genes b. Cells c. Chromosomes d. DNA

30. Nanog and Oct4 are ………………….factors.

a. Growth b. Transcription c. Meiotic d. Hormone

31. Injecting cells into mouse with suppressed immune system to form benign tumor
is
………………….
a. Teratoma b. Myeloma c. Sarcinoma d. Leukemia

32. The haematopoietic stem cells are located in the ……………...

a. Lymph nodes b. Brain c. Heart d. Bone marrow

33. The HSCs can be isolated using ………………. machine.

a. FACS b. Haemocytometer c. Cell Counter d. FPLC

34. Heart is composed of a specialized type of muscle cell called the …………..
a. Muscle cells b. Nerve cells c. Cardiomyocyte d. Heart cells

35. Cardiomyoctes contracts in ……………..manner.

a.Vibrating b. Radiating c. Concerted d. Circular

36. Cardiomyocytes response to electrical signals from special …………………

regions.
a. Heart b. Lymph c. Pacemaker d. Tubular

37. The sudden death due to heart attack is due to ……………..

a. Increase pulse rate b. Block in coronary artery
c. Depletion of O2 d. Brain damage

38. The first clones were made in the late ………………. century.
a. 17th b.18th c.19th d.20th

39. First clones were made by separating cells of ………………..embryos.

a. Frog & sea urchin b. Human c. Monkey d. Mouse

40. The mouse ES cells were first isolated in 1981 by ……………… at Univ. of
Cambridge, U.K.
a. Martin Evans & Mathew b. Martin c. Louis d.Hans Spemann

41. ‘CNS’ stands for ………………………

a. Central Nervous System b. Cerebral nervous system
c. Cerebrum nerve system d. Central neural system
42. The opaque cornea can be treated using …………… graft from human cadaver.
a. Corneal b. transplant c. shield d. budding

43. …….. disease is a disorder in which the absence of the protein leads to
accumulation of lipofuchsin in the brain.
a. Batten b. Viral c. Bacterial d. Muscular

44. iPS cells are made by introducing a few specific genes into normal cells, was
discovered by …………….. of Kyoto University, Japan, in 2006.
a. Robert b. Shinya Yamanaka c. You Ko d. Rio

45. SCNT stands for ……………

a. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer b. Same Cell Nucleus Transfer
c. Soma Clonal Transfer d. Some Cell Nuclear Transfer

46. Klf4 and c-Myc were already known as ………..

a. neft gene b. oncogene c. allergy gene d. specific gene

47. ES cells stands for ……..

a. Emergency Stem Cells b. Embyrogeneic Stem Cells
c. Epithelium Stem Cells d. Endothelium Stem Cells

48. Human therapeutic cloning use of ………….embryos to create ES cell lines.

a. Fetal b. SCNT c. CNS d. Somatic

49. iPS cells are described as ‘……… stem cells’.

a. New b. Embryogeneic c. Adult d. Somatic

50. Pluripotent stem cells may be either Es cells or ……. Cells.

a. iPS b. adult c. somatic d. embryo

KEY-UNIT- II

1d 2a 3d 4b 5a 6a 7b 8a 9a 10a
11d 12b 13d 14b 15d 16d 17a 18d 19d 20d
21.b 22.d 23.b 24.c 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.b 29.a 30.b
31.a 32.d 33.a 34.c 35.c 36.c 37.b 38.c 39.a 40.a
 41. a 42.a 43. a 44.b 45a. 46.b 47. b 48. 49.c 50. a
b

e)
UNIT- III

1. Induced pluripotent cells are derived from ……………cells

a.Embryonic b. Adult c. Somatic d. Both a and b

2. Which among the following stem cells fits all the applications?
a. IPS b. Embryonic c. Adult d. None of these

3. …………….. are partially specialized cells that can give rise to particular cell types
a.Embryonic b. Adult c. Somatic d.Progenitor cells

4.The characteristic feature of a cell that divides to produce same cell type is termed
as……
a. Unipotent b. Multipotentc.Totipotent d. Pluripotent

5. The solution to avoid immunological rejection is ……………-

a.Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) b. Gene cloning
c.proteinprofilling d.both b and c

6.…………….serves as an alternative to Human embryonic stem cells.

a.IPS b. Hematopoietic cells c. Umblical cord cells d.Both a &c

7. The first extraction of stem from human embryos was performed in the year ………….
a. 1987 b. 1998 c. 1992 d.2002

8. Blank cells are also termed as ……………..

a. somatic cells b. stem cells c. germ cells d. embryo cells

9. Nestin positive is a screening element used in …………..-phase

a.differentiation b. expansion c. immobilized d. both a & b

10. ……….is an example of genetically inherited disease that can be cured by stem cell
therapy.
a.Cystic fibrosis b.Diabetis c. Parkinson’s disease d. All the three

11. Mutations in stem cells during stem cell therapy leads to ……………
a. Tissue rejection b. Tissue repair c. Leukemia d. All three
12.The technique of inducing somatic cells into a enucleated ocyte is calles as …………..
a. somatic clonningb.nuclear transfer c. Gene cloning d. All the three

13.Stem cell research prevent or treat diseases and injuries by ……………..

a cell based therapies b. Pharmaceutical development
c. somatic cell cloning d. All three

14…………. rate is improved by in vitro fertilization.

a. Sperm motitlity b. Implantation c. oocyte development d. All three

15. ……………is a technique used to replenish sperm’s ability to latch onto and penetrate
the egg.
a.Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection. b. IVF
c. Somatic nuclear transfer d. Both a and b

16.A fetus is complete and fully transformed on ………………..

a. Days 14-21 b. Weeks 3-8 c. Week 5-8+ d. Day 14

17.Stem cells cultured are nourished by…………..cells.

a. fibroblast feeder cells b. Embryonic cells c. Cord blood cells d. Yolk cells

18.The undifferentiatedstem cells that replenish a damaged cell is called as ……………

a. Bone marrow cells b. Adult cells c. Cord blood cells d. Germ cell

19. Neural stem cells divide and differentiate to become……………cells

a. Neural b. Glial c. Astrocytes d.Both a& b

20.……………is the molecular mechanism that decides the stem cells to become a distinct
organ..
a.Molecular splicing b.Gene expression c. Transcription d. All the three

21.Stem cell research utilizesprimitive human cells and develops them into ------- varieties
of cells in the human body,
a)200 b)220 c)240 d)120

22. Which types of stem cells are devoid of ethical issues?

a ) Adult stem cells b) Neural stem cells c)cord blood stem cells d)All three

23. Regenerative medicine utilises ---------type of therapy.

a)Cell based therapies b)Therapeutic cloning c)Gene therapy d) All three

24.Adult Stem Cells (ASC): can be received from……………..

 a)bone marrow b)muscle c)brain d)All three

25. ……………….- cell is an example of specialised stem cells

a)Heart cell b)Muscle cell c)Pancreatic cell d) All three

26………………..- cell is an example of a multipotent stem cells

a)Neurons b)Oligodendrocytes c)blood cells d)All three

27……………. stem cells areboth multipotent and pluripotent

a)Fetal tissue b)Cord blood c)Adult stem cells d)All three

28.Blood cells converting as neurons is an example-----------

a) regeneration b) totipotency c) plasticity d) All three

29. ---------- are considered as the sources for the proliferation of limited adult stem cells.
a)Placental cord b) Aborted embryos c) bone marrow d) All three

30.Which among these stem cells is considered to be an ethical issue?

a) Adult stem cells b) Neural stem cells c)embryonic stem cells d) cord blood cells

31.The reason of immune rejection is due to……………

a) Chlorophyll DNA b) Mitochondrial DNA c)Proteins d)All three

32.Ban on reproductive cloning was propagated initially in high levels at ……………

a) U.S.A b) Great Brittan c) France d) India

33.Dolly was successful by using……………..technique.

a) SCNT b) Embryonic Clonning c) Cell based clonning d) All three

34. ……………….cells are opted as alternative hES

a) Bone marrow b) Umblical cord blood c) Benign d) All three

35. Which among the following religion accepted stem cell technology?
a) Judaism b) Muslim c) Christianity d) All three

36. Stem Cell Therapeutic and Research Act was enacted in ……………..
a) 2008 b) 2011 c) 1998 d) 2005

37.The possibility of stem cell research is more in ………………..

a) Great Britain b) France c) Germany d) India

38. ---------- cells may originate from unregulated stem cells.

a) Benign b)Teratoma c) Tumour d) All three
39.Human mitochondria carry about ------- number of genes
a) 46 b) 13 c) 23 d) 16

40.Therapeutic cloning utilises -------types of stem cells

a) Adult stem cells b) Embryonicstem cells c) Fetal cells d) All three

41.---------- is a method used for Reproductive and Regenerative cloning.

a)Nuclear transfer b) SCNT c) Gene cloning d ) All three

42. ------- cells in the embryogenesis phase require a surrogate mother for invitro
implantation
a) Gastrula b) Blastula c) Morulad) All three

43.Which out of the following cells are incorporated in the feeder layer of culture cells?
a) Neural cells b) Myeloma cells c) Mouse embryonic skin cells d) All three

44.Regenerative therapy using stem cells can treat ----------diseases.

a)Parkinson’s b) Alzheimer’s c) heart disease d)All three

45.Percentage of Immune rejection is likely to be found in----------cells

a)Embryonic cells b) Adult cells c) Fetal cells d) Both a and b

46.Pharmaceutical research using stem cells enhances ………….

a)Screening of novel drugs b) Disease diagnosis c) Gene therapy d) All three

47.Stem cells that give rise in potential screening of drugs are

a)Totipotentcells b) Pluripotent cells c) Totipotent cells d) All three

48. Molecular mechanisms for gene control is categorized as …………

a) Basic research b) Applied research c) Advanced research d) All three

49.Neural stem cells has the capacity to produce ………….

a)Astrocytes b)Oligodendroglial cells c)Neurons d)All three

50.Exploring the use of adult stem cells for cell-based therapies is a ………….application
of stem cells
a)Pharmaceutical b) Scientific research c) Disease diagnostic d) All three

KEY - UNIT- III

 1.d 2.d 3.d 4.a 5.a
6.d 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.a
11.c 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.a
16.c 17.a 18.b 19.a 20.b
21.b 23.a 24.d 25.c
22.d
26.d 27.d 28.c 29.c 30.c
31.b 32.a 33.a 34. 35.a
36.a 37.a 38.b 39.b 40.b
41.b 42.b 43.c 44.d 45.a
46.a 47.b 48.b 49.d 50.b

UNIT – IV

1. The stem cells grow in the form of neurospheres, are clumps of cells, isupto …..mm
wide.
a. 10 b. 0.3 c.30 d. 13

2. Neurospheres that grow in the suspension culture medium contains ……& ….. growth
factors.
a. HGP&NGP b. AGP&HGP c. EGF&FGF d. IBA &IPA

3. Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes are two types of ………. cells.

