Test 1 04 10 2024
Test 1 04 10 2024
n n n n
O O
(C) (D)
n n n n
1 1
n n n n
O O
nd
Q5. A photon radiated from hydrogen of 2 line of Lyman series is absorbed by a H–like
nd
atom X in 2 excited state. As a result the H–like atom X makes a transition to nth
orbit, then
++ ++ + +
(A) X = Li , n = 9 (B) X = Li , n = 5 (C) X = He , n = 5 (D) X = He , n = 9
A hydrogen atom and a Li ion are both in the second excited state. If H and Li are
2+
Q6.
their respective electronic angular momenta, and EH and ELi their respectively
energies then
(A) H > Li and |EH| > |ELi| (B) H = Li and |EH| < |ELi|
(C) H = Li and |EH| > |ELi| (D) H < Li and |EH| < |ELi|
1
Q7. In the hydrogen atom spectrum 3-1 and 2-1 represent wavelengths emitted due to
transition from second and first excited states to the ground state respectively. The
value of 3 1 is
2 1
(A) 27 / 32 (B) 32/27 (C) 4/9 (D) 9/4
Q8. When an electron jumps from n = n1 to n = n2 (where n1 > n2) in a hydrogen like atom,
then the wavelength of photon emitted is given by
1 1 1 1 1
(a) R Z2 2 2 (B) R Z2 2 2
n1 n2 n1 n2
1 1 1 1 1
(C) R Z2 2 2 (D) R Z2 2 2
n2 n1 n2 n1
Q9. The energy of an electron in excited Hydrogen atom is 3.4 eV. Then according to
Bohr’s Theory the angular momentum of this electron in Js is
(A) 2.11 1034 (B) 3 1034 (C) 2 1034 (D) 0.5 1034
Q10. Which of the following curve can represent the v
speed of electron in a hydrogen atom as a
1
function of principal quantum number. 3 4
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2
Q13. Suppose the potential energy between electron & proton at a distance r is given by
ke2
. Application of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom in this case shown that :
3r 3
6
(A) Energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n
3
(B) Energy is proportional to m (m : mass of electron)
(C) Energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n2
(D) Energy is propotional to m4 (m = mass of electron)
Q14. Consider an atom made up of a proton and a hypothetical particle of triple the mass
of electron but having same charge as the electron. Apply the Bohr model and
consider all possible transitions of this hypothetical particle from the second excited
state to the lower states. The possible wavelengths emitted is(are) (given in terms of
the Rydberg constant R for the hydrogen atom)
8 3 4 12
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5R 8R 9R 5R
Q15. A particle of mass m moves along a circular orbit in centro-symmetrically potential
energy given by
2
U(r) = kr /2
2
Using the Bohr’s quantization condition, choose the correct statement(s).
(A) rn n (B) rn n (C) En n (D) En n
[Here n is principal quantum number rn and En are orbital radii and energy associated
with particle in nth orbit]
rd st
Q17. Energy liberated in the de–excitation of hydrogen atom from 3 level to 1 level falls
on a photo–cathode. Later when the same photo–cathode is exposed to a spectrum
nd
of some unknown hydrogen like gas, excited to 2 energy level, it is found that the
de–Broglie wavelength of the fastest photoelectrons, now ejected has decreased by a
nd st
factor of 3. For this new gas, difference of energies of 2 Lyman line and 1 Balmer
line is found to be 3 times the ionization potential of the hydrogen atom. Select the
correct statement(s) :
(A) The gas is lithium.
(B) The gas is helium.
(C) The work function of photo–cathode is 8.5 eV.
(D) The work function of photo–cathode is 5.5 eV.
Q18. A neutron having kinetic energy E collides head on with a stationary hydrogen atom
in ground state, which is initially at rest but free to move. Assume the mass of the
neutron to be equal to that of H atom. Use the energy of the nth state for H atom as
E1 = – 13.6eV; E2 =–3.4eV; E3 = –1.5eV. (whether collision is elastic or inelastic,
depends on the energy of the neutron, and in case of elastic collision they can be
treated as ordinary particles) now choose the correct options:
(A) The collision will be perfectly elastic if E is less than 20.4 eV.
(B) If E = 24.2 eV, the H atom may get excited to n = 4.
(C) If E < 20.4eV the kinetic energy of the neutron will become zero after the collision.
