Maharaja Institute of Technology Mysore

VTU Question Papers

B.E.– CSE Stream

Physics & Chemistry Cycle
II Semester
June/July - 2023

LIBRARY & INFORMATION CENTER

Maharaja Institute of Technology Mysore
Belawadi, Naguvanahalli (P), S.R.Patna (Tq), Mandya - 571438
 INDEX
S/L Subject Code Subject Title Exam Date

1 BCHES102/202 Applied Chemistry for CSE Stream June/July 2023

BESCKA204
2 Introduction to Civil Engineering June/July 2023
/BESCK204 A
BESCKB204/BESCK2
3 Introduction to Electrical Engineering June/July 2023
04B

4 BESCK204C Introduction to Electronics and Communication June/July 2023

BESCK204E/BESCKE
5 Introduction to C Programming June/July 2023
204
BETCKB 205/BETCK
6 Green Building s June/July 2023
205B

7 BICOK107/207 Indian Constitution June/July 2023

8 BIDTK158/258 Innovation and Design Thinking June/July 2023

9 BKSKK107/207 Samskruthika Kannada June/July 2023

10 BMATS201 Mathematics – II for CSE Stream June/July 2023

11 BPHYS102/202 Physics for CSE Stream June/July 2023

BPLCK
12 Introduction to Python Programming June/July 2023
205B/BPLCKB 205

13 BPOPS103/203 Principles of Programming Using C June/July 2023

14 BPWSK106/206 Professional Writing Skills in English June/July 2023

15 BSFHK158/258 Scientific Foundation of Health June/July 2023

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USN BCHES102/202

First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

3
:1
Applied Chemistry for CSE Stream

0
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:3
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

-M
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

3
Module – 1 M L C

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02
Q.1 a. What are sensors? Explain how Electrochemical gas sensors used to 07 L1 CO1

-M
detect SOx and NOx gases.
-2
b. With a neat sketch explain the measurement of dissolved oxygen by 06 L1 CO1

H
09
electro-chemical sensors.

-M
7-

c. Explain the construction and working of Li-ion battery. Write the 07 L1 CO1
charging and discharging reaction. H
-2

-M
U

OR
a. Explain the construction and working of sodium ion battery. Write the
VT

Q.2 07 L1 CO1
H

charging and discharging reaction. m

-M

5p
b. Explain the detection of pharmaceutical pollutant dichlofenac using 07 L1 CO1

H
H

electrochemical sensor.
:4

-M
-M

32

c. What are disposable sensors? Explain the detection of ascorbic acid. 06 L1 CO1
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Write the oxidation reaction.

H

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:
01
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Module – 2
Q.3 a. What are memory device? Briefly explain the classification of memory 07 L1 CO1
H

device.
23
H

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b. Explain organic memory devices of p-type and n-type by taking 06 L2 CO1

20

example of Pentacene.
H
H

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9-
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c. Discuss the application of liquid crystals in display devices. 07 L2 CO1

-0

OR
27

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Q.4 a. What are Photoactive and Electroactive material? Briefly discuss their 07 L1 CO1
role in opto-electronic devices.
H

b. What are liquid crystals? Briefly explain the classification of liquid 07 L2 CO1
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crystals with example.

H

c. Discuss the application of Polyimide Polymeric material for organic 06 L1 CO1

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memory device.

Module – 3
H

Q.5 a. What is corrosion? Explain Electrochemical theory of corrosion taking 07 L2 CO3

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iron as example.
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 BCHES102/202

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b. What are reference electrodes? Explain the construction and working of 07 L2 CO3
calomel electrode.

3
:1
c. Two cadmium rods immersed in Cadmium Sulphate solution of 06 L2 CO3
concentration 0.002 M and 0.4 M. Write the cell representation, cell

0
reaction and calculate the EMF at 25C.

:3

H
01
OR

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Q.6 a. What are ion selective electrode? Explain the determination of pH of an 07 L1 CO3
unknown solution using glass electrode.

H
02
b. What is anodizing? Explain the anodizing of aluminium. 07 L1 CO3

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c.
-2
A thick steel sheet of area 450 cm2 is exposed to air near ocean. After 06 L1 CO3
one year it was found to experience a weight loss of 385g due to

H
09
corrosion. Calculate the rate of corrosion in mpy and mmpy. [Density

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of specimen 7.9 g/cm3, k = 534 for mpy and k = 87.6 for mmpy]
7-

H
-2

Module – 4
-M
Q.7 a. Discuss the conduction mechanism of Polyacetylene. 07 L1 CO4
U
VT

b. With a neat sketch, explain the generation of Hydrogen by Alkaline 07 L1 CO4

H

Electrolysis of water. m
-M

5p
c. In a polymer sample 20% of molecules have molecular mass 06 L1 CO4

H
H

15000 g/mol, 35% molecules have molecular mass 25000 g.mol and
:4

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remaining percentage have molecular mass 20000 g/mol. Calculate

32

number average and weight average molecular mass of the polymer

H
H

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:

OR
01
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Q.8 a. What are PV cell? Explain the construction and working of PV cell. 07 L2 CO4
H
23
H

b. Explain the preparation, properties and application of graphene oxide. 07 L2 CO4

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-M

20

c. What is green fuel? Mention the advantages of green fuel. 06 L2 CO4

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H

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9-

Module – 5
M

Q.9 a. What are e-waste? Explain the sources and composition of e-waste. 06 L1 CO5
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b. Discuss the various steps involved in recycling of e-waste. 07 L1 CO5

27

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c. Write a note on various stakeholders in e-waste management. 07 L2 CO5

H
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OR
Q.10 a. Explain the various steps involved in extraction of gold from e-waste. 07 L2 CO5
H

b. Discuss the extraction of metals from e-waste by pyrometallurgy. 07 L2 CO5

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c. What are the toxic metal used in electrical and electronics products? 06 L1 CO5
Discuss their ill effects.
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*****
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 pm
USN BESCKA204/BESCK204A

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
:1
Introduction to Civil Engineering

3
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

-M
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

3
Module – 1 M L C

H
02
Q.1 a. Briefly explain any 4 branches of Civil Engineering. 10 L1 CO1

-M
-2
b. What is RCC? Explain its advantages and disadvantages. 10 L1 CO1

H
10
OR

-M
Q.2 a. Explain the classification of bricks. Also mention the properties of good 10 L1 CO1
3-

bricks.
H
-0

b. What is PSC? Explain its advantages and disadvantages. 10 L1 CO1

-M
U

Module – 2
VT

Q.3 a. What are the major sustainable development goals Enumerate few? 10 L1 CO2
m
-M

0p
b. Define solid waste management. Explain its importance. 10 L1 CO2

H
H

:0

OR -M
-M

Q.4 a. Write a note on smart city concept. Explain the core elements of smart city 10 L1 CO2
34

infrastructure.
H
H

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:

b. Explain the measures taken to control air pollution. 10 L1 CO2

01
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Module – 3
H
23

a. Define:
H

Q.5 5 L4 CO4
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i) Resolution and composition of forces.

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ii) Principle of superposition and principle of transmissibility of forces.

20

H
H

b. State and prove Lami’s theorem. 5 L2 CO3

-M
0-
M

c. Find the equilibrium of forces with respect to point ‘A’ for given system of 10 L3 CO3
-1

forces in Fig.Q.5(c).
03

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H
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H
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Fig.Q.5(c)
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1 of 3
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 BESCKA204/BESCK204A

OR

pm
Q.6 a. State and prove Varignon’s theorem of moments. 5 L2 CO3

7
b. Find the tension forces in the given strings. Also find W1 in Fig.Q.6(b). 7 L3 CO3

3 :1
:2

H
01

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3

H
02

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-2 Fig.Q.6(b)

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10
c. Find the resultant magnitude and direction with respect to point ‘0’ in 8 L3 CO3

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Fig.Q6(c).
3-

H
-0

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U
VT

m
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0p

H
H

:0

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Fig.Q.6(c)
34

Module – 4
H

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:

Q.7 a. State and prove parallel axis theorem. 5 L2 CO4

01
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b. Find the centroid of a triangle using first principle. 7 L3 CO4

H
23
H

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c. Locate the centroid for the given shaded area in Fig.Q.7(c). 8 L3 CO4
20

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H

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0-
M

-1

H
03

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Fig.Q.7(c)
H
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OR
Q.8 a. Define centroid and polar moment of inertia. 4 L1 CO4
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b. Define: 4 L1 CO4
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i) Perpendicular axis theorem.

ii) Radius of gyration.
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 BESCKA204/BESCK204A

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c. Locate the centroid for the given ‘C’ section in Fig.Q.8(c). 12 L3 CO4

7
3 :1
:2

H
01

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3

H
02

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-2 Fig.Q.8(c)

H
10
Module – 5

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Q.9 a. Find the moment of inertia of a circle along its centroidal axis. (IXX and 10 L2 CO5
IYY).
3-

H
-0

b. Find the polar radius of gyration for the area shown in Fig.Q.9(b). 10 L3 CO5
-M
U
VT

m
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0p

H
H

:0

-M
-M

34

Fig.Q.9(b)
H

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:
01
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OR
H

Q.10 a. Derive an expression for moment of inertia of a quarter circle with 10 L3 CO5
23
H

radius ‘R’.
-M
-M

20

b. Determine the moment of inertia in Fig.Q.10(b) about horizontal centroidal 10 L3 CO5

H

axis for the shaded area. Also find the radius of gyration. Take R1 = 50mm
H

-M
0-

and R2 = 20mm.
M

-1

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03

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H
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H
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Fig.Q.10(b)
H

*****
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 BESCKB204/BESCK204B

pm
USN

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
Introduction to Electrical Engineering

:1
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

3
:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

H
01
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. With neat diagram, explain the general structure of electrical power systems 8 L1 CO1

H
02
using single line diagram.

-M
b. State and explain Kirchoff’s laws.
-2 6 L1 CO2
c. Two resistors connected in parallel across 100 V DC supply take 10 A from 6 L3 CO2

H
10
the line. The power dissipated in one resistor is 600 W. What is the current

-M
drawn when they are connected in series across the same supply?
3-

OR
Q.2 H
a. State and explain Ohm’s law and mention its limitations. 6 L1 CO2
-0

-M
b. With block diagram, explain the Hydel power generations. 6 L1 CO1
U

c. A coil of 12 ohms resistance is in parallel with a coil of 20 ohms resistance. 8 L3 CO2

VT

This combination is connected in series with a third coil of 8 ohms

m
-M

resistances. The whole circuit is connected across a battery having an emf

3p
of 30 V and internal resistance of 2 ohms, calculate

H
(i) The terminal voltage of the battery and
H

:2

(ii) The power in the 12 ohm coil. -M

-M

Module – 2
34

Q.3 a. Define RMS value, Average value, Form factor and Peak factor. 8 L1 CO2
H
H

-M
:

b. Show that current ‘i’ lags the applied voltage ‘V’ also power consumed is 6 L1 CO2
01
-M

zero by 90  for a pure inductance A.C. circuit?

H

c. Write a short note on advantages of 3-phase system. 6 L1 CO1

23
H

OR
-M
-M

Q.4 a. Show that current ‘i' leads the applied voltage ‘V’ also power consumed is 6 L1 CO1
20

zero by 90  for a pure capacitive A.C. circuit.

H
H

b. With the help of circuit diagram and phasor diagram. Find the phase angle 8 L1 CO1
-M
0-

impedence and power in case of series R-L circuit.

M

-1

c. A series R-L circuit takes 384 watts at a power factor of 0.8 from a 120 V, 6 L3 CO2
H

60 Hz supply. What are the values of R and L?

03

-M

Module – 3
Q.5 a. Explain the working principle of DC motor with suitable diagrams. 8 L1 CO3
H

b. Derive an EMF equation for DC generator with usual notations. 6 L2 CO3

-M

c. An 8-pole lap-connected armature has 960 conductors a flux of 40 mwb per 6 L3 CO3
pole and a speed of 400 rpm. Calculate the emf generated, if the armature
H

were wave connected at what speed must it be driven to generate 400 V.

-M

OR
1 of 2
H
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H
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 BESCKB204/BESCK204B

pm
Q.6 a. What is back emf in a DC motor? What is its significance? 6 L1 CO3
b. Explain the function of following parts of DC machine : 8 L1 CO4

7
(i) Yoke

:1
(ii) Field winding
(iii) Commutator

3
(iv) Pole shoe

:2
(v) Pole core
(vi) Brush

H
01
Derive an expression for armature torque in a DC motor.

-M
c. 6 L2 CO4
Module – 4

3
Q.7 a. Derive an EMF equation of transformer with usual notations. 6 L2 CO3

H
02

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b. With neat diagram, explain the construction of a core type and a shell type 8 L2 CO3
single phase transformer.
-2
c. Explain the production of rotating magnetic field in air gap of three phase 6 L2 CO3

H
10
induction motor.

-M
OR
3-

Q.8 H
a. Explain the working principle of single phase transformer. 6 L2 CO3
-0

-M
b. With a neat sketch, explain the constructional features of three phase 8 L2 CO3
U

induction motor.
VT

c. A 200 KVA, 10000 V/400 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer has 100 turns 6 L3 CO3
on the secondary calculate, m
-M

3p
(i) The primary and secondary currents.
(ii) The number of primary turns.

H
H

(iii) The maximum value of flux.

:2

-M
-M

Module – 5
34

Q.9 a. With neat circuit diagram and switching table explain two-way and three- 6 L1 CO5
H

way control of lamps.

H

-M
:
01
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b. What do you mean be earthing? Explain any one type earthing with a neat 8 L1 CO5
diagram.
H

c. Definition of ‘unit’ used for consumption of electrical energy and explain 6 L1 CO5
23
H

-M

the two-part electricity tariff.

-M

20

OR
H

Q.10 a. What is Domestic wiring and explain casing and capping? 7 L1 CO5
H

-M
0-

b. Write short notes on : 6 L2 CO5

M

(i) Fuse (ii) MCB

-1

c. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent electric shocks? 7 L1 CO5

03

-M

*****
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2 of 2
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 pm
USN BESCK204C

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
:1
Introduction to Electronics and Communication

3
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. What is Regulated Power Supply? With neat block diagram, explain the 8 L2 CO1

H
02
working of DC power supply. Also mention the principal components used

-M
in each block. -2

H
b. What is an Amplifier? Explain the types of Amplifier. 4 L2 CO1
10

-M
c. With neat circuit diagram and wave forms explain full wave bridge 8 L2 CO1
3-

rectifier.
H
-0

-M
OR
U

Q.2 a. What is Voltage Regulator? With neat circuit diagram, explain the 7 L2 CO1
VT

operation of a voltage regulator using Zener diode.

H

m
-M

3p
b. Mention the advantages of negative feedback in amplifier circuits. With 7 L2 CO1

H
relevant equations and diagram, explain the concept of negative feedback.
H

:5

-M
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c. What is Voltage Multiplier? With circuit diagram, explain the operation of 6 L2 CO1
34

voltage doubler.
H
H

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:

Module – 2
01
-M

Q.3 a. What is Op – Amp? Explain the various parameters of Operational 7 L2 CO2

Amplifier.
H
23
H

-M
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b. Sketch the circuits of each of the following based on the use of Op – amp 7 L2 CO2
20

along with input and output wave forms :

H

i) Integrator ii) Voltage follower iii) Comparator.

H

-M
0-
M

c. Explain the operation of three – stage ladder RC Network Oscillator with 6 L2 CO2
-1

neat circuit diagram.

H
03

-M

OR
Q.4 a. Explain the Barkhausen criteria for Oscillations. In wein bridge oscillator if 7 L3 CO2
H

C1 = C2 = 100 nF, determine the frequency of oscillations when

-M

R1 = R2 = 1k.

b. Explain the operation of Single stage Astable multivibrator with its circuit 7 L2 CO2
H

diagram.
-M

c. Explain the Ideal characteristics of an Op – amp. 6 L2 CO2

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 BESCK204C

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Module – 3
Q.5 a. Convert the following : 8 L3 CO3

7
i) (1 AD.EO)16 = (?)10 ii) (37.625)10 = (?)2
iii) (110100111001.110)2 = (?)8 iv) (345.AB)16 = (?)2.

3 :1
b. State and prove De – Morgan’s theorems with its truth table. 6 L2 CO3

:2
c. Implement the following Boolean functions by using logic gates : 6 L3 CO3

H
01
i) F1 = xy′ + x′z ii) F2 = x′y′z + x′yz + xy′.

-M
OR

3
Q.6 a. Perform the following : 8 L3 CO3

H
02
i) (1010100)2 – (1000100)2 using 1’s complement and 2’s complement

-M
method.
-2
ii) (4456)10 – (34234)10 using 9’s complement and 10’s complement
method.

H
10

-M
b. Implement full adder circuit with its truth table and write the expressions 6 L3 CO3
3-

for sum and carry.

H
-0

c. Express the Boolean function F = A + B′ C in a sum of min terms. 6 L3 CO3

-M
U

Module – 4
VT

Q.7 a. What is an Embedded system? Compare Embedded system and General 7 L2 CO4
m
-M

computing system.
3p
b. Using suitable diagrams, explain Instrumentation and Control System. 7 L2 CO4

H
H

:5

c.
-M
Discuss major application areas of Embedded systems with examples. 6 L2 CO4
-M

34

OR
H
H

Q.8 a. Write a note on Core of Embedded systems with its block diagram. 7 L2 CO4
-M
:
01
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b. Explain how 7 seg LED display can be used to display the data and write a 7 L2 CO4
brief note on operation of LED.
H
23
H

-M

c. Explain the classification of Embedded systems. 6 L2 CO4

-M

20

Module – 5
H

a. Describe the blocks of Modern Communication System with neat block

H

Q.9 8 L2 CO5
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0-

diagram.
M

-1

b. Explain with a neat diagram, the concept of Radio wave propagation and its 7 L2 CO5
H

different types.
03

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c. Explain different Multiple Access Techniques. 5 L2 CO5

H

OR
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Q.10 a. What is Modulation? Explain Amplitude Modulation (AM) and Frequency 8 L2 CO5
Modulation (FM), with neat waveforms.
H

b. List the advantages of Digital Communication over Analog 6 L2 CO5

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Communication.

c. Explain the following with the help of waveforms : 6 L2 CO5

H

i) ASK ii) FSK iii) PSK.

-M

*****
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USN BESCK204E/BESCKE204

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
:1
Introduction to C Programming

3
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. Explain the major components of a computer and explain briefly. 8 L2 CO1

H
02
b. Explain the structure of a C program with an example. 6 L2 CO2

-M
c. Explain an identifier. What are the rules to define an identifiers?
-2 6 L2 CO2
OR

H
10
Q.2 a. Explain the different types of files used in C. 10 L2 CO2

-M
b. Discuss the following with an example: 10 L2 CO2
(i) Algorithm (ii) Flow chart (iii) Pseudo code
3-

Module – 2
H
-0

Q.3 a. Explain the logical operators and bitwise operators used in C with suitable 7 L2 CO2
-M
examples.
U

b. Write a C program to print the following patter : 8 L2 CO2

VT

1
m
-M

1 2 1
0p
1 2 3 2 1

H
1 2 3 4 3 2 1
H

:1

1 2 3 4 5 4 3 2 1 -M
-M

35

c. Explain type casting and type conversion with suitable examples. 5 L2 CO2
H
H

OR
-M
:
01

Q.4 a. Explain the syntax of a switch statement. Write a C program to perform 10 L2 CO2
-M

different arithmetic operations on two integers using switch statement.

H

b. Explain if, if else and nested if-else along with programming example. 10 L2 CO2
23
H

-M

Module – 3
-M

Q.5 a. Explain the need for functions in C. With an example code, explain the 10 L2 CO4
20

following :
H

(i) Function Declaration (ii) Function definition

H

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0-

(iii) Function call (iv) Argument/Parameter of a function

M

b. Write a C program to sort a given array of N elements using Bubble sort. 10 L2 CO3
-1

Display the different passes in the output.

H
03

OR
-M

Q.6 a. Explain the various storage classes specifiers used in C. 6 L2 CO3

b. Write a C program to find the largest of given three integers using 7 L2 CO3
H

functions.
-M

c. What is a Recursive function? Write a C program to find the factorial of a 7 L2 CO4

given number using recursion.
Module – 4
H

Q.7 a. Write a C program to find the transpose of a given n  n matrix by passing 10 L2 CO3
-M

matrix to a function.
b. Explain the different functions used to read and write characters. 10 L2 CO4
H
-M

1 of 2
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 BESCK204E/BESCKE204

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OR
Q.8 a. With pictorial representation, explain how a 1D and 2D arrays are stored in 10 L2 CO3

7
the memory. Give suitable examples.

:1
b. Write a C program to perform matrix multiplication, also validate the rules 10 L2 CO3
of matrix multiplication.

3
Module – 5

:2
Q.9 a. What is a reference and dereference operator used to access a pointer 10 L2 CO3

H
01
variable. Write a C program to test whether a given number is positive,

-M
negative or zero using pointers.
b. Write a C program using structures to read, display, add, subtract two 10 L2 CO3

3
complex numbers.

H
02
OR

-M
Q.10 a. Write a C program to reverse a string with or without built in function.
-2 10 L2 CO3
b. Explain the following with an example with respect to structures: 10 L2 CO3

H
(i) Structure name
10

-M
(ii) Member of a structure
(iii) Accessing a structure
3-

H
-0


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U
VT

m
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0p

H
H

:1

-M
-M

35

H
H

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:
01
-M

H
23
H

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-M

20

H
H

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0-
M

-1

H
03

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H
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H
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2 of 2
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 BETCKB205/BETCK205B

pm
USN

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

8
Green Buildings

4 :0
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:1
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

H
01

-M
Module – 1 M L C
Q.1 a. Explain briefly the manufacturing process of Burnt bricks. 10 L2 CO1

3
b. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of stabilized Mud Blocks. 10 L2 CO1

H
02
OR

-M
Q.2 a. Explain the concept of Recycling of building materials and also discuss the
-2 10 L2 CO1
necessity of concrete recycling as a building material.

H
b. Explain the following : 10 L2 CO1
10
(i) Gypsum board

-M
(ii) Fiber reinforced polymer composite.
5-

Module – 2
Q.3 H
a. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Rat-trap Bond. 10 L2 CO2
-0

-M
b. Explain the following with neat sketch : 10 L2 CO2
U

(i) Cavity walls.

(ii) Filler slab.
VT

OR
m
-M

Q.4 a. Explain briefly the concept of Pre-Engineered Building (PEB). 10 L3 CO2

9p
b. Explain the role of Nirmithi Kendra and Habitat in developing and 10 L2 CO2

H
propagation cost effective construction.
H

:0

Module – 3 -M
-M

Q.5 a. Explain the effect of Global Warming. Also discuss the contribution of 10 L3 CO3
35

building towards Global Warming.

H
H

b. Explain the following : 10 L2 CO3

-M
:

(i) Carbon footprints.

01
-M

(ii) Embodied energy in materials.

OR
H
23
H

Q.6 a. Define Green Building? Explain why Green buildings are necessary. And 10 L3 CO3
-M
-M

discuss the environmental benefits of green building.

20

b. Explain the concept of life cycle cost of the building with neat sketch/flow 10 L3 CO3
H

chart.
H

-M

Module – 4
0-
M

Q.7 a. List the various systems used for rating the green building in India and 10 L2 CO4
-1

explain any one in detail.

H

b. Explain the following : 10 L2 CO4

05

-M

(i) BREEM
(ii) Green Design
OR
H

Q.8 a. Differentiate between LEED and GRIHA rating system of green building. 10 L2 CO4
-M

b. Explain the basic principles of sustainable development in building design 10 L2 CO4

and also mention the characteristics of sustainable buildings.
H

1 of 2
-M
H
-M
H
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 BETCKB205/BETCK205B

pm
Q.9 a. What are the various water efficient methods of building. And explain any 10 L2 CO5
one method in detail.
b. Discuss the methods of sewage treatment and explain the processes of 10 L3 CO5

8
treatment units with the help of flow chart.

:0
OR
Q.10 a. Explain the passive solar cooling and heating techniques in building. 10 L3 CO5

4
b. List out the different methods of manufacturing of Green composites and 10 L2 CO5

:1
explain any one method with neat sketch.

H
01

-M


H
02

-M
-2

H
10

-M
5-

H
-0

-M
U
VT

m
-M

9p

H
H

:0

-M
-M

35

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

-M
-M

20

H
H

-M
0-
M

-1

H
05

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H
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2 of 2
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 BICOK107/207

pm
Question Paper Version : A
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:2
Indian Constitution

2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:0
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
01
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

-M
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

02

-M
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
-2
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

H
10

-M
5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
8-

prohibited.
H
-1

1. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?
-M

a) B. R. Ambedkar
U

b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru
VT

2. m
The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
-M

a) 389 members b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.

6p

H
3. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected ______ as its permanent
H

:0

chairman. -M
-M

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

31

c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi

H
H

-M
:

4. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of

01
-M

a) 7 members b) 5 members c) 9 members d) 3 members

H

5. The Constitution of India came into force on

23
H

-M

a) 26 January 1952 b) 16 August 1948

-M

c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949

20

6. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
H

Constitution?
-M
0-
M

a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution

-1

c) British Constitution d) The UN charter

H
18

7. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains now?

-M

a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
8. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
H

commencement?
-M

a) 1 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
9. The Constitution of India is
H

a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.

-M

Version – A – 1 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
10. The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by
a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority

pm
c) Consensus d) All of these

0
11. The preamble of Indian Constitution was amended.

:2
a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once d) Not amended
12. Which amendment added the words “Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of

2
the constitution”?

:0
a) 24th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment

H
01
c) 44th Amendment d) 73rd Amendment

-M
13. The Constitution of India declares India as

3
a) A unitary state b) Federation c) A quasi-federal state d) A union of states

H
02
14. A state where ‘Head of the State’, is elected is called.

