ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – HISTORY

CHAPTER – 1. RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q1 Study the picture and answer the question that follows: 1/R

Who painted the above print?

a. Frédéric Sorrieu.
b. Karl Kaspar Fritz.
c. Giacomo Mantegazza.
d. Eugene Delacroix.

Q2 What does the above print visualise?(Given in question 1) 1/U

a. The image of the French Bastille being stormed by the revolutionary
crowd.
b. the occupation of the town of Zweibrücken by the French armies.
c. A utopian vision of a world made up of ‘democratic and social
Republics’
d. the founding of Young Europe in Berne 1833.

Q3 ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means- 1/U
a. Strong devotion to one’s own country and its history and culture.
b. Strong devotion to one’s own country without appreciation for other
nations.
c. Strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
d. Equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

Q4 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/A
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Napoleon’s French army brought democracy and accountability in
governance across Europe in 1804.
Reason: Napolean simplified administrative division, abolished the feudal
system, and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.

Assertion: From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced

various measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen. Reason:
 This was done to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. c.

A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q5 DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable: 1/A

Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled
by an Italian princely house.
Reason: The north was under the domination of the bourbon kings of Spain.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A
is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q6 Match the following items given in Column A with those of Column B. 1/A
Choose the correct answers from the options given below. P

A. Mazzini 1.Custom union

B. Zollverein 2.Italian revolutionary

C. Inland Emigration Act 3. 1804

D. Civil Code 4.1859

Q7
A. What does the image of Germania signify?

a. Failure of Germany as a superpower

b. Heroism
c. Wisdom
d. None of the above
B. Who has painted the image ?

a. Nathaniel Currier
b. Philip Viet
c. Edward Bailey
d. Richard Saltonstall Greenough

Q8 How did the local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to French 3AP
rule? Explain.

Q9 Choose three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of 3/AN
nationalism in Europe.

Q10 What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective 3/U
identity among the French people?

Q11 Name the female allegory, which was invented by artists in the 19th century to 3/R+A
represent the nation of France. Explain any two features of it. P

Q12 Analyze the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to 5/AN
create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.

Q13 Describe the process of unification of Italy. 5/U

Q14 How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe? 5/U
Q15 Briefly trace the process of German unification. 5/E

Q16 Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans? 5/E

Q17 Explain what is meant by the 1848 revolution of the liberals. What were the 5/R
political, social and economic ideas supported by the liberals?

Q18 Through a focus on any two countries, explain how nations developed over the 5/R
nineteenth century.

Q19 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: 4/U
Giuseppe Garibaldi (1807-82) is perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom
fighters. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the
merchant navy. In 1833 he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy movement and
participated in a republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834. The uprising was
suppressed, and Garibaldi had to flee to South America, where he lived in exile
till 1848. In 1854, he supported Victor Emmanuel II in his efforts to unify the
Italian states. In 1860, Garibaldi led the famous Expedition of the Thousand to
South Italy. Fresh volunteers kept joining through the course of the campaign, till
their numbers grew to about 30,000. They were popularly known as Red Shirts.
In 1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to
the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French garrison was stationed.
The Red Shirts proved to be no match for the combined French and Papal troops.
It was only in 1870 when, during the war with Prussia, France withdrew its
troops from Rome that the Papal States were finally joined to Italy.

10.1 Who were red shirts?

10.2 What made the Papal States invincible by Italian army?

Q2 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: 4/
0 Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a AN
spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of /U
state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the
family –should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to
the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realized, from the changes initiated
by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the
monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an
efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could
strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the
European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a
settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke
Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of
undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic
wars. The bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A
series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in
future.
1 Explain European conservative ideology.
2 Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815.
3 What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna?
4 How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe?

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – HISTORY

CHAPTER – 2. NATIONALISM IN INDIA

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Q21 Who was the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?

a. Rabindranath Tagore
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Jawahar Lai Nehru

Q22 What was the purpose of imposing the Rowlatt Act?

a. The Rowlatt Act forbade the Indians to qualify for administrative
services.
b. The Rowlatt Act had denied Indians the right to political participation.
c. The Rowlatt Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already
groaning under the burden of taxes.
d. The Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison any person i
without trial and conviction in a court of law

Q23 Under the presidency of Jawahar Lai Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of
1929 formalized the demand of-
a. abolition of Salt Tax
b. ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence
c. boycott of Simon Commission
d. separate electorate for the ‘Dalits’

Q24 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): In India rise of nationalism is associated with the anti-colonial
movement.
Reason(R): The sense of being oppressed under colonialism connected many
different groups together.
 a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A
is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q25 Why Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?

Q26 State the slogan with which Simon Commission was greeted in 1928 in India.

Q27 Study the picture and answer the questions that follow: Which
of the following aspects best signifies this picture?

A. Women suffrage
B. Women participated in Quit India Movement
C. Women participated in Civil Disobedience Movement
D. Women participated in Non-Cooperation Movement

Q28 Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt Act 1919 Explain any three reasons.
Q29 Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw from the Non- Cooperation Movement in
February 1922? Explain any three reasons.

Q30 Why did Gandhiji relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement after the Second
Round Table Conference? Explain any three reasons.

Q31 List all the different social groups which joined the Non-Cooperation Movement
of 1921. Then choose any three and write about their hopes and struggles to
show why they joined the movement.

Q32 The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma
Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj.’ Support the statement with arguments.

Q33 ‘The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation
 Movement.’ Support the statement with examples.

Q34 Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement.’?

Q35 Describe the incident and impact of the Jallianwala Bagh. Mention the response
to it by Indians and the repressive steps taken up by the British to control the
situation.

Q36 Describe the significance of the Civil Disobedience Movement in the freedom
struggle of India.