(D) If E > 20.4eV the kinetic energy of the neutron will become zero after the collision.
Q19. When the electron in a hydrogen atom makes the transition n1 n2, the time period
of the electron in its orbit becomes one – eighth of the original. Then (n1, n2) can be
(A) (4, 2) (B) (8, 2) (C) (8, 1) (D) (6, 3)
Q20. Hydrogen atoms absorbs radiation of wavelength 0 and consequently emit radiations
of 6 different wavelengths of which three wavelengths are shorter than 0.
(A) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 3
(D) There are three transitions belonging to Lyman series.
Comprehension-I (+3,-1,0)
In a hypothetical positronium atom (attraction between positron and electron bounds
them) if sum of magnitude of linear momenta of atomic particle is quantized in the
integral steps of b0h/2 (where b0 is a +ve constant)
Q21. Energy of atom in nth orbit is proportional to
2 2
(A) n (B) n (C) 1/n (D) 1/n
3
Q23. Magnetic moment of the atom in nth quantum state will be proportional to
2 2
(A) n (B) n (C) 1/n (D) 1/n
Comprehension-II( +3,-1,0)
De Broglie used Einstein’s special theory of relativity together with plank’s quantum
theory to establish the wave property of particles. He gave fundamental relationship
h
; where and p is wavelength and momentum respectively and h is plank
p
constant. A de-Broglie wave associated with an electron can form a standing wave
between the atoms arranged in a one dimensional array with node at each of the
atomic sites, A standing wave is formed when distance between the atom’s of an
0 0
array is d = 3A ; A similar standing wave is again formed if d = 3.5 A but not for any
intermediate value of d.
For thermal neutron at ordinary temperature, energy is given by relation E=kT, where
K is Boltzman constant mass of Neutron is 1.67 1023 kg.
Comprehension-III( +3,-1,0)
Q27. Speed of the revolving particle is, in the first Bohr orbit.
v
(A) v0 (B) 9v0 (C) 3v0 (D) 0
9
Q28. Radius of hypothetical atom is
r r r
(A) r0 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 0
9 27 81
Q29. The momentum of an emitted photon when it makes a transition from the second
excited state to ground state, is
8E0 E 81 E0 24E0
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
c c 4 c c
4
Comprehension-IV( +3,-1,0)
The energy levels for a hypothetical one electron element is shown n = 4 2 eV
in the figure. The energy of electron is zero at an infinite distance n = 3 5 eV
from the nucleus.
Q30. An 18 eV photon is absorbed by atom in its ground state. n = 2 10 eV
As the atom returns to its ground level, how many possible
n=1 20 eV
wavelengths can the emitted photons have?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q31. How much energy does it take to ionise an electron from second excited state?
(A) 10 eV (B) 5 eV (C) 20 eV (D) 2 eV
Q32. Photons emitted in the atomic transitions n = 3 n = 2 and n = 3 n = 1 will eject
photoelectrons from an unknown metal, but the photon emitted from transition n = 4
n = 3 will not. If be the work function of metal, then the minimum and maximum
possible values of work function of metal is
(A) 2 eV, 10 eV (B) 3 eV, 5 eV (C) 5 eV, 15 eV (D) 2 eV, 5 eV
Integer Type(+3,-1,0)
Q33. Consider a hypothetical atom having atomic number z = 2. It has two electrons each
having mass m. Assume that both electrons always lie diametrically opposite and
nucleus of atom contains two proton. Assume Bohr model is applicable. Find the
radius of first orbit of this atom (upto one decimal place in pm).
0 h2 0
given 1.65 A
me 2
Q34. The potential energy of a moving particle of mass m is given by
E ; 0 x 1
U(x) 0
0; x 1
1 and 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0 x 1 and x > 1
2
respectively. The total energy of the particle is 2E0. The ratio 1 will be
2
Q35. Radiation from hydrogen gas excited to first excited state is used for illuminating
certain photoelectric plate. When the radiation from some unknown hydrogen like gas
excited to the same level is used to expose the same plate, it is found that the de–
Broglie wavelength of the fastest photoelectron has decreased 2.3 times. It is given
that the energy corresponding to the longest wavelength of the Lyman series of the
unknown gas is 3 times the ionization energy of hydrogen gas (13.6 eV). Find the
2
work function of photoelectric plate in eV. (Take (2.3) = 5.25.
th
Q36. Consider a hydrogen like atom whose energy in n excited state is given by
13.6
En 2 Z 2
n
when this excited atom makes a transition from an excited state to ground state. The
most energetic photons have energy Emax = 52.224 eV and the least energetic
photons have energy Emin = 1.224 eV. Find the atomic number of atom.