-M
a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy
-2 c) Republic d) Anarchy
15. In which year, did cripps mission come to India?

H
10
a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942

-M
16. Sexual harassment of working – women is violation of
8-

a) Fundamental duty b) DPSP

H
-1

c) Fundamental right d) Rule of law

-M
U

17. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?

a) Right to liberty b) Right to equality
VT

c) Right to freedom of religion

m
d) Right to property.
-M

18. Right to equality under article 14 means

6p
a) Treating all people equality

H
H

b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals

:0

-M
-M

c) Upliftment of SC’s and ST’s and backward class people

31

d) None of the above.

H
H

19. Right to life includes

-M
:
01
-M

a) Right to die b) Right purchase moveable property

c) Right to carry on any business d) Right to get education
H
23
H

20. Restriction cannot be imposed on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the
-M
-M

ground of
20

a) Defamation b) Law and order problem

H

c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court

H

-M
0-

21. The directive principles of state policy directs the state to secure to all the workers.
M

a) Minimal wages b) Fair wages

-1

c) Living wages d) Standard wages

H
18

-M

22. The aim of the directive principles of state policy is

a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens
b) To restrain the state from misusing its power and public money
H

c) To promote the general welfare of the society

-M

d) To make special rules to protect women.

23. This is not a fundamental duty
H

a) To defend the country b) To develop scientific temper

-M

c) To make scientific improvement d) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India.

H

Version – A – 2 of 4
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
24. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of
a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committee

pm
c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee
25. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?

0
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India

:2
c) Parliament of India d) Supreme Court and High Court of India

2
26. What is the term of the President of India?

:0
a) Four years b) Three years c) Five years d) Six years

H
01
27. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

-M
a) Prime Minister of India b) Chief Justice of India
c) President of India d) Law Minister of Union

H
02
28. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed by

-M
a) The President b) The Prime Minister
c) The Parliament -2 d) None of the above

H
10
29. Political parties are recognized by

-M
a) President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court d) Election Commission
8-

30. The Ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to

a) The Prime Minister H
b) The Lok Sabha
-1

-M
c) The president d) The Vice President
U

31. Rajya Sabha member has a term of

VT

a) 5 years b) Permanent body c) 4 years d) 6 years

m
-M

32. The Vice President of India is elected by the

6p
a) Members of Lok-Sabha

H
H

b) Members of Raj-Sabha
:0

-M
-M

c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

31

d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies
H
H

33. A judge of all Supreme Court may be removed on the ground of

-M
:
01
-M

a) Misbehaviour
b) Delivering repeatedly wrong judgment
H

c) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation

23
H

-M

d) Holding linient views about anti-social elements

-M

20

34. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

H

a) Original jurisdiction b) Emergency jurisdiction

H

-M
0-

c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction

M

35. Criminal contempt of Court means

-1

a) An act which lowers the authority of a court

18

-M

b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court

c) Filing a complaint in a court
d) None of the above
H
-M

36. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be divided into
a) Six main categories b) Five main categories
c) Four main categories d) Three main categories.
H

37. The Supreme Court can issue

-M

a) Three types of writs b) Seven types of writs

c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs
H

Version – A – 3 of 4
-M
H
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 BICOK107/207
38. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
a) Supreme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha

pm
39. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?
a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Supreme Court d) All of these

0
:2
40. Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court?
a) Meera Kumari

2
b) Fathima Beevi

:0
c) Seesta Sotedwad

H
01
d) No women has become judge of Supreme Court so far.

-M
41. This is not the function of election commission

3
a) Preparation of electoral b) Determines code of conduct to candidates

H
02
c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols

-M
42. 74th Amendment of the Constitution refers to
-2
a) Rural local bodies b) Right to property

H
10
c) Urban local bodies d) None of these

-M
8-

43. Which one of the following types of emergency has not declared, till now?
a) State emergency b) National emergency
H
-1

c) Financial emergency d) None of these

-M
U

44. President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of

VT

a) War b) Armed rebellion

m
-M

c) External aggression d) All of these

6p
45. The cabinet mission came to Indian in

H
H

a) 1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) 1943

:0

-M
-M

31

46. The state Legislative assembly is prorogued by

H

a) The Chief Minister b) The Governor

H

-M
:

c) The speaker of assembly d) None of these

01
-M

47. Creamy layer means

H

a) Highly educated persons b) Persons holding high posts

23
H

-M

c) Highly cultured persons d) Persons having higher incomes

-M

20

48. Enact means

H

a) Single chapter b) Single action

H

-M
0-

c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law

M

-1

49. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
H

a) 61st Amendment b) 73rd Amendment

18

-M

c) 44th Amendment d) 42nd Amendment

H

50. The Election Commission does not conduct election

a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President
-M

c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vice-president

H

*****
-M

Version – A – 4 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207

pm
Question Paper Version : B
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:2
Indian Constitution

2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:0
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
01
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

-M
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

02

-M
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
-2
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

H
10

-M
5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
8-

prohibited.
H
-1

1. This is not the function of election commission

-M

a) Preparation of electoral
U

b) Determines code of conduct to candidates

c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols
VT

74th Amendment of the Constitution refers to m

-M

2.
6p
a) Rural local bodies b) Right to property

H
c) Urban local bodies d) None of these
H

:0

-M
-M

3. Which one of the following types of emergency has not declared, till now?
31

a) State emergency b) National emergency

H

c) Financial emergency d) None of these

H

-M
:
01
-M

4. President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of

a) War b) Armed rebellion
H

c) External aggression d) All of these

23
H

-M
-M

5. The cabinet mission came to Indian in

20

a) 1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) 1943

H
H

6. The state Legislative assembly is prorogued by

-M
0-
M

a) The Chief Minister b) The Governor

-1

c) The speaker of assembly d) None of these

H

Creamy layer means

18

7.
-M

a) Highly educated persons b) Persons holding high posts

c) Highly cultured persons d) Persons having higher incomes
H

8. Enact means
-M

a) Single chapter b) Single action

c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law
H

9. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
-M

a) 61st Amendment b) 73rd Amendment

c) 44th Amendment d) 42nd Amendment
H

Version – B – 1 of 4
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
10. The Election Commission does not conduct election
a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President

pm
c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vice-president

11. Rajya Sabha member has a term of

0
a) 5 years b) Permanent body c) 4 years d) 6 years

:2
12. The Vice President of India is elected by the

2
a) Members of Lok-Sabha

:0
b) Members of Raj-Sabha
c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

H
01
d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies

-M
13. A judge of all Supreme Court may be removed on the ground of

3
a) Misbehaviour

H
02
b) Delivering repeatedly wrong judgment

-M
c) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation
-2
d) Holding linient views about anti-social elements

H
10
14. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

-M
a) Original jurisdiction b) Emergency jurisdiction
8-

c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction

H
-1

15. Criminal contempt of Court means

-M
a) An act which lowers the authority of a court
U

b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court

VT

c) Filing a complaint in a court

m
-M

d) None of the above

6p
16. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be divided into

H
H

a) Six main categories b) Five main categories

:0

-M
-M

c) Four main categories d) Three main categories.

31

17. The Supreme Court can issue

H
H

a) Three types of writs b) Seven types of writs

-M
:
01
-M

c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs

18. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
H
23
H

a) Supreme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha

-M
-M

19. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?

20

a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Supreme Court d) All of these

H
H

-M
0-

20. Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court?

M

a) Meera Kumari
-1

b) Fathima Beevi
H

c) Seesta Sotedwad
18

-M

d) No women has become judge of Supreme Court so far.

21. The preamble of Indian Constitution was amended.

H

a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once d) Not amended

-M

22. Which amendment added the words “Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of
the constitution”?
H

a) 24th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment

-M

th
c) 44 Amendment d) 73rd Amendment
Version – B – 2 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
23. The Constitution of India declares India as
a) A unitary state b) Federation c) A quasi-federal state d) A union of states

pm
24. A state where ‘Head of the State’, is elected is called.
a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy c) Republic d) Anarchy

0
25. In which year, did cripps mission come to India?

:2
a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942

2
26. Sexual harassment of working – women is violation of

:0
a) Fundamental duty b) DPSP
c) Fundamental right d) Rule of law

H
01

-M
27. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?
a) Right to liberty b) Right to equality

3
c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to property.

H
02

-M
28. Right to equality under article 14 means
-2
a) Treating all people equality
b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals

H
10
c) Upliftment of SC’s and ST’s and backward class people

-M
d) None of the above.
8-

29. Right to life includes

H
-1

a) Right to die b) Right purchase moveable property

-M
c) Right to carry on any business d) Right to get education
U

30. Restriction cannot be imposed on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the
VT

ground of m
-M

a) Defamation b) Law and order problem

6p
c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court

H
H

31. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?
:0

-M
-M

a) B. R. Ambedkar b) C. Rajagopalachari
31

c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru

H
H

32. The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
-M
:
01
-M

a) 389 members b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.

33. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected ______ as its permanent
H
23
H

chairman.
-M
-M

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

20

c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi

H
H

34. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of
-M
0-

a) 7 members b) 5 members c) 9 members d) 3 members

M

-1

35. The Constitution of India came into force on

H

a) 26 January 1952 b) 16 August 1948

18

-M

c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949

36. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
H

Constitution?
-M

a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution

c) British Constitution d) The UN charter
H

37. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains now?

-M

a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
Version – B – 3 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
38. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
commencement?

pm
a) 1 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
39. The Constitution of India is

0
a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.

:2
40. The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by

2
a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority

:0
c) Consensus d) All of these

H
01

-M
41. The directive principles of state policy directs the state to secure to all the workers.
a) Minimal wages b) Fair wages

3
c) Living wages d) Standard wages

H
02
42. The aim of the directive principles of state policy is

-M
a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens
-2
b) To restrain the state from misusing its power and public money

H
10
c) To promote the general welfare of the society

-M
d) To make special rules to protect women.
8-

43. This is not a fundamental duty

a) To defend the country H b) To develop scientific temper
-1

-M
c) To make scientific improvement d) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India.
U

44. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of

VT

a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committee

m
-M

c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee

6p
45. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?

H
H

a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India

:0

c) Parliament of India
-M
d) Supreme Court and High Court of India
-M

31

46. What is the term of the President of India?

H

a) Four years b) Three years c) Five years d) Six years

H

-M
:
01
-M

47. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

a) Prime Minister of India b) Chief Justice of India
H
23
H

c) President of India d) Law Minister of Union

-M
-M

48. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed by

20

a) The President b) The Prime Minister

H
H

c) The Parliament d) None of the above

-M
0-
M

49. Political parties are recognized by

-1

a) President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court d) Election Commission

H
18

-M

50. The Ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to

a) The Prime Minister b) The Lok Sabha
c) The president d) The Vice President
H
-M

*****
H
-M

Version – B – 4 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207

pm
Question Paper Version : C
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:2
Indian Constitution

2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:0
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
01
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

-M
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

02

-M
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
-2
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

H
10

-M
5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
8-

prohibited.
H
-1

1. Rajya Sabha member has a term of

-M

a) 5 years
U

b) Permanent body c) 4 years d) 6 years

VT

The Vice President of India is elected by the

H

2.
a) Members of Lok-Sabha m
-M

6p
b) Members of Raj-Sabha
c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

H
H

d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies
:0

-M
-M

3. A judge of all Supreme Court may be removed on the ground of

31

a) Misbehaviour
H
H

b) Delivering repeatedly wrong judgment

-M
:
01
-M

c) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation

d) Holding linient views about anti-social elements
H
23
H

4. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

-M
-M

a) Original jurisdiction b) Emergency jurisdiction

20

c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction

H
H

5. Criminal contempt of Court means

-M
0-
M

a) An act which lowers the authority of a court

-1

b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court

H

c) Filing a complaint in a court

18

-M

d) None of the above

6. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be divided into
H

a) Six main categories b) Five main categories

-M

c) Four main categories d) Three main categories.

7. The Supreme Court can issue
H

a) Three types of writs b) Seven types of writs

-M

c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs

Version – C – 1 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
8. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
a) Supreme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha

pm
9. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?
a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Supreme Court d) All of these

0
10. Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court?

:2
a) Meera Kumari

2
b) Fathima Beevi

:0
c) Seesta Sotedwad
d) No women has become judge of Supreme Court so far.

H
01

-M
11. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?
a) B. R. Ambedkar b) C. Rajagopalachari

3
c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru

H
02

-M
12. The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
a) 389 members -2b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.

H
10
13. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected ______ as its permanent

-M
chairman.
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
8-

c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi

H
-1

-M
14. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of
U

a) 7 members b) 5 members c) 9 members d) 3 members

VT

15. The Constitution of India came into force on

a) 26 January 1952 m
b) 16 August 1948
-M

6p
c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949

H
16. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
H

:0

Constitution? -M
-M

a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution

31

c) British Constitution d) The UN charter

H
H

-M
:

17. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains now?

01
-M

a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
H

18. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
23
H

-M

commencement?
-M

a) 1 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
20

19. The Constitution of India is

H

-M
0-

a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.

M

-1

20. The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by

H

a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority

18

-M

c) Consensus d) All of these

21. This is not the function of election commission

H

a) Preparation of electoral b) Determines code of conduct to candidates

-M

c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols

22. 74th Amendment of the Constitution refers to

H

a) Rural local bodies b) Right to property

-M

c) Urban local bodies d) None of these

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 BICOK107/207
23. Which one of the following types of emergency has not declared, till now?
a) State emergency b) National emergency

pm
c) Financial emergency d) None of these

24. President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of

0
a) War b) Armed rebellion

:2
c) External aggression d) All of these

2
25. The cabinet mission came to Indian in

:0
a) 1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) 1943

H
01

-M
26. The state Legislative assembly is prorogued by
a) The Chief Minister b) The Governor

3
c) The speaker of assembly d) None of these

H
02

-M
27. Creamy layer means
-2
a) Highly educated persons b) Persons holding high posts
c) Highly cultured persons d) Persons having higher incomes

H
10

-M
28. Enact means
8-

a) Single chapter b) Single action

c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law
H
-1

-M
29. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
U

a) 61st Amendment b) 73rd Amendment

VT

c) 44th Amendment d) 42nd Amendment

m
-M

6p
30. The Election Commission does not conduct election

H
a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President
H

c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vice-president

:0

-M
-M

31

31. The directive principles of state policy directs the state to secure to all the workers.
H

a) Minimal wages b) Fair wages

H

-M
:

c) Living wages d) Standard wages

01
-M

32. The aim of the directive principles of state policy is

H

a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens

23
H

-M

b) To restrain the state from misusing its power and public money
-M

c) To promote the general welfare of the society

20

d) To make special rules to protect women.

H
H

33. This is not a fundamental duty

-M
0-
M

a) To defend the country b) To develop scientific temper

-1

c) To make scientific improvement d) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India.

H
18

34. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of

-M

a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committee

c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee
H

35. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?

-M

a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India

c) Parliament of India d) Supreme Court and High Court of India
H

36. What is the term of the President of India?

-M

a) Four years b) Three years c) Five years d) Six years

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37. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?
a) Prime Minister of India b) Chief Justice of India

pm
c) President of India d) Law Minister of Union
38. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed by

0
a) The President b) The Prime Minister

:2
c) The Parliament d) None of the above

2
39. Political parties are recognized by

:0
a) President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court d) Election Commission

H
01
40. The Ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to

-M
a) The Prime Minister b) The Lok Sabha
c) The president d) The Vice President

H
02
41. The preamble of Indian Constitution was amended.

-M
a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once d) Not amended
-2
42. Which amendment added the words “Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of

H
the constitution”?
10

a) 24th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment

-M
th
c) 44 Amendment d) 73rd Amendment
8-

43. The Constitution of India declares India as

H
-1

a) A unitary state b) Federation c) A quasi-federal state d) A union of states

-M
U

44. A state where ‘Head of the State’, is elected is called.

VT

a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy c) Republic d) Anarchy

H

m
-M

45. In which year, did cripps mission come to India?

6p
a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942

H
H

46. Sexual harassment of working – women is violation of

:0

-M
-M

a) Fundamental duty b) DPSP

31

c) Fundamental right d) Rule of law

H
H

47. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?

-M
:
01
-M

a) Right to liberty b) Right to equality

c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to property.
H
23
H

48. Right to equality under article 14 means

-M

a) Treating all people equality

-M

b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals

20

c) Upliftment of SC’s and ST’s and backward class people

H

d) None of the above.

-M
0-
M

49. Right to life includes

-1

a) Right to die b) Right purchase moveable property

H
18

c) Right to carry on any business d) Right to get education

-M

50. Restriction cannot be imposed on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the
ground of
H

a) Defamation b) Law and order problem

-M

c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court

*****
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-M

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pm
Question Paper Version : D
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:2
Indian Constitution

2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:0
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
01
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

-M
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

02

-M
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
-2
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

H
10

-M
5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
8-

prohibited.
H
-1

1. The directive principles of state policy directs the state to secure to all the workers.
-M

a) Minimal wages
U

b) Fair wages
c) Living wages d) Standard wages
VT

2. The aim of the directive principles of state policy is m

-M

a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens

6p
b) To restrain the state from misusing its power and public money

H
H

c) To promote the general welfare of the society

:0

-M
-M

d) To make special rules to protect women.

31

3. This is not a fundamental duty

H
H

a) To defend the country b) To develop scientific temper

-M
:
01
-M

c) To make scientific improvement d) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India.

4. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of
H
23
H

a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committee

-M
-M

c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee

20

5. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?

H
H

a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India

-M
0-

c) Parliament of India d) Supreme Court and High Court of India

M

-1

6. What is the term of the President of India?

H

a) Four years b) Three years c) Five years d) Six years

18

-M

7. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

a) Prime Minister of India b) Chief Justice of India
H

c) President of India d) Law Minister of Union

-M

8. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed by

a) The President b) The Prime Minister
H

c) The Parliament d) None of the above

-M

Version – D – 1 of 4
H
-M
H
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 BICOK107/207
9. Political parties are recognized by
a) President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court d) Election Commission

pm
10. The Ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to
a) The Prime Minister b) The Lok Sabha

0
c) The president d) The Vice President

:2
11. This is not the function of election commission

2
a) Preparation of electoral b) Determines code of conduct to candidates

:0
c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols

H
01
12. 74th Amendment of the Constitution refers to

-M
a) Rural local bodies b) Right to property
c) Urban local bodies d) None of these

H
02
13. Which one of the following types of emergency has not declared, till now?

-M
a) State emergency -2 b) National emergency
c) Financial emergency d) None of these

H
10
14. President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of

-M
a) War b) Armed rebellion
8-

c) External aggression d) All of these

H
-1

-M
15. The cabinet mission came to Indian in
U

a) 1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) 1943

VT

16. The state Legislative assembly is prorogued by

m
-M

a) The Chief Minister b) The Governor

6p
c) The speaker of assembly d) None of these

H
H

:0

17. Creamy layer means -M

-M

a) Highly educated persons b) Persons holding high posts

31

c) Highly cultured persons d) Persons having higher incomes

H
H

-M
:

18. Enact means

01
-M

a) Single chapter b) Single action

c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law
H
23
H

-M

19. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
-M

a) 61st Amendment b) 73rd Amendment

20

c) 44th Amendment d) 42nd Amendment

H
H

-M
0-
M

20. The Election Commission does not conduct election

-1

a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President

H

c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vice-president

18

-M

21. Rajya Sabha member has a term of

a) 5 years b) Permanent body c) 4 years d) 6 years
H

22. The Vice President of India is elected by the

-M

a) Members of Lok-Sabha
b) Members of Raj-Sabha
H

c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

-M

d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies
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 BICOK107/207
23. A judge of all Supreme Court may be removed on the ground of
a) Misbehaviour

pm
b) Delivering repeatedly wrong judgment
c) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation
d) Holding linient views about anti-social elements

0
:2
24. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
a) Original jurisdiction b) Emergency jurisdiction

2
c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction

:0
25. Criminal contempt of Court means

H
01
a) An act which lowers the authority of a court

-M
b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court
c) Filing a complaint in a court

H
d) None of the above

02

-M
26. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be divided into
-2
a) Six main categories b) Five main categories

H
c) Four main categories d) Three main categories.
10

-M
27. The Supreme Court can issue
8-

a) Three types of writs b) Seven types of writs

c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs
H
-1

-M
28. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
U

a) Supreme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha

VT

m
29. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?
-M

a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Supreme Court d) All of these

6p

H
30. Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court?
H

:0

a) Meera Kumari -M
-M

b) Fathima Beevi
31

c) Seesta Sotedwad
H

d) No women has become judge of Supreme Court so far.

H

-M
:
01
-M

31. The preamble of Indian Constitution was amended.

a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once d) Not amended
H
23
H

-M

32. Which amendment added the words “Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of
-M

the constitution”?
20

a) 24th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment

H

c) 44th Amendment d) 73rd Amendment

H

-M
0-
M

33. The Constitution of India declares India as

-1

a) A unitary state b) Federation c) A quasi-federal state d) A union of states

H
18

34. A state where ‘Head of the State’, is elected is called.

-M

a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy c) Republic d) Anarchy

35. In which year, did cripps mission come to India?
H

a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942

-M

36. Sexual harassment of working – women is violation of

a) Fundamental duty b) DPSP
H

c) Fundamental right d) Rule of law

-M

Version – D – 3 of 4
H
-M
H
M
 BICOK107/207
37. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?
a) Right to liberty b) Right to equality

pm
c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to property.
38. Right to equality under article 14 means

0
a) Treating all people equality

:2
b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals

2
c) Upliftment of SC’s and ST’s and backward class people
d) None of the above.

:0
39. Right to life includes

H
01
a) Right to die b) Right purchase moveable property

-M
c) Right to carry on any business d) Right to get education

3
40. Restriction cannot be imposed on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the

H
02
ground of

-M
a) Defamation -2 b) Law and order problem
c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court

H
10
41. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?

-M
a) B. R. Ambedkar b) C. Rajagopalachari
8-

c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru

H
-1

42. The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
-M
a) 389 members b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.
U

43. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected ______ as its permanent
VT

chairman. m
-M

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

6p
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi

H
H

44. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of
:0

-M
-M

a) 7 members b) 5 members c) 9 members d) 3 members

31

45. The Constitution of India came into force on

H
H

a) 26 January 1952 b) 16 August 1948

-M
:
01
-M

c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949

46. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
H
23
H

Constitution?
-M
-M

a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution

20

c) British Constitution d) The UN charter

H
H

47. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains now?

-M
0-

a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
M

-1

48. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
H

commencement?
18

-M

a) 1 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
49. The Constitution of India is
H

a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.

-M

50. The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by

a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority
H

c) Consensus d) All of these

-M

*****
Version – D – 4 of 4
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-M
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:1
Question Paper Version : A
USN

7
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:0
Innovation and Design Thinking

H
01

-M
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
02
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
1.
-2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
10
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
9-

3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
H
-1

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
U

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
VT

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

H

m
-M

prohibited.
7p

H
1. To empathize, one has to
H

:5

a) Observe b) Engage -M
-M

c) Listen d) All of these

32

2. ___________ story telling is the most compelling type of story.

H

-M
:

a) Aural b) Visual
01
-M

c) Textual d) All of these

H

3. Which of the following principles are not considered for design thinking?
23
H

-M

a) Embrace experimentation
-M

b) Human centric design

20

c) Profit centric
H
H

d) Pattern identification for problem solving

-M
0-
M

4. Which of the following are not tools of visualization?

-1

a) Maps b) Images
H

c) Stories d) Videos
19

-M

5. What happens in the test stage of design thinking?

a) You conduct a written test of your design team.
H

b) You allow consumers to test a product or service.

-M

c) You engage in internal testing with employees.

d) You test products design by competitors.
H
-M

6. Collecting _________ is an important portion of testing a prototype in the test stage of

design.
a) Pictures b) Money
H

c) Feedback d) Emails
-M

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7. Process Innovation refers to

:1
a) The development of a new service
b) The development of a new product

7
c) The implementation of new or improved production method

:0
d) The development of new product or services

H
01
8. What is the first step in The Design Thinking Process?

-M
a) Define b) Ideate

3
c) Prototype d) Empathize

H
02
9. After you define the problem, the next step is to __________.

-M
a) Test -2 b) Prototype
c) Ideate d) Empathize

H
10

10. Mind maps are used to ______ ideas.

-M
a) Generate b) Visualize
9-

c) Structure d) All of these

H
-1

-M
11. Which of these are not components of a mind map?
U

a) Branches b) Arrows
c) Central idea d) All of these
VT

m
-M

12. ________ is used with the objective of identifying needs that customers are often unable
7p
to articulate.

H
a) Mind mapping
H

:5

b) Experience mapping -M
-M

c) Story telling
32

d) Rapid concept development

H
H

-M
:

13. Journey mapping maps which phase of activity of service for a customer?
01
-M

a) Before a service b) During a service

c) After a service d) All of these
H
23
H

-M

14. A prototype is a simple experimental model of a proposed solution used to

-M

a) Test ideas b) Validate ideas

20

c) Both of these d) None of these

H
H

-M
0-

15. A Hypothesis is ___________

M

a) A wished for result that the researcher concludes the research with.
-1

b) A complicated set of sentences that pulls variables into proposed complex

H

relationships
19

-M

c) A conjecture that is grounded in support background originating from secondary

research
H

d) None of the above.

-M

16. Which of these should be completed before you build something?

a) Do some research
H

b) Try something
-M

c) Reflect on your solution

d) Define the problem
H
-M

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17. What is the usual order of problem solving process?

:1
a) Try, Reflect, Prepare, Define
b) Prepare, Try, Reflect, Define

7
c) Try and Reflect

:0
d) Define, Prepare, Try, Reflect

H
01
18. Which step of the problem solving process is this? I am thinking of the Pros and Cons to

-M
my idea?