Q37 Read the source below and answer the question that follows:
Source A:

‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on

the adversary; he does not seek his destruction ... In the use of
satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever.’ Satyagraha is pure soul-
force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is
called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns
the flame of love ... Non-violence is the supreme dharma...
‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms.
The British worship the wargod and they can all of them become, as
they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India
can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence
their own. Source B: “It is said to ‘passive resistance’ that it is the
weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article
can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance;
indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South
Africa was not passive but active...” Source C: ‘I have no hesitation
in declaring that if the principle that the Indian Muslims is entitled to
full and free development on the lines of his own culture and tradition
in his own Indian homelands is recognized as the basis of a permanent
communal settlement, he will be ready to stake his all for the freedom
of India.
The principle that each group is entitled to free development on its
own lines is not inspired by any feeling of narrow communalism ... A
community which is inspired by feelings of ill-will towards other
communities is low and ignoble. I entertain the highest respect for the
customs, laws, religions and social institutions of other communities.
Nay, it is my duty according to the teachings of the Quran, even to
defend their places of worship, if need be. Yet I love the communal
group which is the source of life and behavior, and which has formed
me what I am by giving me its religion, its literature, its thought, its
culture and thereby its whole past as a living operative factor in my
present consciousness.
Source A:
25.1 What do the British worship?
Source B:
25.2 Which passive resistance is the author talking about?
Source C:
25.3 What does Quran say about the places of worship of other
communities?

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 12 QUESTION BANK

 SUBJECT – HISTORY

CHAPTER – 3. MAKING OF THE GLOBAL

WORLD

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Q40 What were cowries used as? 1/R

a. Decorative item
b. Souvenir
c. Currency
d. None of the above

Q41 Name the author of the “Book of Marvels.” 1/R

a. Al- Biruni
b. Marco Polo
c. Christopher Columbus
d. None of the above

Q42 Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchanges. Justify the 3/AP
statement

Q43 The Spanish conquest and colonization in America were decisively underway 5/U
by the mid – sixteenth century. Explain with examples.
Q44 Give two examples of different types of global exchanges which took place 5/R
before the seventeenth century, choosing one example from Asia and one from
the Americas.

Q45 Explain how the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the 5/R
colonization of the Americas.

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25
 GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – HISTORY

CHAPTER – 4. PRINT CULTURE AND THE MODERN WORLD

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission

Q46 What was “vellum” 1/R

a. A Type of press
b. Art of writing
c. A type of paper
d. Writing material made of skin of an animal.

Q47 Identify the person depicted in the image. 1/R

a. Galileo Galilei
b. Johann Gutenberg
c. Copernicus
d. William Harvey

Q48 What was the name of the document that Martin Luther posted on a church door 1/U
 in Wittenberg?
a. Sixty – Five Theses
b. Forty – Five Theses
c. Ninety-Five Theses
d. Thirty – Five Theses

Q49 Choose the correctly matched pair: 1/R

a. Diamond Sutra – Chinese book on Jainism
b. The Bible – Indian book on religion
c. Tripitaka Koreana- collection of Korean Buddhist scriptures
d. Jikji – Japanese book on the art of living

Q50 “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one”. This statement is 1/R
attributed to:
a. Erasmus
b. Martin Luther
c. Copernicus
d. Menocchio

Q51 Choose the correct statement: 1/U

The printing in Hindi began in which year? What kind of printed material was
published?
a) Hindi printing began in the 1870s, a large segment was devoted to women’s
education, widow remarriage and the national movement.
b) Hindi printing began from the 1870s and their main concern was women –
related issues.
c) Hindi printing began from 1900 and was devoted to education of women.
d) Printing in Hindi began in the early 20th century and its main concern was
religious reform.

Q52 Which of the following was not an effect of the blooming of urban cultures in 1/U

China in 17th century?

a. A new readership was born. This included children and women.
b. Readership grew and reached the lowest classes of the country
c. Reading became a leisure activity
d. Merchants used print in their everyday life.
Q53 In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a 1/AP
statement of Reasoning. Identify the correct option based on the two
statements.
Assertion: Printing allowed easy access to nationalist ideals such as equality
and freedom
Reasoning: It became easier for social reformers to spread their opinions
through newspapers.
 a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. c.
A is true but R is false.
d. A is false and R is true.
Q54 Which of the following statements is incorrect? 1/A
a. Printing technology reduced the cost of production of books
b. With the coming of printing technology, there was a rapid increase in literacy
rates as well.
c. Oral culture existed within the realm of printing culture.
d. Printing technology also allowed new ideas to circulate.

Q55 Richard M Hoe of New York had perfected the power driven _____________. 1/R
This was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour. This was particularly useful
for printing ____________
a. Cylindrical press, books
b. Cylindrical press, newspapers
c. Spherical press, pamphlets
d. Circular press, newspapers.

Q56 Which of the following statements are true about printing? 1/U
a. Merchants used print in their everyday life as they collected trade
information.
b. The imperial state in China was, for a very long time, the major producer
of printed material.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of the above.

Q57 What was the aim of the Protestant Reformation? 1/U

Q58 How did the power - driven cylindrical press change printing technology? 2/A

Q59 How did print culture impact the lives of women? 3/A

Q60 What impact did printing technology have on the French Revolution? 3/U

Q61 “Print did not only stimulate the publication of conflicting opinions among communities, but it 5/AP
also connected communities and people in different part of India” support the statement with
examples.

Q62 Why did some people in eighteenth century Europe think that print culture would bring 5/E
enlightenment and end despotism?

Q63 Explain how print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India. 5/U

Q64 Why did some people fear the effect of easily available printed books? Choose one example from 5/AN
Europe and one from India.
Q65 “Print Revolution in sixteenth century Europe transformed the lives of people”. Support the 5/E
statement with suitable arguments.

Q66 What led the colonial government to pass the Vernacular Press Act in 1879? How did it affect the 5/R
vernacular newspaper?