a. Cardiovascular b. liver c. kidney d. glial

4. Three types of ………….stem cells are neurons, astrocytes and oligodendrocytes.

a. Neuronal b.cardiomyocytes c. foetal d.adult

5. Neurospheres can cure …………..diseases which involves neuronal death.

a. Cardiac b. Pancreatic c.Hepato d.Neurodegenerative

6. Haematopoietic stem cell transplantation means ………… transplantation.

a. blood b.kidney c. platelets d. bone marrow

7. Peripheral blood or umbilical cord blood are known as ……….. sources for HSCT.
a. Marrow b. non-marrow c.peripheral d.intestinal

8. Worldwide, about ……….HSCTs are carried out each year as an important stem cell
therapy.
a. 5000 b. 50,000 c. 500 d.50

9. HSCT is used to treat …..% of non-malignant blood diseases.

a. 10 b.15 c.5 d.0.5
10. ………….. is used for the treatment of lymphomas and leukaemias.
a. HSCT b. NSCT c.FSCT d.ASCT

11. CNS related Batten disease is due to the accumulation of ………… protein in brain.
a. Haemoglobin b. Fuchsin c. pectin d. lipofuchsin

12. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease is a sex-linked genetic disorder, that occurs in ………

a. father b.mother c.boy d.girl

13. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease involves the production of ……… of nerve fibres.

a. neuronal stem cell b. neurons c. myelin sheaths d. denrons

14. The epidermis of the skin is poorly attached to the underlying dermis due to lack
of……..
a. Collagen 7 b. Globin c.beta globin d.alpha globin

15. Transplantation of cells, tissue or organ from one individual to another is …………
a.autograft b.allograft c.xenograft d.allogenic graft
16. The cells that produce the hormone insulin is ……. cells.
a. alpha b. Beta c. stem d. neural

17. The type of …….. cell that forms scars following damage to CNS.
a.glial b. Beta c. stem d. neural

18. Extracellular regulatory proteins controlling growth is called …………

a.connective b.cytokines c. cytoplasm d. cytochromre

19. The outer of the three germ layer is……..

a.endoderm b.ectoderm c. mesoderm d. epiderm

20. The innermost of the tree germ layers is ……

a.endoderm b.ectoderm c. mesoderm d. epiderm

21. Type 1 diabetes usually strikes during………….

a. adult b. childhood c. embryo d. foetus

22. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a loss of the ………. cells.

a. gamma b. beta c. alpha d. blood

23. Type 2 diabetes tends to develop at ………. age.

a. younger b. middle c. older d. juvenile

24. The key cell type considered for diabetes is …….. cell.
 a. gamma b. beta c. alpha d. blood

25. The beta cell resides in the ………………….

a. islets of langerhans b. lungs c. heart d. kidney

26. Islets of langerhans is in the …………………..

a. lungs b. heart c. kidney d.pancreas

27. Endocrine cells which are grouped into clusters in pancreas were named as ‘islets’
by……
a. Michael b.John c. Paul Langerhans d. Thomas
Issac

28. The refined procedure for immunosuppression is called the …………

a. Transplant b. Transfer c. Edmonton Protocol d. Immunotechique

29. In severe diabetes the mechanisms for mobilizing glucose, by another hormone
is………
a. galactose b. glycogen c. lactogen d. glucagon

30. When blood glucose is too low, ……..is released and causes anxiety, hunger etc.
a. endocrine b. adrenalin c. thrombin d. enzyme

31. Islets transplantation technique involves transfer of islets through ………. vein into
liver.
a. Heart b. artery c. hepatic portal d.muscle
32. Islets are taken from ………… organ of donor.
a. deceased b. patient c. embryo d. foetus

33. Insulin was discovered in the year ……..

a. 1820 b.1720 c. 1921 d. 2014

34………. is the principal hormone that controls blood glucose level.

a.Auxin b. Cytokine c. IBA d. Insulin

35. Regulatory authorities such as …. …..of USA insist cells for cell therapy.
a. PDA b.FDA c.FAO d.NGO

36. The ……………… system is located in the bone marrow.

a. haematopoietic b. circulatory c. defence d. immune

37. The ……….. can be isolated using FACS machine, which can purify single cells.
a. ES b. iPS c. HSCs d. adult cells
38. …………… is an extracellular regulatory protein that controls functioning of cells.
a. Auxin b. Cytokine c. Endocrine d. IAA

39. The outer of the three germ layers making up the body of an embryo is ………
a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm d. epiderm

40. The type of glial cell that forms scars following damage to CNS is ………….
a. astrocyte b. cardiomyocyte c. neurons d. dentricles

41. Parkinson’s is a progressive ….. disorder.

a. heart b. movement c. brain d. lung

42. Type 1 diabetes is also known as …………. diabetes which affects children
a. young b. adult c. juvenile d. old

43. ………… occurs when the body cannot use insulin effectively.
a. Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 diabetes c. Type 3 diabetes 4. Type 4 diabetes

44. ………… is a disease characterized by abnormal high levels of glucose in the blood.
a. Cardiovascular b. Wheezing c. Jaundice d. Diabetes

45. In 1970 ……. Was awarded Nobel prize in Physiology and Medicine.
a. Donnall Thomas b. Robertis c. John d. Alois

46. First stem cell banking was established at National Institute of Biological Standards in
………….……
a. USA b. UK c. Canada d. India

47. Cord stem cells can be extracted by ……. procedure.

a. non-invasive b. invasive c. difficult d. easy

48. The FDA ………. has issued guidelines for cord blood storage.
a. UK b. USA c. Canada d. India

49. The inner most intrauterine membrane around the fetus is called ……
a. Amnion b. Cortex c. Medulla d. Xylem

50. The soft, living tissue that fills most bone cavities is called ……..
a. Skin b. bone c. cartilage d. bone marrow
 KEY-UNIT-IV

1b 2c 3d 4a 5d 6d 7b 8b 9c 10a
11d 12c 13c 14a 15a 16b 17a 18b 19b 20a
21b 22b 23c 24b 25a 26d 27c 28c 29d 30b
31c 32a 33c 34d 35b 36a 37a 38b 39a 40a
41b 42c 43a 44d 45a 46b 47a 48b 49a 50d

UNIT – V

1.-----------stem cells are considered to be mother of all other cell types in body.
a. Adult b.Embryonic c. Fetal d. Cord blood

2. Which among the following cells are non-immunogenic in nature?

a.Adult b.Embryonic c.Mesenchymal stem cells d.All three

3. Stem cells have the capacity of (i)self-proliferation (ii) migration (iii) differentiation
a. both i and iii b. only iii c. only i d. All three

4. The autoimmune diseases treated by stem cells are

a. Ischemia b.Rhematoid Arthritis c. Type I diabetesd. Parkinson’s disease

5. IND stands for …………..

a. Institutional descriptors b.Institute of novel drugs
c.Indian institute of drugs d.Investigational new drugs

6. SreeChitraTirunal Institute for Medicinal sciences and technology specialises research

on ---------- cells
a. Embryonic stem cells b.kidney c. liver d. cardiac

7. The expansion of SOD is -----------

a.standardoperation procedure b.stature oriented procuring
c.stem cells operative procedure d. standard operation protocol

8.Find the odd among the series

a. AIIMS b.Brain research centre c. IISC d.Reliance life science

9.---------institute is the reputed cord blood bank in India

 a.Indian institute of science b.Christian Medical College
c. Life cell d.KEM hospital

10. All India Institute of Medical Eeducation focus its research on ----------stem cells.
a. Mononuclear b. bone marrow c. Haematopoietic d. All of these

11.---------is used to preserve haematopoietic stem cells

a. Biotin b.Lectin c.Formaldehyde d.All three

12. Which Institute in India accepts the submission of stem cell lines?
a. NIMHANS b. AIIMS c. NCCS d. SGPGIMS

13. The first haploidentical haematopoietic transplantation was carried out in----------
a. AIIMS b. IISC c. LVPEI d.CMC

14. Mesenchymal cells posses potential for ………………..

a.Endocytosis b.allogenic transplantation c. Active transportation d. Osmosis

15. A stem cell bank holds sample originated from ………………….

a.Embroyonic b.foetal c.adult d.All three

16. Cryo cell International is a stem cell bank which holds about ---------- number of
repositories
a. 10,000 b.1000 c.200 d.600

17. Clinical and trial network is categoried under ----------- stem cell research
a.Basic research b. translational c.Applied d. All three

18.Which among the following countries has assisted Human Reproductive act?
a. Canada b. China c. Germany d. France

19. The derivation and use of hESC from blastocysts is prohibited in ………..
a. India b. China c. France d .Germany

20. In India draft guidelines for stem cell research is manifested by ………….
a.DBT b.DST c.CCMT d. All three

21.What are the near tram clinical applications of stem cells?

a.To replace or repair injured cells in patients
b.To be used in organ regeneration
c.To make human clones after an individual accidental mortality
d.Only 1 and 2

22.Gold standard “stem cell’ is called as ---------

 a.Fertillized human egg
b.Stem cells obtained from the inner mass of embryos
c.Stem cells obtained from the umbilical cord blood
d. Stem cells obtained from bone marrow

23.Which stem cell technology requires the transfection of cells with the following four
genes-Oct4,Sox2,Klf4,c-Myc?
a.Induced Pluripotent System (Ips) b.Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)
c.Cloning d. None of the above

24.Who is credited with the lauret of discoveribg and developing iPS technology?
a.Shini Yamanaka b.John Gearhart c.John Enders d.Charles Darwin

25.What is the scientific challenge in developing a new therapy based on embryonic stem
cell replacement?
a.Tissue rejection and tumour formation b.Hard to harvest
c.Slow to proliferate d.None of above

26. About how many adult stem cell clinical trials are listed in the global database?
a. 40 b. 400 c.1000 d.5000

27.What is the apparent current regulatory status of SVF in the US based on public FDA
guidance?
a. Practice of Medicine Product b. 361 HCT/P
c. 351 biological drug product d. Not subject to FDA regulation

28.In which year, human ES cells were first successfully produced and cultured?
a.1993 b.1994 c.2002 d.1998

29. What year was the first publication on iPS cells?

a. 2003 b.2004 c.2005 d.2006

30.Who first made iPS cells?

a. Yamanaka b.Thomson c. Jaenisch d. Daley

31. How many clinical trials involving ES cells are active in the U.S. as of January 2014?
a. One b.Two c.Three d. Four

32. What is the most accurate statement about human pluripotent cells?
a. Can make all known types of human cells
b. Can differentiate and self-renew
c. Can make all types of human cells except extraembryonic tissues
d. Only embryonic stem cells fit that category
33. What does the acronym SCNT stand for?
a. Stem Cell Nuclear Transplant b. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transplant
c. Stem Cell Nuclear Transfer d. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer

34. Who characterized the very first embryonic stem cells?

a. Thomson b.Yamanaka
c. Evans and Kaufman d. Evans, Kaufman, and Martin

35.What entity started the very first FDA approved human ES cell-based clinical trial?
a. Advanced Cell Technology b. iPierian c. UC Irvine d.Geron

36.Which California institution opened the first CIRM-funded stem cell center?
a. Stanford b.UCSD c.UCSF d.UC Davis

37.Which institution pioneered the first successful stem cell transplantation therapy?
a. Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center b.Stanford
c.UCSF d.UCLA

