CBRT held on 18-12-2016(F/N)

Subject - Medical Science

1.
A 56 year old lady with osteoarthritis of both knees presents with severe calf pain localised to
the left side. She is active and denies fever or trauma. Clinical examination is unremarkable
except for mild non pitting oedema in the leg and tenderness in the popliteal fossa. She is
worried that she may have a clot in the leg. What will be the next most appropriate
investigation?

(a) D-Dimer
(b) Doppler USG
(c) X-Ray Knee-AP and Lateral View
(d) MRI venography
2.
What is the single most important investigation in a patient with isolated Right sided pleural
effusion?

(a) X Ray Chest PA and Lateral decubitus view

(b) Ultrasound chest
(c) Pleural fluid cytology
(d) Pleural fluid protein and LDH estimation
3.
All EXCEPT one is the cause of chronic cough:

(a) Postnasal drip

(b) Gastroesophageal reflux
(c) Halitosis
(d) Left ventricular failure
4.
A patient with COPD develops pneumothorax. What would be the immediate most
appropriate intervention?

(a) Supplemental oxygen

(b) Needle aspiration
(c) Tube thoracotomy
(d) Thoracoscopy with stapling of blebs
5.
What would be the best treatment for a patient with Bronchial Asthma with day time
symptoms, nocturnal awakenings and frequent need for rescue medication?

(a) Low dose Inhalational corticosteroids (ICS)

(b) Oral corticosteroids (OCS)
(c) Low dose ICS and Long Acting Bronchodilators
(d) High dose ICS and Long Acting Bronchodilators
6.
All of the following drugs can lead to hyperprolactinemia EXCEPT:

(a) Reserpine
(b) NSAIDs
(c) Ranitidine
(d) Fluoxetine
1
7.
Metyrapone stimulation test done for pituitary sufficiency evaluates which one of the
following harmones?
(a) Growth hormone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
8.
Lesion in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus will cause damage to which of the following
cranial nerves ?

(a) III, IV, V and VII

(b) II, III, IV and V
(c) III, IV, V and VIII
(d) III, IV, V and VI
9.
Anti-Musk antibodies are seen in :

(a) Guillain-Barre syndrome

(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Transverse myelitis
(d) Myasthenia gravis
10.
Which one of the following is used for terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

(a) Lidocaine
(b) Adenosine
(c) Mexiletine
(d) Dobutamine
11.
Which one of the following is a thrombin inhibitor?

(a) Warfarin
(b) Rivaroxaban
(c) Apixaban
(d) Dabigatran
12.
Central cyanosis is present in all EXCEPT:

(a) Cold exposure

(b) Pulmonary arteriovenus fistulas
(c) High altitude
(d) Sulphemoglobinemia
13.
An elderly patient with Ischemic heart disease can walk unaided to the washroom but cannot
go to the market 100 metres away. What is the functional category?

(a) NYHA Class-I

(b) NYHA Class-II
(c) NYHA Class-III
(d) NYHA Class-IV
2
14.
An injection drug user presents with fever and exertional dyspnoea for one month. For the
last few days he has observed pain in right upper quadrant and swollen feet. Clinical
examination shows tachycardia, tachypnoea, elevated JVP with prominent Y descent and
pedal oedema. Heart sounds appear unremarkable and no murmurs are heard. What is the
likely diagnosis?

(a) Constrictive Pericarditis

(b) Tricuspid Stenosis
(c) Tricuspid Regurgitation
(d) Pulmonary Artery Hypertension

15.
A patient is brought in hypotension. ECG shows wide QRS tachycardia. What would be the
most appropriate next step of treatment?

(a) Inj Amiodarone

(b) Inj Adenosine
(c) DC cardioversion
(d) Carotid sinus massage
16.
A middle aged male smoker presents to the ED with central constricting chest pain of 3 hours
duration. ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF and ST segment depression
in lead aVR and aVL. The diagnosis is:

(a) Acute anterior wall MI

(b) Acute Inferior wall MI
(c) Posterior wall MI
(d) Right ventricular MI
17.
Transudative pleural effusion is seen in all EXCEPT:

(a) Congestive heart failure

(b) Neoplastic disease
(c) Nephrotic syndrome
(d) Cirrhosis of liver
18.
Farmer’s lung is caused by:

(a) Aspergillus species

(b) Penicillium species
(c) Candida species
(d) Actinomycetes species
19.
All are forms of chronic obstructive airway disease EXCEPT:

(a) Emphysena
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Chronic bronchitis with obstruction
(d) Small airway disease
.