3
a) Define b) Prepare

H
c) Try d) Reflect

02

-M
19. Which of the below firm is associated the most with design thinking?
-2
a) IKea b) Ideo

H
c) Idea d) IKeI
10

-M
20. Design thinking typically helps in __________.
9-

a) Innovation
b) Data analytics H
-1

-M
c) Financial planning
U

d) Operational Efficiency
VT

m
21. Which of the following well known consulting firms are offering design thinking is a
-M

solution?
7p
a) McKinsey and Co. b) BCG

H
c) Bain and Co. d) All of these
H

:5

-M
-M

22. During which step of the design process, do you test the solution or product?
32

a) Identify a problem or need.

H

b) Design a solution or product

H

-M
:

c) Evaluate the solution or product

01
-M

d) Implement the design

H

23. A company wants to build a new type of spaceship for transporting astronauts to the
23
H

-M

moon. What should the company do first?

-M

a) Evaluate the design b) Build a model

20

c) Test the prototype d) Identify needs

H
H

-M
0-

24. An engineer has designed and built a prototype to improve the brake system of a car.
M

What is the next step the engineer should take in the process?
-1

a) Test the working prototype

19

b) Make sketches of the prototype

-M

c) Evaluate the design for envision

d) Collect and analyze the test results
H
-M

25. Learning Launches are designed to test the key underlying value-generating assumptions
of a potential new growth initiative in the market place.
a) True
H

b) False
-M

c) Cannot be said
d) None of these
H

Ver – A – 3 of 6
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26. A case study is

:1
a) A research strategy
b) An empirical inquiry

7
c) a descriptive and exploratory analysis

:0
d) All of these

H
01
27. MVP stands for

-M
a) Minimum Viable Product

3
b) Maximum Viable Product

H
c) Most Viable Product

02
d) None of these

-M
-2
28. At what step do you want to complete the POV – point of view?

H
a) Empathy b) Prototype
10

-M
c) Define d) Ideate
9-

29. The purpose of MVP is not

H
a) Be able to test a product hypothesis with maximum resources.
-1

-M
b) Accelerate learning
U

c) Reduced wasted engineering hours

d) Get the product to early customers as soon as possible.
VT

m
-M

30. The three ‘I’s of design thinking do not include.

7p
a) Interest

H
b) Implementation
H

:5

c) Inspiration -M
-M

d) Ideation
32

31. Collaborative team work is essential in design thinking for

H

-M
:

a) Equal importance to all members

01
-M

b) Solving multifaceted problems

c) Unbiased selection of ideas
H
23
H

d) Better failure management

-M
-M

32. Frank Robinson defined and coined the term

20

a) Design thinking
H
H

b) Mind mapping
-M
0-
M

c) MVP
d) Hypothesis
-1

H
19

33. User persons are created during which phase of design process?
-M

a) Design stage
b) Discover stage
H

c) Develop stage
-M

d) none of these

34. ________ was IDEO’s first expression of design thinking.

H

a) Deep-Design
-M

b) Deep-Dive
c) Deep-Structure
d) Study-Dive
H
-M

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35. Human centric design was reinterpreted as an acronym to mean

:1
a) Hear, Create, Deliver
b) Hear, Create, Design

7
c) Hold, Create, Deliver

:0
d) Hear, Complete, Deliver

H
01
36. The ultimate goal of design thinking is to help you design better.

-M
a) Services

3
b) Products

H
c) Experiences

02
d) All of these

-M
-2
37. Design thinking typically is a

H
a) Non-linear process
10

-M
b) Linear process
c) Cyclic process
9-

d) None of these
H
-1

-M
38. _________ is the way to narrow down the thoughts to reach at the final solution.
U

a) Convergent thinking
b) Divergent thinking
VT

c) None of these m
-M

d) Both of these
7p

H
39. Design thinking follows
H

:5

a) Waterfall model -M
-M

b) Agile methodology
32

c) Both of these
H
H

d) None of these
-M
:
01
-M

40. The goal of the prototype phase is

a) To understand what component of your idea didn’t work.
H
23
H

b) To understand what component of your idea worked.

-M
-M

c) Both of these
20

d) None of these
H
H

41. BPM stands for

-M
0-
M

a) Building Product Management

b) Business Product Management
-1

c) Business Process Management

19

-M

d) Basic Product Management

42. Which is not a good interview strategy for the Empathy step?
H

a) Encourage the person to talk about experience

-M

b) Encourage short answers that get right to the point

c) Ask follow-up questions to get more information
d) Try to uncover needs people may or may not be aware of
H
-M

43. The final step in the design process is to __________.

a) Test b) Define
c) Ideate d) Empathize
H
-M

Ver – A – 5 of 6
H
M
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BIDTK158/258

3
44. Design thinking is best suited to addressing problems at the intersection of

:1
a) Business and society
b) Logic and emotion

7
c) Human needs and economic demands

:0
d) All of these

H
01
45. _________ helps the design team and client to visualize and handle the design concept.

-M
a) Define b) Ideate

3
c) Empathize d) Prototype

H
02
46. In the create phase we do not

-M
a) Recognize existing knowledge in the challenge space.
-2
b) Recruit participants for the codesign task from a diverse pool of those affected

H
c) Maintain awareness of sensitivities by avoiding judgements
10

-M
d) Encouraging storytelling and expression
9-

47. Design thinking is also known as

a) Adaptable enquiry H
-1

-M
b) Strategic design thinking
U

c) Transformation by design
d) All of these
VT

m
-M

48. Which of the following sequences in correct for waterfall methodology?

7p
a) Define – Design – Develop – Test – Deploy

H
b) Define – Develop – Design – Test – Deploy
H

:5

c) Define – Design – Develop – Deploy – Test -M

-M

d) Design – Define – Develop – Test – Deploy

32

49. When defining a problem, your problem statement should include a solution?
H

-M
:

a) True b) False
01
-M

50. A college is redesigning its website. Current students are the main users of the website.
H

Which one of the below elements should definitely be on the website?

23
H

-M

a) College rules and regulations

-M

b) Information on faculty members

20

c) Information about courses

H
H

d) Alumini details
-M
0-
M

*****
-1

H
19

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H

Ver – A – 6 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
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3
Question Paper Version : B
USN

:1
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
Innovation and Design Thinking

:0

H
01
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

-M
3
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
02

-M
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
-2
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
10

-M
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
9-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

H
-1

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
-M
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

VT

prohibited. m
-M

7p
1. BPM stands for

H
a) Building Product Management
H

:5

b) Business Product Management -M

-M

c) Business Process Management

32

d) Basic Product Management

H
H

-M
:

2. Which is not a good interview strategy for the Empathy step?

01
-M

a) Encourage the person to talk about experience

b) Encourage short answers that get right to the point
H

c) Ask follow-up questions to get more information

23
H

-M

d) Try to uncover needs people may or may not be aware of

-M

20

3. The final step in the design process is to __________.

H

a) Test b) Define
H

-M
0-

c) Ideate d) Empathize
M

-1

4. Design thinking is best suited to addressing problems at the intersection of

H

a) Business and society

19

-M

b) Logic and emotion

c) Human needs and economic demands
d) All of these
H
-M

5. _________ helps the design team and client to visualize and handle the design concept.
a) Define
H

b) Ideate
-M

c) Empathize
d) Prototype
H

Ver – B – 1 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
6. In the create phase we do not

:1
a) Recognize existing knowledge in the challenge space.
b) Recruit participants for the codesign task from a diverse pool of those affected

7
c) Maintain awareness of sensitivities by avoiding judgements

:0
d) Encouraging storytelling and expression

H
01
7. Design thinking is also known as

-M
a) Adaptable enquiry

3
b) Strategic design thinking

H
c) Transformation by design

02
d) All of these

-M
8.
-2
Which of the following sequences in correct for waterfall methodology?

H
a) Define – Design – Develop – Test – Deploy
10

-M
b) Define – Develop – Design – Test – Deploy
c) Define – Design – Develop – Deploy – Test
9-

d) Design – Define – Develop – Test – Deploy

H
-1

-M
9. When defining a problem, your problem statement should include a solution?
U

a) True b) False
VT

m
10. A college is redesigning its website. Current students are the main users of the website.
-M

Which one of the below elements should definitely be on the website?

7p
a) College rules and regulations

H
b) Information on faculty members
H

:5

c) Information about courses -M

-M

d) Alumini details
32

11. Collaborative team work is essential in design thinking for

H

-M
:

a) Equal importance to all members

01
-M

b) Solving multifaceted problems

c) Unbiased selection of ideas
H
23
H

d) Better failure management

-M
-M

12. Frank Robinson defined and coined the term

20

a) Design thinking
H
H

b) Mind mapping
-M
0-
M

c) MVP
d) Hypothesis
-1

H
19

13. User persons are created during which phase of design process?
-M

a) Design stage
b) Discover stage
H

c) Develop stage
-M

d) none of these

14. ________ was IDEO’s first expression of design thinking.

H

a) Deep-Design
-M

b) Deep-Dive
c) Deep-Structure
d) Study-Dive
H
-M

Ver – B – 2 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
15. Human centric design was reinterpreted as an acronym to mean

:1
a) Hear, Create, Deliver
b) Hear, Create, Design

7
c) Hold, Create, Deliver

:0
d) Hear, Complete, Deliver

H
01
16. The ultimate goal of design thinking is to help you design better.

-M
a) Services

3
b) Products

H
c) Experiences

02
d) All of these

-M
-2
17. Design thinking typically is a

H
a) Non-linear process
10

-M
b) Linear process
c) Cyclic process
9-

d) None of these
H
-1

-M
18. _________ is the way to narrow down the thoughts to reach at the final solution.
U

a) Convergent thinking
b) Divergent thinking
VT

c) None of these m
-M

d) Both of these
7p

H
19. Design thinking follows
H

:5

a) Waterfall model -M
-M

b) Agile methodology
32

c) Both of these
H
H

d) None of these
-M
:
01
-M

20. The goal of the prototype phase is

a) To understand what component of your idea didn’t work.
H
23
H

b) To understand what component of your idea worked.

-M
-M

c) Both of these
20

d) None of these
H
H

21. Which of these are not components of a mind map?

-M
0-
M

a) Branches b) Arrows
c) Central idea d) All of these
-1

H
19

22. ________ is used with the objective of identifying needs that customers are often unable
-M

to articulate.
a) Mind mapping
H

b) Experience mapping
-M

c) Story telling
d) Rapid concept development
H

23. Journey mapping maps which phase of activity of service for a customer?
-M

a) Before a service b) During a service

c) After a service d) All of these
H

Ver – B – 3 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
24. A prototype is a simple experimental model of a proposed solution used to

:1
a) Test ideas b) Validate ideas
c) Both of these d) None of these

7
:0
25. A Hypothesis is ___________
a) A wished for result that the researcher concludes the research with.

H
01
b) A complicated set of sentences that pulls variables into proposed complex

-M
relationships

3
c) A conjecture that is grounded in support background originating from secondary

H
research

02
d) None of the above.

-M
-2
26. Which of these should be completed before you build something?

H
a) Do some research
10

-M
b) Try something
c) Reflect on your solution
9-

d) Define the problem

H
-1

-M
27. What is the usual order of problem solving process?
U

a) Try, Reflect, Prepare, Define

b) Prepare, Try, Reflect, Define
VT

c) Try and Reflect m

-M

d) Define, Prepare, Try, Reflect

7p

H
28. Which step of the problem solving process is this? I am thinking of the Pros and Cons to
H

:5

my idea? -M
-M

a) Define b) Prepare
32

c) Try d) Reflect
H
H

-M
:

29. Which of the below firm is associated the most with design thinking?
01
-M

a) IKea b) Ideo
c) Idea d) IKeI
H
23
H

-M

30. Design thinking typically helps in __________.

-M

a) Innovation
20

b) Data analytics
H

c) Financial planning
H

-M
0-

d) Operational Efficiency
M

-1

31. To empathize, one has to

H

a) Observe b) Engage
19

-M

c) Listen d) All of these

32. ___________ story telling is the most compelling type of story.

H

a) Aural b) Visual
-M

c) Textual d) All of these

33. Which of the following principles are not considered for design thinking?
H

a) Embrace experimentation
-M

b) Human centric design

c) Profit centric
H

d) Pattern identification for problem solving

-M

Ver – B – 4 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
34. Which of the following are not tools of visualization?

:1
a) Maps b) Images
c) Stories d) Videos

7
:0
35. What happens in the test stage of design thinking?
a) You conduct a written test of your design team.

H
01
b) You allow consumers to test a product or service.

-M
c) You engage in internal testing with employees.

3
d) You test products design by competitors.

H
02
36. Collecting _________ is an important portion of testing a prototype in the test stage of

-M
design. -2
a) Pictures b) Money

H
c) Feedback d) Emails
10

-M
37. Process Innovation refers to
9-

a) The development of a new service

b) The development of a new product H
-1

-M
c) The implementation of new or improved production method
U

d) The development of new product or services

VT

38. What is the first step in The Design Thinking Process?

m
-M

a) Define b) Ideate
7p
c) Prototype d) Empathize

H
H

:5

39. After you define the problem, the next step is to __________. -M
-M

a) Test b) Prototype
32

c) Ideate d) Empathize
H
H

-M
:

40. Mind maps are used to ______ ideas.

01
-M

a) Generate b) Visualize
c) Structure d) All of these
H
23
H

-M

41. Which of the following well known consulting firms are offering design thinking is a
-M

solution?
20

a) McKinsey and Co. b) BCG

H
H

c) Bain and Co. d) All of these

-M
0-
M

42. During which step of the design process, do you test the solution or product?
-1

a) Identify a problem or need.

H

b) Design a solution or product

19

-M

c) Evaluate the solution or product

d) Implement the design
H

43. A company wants to build a new type of spaceship for transporting astronauts to the
-M

moon. What should the company do first?

a) Evaluate the design
H

b) Build a model
-M

c) Test the prototype

d) Identify needs
H

Ver – B – 5 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
44. An engineer has designed and built a prototype to improve the brake system of a car.

:1
What is the next step the engineer should take in the process?
a) Test the working prototype

7
b) Make sketches of the prototype

:0
c) Evaluate the design for envision
d) Collect and analyze the test results

H
01

-M
45. Learning Launches are designed to test the key underlying value-generating assumptions

3
of a potential new growth initiative in the market place.

H
a) True

02
b) False

-M
c) Cannot be said -2
d) None of these

H
10

-M
46. A case study is
a) A research strategy
9-

b) An empirical inquiry
H
-1

c) a descriptive and exploratory analysis

-M
d) All of these
U

47. MVP stands for

VT

a) Minimum Viable Product m

-M

b) Maximum Viable Product

7p
c) Most Viable Product

H
d) None of these
H

:5

-M
-M

48. At what step do you want to complete the POV – point of view?
32

a) Empathy b) Prototype
H
H

c) Define d) Ideate
-M
:
01
-M

49. The purpose of MVP is not

a) Be able to test a product hypothesis with maximum resources.
H
23
H

b) Accelerate learning
-M
-M

c) Reduced wasted engineering hours

20

d) Get the product to early customers as soon as possible.

H
H

50. The three ‘I’s of design thinking do not include.

-M
0-
M

a) Interest
b) Implementation
-1

c) Inspiration
19

-M

d) Ideation

*****
H
-M
H
-M
H

Ver – B – 6 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
:1
Question Paper Version : C
USN

7
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:0
Innovation and Design Thinking

H
01

-M
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
02
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
1.
-2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
10
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
9-

3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
H
-1

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
U

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
VT

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

H

m
-M

prohibited.
7p

H
1. Collaborative team work is essential in design thinking for
H

:5

a) Equal importance to all members -M

-M

b) Solving multifaceted problems

32

c) Unbiased selection of ideas

H

d) Better failure management

H

-M
:
01
-M

2. Frank Robinson defined and coined the term

a) Design thinking
H
23

b) Mind mapping
H

-M

c) MVP
-M

d) Hypothesis
20

H
H

3. User persons are created during which phase of design process?

-M
0-
M

a) Design stage b) Discover stage

c) Develop stage d) none of these
-1

________ was IDEO’s first expression of design thinking.

19

4.
-M

a) Deep-Design
b) Deep-Dive
H

c) Deep-Structure
-M

d) Study-Dive

5. Human centric design was reinterpreted as an acronym to mean

H

a) Hear, Create, Deliver

-M

b) Hear, Create, Design

c) Hold, Create, Deliver
d) Hear, Complete, Deliver
H
-M

Ver – C – 1 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
6. The ultimate goal of design thinking is to help you design better.

:1
a) Services b) Products
c) Experiences d) All of these

7
:0
7. Design thinking typically is a
a) Non-linear process

H
01
b) Linear process

-M
c) Cyclic process

3
d) None of these

H
02
8. _________ is the way to narrow down the thoughts to reach at the final solution.

-M
a) Convergent thinking
-2
b) Divergent thinking

H
c) None of these
10

-M
d) Both of these
9-

9. Design thinking follows

a) Waterfall model H
-1

-M
b) Agile methodology
U

c) Both of these
d) None of these
VT

m
-M

10. The goal of the prototype phase is

7p
a) To understand what component of your idea didn’t work.

H
b) To understand what component of your idea worked.
H

:5

c) Both of these -M
-M

d) None of these
32

11. To empathize, one has to

H

-M
:

a) Observe b) Engage
01
-M

c) Listen d) All of these

H

12. ___________ story telling is the most compelling type of story.

23
H

-M

a) Aural b) Visual
-M

c) Textual d) All of these

20

H
H

13. Which of the following principles are not considered for design thinking?
-M
0-

a) Embrace experimentation
M

b) Human centric design

-1

c) Profit centric
19

d) Pattern identification for problem solving

-M

14. Which of the following are not tools of visualization?

H

a) Maps b) Images
-M

c) Stories d) Videos

15. What happens in the test stage of design thinking?

H

a) You conduct a written test of your design team.

-M

b) You allow consumers to test a product or service.

c) You engage in internal testing with employees.
d) You test products design by competitors.
H
-M

Ver – C – 2 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
16. Collecting _________ is an important portion of testing a prototype in the test stage of

:1
design.
a) Pictures b) Money

7
c) Feedback d) Emails

:0
17. Process Innovation refers to

H
01
a) The development of a new service

-M
b) The development of a new product

3
c) The implementation of new or improved production method

H
d) The development of new product or services

02

-M
18. What is the first step in The Design Thinking Process?
-2
a) Define b) Ideate

H
c) Prototype d) Empathize
10

-M
19. After you define the problem, the next step is to __________.
9-

a) Test b) Prototype
c) Ideate H d) Empathize
-1

-M
U

20. Mind maps are used to ______ ideas.

a) Generate b) Visualize
VT

c) Structure
m
d) All of these
-M

7p
21. BPM stands for

H
a) Building Product Management b) Business Product Management
H

:5

c) Business Process Management -M

d) Basic Product Management
-M

32

22. Which is not a good interview strategy for the Empathy step?
H

a) Encourage the person to talk about experience

H

-M
:

b) Encourage short answers that get right to the point

01
-M

c) Ask follow-up questions to get more information

d) Try to uncover needs people may or may not be aware of
H
23
H

-M

23. The final step in the design process is to __________.

-M

a) Test b) Define
20

c) Ideate d) Empathize
H
H

-M
0-

24. Design thinking is best suited to addressing problems at the intersection of

M

a) Business and society

-1

b) Logic and emotion

H

c) Human needs and economic demands

19

-M

d) All of these

25. _________ helps the design team and client to visualize and handle the design concept.
H

a) Define b) Ideate
-M

c) Empathize d) Prototype

26. In the create phase we do not

H

a) Recognize existing knowledge in the challenge space.

-M

b) Recruit participants for the codesign task from a diverse pool of those affected
c) Maintain awareness of sensitivities by avoiding judgements
H

d) Encouraging storytelling and expression

-M

Ver – C – 3 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
27. Design thinking is also known as

:1
a) Adaptable enquiry
b) Strategic design thinking

7
c) Transformation by design

:0
d) All of these

H
01
28. Which of the following sequences in correct for waterfall methodology?

-M
a) Define – Design – Develop – Test – Deploy

3
b) Define – Develop – Design – Test – Deploy

H
c) Define – Design – Develop – Deploy – Test

02
d) Design – Define – Develop – Test – Deploy

-M
-2
29. When defining a problem, your problem statement should include a solution?

H
a) True b) False
10

-M
30. A college is redesigning its website. Current students are the main users of the website.
9-

Which one of the below elements should definitely be on the website?

a) College rules and regulations H
-1

-M
b) Information on faculty members
U

c) Information about courses

d) Alumini details
VT

m
-M

31. Which of the following well known consulting firms are offering design thinking is a
7p
solution?

H
a) McKinsey and Co. b) BCG
H

:5

c) Bain and Co. d) All of these -M

-M

32

32. During which step of the design process, do you test the solution or product?
H

a) Identify a problem or need.

H

-M
:

b) Design a solution or product

01
-M

c) Evaluate the solution or product

d) Implement the design
H
23
H

-M

33. A company wants to build a new type of spaceship for transporting astronauts to the
-M

moon. What should the company do first?

20

a) Evaluate the design b) Build a model

H
H

c) Test the prototype d) Identify needs

-M
0-
M

34. An engineer has designed and built a prototype to improve the brake system of a car.
-1

What is the next step the engineer should take in the process?
19

a) Test the working prototype

-M

b) Make sketches of the prototype

c) Evaluate the design for envision
H

d) Collect and analyze the test results

-M

35. Learning Launches are designed to test the key underlying value-generating assumptions
of a potential new growth initiative in the market place.
H

a) True
-M

b) False
c) Cannot be said
d) None of these
H
-M

Ver – C – 4 of 6
H
M
 pm
BIDTK158/258

3
36. A case study is

:1
a) A research strategy
b) An empirical inquiry

7
c) a descriptive and exploratory analysis

:0
d) All of these

H
01
37. MVP stands for

-M
a) Minimum Viable Product

3
b) Maximum Viable Product

H
c) Most Viable Product

02
d) None of these

-M
-2
38. At what step do you want to complete the POV – point of view?

H
a) Empathy b) Prototype
10

-M
c) Define d) Ideate
9-

39. The purpose of MVP is not

H
a) Be able to test a product hypothesis with maximum resources.
-1

-M
b) Accelerate learning
U

c) Reduced wasted engineering hours

d) Get the product to early customers as soon as possible.
VT

m
-M

40. The three ‘I’s of design thinking do not include.

7p
a) Interest b) Implementation

H
c) Inspiration d) Ideation
H

:5

-M
-M

41. Which of these are not components of a mind map?

32

a) Branches b) Arrows
H

c) Central idea d) All of these

H

-M
:
01
-M

42. ________ is used with the objective of identifying needs that customers are often unable
to articulate.
H

a) Mind mapping
23
H

-M

b) Experience mapping
-M

c) Story telling
20

d) Rapid concept development

H
H

-M
0-

43. Journey mapping maps which phase of activity of service for a customer?
M

a) Before a service b) During a service

-1

c) After a service d) All of these

19

-M

44. A prototype is a simple experimental model of a proposed solution used to

a) Test ideas b) Validate ideas
H

c) Both of these d) None of these

-M

45. A Hypothesis is ___________

a) A wished for result that the researcher concludes the research with.
H

b) A complicated set of sentences that pulls variables into proposed complex

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relationships
c) A conjecture that is grounded in support background originating from secondary
research
H

d) None of the above.

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46. Which of these should be completed before you build something?

:1
a) Do some research
b) Try something

7
c) Reflect on your solution

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d) Define the problem

H
01
47. What is the usual order of problem solving process?

-M
a) Try, Reflect, Prepare, Define

3
b) Prepare, Try, Reflect, Define

H
c) Try and Reflect

02
d) Define, Prepare, Try, Reflect

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-2
48. Which step of the problem solving process is this? I am thinking of the Pros and Cons to

H
my idea?
10

-M
a) Define b) Prepare
c) Try d) Reflect
9-

H
49. Which of the below firm is associated the most with design thinking?
-1

-M
a) IKea b) Ideo
U

c) Idea d) IKeI
VT

50. Design thinking typically helps in __________.

m
-M

a) Innovation
7p
b) Data analytics

H
c) Financial planning
H

:5

d) Operational Efficiency -M
-M

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*****
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H

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:
01
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H
23
H

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-M

20

H
H

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0-
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-1

H
19

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Question Paper Version : D
USN

7
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:0
Innovation and Design Thinking

H
01

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Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
02
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
1.
-2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
10
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
9-

3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
H
-1

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
U

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
VT

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

H

m
-M

prohibited.
7p

H
1. Which of the following well known consulting firms are offering design thinking is a
H

:5

solution? -M
-M

a) McKinsey and Co. b) BCG

32

c) Bain and Co. d) All of these

H
H

-M
:

2. During which step of the design process, do you test the solution or product?
01
-M

a) Identify a problem or need.

b) Design a solution or product
H
23

c) Evaluate the solution or product

H

-M

d) Implement the design

-M

20

3. A company wants to build a new type of spaceship for transporting astronauts to the
H
H

moon. What should the company do first?

-M
0-
M

a) Evaluate the design b) Build a model

c) Test the prototype d) Identify needs
-1

An engineer has designed and built a prototype to improve the brake system of a car.
19

4.
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What is the next step the engineer should take in the process?
a) Test the working prototype
H

b) Make sketches of the prototype

-M

c) Evaluate the design for envision

d) Collect and analyze the test results
H

5. Learning Launches are designed to test the key underlying value-generating assumptions
-M

of a potential new growth initiative in the market place.

a) True b) False
c) Cannot be said d) None of these
H
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6. A case study is

:1
a) A research strategy
b) An empirical inquiry

7
c) a descriptive and exploratory analysis

:0
d) All of these

H
01
7. MVP stands for

-M
a) Minimum Viable Product

3
b) Maximum Viable Product

H
c) Most Viable Product

02
d) None of these

-M
8.
-2
At what step do you want to complete the POV – point of view?