Q67 Read the following source, answer the questions that follow: 4/U

In 1926, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein, a noted educationist and literary figure, strongly
condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion as she addressed
the Bengal Women’s Education Conference: ‘The opponents of female education say that women
will become unruly … Fie! They call themselves Muslims and yet go against the basic tenet of
Islam which gives Women an equal right to education. If men are not led astray once educated,
why should women?’

a) Whose autobiography was Amar Jiban?

b) Why was conservative society against women becoming literate?
c) How did women’s lives change with the coming of education and literacy?

Read the following source, answer the questions that follow:

Q68
Fear of the book Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer, who criticised the excesses of
Catholicism but kept his distance from Luther, expressed a deep anxiety about printing. He wrote
in Adages (1508): ‘To what corner of the world do they not fly, these swarms of new books? It
may be that one here and there contributes something worth knowing, but the very multitude of
them is hurtful to scholarship, because it creates a glut, and even in good things satiety is most
harmful ... [printers] fill the world with books, not just trifling things (such as I write, perhaps), but
stupid, ignorant, slanderous, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious books, and the number of
them is such that even the valuable publications lose their value.

a. Why did traditional conservation order fear print word?

b. What was the Protestant Reformation?
c. What impact did the Reformation have on the Catholic Church?
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER – 1. RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q69 Which one of the following is a leguminous crop? 1/U
a. Pulses
b. Jowar
c. Millets
d. Sesame
Q70 Match the following: 1/AP
RESOURCES EXAMPLES

a. Renewable Resources: I. Forests and wildlife

b. Non -Renewable Resources: II. The oceanic resources

c. National Resources: III. Roads, canals and railway

d. International Resources: IV. Minerals and fossil fuels

OPTIONS
A. a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II
B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
C. a-IV, b-I, c-IV, d-II
D. a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III

Q71 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
your answer as per the codes provided below:
ASSERTION (A): The lower horizon of the arid soil is occupied by kankar.
REASON (R): It is because of increasing calcium content downwards arid soil.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.

Q72 Suggest any two ways to conserve energy resources in India. 2/ U

Q73 Which are two causes for soil erosion? 2/R

Q74 Explain the three stages of Resource Planning in India. 3/U

Q75 How have technical and economic development led to more consumption of 3/A
resources?
Q76 Why is it essential to have resource planning? Explain with reasons. 5/U

Q77 What is soil erosion? What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly 5/U
areas?

Q78 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4/R
It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations
Conference on Environment and Development (UCED), which took place at Rio
de Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an
agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global
Cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One
major objective of agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own
local Agenda 21.
Answer the following:
1 What was the aim of signing Agenda 21 by world leaders?
2 When and where was Agenda 21 signed by world leaders?
3 Agenda 21 declaration was signed in which of the following conference?
Which among the following was one of the major objectives of the Agenda 21?
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL,
PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER 2-FOREST AND WILDLIFE

RESOURCES

Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q79 Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and 1/U
fauna?
a. Agricultural expansion.
b. Large scale developmental projects.
c. Grazing and fuel wood collection.
d. Rapid industrialization and urbanization.
Q80 Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as: 1/U
a. Unclassed Forest
b. Permanent Forest
c. Protected Forest
d. Reserved Forest

Q81 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Forests play a key role in the ecological system.
Reason: Forest are the primary producers on which all other living beings
depend.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Q82 List four factors which have led to the decline in India’s biodiversity. 2/R

Q83 Difference between Reserved and Protected forests? 2/ U

Q84 Write four steps taken by the Government for conservation of wildlife. 3/ U
Q85 Describe the steps taken to conserve the flora and fauna of the country. 3/ U

Q86 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4/R
In the 1960s and 1970s, conservationists demanded a national wildlife protection
programme. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with
various provisions for protecting habitats. An All-India list of protected species
was also published. The thrust of the programme was to protect the remaining
population of certain endangered species by banning hunting, giving legal
protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife. Subsequently, central
and many state governments established national parks and wildlife sanctuaries
about which you have already studied. The central government also announced
several projects for protecting specific animals, which were gravely threatened,
including the tiger, the one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, three
types of crocodiles - freshwater crocodile, saltwater crocodile and the Gharial,
the Asiatic lion, and others. Most recently the Indian elephant, black buck
(chinkara), the great Indian bustard (godawan) and the snow leopard, etc, have
been given full or partial legal protection against hunting and trade throughout
India.
Answer the following:
1 Which act was implemented in 1972?
2 Who demanded the national wildlife protection programme?
3 Which animals have been recently given full or partial legal protection against
hunting and trade throughout India?

4 The central government has announced projects for

protecting which of the following set of species?

Q87 Analyze how human activities affected the depletion of flora and 5/U
fauna.
Q88 Assess the need for the conservation of forests and wildlife in India. 5/U

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL
SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION
BANK

SUBJECTGEOGRAPHY

WATER RESOURCES
 Name of Student –
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Q89 Based on the information given below classify each of the situations as ‘suffering 1/U
from water scarcity’ or ‘not suffering from water scarcity’.
a. Region with high annual rainfall.
b. The region has high annual rainfall, but water is highly polluted.
c. The region has high annual rainfall and a large population.
d. Region having low rainfall and low population.

Q90 Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called: 1/U
a. Tankas
b. Khadin
c. Ponds
d. Kuls

Q91 Which of the following is not a method of water harvesting used in Rajasthan? 1/R
a. Tankas
b. Khadin
c. Johads
d. Kuls

Q92 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures,
there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system.
Reason: Rainwater, or palar pani, as commonly referred to in these parts, is
considered the purest form of natural water.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.

Q93 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
 your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Ground water is a highly overused resource.
Reason: Groundwater is used for domestic and drinking purposes.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Q94 How has Tamil Nadu solved the problem of acute shortage of water? 2/ U
Q95 How are dams classified based on structure and the material used? 2/A
Q96 Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multi-purpose river projects. 3/U

Q97 Why is it important to conserve and manage our water resources? Give any three 3/U
reasons.