Q37. A gas containing hydrogen like ions with atomic no Z, emits photons in transition n +
2 n, where n = Z. These photons fall on a metallic plate and eject electrons
having minimum
de-Broglie wavelength of 5A . Find the value of `Z if the work function of metal is
4.2eV.
5
Set-2: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity
Multi choice single correct( +3,-1,0)
Q1. A radioactive isotope is being formed at a constant rate K. At t = 0, the number of
active nuclei is No. The decay constant of isotope is . The number of active nuclei
(A) first increases then decreases (B) goes on increasing
K 1
(C) goes on decreasing (D) is after a time t
λ λ
Q3. Consider two arbitrary decay equations and mark the correct alternative given below.
230 229 230 229
(i) 92 U n 92 U (ii) 92 U p 91 Pa
Given M = 230.033927 u
230
92 U
M U = 229.033496 u, M
229
92
229
91 U 229.032089
mn = 1.008665 u
mp = 1.007825
1 amu = 931.5 MeV.
(A) Only decay (i) is possible (B) Only decay (ii) is possible
(C) Both the decays are possible (D) Neither of the two decays is possible.
6
Q8. A 2.71 gm sample of KCl from the chemistry stockroom is found to be radioactive,
and it is decaying at a constant rate of 4490 Bq. The decays are traced to the
element potassium and in particular to the isotope 40 K . which constitutes 1.17% of
normal potassium. The half life of nuclide is
9 9
(A) 1.25 10 year (B) 5.5 10 year
8 8
(C) 5.5 10 year (D) 1.25 10 year
Given (MK = 39.102 gm/mole, MCl = 35.453 gm/mole,
23
Avogadro number NA = 6.02 10 )
Q9. Two radioactive nuclei A and B convert into a stable nucleus C with half life of 1
minute and 2 minute respectively. Nucleus A converts into C after emitting two –
particles and three –particles. Nucleus B converts into C after emitting one –
particle and five –particles. At time t = 0, number of nuclei of A are 4N0 and that of B
are N0. initially C was not present, then
(A) the difference between atomic number of A and B is 3
(B) the difference between mass number of A and that of B is 4
(C) if at a time t, number of nucleus of A and B are equal then the ratio of number of
nuclei of C to B at that instant is 10
(D) rate of disintegration of A and B will be equal after 5 minutes
Q12. A nucleus X of mass M, initially at rest, undergoes alpha decay according the
equation
A A4 4
Z X Z 2 Y 2 He
The alpha particle emitted in the above process is found to move in a circular track of
radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Then (mass and charge of -particle are m and
q respectively)
(A) The ratio of kinetic energies of the alpha particle and the daughter nucleus Y
Mm
approximately equals
m
7
(B) the ratio of kinetic energies of the alpha particle and the daughter nucleus Y
m
approximately equals
M
M r 2 q2B2
(C) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M m 2m
M m r 2 q2B2
(D) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M 2m
Q13. Consider a radioactive decay series
X
decay
Y
decay
Z
decay
W
(A) Y, Z are isobars (B) X, W are isotones
(C) X, W are isotopes (D) Z,W are isobars.
B 2 C
A converts into B and C with decay constant 1. B is also an unstable nucleus which
further decay into stable nucleus C with decay constant 2. Mark the correct
statement(s).
dNC dNA
(A) = (1NA + 2NB) (B) = 1NA
dt dt
dNC dNB
(C) = (1NA + 2NB) (D) = 1NA 2NB
dt dt
Q16. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A)
versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure. Consider a (MeV) B/A
nucleus of A = 110. Fission of this nucleus results into 2
fragments. Which of the following could possibly be the mass 8
number of the resulting nuclei? 6
A
50 70 120 150
(A) 55 and 55 (B) 70 and 40 (C) 100 and 10 (D) 90 and 20
Q17. Select the correct statement(s) :
(A) In an exothermic reaction, the total mass of incoming particles is greater than that
of the outgoing particle and the Q value of reaction is positive.
(B) An endothermic reaction does not occur unless the bombarding particle has a
kinetic energy greater than |Q|.