H
a) Empathy b) Prototype
10

-M
c) Define d) Ideate
9-

9. The purpose of MVP is not

H
a) Be able to test a product hypothesis with maximum resources.
-1

-M
b) Accelerate learning
U

c) Reduced wasted engineering hours

d) Get the product to early customers as soon as possible.
VT

m
-M

10. The three ‘I’s of design thinking do not include.

7p
a) Interest

H
b) Implementation
H

:5

c) Inspiration -M
-M

d) Ideation
32

11. BPM stands for

H

-M
:

a) Building Product Management

01
-M

b) Business Product Management

c) Business Process Management
H
23
H

d) Basic Product Management

-M
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12. Which is not a good interview strategy for the Empathy step?
20

a) Encourage the person to talk about experience

H
H

b) Encourage short answers that get right to the point

-M
0-
M

c) Ask follow-up questions to get more information

d) Try to uncover needs people may or may not be aware of
-1

H
19

13. The final step in the design process is to __________.

-M

a) Test
b) Define
H

c) Ideate
-M

d) Empathize

14. Design thinking is best suited to addressing problems at the intersection of

H

a) Business and society

-M

b) Logic and emotion

c) Human needs and economic demands
d) All of these
H
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15. _________ helps the design team and client to visualize and handle the design concept.

:1
a) Define
b) Ideate

7
c) Empathize

:0
d) Prototype

H
01
16. In the create phase we do not

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a) Recognize existing knowledge in the challenge space.

3
b) Recruit participants for the codesign task from a diverse pool of those affected

H
c) Maintain awareness of sensitivities by avoiding judgements

02
d) Encouraging storytelling and expression

-M
-2
17. Design thinking is also known as

H
a) Adaptable enquiry
10

-M
b) Strategic design thinking
c) Transformation by design
9-

d) All of these
H
-1

-M
18. Which of the following sequences in correct for waterfall methodology?
U

a) Define – Design – Develop – Test – Deploy

b) Define – Develop – Design – Test – Deploy
VT

c) Define – Design – Develop – Deploy – Test m

-M

d) Design – Define – Develop – Test – Deploy

7p

H
19. When defining a problem, your problem statement should include a solution?
H

:5

a) True b) False -M
-M

32

20. A college is redesigning its website. Current students are the main users of the website.
H

Which one of the below elements should definitely be on the website?

H

-M
:

a) College rules and regulations

01
-M

b) Information on faculty members

c) Information about courses
H
23
H

d) Alumini details
-M
-M

21. Collaborative team work is essential in design thinking for

20

a) Equal importance to all members

H
H

b) Solving multifaceted problems

-M
0-
M

c) Unbiased selection of ideas

d) Better failure management
-1

H
19

22. Frank Robinson defined and coined the term

-M

a) Design thinking
b) Mind mapping
H

c) MVP
-M

d) Hypothesis

23. User persons are created during which phase of design process?
H

a) Design stage
-M

b) Discover stage
c) Develop stage
d) none of these
H
-M

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24. ________ was IDEO’s first expression of design thinking.

:1
a) Deep-Design
b) Deep-Dive

7
c) Deep-Structure

:0
d) Study-Dive

H
01
25. Human centric design was reinterpreted as an acronym to mean

-M
a) Hear, Create, Deliver
b) Hear, Create, Design

3
c) Hold, Create, Deliver

H
02
d) Hear, Complete, Deliver

-M
-2
26. The ultimate goal of design thinking is to help you design better.

H
a) Services
10
b) Products

-M
c) Experiences
9-

d) All of these
H
-1

-M
27. Design thinking typically is a
U

a) Non-linear process
b) Linear process
VT

c) Cyclic process
m
-M

d) None of these
7p

H
28. _________ is the way to narrow down the thoughts to reach at the final solution.
H

:5

a) Convergent thinking -M
-M

b) Divergent thinking
32

c) None of these
H

d) Both of these
H

-M
:
01
-M

29. Design thinking follows

a) Waterfall model
H

b) Agile methodology
23
H

-M

c) Both of these
-M

d) None of these
20

H
H

30. The goal of the prototype phase is

-M
0-

a) To understand what component of your idea didn’t work.

M

b) To understand what component of your idea worked.

-1

c) Both of these
19

d) None of these
-M

31. Which of these are not components of a mind map?

H

a) Branches b) Arrows
c) Central idea d) All of these
-M

32. ________ is used with the objective of identifying needs that customers are often unable
H

to articulate.
a) Mind mapping
-M

b) Experience mapping
c) Story telling
H

d) Rapid concept development

-M

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33. Journey mapping maps which phase of activity of service for a customer?

:1
a) Before a service
b) During a service

7
c) After a service

:0
d) All of these

H
01
34. A prototype is a simple experimental model of a proposed solution used to

-M
a) Test ideas b) Validate ideas

3
c) Both of these d) None of these

H
02
35. A Hypothesis is ___________

-M
a) A wished for result that the researcher concludes the research with.
-2
b) A complicated set of sentences that pulls variables into proposed complex

H
relationships
10

-M
c) A conjecture that is grounded in support background originating from secondary
research
9-

d) None of the above.

H
-1

-M
36. Which of these should be completed before you build something?
U

a) Do some research
b) Try something
VT

c) Reflect on your solution m

-M

d) Define the problem

7p

H
37. What is the usual order of problem solving process?
H

:5

a) Try, Reflect, Prepare, Define -M

-M

b) Prepare, Try, Reflect, Define

32

c) Try and Reflect

H
H

d) Define, Prepare, Try, Reflect

-M
:
01
-M

38. Which step of the problem solving process is this? I am thinking of the Pros and Cons to
my idea?
H
23
H

a) Define b) Prepare
-M

c) Try d) Reflect
-M

20

39. Which of the below firm is associated the most with design thinking?
H
H

a) IKea b) Ideo
-M
0-

c) Idea d) IKeI
M

-1

40. Design thinking typically helps in __________.

H

a) Innovation
19

-M

b) Data analytics
c) Financial planning
H

d) Operational Efficiency
-M

41. To empathize, one has to

a) Observe b) Engage
H

c) Listen d) All of these

-M

42. ___________ story telling is the most compelling type of story.

a) Aural b) Visual
H

c) Textual d) All of these

-M

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43. Which of the following principles are not considered for design thinking?

:1
a) Embrace experimentation
b) Human centric design

7
c) Profit centric

:0
d) Pattern identification for problem solving

H
01
44. Which of the following are not tools of visualization?

-M
a) Maps b) Images

3
c) Stories d) Videos

H
02
45. What happens in the test stage of design thinking?

-M
a) You conduct a written test of your design team.
-2
b) You allow consumers to test a product or service.

H
c) You engage in internal testing with employees.
10

-M
d) You test products design by competitors.
9-

46. Collecting _________ is an important portion of testing a prototype in the test stage of
design. H
-1

-M
a) Pictures b) Money
U

c) Feedback d) Emails
VT

47. Process Innovation refers to

m
-M

a) The development of a new service

7p
b) The development of a new product

H
c) The implementation of new or improved production method
H

:5

d) The development of new product or services -M

-M

32

48. What is the first step in The Design Thinking Process?

H

a) Define b) Ideate
H

-M
:

c) Prototype d) Empathize
01
-M

49. After you define the problem, the next step is to __________.
H

a) Test b) Prototype
23
H

-M

c) Ideate d) Empathize
-M

20

50. Mind maps are used to ______ ideas.

H
H

a) Generate b) Visualize
-M
0-

c) Structure d) All of these

M

-1

*****
H
19

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H

Ver – D – 6 of 6
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USN Question Paper Version : A

5
:5
First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

ಕ ಕನ ಡ - Samskruthika Kannada

6
ಾಂಸ

:0

H
01
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

-M
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
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02

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1. J®è 50 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.
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UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
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3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ

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VT

4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ

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¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.

6p

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5. J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ
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ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ
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31

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
H
H

-M
:

1. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಇದರ ಕತೃ ಾರು?

01
-M

a) ಆಂಡಯ b) ಹಂಪ ಾ c) ಪಂಪ d) ಬಸವಣ

H
23
H

-M
-M

20

2. ಜಯನಗರ ಾಲದ ಧಮ ಸಮನ ಯ ೆಯನು ಾ ಾ ದ ಾಜ ಾರು?

H
H

a) ಕೃಷ ೇವ ಾಯ b) ಬುಕ ಾಯ c) ೇವ ಾಯ d) ಹಕ ಾಯ

-M
0-
M

-1

H
16

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3. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಾಸನಗಳ ಮು ಾ ಲು ಾಲು ಾವ ದರ ವರ ೆ ಮತು ಪ ಶ ೆ ೕಸ ಾ ೆ?

a) ಾನ b) ೕರ c) ಾ ತ d) ಾ ೆ
H
-M

4. ಸು ಾರು 18೦೦ ರ ೕ ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ ಅ ಾ ಯವನು ಯ ಅ ಾ ಗ ೆ

H

ದವರು ಾರು?
-M

a) ಾಲ b) ಾಕ ಕಬ c) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ d) ಾ ೆ.
Ver – A - 1 of 6
H
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5. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ ಗ ಂಥದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?
a) ಕು ೆಂಪ b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು c) ಾ d) .ಎ . ಎ .

5
6 :5
6. 1973 ನ ೆಂಬ 1 ರಂದು ೖಸೂರು ಾಜ ೆ ---------ಎಂದು ಾಮಕರಣ ಾಡ ಾ ತು?

:0
a) ೖಸೂರು b) ನವಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ನವ ೖಸೂರು d) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ

H
01

-M
3
7.

H
ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆ ಾವ ಾ ಾ ವಗ ೆ ೇ ೆ?

02

-M
a) ೆ -2 b) ತು ೇ ಯ c) ಾ ಡ d) ಇಂ ೋಆಯ

H
10

-M
8. ಎಷ ೇ ಅನು ೇದದ ಅನು ಾರ ಆ ಾ ಾಜ ಗಳ ಬಳ ೆ ಾಗುವ ಾ ೆಗಳ ೆ ೕ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ ಂದು
6-

ೕ ಾ ಸ ಾ ತು. H
-1

-M
a) 343 b) 344 c) 345 d) 346
U
VT

m
-M

9. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು ಾರು?

6p
a) ಸ ೋ ಾಯ b) ಮದ ೆ ೆ ಾ

H
H

:4

c) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ d) ಾ ಾ -M
ಲ ೕ ಾ
-M

31

H
H

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:

10. ಕ ಾ ಟಕದ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ
01
-M

a) ಇಂ ೕಷ b) ಕನ ಡ c) ತುಳ d) ೊಂಕ
H
23
H

-M
-M

20

11. ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ ನ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?

H
H

-M
0-

a) ಗು ೇಶ ರ b) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇ ಾ c) ಾಮ ಾಥ d) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ

M

-1

H
16

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12. ಹು ಗಂ ಹುತವ ೊಕ ೆ ಏನು ಂಬುದ ಾಬು ೆ?

a) ಸಪ b) ಆ ೆ c) ಕಮ d) ಮೃತು
H
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13. ಕ ಘನ ಅಂಕುಶ ೆನ ಬಹು ೆ ಾರದಯ ವಚನದ ವಚನ ಾರರು ಾರು?

H
-M

a ) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ b) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ c) ಆಯ ಾರಯ d) ಬಸವಣ
H

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14. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣ ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ಏನನು ಬಯ ನು?
a) ಶ ಯ b) ಕನ ಯ c) ಕಮ ವ d) ರ ಯ

5
6 :5
:0
15. ಾಯಕ ೇ ೈ ಾಸ ಾದ ಾರಣ ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ ಾ ಾದಡು ------ ೊಳಗು.

H
01
a) ಮನಸು b) ಕಮ c) ಾಯಕ d) ಕನ

-M
3
16. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು

H
ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೇನು ಬಲು ೆ ೆದು ಈ ೆ ಾಗುವ ೇ?

02

-M
a) ಅಮೃತ -2 b) ಅಮದು c) ವ ಥ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ.

H
10

-M
17. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ ೕತ ೆಯ ೕತ ನ ಾರರು ಾರು?
6-

a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು b) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು c) ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು d) ವ ೕ

H
-1

-M
U
VT

18. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮೂರು ಾ ೊಂದು ಏನನು ಾರು ಾ ೆ?

m
-M

a) ಕುಡ b) ಗ ೆ c) ಮ ೆ d) ಗು ಾಣ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

19. ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ ಾವ ದು?

31

a) ಾಮ ಾಥ b) ಠಲ c) ಗು ೇಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

20. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮ ೆ ಾಡಲು ಬಳಸುವ ಮಣನು ಶ ೕಫರು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?

-M
-M

a) ನ b) ಮುತು c) ರತ d) ಲವಣ
20

H
H

-M
0-
M

21. ಮಂಕು ಮ ನ ಕಗ ಾವ ಾಗದ ಕ ಾರು?

-1

a) .ಎಂ. ೕ b) ೕ.ನಂ. ೕ c) .ಎ . ಎ d) .
16

-M
H

22. ಇರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದ ಗೂಡು ಾವ ದ ೆ ಹುತ ಾಗುವ ದು?

-M

a) ಇ b) ಾವ c) ಼ಷಸಪ d) ಮುಂಗು
H
-M

Ver – A - 3 of 6
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23. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಗ ಹ ೆ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ಬಂ ೆ?
a) ಮೂಕ ಯ ಕನಸುಗಳ b) ಾಕುತಂ

5
:5
c) ಸಮಗ ಾ ತ d) ಾ ತ

6
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24. ಾ ಾಣ ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?

H
01
a) ಾಬೂನು b) ಸರಕು c) ಸಂಯಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

-M
3

H
02
25. ಾ ೆ ದವರ ಾವ ದು ತು ಯುತ ತು?

-M
a) ಹಣ b) ಾಂ ಾನ
-2 c) ದುಡು d) ಕುರುಡ ಾಂ ಾಣ

H
10

-M
26. ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರ ಆತ ಕ ೆ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಜನ b) ೆನ ನ ೋ c) ಜನ ಪಯಣ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
H
-1

-M
U

27. ೕ ೆ ಮರು ಾದವರು ಾರು?

VT

a) ಾನವನು b) ಮ ೆಯರು c) ಮೂಖ m ಾನವರು d) ಾರು ಅಲ.

-M

6p

H
H

:4

28. ಭಗವಂತ ಾನವ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡ ೆ, ದಲು ಅನ ದ ರೂಪದ -M ಾ ೊಳ ೇಕು ಎಂದು

-M

31

ೇ ದವರು ಾರು?
H
H

a) ಾಂ ೕ b) ೆಹರು c) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ d) ಮೂ ಾ
-M
:
01
-M

29. ಾರು ಹು ದ ನವನು ಇಂ ಯ ನವ ಾ ಆಚ ಸ ಾಗು ೆ?

23
H

-M
-M

a) ಆ ೆ b) ಕ ೋ ೆ ಾ c) ಬು ೆ d) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
20

H
H

-M
0-
M

30. 56 ೇ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಪ ಷತು ಾ ಾಗ ನ ೆ ತು?

-1

a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1986

16

-M

31. ಬ ೆ ಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಾವ ೇಶವ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾ ೆ?

H
-M

a) ಾರತ b) ಇಂ ೆಂ c) ಾ d) ಅ ೕ ಾ
H

32. ಾ. ಕ ೕ ೌಡ ೕಚನಹ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

-M

a) ಮ ೆ ಲು b) ಮ ೆ c) ಾಮನ ಲು d) ಮ ೆ ೋ ೆ
H

Ver – A - 4 of 6
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33. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾಜು

5
ಾಡ ಾ ೆ?

:5
a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500

6
:0

H
01
34. ಎಷು ವಷ ಗ ಂದ ಾರ ೕಯ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗ ೆ ಅ ಾರ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆ?

-M
a) . ಪ . 2300 b) . ಶ. 2300 c) . ಪ . 2500 d) . ಶ 2500

H
02

-M
35. ಪ ಸುತ ನಗಳ ಇದನು ತ
-2 ಾ ಸಲು ಯಂತ ಗ ೇ ಇಲ.
ನ ಬು b) ಬು ೆದ ನಬು ೆ

H
a) c) d)
10

-M
6-

36. ವಸು ೇಂದ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು? H

-1

-M
a) ಹ ತ b) ಸತ c) ತ d) ಹ ತ ಸತ
U
VT

m
-M

37.
6p
ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

H
a) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು b) ಾ ೇ c) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ d) ಾ ಾ ೇ
H

:4

-M
-M

31

H
H

38. ಪ ಾದನ ಾ ಯ ೆಸ ೇನು?

-M
:
01
-M

a) ರುದ ಮ b) ಾಳಮ c) ರು d) ಾಯಮ

H
23
H

-M
-M

39. ಪ ವಷ ಹರಂ ನ ದ ಾ ೆ ೋ ಾವ ೇವ ೆ ೇ ೆಸ ಸುವ ಸಂಪ ಾಯವನು

20

ಾಸರರು ರೂ
಼ ೊಂ ದರು?
H

-M
0-
M

a) ೕಲು b) ೕಲು c) ೕರು d) ೕರು

-1

H
16

-M

40. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

a) ಇಸ b) ಇ ಾ c) ಇ ಾ d) ಇ ಾ
H
-M
H

41. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ಬರುವ ಾ ಾರು?

-M

a) ರಮ b) ಾ ಾ c) ಾವಣ d) ಾ ಾ
H

Ver – A - 5 of 6
-M
H
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42 ರು ಣಮ ಸತ ಎಷು ವಷ ಗಳ ಕ ೆ ೆ?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

5
6 :5
43. ಾಡುವ ೆ ೆ ಂ ೆ ಇದ ೆಸ ೇನು?

:0
a) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ b) ಸಂ ೕತವ c) ಸಂ ೕತಹ d) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ

H
01

-M
3
44. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಾಗ ದಶ ಕರು ಾರು?

H
02

-M
a) ಕ ಯ b) ಕುಪ ಯ c) ಕುಪ ಯ ಕ ಯ d) ಾಳ
-2

H
10

-M
45. ಾ ೆ ಎಂಬ ಪ ೇಶದ ಾಸ ಾ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಕುಣ b) ಕುಣ c) ಕುಣವ d) ಕುಣಬ

H
-1

-M
U
VT

46. ಾ ಯ ಯಜ ಾನ ಾರು?
H

m
-M

a) ಯಂಕ b) ಯಶು c) ಯಶ d) ಯಂಕು

6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

47. ಯಂಕು ನ ಪ ವ ಜರು ಾವ ಕ ೆಯವರು?

31

a) ೋ ಾ b) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ೇರಳ d) ತ ಳ ಾಡು

H

-M
:
01
-M

48. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಪ ಾಸ ಕಥನ ಕೃ ಾವ ದು?

23
H

-M
-M

a) ಜನ b) ಜನರು c) ಜನ ಾ ೆ ಪಯನ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
20

H
H

-M
0-
M

49. ಾ ೆ ಪವ ತದ ಎತರ
-1

a) 6 ಾ ರ ಅ b) 5 ಾ ರ ಅ c) 5 . ೕ d) 5 ಅ
H
16

-M
H

50. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

-M

a) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ b) ಾ ೕ ೌಡ c) ಭ ೆ ೕ ೌಡ d) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ
H

*****
-M

Ver – A - 6 of 6
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-M
H
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 i BKSKK107/207

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USN Question Paper Version : B

5
:5
First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

ಕ ಕನ ಡ - Samskruthika Kannada

6
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H
01
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

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Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

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31

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
H
H

-M
:

1. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ಬರುವ ಾ ಾರು?
01
-M

a) ರಮ b) ಾ ಾ c) ಾವಣ d) ಾ ಾ
H
23
H

-M
-M

2. ರು ಣಮ ಸತ ಎಷು ವಷ ಗಳ ಕ ೆ ೆ?
20

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
H

-M
0-
M

-1

3. ಾಡುವ ೆ ೆ ಂ ೆ ಇದ ೆಸ ೇನು?
16

-M

a) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ b) ಸಂ ೕತವ c) ಸಂ ೕತಹ d) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ

H
-M

4. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಾಗ ದಶ ಕರು ಾರು?

H

a) ಕ ಯ b) ಕುಪ ಯ c) ಕುಪ ಯ ಕ ಯ d) ಾಳ
-M
H

Ver – B - 1 of 6
-M
H
M
 BKSKK107/207

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5. ಾ ೆ ಎಂಬ ಪ ೇಶದ ಾಸ ಾ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?
a) ಕುಣ b) ಕುಣ c) ಕುಣವ d) ಕುಣಬ

5
6 :5
:0
6. ಾ ಯ ಯಜ ಾನ ಾರು?

H
01
a) ಯಂಕ b) ಯಶು c) ಯಶ d) ಯಂಕು

-M
3

H
02
7. ಯಂಕು ನ ಪ ವ ಜರು ಾವ ಕ ೆಯವರು?

-M
a) ೋ ಾ -2b) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ೇರಳ d) ತ ಳ ಾಡು

H
10

-M
8. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಪ ಾಸ ಕಥನ ಕೃ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಜನ b) ಜನರು c) ಜನ ಾ ೆ ಪಯನ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
H
-1

-M
U
VT

9. ಾ ೆ ಪವ ತದ ಎತರ
m
-M

a) 6 ಾ ರ ಅ b) 5 ಾ ರ ಅ c) 5 . ೕ d) 5 ಅ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

10. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

31

a) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ b) ಾ ೕ ೌಡ c) ಭ ೆ ೕ ೌಡ d) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ
H

-M
:
01
-M

11. ಬ ೆ ಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಾವ ೇಶವ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾ ೆ?

H
23
H

a) ಾರತ b) ಇಂ ೆಂ c) ಾ d) ಅ ೕ ಾ
-M
-M

20

H
H

12. ಾ. ಕ ೕ ೌಡ ೕಚನಹ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

-M
0-
M

a) ಮ ೆ ಲು b) ಮ ೆ c) ಾಮನ ಲು d) ಮ ೆ ೋ ೆ
-1

H
16

-M

13. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾಜು

H

ಾಡ ಾ ೆ?
-M

a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500

H

14. ಎಷು ವಷ ಗ ಂದ ಾರ ೕಯ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗ ೆ ಅ ಾರ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆ?

-M

a) . ಪ . 2300 b) . ಶ. 2300 c) . ಪ . 2500 d) . ಶ 2500

H

Ver – B - 2 of 6
-M
H
M
 pm
15. ಪ ಸುತ ನಗಳ ಇದನು ತ ಾ ಸಲು ಯಂತ ಗ ೇ ಇಲ.
a) ನ ಬು b) ಬು c) ೆದ ನಬು d) ೆ

5
6 :5
16. ವಸು ೇಂದ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

:0
a) ಹ ತ b) ಸತ c) ತ d) ಹ ತ ಸತ

H
01

-M
3
17. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

H
02
a) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು b) ಾ ೇ c) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ d) ಾ ಾ ೇ

-M
-2

H
10

-M
18. ಪ ಾದನ ಾ ಯ ೆಸ ೇನು?
6-

a) ರುದ ಮ b) ಾಳಮ c) ರು d) ಾಯಮ

H
-1

-M
U

19. ಪ ವಷ ಹರಂ ನ ದ ಾ ೆ ೋ ಾವ ೇವ ೆ ೇ ೆಸ ಸುವ ಸಂಪ ಾಯವನು

VT

ಾಸರರು ರೂ
಼ ೊಂ ದರು? m
-M

6p
a) ೕಲು b) ೕಲು c) ೕರು d) ೕರು

H
H

:4

20.
-M
-M

ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

31

a) ಇಸ b) ಇ ಾ c) ಇ ಾ d) ಇ ಾ
H
H

-M
:
01
-M

21. ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ ನ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?

H
23
H

-M

a) ಗು ೇಶ ರ b) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇ ಾ c) ಾಮ ಾಥ d) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ

-M

20

H
H

-M
0-

22. ಹು ಗಂ ಹುತವ ೊಕ ೆ ಏನು ಂಬುದ ಾಬು ೆ?

M

-1

a) ಸಪ b) ಆ ೆ c) ಕಮ d) ಮೃತು
H
16

-M

23. ಕ ಘನ ಅಂಕುಶ ೆನ ಬಹು ೆ ಾರದಯ ವಚನದ ವಚನ ಾರರು ಾರು?

H

a ) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ b) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ c) ಆಯ ಾರಯ d) ಬಸವಣ
-M
H

24. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣ ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ಏನನು ಬಯ ನು?

-M

a) ಶ ಯ b) ಕನ ಯ c) ಕಮ ವ d) ರ ಯ
H

Ver – B - 3 of 6
-M
H
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25. ಾಯಕ ೇ ೈ ಾಸ ಾದ ಾರಣ ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ ಾ ಾದಡು ------ ೊಳಗು.
a) ಮನಸು b) ಕಮ c) ಾಯಕ d) ಕನ

5
6 :5
26. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೇನು ಬಲು ೆ ೆದು ಈ ೆ ಾಗುವ ೇ?

:0
a) ಅಮೃತ b) ಅಮದು c) ವ ಥ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ.

H
01

-M
3
27. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ

H
ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ ೕತ ೆಯ ೕತ ನ ಾರರು ಾರು?

02

-M
a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು -2 b) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು c) ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು d) ವ ೕ

H
10

-M
28. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮೂರು ಾ ೊಂದು ಏನನು ಾರು ಾ ೆ?
6-

a) ಕುಡ b) ಗ ೆ c) ಮ ೆ d) ಗು ಾಣ
H
-1

-M
U

29. ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ ಾವ ದು?

VT

m
-M

a) ಾಮ ಾಥ b) ಠಲ c) ಗು ೇಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

30. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮ ೆ ಾಡಲು ಬಳಸುವ ಮಣನು ಶ ೕಫರು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?

31

a) ನ b) ಮುತು c) ರತ d) ಲವಣ
H
H

-M
:
01
-M

31. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಇದರ ಕತೃ ಾರು?