Q98 Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over-exploitation, excessive use and 5/R
unequal access to water among different social groups.” Explain the meaning of
statement with the help of examples.

Q99 Discuss how rainwater harvesting in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan is carried 5/U
out.

Q100 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4/U
Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the
multipurpose projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both
socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, along with the
sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of
water-harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and
soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater,
groundwater, river water and 'flood water’ in keeping with the local ecological
conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions people-built
diversion channels like the guls or kuls of the Western Himalayas for agriculture.
Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practised to store drinking water,
particularly in Rajasthan. In the 'flood plains of Bengal, people developed
inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions,
agricultural fields were converted into rainfed storage structures that allowed the
water to stand and moisten the soil like the khadins in Jaisalmer and Johads in
other parts of Rajasthan.
Answer the following:
1 What were ‘guls or kuls’?
2 Where are rooftop rainwater harvesting practices seen commonly?
3 India tracing the sophisticated hydraulic structures to which era?
4 What is the most common use of rooftop rainwater harvesting?
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL
SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER 4-

AGRICULTURE

Name of Student
- Grade &
Section - Date of
Issue-
Date of submission-
Q101 Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive Cultivation in India from 1/R
the following options:
a. Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh
b. Kumari-Jharkhand
c. Khil -Andhra Pradesh
d. Koman- Karnataka

Q102 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Tea cultivation is labor intensive industry.
Reason: Cultivation can be done throughout the year. Tea bushes require a warm
and moist frost-free climate.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q103 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/U
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: India’s primary activity is Agriculture.
Reason: Two-thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q104 Match the following: 1/R

A B

a. Sickle I. Ploughing

b. Hoe II. Sowing

c. Seed Drill III. Harvesting

d. Sprinkler IV. Irrigation

OPTIONS
A. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
C. a-IV, b-I, c-IV, d-II
 D. a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
Q105 Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions 2/U
required for its growth.

Q106 What is the main characteristic of commercial farming? 2/A

Q107 What is the ‘right of inheritance’? What are its consequences? 3/U
Q108 Why is subsistence agriculture still practiced in certain parts of the country? Give 3/A
reasons.

Q109 Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence 5/R
farming.

Q110 Which are important kharif crops? When are these crops grown and where? 5/A

Q111 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4/U
Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have
hindered the pace of agricultural development. Despite the development of
sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country still depend
upon monsoon and natural fertility to carry on their agriculture. For a growing
population, this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture, which provides livelihood
for more than 60 per cent of its population, needs some serious technical and
institutional reforms. Thus, collectivization, consolidation of holdings,
cooperation, and abolition of zamindari, etc, were given priority to bring about
institutional reforms in the country after Independence. 'Land reform' was the
focus of our First Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance had already led to
fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings.
Answer the following:
1 What was the focus of the First Five Year Plan?
2 What was the serious challenge for the growing population?
3 Agriculture provided livelihood to how much population?
4 Which rights had led to fragmentation of land holdings?
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL
SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER 5-MINERALS AND ENERGY

RESOURCES

Name of Student
- Grade &
Section - Date of
Issue-
Date of submission-
Q112 The Monazite sands in Kerala is rich in- 1/R
a. thorium
b. uranium
c. platinum
d. all the above

Q113 Which is the highest quality hard Coal? 1/U

a. Lignite
b. Peat
c. Bituminous
d. Anthracite

Q114 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/A
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Mica is a mineral made up of plates or leaves.
Reason: Mica deposits are found in the Northern edge of the Chota Nagpur
Plateau.
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.

Q115 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1/A
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Uses of iron brought a radical change in human life.
Reason: Different kinds of tools where invented by using minerals
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.

Q116 Which of the following minerals is mined at Balaghat mines? 1/R

a. Manganese
b. Aluminum
c. Copper
d. Limestone

Q117 What is the interest of a geologists in minerals? 2/U

Q118 What is an ‘ore’? 2/U
Q119 Why is mica the most indispensable mineral used in electric and electronic 3/U
industries?

Q120 How can you contribute towards the conservation of energy resources? State one 3/R
way.

Q121 Describe the importance of minerals in human life. 5/U

Q122 “Minerals are found in varied forms in nature ranging from the hardest diamond 5/E
to the softest talc.” Why are they so varied?

Q123 Describe the distribution of coal in India. And write their uses. 5/U
Q124 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 4/U
The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming
increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and gas. Rising prices of
oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the
security of energy supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the
growth of the national economy. Moreover, increasing use of fossil fuels also
causes serious environmental problems. Hence, there is a pressing need to use
renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy from
waste material. These are called nonconventional energy sources. India is blessed
with an abundance of sunlight, water, wind, and biomass. It has the largest
programmes for the development of these renewable energy resources.
1 What are non-conventional energy sources?
2 What is causing serious environmental problems?
3 Why there is a pressing need to use renewable energy?
4 Which of the following are examples of fossil fuels?
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL
SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT –GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER 6-MANUFACTURING
INDUSTRIES

Name of Student
- Grade &
Section - Date of
Issue-
Date of submission-

Q125 Which one of the following agencies markets steels for the public sector plants? 1/R
a. HAIL
b. SAIL
 c. TATA steel
d. MNCC
Q126 Which one of the following groups of states has the largest number of cotton 1/R
textile centers?
a. Gujarat and Maharashtra
b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat

Q127 What are light industries? 2/R

Q128 How are integrated steel plants different from mini steel plants? What problems 3/R
does the industry face?