3
20.
Appropriate treatment for stage-I COAD with low symptom burden and exacerbation
frequency will be:

(a) Smoking cessation

(b) Inhaled bronchodilators and smoking cessation
(c) Inhaled bronchodilators with inhaled corticosteroids and smoking cessation
(d) Pulmonary rehabilitation
21.
Three children of a family are brought in with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. There is no
fever, no blood and mucous in stools. Pain abdomen is also minimal. History is significant for
eating left over rice for dinner. Most likely etiologic agent is:

(a) Bacillus cereus

(b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Shigella species
22.
The most common cause of seizures above the age of 65 years is:

(a) Metabolic disorders

(b) Cerebrovascular disease
(c) Cerebral tumour
(d) Head injury
23.
The following drugs may be useful in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure, EXCEPT:

(a) Mannitol
(b) Hypertonic saline
(c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Propranolol
24.
Topiramate can be used as first line antiepileptic drug for which one of the following
seizures?

(a) Generalised tonic-clonic seizures

(b) Focal seizures
(c) Typical absence seizures
(d) Myoclonic seizures
25.
Neurocysticercosis can present as:

(a) Generalised seizures

(b) Focal seizures
(c) Headache and vomiting
(d) All of these
26.
Mean corpuscular volume of more than 100 fL is suggestive of:
(a) Microcytic hypochromic anaemia
(b) Iron deficiency anaemia
(c) Megaloblastic anaemia
(d) Anaemia of chronic disease
4
27.
Which one of the following causes pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow?

(a) Myelofibrosis
(b) Aplastic anaemia
(c) Fanconi anaemia
(d) Aleukaemic leukaemia
28.
Which one of the following causes IgG type warm antibody autoimmune haemolytic
anaemia?

(a) Epstein Barr virus

(b) Cytomegalo virus
(c) Mycoplasma infection
(d) Human immunodeficiency virus
29.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of a patient with normocytic
normochromic anaemia with low reticulocyte production index?

(a) Bone marrow aspiration

(b) Vit B12 / folate estimation
(c) Haemoglobin electrophoresis
(d) Serum iron studies
30.
Direct action of PTH hormone includes all EXCEPT:

(a) Calcium absorption from renal tubules

(b) Synthesis of vitamin D
(c) Absorption of calcium from the gut
(d) Resorption of calcium from the bone
31.
All of the following are symptoms of hypercalcemia EXCEPT:

(a) Diarrhoea
(b) Polyuria
(c) Depression
(d) Mental confusion
32.
All are secondary causes of polycythemia EXCEPT:
(a) Carboxyhemoglobinemia
(b) Cyanotic heart disease
(c) Polycythemia vera
(d) COAD
33.
Which one of the following can be used for immediate treatment of hypercalcemia?

(a) Glucocorticoids
(b) Forced diuresis
(c) Zoledronate
(d) Pamidronate

5
34.
The most common paraneoplastic syndrome is:

(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hypoglycaemia
(c) SIADH
(d) Lactic acidosis
35.
During ovulation which one of the following structures is released from the Graafian follicle?

(a) Oogonium
(b) Primary oocyte
(c) Secondary oocyte
(d) Mature ovum
36.
Which one of the following drugs is an entry inhibitor (fusion inhibitor) used for the
treatment of HIV?

(a) Nevirapine
(b) Raltegravir
(c) Enfuvirtide
(d) Emtricitabine
37.
Mumps is characterised by following features EXCEPT:
(a) Parotitis
(b) Pancreatitis
(c) Orchitis
(d) Pyelonephritis
38.
Herpes zoster infection has following features EXCEPT:

(a) It is caused by RNA virus

(b) It affects sensory ganglion
(c) Skin rashes are vesicular
(d) Postherpetic neuralgia is common
39.
Eschar can be seen in which one of the following rickettsial infections?