H
23
H

-M

a) ಆಂಡಯ b) ಹಂಪ ಾ c) ಪಂಪ d) ಬಸವಣ

-M

20

H
H

32. ಜಯನಗರ ಾಲದ ಧಮ ಸಮನ ಯ ೆಯನು ಾ ಾ ದ ಾಜ ಾರು?

-M
0-
M

a) ಕೃಷ ೇವ ಾಯ b) ಬುಕ ಾಯ c) ೇವ ಾಯ d) ಹಕ ಾಯ

-1

H
16

-M

33. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಾಸನಗಳ ಮು ಾ ಲು ಾಲು ಾವ ದರ ವರ ೆ ಮತು ಪ ಶ ೆ ೕಸ ಾ ೆ?

H

a) ಾನ b) ೕರ c) ಾ ತ d) ಾ ೆ
-M

34. ಸು ಾರು 18೦೦ ರ ೕ ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ ಅ ಾ ಯವನು ಯ ಅ ಾ ಗ ೆ

H
-M

ದವರು ಾರು?
a) ಾಲ b) ಾಕ ಕಬ c) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ d) ಾ ೆ.
H

Ver – B - 4 of 6
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H
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35. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ ಗ ಂಥದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?
a) ಕು ೆಂಪ b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು c) ಾ d) .ಎ . ಎ .

5
6 :5
36. 1973 ನ ೆಂಬ 1 ರಂದು ೖಸೂರು ಾಜ ೆ ---------ಎಂದು ಾಮಕರಣ ಾಡ ಾ ತು?

:0
a) ೖಸೂರು b) ನವಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ನವ ೖಸೂರು d) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ

H
01

-M
3
37. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆ

H
ಾವ ಾ ಾ ವಗ ೆ ೇ ೆ?

02

-M
a) ೆ -2 b) ತು ೇ ಯ c) ಾ ಡ d) ಇಂ ೋಆಯ

H
10

-M
38. ಎಷ ೇ ಅನು ೇದದ ಅನು ಾರ ಆ ಾ ಾಜ ಗಳ ಬಳ ೆ ಾಗುವ ಾ ೆಗಳ ೆ ೕ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ ಂದು
6-

ೕ ಾ ಸ ಾ ತು. H
-1

-M
a) 343 b) 344 c) 345 d) 346
U
VT

39. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು m ಾರು?

-M

6p
a) ಸ ೋ ಾಯ b) ಮದ ೆ ೆ ಾ

H
H

c) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ d) ಾ ಾ ಲ ೕ ಾ
:4

-M
-M

31

40. ಕ ಾ ಟಕದ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ
H

-M
:
01
-M

a) ಇಂ ೕಷ b) ಕನ ಡ c) ತುಳ d) ೊಂಕ
H
23
H

-M

41. ಮಂಕು ಮ ನ ಕಗ ಾವ ಾಗದ ಕ ಾರು?

-M

20

a) .ಎಂ. ೕ b) ೕ.ನಂ. ೕ c) .ಎ . ಎ d) .
H
H

-M
0-
M

-1

42 ಇರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದ ಗೂಡು ಾವ ದ ೆ ಹುತ ಾಗುವ ದು?

H
16

-M

a) ಇ b) ಾವ c) ಼ಷಸಪ d) ಮುಂಗು
H

43. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಗ ಹ ೆ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ಬಂ ೆ?

-M

a) ಮೂಕ ಯ ಕನಸುಗಳ b) ಾಕುತಂ

c) ಸಮಗ ಾ ತ d) ಾ ತ
H
-M

Ver – B - 5 of 6
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44. ಾ ಾಣ ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?
a) ಾಬೂನು b) ಸರಕು c) ಸಂಯಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

5
6 :5
45. ಾ ೆ ದವರ ಾವ ದು ತು ಯುತ ತು?

:0
a) ಹಣ b) ಾಂ ಾನ c) ದುಡು d) ಕುರುಡ ಾಂ ಾಣ

H
01

-M
3
46. ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರ ಆತ ಕ ೆ ಾವ ದು?

H
02

-M
a) ಜನ b) ೆನ ನ ೋ c) ಜನ ಪಯಣ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
-2

H
10
47. ೕ ೆ ಮರು ಾದವರು ಾರು?

-M
6-

a) ಾನವನು b) ಮ ೆಯರು c) ಮೂಖ ಾನವರು d) ಾರು ಅಲ.

H
-1

-M
U

48. ಭಗವಂತ ಾನವ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡ ೆ, ದಲು ಅನ ದ ರೂಪದ ಾ ೊಳ ೇಕು ಎಂದು

VT

ೇ ದವರು ಾರು?
m
-M

a) ಾಂ ೕ b) ೆಹರು c) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ d) ಮೂ ಾ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

49. ಾರು ಹು ದ ನವನು ಇಂ ಯ ನವ ಾ ಆಚ ಸ ಾಗು ೆ?

31

a) ಆ ೆ b) ಕ ೋ ೆ ಾ c) ಬು ೆ d) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
H

-M
:
01
-M

50. 56 ೇ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಪ ಷತು ಾ ಾಗ ನ ೆ ತು?

23
H

-M
-M

a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1986

20

H
H

-M
0-

*****
M

-1

H
16

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H
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H
-M

Ver – B - 6 of 6
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USN Question Paper Version : C

5
:5
First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

ಕ ಕನ ಡ - Samskruthika Kannada

6
ಾಂಸ

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H
01
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

-M
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

02

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1. J®è 50 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.
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2. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J£ï ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ ¥À±Éß ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

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10
±ÉæÃtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ A, B, C CxÀªÁ D AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ¦à®èzÀAvÉ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV

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UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
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3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ

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ºÁUÉAiÉÄà ©lÖ°è CxÀªÁ ¨sÀwðªÀiÁrzÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
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4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ

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¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.

6p

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5. J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ
H

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ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ -M

-M

31

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
H
H

-M
:

1. ಮಂಕು ಮ ನ ಕಗ ಾವ ಾಗದ ಕ ಾರು?

01
-M

a) .ಎಂ. ೕ b) ೕ.ನಂ. ೕ c) .ಎ . ಎ d) .
H
23
H

-M
-M

20

2. ಇರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದ ಗೂಡು ಾವ ದ ೆ ಹುತ ಾಗುವ ದು?

H
H

a) ಇ b) ಾವ c) ಷ
಼ ಸಪ d) ಮುಂಗು
-M
0-
M

-1

3. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಗ ಹ ೆ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ಬಂ ೆ?

16

-M

a) ಮೂಕ ಯ ಕನಸುಗಳ b) ಾಕುತಂ

H

c) ಸಮಗ ಾ ತ d) ಾ ತ
-M

4. ಾ ಾಣ ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?
H

a) ಾಬೂನು b) ಸರಕು c) ಸಂಯಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

-M
H

Ver – C - 1 of 6
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H
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5. ಾ ೆ ದವರ ಾವ ದು ತು ಯುತ ತು?
a) ಹಣ b) ಾಂ ಾನ c) ದುಡು d) ಕುರುಡ ಾಂ ಾಣ

5
6 :5
6. ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರ ಆತ ಕ ೆ ಾವ ದು?

:0
a) ಜನ b) ೆನ ನ ೋ c) ಜನ ಪಯಣ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

H
01

-M
3
7. ೕ ೆ ಮರು ಾದವರು ಾರು?

H
02

-M
a) ಾನವನು b) ಮ ೆಯರು c) ಮೂಖ ಾನವರು d) ಾರು ಅಲ.
-2

H
10
8. ಭಗವಂತ ಾನವ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡ ೆ, ದಲು ಅನ ದ ರೂಪದ ಾ ೊಳ ೇಕು ಎಂದು

-M
6-

ೇ ದವರು ಾರು?
a) ಾಂ ೕ ೆಹರು H ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ d) ಮೂ ಾ
-1

b) c)
-M
U
VT

9.
H

ಾರು ಹು ದ ನವನು ಇಂ ಯ ನವ ಾ ಆಚ ಸ ಾಗು ೆ?

m
-M

a) ಆ ೆ b) ಕ ೋ ೆ ಾ c) ಬು ೆ d) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

10. 56 ೇ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಪ ಷತು ಾ ಾಗ ನ ೆ ತು?

31

a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1986

H

-M
:
01
-M

11. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ಬರುವ ಾ ಾರು?

H
23
H

-M

a) ರಮ b) ಾ ಾ c) ಾವಣ d) ಾ ಾ
-M

20

H
H

-M
0-

12. ರು ಣಮ ಸತ ಎಷು ವಷ ಗಳ ಕ ೆ ೆ?
M

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
-1

H
16

-M

13. ಾಡುವ ೆ ೆ ಂ ೆ ಇದ ೆಸ ೇನು?

H

a) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ b) ಸಂ ೕತವ c) ಸಂ ೕತಹ d) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ

-M
H

14. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಾಗ ದಶ ಕರು ಾರು?

-M

a) ಕ ಯ b) ಕುಪ ಯ c) ಕುಪ ಯ ಕ ಯ d) ಾಳ
H

Ver – C - 2 of 6
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H
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 BKSKK107/207

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15. ಾ ೆ ಎಂಬ ಪ ೇಶದ ಾಸ ಾ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?
a) ಕುಣ b) ಕುಣ c) ಕುಣವ d) ಕುಣಬ

5
6 :5
:0
16. ಾ ಯ ಯಜ ಾನ ಾರು?

H
01
a) ಯಂಕ b) ಯಶು c) ಯಶ d) ಯಂಕು

-M
3

H
02
17. ಯಂಕು ನ ಪ ವ ಜರು ಾವ ಕ ೆಯವರು?

-M
a) ೋ ಾ -2b) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ೇರಳ d) ತ ಳ ಾಡು

H
10

-M
18. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಪ ಾಸ ಕಥನ ಕೃ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಜನ b) ಜನರು c) ಜನ ಾ ೆ ಪಯನ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
H
-1

-M
U
VT

19. ಾ ೆ ಪವ ತದ ಎತರ
m
-M

a) 6 ಾ ರ ಅ b) 5 ಾ ರ ಅ c) 5 . ೕ d) 5 ಅ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
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20. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

31

a) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ b) ಾ ೕ ೌಡ c) ಭ ೆ ೕ ೌಡ d) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ
H

-M
:
01
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21. ಬ ೆ ಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಾವ ೇಶವ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾ ೆ?

H
23
H

a) ಾರತ b) ಇಂ ೆಂ c) ಾ d) ಅ ೕ ಾ
-M
-M

20

H
H

22. ಾ. ಕ ೕ ೌಡ ೕಚನಹ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

-M
0-
M

a) ಮ ೆ ಲು b) ಮ ೆ c) ಾಮನ ಲು d) ಮ ೆ ೋ ೆ
-1

H
16

-M

23. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾಜು

ಾಡ ಾ ೆ?
H

a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500

-M

24. ಎಷು ವಷ ಗ ಂದ ಾರ ೕಯ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗ

H

ೆ ಅ ಾರ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆ?
-M

a) . ಪ . 2300 b) . ಶ. 2300 c) . ಪ . 2500 d) . ಶ 2500

H

Ver – C - 3 of 6
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25. ಪ ಸುತ ನಗಳ ಇದನು ತ ಾ ಸಲು ಯಂತ ಗ ೇ ಇಲ.
a) ನ ಬು b) ಬು c) ೆದ ನಬು d) ೆ

5
6 :5
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26. ವಸು ೇಂದ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

H
01
a) ಹ ತ b) ಸತ c) ತ d) ಹ ತ ಸತ

-M
3

H
02
27. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

-M
a) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು -2 b) ಾ ೇ c) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ d) ಾ ಾ ೇ

H
10

-M
28. ಪ ಾದನ ಾ ಯ ೆಸ ೇನು?
6-

a) ರುದ ಮ b) ಾಳಮ H c) ರು d) ಾಯಮ

-1

-M
U
VT

29. ಪ ವಷ ಹರಂ ನ ದ ಾ ೆ ೋ ಾವ ೇವ ೆ ೇ ೆಸ ಸುವ ಸಂಪ ಾಯವನು

m
-M

ಾಸರರು ರೂ
಼ ೊಂ ದರು?
6p

H
a) ೕಲು b) ೕಲು c) ೕರು d) ೕರು
H

:4

-M
-M

31

30. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

H

-M
:
01
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a) ಇಸ b) ಇ ಾ c) ಇ ಾ d) ಇ ಾ
H
23
H

-M
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31. ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ ನ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?

20

a) ಗು ೇಶ ರ b) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇ ಾ c) ಾಮ ಾಥ d) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ

H

-M
0-
M

-1

32. ಹು ಗಂ ಹುತವ ೊಕ ೆ ಏನು ಂಬುದ ಾಬು ೆ?

16

-M

a) ಸಪ b) ಆ ೆ c) ಕಮ d) ಮೃತು
H
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33. ಕ ಘನ ಅಂಕುಶ ೆನ ಬಹು ೆ ಾರದಯ ವಚನದ ವಚನ ಾರರು ಾರು?

H

a ) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ b) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ c) ಆಯ ಾರಯ d) ಬಸವಣ
-M
H

Ver – C - 4 of 6
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34. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣ ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ಏನನು ಬಯ ನು?
a) ಶ ಯ b) ಕನ ಯ c) ಕಮ ವ d) ರ ಯ

5
6 :5
:0
35. ಾಯಕ ೇ ೈ ಾಸ ಾದ ಾರಣ ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ ಾ ಾದಡು ------ ೊಳಗು.

H
01
a) ಮನಸು b) ಕಮ c) ಾಯಕ d) ಕನ

-M
3
36. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು

H
ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೇನು ಬಲು ೆ ೆದು ಈ ೆ ಾಗುವ ೇ?

02

-M
a) ಅಮೃತ -2 b) ಅಮದು c) ವ ಥ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ.

H
10

-M
37. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ ೕತ ೆಯ ೕತ ನ ಾರರು ಾರು?
6-

a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು b) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು c) ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು d) ವ ೕ

H
-1

-M
U
VT

38. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮೂರು ಾ ೊಂದು ಏನನು ಾರು ಾ ೆ?

m
-M

a) ಕುಡ b) ಗ ೆ c) ಮ ೆ d) ಗು ಾಣ
6p

H
H

:4

-M
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39. ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ ಾವ ದು?

31

a) ಾಮ ಾಥ b) ಠಲ c) ಗು ೇಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ
H

-M
:
01
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H
23
H

40. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮ ೆ ಾಡಲು ಬಳಸುವ ಮಣನು ಶ ೕಫರು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?

-M
-M

a) ನ b) ಮುತು c) ರತ d) ಲವಣ
20

H
H

-M
0-
M

41. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಇದರ ಕತೃ ಾರು?

-1

a) ಆಂಡಯ b) ಹಂಪ ಾ c) ಪಂಪ d) ಬಸವಣ

16

-M
H

42 ಜಯನಗರ ಾಲದ ಧಮ ಸಮನ ಯ ೆಯನು ಾ ಾ ದ ಾಜ ಾರು?

-M

a) ಕೃಷ ೇವ ಾಯ b) ಬುಕ ಾಯ c) ೇವ ಾಯ d) ಹಕ ಾಯ

H
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Ver – C - 5 of 6
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43. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಾಸನಗಳ ಮು ಾ ಲು ಾಲು ಾವ ದರ ವರ ೆ ಮತು ಪ ಶ ೆ ೕಸ ಾ ೆ?
a) ಾನ b) ೕರ c) ಾ ತ d) ಾ ೆ

5
6 :5
44. ಸು ಾರು 18೦೦ ರ ೕ ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ ಅ ಾ ಯವನು ಯ ಅ ಾ ಗ ೆ

:0
ದವರು ಾರು?

H
01

-M
a) ಾಲ b) ಾಕ ಕಬ c) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ d) ಾ ೆ.

H
02

-M
45. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ ಗ ಂಥದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?
a) ಕು ೆಂಪ
-2
b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು c) ಾ d) .ಎ . ಎ .

H
10

-M
6-

46. 1973 ನ ೆಂಬ 1 ರಂದು ೖಸೂರು ಾಜ ೆ ---------ಎಂದು ಾಮಕರಣ ಾಡ ಾ ತು?

H
-1

a) ೖಸೂರು b) ನವಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ನವ ೖಸೂರು d) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ

-M
U
VT

47. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆ ಾವ ಾ ಾ ವಗ ೆ ೇ ೆ? m
-M

6p
a) ೆ b) ತು ೇ ಯ c) ಾ ಡ d) ಇಂ ೋಆಯ

H
H

:4

-M
-M

31

48. ಎಷ ೇ ಅನು ೇದದ ಅನು ಾರ ಆ ಾ ಾಜ ಗಳ ಬಳ ೆ ಾಗುವ ಾ ೆಗಳ ೆ ೕ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ ಂದು

H
H

-M
:

ೕ ಾ ಸ ಾ ತು.
01
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a) 343 b) 344 c) 345 d) 346

H
23
H

-M
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49. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು ಾರು?

20

a) ಸ ೋ ಾಯ b) ಮದ ೆ ೆ ಾ
H

-M
0-
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c) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ d) ಾ ಾ ಲ ೕ ಾ
-1

H
16

-M

50. ಕ ಾ ಟಕದ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ
H

a) ಇಂ ೕಷ b) ಕನ ಡ c) ತುಳ d) ೊಂಕ
-M
H

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 i BKSKK107/207

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USN Question Paper Version : D

5
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First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

ಕ ಕನ ಡ - Samskruthika Kannada

6
ಾಂಸ

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H
01
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

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Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

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¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

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1. J®è 50 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.
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2. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J£ï ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ ¥À±Éß ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

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±ÉæÃtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ A, B, C CxÀªÁ D AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ¦à®èzÀAvÉ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV

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UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
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3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ

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VT

4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ

m
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¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.

6p

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5. J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ
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ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ -M

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31

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
H
H

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:

1. ಬ ೆಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಾವ ೇಶವ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾ ೆ?

01
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a) ಾರತ b) ಇಂ ೆಂ c) ಾ d) ಅ ೕ ಾ
H
23
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2. ಾ. ಕ ೕ ೌಡ ೕಚನಹ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

20

a) ಮ ೆ ಲು b) ಮ ೆ c) ಾಮನ ಲು d) ಮ ೆ ೋ ೆ
H

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0-
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3. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾಜು

16

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ಾಡ ಾ ೆ?
a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500
H
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4. ಎಷು ವಷ ಗ ಂದ ಾರ ೕಯ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗ ೆ ಅ ಾರ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆ?
H

a) . ಪ . 2300 b) . ಶ. 2300 c) . ಪ . 2500 d) . ಶ 2500

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Ver – D - 1 of 6
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5. ಪ ಸುತ ನಗಳ ಇದನು ತ ಾ ಸಲು ಯಂತ ಗ ೇ ಇಲ.
a) ನ ಬು b) ಬು c) ೆದ ನಬು d) ೆ

5
6 :5
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6. ವಸು ೇಂದ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?

H
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a) ಹ ತ b) ಸತ c) ತ d) ಹ ತ ಸತ

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3

H
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7. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

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a) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು -2 b) ಾ ೇ c) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ d) ಾ ಾ ೇ

H
10

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8. ಪ ಾದನ ಾ ಯ ೆಸ ೇನು?
6-

a) ರುದ ಮ b) ಾಳಮ H c) ರು d) ಾಯಮ

-1

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U
VT

9. ಪ ವಷ ಹರಂ ನ ದ ಾ ೆ ೋ ಾವ ೇವ ೆ ೇ ೆಸ ಸುವ ಸಂಪ ಾಯವನು

m
-M

ಾಸರರು ರೂ
಼ ೊಂ ದರು?
6p

H
a) ೕಲು b) ೕಲು c) ೕರು d) ೕರು
H

:4

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31

10. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

H

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:
01
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a) ಇಸ b) ಇ ಾ c) ಇ ಾ d) ಇ ಾ
H
23
H

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11. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಇದರ ಕತೃ ಾರು?

20

a) ಆಂಡಯ b) ಹಂಪ ಾ c) ಪಂಪ d) ಬಸವಣ

H

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0-
M

-1

12. ಜಯನಗರ ಾಲದ ಧಮ ಸಮನ ಯ ೆಯನು ಾ ಾ ದ ಾಜ ಾರು?

16

-M

a) ಕೃಷ ೇವ ಾಯ b) ಬುಕ ಾಯ c) ೇವ ಾಯ d) ಹಕ ಾಯ

H
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13. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಾಸನಗಳ ಮು ಾ ಲು ಾಲು ಾವ ದರ ವರ ೆ ಮತು ಪ ಶ ೆ ೕಸ ಾ ೆ?

H

a) ಾನ b) ೕರ c) ಾ ತ d) ಾ ೆ
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14. ಸು ಾರು 18೦೦ ರ ೕ ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ ಅ ಾ ಯವನು ಯ ಅ ಾ ಗ ೆ
ದವರು ಾರು?

5
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a) ಾಲ b) ಾಕ ಕಬ c) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ d) ಾ ೆ.

6
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15. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ ಗ ಂಥದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?

H
01

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a) ಕು ೆಂಪ b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು c) ಾ d) .ಎ . ಎ .

H
02

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16. 1973 ನ ೆಂಬ 1 ರಂದು ೖಸೂರು ಾಜ ೆ ---------ಎಂದು ಾಮಕರಣ ಾಡ ಾ ತು?
a) ೖಸೂರು
-2 b) ನವಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ನವ ೖಸೂರು d) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ

H
10

-M
6-

17. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆ ಾವ ಾ ಾ ವಗ ೆ ೇ ೆ?
H
-1

-M
a) ೆ b) ತು ೇ ಯ c) ಾ ಡ d) ಇಂ ೋಆಯ
U
VT

m
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18. ಎಷ ೇ ಅನು ೇದದ ಅನು ಾರ ಆ ಾ ಾಜ ಗಳ ಬಳ ೆ ಾಗುವ ಾ ೆಗಳ ೆ ೕ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ ಂದು

6p
ೕ ಾ ಸ ಾ ತು.

H
H

:4

a) 343 b) 344 c) 345 -M d) 346

-M

31

H
H

-M
:

19. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು ಾರು?

01
-M

a) ಸ ೋ ಾಯ b) ಮದ ೆ ೆ ಾ
H
23
H

c) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ d) ಾ ಾ ಲ ೕ ಾ
-M
-M

20

H
H

20. ಕ ಾ ಟಕದ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ
-M
0-
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a) ಇಂ ೕಷ b) ಕನ ಡ c) ತುಳ d) ೊಂಕ
-1

H
16

-M

21. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ಬರುವ ಾ ಾರು?

H

a) ರಮ b) ಾ ಾ c) ಾವಣ d) ಾ ಾ
-M
H

22. ರು ಣಮ ಸತ ಎಷು ವಷ ಗಳ ಕ ೆ ೆ?
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a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
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23. ಾಡುವ ೆ ೆ ಂ ೆ ಇದ ೆಸ ೇನು?
a) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ b) ಸಂ ೕತವ c) ಸಂ ೕತಹ d) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ

5
6 :5
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24. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಾಗ ದಶ ಕರು ಾರು?

H
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a) ಕ ಯ b) ಕುಪ ಯ c) ಕುಪ ಯ ಕ ಯ d) ಾಳ

-M
3
25. ಾ ೆ ಎಂಬ ಪ ೇಶದ ಾಸ ಾ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?

H
02

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a) ಕುಣ b) ಕುಣ c) ಕುಣವ d) ಕುಣಬ
-2

H
10

26.

-M
ಾ ಯ ಯಜ ಾನ ಾರು?
6-

a) ಯಂಕ b) ಯಶು c) ಯಶ d) ಯಂಕು

H
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-M
U

27. ಯಂಕು ನ ಪ ವ ಜರು ಾವ ಕ ೆಯವರು?

VT

a) ೋ ಾ b) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ೇರಳ
m d) ತ ಳ ಾಡು
-M

6p

H
H

28. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಪ ಾಸ ಕಥನ ಕೃ ಾವ ದು?

:4

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a) ಜನ b) ಜನರು c) ಜನ ಾ ೆ ಪಯನ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
31

H
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01
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29. ಾ ೆ ಪವ ತದ ಎತರ
H
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a) 6 ಾ ರ ಅ b) 5 ಾ ರ ಅ c) 5 . ೕ d) 5 ಅ
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20

H
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30. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

-M
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a) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ b) ಾ ೕ ೌಡ c) ಭ ೆ ೕ ೌಡ d) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ
-1

H
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31. ಮಂಕು ಮ ನ ಕಗ ಾವ ಾಗದ ಕ ಾರು?

a) .ಎಂ. ೕ b) ೕ.ನಂ. ೕ c) .ಎ . ಎ d) .
H
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32. ಇರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದ ಗೂಡು ಾವ ದ ೆ ಹುತ ಾಗುವ ದು?

H
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a) ಇ b) ಾವ c) ಼ಷಸಪ d) ಮುಂಗು
H

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33. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಗ ಹ ೆ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ಬಂ ೆ?
a) ಮೂಕ ಯ ಕನಸುಗಳ b) ಾಕುತಂ

5
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c) ಸಮಗ ಾ ತ d) ಾ ತ

6
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34. ಾ ಾಣ ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?

H
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a) ಾಬೂನು b) ಸರಕು c) ಸಂಯಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

-M
3

H
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35. ಾ ೆ ದವರ ಾವ ದು ತು ಯುತ ತು?

-M
a) ಹಣ b) ಾಂ ಾನ
-2 c) ದುಡು d) ಕುರುಡ ಾಂ ಾಣ

H
10

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36. ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರ ಆತ ಕ ೆ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಜನ b) ೆನ ನ ೋ c) ಜನ ಪಯಣ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
H
-1

-M
U

37. ೕ ೆ ಮರು ಾದವರು ಾರು?

VT

a) ಾನವನು b) ಮ ೆಯರು c) ಮೂಖ m ಾನವರು d) ಾರು ಅಲ.