Q129 Why are most of the jute mills of India located in West Bengal? 5/U
Q130 NTPC has set an example of a pollution-free industry. How is it possible? 5/U
Explain

MAP Based Questions

Q131 Chapter 1: a) Major soil Types (Identification
Resources and only)
Development
Chapter 3: a. Salal (Locating and
Water b. Bhakra Nangal Labelling)
Resources c. Tehri
d. Rana Pratap Sagar
e. Sardar Sarovar
(Dams) f. Hirakud
g. Nagarjuna Sagar
h. Tungabhadra

Chapter 4: a) Major areas of Rice and Wheat (Identification

Agriculture b) Largest / Major producer states of only)
Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber,
Cotton and

Chapter 5: a) Thermal (Locating and

Minerals and  Namrup Labelling
Energy  Singrauli only)
Resources  Ramagundam
b) Nuclear

 Narora
 Kakrapara
(Power Plants)  Tarapur
 Kalpakkam
c)Iron Ore Mines
Mayurbhanj
Durg
Bailadila
Bellary
Kudremukh
d) Coal Mines
Raniganj
Bokaro
Talcher
Neyveli
e) Oil Fields
Digboi
Naharkatia
Mumbai High
Kalol
Bassien
Ankaleshwar
  Thiruvananthapuram

Chapter 7: a. Major Ports: (Locating and

Lifelines of  Kandla Labelling)
National  Mumbai
Economy  Marmagao
 New Mangalore
 Kochi
 Tuticorin
 Chennai
 Vishakhapatnam
 Paradip
 Haldia

b. International Airports:
 Amritsar (Raja Sansi)
 Delhi (Indira
Gandhi
International)
 Mumbai
(Chhatrapati Shivaji)
 Chennai
(Meenam
Bakkam)
 Kolkata (Netaji Subhash
Chandra Bose)
 Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT –POLITICAL SCIENCE

CHAPTER 1-POWER SHARING

Name of Student - Grade &

Section - Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
 Political Science
Ch.1-Power Sharing

Q132 Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium 1/AN
and Sri Lanka:
A. In Belgium the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose
their domination on the minority French speaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka the policies of government ensured the dominance of the
Sinhala speaking majority.
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to
protect their culture, language, and equality of opportunity in education and
jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal
one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B, and D
(c) C and D
(d) B, C and D
Q133. Match List I (forms of power- sharing) with List II (forms of government) and 1/U
select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
 (a) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
(b) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A
(c) (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – C
(i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

Q134. Intelligent sharing of power is done among- 1/U

a. Legislature and Central Government
b. Executive and Judiciary
c. Legislature and Executive
d. Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Q135. Assertion: Tyranny of majority is highly desirable. 1/E
Reason: It helps in making the political order more
stable.

Assertion: In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public

policies. Reason: India has federal system.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false

Q136. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements is correct? 1/U
a. Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have
religious, linguistic, or ethnic divisions.
b. Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have
regional divisions.
c. Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small
or does not have social divisions.
d. Power-sharing is not necessary at all.
Q137. Why is horizontal power sharing also called a „system of checks and balances‟? 2/A

Q138. State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power sharing with an 2/R
example from the Indian context.
Q139. “Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united.” Do you agree 3/E
with the statement and why?
Q140. Explain the three measures taken by Sri Lanka according to the act of 1956 3/U

Q141. What is power sharing? Why power sharing is desirable in a democracy? 3/U+ R
Q142. Differentiate between Horizontal and vertical power sharing. 5/U

Q143. Compare the different ways in which the Belgians and the Sri Lankans have 5/E
dealt with the problem of cultural diversity.
Q144. Explain the different forms of Power sharing in modern democracies. 5/U

Q145. Study the following pictures/cartoons and answer the questions that follow: 4/AP

Q146. 4/AP

1. What does the cartoon represent?

2. Identify the two main leaders shown here.
3. What, according to this cartoon, is the relationship between democracy
and concentration of power?
Can you think of some other examples to illustrate the point being made here?

Q147. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4/AP
“In the city of Beirut there lived a man called Khalil. His parents came from different
communities. His father was an Orthodox Christian and mother a Sunni Muslim. This
was not so uncommon in this modern, cosmopolitan city. People from various
communities that lived in Lebanon came to live in its capital, Beirut. They lived
together, intermingled, yet fought a bitter civil war among themselves. One of
Khalil‟s uncles was killed in that war. At the end of this civil war, Lebanon‟s leaders
came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different
communities. As per these rules, the country‟s President must belong to the Maronite
sect of Catholic Christians. The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni Muslim
community. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox Christian sect
and that of the Speaker for Shi‟a Muslims. Under this pact, the Christians agreed not
to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek unification with the
neighbouring state of Syria. When the Christians and Muslims came to this
agreement, they were nearly equal in population. Both sides have continued to
respect this agreement though now the Muslims are in clear majority. Khalil does not
like this system one bit. He is a popular man with political ambition. But under the
present system the top position is out of his reach. He does not practice either his
father‟s or his mother‟s religion and does not wish to be known by either. He cannot
understand why Lebanon can‟t be like any other „normal‟ democracy. “Just hold an
election, allow everyone to contest and whoever wins maximum votes becomes the
president, no matter which community he comes from. Why can‟t we do that, like in
other democracies of the world?” he asks. His elders, who have seen the bloodshed of
the civil war, tell him that the present system is the best guarantee for peace…”

Answer the following:

What type of government should Lebanon adopt?
What was the rule for the power sharing arrangement? Is this arrangement
acceptable in a democratic country? Give the reason.

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL,

PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT –POLITICAL SCIENCE

CHAPTER 2-FEDERALISM
Name of Student -
Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q148. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is: 1/R
(a) National government gives some powers to the provincial governments.
(b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
(d) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.

Q149. A few subjects in various Lists of the Indian Constitution are given here. Group 1/
them under the Union, State and Concurrent Lists as provided in the table below. AP
A. Defense; B. Police; C. Agriculture; D. Education; E. Banking; F. Forests; G.
Communications; H. Trade; I. Marriages

Q150. Assertion: Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zilla parishad. 1/E
Reason: Mayor is the head of municipalities.
Assertion: A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992.
Reason: The Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more
powerful and effective.

a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true but reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false

Q151. Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the 1/E
powers of the government at that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned
against each. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) State government State List
(b) Central government Union List
(c) Central and State governments Concurrent List
(d) Local governments Residuary powers

Q152. Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is like and one 2/U
feature that is different from that of Belgium.