(C) Consider a bombarding particle X of mass m1 and a target Y of mass m2 (at rest).
The threshold energy of X for endothermic reaction to take place is
m
K th | Q | 1 1 .
m2
8
(D) Consider a bombarding particle X of mass m1 and a target Y of mass m2 (at rest).
The threshold energy of X for endothermic reaction to take place is
m
K th | Q | 2 1 .
m1
Q18. Radiation coming from a radioactive substance is B
passed through a cloud-chamber in which strong 2
constant magnetic field is switched on in the
direction shown in figure. Figure shows path
followed by few particles coming from radioactive 3
substance (shown by dotted lines) Neglect the
4
interaction between different particles. Tick the
correct statements : 1
(A) Path 1 can be followed by -radiation only
(B) Path 3 can be followed by -radiation only
(C) Path 4 can be followed by -radiation only
(D) Path 4 can be followed by -radiation
Q19. A freshly prepared sample of certain radioactive substance has an activity R0. After a
time interval t activity decreases to R.
1 R0
(A) decay constant for the decay process is n
t R
n 2
(B) Half life of the radioactive substance is t
R
n 0
R
1 n 2
(C) decay constant for the decay process is
t R0
n
R
R
(D) Half life of the radioactive substance is t n 0
R
Comprehension-I (+3,-1,0)
Nuclie of a radioactive element X are being produced at a constant rate K and this
element decays to a stable nucleus Y with a decay constant and half life T1 . At
2
time t = 0, there are N0 nuclei of the element X.
n 2 3 K N0 n 2 1 K N0
(A) K (B) K
2 2
n 2 1 K N0 n 2 K N0
(C) K (D) K 2 .
2
9
Comprehension-II( +3,-1,0)
Some of the heavy nuclei decay into lighter nuclei by emitting -particle and acquire
stability. The principles of conservation of atomic number, mass number, linear
momentum and energy (including rest mass energy) are valid for these decays.
226 222
A stationary nucleus 88 Ra (ground state) decays into the nucleus 86 Rn (ground
state) by emitting an -particle.
226
Given that m( 88 Ra ) = 226.02540 u. m( 24 He ) = 4.00260 u. m( 86
222
Rn ) = 222.01750 u.
226
Q24. The Q-value for the -decay of 88 Ra is (approximately)
(A) 4.93 MeV (B) 2.46 MeV (C) 9.8 MeV (D) 14.7 MeV
226
Q25. The K.E. of the emitted -particle in the decay of 88 Ra (approximately)
(A) 2.3 MeV (B) 4.85 MeV (C) 9.7 MeV (D) 14 MeV
Integer Type(+3,-1,0)
2 3 4
Q26. Consider the following fussion reaction 1H + 1H 2He . If 20 MeV of energy is
2
released per fusion reaction. Mass of 1H consumed per day is 0.1 gm. What is the
Power of the reactor in MW?
Q27. A radioactive element P disintegrates into Q which successive disintegrates into R as
shown
2
P Q R
At t = 0 number of nuclei of P, Q and R are N0, 0, 0 respectively. At time t number of
nuclei of P, Q and R are N1, N2 and N3 respectively. The ratio of N1 to N2 when N2 is
maximum is K. the value of K is
150 146
Q28. A sample of radioactive nuclide A is having half life 2 hours and it produce B
after emitting particle. Initially in sample only A was present having mass 50 gm.
After four hours difference in mass of sample (A + B) is x gm then value of x is.
Q29. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic
field produced by the electron at the nucleus will be proportional to nk. Find the value
of k.
Q30. Average life of a radioactive sample is 4 ms. Initially the total number of nuclei is N0.
Also at that time a charged capacitor of capacity 20 F is connected across a resistor
Nuclei remaining
R. The ratio remains constant with time. Find the value of
Charge on capacitor
R/(40).
Q31. A certain radioactive sample is obtained by mixing equal number of Nuclides of
species A and species B. Half life of species A is T and that of B is 2T. After certain
time it is found that the remaining radioactive nuclei of A and B combined together
are 5/32 of the original total number of nuclei. Calculate the number of half life of A
elapsed.