38. In which yearthe first mammal, Dolly was cloned?

a. 1994 b.1996 c.1995 d. 2001

39.What is the current iPS cell human clinical study status across the globe?
a. No active human clinical studies anywhere
b. One active human clinical study in Japan
c. Two active human clinical studies in Japan
d. One active human clinical study in the US

40.How long post-in vitro fertilization are the blastocysts used to make human ES cells?
a. 4-5 days b. 0-1 c. 1-2 d.3-4

41.Which of these statements is false?

a. The field of pluripotent stem cells began with cancers
b. Stem cells have similar properties to cancer cells
c. Adult stem cells are by definition safe
d. Teratoma are not always benign

42.How many stem cell/cellular therapies have been approved under the breakthrough
therapy designation by the FDA so far?
a. 0 b. 1 c.2 d.3

43.This structure plays a role in limb and digit regeneration in salamanders and other
"lower" animals
a. Blastocyst b. Blastomere c.blastoma d.blastema
44.Which of the following is true about transdifferentiation?
a. It is the same as dedifferentiation
b. It is the process of changing one cell type into a fundamentally different one
c. It is the process of changing a non-stem cell into a stem cell
d. It is the same as induced pluripotency

45.Which of these meanings is not used in other languages to mean "stem cell"?
a. Mother Cell b. Trunk cell c.Root Cell d. God Cell
46. ………… dye is used ti identify hematopoietic stem cells.
a. Crystal violet b. Iodine c. Hoechst d. Lacto phenol

47. Cells surrounding and maintaining the ovarian follicle is …………. cells.
a. T-cells b. B-cells c. granulose d. agranulose

48. The embryonic sex gland before it becomes a definitive testis or ovary is called
……….
a. zygote b. adrenal c. gonads d. lymph

49. Cells that give rise to connective tissue is …………..

a. fibroblast b. muscle c. cardiovascular d. nerve

50. Cartilage cells are called as ……………..

a. lymphocytes b. leucocytes c. chondrocytes d. granulocytes

KEY - UNIT – V

1.b 2.a 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.d 9.c 10.d

11.b 12.c 13.d 14.b 15.d 16.b 17.b 18.c 19.d 20.d

21.d 22.a 23.a 24.a 25.a 26.d 27.c 28.d 29.d 30.a

31.b 32.c 33.d 34.d 35.d 36.d 37.a 38.b 39.b 40.a

41.c 42.a 43.d 44.b 45.d 46c 47c 48c 49a 50c

Semester IV
Core X: Environmental Biotechnology
Course code : P15BT410

UNIT - I
1. Checking of re-radiating heat by atmosphere carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, dust is

known as ………….
a. Ozone layer b. green house effect c. radioactive effect d. solar effect
2. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces ……………

a. Fluorides b. ozone c. sulphur oxide d. Monoxide

3. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increase green house effect as carbon dioxide …….

a. Precipitates dust in the atmosphere c. is opaque to infrared rays

b. Reduce atmospheric pressure d. is not opaque to infrared rays
4. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the earth's atmosphere is ………..
a. carbon dioxide b. methane c. nitrous oxide d. water vapor
5. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

a. Water vapor b. carbon-dioxide c. ozone d. methane

6. Which of the following gases are mainly responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect

in the earth's atmosphere?

a. Nitrogen and carbon dioxide c. water vapor and carbon dioxide
b. Ozone and oxygen d. oxygen and nitrogen
7. Ozonosphere is mainly depleted by ……………

a. Excess CO b. excess CO2 c. CFCs d. ozone

8. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by

……………….
a. Absorbing solar radiation

b. Blocking ultraviolet radiation

c. Absorbing earthshine in the 10 micron region

d. Increases UV penetration to earth
9. Which of the following processes acts to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

a. burning fossil fuels b. photosynthesis c. deforestation d. lightning

10. What is the main source or sources of acid rain?
 a. Antarctica b. Sewers c. Magnesium oxide d. Nitrogen oxide & Sulfur
dioxide
11. What can be done to reduce the acid in lakes?
a. Draining and Refilling
b. Nothing, just after time the acid will disappear
c. Liming
d. Nuclear radiation of lakes
12. Acid rain is due to ……….
a. Sulphur dioxide pollution b. Carbon monoxide pollution
c. Pesticide pollution d. Dust particles in the atmosphere
13. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases …….
a. Methane and ozone b. Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c. methane and sulphur dioxide d. Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide
14. Which gas out of following is found highest by volume in Air?
a. Nitrogen b. oxygen c. ozone d. methane
15. Incomplete burning of petrol or diesel in vehicles creates.......... poisonous gas.
a. Carbon dioxide b. Carbon monoxide c. Methane d.
Ozone
16. Combustion of coal in power plant produces mainly ................ air pollutant.
a. Sulphur dioxide b. Nitrogen dioxide c. Methane d. Chlorofluorocarbons
17. Taj Mahal is said to be suffering from "Marble Cancer" What is Marble Cancer?
a. Acid rain which corrodes marble
b. large number of fungus in marbles
c. Yellowing of the marble on account of soot particles
d. Smoke filling
18. Which gas is primarily responsible for global warming?
a. Carbon dioxide b. Hydrogen dioxide c. CFC d. Sulphur
dioxide
19. What is Kyoto Protocol?
a. It is agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming
 b. It is agreement among countries to take steps for reducing Acid rain
c. It is agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees to control
pollution
d. It is agreement among countries to start using nuclear energy
20. Cholera ,typhoid and jaundice are due to pollution of ..............................
a. Air b. Water c. Soil d. Food items
21. Which of the radioactive material is largely associated with bone cancer?
a. radium-226 b. thorium-232 c. Strontium-90 d. iodine
22. Radiation can cause…………….
a. Cardiac diseases b. Hemophilia c. leukemia d. Bone marrow
diseases
23. Algal bloom results in…………
a. global warming b. sanitation c. eutrophication d. bomagnification
24. The effects of radioactive pollutants depend on…………
a. Rate of diffusion b. Energy releasing capacity
c. Rate of deposition of the contaminant d. All of these
25. The main atmospheric layer near the surface of earth is……………
a. Troposphere b. Mesosphere c. Ionosphere d. Stratosphere
26. The pollution which does not cause persistent harm to life supporting system
is…………..
a. Noise pollution b. Radiation pollution
c. organ chlorine pollution d. water pollution
27. The range of normal human hearing is in the range of…………..
a. 10 HZ to 80 HZ b. 50 HZ to 80 HZ c. 50 HZ to 15000 HZ d. above 15000
HZ
28. Any substance which causes pollution is called………….
a. Pollutant b. Factor c. Co-factor d. infection
29. In which of the following ways cost of pollution can be evaluated?
a. Loss of resources by unnecessary wasteful exploitation
b. Damage to crop production
 c. Pollution control involving money & manpower for disposal of pollutants
d. All the above
30. Which of the following is the source of air pollution?
a. Thermal power station b. Industrial wastes
c. Automobiles d. All of the above
31. The first global conference on the depletion of ozone layer was held in…………
a. Vienna 1985 b. San Fransisco 1984 c. Brazil 1985 d. Washington 1985
32. CFC is widely used as………….
a. Propellants b. Heaters c. Coolants d. Conductors

33. What percent of ultraviolet radiation increase with subsequent reduction of 1% ozone?
a.10% b. 8% c. 2% d. 12%
34. Pollution like ozone and photochemical smog cause…………….
a. Respiratory infections b. Cancer c. Allergies d. None of the above
35. Benzene is a………….
a. Solid pollutant b. Gaseous pollutant c. Both a & b d. None of the
above
36. What is the toxic substance contained by typical electronic waste?
a. PCB's b. dioxins c. pesticide like compounds d. heavy metals
37. Strategy for disposing of hazardous liquid wastes is…………..
a. Deep well injection b. secured landfill c. composting d. incineration
38. Pollutants derived from agriculture include...................
a. Pesticides b. PCB's c. Animal Waste d. Sediment
39. Man made source of radiation pollution are………..
a. Preparation and radioactive isotopes b. nuclear weapons
c. nuclear fuels d. Both a & c
40. Commonly used radioactive isotopes in scientific research………..
a. 14 C b. 125 I c. 32 P d. All of these
41.Biomagnifications is mainly caused by…………
a. Organ chlorines b. Neem oil c. Organophosphates d. Benzene
42. Pollutants resulting from human activities are mainly discharged in………..
a. Over populated cities b. Industrial centers c. Rural areas d. both a & b
43. Photochemical smog is also called………….
a. Los Angeles type smog b. New York type smog
c. Tokyo type smog d. California type smog
44. CO is harmful to human being because…………………….
a. It decreases CO2 concentration
b. It competes O2 to combine with haemoglobin
c. It is carcinogenic
d. It depletes O3 layer
45.…………… are the gases commonly called as Green house gases
a. CH4, N2, CO2 and NH3
b. CO2, O2, NO2 and NH3
c. Chloro-fluoro-carbons, CO2, NH3
d. CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2
46. Most abundant danger at present for the survival of living being in earth is………..
a. Radiation hazard b. Desertification c. Deforestation d. Gleization
47. Thermal pollution in water bodies is caused due to discharge of…………………
a. Hot water from power plants b. hot chemicals from industries
c. Waste from mines d. Waste from agricultural fields
48. PAN stands for…………
a. Peroxy acetyl nitrate b. Peroxy acyl nitrite
c. Pyridine aceto-nitrite d. Peroxyaceto-nitrile
49. The term 'Bio-magnification' refers to the……………
a. Growth of organism due to food consumption
b. Increase in population size
c. Decrease in population size
d. Increase the concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass food chain
50. 5th June is celebrated as……………
a. World forest day b. World environment day
 c. World Red Cross day d. World food day

KEY- UNIT - I

1b 2d 3c 4c 5c 6c 7a 8d 9c 10d
11c 12a 13b 14a 15b 16b 17a 18a 19a 20b
21c 22c 23c 24d 25a 26a 27c 28a 29d 30d
31a 32c 33c 34a 35d 36a 37a 38a 39d 40d
41a 42d 43a 44b 45d 46a 47a 48a 49d 50b