-M

6p

H
H

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38. ಭಗವಂತ ಾನವ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡ ೆ, ದಲು ಅನ ದ ರೂಪದ -M ಾ ೊಳ ೇಕು ಎಂದು

-M

31

ೇ ದವರು ಾರು?
H
H

a) ಾಂ ೕ b) ೆಹರು c) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ d) ಮೂ ಾ
-M
:
01
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39. ಾರು ಹು ದ ನವನು ಇಂ ಯ ನವ ಾ ಆಚ ಸ ಾಗು ೆ?

23
H

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a) ಆ ೆ b) ಕ ೋ ೆ ಾ c) ಬು ೆ d) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
20

H
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40. 56 ೇ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಪ ಷತು ಾ ಾಗ ನ ೆ ತು?

-1

a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1986

H
16

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41. ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ ನ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?

H

a) ಗು ೇಶ ರ b) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇ ಾ c) ಾಮ ಾಥ d) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ

-M
H

42 ಹು ಗಂ ಹುತವ ೊಕ ೆ ಏನು ಂಬುದ ಾಬು ೆ?

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a) ಸಪ b) ಆ ೆ c) ಕಮ d) ಮೃತು
H

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43. ಕ ಘನ ಅಂಕುಶ ೆನ ಬಹು ೆ ಾರದಯ ವಚನದ ವಚನ ಾರರು ಾರು?
a ) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ b) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ c) ಆಯ ಾರಯ d) ಬಸವಣ

5
6 :5
:0
44. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣ ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ಏನನು ಬಯ ನು?

H
01
a) ಶ ಯ b) ಕನ ಯ c) ಕಮ ವ d) ರ ಯ

-M
3

H
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45. ಾಯಕ ೇ ೈ ಾಸ ಾದ ಾರಣ ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ ಾ ಾದಡು ------ ೊಳಗು.

-M
a) ಮನಸು -2 b) ಕಮ c) ಾಯಕ d) ಕನ

H
10

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46. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೇನು ಬಲು ೆ ೆದು ಈ ೆ ಾಗುವ ೇ?
6-

a) ಅಮೃತ b) ಅಮದು c) ವ ಥ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ.

H
-1

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U
VT

47. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ ೕತ ೆಯ ೕತ ನ ಾರರು ಾರು?

m
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a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು b) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು c) ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು d) ವ ೕ

6p

H
H

:4

-M
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48. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮೂರು ಾ ೊಂದು ಏನನು ಾರು ಾ ೆ?

31

a) ಕುಡ b) ಗ ೆ c) ಮ ೆ d) ಗು ಾಣ
H

-M
:
01
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H
23
H

49. ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ ಾವ ದು?

-M
-M

a) ಾಮ ಾಥ b) ಠಲ c) ಗು ೇಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ
20

H
H

-M
0-
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50. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮ ೆ ಾಡಲು ಬಳಸುವ ಮಣನು ಶ ೕಫರು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?

-1

a) ನ b) ಮುತು c) ರತ d) ಲವಣ
16

-M
H

*****
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Ver – D - 6 of 6
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 BMATS201

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USN

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

9
Mathematics – II for CSE Stream

5 :3
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:1

H
01
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

-M
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

H
02
Module – 1 M L C

-M
2 2 2
1 1 x 1 x  y

Q.1 a. Evaluate   -2  xyz dz dy dx . 7 L2 CO1

0 0 0

H
09
a a

-M
x
b. Evaluate by changing the order of integration  x 2
dxdy . 7 L3 CO1
 y2
3-

0 y

H
-2

 ( m)  ( n )
Show that m, n   .
-M
c. 6 L2 CO1
(m  n )
U

OR
VT

2 4x 2
m
-M

Q.2 a. Evaluate   (2  x ) dy dx by changing into polar coordinates. 7 L3 CO1

6p
2 0

H
H

b. A pyramid is bounded by three coordinate planes and the plane 7 L3 CO1

:0

x  2 y  3z  6 . Compute the volume by double integration.

-M
-M

31

c. Using Mathematical tools, write the code to find the area of the cardioids 6 L3 CO5
H

r  a (1  cos ) by double integration.

H

-M
:
01
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Module – 2
Q.3 a. Show that the two surfaces xz  y  z 2  9 and z  4  4 xy at (1, -1, 2) are 7 L3 CO2
H
23
H

orthogonal.
-M
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b. If F  grad(xy3z 2 ) , find divF and curlF at the point (1, -1, 1). 7 L2 CO2
20

c. Prove that the cylindrical coordinate system is orthogonal. 6 L3 CO2

H

-M
9-

OR
M

Q.4 a. Find the directional derivative of   x log z  y 2  4 at (-1, 2, 1) in the 7 L2 CO2

-0

direction of the vector 2i  j  2k .

23

-M

b. Find the constants a, b and c such that 7 L2 CO2

F  (axy  z3 )i  (bx 2  z) j  (bxz 2  cy)k
H

is irrotational.
-M

c. Using the Mathematical tools, write the codes to find the gradient of 6 L3 CO5
  xy 2 z3 .
H
-M

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 BMATS201

Module – 3

pm
3
Q.5 a. Let W  {( x , y, z ) | lx  my  nz  0} , then prove that W is a subspace of R . 7 L2 CO3
b. Find the basis and the dimension of the subspace spanned by the vectors 7 L2 CO3

9
{(2, 4, 2),(1, -1, 0),(1, 2, 1),(0, 3, 1)} in V3(R).

:3
c. Prove that T : R 3  R 3 be defined by T(x, y, z) = (2x–3y, x+4, 5z) is not a 6 L3 CO3
linear transformation.

5
:1
OR
 1 7 

H
01
Q.6 a. Show that the matrix E    lies in the sub space span {A, B, C} of 7 L2 CO3
 8  1

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vector space M22 of 2  2 matrices, where

3
1 0 2  3 0 1 

H
02
A  , B  and C   .
 2 1 0 2   2 0

-M
-2
b. Verify the Rank-nullity theorem for the linear transformation T : R 3  R 3 7 L3 CO3
defined by T (x, y, z)  x  2y  z, y  z, x  y  2z  .

H
09

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c. Define an Inner product space. Consider f ( t )  4 t  3 , g(t) = t 2 , the inner 6 L2 CO3
3-

1
product <f, t> =  f (t )g(t )dt . Find <f, g> and g .
H
-2

0
-M
U

Module – 4
Q.7 a. Find the real root of the equation x log10 x  1.2 by the Regula-Falsi method 7 L2 CO4
VT

between 2 and 3. (Carryout three iterations). m

-M

6p
b. From the following table, estimate the number of students who have 7 L2 CO4
obtained the marks between 40 and 45.

H
H

Marks 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80
:0

-M
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Number of students 31 42 51 35 31
31

1.4 th
3
 sin x  log x  e dx
H

x
c. Compute the value of using Simpson’s rule 6 L3 CO4
-M
:

8
01
-M

0 .2
taking six parts.
H

OR
23
H

-M

Q.8 a. Using Newton-Raphson method compute the real root of the equation 7 L2 CO4
-M

x sin x  cos x  0 near x   , correct to four decimal places.

20

b. If y(0) = -12, y(1) = 0, y(3) = 6 and y(4) = 12, find the Lagrange’s 7 L2 CO4
H

interpolation polynomial and estimate y(2).

-M
9-
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3
dx 6 L3 CO4
-0

c. Evaluate  4x  5 using Trapezoidal rule by taking 7 ordinates.

H

0
23

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Module – 5
dy
Q.9 a. Employ Taylor’s series method to obtain y(0.1) for  2 y  3e x , y(0) = 0 7 L2 CO4
H

dx
-M

considering upto 4th degree terms.

b. Using Runge-Kutta method of fourth order, solve y  log10  y  given

H

1  x  7 L3 CO4
-M

y(0) = 1 at x = 0.2
2 of 3
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 BMATS201

pm
dy
c. Solve  2e x  y , y(0) = 2, y(0.1) = 2.010, y(0.2) = 2.040, 6 L2 CO4
dx
y(0.3) = 2.090, find y(0.4) using Milne’s method.

9
:3
OR
dy

5
Q.10 a. Given  x  y , y(0) = 1. Compute y(0.4) with h = 0.2 using Euler’s
dx 7 L2 CO4

:1
modified method. Perform two modifications in each stage.

H
01
b. Apply Milne’s predictor-corrector formulae to compute y(4.5), given that 7 L2 CO4

-M
dy
5x  2  y 2 and

3
dx

H
x 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4

02
y 1.0049 1.0097 1.0143 1.0187

-M
c.
-2
Using modern mathematical tools, write the code to find the solution of 6 L3 CO5

H
dy
09
 x  y 2 at y(0.2). Given that y(0) = 1 by Runge-Kutta 4th order

-M
dx
method. (Take h = 0.2)
3-

*****
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-2

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U
VT

m
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6p

H
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31

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 pm
USN BPHYS102/202

First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July2023

6
Physics for CSE Stream

:5
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

5
:4
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

H
01
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
4. Constants : Speed of Light C = 3 × 108m/s, Boltzmam const. K = 1.38×10-23J/K,
Planck’s const h = 6.625 × 10-34JS, Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8m/s2,

3
mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31Kg

H
02
Module – 1 M L C

-M
Q.1 a. Derive an expression for energy density interms of Einstein’s coefficients 10 L2 CO1
-2
in Laser action.

H
09

-M
b. Explain types of optical fibers. 6 L2 CO1
5-

c. The ratio of population inversion of two energy levels is 1.059 × 10-30. Find 4 L3 CO1
H
-2

the wavelength of Light emitted by spontaneous emissions at 330K.

-M
U

OR
VT

Q.2 a. Derive an expression for Numerical aperture in an optical fiber. 8 L2 CO1

m
-M

9p
b. Discuss construction and working of semiconductor diode Laser with 8 L2 CO1

H
energy level diagram.
H

:5

-M
-M

c. The angle of acceptance of an optical fiber is 30º, when kept in air. Find the 4 L3 CO1
58

angle of acceptance when it is in a medium of refractive index 1.33.

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

Module – 2
Q.3 a. What is wave packet? Give physical significance and properties of wave 8 L2 CO1
H

function? Define group velocity.

23
H

-M
-M

b. State and explain Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Give its physical 8 L2 CO2
20

significance. Show that electron cannot exist inside the nucleus.

H
H

-M
9-

A particle of mass 0.5meV/c2 has kinetic energy 100eV. Find its de Broglie 4
M

c. L3 CO2
wavelength, where ‘C’ is the velocity of light.
-0

H
25

-M

OR
Q.4 a. Derive an expression for Schrödinger’s Time independent equation one 8 L2 CO2
dimensional form.
H
-M

b. Obtain the expression for energy eigen values using Schrodinger’s time 8 L2 CO2
independent equation.
H

c. In a measurement of position and velocity of an electron moving with a 4 L3 CO2

-M

speed of 6 × 105 m/s, calculate highest accuracy with which its position
could be determined, if the inherent error in the measurement of its velocity
H

is 0.01% for the speed stated.

-M

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 BPHYS102/202

Module – 3

pm
Q.5 a. Explain single qubit gate and multiple qubit gate with example for each. 8 L2 CO2

6
b. Discuss CNOT gate and its operation on four different input states. 8 L2 CO2

:5
0  i 4 L3 CO2
c. Given A =   prove that A+ = A.

5
i 0 

:4
OR

H
01
Q.6 a. Elucidate the differences between classical computing and Quantum 8 L2 CO2

-M
computing.

3
b. Discuss the working of phase gate mentioning its matrix representation and 8 L2 CO2

H
02
truth table.

-M
c. -2
Find the inner product of states 11 and 10 and draw conclusionon the 4 L3 CO2
result.

H
09

-M
Module – 4
5-

Q.7 a. Distinguish between Type – I and Type – II super conductors. 8 L2 CO3

H
-2

b. Discuss the effect of temperature and impurity on electrical resistivity of 8 L2 CO3

-M
conductors and hence explain for superconductors.
U

c. In a diffraction grating experiment the laser light undergoes second order 4 L3 CO5
VT

diffraction, if the distance between screen and grating is 20cm, and average
m
-M

distance of 2nd order spot 2.7cm grating constant 1 × 10-5 m, calculate the
9p
wavelength of laser light.

H
H

OR
:5

-M
-M

Q.8 a. Explain B.C.S theory of superconductivity. 7 L2 CO1

58

b. Define Fermi energy level. Discuss various energy states by the electrons at 8 L2 CO1
H

-M
:

T = O K and T > O K on the basis of fermifactor.

01
-M

c. Calculate the acceptance angle and numerical aperture of given optical fiber 5 L2 CO1
H

having diameter of spot is 2.6cm and distance between screen and optical
23
H

-M

fiber 3.0cm.
-M

20

Module – 5
H

Q.9 a. Elucidate the importance of size and scale and weight and strength in 8 L2 CO4
H

-M
9-

animations.
M

b. Discuss modeling probability of proton decay. 8 L2 CO4

-0

c. The number of particles emitted per second by a random radioactive source 4 L3 CO4
25

-M

has a Poisson’s distribution with  = 4. Calculate the probability of

P(X = 0) and P(X = 1)
H

OR
-M

Q.10 a. Discuss timing in Linear motion, uniform motion, show in and flow out. 8 L2 CO4
H

b. Discuss salient features of Normal distribution using Bell curves. 8 L2 CO4

-M

c. A slowing in object in an animation has a first frame distance 0.5m and first 4 L3 CO4
slow in frame 0.35m. Calculate the base distance and the number of frames
H

in sequence.
-M

*****
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 BPLCK205B/BPLCKB205

pm
USN

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

9
Introduction to Python Programming

1 :1
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:1
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

H
01

-M
Module – 1 M L C
Q.1 a. Demonstrate with example print ( ), input ( ) and string replication. 6 L3 CO1

H
02
b. Develop a program to generate Fibonacci square of length (N). Read N 6 L3 CO1

-M
from the console. -2

H
c. Explain elif, for , while , break and continue statements in python with 8 L2 CO1
10
examples for each.

-M
9-

OR
Q.2 H
a. What are user defined functions? How can we pass parameters in user 5 L1 CO1
-0

-M
defined functions? Explain with suitable example.
U

b. Explain Local and Global scope with variables for each. 8 L2 CO1
VT

m
-M

c. Develop a program to read the name and year of birth of a person. Print 7 L3 CO1
0p
whether the person is a senior citizen or not.

H
H

:1

Module – 2 -M
-M

Q.3 a. What is a List? Explain append ( ) , insert ( ) and remove ( ) methods with 8 L2 CO2
34

examples.
H
H

-M
:

b. Explain the following methods with example : 12 L2 CO2

01
-M

i) keys ( ) ii) values ( ) iii) items ( ) in a dictionary.

H
23
H

OR
-M

Q.4 a. How is tuple different from a list and which function is used to convert list 6 L2 CO2
-M

to tuple? Explain.
20

H
H

b. List the merits of dictionary over list. 4 L1 CO2

-M
0-
M

Read N numbers from the console and create a list. Develop a program to 10 L3
-1

c. CO2
H

compute and print mean , variance and standard deviation with messages.
09

-M

Module – 3
Q.5 a. Explain the following methods with suitable examples : 8 L2 CO3
H

i) upper ( ) ii) lower ( ) iii) is_upper ( ) iv) is_lower ( )

-M

b. Illustrate with example opening of a file with open ( ) function, reading the 12 L2 CO3
contents of the file with read ( ) and writing to files with write ( ).
H
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 BPLCK205B/BPLCKB205

pm
OR

9
Q.6 a. Explain the steps involved in adding bullets to Wiki – Markup. Support 10 L2 CO3

:1
with appropriate code.

1
b. Develop a program to sort the contents of a text file and write the sorted 10 L3 CO3

:1
contents into a separate text file. [Use strip ( ) , len ( ) , list methods sort ( ) ,

H
01
append and file methods open ( ) , readlines ( ) and write ( )].

-M
Module – 4

3
Q.7 a. How do you copy files and folders using Shutil module? Explain in detail. 6 L2 CO3

H
02

-M
b. What are Assertions? Write the contents of an assert statement. Explain 8 L2 CO3
them with examples.-2

H
10
c. Illustrate the logging levels in python. 6 L2 CO3

-M
9-

OR
Q.8 a. With suitable code, explain Backing up a Folder into a Zip file. Clearly 12 L2 CO3
H
-0

mention the steps involved.

-M
U

b. Explain the logging module and debug the factorial of number program. 8 L3 CO3
VT

Module – 5 m
-M

a. What is a Class? How to define class in Python? How to initiate a class and
0p
Q.9 8 L2 CO4
how the class members are accessed?

H
H

:1

-M
-M

b. Define Pure function. Illustrate with an example Python program. 8 L3 CO4

34

c. Explain Printing objects. 4 L1 CO4

H

-M
:
01
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OR
Q.10 a. What is Polymorphism? Demonstrate polymorphism with functions to find 10 L3 CO4
H

histogram to count the numbers of times each letters appears in a word and
23
H

-M

in sentence.
-M

20

b. Write Deck methods to add, remove shuffle and sort cards, with illustrating 10 L2 CO4
H

the problem.
H

-M
0-
M

-1

H
09

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H

*****
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 pm
USN BPOPS103/203

First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:0
Principles of Programming Using C

0
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. Define Computer. Describe the characteristics of computer in detail. 10 L2 CO1

H
02
b. Explain various Input devices. 10 L2 CO1

-M
-2 OR

H
a. Explain the following programming paradigms.
09
Q.2 10 L2 CO2

-M
i) Procedural Programming
ii) Structured Programming
0-

iii) Object Oriented Programming.

H
-3

b. Explain printf( ) and scanf( ) functions with their syntax. 10 L2 CO2

-M
Give the illustrative examples.
U
VT

Module – 2
m
a. Explain any five types of operators in C language with the illustrative 10 L2
-M

Q.3 CO2
6p
examples.

H
b. Write a C program to find the roots of quadratic equation by accepting the 10 L3 CO2
H

:3

coefficients. Print appropriate messages. -M

-M

32

OR
H

Q.4 a. What are iterative statements? Explain three types of iterative statements 10 L2 CO2
H

-M
:

with their syntax.

01
-M

b. Write a program to print the following pattern. 10 L3 CO2

H

1
23
H

-M

1 2
-M

1 2 3
20

1 2 3 4
H
H

-M
9-
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Module – 3
H

Q.5 a. Explain the syntax of function declaration and function definition with 06 L2 CO2,
30

-M

example. CO5
b. Write a C program to swap two numbers using call by reference method. 06 L3 CO2,
CO5
H

c. Describe different types of storage classes with examples. 08 L2 CO2

-M

OR
H

Q.6 a. What is an array? Explain how arrays are declared and initialized with 08 L2 CO3
-M

example.
b. Write a C program to transpose a 33 matrix. 08 L3 CO3
c. List applications of arrays. 04 L3 CO3
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 BPOPS103/203

pm
Module – 4
Q.7 a. Write a C program to convert characters of a string into upper case without 10 L3 CO3
using built-in function.

0
b. Discuss the working of the following string manipulation functions with 10 L2

:0
CO3
suitable examples.

0
i) strcmp

:2
ii) strlen
iii) strcpy

H
01
iv) strcat

-M
v) strcmp

H
02
OR

-M
Q.8 a. Define Pointer. Explain the declaration of a pointer variable with an 05 L2 CO2,
example. -2 CO4
b. Mention the applications of pointers. 05 L2 CO4

H
09
c. Develop a C program to compute the sum, mean and standard deviation of 10 L3 CO3,

-M
all elements of an array using pointers. CO4
0-

H
Module – 5
-3

-M
Q.9 a. What is structure? Explain the declaration of a structure with an example. 06 L2 CO4
U

b. Differentiate between Structures and Unions. 06 L3 CO4

c. Develop a C program to read and display the information of all the students 08 L3
VT

CO4
H

in the class. m
-M

6p
OR

H
H

Q.10 a. Define Enumerated datatype. Explain the declaration and access of 06 L2 CO2
:3

-M
-M

enumerated datatypes with a code in C.

32

b. Explain the process of opening a file in C. 06 L2 CO2

H

c. Write a C program to demonstrate fwrite( ) function. 08 L3 CO2

H

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:
01
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*****
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BPWSK106/206

9
Question Paper Version : A
USN

:1
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

6
Professional Writing Skills in English

:0

H
01
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

-M
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
02

-M
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
2.
-2
Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
10
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

-M
3-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

H
-1

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
-M
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

VT

prohibited.
m
-M

Fill in the blank with proper phrasal verb from Q1 to Q5.

0p

H
H

1. Would you _____ my dog for me this weekend?

:5

a) look b) lookafter c) lookup

-M
d) look on
-M

31

2. My neighbour _____ eggs yesterday.

H
H

a) ran b) ran out of c) ran into d) ran in

-M
:
01
-M

3. John ______ his leg at the baseball game.

a) broke b) broke down c) broke off d) broke on
H
23
H

-M
-M

4. Our boss ______ our meeting until next week.

20

a) put b) put off c) put down d) put on

H
H

5. Could you ______ the music while I am on the phone?

-M
0-
M

a) turn b) turn off c) turn around d) turn in

-1

6. Find the proper noun in the sentence :

13

‘Riya took the dog to the park.’

-M

a) Riya b) Dog c) Park d) All of these

H

7. Find the common noun in :

-M

‘The girl arrived in the state last week.’

a) girl b) state c) week d) All three
H

8. Find abstract noun in :

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‘The Theatre was engulfed in darkness.’

a) Theatre b) darkness c) engulfed d) None of these
H
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Ver A – 1 of 5
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 pm
BPWSK106/206
9. What is the emphatic form of pronoun ‘I’?

9
a) I b) Me c) Mine d) Myself

:1
10. What is the subjective form of pronoun ‘He’?

6
a) He b) His c) Him d) Himself

:0

H
01
11. What is the objective form of pronoun ‘She’?

-M
a) Hers b) Herself c) Her d) She

3
12. What is the reflexive form of pronoun ‘They’?

H
02
a) Themselves b) Their c) They d) Them

-M
13. What is the possessive form of the pronoun ‘Who’?
-2
a) Who b) Whom c) Whose d) Which

H
10

-M
14. Rahul is an intelligent boy. Here the adjective is ______
a) Rahul b) intelligent c) boy d) None of these
3-

H
15. Sahil keenly examined the ball. Here the adverb is ______
-1

-M
a) Sahil b) keenly c) the ball d) examined
U

16. Punctilious (Choose the word with closest meaning)

VT

a) Meticulous b) Casual c) Final

m d) None of these
-M

0p
17. Opulence (What is the closest meaning?).

H
a) Poverty b) Penury c) Affluence d) Indigence
H

:5

-M
-M

18. Momentus (Tick the word having closest meaning.)

31

a) Mesmerising b) Stormy c) Memorable d) Magnificent

H
H

-M
:

Fill in the blank with proper verb form (Q.No.19 to Q.No.23)

01
-M

19. She has _____ the highest marks in Mathematics.

H

a) score b) scored c) scoring d) None of these

23
H

-M
-M

20. The phone ______ for last two minutes.

20

a) is ringing b) rings c) has been ringing d) rang

H
H

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0-

21. Did you ______ that your gold chain was missing.
M

a) notice b) noticed c) noticing d) notices

-1

22. I rarely ______ junk food.

13

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a) eats b) eat c) eating d) eaten

23. I _____ upstairs and called my grandfather.

H

a) goes b) going c) went d) go

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Choose the right preposition. (Q.No.24 to Q.No.28)

H

24. Do not boast _____ your Health.

-M

a) of b) in c) for d) about

25. The Lame man lives ______ begging.

H

a) with b) from c) by d) on
-M

Ver A – 2 of 5
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BPWSK106/206

9
26. I warned him _____ driving so fast.

:1
a) for b) on c) against d) of

6
27. A greedy man hankers _____ money.

:0
a) after b) for c) in d) of

H
01
28. Virtue consists ______ speaking the truth.

-M
a) on b) in c) of d) for

H
02
Choose the sentence with the modifier in the correct place. (Q.No.29 to Q.No.32)

-M
29. a) The clerk sold the scarf with the red print to the woman.
-2
b) The clerk with red print scarf sold to woman.

H
10
c) The scarf with woman sold to clerk.

-M
d) The clerk sold the scarf to the woman with the red print.
3-

30. a) On the way to school, Marissa found a green woman’s purse.

H
-1

b) On the way to school Marissa found a woman’s green purse.

-M
c) Marissa found a green woman’s purse on the way to school.
U

d) On the way to school found Marissa a woman’s green purse.

VT

31. a) Just Adam was picked for the team. m

-M

b) Adam was just picked for the team.

0p
c) Team was picked for Adam just.

H
d) Just team was picked for Adam.
H

:5

-M
-M

32. a) Mary ate a bowl of cold cereal for breakfast.

31

b) Mary ate a cold bowl of cereal for breakfast.

H
H

c) A cold bowl of cereal Mary ate for breakfast.

-M
:

d) Mary for breakfast ate a cold bowl of cereal.

01
-M

Tick the appropriate Active / Passive form of the sentence. (Q.No.33 to Q.No.37)
H
23
H

-M
-M

33. We waste much time on trifles.

20

a) Much time was wasted on trifles.

H

b) Much time will be wasted on trifles.

H

c) Much time is wasted by us on trifles.

-M
0-
M

d) Much time is wasted on trifles.

-1

34. You don’t need to wind this watch.

13

-M

a) This watch need not be wound.

b) This watch does not wind.
c) This watch need not to be wounded.
H

d) This watch need not be winded up.

-M

35. We have already done the exercise.

a) Already the exercise has been done by us.
H

b) The exercise has already been done by us.

-M

c) The exercise had been already done by us.

d) The exercise is already done by us.
H
-M

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36. One should not give unsolicited advice.

:1
a) Unsolicited advice is not to be given
b) Unsolicited advice can’t be given

6
c) Unsolicited advice should not be given

:0
d) Unsolicited advice may not be given

H
01

-M
37. The boys elected Mohan Captain.
a) The boys were elected captain by Mohan.