10
Set-3: X-ray
Multi choice single correct( +3,-1,0)
Q1. The diagram shows Coolidge tube for 50 kV
the production of X-rays. Currents
entering into the filament is 1.65 A
and exiting is 1.666 A. The filament Water
Metal
emits electrons with negligible speed (24C)
Filament
by thermo-ionic emission. A high 1.666 A
voltage 50 k V is applied across the
arrangement with filament as Steam
cathode. Assume that only one X-ray (100C)
photon is emitted for 100 electrons X-rays
incident on the target metal, find the 1.65 A
amount of water (24C) entering the
pipe per sec, which carries away all
the thermal energy produced.
Water comes out of the tube fully converted to steam at (100 C).
Given: Latent heat of steam = 540 cal/g, specific heat of water = 1 cal/g, 1 cal = 4.2 J.
(A) 0.3 g/sec (B) 1.25 g/s (C) 32 g/s (D) 135 gm/sec
Q2. The graph shows the variation of cutoff wavelength in X- min
ray experiment with respect to the de-Broglie wavelength
of the incident electron. Cutoff wavelength min is
plotted along y –axis and wavelength of incident P(x,a)
electrons ( e ) is plotted along x – axis. The given X–ray
tube is functioning corresponding to the point P. The
value of x – co-ordinate of point P is
e
ha ha 2ha O
(A) (B) (C) (D) none
2mc mc mc
h planck’s constant ; m mass of electron ; c speed of light
Q3. If the frequency of K x-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 31 is f, then
the frequency of K x-ray emitted from element with atomic number 51 would be
5f 51f 9f 25f
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2f 9
Q4. The given graph shows the variation of f us z for f 1 2 3
4
characteristics X-rays, lines 1, 2, 3, 4 shown in the graph
corresponds to any one of k, k, L, L, Then L is
represent by Z
(A) line 1 (B) line 2 (C) line 3 (D) line 4 O
Q5. The energy ratio of two K photons obtained in x-ray from two metal targets of atomic
numbers Z1 and Z2 is:
2 2
Z1 Z Z 1 (Z1 1)
(A) (B) 1 (C) 1 (D)
Z2 Z
2 Z
2 1 (Z 2 1)
Q6. The adjacent diagram describes the intensity of x-ray
photons versus their wave length, coming out of a
tube, when potential difference across the tube is V,
and atomic number of the target element is Z. If V is I
changed to V1 and Z to Z1, choose the incorrect
statement
11
-8
Q7. Wavelength of the k characteristics X-ray of iron and potassium are 1.931 10 cm
and
-8
3.737 10 cm respectively. The atomic number (approximately) of the element for
-8
which characteristic k wavelength is 2.289 10 cm is (atomic number of iron is 26
and atomic number is potassium is 19)
(A) 24 (B) 28 (C) 41 (D) 30
Q8. The figure represents the observed intensity ( I) of K(B) K(A)
X-rays emitted by two different tubes A and B as a I
function of wavelength . For the tube A, the
potential difference between the filament and target
is VA and atomic number of the target is ZA. For the
tube B, the corresponding potential difference is VB
A B
and the atomic number is ZB. The solid curve is for
tube A and dotted curve for tube B. Then
(A) Z A ZB ;VA VB (B) Z A ZB ;VA VB
(C) Z A ZB ; VA VB (D) Z A ZB ; VA VB
Q9. Choose incorrect statement regarding X-ray
(A) If the accelerating potential in an x-ray tube is increased, the wavelengths of the
characteristics X-ray changes.
(B) X-ray do not get deflected on application of electric or magnetic field.
(C) X-ray can ionize the gas through it pass.
(D) x-ray can be reflected and refracted.
Q10. Current in a X-ray tube operating at 40 k V is 10 mA. 1% of the total kinetic energy of
electrons hitting the target is converted into X-rays. Then the heat produced in the
target per second is :
(A) 396 J (B) 4J (C) 400 J (D) cannot be determined
12
voltage constant, the minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced will change.
(B) X-ray do not get deflected on application of electric or magnetic fields.
(C) X-ray can ionize a gas.
(D) X-ray can be reflected, refracted, diffracted and polarized under suitable
condition.
Q16. X ray from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target A
and weak K lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and 1
and 2 for two impurities.
z 1
4 and z .
1 2 4
Screening constant of K lines to be unity. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) The atomic number of first impurity is 2z – 1.
(B) The atomic number of first impurity is 2z + 1.
(z 1)
(C) The atomic number of second impurity is .
2
z
(D) The atomic number of second impurity is 1 .