UNIT - II

1. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes?
a. non point sources of pollution b. violations of the Clean Water Act
c. point sources of pollution d. irrigation
2. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate ………………..
a. contamination by human wastes b. phosphorus contamination
c. decreased biological oxygen demand d. hydrocarbon contamination
3. How does the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of
organic
matter in water?
a. the oxygen demand increases b. the oxygen demand decreases
c. the oxygen demand remains unchanged d. None of the above
4. Which of the following is not a major source of groundwater contamination?
a. agricultural products b. landfills
c. septic tanks d. all of the above
5. Which of the following is not considered as part of water use planning?
a. waste water treatment b. water diversion projects
c. storm sewer drainage d. all of the above issues
6. The stage in which the biological processes is used to purify water in a wastewater
treatment
plants is called ……………….
a. secondary sewage treatment b. primary sewage treatment
c. wastewater reduction d. biochemical reduction
7. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into ……………
a. increase in the salinity b. decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
c. decrease in the salinity d. increase in the water table
8. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution?
a. mechanized agriculture b. hybrid seeds
c. slash and burn d. monoculture
9. The three primary soil macronutrients are …………….
a. carbon, oxygen, and water b. copper, cadmium, and carbon
c. potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen d. boron, zinc, and manganese
10. Which of the following is not a method of septage disposal?
a. land application b. co -treatment with waste water
c. co- disposal with solid wastes d. soil application
11. Which of the following is an air pollutant?
a. Nitrogen b. Carbon dioxide c. Carbon monoxide d. Oxygen
12. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
a. Ozone b. Carbon dioxide c. Carbon monoxide d. Sulphur dioxide
13. BOD is …………………….
a. A measure of the organic matter presents in water b. Usually less than COD
c. Biochemical oxygen demand d. All of the above
14. BOD/COD ratio will always be………………………
a. Equal to 1 b. Less than 1 c. More than 1 d. None of them
15. Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures………………………
a. Industrial pollution b. Air pollution
c. Pollution capacity of effects d.Dissolved O2
16. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?
 a. Factories b. Sewage treatment plants
c. Urban and suburban lands d. All of the above
17. Septic tank is…………………
a.An aerobic attached growth treatment system
b.An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system
c.An anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system
d.An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system
18. Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical/substance?
a. Plastics b. Oils c. Pesticides d. Garbage
19. Which of the following process is included under Preliminary treatment?
a. filtration b. floatation c. coagulation d. precipitation
20. Oily and greasy materials are removed by……………………………
a. sedimentation b. skimming c. floatation d. centrifugation
21. Which of the following process is not involved in chemical precipitation?
a. coagulation b. flocculation c. sedimentation d. chromatography
22. Which is not a type of trickling filter?
a. percolating filter b. sprinkling filter c. oxidation units d. packed bed
23. Which major step in wastewater treatment prepares the wastewater for treatment by
physically removing the majority of solid material?
a. Primary treatment b. secondary treatment
c. tertiary treatment d. all the above
24. In the secondary step of wastewater treatment ,………………… sludge is oxidized and
recycled under aerobic conditions
a. bulking b. activated c. aerated d. oxidized
25. Where is methane produced during the wastewater treatment process?
a. anaerobic digestion b. activated sludge c. trickling filters d. all the above
26. Which of the following is true of anaerobic digestion in the wastewater treatment
process?
a. microbes consume large amounts of organic matter because methanogenesis is
energetically very inefficient
 b. methane can be produced as a by-product of the process
c. dried sludge can be sold as garden fertilizer
d. all the above
27. During which stage of wastewater treatment are nitrogen and phosphorus removed?
a. primary treatment b. secondary treatment c. tertiary treatment d. all the
above
28. Nitrogen is removed from the water supply through which of the following chemical
reactions?
a. denitrification b. anammox c. chlorination of ammonia d. all the
above
29. Which of the following methods is used to measure the portion of total carbon oxidized
by
microorganisms over a 5-day period at 20 degrees Celsius?
a. TOC b.COD c. BOD d. all the above
30. The combination of adsorption and biological predation of microbes is used in which of
the
following wastewater treatment processes?
a. Wetland bioremediation systems b. home septic tanks
c. municipal sewage systems d.all the above

31. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

a. precipitation b. disinfection c. adsorption d. filtration
32. Grit chambers are used to remove ……………………..
a. sand ash b. grease c.oil d. volatiles
33. The activated sludge was first developed by …………………
a.1916 b.1914 c.1918 d.1912
34. Which of the following steps are not included in sequencing batch reactor?
a. filling b. aeration c. sedimentation d. filtration
35. Which bacteria is not seen in biological film of trickling filters?
 a. Pseudomona b. Flavobacterium c. Alkaligenes d. E.coli
36. Which among the following is not a product of acidogenesis?
a. butyrate b. lactate c. propionate d. methane
37. Stabilization pond refers to …………………. ponds.
a. facultative b. anaerobic c. aerobic d. all the above
38. Which of the following compounds cannot be removed by activated carbon?
a. pesticide b. coloring agents c. metals d. grease
39. Cationic exchangers help in removal of ………………..
a. organic wastes b. hardness of water c. negatively charged ions d.
gases
40. Nitrosomonas helps in the production of ………………..
a. ammonia b. nitrite c. nitrate d. nitrogen
41. Which of the following is not a by -product from septic tanks?
a. methane b. carbon di oxide c. hydrogen d. hydrogen sulphide
42. In the process of composting, actinomycetes degrade ……………….. compounds
a. cellulose b. starch c. lignin d. chitin
43. Cooling stage of composting results in ………………… acid formation.
a. acetic acid b. humeic acid c. formic acid d. lactic acid
44. Which of the following is not a method of composting?
a. aerated static pile b. windrow c. in vessel d. out vessel
45. Vermicomposting involves the conversion of carbon rich organic compounds to ………
rich
organic compounds.
a. nitrogen b. oxygen c.i carbon d. hydrogen
46. Which of the following is not used in conditioning of sludge?
a. alum b. lime c. ferric chloride d. copper
47. DRANCO means …………………
a. Dry aerobic composting b. Dry anaerobic composting
c. Dried aerobic composting d. Dry anaerobic composting
48. Beta ray irradiation requires a dose of ………………. M rad
 a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4
49. Gamma ray irradiation requires isotopes as ……………….. and ……………….
a. Co, Ca b. Co, Ce c. Cd, Co d. Cu, Cd
50. The temperature of sewage sludge during composting is maintained at ……..◦C.
a.35 b.45 c.55 d.65
KEY - UNIT – II

1c 2a 3a 4d 5d 6a 7a 8c 9c 10 d

11c 12a 13d 14b 15d 16c 17d 18d 19b 20b

21d 22d 23a 24a 25a 26 d 27c 28d 29c 30b

31d 32a 33b 34d 35d 36d 37a 38d 39b 40 b

41c 42 c 43 a 44d 45 a 46d 47b 48a 49b 50c

UNIT - III

1. One of the most biologically richest region of the world is ……………

a. Indo-Malayan Region b. Russia c. West Africa d. South Ameri
2. Rice is native of …………..
a. China b. Japan c. Indonesia d. India
3. Precipitation value of biodiversity is ………….
a. Consumptive Use Value b. Productive Use Value
c. Ecosystem Service Value d. Essential Value
4. About 85% of world's food is derived from ……………..
a. More than 500 species of food crops b. About 200 species of food crops
c. About 25 species of food crops d. About 5000 species of food crops
5. Global illegal trade in endangered and plant species is more common in………………
a. Tropical Countries b. Temperate Countries
c. Developed Countries d. Industrialized Countries
6. The notorious wildlife criminal arrested in India in the year 2005 is ………..
a. Ram Chandra b. Shyam Chandra c. Sansar Chand d. Krishna Chand
7. When there is no doubt that the last individual has died, the species is designated as
………..
a. Rare b. Vulnerable c. Threatened d. Extinct
8. Ailurus fulgens (Red Panda), a highly endangered species, is found in which part of
India?
a. Coastal Region b. North Eastern Himalayas
c. Trans Himalayan Region d. Tarai area
9. Asian elephant is now endangered because it is being killed for ……………
a. Skin b. Ivory c. Musk d. Fur
10. The only ape found in India is ………………….
a. Gorilla b. Chimpanzee c. Hodock Gibbon d. Orangutan
11. Zoo falls under the …………… conservation type.
a. In situ b. In vivo c. In vitro d. Ex situ
12. The full form of CITIES is ……………….
a. Conference on Indian Tropical endangered Species
b. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
c. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna & Flora
d. Convention on Indian Trade in Endangered Species
13. Corbett National Park, India was established in the year …………….
a. 1936 b. 1947 c. 1968 d. 2004
14. The concept of Biosphere Reserves under UNESCO's Man and Biosphere (MAB
programme
was launched in the year …………..
a. 1965 b.1970 c. 1975 d. 1980
15. The only floating national park of our country is ……………….
a. Corbett b. KeibulLamjoo c. Kaziranga d. Keoladeo Ghana
16. India became a party to CBD and ratified it in the year ……………….
a. 1990 b. 1992 c. 1994 d. 1996
17. Seventeen countries holding about 70% of global biodiversity have formed an
organization
which is named as ………………..
a. NBSAP b. IBSP c. LMMC d. CITES
18. LUCN is now called as …………….
a. IBCN b. WCU c. WWF d. CITES
19. According to Myers, 2000, the number of hot spots in the world is ………….
a. 10 b. 12 c. 24 d. 25
20. Approximate percentage of species endemic in hot spots of India is……………..
a. 15 b.17 c. 30 d.33
21. Megadiversity regions are assigned as geographical regions of world which have
………
a. Ecosystem Richness b. Species Richness
c. Richness genera d. Community Richness
22. International Day of Biological diversity is celebrated on ………….
a.June 5 b. February 02 c. May 22 d. August 15
23. Convention on Wetlands of International Importance is also called as ramsar
Convention as it
took Place first in …………..
a. India b. Iran c. Iraq d. America
24. Convention on International trade in Endangered species of Wild Fauna and Flora came
in
force in the year ………………..
a. 1970 b. 1973 c. 1957 d. 1975
25. National Environment Policy of India aims to bring forest cover ………….
a. 25% b. 32% c. 33% d. 34%
26. Multilateral instrument signed by many nations or international institutions is
called………
a. Treaty b. Protocol c. Convention d. Declaration
27. In India, Project Tiger was initiated in the year ……………
 a. 1970 b.1971 c. 1972 d. 1973
28. The first National park established in India in 1936 is …………
a. Dudhwa National Park b. Jim Corbett National Park
c. Rajaji National Park d. Kaziranga National Park
29. Most economic method of water conservation is ……………..
a. Construction of Dams b. Interlinking of Rivers
c. Rain water Harvesting d. Watershed management
30. The person popularly known as Water man in India is ……………….
a. Madha Patekar b. Rajendra Singh c. Sundar Lal Bahuguna d.
Baba Amte
31. World Water Vision has its goal to provide safe and sufficient water to all by the year
……
a. 2010 b. 2015 c. 2020 d. 2025
32. Use of natural resources is excessively practiced in …………..
a. India b. Asia c.Brazil d. United States
33. The biggest Indian desert is ………….
a. Gobi b. Sahara c. Thar d. TaklaMakan
34. Intake of lead may primarily cause the damage of …………
a. Brain b. Lung c. Liver d. Kidney
35. Industries generating hazardous waste are classified as ………..
a. Brown b. Green c. Yellow d. Red
36. Which one of the following methods is not an Insitu conservation for biological
resources?
a. Biosphere Reserve b. National parks
c. Protected Areas d. Breeding under confined areas
37. Which one of the following methods for disposal of municipal solid waste is known to
be
scientific?
a. Open Land Disposal b. Incerination
c. Landfill method d. Sanitary landfill method
38. Ramsar Conservation is associated with ……………………………….
a. Forest Conservation b. Soil Conservation
c. Wetland Conservation d. Wildlife Conservation
39. About half of earth's photosynthesis is carried out by …………….. .
a. Cyanobacteria b. Rainforest flora c. Protists d. Marine phytoplankton
40. The second generation source for biofuel production ……………...
a. Coal b. Petrol c. Corn and Molasses d. Crop Residues
41. El Nino effect refers to the periodic extension of warm equatorial current along which
coast?
a. Peru Coast b. African Coast c. East Coast of India d. Somalia Coast
42. International Ozone Day is celebrated on ……….
a. 21st April b. 5th June c. 22nd April d. 16th September
43. Ozone undergoes photolysis due to ultraviolet radiations of wavelength of ………..
a. < 315nm b. <400 nm c. <500nm d. < 600nm
44. In the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, 1992, which of the following was not an agenda?
a. Ozone depletion b. Global warming
c. CO2 reducing targets d. Biodiversity conservation
45. Nanda Devi and Sunderbans are examples of Indian ……………………
a. National parks b. Sanctuaries
c. International heritage areas d. Biosphere reserves
46. Which of the following gases has the maximum global warming potential (GWP)?
a. CO2 b. Methane c. Nitrous oxide d. Water vapour
47. According to WHO, maximum permissible level of iron in drinking water is………..
a. 1mg/L b. 5mg/L c. 10mg/L d. 50mg/L
48. An earthquake is rated as ‘major' if it is magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of ….
a. 4.0-4.9 b. 7.0 - 7.9 c. 6.0-6.9 d. 5.0- 5.9
49. Lightening in the atmosphere produces …………….
a. NO b. CO c. CO2 d. NH3
50. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100
ml of
 drinking water is …………
a. 10 b. 100 c. 150 d. 1000