(a) Scrub typhus

(b) Murine typhus
(c) Epidemic typhus
(d) All of these

40.
A foodhandler who has recovered from typhoid fever develops chronic carriage with
Salmonella. Appropriate treatment would be:

(a) Amoxicillin oral

(b) Azithromycin oral
(c) Chloramphenicol oral
(d) Ceftriaxone injection

6
41.
Appropriate treatment for a chronically catheterised patient with a UTl with proteus would
be:

(a) Nitrofurantoin
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
(d) Azithromycin
42.
Preferred antifungal agent for invasive aspergillosis is:

(a) Posaconazole
(b) Caspofungin
(c) Voriconazole
(d) Amphotericin-B
43.
Preferred oral antifungal agent for chronic and allergic form of aspergilloris is:

(a) Voriconazole
(b) Amphotericin
(c) Caspofungin
(d) Itraconazole
44.
Galactomannan test is used to detect which one of the following fungal infections?

(a) Mucormycosis
(b) Histoplasmosis
(c) Candida
(d) Aspergillosis
45.
The most common extraarticular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis is:

(a) Peripheral neuropathy

(b) Anterior uveitis
(c) Pseudo arthrosis
(d) Inflamatory Bowel disease
46.
All of the following are small vessel vasculitis EXCEPT:
(a) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
(b) Leucocytoclastic angiitis
(c) Microscopic polyangiitis
(d) Takayasu arteritis
47.
Side effects of steroid use are all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Neuropathy
(b) Myopathy
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Psychosis

7
48.
Which one of the following can differentiate between Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia
Nervosa?

(a) Binge eating

(b) Self induced vomiting
(c) Underweight
(d) Electrolytic disturbances
49.
Appropriate chemoprophylaxis for household contacts of a child diagnosed as pertussis would
be:
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Erythromycin
50.
A 15 year old girl presents with fever and severe disabling joint pains affecting the left ankle,
right ankle and right wrist in a sequential manner over the last three weeks. Clinical
examination is remarkable for temperature of 101o F, pallor, tachycardia 106/min and
tenderness of right wrist with elevated temperature and restricted mobility. CVS examination
is significant for 3/6 pansystolic murmur at apex. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

(a) Reactive arthritis

(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Acute rheumatic fever
(d) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis-Oligoarticular

51.
Regarding tidy and untidy wounds all are true EXCEPT:

(a) Tidy wounds are incised, clean wounds on healthy tissue

(b) Untidy wounds are crushed, contaminated with devitalised tissue
(c) Untidy wounds may require debridement on one or several occasions
(d) Tidy wounds have a concept of ‘second look surgery’
52.
All of the following are factors influencing wound healing EXCEPT:

(a) Malnutrition
(b) Smoking
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Hypertension
53.
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding actinomycosis?

(a) The causative organism is acid fast

(b) Cervicofacial is the commonest form
(c) Sulfur granules are characteristics
(d) Chronic infection requires surgery

8
54.
Punctum is found in:

(a) Dermoid cyst

(b) Epidermoid cyst
(c) Lipoma
(d) Hydatid cyst
55.
Most common site of venous ulcer is:

(a) Upper one-third of leg

(b) Lower one-third of leg and ankle
(c) Lower two-third of leg
(d) Middle two-third of leg
56.
Fluid replacement of choice for patient of septic shock is:

(a) Whole blood

(b) Ringer lactate
(c) Colloid solution
(d) 5% dextrose
57.
Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for detection of deep venous
thrombosis?

(a) Doppler ultrasound

(b) Duplex imaging
(c) Venography
(d) Fibrinogen uptake test
58.
The probability of developing malignancy is the highest in:

(a) Parotid gland

(b) Submandibular gland
(c) Sublingual salivary gland
(d) Minor salivary gland
59.
Sensitivity of Mammography increases with age because:

(a) Breast increases in size with age

(b) More exposure to oestrogen makes it more conducive for mammography
(c) Breast feeding helps
(d) Breast becomes less dense with age
60.
Best imaging modality for women with breast implants is:

(a) Ultrasonography
(b) Mammography
(c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(d) Computed tomography

9
61.
Causes of elevated levels of serum amylase include all EXCEPT:

(a) Acute pancreatitis

(b) Mesenteric infarction
(c) Renal failure
(d) Liver failure
62.
CT scan in case of suspected pancreatitis is indicated in all EXCEPT:

(a) In all cases of suspected pancreatitis

(b) If there is a diagnostic uncertainty
(c) In patients with signs of sepsis
(d) When local complication is suspected
63.
Patients who have duodenal ulcers develop conditions requiring surgery. Which one of the
following is the least likely to require surgical intervention?