2
Q17. If the filament current in Coolidge tube is increased by increasing the voltage in the
filament circuit then
(A) min remain same (B) Max. K.E. of electron not affected.
(C) Intensity increases (D) Intensity decreases
Q18. Which statement about k line in X-ray emission spectrum is correct?
(A) Energy associated with electromagnetic wave is equal to energy difference of K
and L shells.
(B) After k-line is emitted, L series follow.
(C) If an alloy of two metals is formed and used as target for X-emission. K line due
to each metal will get modified.
(D) If compound of two metals is formed and used as target for X-ray emission, the k
line due to each metal will remain unchanged.
Q19. When an electron moving at a high speed strikes a metal surface, which of the
following are possible?
(A) The entire energy of the electron may be converted into an X-ray photon.
(B) Any fraction of the energy of the electron may be converted into an X-ray photon.
(C) The entire energy of the electron may get converted to heat.
(D) The electron may undergo elastic collision with the metal surface.
Q20. Which of the following is true for characteristic X-ray.
(A) K photons are more energetic than K photons
(B) K photons are less energetic than K photons
(C) Intensity of K line is more than K lines.
(D) Intensity of K line is less than K lines.
Comprehension-I ( +3,-1,0)
In the adjacent figure, the schematic diagram of an X-ray tube is shown. The filament
C is heated by electric current and the emitted electrons are accelerated by the
electric field to hit the target element A
LV P2
C A
P1
I
HV
Figure-1:Heated cathode
X-ray tube
Figure-2: X-ray Intensity
versus wavelength
13
The scientist used an X-ray tube to determine the relationship between X-ray
wavelength , and X-ray intensity I, which is proportional to the number of X-ray
photons emitted at . The scientist then graphed the results of the experiment, as
shown in figure below:
Q21. Based on the tube in figure 1, to maintain an electron current of 0.005 A and a
5
potential drop of 10 V between the anode and the cathode, approximately how much
power must the tube consume ?
(A) 5 102 W (B) 1 103 W (C) 2 105 W (D) 2 107 W
Q22. The ionization potentials for electron in the n = 1, 2 and 3 energy levels of Pb are
-17 -17 -17
1400 × 10 J, 240 × 10 J, and 48 × 10 J, respectively. When an electron in the n
= 2 level fills a vacancy in the n = 1 level, what is the energy of the X-ray that is
emitted ?
-15 -15 -14 -14
(A) 1.92 × 10 J (B) 2.40 × 10 J (C) 1.16 × 10 J (D) 1.40 × 10 J
Q23. In figure 2, peaks P1 and P2 were produced by events that occurred with unequal
probabilities. Which peak was produced by the more probable event ? Assume that
the peaks P1, P2 are equally wide at their base and approximately triangular in shape
and that the wavelengths are very close.
(A) P1, because the peak has the longer wavelength
(B) P2, because the peak has the lower intensity
(C)P2, because the peak has the longer wavelength
(D) P2, because the peak has the higher intensity
Comprehension-I( +3,-1,0)
Figure shows intensity versus wavelength graph P2
of X-rays coming from Coolidge-tube with
molybdenum as anticathode:
The two peaks shown in graph correspond to K I
& K X-rays
Q24. Wavelength of L X-rays from Coolidge tube will
be (approximately)
(A) 5.60Å (B) 4.26 Å (C) 0.33 Å (D) 1.34 Å
Q25. Voltage applied across Coolidge tube in 0
A
(approximately)
0.40 0.63 0.71
(A) 20 kV (B) 16 kV (C) 31 kV (D) 18 kV
Q26. In the potential difference across the Coolidge tube is increased such that the cut off
wavelength of x-ray becomes 0.2 Å. Find the value of in this condition.
(A) 0.02 Å (B) 0.04 Å (C) 0.06 Å (D) 0.08 Å
Integer Type ( +3,-1,0)
Q27. Current in a X-ray tube operating at 40 kV is 10 mA. 1% of the total kinetic energy of
electrons hitting the target is converted into X-rays. Then the heat produced in the
target per second is 99n Joule
Q28. In a Coolidge tube, the potential difference used to accelerate the electrons is
increased from 12.4 kV to 24.8 kV. As a result, the difference between the
wavelengths of K -line and minimum wavelength becomes thrice. The wavelength of
o hc o
the K line is 0.25 KA . Find the value of K. = (12.4 kVA )
e
Q30. A target element A is bombarded with electrons and the wavelengths of the
characteristic spectrum are measured. A second characteristic spectrum is also
obtained, because of an impurity in the target. The wavelengths of the K lines are
196 pm (element A) and 169 pm (impurity). If the atomic number of impurity is z =
(10 1). Find the value of . (atomic number of element A is 27).