Q153. What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary 2/R
one? Explain with an example.

Q154. Describe any two functions of a Gram Sabha. 2/R

Q155. “India has a large cultural, religious, and regional diversity. But there is unity 3/U
among people”. What factors are responsible for this? Elaborate.

Q156. Critically analyze the Centre-State relations prior to 1990 and after. 3/
AN
Q157. The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test of democratic politics 3/E
in our country. Justify the statement.
Q158. Explain the language policy of Indian Federal. How is it different from Sri 3/U
Lanka?

Q159. Enlist the features of Federalism. 5/R

Q160. Difference between ‘Coming together federation’ and ‘Holding together 5/R
federation’.

Q161. How has the third tier of government in our country been made more effective 5/E
and powerful by the constitutional amendment of 1992?

Q162. How are the powers divided between the states and center? Explain with 5/R
examples.

Q163. Explain the structure of the new Panchayati Raj institutions, both in rural and 5/R
urban areas.

Q164. State any two differences between the local government before and after the 5/U
Constitutional amendment in 1992.
Q165 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: 4/U+ AP
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did
not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified
as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent
of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages.
Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognized as Scheduled Languages
by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central
Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.
States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes
place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders
of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi.
According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop
in 1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of
English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central
Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with
Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favored the
English peaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the
Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can
impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility
shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation
that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

Questions:
1. Which of the three reactions to following language policy holds true in the
case of India?
a. The language-based States have divided us as they make everyone conscious
of their language
b. The policy of accommodation has strengthened National Unity
The Language Policy has helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all
the other languages.
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT –POLITICAL SCIENCE

CHAPTER 3. GENDER, RELIGION AND CASTE

Name of Student - Grade & Section -

Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q166. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to: 1/R
(a) Biological difference between men and women
(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
(c) Unequal child sex ratio
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies
Q167. In India seats are reserved for women in---- 1/R
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) State legislative assemblies
(c) Cabinets
(d) Panchayati Raj bodies

Q168. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. 1/U
Communal politics is based on the belief that:
(i) One religion is superior to that of others.
(ii) People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal
citizens.
(iii) Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
(iv) State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious
group over others.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (ii) and (iv) only.

Q169. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It 1/U
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
(b) gives official status to one religion
(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion
(d) ensures the equality of citizens within religious communities.
Q170. Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given 1/AN
below the Lists:

List I List II
A. Communalist
(i) A person who believes in equal
rights and opportunities for women and
men.
B. Feminist
(ii) A person who says that religion is
the principal basis of the community.
C. Secularist
(iii) A person who thinks that caste is
the principal basis of community.
 D. Casteist
(iv) A person who does not
discriminate against others on the basis
of religious beliefs.
(a) (i) – B; (ii) – C; (iii) – A; (iv) – D
(b) (i) – B; (ii) – A; (iii) – D (iv) – C
(c) (i) – D; (ii) – C; (iii) – A (iv) – B
(d)(i) – C; (ii) – A; (iii) – B (iv) – D

Q171 Explain the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies. 1/R
Q172 Write two measures to combat communalism in India. 2/AN

Q173 What do you understand by vote bank of a caste? 2/U

Q174 State two reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India. 2/R

Q175 Explain any three forms of communalism in the Indian politics. 3/U

Q176 Suggest any two measures to check communalism in India. 3/E

Q177 Mention three constitutional provisions which make India a Secular Country. 3/R

Q178 Describe three advantages of the political expression of caste differences. 3/R

Q179 Describe any five constitutional provisions that make India a secular. 5/R

Q180 The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give the impression that elections are all about 5/E
caste and nothing else. Do you agree? Explain.

Q181 Analyze the role of caste in Indian politics. 5/AN

Q182 Analyze any five advantages and disadvantages of the political expression of caste 5/AN
differences.

Q183 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: Communal politics is 4/U
based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. Communalism
involves thinking along the following lines. The followers of a particular religion must
belong to one community. Their fundamental interests are the same. Any difference that
they may have is irrelevant or trivial for community life. It also follows that people who
follow different religions cannot belong to the Family laws: Those laws that deal with
family related matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption, inheritance, etc. In our
country, different family laws apply to followers of different religions. same social
community. If the followers of different religion have some commonalities these are
superficial and immaterial. Their interests are bound to be different and involve a conflict. In
its extreme form communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different
religions cannot live as equal citizens within one nation.
Either one of them has to dominate the rest or they have to form different nations.
1. Communal politics is based on what idea?
a. Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social
community.
b. Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is not the principal basis of
social community.
c. Communal politics is based on the idea that killing is the principal basis of social
community.
d. Communal politics is based on the idea that animals are the principal basis of
social community.

2. Can people who belong to different religions belong to same family laws?
a. No, they cannot
b. Yes, they can
c. Maybe, they can
d. Either yes or no

3. What does the extreme form of communalism lead to?

a. Extreme form communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different
religions cannot live as equal citizens within one nation.
b. Extreme form communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different
religions can live as equal citizens within one nation.
c. Extreme form communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to same
religions cannot live as equal citizens within one nation.
d. Extreme form communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to same
religions can live as equal citizens within one nation.

4. What is the belief about people who follow different religions?

a. It believes that people who follow different religions can belong to the Family
laws.
b. It believes that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the Family
laws.
c. It believes that people who follow different religions can convert laws.
It believes that people who follow different religions can make different government.
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – POLITICAL SCIENCE

CHAPTER 4-POLITICAL PARTIES

Name of Student - Grade & Section -

Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Q 184 Match List-I (organisations and struggles) with List-II and select the correct 1/AP
answer using the codes given below the lists.
 List-I List-II

Congress Party A. National Democratic Alliance

Bharatiya Janata Party B. State party

Communist Party of India (Marxist) C. United Progressive Alliance

Telugu Desam Party D. Left Front

1 2 3 4

(a) C A B D

(b) C D A B

(c) C A D B

(d) D C A B

Q185 Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party? 1/R

A. Kanshi Ram
B. Sahu Maharaj
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Jyotiba Phule
Q186 What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party? 1/R

A. Bahujan Samaj
B. Revolutionary democracy
C. Integral humanism
D. Modernity
Q187 Consider the following statements on parties. 1/AN

A. Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people.