(a) Perforation
(b) Obstruction
(c) Bleeding
(d) Intractability
64.
Duodenal Ulcer Perforation is diagnosed on X-ray abdomen by:

(a) Multiple air fluid levels

(b) Ground glass appearance
(c) Gas under right dome of diaphragm
(d) Gas in stomach

65.
A 70-year old woman undergoes a gastrectomy after Zolliger-Ellison syndrome. Her doctor
informs her that she will need to take intramuscular vitamin B12 injections for the rest of her
life. Absence of which of the following cell type is responsible for the vitamin replacement
required?

(a) Chief cells

(b) Goblet cells
(c) Mucous neck cells
(d) Parietal cells
66.
Extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn’s disease which is unrelated to disease activity is:

(a) Gall stones

(b) Arthropathy
(c) Pyoderma Gangrenosum
(d) Amyloidosis

10
67.
Which one of the following is false in respect of firearm injuries?

(a) Low velocity bullets behave like knife injury

(b) High velocity bullets cause cavitation
(c) Temporary cavity is small and draws foreign body
(d) Permanent cavity gives no clue to extent of damage
68.
In principles of a diathermy machine when an electric current passes through a conductor
some energy appears as heat which depends on all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) The Intensity of the current

(b) The wave form of the current
(c) The electric property of the tissue
(d) The distance between two electrodes
69.
Osteoblasts are cells involved in:

(a) Rheumatoid nodule formation

(b) Resorption of bone
(c) Formation of bone
(d) Formation of cartilage
70.
Indications for surgery (CABG) in a case of Ischaemic Heart disease are the following
EXCEPT:

(a) > 50% stenosis of the left main stem

(b) > 25% stenosis of proximal left anterior interventricular artery
(c) Two or three main coronary arteries diseased
(d) Poor ventricular function associated with multivessel disease
71.
Cubitus varus deformity is a complication of:

(a) Supracondylar fracture of humerus

(b) Fracture medial condyle humerus
(c) Fracture lateral condyle humerus
(d) Posterior dislocation of elbow:
72.
Differential diagnosis of the acute red eye includes following conditions EXCEPT:

(a) Subconjunctival haemorrhage

(b) Cataract
(c) Keratitis
(d) Acute glaucoma
73.
Wolfe graft is:

(a) A split thickness skin graft

(b) Full thickness skin graft
(c) Axial flaps
(d) Random flaps

11
74.
All are true regarding nasal polyps EXCEPT:

(a) Polyps are insensitive to touch

(b) Simple polyps are unilateral
(c) Recurrent polyps may require ethmoidectomy
(d) Bleeding polyps can be malignant
75.
Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis includes all EXCEPT:

(a) One or both ureters are bound in retroperitoneal fibrosis

(b) Most cases are idiopathic
(c) History of backache is present
(d) IVU shows lateral displacement of ureters
76.
Partial anodontia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Ectodermal dysplasia

(b) Meningocele
(c) Cleft lip and palate
(d) Down’s syndrome
77.
Diathermy can be used for all EXCEPT:

(a) Anastomosis
(b) Fulguration
(c) Cutting
(d) Haemostasis by coagulation

78.
‘Drains’ used after surgery can do all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Remove any collection of bile, serum etc

(b) Act as a signal for haemorrhage or leakage
(c) Provide track for later drainage
(d) Prevent local infection
79.
As per WHO classification of brain tumour all are neuro epithelial tumours EXCEPT:

(a) Astrocytomas
(b) Ependyneoma
(c) Epidermoid tumours
(d) Choroid plexus tumours
80.
General anaesthesia triad include all EXCEPT:

(a) Loss of awareness

(b) Pain relief
(c) Muscle relaxation
(d) Endotracheal intubation

12
81.
A child with ventricular septal defect and congestive heart failure is well controlled on
medications. Child develops heart block after developing acute diarrhoea and dehydration.
The most likely diagnosis is:

(a) Digitalis toxicity

(b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Hyponatremia
(d) Metabolic acidosis
82.
A 10 month old otherwise healthy child presents with low grade fever, sneezing and clear
rhinorrhea. Gradually the child develops paroxysmal wheezy cough, respiratory distress and
irritability. There is no history of similar episodes in the past or in family. The most likely
diagnosis is:

(a) Bronchiolitis
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Multi-trigger wheeze
(d) Allergic bronchitis
83.
A 4-week old male infant presents with frequent non-bilious vomiting for 5 days. On
examination, a small lump is palpable in the right side of the umbilicus in the mid-
epigastrium. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be associated with this
condition?