3
b) Mohan is elected captain by the boys.

H
02
c) Mohan was elected captain by the boys.

-M
d) Mohan and the boys elected the captain.
-2
Tick the correct indirect form of the sentence given. (Q.No.38 to Q.No.40)

H
10

-M
38. “I am going to search the house” said the officer.
3-

a) The officer said that he is going to search the house.

b) The officer said that he was going to search the house.
H
-1

c) The officer said that I am going to search the house.

-M
d) None of these
U
VT

39. “Don’t Smoke”, she told me.

H

a) She told me that not smoke. m

b) She told me not to smoke.
-M

c) She told me to smoke. d) She told me Do not smoke.

0p

H
H

40. “She’s never been here before”, He said.

:5

a) He said that he has never been there before.

-M
-M

b) He said that she had never been there before.

31

c) She said that he had never been there before.

H
H

d) He said that she had never been here before.

-M
:
01
-M

Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other
H

followed by four pairs of related words, select the pair which has the same
23
H

-M

relationship. (Q.No.41 to 43)

-M

20

41. DIVA : OPERA

H

a) Producer : Theatre b) Director : Drama

H

-M
0-

c) Conductor : Bus d) Thespian : Play

M

-1

42. PAIN : SEDATIVE

H

a) Comfort : Stimulant b) Grief : Consolation

13

-M

c) Trance : Narcotic d) Ache : Extraction

43. LIGHT : BLIND

H

a) Speech : Dumb b) Language : Deaf

-M

c) Tongue : Sound d) All of these

44. What are the good qualities of the precise writing?

H

a) clarity and completeness b) correctness and conciseness

-M

c) objectivity and coherence d) All of these

H

Ver A – 4 of 5
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45. What kind of words are not suitable in a precis?

9
a) Suggested, advised and questioned b) Requested, honoured and awarded

:1
c) Plz, bcoz, bt, etc. d) None of these

6
46. Which of the following protocols is used to receive email?

:0
a) SMTP b) HTTP c) FTP d) POP3

H
01

-M
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to writing emails?
a) We can not add more than one address in the ‘To’ field

3
b) We can leave the ‘BCC’ field blank

H
02
c) We can leave the ‘CC’ field blank

-M
d) The ‘To’ and ‘CC’ fields are often used interchangeably
-2
48. What are the types of paragraph writing?

H
10
a) Narrative, Persuative b) descriptive

-M
c) Expository d) All of above.
3-

49. A paragraph is a group of sentences that talk about

H
-1

a) one topic b) two topic

-M
c) multiple topic d) Both a and c
U
VT

50. Your Resume is a tool with one specific purpose :

H

a) To get a job m
b) To win an interview
-M

c) To discuss salary d) To know about work

0p

H
*****
H

:5

-M
-M

31

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

-M
-M

20

H
H

-M
0-
M

-1

H
13

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H

Ver A – 5 of 5
-M
H
M
M M
H H
-M -M
H H
VT
-M 13 -M U
H -1 H
-1
-M 0- -M
3-
10
H 20 H -2
-M 23 -M 02
H 01 H 3
-M : -M 01
H 31 H :0
-M :5 -M 6
H 0p H :1
-M m -M 9 pm
H H
-M -M
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Question Paper Version : B
USN

:1
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

6
Professional Writing Skills in English

:0

H
01
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

-M
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
02

-M
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
2.
-2
Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

H
10
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

-M
3-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

H
-1

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
-M
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

VT

prohibited.
m
-M

1. What are the good qualities of the precise writing?

0p
a) clarity and completeness b) correctness and conciseness

H
H

c) objectivity and coherence d) All of these

:5

-M
-M

2. What kind of words are not suitable in a precis?

31

a) Suggested, advised and questioned b) Requested, honoured and awarded

H
H

c) Plz, bcoz, bt, etc. d) None of these

-M
:
01
-M

3. Which of the following protocols is used to receive email?

a) SMTP b) HTTP c) FTP d) POP3
H
23
H

-M

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to writing emails?

-M

4.
a) We can not add more than one address in the ‘To’ field
20

b) We can leave the ‘BCC’ field blank

H

c) We can leave the ‘CC’ field blank

-M
0-
M

d) The ‘To’ and ‘CC’ fields are often used interchangeably

-1

5. What are the types of paragraph writing?

13

-M

a) Narrative, Persuative b) descriptive

c) Expository d) All of above.
H

6. A paragraph is a group of sentences that talk about

-M

a) one topic b) two topic

c) multiple topic d) Both a and c
H

7. Your Resume is a tool with one specific purpose :

-M

a) To get a job b) To win an interview

c) To discuss salary d) To know about work
H
-M

Ver B – 1 of 5
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Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other

:1
followed by four pairs of related words, select the pair which has the same
relationship. (Q.No.8 to 10)

6
:0
8. DIVA : OPERA

H
01
a) Producer : Theatre b) Director : Drama

-M
c) Conductor : Bus d) Thespian : Play

3
9. PAIN : SEDATIVE

H
02
a) Comfort : Stimulant b) Grief : Consolation

-M
c) Trance : Narcotic d) Ache : Extraction
-2
10. LIGHT : BLIND

H
10
a) Speech : Dumb b) Language : Deaf

-M
c) Tongue : Sound d) All of these
3-

Tick the correct indirect form of the sentence given. (Q.No.11 to Q.No.13)
H
-1

-M
11. “I am going to search the house” said the officer.
U

a) The officer said that he is going to search the house.

VT

b) The officer said that he was going to search the house.

H

c) The officer said that I am going to search the house.m

-M

d) None of these
0p

H
H

12. “Don’t Smoke”, she told me.

:5

a) She told me that not smoke.

-M
b) She told me not to smoke.
-M

c) She told me to smoke. d) She told me Do not smoke.

31

H
H

13. “She’s never been here before”, He said.

-M
:
01
-M

a) He said that he has never been there before.

b) He said that she had never been there before.
H

c) She said that he had never been there before.

23
H

d) He said that she had never been here before.

-M
-M

20

Tick the appropriate Active / Passive form of the sentence. (Q.No.14 to Q.No.18)
H
H

-M
0-

14. We waste much time on trifles.

M

a) Much time was wasted on trifles.

-1

b) Much time will be wasted on trifles.

H

c) Much time is wasted by us on trifles.

13

-M

d) Much time is wasted on trifles.

15. You don’t need to wind this watch.

H

a) This watch need not be wound.

-M

b) This watch does not wind.

c) This watch need not to be wounded.
d) This watch need not be winded up.
H
-M
H

Ver B – 2 of 5
-M
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16. We have already done the exercise.

:1
a) Already the exercise has been done by us.
b) The exercise has already been done by us.

6
c) The exercise had been already done by us.

:0
d) The exercise is already done by us.

H
01

-M
17. One should not give unsolicited advice.
a) Unsolicited advice is not to be given

3
b) Unsolicited advice can’t be given

H
02
c) Unsolicited advice should not be given

-M
d) Unsolicited advice may not be given
-2
18. The boys elected Mohan Captain.

H
10
a) The boys were elected captain by Mohan.

-M
b) Mohan is elected captain by the boys.
3-

c) Mohan was elected captain by the boys.

d) Mohan and the boys elected the captain.
H
-1

-M
Choose the right preposition. (Q.No.19 to Q.No.23)
U
VT

19. Do not boast _____ your Health.

H

a) of b) in c) for m d) about
-M

0p
20. The Lame man lives ______ begging.

H
H

a) with b) from c) by d) on
:5

-M
-M

21. I warned him _____ driving so fast.

31

a) for b) on c) against d) of
H
H

-M
:

22. A greedy man hankers _____ money.

01
-M

a) after b) for c) in d) of
H
23
H

23. Virtue consists ______ speaking the truth.

-M
-M

a) on b) in c) of d) for
20

Choose the sentence with the modifier in the correct place. (Q.No.24 to Q.No.27)
H
H

-M
0-
M

24. a) The clerk sold the scarf with the red print to the woman.
b) The clerk with red print scarf sold to woman.
-1

c) The scarf with woman sold to clerk.

13

-M

d) The clerk sold the scarf to the woman with the red print.

25. a) On the way to school, Marissa found a green woman’s purse.

H

b) On the way to school Marissa found a woman’s green purse.

-M

c) Marissa found a green woman’s purse on the way to school.

d) On the way to school found Marissa a woman’s green purse.
H

26. a) Just Adam was picked for the team.

-M

b) Adam was just picked for the team.

c) Team was picked for Adam just.
d) Just team was picked for Adam.
H
-M

Ver B – 3 of 5
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:1
27. a) Mary ate a bowl of cold cereal for breakfast.
b) Mary ate a cold bowl of cereal for breakfast.

6
c) A cold bowl of cereal Mary ate for breakfast.

:0
d) Mary for breakfast ate a cold bowl of cereal.

H
01
Fill in the blank with proper verb form (Q.No.28 to Q.No.32)

-M
3
28. She has _____ the highest marks in Mathematics.

H
02
a) score b) scored c) scoring d) None of these

-M
29. The phone ______ for last two minutes.
-2
a) is ringing b) rings c) has been ringing d) rang

H
10

-M
30. Did you ______ that your gold chain was missing.
a) notice b) noticed c) noticing d) notices
3-

31. I rarely ______ junk food. H

-1

-M
a) eats b) eat c) eating d) eaten
U

32. I _____ upstairs and called my grandfather.

VT

a) goes b) going c) went

m d) go
-M

0p
33. Find the proper noun in the sentence :

H
‘Riya took the dog to the park.’
H

:5

a) Riya b) Dog c) Park -M

d) All of these
-M

31

34. Find the common noun in :

H

‘The girl arrived in the state last week.’

H

-M
:

a) girl b) state c) week d) All three

01
-M

35. Find abstract noun in :

H

‘The Theatre was engulfed in darkness.’

23
H

-M

a) Theatre b) darkness c) engulfed d) None of these

-M

20

36. What is the emphatic form of pronoun ‘I’?

H

a) I b) Me c) Mine d) Myself
H

-M
0-
M

37. What is the subjective form of pronoun ‘He’?

-1

a) He b) His c) Him d) Himself

H
13

-M

38. What is the objective form of pronoun ‘She’?

a) Hers b) Herself c) Her d) She
H

39. What is the reflexive form of pronoun ‘They’?

-M

a) Themselves b) Their c) They d) Them

40. What is the possessive form of the pronoun ‘Who’?

H

a) Who b) Whom c) Whose d) Which

-M

41. Rahul is an intelligent boy. Here the adjective is ______

a) Rahul b) intelligent c) boy d) None of these
H
-M

Ver B – 4 of 5
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:1
42. Sahil keenly examined the ball. Here the adverb is ______
a) Sahil b) keenly c) the ball d) examined

6
:0
43. Punctilious (Choose the word with closest meaning)
a) Meticulous b) Casual c) Final d) None of these

H
01

-M
44. Opulence (What is the closest meaning?).

3
a) Poverty b) Penury c) Affluence d) Indigence

H
02
45. Momentus (Tick the word having closest meaning.)

-M
a) Mesmerising b) Stormy
-2 c) Memorable d) Magnificent

H
Fill in the blank with proper phrasal verb from Q46 to Q50.
10

-M
46. Would you _____ my dog for me this weekend?
3-

a) look b) lookafter c) lookup d) look on

H
-1

-M
47. My neighbour _____ eggs yesterday.
U

a) ran b) ran out of c) ran into d) ran in

VT

48. John ______ his leg at the baseball game.

m
-M

a) broke b) broke down c) broke off d) broke on

0p

H
49. Our boss ______ our meeting until next week.
H

a) put b) put off c) put down d) put on

:5

-M
-M

31

50. Could you ______ the music while I am on the phone?

H

a) turn b) turn off c) turn around d) turn in

H

-M
:
01
-M

*****
H
23
H

-M
-M

20

H
H

-M
0-
M

-1

H
13

-M
H
-M
H
-M

Ver B – 5 of 5
H
-M
H
M
M M
H H
-M -M
H H
VT
-M 13 -M U
H -1 H
-1
-M 0- -M
3-
10
H 20 H -2
-M 23 -M 02
H 01 H 3
-M : -M 01
H 31 H :0
-M :5 -M 6
H 0p H :1
-M m -M 9 pm
H H
-M -M
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Question Paper Version : C

:1
USN

6
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:0
Professional Writing Skills in English

H
01

-M
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

3
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
02

-M
1. -2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.
10

-M
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
3-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

H
-1

-M
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

VT

prohibited. m
-M

0p
1. Find the proper noun in the sentence :

H
‘Riya took the dog to the park.’
H

:5

a) Riya b) Dog c) Park -M d) All of these

-M

31

2. Find the common noun in :

H
H

‘The girl arrived in the state last week.’

-M
:

a) girl b) state c) week d) All three

01
-M

3. Find abstract noun in :

H
23
H

‘The Theatre was engulfed in darkness.’

-M

a) Theatre b) darkness c) engulfed d) None of these

-M

20

4. What is the emphatic form of pronoun ‘I’?

H
H

a) I b) Me c) Mine d) Myself
-M
0-
M

5. What is the subjective form of pronoun ‘He’?

-1

a) He b) His c) Him d) Himself

H
13

-M

6. What is the objective form of pronoun ‘She’?

a) Hers b) Herself c) Her d) She
H

7. What is the reflexive form of pronoun ‘They’?

-M

a) Themselves b) Their c) They d) Them

H

8. What is the possessive form of the pronoun ‘Who’?

a) Who b) Whom c) Whose d) Which
-M
H

Ver C – 1 of 5
-M
H
M
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9. Rahul is an intelligent boy. Here the adjective is ______

9
a) Rahul b) intelligent c) boy d) None of these

:1
10. Sahil keenly examined the ball. Here the adverb is ______

6
a) Sahil b) keenly c) the ball d) examined

:0

H
01
11. Punctilious (Choose the word with closest meaning)

-M
a) Meticulous b) Casual c) Final d) None of these

3
12. Opulence (What is the closest meaning?).

H
02
a) Poverty b) Penury c) Affluence d) Indigence

-M
13. Momentus (Tick the word having closest meaning.)
-2
a) Mesmerising b) Stormy c) Memorable d) Magnificent

H
10

-M
Choose the right preposition. (Q.No.14 to Q.No.18)
3-

14. Do not boast _____ your Health.

H
-1

a) of b) in c) for d) about
-M
U

15. The Lame man lives ______ begging.

a) with b) from c) by d) on
VT

m
-M

16. I warned him _____ driving so fast.

0p
a) for b) on c) against d) of

H
H

:5

17. A greedy man hankers _____ money. -M

-M

a) after b) for c) in d) of
31

18. Virtue consists ______ speaking the truth.

H

-M
:

a) on b) in c) of d) for
01
-M

Tick the appropriate Active / Passive form of the sentence. (Q.No.19 to Q.No.23)
H
23
H

-M

19. We waste much time on trifles.

-M

a) Much time was wasted on trifles.

20

b) Much time will be wasted on trifles.

H
H

c) Much time is wasted by us on trifles.

-M
0-

d) Much time is wasted on trifles.

M

-1

20. You don’t need to wind this watch.

H

a) This watch need not be wound.

13

-M

b) This watch does not wind.

c) This watch need not to be wounded.
H

d) This watch need not be winded up.

-M

21. We have already done the exercise.

a) Already the exercise has been done by us.
H

b) The exercise has already been done by us.

-M

c) The exercise had been already done by us.

d) The exercise is already done by us.
H
-M

Ver C – 2 of 5
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22. One should not give unsolicited advice.

9
a) Unsolicited advice is not to be given

:1
b) Unsolicited advice can’t be given

6
c) Unsolicited advice should not be given

:0
d) Unsolicited advice may not be given

H
01
23. The boys elected Mohan Captain.

-M
a) The boys were elected captain by Mohan.
b) Mohan is elected captain by the boys.

3
c) Mohan was elected captain by the boys.

H
02
d) Mohan and the boys elected the captain.

-M
-2
Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other
followed by four pairs of related words, select the pair which has the same

H
10
relationship. (Q.No.24 to 26)

-M
3-

24. DIVA : OPERA

a) Producer : Theatre b) Director : Drama
H
-1

c) Conductor : Bus d) Thespian : Play

-M
U

25. PAIN : SEDATIVE

VT

a) Comfort : Stimulant b) Grief : Consolation

m
-M

c) Trance : Narcotic d) Ache : Extraction

0p
26. LIGHT : BLIND

H
H

a) Speech : Dumb b) Language : Deaf

:5

-M
-M

c) Tongue : Sound d) All of these

31

Fill in the blank with proper phrasal verb from Q27 to Q31.
H

-M
:
01
-M

27. Would you _____ my dog for me this weekend?

a) look b) lookafter c) lookup d) look on
H
23
H

28. My neighbour _____ eggs yesterday.

-M
-M

a) ran b) ran out of c) ran into d) ran in

20

29. John ______ his leg at the baseball game.

H

-M
0-

a) broke b) broke down c) broke off d) broke on

M

-1

30. Our boss ______ our meeting until next week.

H

a) put b) put off c) put down d) put on

13

-M

31. Could you ______ the music while I am on the phone?

a) turn b) turn off c) turn around d) turn in
H
-M

Fill in the blank with proper verb form (Q.No.32 to Q.No.36)

32. She has _____ the highest marks in Mathematics.

H

a) score b) scored c) scoring d) None of these

-M

33. The phone ______ for last two minutes.

a) is ringing b) rings c) has been ringing d) rang
H
-M

Ver C – 3 of 5
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9
34. Did you ______ that your gold chain was missing.

:1
a) notice b) noticed c) noticing d) notices

6
35. I rarely ______ junk food.

:0
a) eats b) eat c) eating d) eaten

H
01
36. I _____ upstairs and called my grandfather.

-M
a) goes b) going c) went d) go

H
02
Choose the sentence with the modifier in the correct place. (Q.No.37 to Q.No.40)

-M
37. a) The clerk sold the scarf with the red print to the woman.
-2
b) The clerk with red print scarf sold to woman.

H
10
c) The scarf with woman sold to clerk.

-M
d) The clerk sold the scarf to the woman with the red print.
3-

38. a) On the way to school, Marissa found a green woman’s purse.

H
-1

b) On the way to school Marissa found a woman’s green purse.

-M
c) Marissa found a green woman’s purse on the way to school.
U

d) On the way to school found Marissa a woman’s green purse.

VT

39. a) Just Adam was picked for the team. m

-M

b) Adam was just picked for the team.

0p
c) Team was picked for Adam just.

H
d) Just team was picked for Adam.
H

:5

-M
-M

40. a) Mary ate a bowl of cold cereal for breakfast.

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b) Mary ate a cold bowl of cereal for breakfast.

H
H

c) A cold bowl of cereal Mary ate for breakfast.

-M
:

d) Mary for breakfast ate a cold bowl of cereal.

01
-M

41. What are the good qualities of the precise writing?

H
23
H

a) clarity and completeness b) correctness and conciseness

-M
-M

c) objectivity and coherence d) All of these

20

42. What kind of words are not suitable in a precis?

H
H

a) Suggested, advised and questioned b) Requested, honoured and awarded

-M
0-
M

c) Plz, bcoz, bt, etc. d) None of these

-1

43. Which of the following protocols is used to receive email?

13

a) SMTP b) HTTP c) FTP d) POP3

-M

44. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to writing emails?
H

a) We can not add more than one address in the ‘To’ field
-M

b) We can leave the ‘BCC’ field blank

c) We can leave the ‘CC’ field blank
d) The ‘To’ and ‘CC’ fields are often used interchangeably
H
-M

45. What are the types of paragraph writing?

a) Narrative, Persuative b) descriptive
c) Expository d) All of above.
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46. A paragraph is a group of sentences that talk about
a) one topic b) two topic

6
c) multiple topic d) Both a and c

:0
47. Your Resume is a tool with one specific purpose :

H
01
a) To get a job b) To win an interview

-M
c) To discuss salary d) To know about work

H
02
Tick the correct indirect form of the sentence given. (Q.No.48 to Q.No.50)

-M
48. “I am going to search the house” said the officer.
-2
a) The officer said that he is going to search the house.

H
10
b) The officer said that he was going to search the house.

-M
c) The officer said that I am going to search the house.
3-

d) None of these

H
-1

49. “Don’t Smoke”, she told me.

-M
a) She told me that not smoke. b) She told me not to smoke.
U

c) She told me to smoke. d) She told me Do not smoke.

VT

50. “She’s never been here before”, He said. m

-M

a) He said that he has never been there before.

0p
b) He said that she had never been there before.

H
c) She said that he had never been there before.
H

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d) He said that she had never been here before. -M

-M

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*****
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Question Paper Version : D

:1
USN

6
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:0
Professional Writing Skills in English

H
01

-M
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

3
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

H
02

-M
1. -2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.
10

-M
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
3-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

H
-1

-M
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

VT

prohibited. m
-M

0p
Choose the right preposition. (Q.No.1 to Q.No.5)

H
H

:5

1. Do not boast _____ your Health. -M

-M

a) of b) in c) for d) about
31

H
H

2. The Lame man lives ______ begging.

-M
:

a) with b) from c) by d) on
01
-M

3. I warned him _____ driving so fast.

H
23
H

a) for b) on c) against d) of
-M
-M

4. A greedy man hankers _____ money.

20

a) after b) for c) in d) of
H
H

-M
0-

5. Virtue consists ______ speaking the truth.

M

a) on b) in c) of d) for
-1

Tick the correct indirect form of the sentence given. (Q.No.6 to Q.No.8)
13

-M

6. “I am going to search the house” said the officer.

H

a) The officer said that he is going to search the house.

b) The officer said that he was going to search the house.
-M

c) The officer said that I am going to search the house.

d) None of these
H
-M

7. “Don’t Smoke”, she told me.

a) She told me that not smoke. b) She told me not to smoke.
c) She told me to smoke. d) She told me Do not smoke.
H
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8. “She’s never been here before”, He said.

9
a) He said that he has never been there before.

:1
b) He said that she had never been there before.

6
c) She said that he had never been there before.

:0
d) He said that she had never been here before.

H
01
9. Find the proper noun in the sentence :

-M
‘Riya took the dog to the park.’
a) Riya b) Dog c) Park d) All of these

H
02
10. Find the common noun in :

-M
‘The girl arrived in the state last week.’
a) girl -2 b) state c) week d) All three

H
10
11. Find abstract noun in :

-M
‘The Theatre was engulfed in darkness.’
3-

a) Theatre b) darkness c) engulfed d) None of these

H
-1

12. What is the emphatic form of pronoun ‘I’?

-M
a) I b) Me c) Mine d) Myself
U
VT

13. What is the subjective form of pronoun ‘He’?

H

a) He b) His c) Him m d) Himself

-M

0p
14. What is the objective form of pronoun ‘She’?

H
a) Hers b) Herself c) Her d) She
H

:5

-M
-M

15. What is the reflexive form of pronoun ‘They’?

31

a) Themselves b) Their c) They d) Them

H
H

-M
:

16. What is the possessive form of the pronoun ‘Who’?

01
-M

a) Who b) Whom c) Whose d) Which

H

17. Rahul is an intelligent boy. Here the adjective is ______

23
H

-M

a) Rahul b) intelligent c) boy d) None of these

-M

20

18. Sahil keenly examined the ball. Here the adverb is ______
H
H

a) Sahil b) keenly c) the ball d) examined

-M
0-
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19. Punctilious (Choose the word with closest meaning)

-1

a) Meticulous b) Casual c) Final d) None of these

H
13

-M

20. Opulence (What is the closest meaning?).

a) Poverty b) Penury c) Affluence d) Indigence
H

21. Momentus (Tick the word having closest meaning.)

-M

a) Mesmerising b) Stormy c) Memorable d) Magnificent

Fill in the blank with proper phrasal verb from Q22 to Q26.
H
-M

22. Would you _____ my dog for me this weekend?

a) look b) lookafter c) lookup d) look on
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23. My neighbour _____ eggs yesterday.

9
a) ran b) ran out of c) ran into d) ran in

:1
24. John ______ his leg at the baseball game.

6
a) broke b) broke down c) broke off d) broke on

:0

H
01
25. Our boss ______ our meeting until next week.

-M
a) put b) put off c) put down d) put on

3
26. Could you ______ the music while I am on the phone?

H
02
a) turn b) turn off c) turn around d) turn in

-M
27. What are the good qualities of the precise writing?
-2
a) clarity and completeness b) correctness and conciseness

H
10
c) objectivity and coherence d) All of these

-M
28. What kind of words are not suitable in a precis?
3-

a) Suggested, advised and questioned b) Requested, honoured and awarded

H
-1

c) Plz, bcoz, bt, etc. d) None of these

-M
U

29. Which of the following protocols is used to receive email?

a) SMTP b) HTTP c) FTP d) POP3
VT

m
-M

30. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to writing emails?
0p
a) We can not add more than one address in the ‘To’ field

H
b) We can leave the ‘BCC’ field blank
H

:5

c) We can leave the ‘CC’ field blank -M

-M

d) The ‘To’ and ‘CC’ fields are often used interchangeably

31

31. What are the types of paragraph writing?

H

-M
:

a) Narrative, Persuative b) descriptive

01
-M

c) Expository d) All of above.

H

32. A paragraph is a group of sentences that talk about

23
H

-M

a) one topic b) two topic

-M

c) multiple topic d) Both a and c

20

H
H

33. Your Resume is a tool with one specific purpose :

-M
0-

a) To get a job b) To win an interview

M

c) To discuss salary d) To know about work

-1

Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other
13

-M

followed by four pairs of related words, select the pair which has the same
relationship. (Q.No.34 to 36)
H
-M

34. DIVA : OPERA

a) Producer : Theatre b) Director : Drama
c) Conductor : Bus d) Thespian : Play
H
-M

35. PAIN : SEDATIVE

a) Comfort : Stimulant b) Grief : Consolation
c) Trance : Narcotic d) Ache : Extraction
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36. LIGHT : BLIND

9
a) Speech : Dumb b) Language : Deaf

:1
c) Tongue : Sound d) All of these

6
Tick the appropriate Active / Passive form of the sentence. (Q.No.37 to Q.No.41)

:0

H
01
37. We waste much time on trifles.