KEY- UNIT -III

1a 2d 3c 4b 5a 6c 7d 8b 9b 10c
11d 12c 13a 14c 15b 16c 17c 18b 19d 20d
21b 22c 23b 24b 25c 26c 27d 28b 29d 30b
31d 32d 33c 34d 35d 36d 37b 38c 39a 40c
41a 42a 43a 44c 45d 46a 47c 48b 49a 50a

UNIT - IV

1. Environmental biotechnology involves……….

a. the use of microbes to clean up the environment
b. bioremediation
c. the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs
d. all of these
2. The use of living microorganism to degrade environmental pollutants is called………….
a. microremediation b. nanoremediation c. bioremediation d. all of these
3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills?
a. Bacillus subtilis b. Pseudomonas putida
c. Pseudomonas denitrificans d. Bacillus denitrificans
4. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called……..
a. bioextraction b. microbial extraction c. biofiltration d. bioleaching
5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally
occurring microbes is called………..
a. exsitu bioremediation b. intrinsic bioremediation
c. extrinsic bioremediation d. none of these
6. Ex situbioremediation involves the ………………………..
a. degradation of pollutants by microbes directly
b. removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
c. degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
d. none of these
7. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes?
a. Trichoderma sp b. Aspergillus niger c. Pseudomonas putida d. all of these
8. Microorganisms remove metals by……….
a. adsorption and complexation b. adsorption and precipitation
c. adsorption and volatilization d. all of these
9. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of………….
a. organic wastes b. hydrocarbons c. heavy metals d. all of these
10. A non-directed physico chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and microbial
surface is called…………………
a. biotransformation b. bioconversion c. biosorption d. biomining
11.Algal bloom results in………
a. global warming b. salination c .eutrophication d. biomagnification
12. Growing agricultural crops between rows of planted trees is known as ……..
a. social forestry b .jhum c. taungya system d. agroforstry
13. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like…….
a. glycerol b. polyphosphates c. sulfonated hydrocarbons d. all of these
14. Which of the following is non biodegradable?
a. tea leaves b. nylon c. remains of animals d. fleece of sheep
15. What percentage of sunlight is captured by plants to convert it into food energy?
a.1% b.10% c. 50% d. more than 50%
16. Which of the following is an abiotic component?
a. plant b. animal c. soil d. microorganisms
17. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at
each
higher trophic level is called…..
 a. eutrophication b. pollution c. accumulation d. biomagnification
18. The structural and functional unit of environment is known as……..
a. Food chain b. food web c. ecosystem d. biosphere
19. Bioremediation uses……………
a. fungi b. enzymes c. microorganisms d. all of the above
20. Addition of nitrate or sulphate fertilizers in the soil to facilitate the decomposition of
crude oil by……………..
a. indigeneous bacteria only b. exogeneous bacteria only
c. both indogeneous and exogeneous bacteria d. none of the above
21. Bioremediation technology can be generally classified as……………
a. in situ bioremediation b. ex situ bioremediation
c. both a and b d. none of the above
22. Bioremediation technology using microorganisms was invented by ………..
a. G.M.Robinson b. F.H.C.Crick c. J.D.Watsen d.
C.D.Bridges
23. GM. Robinson, who invented bioremediation using microorganisms, is a………....
a. Doctor b. Engineer c. Architect d. Historian
\24. Examples of bioremediation include…..
a. land farming b. bioreactor c. bioventing d. all of these
25. Which of the following heavy metals are not absorbed by organisms?
a. cadmium b. lead c. both a and b d. none of the above
26. Which of the following are able to bioaccumulate mercury toxins in its above ground
part?
a. natural plants b. transgenic plants c. both a and b d. none of the
above
27. Which of the following is the most radio resistant organisms?
a. Deinococcus radiodurans b. Phythopththora infestans
c. Dimsrox burghii d. Helianthus annus
28. Who among the following coined the term mycoremediation for the first time?
a. G.M.Robinson b. Paul Stamets c. Robert Christodoultos d. Kentsopyros
29. Which of the following is a device for the detection of an analyte that combines a
biological
component with a physiochemical detector component?
a. biosensor b. photooxidizer c. abiotic resistance d. bioticrsistance
30. A biosensor consists of………….
a. sensitive biological element b. transducer c. detector element d. all of the
above
31. Which of the following is the most widespread example of commercial biosensor?
a. sugarcane biosensor b. blood glucose biosensor c. lipid biosensor d. all of
the above

32. Surface plasmon resonance sensors operate using a sensor chip consisting of…..
a. aluminium cassette b. iron cassette c. plastic cassette d. gold
cassette
33. The glass plate used in biosensor is microscopic layer of………..
a. iron b. platinum c. gold d. nylon
34. Casein is aprotein found in…..
a.milk b. water c. blood d. antibodies
35. Electrochemical biosensors are normally based on….
a. radiowave b. Beta rays c. alpha rays d. enzymatic catalysis
36. The sensor substrate in biosensor operation usually contains……
a. six electrodes b. five c. four d. three
37. The applications of biosensor include……….
a. detection of toxic substances b. glucose monitoring in diabetes patients
c. remote sensing of airborne bacteria d. all of the above
38. Which of the following is reduced to FADH2?
a. ATP b.ADP c.FAD d.FMN
39. The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring…….
a. reduction potential b. redox c. both a and b d. none of the above
40. The mercury poisoning produced a crippling and often fatal disease called………
 a. minmata disease b. lung cancer c. typhoid d. none of the above
41. Fluorides enter plant leaves through………….…
a. leaf base b. stem c. root d. stomata
42. What causes tip burn due to accumulation in leaves of conifers?
a. fluoride b.CFC c. mercury d. lead
43. The amount of oxygen required for oxidation by microbes in any unit volume of water
is
called……………..
a. dissolved oxygen b. biological oxygen demand
c. eutrophication d. surface flow
44………….. is added to water to control growth of algae and bacteria.
a. chlorine b. zinc c. aresenic d. copper
45. Physical component of the biosensor contains…………..
a. processor b. analyte c. enzyme d. active surface
46. The advantage of insitu bioremediation is ……………
a. minimal site disruption
b. simultaneous treatment of contaminated soil & ground water
c. low costs
d. all of the above
47. For the removal of cadmium from industrial wastes the microorganism used is ………
a. Aspergillus oryzae b. Pseudomonas stulzeri
c. Bacillus circulans d. all of these
48. Escherichia coli for which the analyte is glutamate is used in for detection of CO2……..
a. Potentiometric biosensors b. Amperometric biosensors
c. Conductometric biosensors d. Whole cell biosensors
49. Bioremediation is also known as……..
a. biotreatment b. bioreclamation c. biorestoration d.allof these
50. Which heat measuring devices can record the heat generated in an enzyme catalyzed
reaction?
a. thermistors b. electrode c. analyzer d. amperometric biosensors
 KEY -UNIT -IV

1.d 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.b 6.b 7.b 8.d 9.c 10.c
11.c 12.c 13.d 14.b 15.a 16.c 17.d 18.a 19.d 20.c
21.c 22.a 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.c 27.a 28.b 29.a 30.d
31.b 32.c 33.c 34.a 35.d 36.d 37.d 38.c 39.c 40.a
41.d 42.a 43.b 44.a 45.a 46.d 47.b 48.a 49.d 50.a

UNIT - V

1. Phosphine liberated in the stomach in aluminum phosphide poisoning is toxic to all

except……………..
a. Lungs b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Heart
2. Paraquat poisoning causes ………………. failure.
a. Renal b. Cardiac c. Respiratory d. Multiple organ
3. Ecstasy toxicity causes ………….
a. Hypereflexia b. Trismus c. Dilated pupils d. All of the above
4. All of the following are treatment options for toxic alcohol poisoning except …………….
a. Fomepizole b. Hydroxycobalamin c. Thiamine d. Folic acid
5. Hyperthermia in a patient of poisoning is a pointer to all except ……………
a. Ecstasy b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
c. Salicylates d. Chlorpromazine
6. Ophotoxemia refers to ……………..
a. Organophosphorous poisoning b. Heavy metal poisoning
c. Scorpion venom poisoning d. Snake venom poisoning
7. Elapidaes are ………………
a. Vasculotoxic b. Neurotoxic c. Musculotoxic d. Nontoxic
8. The most useful bedside test to suggest snake biteenvenomation is ………………..
 a. Prothrombin time b. 20 min whole blood clotting time
c. International normalized ratio d. Platelet count
9. Magnan's symptoms are characteristic symptoms with which poisoning?
a. Alcohol b. Charas c. Cocaine d. Ecstasy
10. Which of the following pathogen is resistant to several drugs used against it?
a. E.coli b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Bacillus d. Proteus sp.
11. What is the major organ responsible for detoxification in the body?
a.Lung b. Intestine c. Liver d. Kidney
12.Yu-cheng Disease in Taiwan is due to the toxic effect of………………….
a.Lead b. PCB's c. dioxins d. mercury
13. Environmental toxicology is also known as………..
a.Toxins b. dioxins c. endox d. entox
14. Who is mother of environmental toxicology?
a. Rachelcarson b. Yangtze river c. McCarty d. Lucille Farrier
15. DDE is heavy toxic to…………
a. Human b. Animal c. Fishes d. both a & b
16…………….is the general toxic effects of a single dose or multiple doses of a chemical or
product, within 24 hours.
a. Acute toxicity b. Sub acutetoxicity c. Chronic toxicity d. None of the above