B. Parties are often rocked by scandals involving top-party leaders.
C. Parties are not necessary to run governments.
D. Which of the statements given above is correct?
 a. A, B, and C
b. A and B
c. B and C
d. A and C
Q 188 ASSERTION AND REASON: 1/
1. Assertion: In a democracy, political parties are a must. AP
Reason: Without political parties there will be no elections.
2. Assertion: Large established parties are called recognized parties.
Reason: These parties have been given certain specialized symbols that people
can rally behind.
3. Assertion: Political parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
Reason: Parties work to convince people why their policies are better than others
and implement them by seeking popular support.
4. Assertion: It is mandatory for every candidate who contests election to file an
Affidavit.
Reason: The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money
and criminals.

Q189 What is a political party? What are its characteristics? 2/U

Q190 State the conditions laid down by the Election commission to recognize a state 3/R
party and a national party.

Q191 Elucidate some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political 3/U
parties and their leaders.

Q192 What is a multi-party system? Explain merits and demerits of multi-party 3/U+
system. E

Q193 Suggest any five measures to reform political parties. 5/A

Q194 “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyze the 5/A
statement.

Q195 Explain any four problem areas in the working of the political parties. 5/E
Q196 Describe any five functions of the political parties. 5/U

Q197 Identify the country represented in this cartoon. 5/U+

Q198 What is a political party? What are its characteristics? 2/U

Q199 State the conditions laid down by the Election commission to recognize a state 3/R
party and a national party.

Q200 Elucidate some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political 3/U
parties and their leaders.

Q201 What is a multi-party system? Explain merits and demerits of multi-party 3/U+
system. E

Q202 Suggest any five measures to reform political parties. 5/

AP
Q203 “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyze the 5/
statement. AN

Q204 Explain any four problem areas in the working of the political parties. 5/E
Q205 Describe any five functions of the political parties. 5/U
Q206 Identify the country represented in this cartoon. 5/U+
AP
 ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – POLITICAL SCIENCE

CHAPTER 5-OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY

Name of Student - Grade & Section -

Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q207 In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct – 1/U
democracies have successfully eliminated:
A. conflicts among people
B. economic inequalities among people
C. differences of opinion about how marginalized sections are to be treated
D. the idea of political inequality

Q208 In the context of assessing democracy, among the following is an odd one out. 1/U
Democracies need to ensure:
A. free and fair elections
B. dignity of the individual
C. majority rule
D. equal treatment before law

Q209 Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that- 1/U
A. democracy and development go together.
B. inequalities exist in democracies.
C. inequalities do not exist under dictatorship.
D. dictatorship is better than democracy.

Q210 Explain the meaning of transparency in democracy. 2/U

Q211 Why is there an overwhelming support for democracy all over the world? 2/AN
Explain one reason.

Q212 ‘A democratic government is a legitimate government.’ Support the statement 3/

with arguments. AP
Q213 ‘Democracy accommodates social diversities.’ Support the statement with 3/
examples. AP

Q214 ‘Democratic governments in practice are known as accountable.’ Support the 3/

statement. AP

Q215 An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption but also 3/E
make fighting corruption and black money a top priority.’ Justify the statement
by highlighting the values attached to it.

Q216 How are democratic governments better than the other forms of governments? 5/AN
Compare.
Q217 Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the 5/E
citizens.’ Justify the statement.

Q218 ‘Democracies are not appearing to be very successful in reducing economic 5/AN
inequalities.’ Analyse the statement.

Q219 Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice.’ 5/E
Justify the statement.

Q220 Read the given extract and answer the following questions. 4/U+
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the AN
right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers.
Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in
decision making that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of
democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the
citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some
people think that democracy produces less effective government. It is, of course,
true that non-democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making
and implementation, whereas democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and
negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has followed
procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more
effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through
the correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means
to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency. This
factor is often missing from a non- democratic government. There is another
aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives:
democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient,
not always very responsive, or clean. But a democratic government is people’s
own government.
Answer the following
MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
1. People’s right to choose their own rulers is called as the –
A. Right to Initiate
B. Right to Plebiscite
C. Right to Vote
D. Right to Referendum
2. Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in the
governance?
A. Right to education
B. Right to information
C. Right against exploitation
D. Right to speech and expression-
3-----------make/s the government legitimate.
 A. Credibility of politicians
B. People’s movements
C. Free and fair elections
D. Holding of powers
4. Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are-
A. Taken swiftly and implemented quickly
B. Taken by giving privileges to the people
C. Taken through elites’ votes
D. Taken after following due processes

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – ECONOMICS

CHAPTER 1. DEVELOPMENT
Name of Student - Grade & Section -
Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Economics Marks /
Ch1. Development Typology
Q221. HDI stands for „Human Development Index‟ that focuses on 1/U
a. Life expectancy
b. Gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling
c. National income
All the above
Q222. Assertion: Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature. Reason: 1/U
Non-renewable resources can be replenished over a period.
Assertion: A state has a per capita income of Rs. 2, 25, 000 per annum. The
infant mortality rate in the state is 2%. So, the state cannot be considered a
developed state.
Reason: There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their
children to hospital in time.
1. If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
3. If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
If both assertion and reason are false.
Q223. Development of a country can generally be determined by 1/U
a. a.its per capita income
 b. its average literacy levels
c. health status of its people
d. all the above
Q224. Give any two developmental goals of the people working in the agricultural 2/E
sector. Average income is important, but it has limitations while using it. Explain
Q225. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different 3/AN
countries? What are the limitations of this criterion, if any?
Q226. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with 3/E
your own examples related to development.
Q227. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development 3/A
different from the one used by the World Bank?
Q228. Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development 5/AN
rankingthan Haryana. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and
should
not be used to compare states. Do you agree? Discuss.
Q229. “Though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the levelof 5/A
development.” Justify the statement.
Q230. What is Human Development Index? Which organization measures HDI? 5/A
Explainthe three major indicators of the HDI
Q231. What is sustainable development? Suggest any two ways in which resources can 5/R
be used judiciously.