(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypernatremia
(c) Acidosis
(d) Hypochloremia
84.
An 8-year old girl is brought with complaints of repeated seizures since infancy and mental
retardation. Examination reveals hypopigmented skin lesions on the trunk and tiny red
nodular lesions over the nose and cheeks. Which anti-convulsant drug is mostly preferred for
this child?

(a) Lamotrigine
(b) Vigabatrin
(c) Adrenocorticotropic harmone
(d) Carbamazepine
85.
A 4-month old neonate presents with cholestatic jaundice, bilateral cataract and seizures.
Investigations reveal hypoglycaemia. Which enzyme estimation will enable you to clinch the
diagnosis?

(a) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

(b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(c) Pyruvate carboxylase
(d) Liver phosphorylase

13
86.
An infant can roll over from supine to prone position; can transfer objects from one hand to
the other; can grasp objects from the radial side of hand but cannot hold a pellet between the
index finger and the thumb. What is the expected age of the infant?

(a) 4 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months
87.
The nurse attending the delivery of a neonate in the labor room fails to remove the wet liner
used for drying the baby after birth. Which mechanism of heat loss will predispose this
neonate to develop hypothermia?

(a) Evaporation
(b) Radiation
(c) Convection
(d) Conduction
88.
A 7-year old boy with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder presents with motor and vocal
tics. There is also history of making complex vocal sounds like barking and grunting. Which
one of the following is most likely diagnosis?

(a) Gilles de la Tourette syndrome

(b) Hallevorden- Spatz disease
(c) Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy
(d) Leigh disease
89.
A 5-year old boy diagnosed as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is started on induction phase of
chemotherapy. On day 21, he develops acute onset headache, seizures and left
ophthalmoplegia. Neuroimaging reveals evidence of thrombosis in bilateral cavernous
sinuses. Which chemotherapeutic drug can be implicated for this complication?

(a) Intravenous vincristine

(b) Intrathecal methotrexate
(c) Intravenous L-asparaginase
(d) Oral prednisolone
90.
A 6-year old child is not easily aroused from sleep and appears frightened and agitated. These
episodes last 10-15 minutes and on awakening child has amnesia for these events. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

(a) Nightmares
(b) Night terrors
(c) Somnambulism
(d) Narcolepsy
91.
Regarding beta HCG, which one of the following is NOT correct?
(a) The values are raised in pregnancy with foetal Down syndrome
(b) Its activity is biologically similar to FSH
(c) It is structurally related to TSH
(d) It is mostly secreted from placenta
14
92.
The number of cotyledons in the placenta till term:

(a) Remain the same

(b) Increase in number
(c) Decrease in number
(d) Disappear
93.
Drug of choice for syphilis in pregnancy is:

(a) Ceftriaxone
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Azithromycin
(d) Benzathine penicillin
94.
Regarding External Cephalic Version (ECV) which one of the following statements is NOT
true?

(a) It should be done at 36-38 weeks of gestation

(b) It can be done after delivery of first twin
(c) The earlier in gestation it is performed more are the chances of spontaneous
reversion
(d) Version is more successful in primigravida
95.
All are true about epidural labor analgesia EXCEPT:

(a) Prolongs the first stage of labor

(b) Prolongs second stage of labor
(c) Contraindicated in maternal thrombocytopenia
(d) Can only be given in primigravida
96.
All of the following factors lead to difficult labor EXCEPT:

(a) Excessive foetal size

(b) Inadequate pelvic capacity
(c) Growth restricted foetus
(d) Ineffective uterine contractions
97.
All are included in normal puerperium EXCEPT:
(a) After pains
(b) Placental site involution
(c) Lochia rubra
(d) Mastitis
98.
All are causes of puerperal pyrexia EXCEPT:
(a) Pelvic venous thrombosis
(b) Breast abscess
(c) Lochia alba
(d) Urinary tract infection

15
99.
All are true about Apgar score EXCEPT:

(a) It may be low in babies with neuromuscular or cerebral malformations

(b) It is a good assessment for preterm babies
(c) Apgar score of 7 to 10 is considered normal
(d) It can predict metabolic acidosis in newborn
100.
Which one of the following is true with respect to fallopian tube?