14
Set-4: Photo electric effect and Radiant Pressure
Multi choice single correct( +3,-1,0)
Q1. In a photo electric experiment, anode potential is plotted IP
against plate current.
15
Q8. Two identical photons of energy E (4eV E 8eV) fall on two different metals whose
work functions are in the ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of the kinetic energies of the most
energetic electrons coming from each metal is 2 : 1. Work function of one of the metal
is 4 eV. What is the energy of photon in eV.
(A) 6eV (B) 8 eV (C) 4 eV (D) 5 eV
Q9. Determine the light pressure exerted on the walls of an electric bulb of power 100 W.
The bulb is made in the form of a sphere of radius 5 cm, its walls reflect 10% of the
incident light and the rest 90% of the light is transmitted. Assume that the entire
power consumed by the bulb is converted into radiation and transmitted light does not
exert any pressure.
(A) 4 Pa (B) 6 Pa (C) 2 Pa (D) 12 Pa
Q10. A metallic surface is irradiated with monochromatic light of variable wavelength.
Above a wavelength of 5000 Å, no photoelectrons are emitted from the surface. With
an unknown wavelength, a stopping potential of 3 V is necessary to eliminate the
photo current. The unknown wavelength is
(A) 2258Å (B) 4133 Å (C) 3126 Å (D) 2679 Å
Multi choice multi correct( +4,-2,0)
Q11. Which of the following phenomena can be explained on the basis of particle nature of
light
(A) hydrogen spectrum (B) spectrum by a prism
(C) photoelectric effect (D) generation of X-rays
Q12. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected
photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy TA eV and de-Broglie wavelength A .
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by
photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50) eV. If the de-Broglie wavelength of
these photoelectrons is B 2 A , then
(A) the work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA = 2 eV (D) TB = 2.75 eV
Q13. Choose correct statement (s) regarding photoelectric effect.
(A) No matter how small intensity, if photoelectric emission takes place, the emission
is instantaneous.
(B) The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron does not depends upon the
intensity of incident light, if frequency of incident light is kept constant.
(C) Threshold frequency depends upon the intensity of incident light.
(D) the photoelectric current is inversely proportional to the intensity of incident light
and is independent of its frequency.
rd st
Q14. Photon liberated in the de–excitation of hydrogen atom from 3 level to 1 level falls
on a photo–cathode. Later when the same photo–cathode is exposed to some
nd
unknown hydrogen like gas, excited to 2 energy level, it is found that the de–Broglie
wavelength of the fastest photoelectrons, now ejected has decreased by a factor of 3.
nd st
For this new gas, difference of energies of 2 Lyman line and 1 Balmer line is found
to be 3 times the ionization potential of the hydrogen atom. Select the correct
statement(s) :
(A) The gas is lithium.
(B) The gas is helium.
(C) The work function of photo–cathode is 8.5 eV.
(D) The work function of photo–cathode is 5.5 eV.
Q15. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, graph of V0 Metal A Metal B
stopping potential V0 against reciprocal of wavelength
of the incident light for cathodes of two different
metals A and B are as shown. Choose the correct
option(s). 1/
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Q16. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected
photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy, TA expressed in eV and de Broglie
wavelength A. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another
metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50 eV). If the de Broglie
wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A, then :
(A) the work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA = 2.00 eV (D) TB = 2.75 eV
Q18. Light from a monochromatic source is incident normally on a small photo sensitive
surface S having work function . If power of the source is W and a is the distance
between the source and S, then
W S
(A) the number of photons striking the surface per unit time will be
4hca2
1
(B) the maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be (hc )
(C) the stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic photons will be
e
(hc )
(D) photo emission occurs only if 0 (hc / )
Moonlight has an intensity of 0.84 103 W/m . The average wavelength of moonlight
2
Q19.
is 5000Å.
2
(A) The force exerted by moonlight on a perfectly absorbing surface of area 100 m
9
is 0.28 10 N.
2
(B) The force exerted by moonlight on a perfectly absorbing surface of area 100 m is
2
0.84 10 N.