-M
a) Much time was wasted on trifles.
b) Much time will be wasted on trifles.

3
c) Much time is wasted by us on trifles.

H
02
d) Much time is wasted on trifles.

-M
-2
38. You don’t need to wind this watch.
a) This watch need not be wound.

H
10
b) This watch does not wind.

-M
c) This watch need not to be wounded.
3-

d) This watch need not be winded up.

H
-1

39. We have already done the exercise.

-M
a) Already the exercise has been done by us.
U

b) The exercise has already been done by us.

VT

c) The exercise had been already done by us.

m
-M

d) The exercise is already done by us.

0p
40. One should not give unsolicited advice.

H
H

a) Unsolicited advice is not to be given

:5

-M
-M

b) Unsolicited advice can’t be given

31

c) Unsolicited advice should not be given

H

d) Unsolicited advice may not be given

H

-M
:
01
-M

41. The boys elected Mohan Captain.

a) The boys were elected captain by Mohan.
H

b) Mohan is elected captain by the boys.

23
H

-M

c) Mohan was elected captain by the boys.

-M

d) Mohan and the boys elected the captain.

20

Choose the sentence with the modifier in the correct place. (Q.No.42 to Q.No.45)
H

-M
0-
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42. a) The clerk sold the scarf with the red print to the woman.
-1

b) The clerk with red print scarf sold to woman.

H

c) The scarf with woman sold to clerk.

13

-M

d) The clerk sold the scarf to the woman with the red print.

43. a) On the way to school, Marissa found a green woman’s purse.

H

b) On the way to school Marissa found a woman’s green purse.

-M

c) Marissa found a green woman’s purse on the way to school.

d) On the way to school found Marissa a woman’s green purse.
H

44. a) Just Adam was picked for the team.

-M

b) Adam was just picked for the team.

c) Team was picked for Adam just.
H

d) Just team was picked for Adam.

-M

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45. a) Mary ate a bowl of cold cereal for breakfast.

:1
b) Mary ate a cold bowl of cereal for breakfast.
c) A cold bowl of cereal Mary ate for breakfast.

6
d) Mary for breakfast ate a cold bowl of cereal.

:0

H
01
Fill in the blank with proper verb form (Q.No.46 to Q.No.50)

-M
46. She has _____ the highest marks in Mathematics.

3
a) score b) scored c) scoring d) None of these

H
02

-M
47. The phone ______ for last two minutes.
a) is ringing -2
b) rings c) has been ringing d) rang

H
10
48. Did you ______ that your gold chain was missing.

-M
a) notice b) noticed c) noticing d) notices
3-

49. I rarely ______ junk food.

H
-1

a) eats b) eat c) eating d) eaten

-M
U

50. I _____ upstairs and called my grandfather.

a) goes b) going c) went d) go
VT

m
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 BSFHK158/258

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Question Paper Version : A
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:5
Scientific Foundation of Health

5
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:1

H
01
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
02
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
3. -2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

H
10
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
0-

5. H
Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
-2

-M
prohibited.
U
VT

1. What is health?
H

a) Physical wellbeing m
b) Mental wellbeing
-M

c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above

1p

H
H

2. Important roles of health are

:3

a) Fighting disease b) Feeling happy c) Enjoy life

-M d) All of the above
-M

32

3. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete

H
H

a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

-M
:
01
-M

c) Social wellbeing d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing

H

4. Wellness is
23
H

-M

a) Positive approach b) Negative approach

-M

c) Positive or Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach

20

5. Wellness dimensions are

H

-M
0-

a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8
M

-1

6. Intellectual wellness includes

H

a) Eating balanced diet b) Drinking sufficient water

20

-M

c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise

7. Physical health enhances

H

a) Heart function b) Breathing c) Both a and b d) None of these

-M

8. Influencing factors of health are

a) Social, economic, political factor b) Social factor only
H

c) Economical factor only d) Political factor only

-M
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9. Factor which influence health are
a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior

pm
c) Public service and infrastructure d) All of the above

10. Psychologic disorders are

0
a) Anxiety, depression, stress b) Stress, Anxiety

:5
c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above

5
11. BMI stands for

:1
a) Body mass index b) Body material index

H
01
c) Body mass indication d) None of the above

-M
12. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m2)

3
a) > 30 b) > 25 c) < 25 d) < 30

H
02

-M
13. Cause of obesity and overweight
a) Energy imbalance -2
b) Energy imbalance

H
10
c) Energy balance between calories consumed and calories expended

-M
d) None of the above
0-

14. Hyper obesity value in terms of BMI (in Kg/m2)

H
-2

a) > 25 b) < 25 c) > 40 d) <40

-M
U

15. Hyper is definition of overweight?

VT

a) BMI > 25 Kg/m2 b) BMI = 25 Kg/m2

H

c) BMI 25 - 29.9 Kg/m2 m

d) BMI 25 – 30 Kg/m2
-M

1p
16. Which of the following disease does obesity increase the risk of developing?

H
H

a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure

:3

-M
-M

c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above

32

17. Communication is part of -------- skill

H

-M

a) Soft b) Hard c) Rough d) Short

:
01
-M

18. Communication barriers involves

H

a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating

23
H

-M

c) Fear of offending d) All of the above

-M

20

19. Way to improve communication skill are

H

a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills

H

-M
0-

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

M

-1

20. Goals of communication are

H

a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform

20

-M

c) To persuades, Fear of offending d) None of the above

21. Objective of communication skills are

H

a) Active listening skills b) Aware of own communication

-M

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H

22. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?

-M

a) keep your language simple b) slow down

c) Both a and b d) Feedback
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23. How one can improve the communication skills?
a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately

pm
c) Provide feedback d) All of the above

24. Body language plays an important role in

0
a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

:5
25. What is the goal of social engineering?

5
a) Sabotage a person’s social media b) To gain vital personal information

:1
c) To catfish someone d) To build truest

H
01
26. Attitude play an important role in

-M
a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
02
27. Using abbreviation in communication leads to which type of communication barrier?

-M
a) Language b) Physical c) Cultural d) Organizational
-2
28. Why communication is key to healthy relationship?

H
10
a) Get to know each other b) Avoid misunderstanding

-M
c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above
0-

29. Bad examples of communication are

H
-2

a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cold shoulders

-M
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
U
VT

30. What are the basic instinct of life?

H

a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct m

c) Both a and b d) None of the above
-M

1p
31. How addiction can be indentified?

H
H

a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above

:3

-M
-M

32. SUD stand for

32

a) Substance use disorders b) Substance use disease

H
H

c) Substance usage development d) None of the above

-M
:
01
-M

33. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour

H

a) Thrill seeking behaviour b) Produce pleasurable effect

23
H

-M

c) Act as stress reducing agent d) All of the above

-M

20

34. How to recognize addiction behaviour?

H

a) Inability to stay away from substance b) Ignore other area of life

H

-M
0-

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

M

-1

35. Quality of a true friend are

H

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) All of the above
20

-M

36. Friendship in education is

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) Better cooperation
H
-M

37. Nature of friendship is

a) Friends must enjoy each other company b) Not supporting
c) Make time for oneself d) Little cooperation
H
-M

38. What is the recommendable daily intake of water

a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre d) None of the above
H

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39. What is the general sleep requirements for adults?

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a) 8 to 12 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour d) None of the above

0
40. Which vitamins is good for eyes?

:5
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) None of the above

5
41. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

:1
a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes d) None of the above

H
01
42. What is the essential first step to a healthier lifestyle?

-M
a) Taking more vitamins
b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug

H
c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion

02
d) None of the above

-M
-2
43. Behavioral addiction can include

H
10
a) Gambling b) Alcohol c) inhalants d) Medication

-M
44. Effects and health hazards from additions causes complication of
0-

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) All of the above

H
-2

-M
45. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs
U

a) source
VT

b) susceptible person with a way for germs to enter the body

H

c) Transmission m
-M

d) All of the above

1p

H
46. Management of chronic illness for quality of life
H

:3

a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental health -M d) All of the above

-M

32

47. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists of self help
H
H

services such as?

-M
:
01
-M

a) Alcoholic anonymous b) Crack crack

c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish home
H
23
H

48. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

-M
-M

a) Meat + egg b) Alcohol c) Saturated fat d) Starch

20

49. Symptoms of chronic diseases

H

-M
0-

a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress

M

c) Anxiety d) None of the above

-1

50. What is pain management?

20

-M

a) Taking pain relieving medicine b) Relaxation

c) Both a and b d) None of the above
H

*****
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 BSFHK158/258

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Question Paper Version : B
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:5
Scientific Foundation of Health

5
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:1

H
01
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
02
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
3. -2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

H
10
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
0-

5. H
Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
-2

-M
prohibited.
U
VT

1. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

H

a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes m d) None of the above

-M

1p
2. What is the essential first step to a healthier lifestyle?

H
H

a) Taking more vitamins

:3

b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug

-M
-M

32

c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion

H

d) None of the above

H

-M
:
01
-M

3. Behavioral addiction can include

a) Gambling b) Alcohol c) inhalants d) Medication
H
23
H

-M

4. Effects and health hazards from additions causes complication of

-M

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) All of the above

20

5. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs

H

-M
0-

a) source
M

b) susceptible person with a way for germs to enter the body

-1

c) Transmission
H

d) All of the above

20

-M

6. Management of chronic illness for quality of life

a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental health d) All of the above
H
-M

7. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists of self help
services such as?
H

a) Alcoholic anonymous b) Crack crack

-M

c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish home

H

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8. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver
a) Meat + egg b) Alcohol c) Saturated fat d) Starch

pm
9. Symptoms of chronic diseases
a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress

0
c) Anxiety d) None of the above

:5
10. What is pain management?

5
a) Taking pain relieving medicine b) Relaxation

:1
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
01
11. How addiction can be indentified?

-M
a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above

3
12. SUD stand for

H
02
a) Substance use disorders b) Substance use disease

-M
c) Substance usage development
-2 d) None of the above
13. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour

H
10
a) Thrill seeking behaviour b) Produce pleasurable effect

-M
c) Act as stress reducing agent d) All of the above
0-

14. How to recognize addiction behaviour? H

-2

a) Inability to stay away from substance b) Ignore other area of life

-M

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

U
VT

15. Quality of a true friend are

m
-M

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) All of the above
1p

H
16. Friendship in education is
H

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) Better cooperation

:3

-M
-M

32

17. Nature of friendship is

H

a) Friends must enjoy each other company b) Not supporting

H

-M
:

c) Make time for oneself d) Little cooperation

01
-M

18. What is the recommendable daily intake of water

H

a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre d) None of the above

23
H

-M
-M

19. What is the general sleep requirements for adults?

20

a) 8 to 12 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour d) None of the above

H
H

-M
0-

20. Which vitamins is good for eyes?

M

a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) None of the above

-1

21. BMI stands for

20

-M

a) Body mass index b) Body material index

c) Body mass indication d) None of the above
H

22. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m2)

-M

a) > 30 b) > 25 c) < 25 d) < 30

23. Cause of obesity and overweight
H

a) Energy imbalance
-M

b) Energy imbalance
c) Energy balance between calories consumed and calories expended
d) None of the above
H

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-M
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2
24. Hyper obesity value in terms of BMI (in Kg/m )
a) > 25 b) < 25 c) > 40 d) <40

pm
25. Hyper is definition of overweight?
a) BMI > 25 Kg/m2 b) BMI = 25 Kg/m2

0
c) BMI 25 - 29.9 Kg/m2 d) BMI 25 – 30 Kg/m2

:5
26. Which of the following disease does obesity increase the risk of developing?

5
a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure

:1
c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above

H
01
27. Communication is part of -------- skill

-M
a) Soft b) Hard c) Rough d) Short

H
02
28. Communication barriers involves

-M
a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating
c) Fear of offending-2 d) All of the above

H
10
29. Way to improve communication skill are

-M
a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills
0-

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
-2

30. Goals of communication are

-M
a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform
U

c) To persuades, Fear of offending d) None of the above

VT

31. What is health? m

-M

a) Physical wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

1p
c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above

H
H

:3

32. Important roles of health are

-M
-M

32

a) Fighting disease b) Feeling happy c) Enjoy life d) All of the above

H
H

33. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete

-M
:
01
-M

a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

c) Social wellbeing d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing
H
23
H

-M

34. Wellness is
-M

a) Positive approach b) Negative approach

20

c) Positive or Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach

H
H

-M
0-

35. Wellness dimensions are

M

a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8
-1

36. Intellectual wellness includes

20

-M

a) Eating balanced diet b) Drinking sufficient water

c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise
H

37. Physical health enhances

-M

a) Heart function b) Breathing c) Both a and b d) None of these

38. Influencing factors of health are

H

a) Social, economic, political factor b) Social factor only

-M

c) Economical factor only d) Political factor only

H

Version B – 3 of 4
-M
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39. Factor which influence health are
a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior

pm
c) Public service and infrastructure d) All of the above

40. Psychologic disorders are

0
a) Anxiety, depression, stress b) Stress, Anxiety

:5
c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above

5
41. Objective of communication skills are

:1
a) Active listening skills b) Aware of own communication

H
01
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

-M
42. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?

3
a) keep your language simple b) slow down

H
02
c) Both a and b d) Feedback

-M
-2
43. How one can improve the communication skills?
a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately

H
10
c) Provide feedback d) All of the above

-M
0-

44. Body language plays an important role in

a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above
H
-2

-M
45. What is the goal of social engineering?
U

a) Sabotage a person’s social media b) To gain vital personal information

VT

c) To catfish someone d) To build truest

m
-M

46. Attitude play an important role in

1p
a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
H

:3

-M
47. Using abbreviation in communication leads to which type of communication barrier?
-M

32

a) Language b) Physical c) Cultural d) Organizational

H
H

48. Why communication is key to healthy relationship?

-M
:
01
-M

a) Get to know each other b) Avoid misunderstanding

c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above
H
23
H

-M

49. Bad examples of communication are

-M

a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cold shoulders

20

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
H

-M
0-

50. What are the basic instinct of life?

M

a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct c) Both a and b d) None of the above

-1

*****
20

-M
H
-M
H
-M

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pm
Question Paper Version : C
USN

0
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

:5
Scientific Foundation of Health

5
:1
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

H
01

-M
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
02

-M
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.
3.
-2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

H
10

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
0-

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
H
-2

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly

-M
U

prohibited.
VT

How addiction can be indentified?

1.
m
-M

a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above

1p

H
2. SUD stand for
H

:3

a) Substance use disorders -M

b) Substance use disease
-M

c) Substance usage development d) None of the above

32

3. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour

H

-M
:

a) Thrill seeking behaviour b) Produce pleasurable effect

01
-M

c) Act as stress reducing agent d) All of the above

H

How to recognize addiction behaviour?

23
H

4.
-M

a) Inability to stay away from substance b) Ignore other area of life

-M

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

20

H
H

5. Quality of a true friend are

-M
0-
M

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) All of the above
-1

6. Friendship in education is
20

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) Better cooperation

-M

7. Nature of friendship is
H

a) Friends must enjoy each other company b) Not supporting

-M

c) Make time for oneself d) Little cooperation

8. What is the recommendable daily intake of water

H

a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre d) None of the above

-M

9. What is the general sleep requirements for adults?

a) 8 to 12 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour d) None of the above
H

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-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
10. Which vitamins is good for eyes?

pm
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) None of the above

11. What is health?

0
a) Physical wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

:5
c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above

5
12. Important roles of health are

:1
a) Fighting disease b) Feeling happy c) Enjoy life d) All of the above

H
01
13. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete

-M
a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

3
c) Social wellbeing d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing

H
02
14. Wellness is

-M
a) Positive approach -2 b) Negative approach
c) Positive or Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach

H
10

-M
15. Wellness dimensions are
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8
0-

H
-2

16. Intellectual wellness includes

-M
a) Eating balanced diet b) Drinking sufficient water
U

c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise

VT

17. Physical health enhances m

-M

a) Heart function b) Breathing c) Both a and b d) None of these

1p

H
18. Influencing factors of health are
H

:3

a) Social, economic, political factor -M

b) Social factor only
-M

c) Economical factor only d) Political factor only

32

H
H

19. Factor which influence health are

-M
:
01
-M

a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior

c) Public service and infrastructure d) All of the above
H
23
H

20. Psychologic disorders are

-M
-M

a) Anxiety, depression, stress b) Stress, Anxiety

20

c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above

H
H

-M
0-

21. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

M

a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes d) None of the above

-1

22. What is the essential first step to a healthier lifestyle?

20

-M

a) Taking more vitamins

b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug
c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion
H

d) None of the above

-M

23. Behavioral addiction can include

a) Gambling b) Alcohol c) inhalants d) Medication
H
-M

24. Effects and health hazards from additions causes complication of

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) All of the above
H

Version C – 2 of 4
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
25. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs
a) source

pm
b) susceptible person with a way for germs to enter the body
c) Transmission
d) All of the above

0
:5
26. Management of chronic illness for quality of life
a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental health d) All of the above

5
:1
27. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists of self help

H
01
services such as?

-M
a) Alcoholic anonymous b) Crack crack
c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish home

H
02
28. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

-M
a) Meat + egg b) Alcohol c) Saturated fat d) Starch
-2
29. Symptoms of chronic diseases

H
10
a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress

-M
c) Anxiety d) None of the above
0-

30. What is pain management?

H
-2

a) Taking pain relieving medicine b) Relaxation

-M
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
U
VT

31. Objective of communication skills are

a) Active listening skills m
b) Aware of own communication
-M

1p
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H
H

32. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?

:3

-M
-M

a) keep your language simple b) slow down

32

c) Both a and b d) Feedback

H
H

-M

33. How one can improve the communication skills?

:
01
-M

a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately

c) Provide feedback d) All of the above
H
23
H

-M

34. Body language plays an important role in

-M

a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

20

35. What is the goal of social engineering?

H

-M
0-

a) Sabotage a person’s social media b) To gain vital personal information

M

c) To catfish someone d) To build truest

-1

36. Attitude play an important role in

20

-M

a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

37. Using abbreviation in communication leads to which type of communication barrier?

H

a) Language b) Physical c) Cultural d) Organizational

-M

38. Why communication is key to healthy relationship?

H

a) Get to know each other b) Avoid misunderstanding

-M

c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above

H

Version C – 3 of 4
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
39. Bad examples of communication are
a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cold shoulders

pm
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

40. What are the basic instinct of life?

0
a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct c) Both a and b d) None of the above

:5
41. BMI stands for

5
a) Body mass index b) Body material index

:1
c) Body mass indication d) None of the above

H
01
42. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m2)

-M
a) > 30 b) > 25 c) < 25 d) < 30

H
02
43. Cause of obesity and overweight

-M
a) Energy imbalance
b) Energy imbalance -2
c) Energy balance between calories consumed and calories expended

H
10
d) None of the above

-M
44. Hyper obesity value in terms of BMI (in Kg/m2)
0-

a) > 25 b) < 25 c) > 40 d) <40

H
-2

-M
45. Hyper is definition of overweight?
U

a) BMI > 25 Kg/m2 b) BMI = 25 Kg/m2

VT

c) BMI 25 - 29.9 Kg/m2 d) BMI 25 – 30 Kg/m2

H

m
-M

46. Which of the following disease does obesity increase the risk of developing?
1p
a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure

H
H

c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above

:3

-M
-M

32

47. Communication is part of -------- skill

H

a) Soft b) Hard c) Rough d) Short

H

-M
:
01
-M

48. Communication barriers involves

a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating
H

c) Fear of offending d) All of the above

23
H

-M
-M

49. Way to improve communication skill are

20

a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills

H

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

H

-M
0-
M

50. Goals of communication are

-1

a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform

H

c) To persuades, Fear of offending d) None of the above

20

-M

*****
H
-M
H
-M

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H
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258

pm
Question Paper Version : D
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:5
Scientific Foundation of Health

5
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:1

H
01
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-M
3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

H
02
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-M
3. -2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

H
10
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-M
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
0-

5. H
Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
-2

-M
prohibited.
U
VT

1. Objective of communication skills are

H

a) Active listening skills m

b) Aware of own communication
-M

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

1p

H
H

2. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?

:3

a) keep your language simple b) slow down

-M
-M

32

c) Both a and b d) Feedback

H
H

3. How one can improve the communication skills?

-M
:
01
-M

a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately

c) Provide feedback d) All of the above
H
23
H

-M

4. Body language plays an important role in

-M

a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

20

5. What is the goal of social engineering?

H

-M
0-

a) Sabotage a person’s social media b) To gain vital personal information

M

c) To catfish someone d) To build truest

-1

6. Attitude play an important role in

20

-M

a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

7. Using abbreviation in communication leads to which type of communication barrier?

H

a) Language b) Physical c) Cultural d) Organizational

-M

8. Why communication is key to healthy relationship?

a) Get to know each other b) Avoid misunderstanding
H

c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above

-M
H

Version D – 1 of 4
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
9. Bad examples of communication are
a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cold shoulders

pm
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

10. What are the basic instinct of life?

0
a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct c) Both a and b d) None of the above

:5
11. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

5
a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes d) None of the above

:1
12. What is the essential first step to a healthier lifestyle?

H
01
a) Taking more vitamins

-M
b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug

3
c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion

H
02
d) None of the above

-M
-2
13. Behavioral addiction can include
a) Gambling b) Alcohol c) inhalants d) Medication

H
10

-M
14. Effects and health hazards from additions causes complication of
0-

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) All of the above

H
-2

15. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs

-M
a) source
U

b) susceptible person with a way for germs to enter the body

VT

c) Transmission
d) All of the above m
-M

1p
16. Management of chronic illness for quality of life

H
H

a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental health d) All of the above

:3

-M
-M

32

17. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists of self help
H

services such as?

H

-M

a) Alcoholic anonymous b) Crack crack

:
01
-M

c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish home

H

18. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

23
H

-M

a) Meat + egg b) Alcohol c) Saturated fat d) Starch

-M

20

19. Symptoms of chronic diseases

H

a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress

H

-M
0-

c) Anxiety d) None of the above

M

-1

20. What is pain management?

H

a) Taking pain relieving medicine b) Relaxation

20

-M

c) Both a and b d) None of the above

21. How addiction can be indentified?

H

a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above

-M

22. SUD stand for

H

a) Substance use disorders b) Substance use disease

-M

c) Substance usage development d) None of the above

H

Version D – 2 of 4
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
23. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour
a) Thrill seeking behaviour b) Produce pleasurable effect

pm
c) Act as stress reducing agent d) All of the above

24. How to recognize addiction behaviour?

0
a) Inability to stay away from substance b) Ignore other area of life

:5
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

5
25. Quality of a true friend are

:1
a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) All of the above

H
01
26. Friendship in education is

-M
a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) Better cooperation

H
02
27. Nature of friendship is

-M
a) Friends must enjoy each other company b) Not supporting
-2
c) Make time for oneself d) Little cooperation

H
10
28. What is the recommendable daily intake of water

-M
a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre d) None of the above
0-

29. What is the general sleep requirements for adults?

H
-2

a) 8 to 12 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour d) None of the above

-M
U

30. Which vitamins is good for eyes?

VT

a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) None of the above

H

m
-M

31. BMI stands for

1p
a) Body mass index b) Body material index

H
H

c) Body mass indication d) None of the above

:3

-M
-M

32. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m2)

32

a) > 30 b) > 25 c) < 25 d) < 30

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

33. Cause of obesity and overweight

a) Energy imbalance
H

b) Energy imbalance
23
H

-M

c) Energy balance between calories consumed and calories expended

-M

d) None of the above

20

34. Hyper obesity value in terms of BMI (in Kg/m2)

H

-M
0-

a) > 25 b) < 25 c) > 40 d) <40

M

-1

35. Hyper is definition of overweight?

H

a) BMI > 25 Kg/m2 b) BMI = 25 Kg/m2

20

-M

c) BMI 25 - 29.9 Kg/m2 d) BMI 25 – 30 Kg/m2

36. Which of the following disease does obesity increase the risk of developing?
H

a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure

-M

c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above

37. Communication is part of -------- skill

H

a) Soft b) Hard c) Rough d) Short

-M
H

Version D – 3 of 4
-M
H
M
 BSFHK158/258
38. Communication barriers involves
a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating

pm
c) Fear of offending d) All of the above

39. Way to improve communication skill are

0
a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills

:5
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

5
40. Goals of communication are

:1
a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform

H
01
c) To persuades, Fear of offending d) None of the above

-M
41. What is health?

3
a) Physical wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

H
02
c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above

-M
-2
42. Important roles of health are
a) Fighting disease b) Feeling happy c) Enjoy life d) All of the above

H
10

-M
43. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete
0-

a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing

c) Social wellbeing d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing
H
-2

-M
44. Wellness is
U

a) Positive approach b) Negative approach

VT

c) Positive or Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach

m
-M

45. Wellness dimensions are

1p
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8

H
H

:3

46. Intellectual wellness includes

-M
-M

32

a) Eating balanced diet b) Drinking sufficient water

H

c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise

H

-M
:
01
-M

47. Physical health enhances

a) Heart function b) Breathing c) Both a and b d) None of these
H
23
H

-M

48. Influencing factors of health are

-M

a) Social, economic, political factor b) Social factor only

20

c) Economical factor only d) Political factor only

H
H

-M
0-

49. Factor which influence health are

M

a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior

-1

c) Public service and infrastructure d) All of the above

H
20

-M

50. Psychologic disorders are

a) Anxiety, depression, stress b) Stress, Anxiety
c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above
H
-M

*****
H
-M

Version D – 4 of 4
H
-M
H
M