17. LD50 figures are frequently used as a general indicator of a substance…………

a. Concentration of toxicants b. acute toxicity

b. c. chronic toxicity d. sub acute toxicity

18. LD stands for…………..
a. Lethal concentration b. Lethal dosage

b. c. semi lethal dosage d. all the above

19. Material Safety Data Sheets for toxic substances frequently follows…………….
a. Haber's law b. environment law c. human environment lawd. common law
20.Studying dose response, and developing dose response models, is to determine ……….
a. Safe& hazardous of drug for toxicants
b. Toxicity in environment
 c. Toxicity in water

d. Hazardous of drug

21. A pollutant not released by exhaust of automobiles is ……………

a. SO2 b. CO c. Fly ash d. Hydrocarbon Gases.
22. Ozone in lower atmosphere is an example of ………….
a. Primary pollutant b. Secondary Pollutant
c. Tertiary Pollutant d Not a pollutant
23. Component not released in the burning of coal is……………..
a. No2 b. SO c. Fly ash d. O2
24. Largest source of air Pollution in cities are…………..
a. Industries b. Sewage c. Automobiles d. Tanneries
25.The most widely found pollutant in the air is ……………..
a. CO2 b. CFC c. CO d. SO2
26. The causes of depletion of Ozone layer in the atmosphere is/are ……………
a. Frozen gases b. Supersonic jet travels
c. Nitrogen oxides d. All of these
27. A plant preferably grown in oxidation pond is ………………..
a. Eichornia b. Spirogyra c. Spirulinad. Anaerobic bacteria
28. Spraying DDT to kill insects causes pollution of ………..
a. Air b.Water c. Soil d. All of these
29. Soil pollution is caused by ………..
a. Aerosols b. Ozone c. Acid rains d. PAN
30. Sources of marine pollution are ..........
a. Industrial effluents b. Oil spillage c. Nuclear tests d. All of these
31. Superbugs are ……..
a. Synthetic bugs b. Bacteria c. Radioisotopes d. Industries
32. Torrey Canon is famous for ……….
a. Gulf war b. Industries c. Electric potential d. Oil spillage
33. Minamata disease is an example of ………
a. Air pollution b. Water pollution c. Marine pollution d. All of these
34. Ear muffs or cotton plugs are used to reduce pollution of ………
a. Air b. Nuclear c. Noise d. Thermal
35. Aquatic life is damaged by ………………
a. Sound pollution b. Air pollution c. Thermal pollution d. All of these
36. Exposure of human body to radiation may cause ……………
a. Polio b. Haemophilia c. Gastroenteris d. Leukemia
37. A famous environmentalist is ……………
a. Jahangir Baba b. Anna hazare c. Arjun Singh d. All of these
38. Tree plantation Day is celebrate on ……………..
a. June 5 b. February 28 c. July 7 d. November 14
39. PaniYatra was organized by ………….
a. S.L.Bahuguna b. Rajendra Singh c. MedhaPadkar d. Sandeep Pandey
40. National Disaster Management Division works under the ministry of ………………
a. Environment & Forests b. Finance c. Home d. Family Welfare
41. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA. was established in the year
……
a. 1983 b. 1985 c. 1987 d. 1989
42. HIV infects …………….…
a. RBC b. Helper T-cells c. Nucleic acid d. Brain
43. ELISA is for testing …………..
a. Anaemia b. T.B. c. AIDS d. None of these
44. Govt. Organisation to control AIDS in India is …………….
a. UNO b. UNICEF c. NACO d. NFWP
45. Govt. of India established ENVIS in ………………
a. 1952 b.1982 c. 1992 d. 2002
46. Indian Research Station Maitri is located at ………………
a. Bombay b. Chennai c. Kochi d. Antarctic
47. SHG(Self Help Groups) programme runs under the programme entitled ………….….
a. Swadhar b. Swayam sidha c. Swalamban d. Swa-Shakti
48. Rajiv Gandhi ManavSeva Award is given for the outstanding contribution in the field of
…..
a. Science b. Peace c. Child Welfare d. Economics
49. The mineral that virtually has monopoly in India is ……..
a. Uranium b. Thorium c. Mica d. Tin
50. A metal largely used in the electricity generation is …….
a. Gold b. Thorium c. Tin d. Mica

Key - UNIT -V

1b 2d 3d 4b 5d 6d 7b 8b 9c 10b
11c 12b 13d 14a 15d 16a 17b 18b 19a 20a
21c 22b 23d 24c 25d 26b 27c 28d 29c 30d
31b 32d 33c 34c 35c 36d 37b 38c 39b 40c
41c 42b 43c 44c 45b 46d 47b 48c 49c 50b

Semester IV

Elective V: Biotechnology Management Course code :

P15BT4:1

Unit - I

1. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait.
a) Insect resistance b) High protein content
c) High beta-carotene content d) High lysine content
2. DNA fingerprinting refers to ………
a) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals
 b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
c) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
d) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
3. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlet by tissue culture method is called
as…….
a) Plantlet culture b) Micropropagation c) Organ culture d) Macropropagation
4. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of
…
a) Insulin b) Interferons c) Edible proteins d) Vaccines
5. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains are due to
………..
a) Organogenesis b) Cellular totipotency c) Double fertilization d) Test tube
culture
6. Which among the statement is true about monoclonal antibodies?
a) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
b) These obtained from many parents and for many antigens
c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
d) These obtained from one parent and for many antigens
7. Which of the two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments
are…….
a) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter b)Rhizobium and Diplococcus
c) Nitrosomonas and Kliebsiella d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
8. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil
spills is a species of ……..
a) Trichoderma b) Bacillus c) Xanthomonas d) Pseudomonas
9. Probiotics are………
a) cancer inducing microbes b) safe antibiotics
c) new kind of food allergens d) live microbial food supplement
10. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue culture the best method is ……
a) meristem culture b) protoplast culture c) anther culture d) embryo
rescue
11. Vitamin A is highly preserved in -------------
a) Maize b) Golden Rice c) Basmathi d) Transgenic Papaya
12. From the following animal which one is not a transgenic------------?
a) Fish b) mice c) cow d) horse

13. Sulphur oxide ,Nitrous oxide are the major components of ---------------
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Soil pollution d) All the three
14. India stands first globally in ----------
a) Milk production b) Medicinal plants
c) Fermented Products d) Electronic components
15. What is the reason to process grain?
a) To increase digestibility b) To reduce supplements
c) To improve feed efficiency d) Both a &c
16. The undesirable change in a food that makes it unsafe for human consumption is
referred as………..
a) food decay b) food spoilage
c) food loss d) all of the above
17. Food preservation involves……..
a) increasing shelf life of food b) ensuring safety for human consumption
c) both a and b d) none of these
18. Pasteurization is a …….
a) low temperature treatment b) steaming treatment
c) high temperature treatment d) low and high temperature treatment
19. Normally bacteria stop division …….
a) at 10 degree celcius b) at 5 degree celcius
c) at 0 degree celcius d) at 20 degree celcius
20. Which of the following statements are true about chemical preservatives?
a) microbicidal or microstatic agents b) chemical preservatives often hazardous to
humans
c) Sodium benzoate is a widely used preservative d) all of these
21. Common food poisoning microbes are……….
a) Clostridium and Salmonella b) Clostridium and E.coli
c) E.coli and Salmonella d) Clostridium and Streptococcus
22. Botulism is caused by…….
a) Clostridium botulinum b) All Clostridium species
c) Clostridium tetanai d) Clostridium subtilis
23. Which of the following statements are true regarding botulinal toxin……
a) is a neurotoxin b) water soluble exotoxin
c) is produced by Clostridium botulinum, a gram positive anaerobic bacteria d) all of
these
24. Botulism prevention involves……..
a) proper heat sterilization before food canning b) addition of chemical
preservatives
c) proper low temperature treatment before food canning d) all of the above
25. Clostridium perfingens poisoning is associated with …….
a) meat products b) vegetables c) canned foods d) fish products
26. Clostridium perfingens poison is an…….
a) exotoxin b) enterotoxin produced during sporulation
c) endotoxin d) enterotoxin produced during vegetative phase
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding Staphylococcus food poisoning?
a) is an enterotoxin b) causes gastroenteritis
c) is produced by Staphylococcus aureus d) all of these
28. Salmonellosis involves……….
a) an enterotoxin and exotoxin b) an enterotoxin and cytotoxin
c) an exotoxin and cytotoxin d) a cytotoxin only
29. The major carrier of salmonellosis are…….
a) meat and eggs b) meat and fish c) eggs and fish d) eggs and fruits
30. Aflatoxin is produced by………
a) Aspergillus sp. b) Salmonella sp. c) Fusarium sp. d) Streptococcal sp
31. Most spoilage bacteria grow at…….
a)acidic pH b)alkaline pH c)neutral pH d)any of the pH
32. The microbiological examination of coliform bacteria in foods preferably use….
a)MacConkey broth b)violet Red Bile agar
c)eosine Methylene blue agar d)all of these
33. Which of the following acid will have higher bacteriostatic effect at a given pH?
a)Acetic acid b)Tartaric acid c)Citric acid d)Maleic acid
34. Which of the following is not true for the thermal resistance of the bacterial cells?
a)Cocci are usually more resistant than rods
b)Higher the optimal and maximal temperatures for growth, higher the resistance
c)Bacteria that clump considerably or form capsules are difficult to kill
d)Cells low in lipid content are harder to kill than other cells
35. Water activity can act as………
a)an intrinsic factor determining the likelihood of microbial proliferation
b)a processing factor c)an extrinsic factor d)all of the above
36. Enumeration of microorganism refers to…….
a)either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to a suitable
selective agar, or non-selective plate, depending on the test
b)either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to a suitable
selective agar
c)non-selective plating, depending on the test
d)none of the above
37. The different ACC's between food categories reflect the……
a)expected level of contamination of the raw material
b)potential for microbial growth during storage
c)potential shelf life
d)all of the above
38. Examination of the presence / absence of organisms refers to…….
a)incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by inoculation
on to a suitable selective medium.
b)incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by inoculation
on to a non-selective medium.
c)incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium
d)none of the above
39. Plate count of bacteria in foods generally use the plating medium consisting of……..
a)peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water
b)yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water
c)peptone, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water
d)peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride and distilled water
40. What are the intrinsic factors for the microbial growth?
a)pH b)Moisture c)Oxidation-Reduction Potential d)All of these
 UNIT I

1c 2b 3b 4d 5b 6c 7d 8d 9d 10a
11b 12d 13a 14a 15d 16b 17c 18c 19b 20d
21a 22a 23c 24a 25a 26b 27d 28b 29a 30a
31c 32d 33c 34d 35d 36d 37d 38a 39a 40d