(a) The mucosa is lined with cuboidal epithillium

(b) The vascular supply is through vascular arcade of uterine artery laterally
(c) Ampullary region comprises almost half of length of tube
(d) Tubal ligation is done in the ampullary part of the tube
101.
All are true about physiology of thyroid in pregnancy EXCEPT:

(a) Increase in circulating level of thyroid binding globulin

(b) Decrease in availability of iodide for maternal thyroid
(c) TRH ( Thyroid Releasing Hormone) level increases in normal pregnancy
(d) Thyroid stimulating factor of placental origin are produced in excess
102.
Which one of the following is NOT a cause of abnormal menstruation?

(a) Fibroid uterus

(b) Uterine polyp
(c) Multiparous uterus
(d) Endometrial hyperplasia
103.
The commonly associated symptoms with pelvic organ prolapse are all EXCEPT:

(a) Sensation of pressure(something coming down)

(b) Sensation of incomplete bladder/bowel emptying
(c) Dyspareunia
(d) Menorrhagia
104.
A 30 year old lady P1L1A1 presents to the OPD with complaints of fever, pain lower abdomen
and discharge per vaginum . On abdominal examination, there is no guarding and rigidity.
There is cervical motion tenderness on per vaginum examination. The most likely diagnosis
is:
(a) Endometriosis
(b) Adenomyosis
(c) Pelvic inflammatory disease
(d) Ectopic pregnancy
105.
The most common pathogen for pelvic inflammatory disease in sexually active women is:

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Chlamydia trachomatis
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Pneumococcus

16
106.
The following investigations are used for diagnosis of tubal factor infertility EXCEPT:

(a) X-ray hysterosalpingography

(b) Laproscopy and chromopertubation
(c) Sonohysterography
(d) Post coital test
107.
The increased risk to ureteric injury during gynaecological surgery is at all the regions
EXCEPT:

(a) Pelvic brim

(b) Infundibulopelvic ligament
(c) Ureteric tunnel beneath the uterine artery
(d) Bifurcation of common iliac arteries
108.
All of the following injuries can occur with improper forceps application EXCEPT:

(a) Bladder injury

(b) Rectal injury
(c) Vaginal mucosa tear
(d) Fallopian tube injury
109.
A 60-year old P2L2 presented with abdominal mass. Staging laparotomy was done. The per
operative and histopathological findings suggested tumour involved both ovaries with
ruptured capsule with positive peritoneal washing, uterus, tubes and omental surface was
negative. What is the stage of the tumor?

(a) Stage I b
(b) Stage I c
(c) Stage II b
(d) Stage II c
110.
The following are causes of acute pain abdomen in prepubertal girl EXCEPT:

(a) Twisted ovarian tumour

(b) Appendicitis
(c) Genital tuberculosis
(d) Acute gastroenteritis
111.
The reproductive and child health for a couple comprises:

(a) Ability to regulate their fertility

(b) Prevention of RTI and STI
(c) Access to antenatal care and delivery
(d) All of these
112.
All are natural family planning methods EXCEPT:
(a) The Billing Method
(b) The Basal Body Temperature Method
(c) Personal Measurement of Urinary estrogen and LH through kit
(d) Spermicides
17
113.
Following statements are correct for lactational amenorrhea method EXCEPT:

(a) Breast feeding delays the resumption of fertility

(b) Lactation suppresses ovulation
(c) It is more effective contraception than barrier
(d) It gives more protection when mother is exclusively breast feeding
114.
Following are the intra uterine contraceptive devices EXCEPT:

(a) Levonorgestrel IUS

(b) Implanon
(c) CuT 380A
(d) Freedom 5
115.
The advantages of copper containing IUCD as contraceptive are all EXCEPT:

(a) Reversibility to fertility is prompt

(b) Risk of pelvic inflammatory disease is decreased
(c) Systemic side effects are nil
(d) Can be used as emergency contraception
116.
Which one of the following is NOT indicated to be used as emergency contraception?