3 6
(C) The number of photons/m in the beam is 7 10 .
3 3
(D) The number of photons/m in the beam is 7 10 .
Q20. The radiation emitted when an electron jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 orbit in a hydrogen
atom, falls on a metal to produce photoelectrons. The electrons from the metal
surface with the maximum kinetic energy are made to move perpendicular to a
magnetic field of 3 104 T in a radius of 10.0 mm. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) The kinetic energy of the electrons is 0.8 eV
(B) The kinetic energy of the electrons is 0.16 eV
(C) The work function of the metal is 1 eV
(D) The work function of the metal is 2 eV
Comprehension-I (+3,-1,0)
A plane electromagnetic wave is the simplest y B
type of electromagnetic disturbance, which is A D
generated due to vibrations of electric field
Direction of
E(r,t) and B(r,t) , where O propagation of
x wave
E(r,t) E0 cos(kz t)iˆ and
B
B(r,t) B0 cos(kz t)jˆ B C
z
17
The plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along positive z-axis in a medium whose
dielectric constant er and relative permeability is r where k = 2/ is magnitude of
2
propagation vector k kˆ . The quantity k is also called wave number.
1 B20
The average energy density in a monochromatic plane wave is given as u 0rE02 .
2 20r
The amount of energy that flows past a fixed point per unit time and per unit area
perpendicular to the direction propagation is called poynting vector and denoted by N . The
poynting vector also represents the energy flux of a wave, and whose magnitude is given as
N = uv, where
v is the speed of electromagnetic wave in medium
Q22. Suppose microwave is propagating in air, calculate the maximum value of electric
field (E0).
4 4
(A) 2.04 10 volt/m (B) 4.08 10 volt/m
5 5
(C) 2.04 10 volt/m (D) 4.08 10 volt/m
Comprehension-I( +3,-1,0)
A photocell is operating in saturation mode with a photo current 4.8 mA. When a
monochromatic radiation of wavelength 3000 Å and power 1W is incident. When
another monochromatic radiation of wavelength 1650 Å and power 5 mW is incident,
it is observed that maximum velocity of photoelectron increases to two times.
Assuming efficiency of photo-electron generation per incident photon to be same for
both the cases, calculate
reflected and the rest absorbed, the number of photons falling per second on a unit
area of thin surface is 3 105k m2 s1 . Find the value of k.
Q27. A monochromatic light source of frequency v illuminates a metallic surface and ejects
photoelectrons. The photoelectrons having maximum energy are just able to ionize
the hydrogen atoms in ground state. When the whole experiment is repeated with an
incident radiation of frequency (5/6), the photoelectrons so emitted are able to excite
the hydrogen atom beam which then emit a radiation of wavelength 1215 A. Then
15
the frequency will be equal to k 10 Hz. Then find the value of k.
Q28. The circuit is placed in vacuum. Both the capacitors are identical having capacitance
C. Initially capacitors are uncharged and switches S1 and S2 open. When switch S1 is
18
closed and S2 open, a light of frequency f is incident on the left plate P of the
capacitor C1. The graph of Kmax (maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons when
they reach the plate Q and the capacitors are uncharged) Vs hf is shown by the
straight line graph. (Here h = Planck’s constant)
Light Kmax(eV)
P C Q
1 C2
S1 S2
0.5 eV hf (eV)
Kmax(eV) 2V
C1=C2 = C
The experiment is repeated again with uncharged capacitors
In experiment (a)with S2 closed and S1 open
In experiment (b) with both S1 and S2 open
by using light of = 6200 A. The (KE)max in experiment
(a) is K1 and (KE)max in experiment (b) is K2. Find the value of K1/K2. (Take hc = 1240
eV-nm)
Q29. A small piece of cesium metal ( = 1.9 eV) is kept at a distance of 20 cm from a large
-9 2
metal plate having a charge density of 1.0 x 10 C/m on surface facing the cesium
piece. A monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on the cesium piece.
Ratio of maximum to minimum kinetic of the photoelectron reaching the large metal
plate is given by k. Then find [k].
Q30. Electromagnetic radiation falls on a metallic body whose work function is 2eV. For a
particular radiation of frequency , the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron is
found to be 4 eV. Find the maximum kinetic energy (in eV) of photoelectron for the
5
radiation of frequency .
3
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