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

 SUBJECT –ECONOMICS

CHAPTER 2-SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY

Name of Student - Grade & Section -

Date of Issue-
Date of submission-

Q232 Which among the following activities is not related to the primary sector? 1/U
a. Fishing
b. Natural gas extraction
c. Making of sugar
d. None of the above
1/AN
Q233 Employment figures for a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly
survey on employment and unemployment. Which organization conducts this
survey?
a. NSSO—National Sample Survey Organization
 b. NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
c. ILO — International Labor Organization
d. Census of India

Q234 A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally 1/AP
required is:
a. Structural unemployment
b. Disguised unemployment
c. Cyclical unemployment
d. Seasonal unemployment

Q235 Assertion: Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly 1/R
salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason: All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and everyone
engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
a. If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
c. If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.

Q236 Assertion: Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with
themselves.
Reason: Banks in India these days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as
cash.
a. If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
c. If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.

Q237 A laborer working under a contractor, is comes under which sector? 1/U
a. Public sector
 b. Unorganized sector
c. Service sector
a. None of the above
Q238 Highlight the two factors responsible for the growth of service sector in the 2/A
Indian economy.

Q239 Explain disguised unemployment with two examples, one from urban areas 3/R
and other from rural areas.

Q240 How did NREGA 2005 bring upliftment of the rural people? Explain. 3/U

Q241 “Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of 5/E
Indian economy.” Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.

Q242 In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? 5/U

Q243 Distinguish the service conditions of the organized sector with that of the 5/AN
unorganized sector.

Q244 Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, 5/U
secondary and tertiary is useful? Explain how.

Q245 How does the service sector help in the development of the primary and 5/U
secondary sectors? Explain with examples

Q246 What constitutes the unorganized sector in the urban areas? Why do 5/R
workers in
this area need protection?

ELPRO INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, PUNE

 Session:2024-25

GRADE 10 QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT – ECONOMICS

CHAPTER 3-MONEY AND CREDIT

Name of Student - Grade & Section -

Date of Issue-
Date of submission-
Q247 What is the most important function of money? 1/U
a. Used in banking transactions
b. Payment of loans
c. Medium of exchange
d. Stock market exchange

Q248 Raghav has surplus money, so he opens a bank account and deposits in it. 1/U
Whenever he needs money. He can go to his bank and withdraw from there. This
kind of deposit with the banks is known as:
a. demand deposit
b. term deposit
c. fixed deposit
d. None of the above

Q249 Which among the following authorities issues currency notes on behalf of the 1/U
government?
a.Government of India
b.The State Bank of India
c.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
d.Reserve Bank of India

Q250 What do the banks do with the deposits which I they accept from the customers? 1/U
a. Banks use these deposits for charitable activities.
b. Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans.
c. Banks use deposits to give bonus to their employees.
d. Banks use deposits to set up more branches in the country.

Q251 Assertion: The facility of demand deposits makes it possible to settle payments 1/AP
without the use of cash.
Reason: Demand deposits are paper orders which make it possible to transfer
money from one person’s account to another person’s account.
a. If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
c. If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.

Q252 Assertion: In India, no individual can refuse to accept a payment made in rupees. 1/AP
Reason: Rupee is the legal tender in India.
a. If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
 assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
c. If Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d. If both assertion and reason are false.

Q253 Which of the following is not an advantage of a self-help group? 1/U

a. Grant of timely loans
b. Reasonable interests
c. A platform to discuss various issues
d. Does not help women to become self-reliant.

Q254 Which one of the following is not a modern form of money? 1/U
a. Demand Deposits
b. Paper currency
c. Coins
d. Precious metals

Q206 Why is money known as a medium of exchange? 2/U

Q207 What is a 'debt trap'? Give one example. 2/U

Q208 2/AP

1.Do you think the bank will give him a loan?

2.Give reasons.
Q209 2/AP

1. What is shown in the given cartoon?

 2. What issue can be seen being discussed here?
Q210 Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? 2/AN

Q211 What do you understand by demand deposits? 2/U

Q212 How do Self Help Groups help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of 5/R
collateral? Explain.

Q213 Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: 4/U
Credit cards became most prominent during the 1900s. Larger companies began
creating chains with other companies and used a credit card to make payments to
any of these companies. The companies charged the cardholder a certain annual
fee and chose their billing methods while each participating company was
charged a percentage of total billings. This led to the creation of credit cards on
behalf of banks around the world. Some other first bank-issued credit cards
include Bank of
America's Bank Ameri card in 1958 and American Express' American Express
Card also in 1958. These worked similarly to the company-issued credit cards;
however, they expanded purchasing power to almost any service and they
allowed a consumer to accumulate revolving credit. Revolving credit was a
means to pay off a balance later while incurring a finance charge for the balance.
Until the Equal Credit Opportunity Act in 1974, women in America were given
credit cards under stricter terms, or not at all. It could be hard for a woman to buy
a house without a male co-signer. In the past, even when not explicitly barred
from them, people of color were often unable to get credit to buy a house in
white neighborhoods.
1. When did credit cards become more prominent?
2. After which act were women given credit cards?
3. Which were the first banks who issued credit cards?
What were the means to resolve credit?
Q214 How can formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? 5/AP
Suggest any five measures.

Q215 How do banks play a key role in the economy of India? Explain 5/U

Q216 Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans 5/U
in India? Explain its functioning.