Rabindranath World School

W-10/3120, DLF Phase III, Gurgaon (HR).

Legal Studies Worksheet

Class XI

Q1. According to Aristotle, which of the following is best type of government:

a) Aristocracy
b) Monarchy
c) Polity Democracy
d) None of the above

Q2. What among the following, according to Burges is not a principle of distinction on the forms of the
government:
a) On the basis of identity or non identity of state with its government - Primary or Representative
form of government
b) On the basis of tenure of executive - Hereditary or Elective form of government
c) On the basis of concentration and distribution of power - Unitary or Federal
d) On the basis of Election method used - Ballots or EVMs

Q3. On the basis of distribution of power between the executive and legislature, the government is
classified into two, which are:
a) Dictatorship or Democracy
b) Constitutional Monarch of The Republic
c) Parliamentary Form or Presidential Form of Government
d) Unitary and Federal Government

Q4. Which among the following is the oldest form of government:

a) Monarchy
b) Dictatorship
c) Aristocracy
d) Democracy

Q5. Identify the type of government from the given statement, “It is the government of one man who has
not obtained the position by inheritance, but either by force or consent or a combination of both. He
possesses absolute sovereignty, that is all the political power emanates from his will and it is unlimited in
scope.”
a) Monarch
b) Dictatorship
c) Democracy
d) Aristocracy

Q6. A democracy where ‘the will of the state is formulated or expressed directly and immediately through
the people in mass meeting or primary assembly, rather than through the medium of delegates or
representatives chosen to act for them’ is known as:
 a) Monitory Democracy
b) Representative Democracy
c) Constitutional Democracy
d) Direct Democracy

Q7. In which of the following country, pure democracy is prevalent:

a) Switzerland
b) Britain
c) India
d) USA

Q8. Who among the following is the head of state in the case of a Parliamentary form of Government?
a) President of the state
b) Governor of the state
c) Prime Minister of the state
d) Council of Ministers of the state

Q9. According to Schedule 7 of Indian Constitution, the matters concerning national importance like
international relations, war and peace, atomic energy, etc. are dealt with by which government:
a) State or Provincial Government
b) Union or Federal Government
c) Both Union as well as State Government
d) None of the above

Q10. India follows a combination of what types of government:

a) Monarchy, Democracy and Parliamentary Form of Government with Unitary and Federal
features
b) Democracy, Federal and Presidential Form of Government
c) Democracy, Unitary and Parliamentary Form of Government
d) Democratic, Republic, Parliamentary Form of Government with Unitary and Federal features

Q11. How many states in India have bicameral legislature:

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

Q12. Identify the house where members consist of members elected by the Legislative Assemblies of
States and other nominated members from the field of art, culture, academics, sports, literature, science and
social service.
a) Vidhan Sabha
b) Vidhan Parishad
c) Lok Sabha
d) Rajya Sabha

Q13. Which of the following is not true about Legislature:

a) Enacts laws for certain purpose and objective
 b) Express and formulate the will of the state
c) Interpret the Laws
d) Laws are classified as ‘substantive acts’ and ‘procedural acts’

Q14. Assertion(A): Parliament exercises check and ensures executive accountability through its control
over finances.
Reasoning(R): Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India states that the Councils of ministers shall be
collectively responsible for the house of people.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

Q15. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides details of assent to bills by the President?
a) Article 121
b) Article 111
c) Article 290
d) Article 38

Q16. Generally, a bill is passed after three readings in the parliament. Based on this fact, match items in
List I with items in List II using the codes given below:

List I List II

A. First Reading 1. Discussion on the principles of the

bill and clause by clause
consideration of the bill
B. Second Reading 2. Known as discussion on motion that
the bill or the bill, as amended or
passed.
C. Third Reading 3. Introduction of the bill in the house
or laying on the table of the house, if
passed by another house.
a) A-2, B-3, C-1
b) A-3, B-2, C-1
c) A-1, B-3, C-2
d) A-3, B-1, C-2

Q17. When does a bill become the law of the land?

a) When passed in Lok Sabha
b) When passed in Rajya Sabha
c) When receives assent from The President of India
d) When passed in Legislative assembly of states

Q18. Who elects the speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha?
a) Members of the House
b) President of India
 c) Prime Minister of India
d) Council of Ministers

Q19. Which of the following is not a function of the Executive?

a) Financial Matters
b) Adjudicate disputes according to the law
c) Natural Resource Management
d) Trade and Commerce

Q20. Fill in the blanks:

“Whenever the law is ambiguous or not clear or silent or appears to be inconsistent with other laws of the
land, the ___________ after proper analysis determines or interprets the intent, purpose and meaning of the
provisions of law.”
a) Executive
b) Legislative
c) Judiciary
d) Both Executive and Legislative

Q21. Which of the following is not a feature of the constitution?

a) It may be in a written or unwritten form
b) It is the fundamental law of a state
c) It specifies the control of a state over other states
d) It determines the powers and responsibilities of state and organs of government

Q22. When did the Constituent Assembly form?

a) December 9, 1947
b) December 9, 1946
c) November 26, 1949
d) January 26, 1950

Q23. Before Independence, the provinces were directly controlled by whom?

a) Governor appointed by British crown
b) Council of Ministers
c) Governor General
d) Native Rulers

Q24. During British Raj, who had the power to veto a bill passed by the legislature?
a) The Constituent Assembly
b) Governor of Provinces
c) Rulers of Princely States
d) Governor General

Q25. Who chaired the first meeting of the constituent assembly?

a) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. Sinha
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q26. Identify the act from the statement: “ The Act provided that from 15 August, 1947, referred to as
‘appointment date’, two independent dominions, to be known as India and Pakistan would be established.”
a) Government of India Act, 1935
b) The Indian Independence Act
c) Government of India Act, 1919
d) Indian Councils Act, 1947

Q27. How many days did it take to draft the complete constitution?
a) 2 year, 11 months, 10 days
b) 2 year, 11 months, 20 days
c) 2 year, 11 months, 18 days
d) 2 year, 11 months, 28 days

Q28. Fill in the blanks:

“The bulk of the constitution only became effective on 26 January, 1950. This date is referred to as
commencement under ____________ of the constitution.”
a) Article 394
b) Article 392
c) Article 390
d) Article 391

Q29. Fill in the blanks:

All _________ within the geographical boundaries of the Dominion of India acceded to the Dominion of
India by 15 August, 1947, thus unifying India into a compact state.
a) 551 States
b) 552 States
c) 553 States
d) 554 States

Q30. The term Union was used “as symbolic of the determination of the Assembly to maintain the unity of
the country” as stated by Supreme Court of India in which of the following case:
a) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (AIR 1990 SC 1480)
b) S.R. Bommai v Union of India ( AIR 1994 SC 1918)
c) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (AIR 2000 SC 1997)
d) Hinsa Virodhak Sangh v. M.M.K. Jamaat (2008 SCC33)

Q31. Article 32(2) of the Constitution of India provides:'' The Supreme Court shall have power to issue
directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo
warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of rights conferred by
this Part. Based on this fact, match items in List I with items in List II using the codes given below:

List I List II

A. Habeas Corpus 1. To remove a case from a lower court

and get it behind it
 B. Mandamus 2. To issue directive to a person to
vacate an office wrongly occupied
C. Quo Warranto 3. Release of person who is unlawfully
detained
D. Certiorari 4. Ordering subordinate court to stop
listening to a case which is out of its
jurisdiction
E. Prohibition 5. To order a public authority to do its
work
a) A-3; B-5; C-2; D-1; E-4
b) A-3, B-4; C-1; D-5; E-2
c) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-5; E-3
d) A-2; B-5; C-3; D-1; E-4

Q32. What are the subject matters of Schedule IV of the Constitution of India?
a) List of languages recognized by the constitution
b) Forms of oath and affirmation
c) Allocation of seats in the council of states
d) Power, authority and responsibilities of municipalities

Q33. Which of the following is not true about Indian Citizenship?

a) There is a provision of dual citizenship in the constitution
b) Citizenship can be acquired by way of birth, descent or registration
c) Part II of Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding citizenship
d) Citizens enjoy the right to vote, contest elections, hold high offices etc.

Q34. Which article provides for representation for members of the Anglo Indian community in the House
of People?
a) Article 330
b) Article 331
c) Article 332
d) Article 333

Q35. Which part of the constitution included the details relating to amendment in the constitution?
a) Part X
b) Part XX
c) Part XVII
d) Part VI

Q36. When were the Fundamental Duties added in the constitution?

a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1974
b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1975
c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
d) 42nd Amendment Act, 1977
Q37. “Article 38(1) states that the state shall strive to promote welfare of the people by securing and
protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall
inform all the institutions of national life.” These are popularly known as:
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Adult Suffrage
d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q38. Which of the following are enforceable by the court?

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) None of these

Q39. How many schedules does the Indian Constitution have?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13

Q40. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution mentions the three lists, namely; Union list, State List and
Concurrent List?
a) Sixth Schedule
b) Seventh Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule
d) Ninth Schedule