(a) IUCD
(b) Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg
(c) LNG-IUS
(d) Ulipristal acetate
117.
The combined hormonal contraceptive will benefit in all conditions EXCEPT:

(a) Irregular menstrual cycles

(b) Premenstrual syndrome
(c) Endometriosis
(d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
118.
All statements are correct about the MTP Act EXCEPT:

(a) After 12 weeks of gestation opinion of two registered medical practitioners is

required for termination
(b) The name of abortion seeker is kept confidential
(c) A doctor may qualify to do MTP after 3 months of housemanship in obstetrics
and gynaecology
(d) A pregnancy by an act of rape can be terminated under MTP Act
119.
All of the following chemotherapeutic agents used in gynaecological cancer are
topoisomerase II inhibitor EXCEPT:

(a) Epirubicin
(b) Methotrexate
(c) Liposomal doxorubicin
(d) Etoposide
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120.
The advantages of laparoscopic surgery over laparotomy are all EXCEPT:

(a) Faster postoperative recovery

(b) Decreased blood loss
(c) Less requirement of postoperative analgesia
(d) Preferred in hemodynamically unstable patients
121.
Proportion of infants who are fully immunised against 6 vaccine preventable diseases is an
example of which one of the following indicators?

(a) Notification Rate

(b) Utilisation Rate
(c) Nutritional Status Rate
(d) Female Literacy Rate
122.
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index of all of the following indicators
EXCEPT:

(a) Life Expectancy at birth

(b) Mean and Expected Years of Schooling
(c) GNI per Capita in Purchasing Power Parity
(d) Infant Mortality
123.
Which one of the following is NOT a component of Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?

(a) Infant Mortality

(b) Under Five Mortality
(c) Life expectancy at age one
(d) Literacy
124.
In a community if the under 5 proportionate mortality rate is low, what best does it reflect?

(a) Hygiene of community is poor

(b) Birth rates are very high
(c) Infant mortality rate is high
(d) Life expectancy is long
125.
Which one of the following statements best describes a reliable indicator?

(a) It should actually measure what it is supposed to measure

(b) It should reflect changes only in the situation concerned
(c) It should provide the same answer if measured by different people in similar
circumstances
(d) It should contribute to the understanding of topic of interest
126.
An estimate of the amount by which the disease could be reduced in a population, if the
suspected factor is eliminated or modified is called:
(a) Relative Risk
(b) Attributable Risk
(c) Population Attributable Risk
(d) Risk Difference
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127.
False positive result in a screening programme means:

(a) Person has the disease and tests positive

(b) Person does not have the disease but tests positive
(c) Person has the disease but tests negative
(d) None of these
128.
Which one of the following statements is NOT true of community diagnosis?

(a) It includes identification and quantification of health problems in a community

(b) It means that all individuals in the community have been diagnosed with a health
problem
(c) It includes identification of groups at risk
(d) It includes understanding of social, cultural and economic characteristics of
community
129.
What would be the preferred choice of vaccines to be given to an infant 10 months of age
who has never been vaccinated?

(a) OPV and Measles

(b) DPT and OPV
(c) Measles and DPT
(d) None of these
130.
Which one of the following guidelines is NOT true for female sterilization?

(a) Age of the wife should not be less than 20 years or more than 45 years
(b) Age of the husband should not be less than 35 years nor should be over 60 years
(c) The motivated couple should have 2 living children at the time of operation
(d) In case couple has 3 or more living children, the lower age limit of husband or
wife may be relaxed
131.
Which one of the following criteria is NOT true for a potentially useful Disinfectant for water
treatment?

(a) It should be capable of destroying pathogenic organism in water

(b) It should not change colour of water
(c) It should not leave any residual concentration to deal with recontamination
(d) It should be convenient and safe for use
132.
Which one of the following is true about culex larvae?

(a) Responsible for transmitting malaria

(b) Siphon tube is absent
(c) Presence of palmate hairs
(d) Suspended with head downwards with an angle to water surface

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133.
Which one of the following air pollutants can be carcinogenic?

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Particulate matter
134.
Which one of the following is a pathognomonic symptom of Chikungunya?

(a) Adenopathy
(b) Arthropathy
(c) Sudden onset of fever with chills
(d) Anorexia
135.
Which one of the following schedules is followed under UIP for prevention of Japanese
encephalitis?