UNIT II

1. Effluent from the pulp and paper industry is generally high in …………
a)suspended solids b)BOD c)both a & b d)none of these
2. Packaging requirements depends on…………
a) type of spice b) whether it is ground or intact c) humidity of storage d)all the three
3. -------------is the most significant stage in the process to ensure good quality spices.
a) Drying b) Grading c) Grinding d) Packaging
4. Condiment refers to -----------
a) spice b) flavour enhancer c)sauce d)all the three
5. Which of the following causes biomagnifications?
a)SO2 b)Mercury c)DDT d) both b&c
6. Which of the following material takes the longest time for the biodegradable?
a) cotton b)paper c)jute d)bone
7. The green scum seen in the fresh water bodies is…………..
a)blue green algae b)red algae c)green algae d) both a&c
8. Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom forming algae in natural waters is
generally due to high concentration of……?
a) phosphorus b)sulphur c)calcium d) carbon
9. Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to…………
a)their pigments b)excretion of coloured substances
c)formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiochemical degradation
of algae.
d)absorption of light by algal cell wall.
10. ……….. practices are used in crop production to reduce negative effects on
soil,water, and air quality.
a) conservation tillage b) crop nutrient management.
c) both a&b d)none of these
11. Agronomic needs assessment tools whichprovide information on the status
of…………
 a)crops b)soil amendments c)soil d)all of these
12. Traditional soil tests includes………
a)pH, nitrogen, phosphorus,
b)potassium, soil organic matter,
c)electrical conductivity.
d)all of these.
13. ………………is used to quickly determine nitrogen status of the crop without
destroying any plant tissue.
a)chlorophyll meter b)viscometer c)thermistor d)none of these
14. EPA stands for………………..
a)environment protection agency b)environment protection assessment
c)both a&b d)none of these
15. Farmers may use …………. to maintain control over pests, reduce reliance on
chemical pesticides, and protect water quality.
a)Integrated pest management. b)biological pest control
c)both a& b d)none of these
16. ………..are widely used by farmers to control plant pests and enhance production.
a)pesticides b)insecticides c)herbicides d)all of these
17. What is the reason to process the grain?
a) to increase digestibility b) to reduce supplements
c) to improve feed efficiency d) both a &c
18. Non- biodegradable pollutants are created by…………….
a)nature b)excessive use of resources. c)humans d)natural disasters
19. ”By providing clean water and sanitation to the poorest people on the planet, we can
reduce poverty and suffering and ensure education for all children.”The above words
are given by…….
a)UNO b)UNICEF c)UNESCO d)WHO
20. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil
spill?
a) Bacillus subtilis b) Pseudomonas putida
c)Pseudomonas denitrificans d) Bacillus denitrificans
21. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes?
a) trichoderma sp b) aspergillus niger
c) pseudomonas putida d) all of these
22. Microorganisms remove metals by……
a) adsorption and complexation b) adsorption and precipitation
c) adsorption and volatilization d) all of these
23. chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of……….
a) organic wastes b) hydrocarbons c) heavy metals d) all of these
24. A non-directed physico chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and
microbial surface is called as…………
a) biotransformation b) bioconversion c) biosorption d) biomining
25. Growing agricultural crops between rows of planted trees is known as ……………..
a)social forestry b)Jhum c)taungya system d)agroforstry
26. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like……
a)glycerol b)polyphosphates c)sulfonated hydrocarbons d)all of these.
27. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
a)tea leaves b)nylon c)remains of animals d)fleece of sheep
28. What percentage of sunlight is captured by plants to convert it into food energy?
a)1% b)10% c)50% d)more than 50%
29. Which of the following is an abiotic component?
a)plant b)animal c)soil d)microorganisms.
30. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing
amount at each higher trophic level is called……………..
a)eutrophication b)pollution c)accumulation d)biomagnification
31. What causes tip burn due to accumulation in leaves of conifers?
a) fluoride b)CFC c) mercury d) lead
32. Addition of nitrate or sulphate fertilizers in the soil to facilitate the decomposition of
crude oil by……..
a) indigeneous bactria only b)exogeneous bacteria only
c)both indogeneous and exogeneous bacteria d) none of the above
33. Which of the following heavy metals are not absorbed by organisms?
a)cadmium b)lead c)both a&b d)none of the above
34. Which of the following are able to bioaccumulate mercury toxins in its above
ground part?
a)natural plants b)transgenic plants c)both a&b d)none of the above
35. Which of the following are the most radio resistant organisms?
a)Deinococcus radiodurans b)Phythopththora infestans
c)Dims roxburghii d)Helianthus annus
36. Fluorides enter plant leaves through……….
a)leaf base b)stem c)root d)stomata
37. The amount of oxygen required for oxidation by microbes in any unit volume of
water is called as…..
a)dissolved oxygen b)biological oxygen demand c)eutrophication d)surface
flow
38. ……….. is added to water to control growth of algae and bacteria.?
a)chlorine b)zinc c)aresenic d)copper
 39. For the removal of cadmium from industrial wastes the microorganism used
is……….
a)Aspergillus oryzae b)Pseudomonas stulzeri
c)Bacillus circulans d)all of these
40. Spices can be graded by ……..
a)size,density b) colour,shape c) flavour d)all of these

UNIT 11

1.c 2.d 3.b 4.d 5.d 6.c 7.d 8.a 9.a 10.a
11.d 12.d 13.a 14.a 15.c 16.d 17.d 18.c 19.b 20.b
21.a 22.d 23.c 24.c 25.c 26.d 27.b 28.a 29.c 30.d
31.a 32.c 33.c 34.c 35.a 36.d 37.b 38.a 39.b 40.d
Unit -III

1. The size of 1 nanometer is ………….

a) 10-6m b) 10-9m c) 10-10m d) 10-8m
2. The size of nanoparticles used in technology lies between…………..
a) 1-10nm b)1-100nm c)1-20nmd) 1-10nm
3. Nanosized rust particles are used to remove…………contamination from water.
a) Manganese b) Zinc c) Arsenic d) Copper
4. Chlorination process is replaced by ………… technique
a) Nano photo catalysts b) Nano filters c) Nano sensors d) Magnets
5. ………….nanoparticles can cause brain damage.
a) Bucky balls b)Nano rods c) Nano crystals d)Quantum dots
6. The diameter of hydrogen atom is………….
a) 1 b) 10 c) 0.1 d) 0.01
7. Carbon atoms makes type of bond with other carbon atoms.
a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) hydrogen
8. The thickness of a transistor is………….nm.
a) 50 b) 90 c) 2,000 d) 5,000
9. There is plenty of room at the bottom." This was stated by………..
a) Eric Drexler b) Richard Feynmann c) Harold Croto d) Richard
Smalley
10. Who coined the word 'nanotechnology'?
a) Eric Drexler b) Richard Feynmann c) Sumio Tijima d)Richard Smalley
11. Nanoscience can be studied with the help of...........
a) Scanning Tunneling Microscope b) Scientific Technical Microscope
 c) Systematic Technical Microscope d) Super Tensile Microscope
12. The two important properties of nanosubstances are…………
a) pressure and friction b) sticking and friction
c)sticking and temperature d) temperature and friction
13. The largest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ………
carbon atoms.
a) 60 b) 75 c) 180 d) 540
14. Nanoparticles of which substance were found on the surface of the sword of Tipu
Sultan?
a)Gold b) Lead c) Carbon d) Silicon
15. Nano particles of which atom are used to control collateral damage due to
explosion?
a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Carbon d) Lead
16. The size of RBC is…………. nm.
a)50 b) 90 c) 2,000 d) 5,000
17. The suffix '-ene' in the name of fullerene shows the presence of ………. in the
molecule.

a)one triple bond b) one double bond c) two single bonds d) two triple
bonds
18. The cut-off limit of human eye is ……….. nm.
a)2,000 b) 5,000 c) 10,000 d) 50,000
19. Who prepared and explained nanotubes for the first time?
a)Sumio Tijima b) Richard Smalley c) Eric Drexler d) Richard Feynmann
20. Fullerene or bucky ball is made up of ……….. carbon atoms.
a)100 b) 20 c) 75 d) 60
21. The thermal stability of a nanotube is seen up to ……… K in vacuum.
a)100 b)1000 c)2200 d)3100
22. The size of a virus is ……… nm.
a)2 b) 20 c) 50 d) 2000
23. The wavelength of visible light is ………… nm.
a) 40-70 b) 400-700 c) 4000-7000 d) 40000-70000
24. The capacity of a normal human eye to see the smallest object is…………. μm.
a)10000 b) 1000 c) 100 d) 10
25. 1 micrometer (micron) = ……….. m.
a) 10-9 b) 10-8 c) 10-7 d) 10-6
26. The foremost property if…..…. .
a)durability b) self assemblyc) elasticity d) all the three.
27. The full form of STM is……………….
 a) Scanning Tunneling Microscope b) Scientific Technical Microscope
c) Systematic Technical Microscope d) Super Tensile Microscope
28. The width of a carbon nanotube is………… nm.
a)1 b) 1.3 c) 2.5 d) 10
29. The size of E.coli is ……….. nm.
a)2,000 b) 5,000 c) 50 d) 90
30. Which ratio decides the efficiency of nanosubstances?
a)Weight/volume b) Surface area/volume c) Volume/weight d)
Pressure/volume
31. …………metal remains clear in nanoscale.
a)Gold b)Copper c) Zinc d) Iron
32. The width of a typical DNA molecule is ………… nm.
a) 1 b) 2 c)5 d) 10
33. Nano sensors are devised to trace………….levels in water
a)Carbon b) Oxygen c) E.coli d) Trace metals
34. Silver nano compounds causes toxicity in ………..
a)Liver b) Brain c)lung d) Uterus
35. ………….metal is used for a prolong time in waste water management.
a)Iron b)Copper c)Allum d) Zinc
36. 1 micrometer (micron) = …………. nm.
a)1, 000 b) 100 c) 10 d) 0.01

37. Physisorption is a process of…………

a)Detecting Trace elements b)Sensitivity c)Analyte d)Sensory
38. Photocatalytic oxidation shots up ……… molecules for degradation process.
a) CaCl2 b)PO4+ C) ZNO d)CO2
39. The diameter of a bucky ball is …….. nm.
a) 1,000 b) 100 c) 10 d) 1
40. Ancillary waste is otherwise called as…………
a)Renewable waste b) E-waste c) Non renewable waste d)Copper Slag

UNIT-III
1.b 2.b 3.c 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.a
11.a 12.b 13.d 14.c 15.b 16.d 17.b 18.c 19.a 20.d
21.d 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.a 26.b 27.a 28.b 29.a 30.b
31.c 32.b 33.c 34.a 35.a 36.d 37.c 38.c 39.d 40.d