(a) Mouse brain derived vaccine given as 3 primary doses on days 0, 7 and 28
(b) Mouse brain derived vaccine given as 2 primary doses 4 weeks apart with booster
at 1 year and 3-4 yearly till 10-15 years of age
(c) Cell culture based live attenuated vaccine SA 14-14-2 given as single dose
followed by a booster a year later
(d) Mouse brain derived vaccine given as 2 primary doses 4 weeks apart
136.
Under Prevention and Control of Malaria, Integrated Vector Management comprises:

(a) Indoor residual spray, antilarval measures, use of insecticide treated nets
(b) Indoor residual spray, antilarval measures, use of insecticide treated nets and case
detection
(c) Indoor residual spray, antilarval measures, use of insecticide treated nets and case
management
(d) Indoor residual spray, antilarval measures, use of insecticide treated nets and case
detection and management
137.
Which one of the following is NOT true in respect of yellow fever?

(a) One attack of yellow fever gives life long immunity and second attacks are unknown
(b) Indian population is unvaccinated and susceptible to yellow fever
(c) Yellow fever is caused by Flavivirus fibricus (Group B arbovirus), a member of
togavirus family
(d) After administration of 17 D vaccine, the immunity appears on 2nd day and lasts for 5
years
138.
Which one of the following is the best suitable option to assess central obesity in community
settings for assessing cardiovascular disease risk ?
(a) BMI
(b) Skinfold thickness
(c) Waist circumference and waist hip ratio
(d) Body weight

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139.
Growth of thermophilic actinomycetes eg. micropolyspora faeni in grain dust commonly
leads to which one of the following conditions?

(a) Bagassosis
(b) Byssinosis
(c) Farmer’s lung
(d) Anthracosis
140.
To study the bed load and nursing services in teaching and nonteaching hospitals, what would
be the study of choice?

(a) Descriptive study

(b) Uncontrolled trials
(c) Operational research
(d) Anthropological research
141.
Which one of the following is/are symptom(s) of Drug Addiction?

(a) Loss of interest in daily routine

(b) Loss of appetite and body weight, drowsiness, lethargy
(c) Acute anxiety, depression, sweating or changing moods
(d) All of these
142.
Which one of the following drugs is a potent psychotogenic agent?

(a) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

(b) Cannabis
(c) Barbiturates
(d) Cocaine
143.
The Red Ribbon Express Project is associated with which one of the following National
Programmes?

(a) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular
Diseases and Stroke
(b) National AIDs Control Programme
(c) Reproductive and Child Health Programme
(d) National Programme for control of Blindness
144.
Pentavalent vaccine comprises:

(a) DPT + Hep B + Rubella

(b) DT + Polio + Hep B + Measles
(c) DPT + Hep B + Hib
(d) DPT + Polio + JE
145.
Why 0.05 mL dose of BCG is given to newborn (below 1 month of age)?
(a) Higher dose can cause anaphylaxis
(b) Local abscess and axillary lymph nodes enlargement can take place
(c) Skin of new born in thin and 0.1 mL can break the skin
(d) In any case revaccination is required after one year
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146.
The teen centre, a popular approach to the prevention of drug abuse in adolescents, is an
example of which of the following approaches?

(a) Community Approach

(b) Legal Approach
(c) Educational Approach
(d) All of these
147.
Average number of children that would be born to a married woman if she experiences the
current fertility pattern throughout her reproductive span is denoted by which one of the
following indicators?

(a) General Fertility Rate

(b) Age Specific Marital Fertility Rate
(c) Total Marital Fertility Rate
(d) Total Fertility Rate
148.
The term ‘Demographic Burden’ connotes:

(a) Increase in population

(b) Increase in migratory population from rural to urban area
(c) Increase in total dependency ratio
(d) Increase in young age dependency ratio only
149.
Which one of the following statements for Prevention and Control of Nosocomial infections
is NOT correct?

(a) All health staff should be provided with personal protective equipment
(b) Standard Work precautions is to be followed only while cleaning spills
(c) Specific post exposure prophylaxis policies are to be developed
(d) Biomedical waste is to be handled as per guidelines
150.
Most common Nosocomial infection is:

(a) Respiratory tract infection

(b) Surgical site infection
(c) Eye infection
(d) Urinary tract infection

23