UNIT-IV
1. ……….is the introduction of contaminants into an environment that causes instability,
disorder, harm or discomfort to the ecosystem.
a) Pollution b) Global warming c) Acid rain d) None of the
above
2. ………… is the cause of pollution in landfills, radioactive waste dump sites, drainage
from mining, and vehicular emissions/spills.
a) Point-source contamination b) Non-point-source contamination
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
3. …………….is the contamination of soil by harmful substances.
a) Soil pollution b) Water pollution c) Air pollution d) Thermal pollution
4. Major pollutants are……….
a) Carbon Monoxide & Sulfur Dioxide b)Nitrogen Dioxide & Particulate Matter
c) Ground Level Ozone d) All of the above
5. Smog is the combination of………….
a) Smoke b) Smog and fog c) Fog d) Smoke and fog
6. Major soil pollutants are ……….
a) Plastics & Heavy metals b) Pesticides & Fertilizers
c) Xenobiotics d) All of the above
7. ………….are direct discharges to a single point.
a) Point-source b) Non-point-source
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
8. ………..are diffused across a broad area and their contamination cannot be traced to
a single discharge point.
a) Point-source b) Non-point-source c) Both a& b d) None of the
above
9. The other name for Illegal dumping is…………
a) Open dumping b) Fly dumping c) Mid-night dumping ) All of the above
10. Pesticides, herbicides and fungicides are considered as…………
a) Agrochemical pollution b) Fertilizer pollution c) Metallic salts d) DDT
11. Manmade greenhouse gas is……………
a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) b) Methane (CH4)
c) Nitrous oxide (N2O) d) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
12. Fossil fuels are………
a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) All of the
above
13. ………….. is the use of materials processes or practices that reduce or eliminate the
creation of pollutants or wastes at the source.
a) Soil leaching b) Pollution prevention c) Land mass d) All of the
above
14. Pollution prevention (P2) is a………. aimed at reducing the amount or toxicity of
residuals released to nature
a) Short-term strategy b) Long-term strategy
c) Term strategy d) All of the above
15. Source reduction, Raw materials substitution, Changes in manufacturing processes ,
Product substitution are the………. in Pollution Prevention
a) Objectives b) Techniques c) Both a & b d) None of the above
16. …………… is the preventive strategies to reduce the quantity of any hazardous
substance, pollutant, or contaminant released to the environment at the point of
generation
a) Toxic chemical use substitution b) Source reduction
c) Raw materials substitution d) Changes in manufacturing processes
17. ………is the use of less harmful chemicals in place of more hazardous substances
a) Toxic chemical use substitution b) Source reduction
c) Raw materials substitution d) Changes in manufacturing processes
18. ………… is the use of productive inputs that generate little or no hazardous waste
a) Toxic chemical use substitution b) Source reduction
c) Raw materials substitution d) Changes in manufacturing processes
19. ________ is the use of alternative production methods to generate less hazardous by-
products
a) Toxic chemical use substitution b) Source reduction
c) Raw materials substitution d) Changes in manufacturing processes
20. ……… is the selection of environmentally safe commodities in place of potentially
polluting products
a) Toxic chemical use substitution b) Source reduction
c) Product substitution d) Changes in manufacturing processes
21. Which is the correct order ofPollution Prevention Hierarchy Under the Pollution
Prevention Act of 1990?
a) Recycling, treatment, disposal, Source reduction,
b) Source reduction, recycling, treatment, disposal
c) Source reduction, treatment, recycling ,disposal
d) Source reduction, treatment recycling, disposal
22. Major types of pollution is…………
a) Air & Water b) Land & Noise c) Both a & b d) None of the above
23. …………. is the introduction of particulates, biological molecules, or other harmful
materials into the Earth's atmosphere, causing disease, death to humans, damage to
other living organisms such as food crops, or the natural or built environment.
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Soil pollution d) Noise pollution
24. Major air pollutants are…………..
a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) b) Carbon monoxide (CO)
c) Sulphur oxides (sox) & Nitrogen oxides (nox) d) All of the above
25. Sources of air pollution is………….
a) Emissions from Power stations & Industrial Processes
b) Vehicular Emissions & Burning of Solid Waste
c) Emissions from Natural Sources such as Volcanic Eruptions & Forest Fires
d) All of the above
26. Ambient air monitoring station is very useful for………….
a) Control the air pollution b) Control the water pollution
c) Control the soil pollution d) Control the noise pollution
27. SCAP is the expansion of…………….
a) Smoke Central Action Plan b) Smell Control Action Plan
c) Smoke Control Action Plan d) Smell Central Action Plan
28. Aim of the SCAP is ………..
a) To inncrease the vehicles b) To decrease the
vehicles
c) To curb down the vehicles emitting black smoke d) None of the above
29. Water pollution identified by………..
a)MPN test b) coliform test c) both a&b d) none of the above
30. Major water pollutants of Detergents, Herbicides are coming under…………
a) Organic Contaminants b) Inorganic Contaminants
c) Solid Waste d) Thermal pollution
31. Major water pollutants of Heavy Metals, Ammonia are coming under………
a) Organic Contaminants b) Inorganic Contaminants
c) Solid Waste d) Thermal pollution
32. Major water pollutants of Plastics, Paper, Food wastes are coming under………..
a) Organic Contaminants b) Inorganic Contaminants
c) Solid Waste d) Thermal pollution
33. ………….. is the discharge of warm water into water bodies by factories.
a) Organic Contaminants b) Inorganic Contaminants
c) Solid Waste d) Thermal pollution
34. Pollution prevention is the use of materials processes or practices that……… the
creation of pollutants or wastes.
a) Reduce or eliminate b) Eliminate and increase
c) Increase and eliminate d) None of these
35. The use of alternative production methods to generate less hazardous by-products are
called as………
a) Source reduction b) Raw materials substitution
c)Changes in manufacturing processes d)Product substitution
36. BOD is otherwise called as………..
a) Bacterial Oxygen Demand b) Biological Oxides Demand
c) Biological Oxygen Damage d) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
37. Methods for the measuring of BOD………..
a) Dilution method b)Manometric method
c) Both a& b d) None of the above
 38. BOD is a measure of the amount of dissolved ……….required to break down the
organic material in a given volume of water through aerobic biological activity
a) Oxygen b) Oxides c) Oligosaccharides d) All of these
39. Sources of water pollution are……….
a) Sewage & Solid waste disposal
b) Runoff of Pesticides, Fertilizers, chemical & oil spills
c) Untreated Effluents from Industrial and other activities
d) All of the above
40. Land pollution refers to the deposition of solid or liquid waste materials on……….
a) Land b) Underground c) Both a & b d) None of the
above

Unit IV

1. a 2.a 3.a 4.d 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.b 9.d 10.a

11. d 12. d 13.b 14.b 15.c 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.d 20.c

21. b 22.c 23.a 24.d 25.d 26.a 27.c 28.c 29.c 30.a

31. b 32.c 33.c 34.a 35.c 36.d 37.c 38.a 39.d 40.c
 UNIT-V
1. Which organ is transplanted to the Diabetic patients?
a) Cornea b) Pancreas or Islets c) Bone marrow d) Small bowel
2. Which organ is transplanted to the Cancer patients?
a) Cornea b) Pancreas or Islets c) Bone marrow d) Small bowel
3. Which organ is transplanted to the end stage renal failure patients?
a) Heart b) Liver c) Kidney d) Islets
4. Most of the common transplantation techniques are carried out by
a) Autografts b) Isografts c) Allografts d) Xenografts
5. … grafting is carried out from one part of the body to another.
a) Autografts b) Isografts c) Allografts d) Xenografts
6. ………is the example of Xenograft.
a) Trunk to arm b) One person to another person
c) monozygotic twins d) monkey to man
7. ………are used for bone defect reconstruction
 a) Autografts b) Isografts c) Allografts d) Xenografts
8. ............. “a field of study concerned with the ethics and philosophical implications of
certain biological and medical procedures, technologies, and treatments, such as organ
transplants, genetic engineering, and care of the terminally ill”
a) Ethics b) Bioethics c) Biobanking d) Biowar
9. ………….. aplace where a couple can go after difficulty conceiving a child.
a) IVF clinic b) Stem cell research centre
c) Stem cell research unit d) All of the above
10. In IVF technique, woman’s egg fertilized in……..
a) Inside her body b) Outside her body
c) Inside and outside her body d) None of the above
11. .………. is a type of biorepository that stores biological samples (usually human) for
use in research.
a) Biobank b) Protein bank c) Gen bank d)none of these
12. …………… biobanks are large databases and can provide high-resolution images of
samples as well as other characteristic data.
a)tissue bank b)virtual bank c)population bank d)all of these
13. …………… is an establishment that collects and recovers human cadaver tissue for
the purposes of medical research and education.
a)tissue bank b)biobank c)both a&b d)none of these
14. For biomedical research tissues are stored in …….
a)cryogenic condition b)lyogenic condition c)lyophilizer d)botha&c
15. ……………….is store biomaterial as well as associated characteristics such as
lifestyle, clinical, and environmental data.
a)population bank b)cryobank c)gen bank d)tissue bank
16. The registration (permit) issued by the registration branch of the Drug Enforcement
Administration (DEA) must be renewed how often?
a) Bi-annually b) Annually c) Every three years d) Every five years
17. The standards of conduct that grow out of one's understanding of right and wrong are
known as:
a) Ethics b) Morals c) Behavior d) Common Sense
18. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?
a)A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b)A description of the purpose of the research
c)A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d)A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years
19. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?
a) Informed consent from the parent or guardian
 b) Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c)Informed consent from the child
d) Both a and b
20. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in
the field?
a) Getting informed consent
b) Keeping participants from physical harm
c) Maintaining consent forms
d) Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality
21. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication
refers to which of the following professional issues:
a) Partial publication b)Duplicate publication
c)Deception d)Full publication
22. Concerning "authorship" in educational research, intellectual ownership is
predominantly a function of:
a)Effort expended b)Creative contribution
c)Professional position d)Level of higher education
23. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large
study?
a)Duplicate publication b) Partial publication
c) Triplicate publication d) None of these
24. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the AERA?
a) Deception b) Utilitarianism
c) Freedom to withdraw d) Participants have no rights
25. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?
a) Informed consent from the parent or guardian
b) Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c) Informed consent from the child
d) Both a and b
26. Major types of environmental complaints are usually handled via a mechanism called
the……….
a) Company-Handling Protocol b) Complaint-Hearing Protocol
c) Complaint-Handling Protocol d) Company-Hearing Protocol
27. In Florida, the Pollution Prevention Regulations are regulated in the year………
a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d)1993
28. Pollution Prevention Action methods are…………..
a) Process elimination & Raw material substitution
b) Waste segregation & House keeping
c) Reuse / recycle d) All of these
 29. Which of the following organ has self-renewable property by nature?
a)pancreas b)heart c)liver d)kidney
30. Deficiency of dopamine producing cells ……………………….
a) Parkinson diseases b) liver damage c) heart damage d) blood disorders
31. Diploid germ cells transforming as matured haploid cells are called as………
a) Embryo b) Zygote c) Gamets d) All the three
32. The end product of Oogenesis is…………..
a)Egg b) Zygote c) Ovule d) Ova
33. The region of the egg where yolk is the most concentrated is called as………..
a) Animal hemisphere b) Vegetal pole
c) Vegetal hemisphere d)Animal pole
34. The unicellular cells transforming as multicellular with an end product called………..
a) Zygote b) Gastrula c)Blastrula d)Embryo
35. The outer layer of a blastula is termed as………….
a)Blastocoel b) Blastomere c) Trophoblast d)both b and c
36. The embryo consisting of primitive gut is called as…………..
a)Blastula b) Trophoblast c) Gastrula d) All three
37. Osteoplast are cells formed from the differentiation of…………
a)Endoderm b) Ectoderm c) Mesoderm d) All the three
38. The fine division of zygote is termed as……….
a)Morula b)Cleavage c)Blastrula d)Gastrula
39. The process of activation of egg is called as………
a)Embryogenesisb)Implantation c)Fertilizationd)Oogenesis
40. Stem cells biology is highlighted in the field of…………
a)Heamatology b)Cytogenetics c) Regenerative medicine d) All the three

UNIT V

1.b 2.d 3.c 4.c 5.a 6.d 7.a 8.b 9.a 10.a
11.a 12.b 13.a 14.a 15.a 16.b 17.a 18.b 19.d 20.d
21.b 22.b 23.b 24.c 25.d 26.c 27.b 28.d 29.c 30.a
31.c 32.d 33.b 34.c 35.c 36.c 37.c 38.b 39.c 40.c