ANALYSIS OF QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE IN GATE PAPER

Years Marks
2017(Set-1) 15
2017(Set-2) 15
2018 15
2019 15
2020 15
2021(Set-1) 15
2021(Set-2) 15
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE GATE SYLLABUS

VERBAL APTITUDE

Basic English grammar: tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions, conjunctions, verb-noun

agreement, and other parts of speech

Basic vocabulary: words, idioms, and phrases in context

Reading and comprehension

Narrative sequencing

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Data interpretation: data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and other graphs representing
data), 2- and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables

Numerical computation and estimation: ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and

logarithms, permutations and combinations, and series

Mensuration and geometry

Elementary statistics and probability

ANALYTICAL APTITUDE

Logic: deduction and induction

Analogy

Numerical relations and reasoning

SPATIAL APTITUDE

Transformation of shapes: translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring, assembling, and

grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE GATE REFERENCE BOOKS
1. Quantitative Aptitude by R.S. Agrawal.
2. A modern approaches to Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning
3. Quantitative Aptitude by Arun Sharma
4. Quantitative Aptitude book of Pearson publication
5. https://www.sawaal.com/aptitude-reasoning/quantitative-aptitude
arithmetic-ability-questions-and-answers.html
6. https://byjus.com/govt-exams/quantitative-aptitude/
7. https://www.careerbless.com/aptitude/qa/home.php
8. https://www.toppr.com/guides/quantitative-aptitude/
9. https://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/questions-and-answers/
10. https://www.fresherslive.com/online-test/aptitude-test/questions-and-
Answers

TABLE OF CONTENTS

S. No. CHAPTERS P. No.

1 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 1

2 SPATIAL APTITUDE 85

3 VERBAL APTITUDE 115

ANALYTICAL APTITUDE
4 154
 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Number System (Divisibility, Cyclicity, HCF and LCM)
Q1. When 335 is added to 5A7, the result is 8B2. 8B2 is divisible by 3. What is sum of the
smallest and largest possible value of A?
(a) 8 (b) 13 (c) 1 (d) 5

Q2. If the number 5107k3204 is completely divisible by 9, then the smallest whole number
in place of k will be
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7

Q3. The greatest among the following numbers (3)1/3 , (2)1/2, 1, (6)1/6 is :
(a) (2)1/3 (b)1 (c) (6)1/6 (d) (3)1/3

Q4. On dividing a certain number by 9342 we get 44 as remainder. If the same number is
divided by 18, what will be the remainder ? __________

Q5. If the number 93215k6 is completely divisible by 11, then the smallest whole number
in place of k will be ___________

Q6. The largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88 is ________

Q7. What least number must be subtracted from 13601, so that the resultant number is
divisible by 87? __________
Q8. [MSQ]
5349 is added to 3957. Then 7062 is subtracted from the sum.The result is/are divisible
by
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 11
Q9. If k = (5x+11y) is a prime number for positive integral values of x and y, then what is
the least value of (x+y + k) ? ________
Q10. On multiplying a number by 7, the product is a number each of whose digits is 3. The
smallest such number is ____________

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 1

Q11. The difference of the squares of two consecutive even integers is divisible by which of
the following integers?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
Q12. [MSQ]
The difference of the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by
which of the following integers?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Q13. [MSQ]
If n is a natural number, then (6𝑛2 + 6𝑛) is always divisible by
(a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24
Q14. [MSQ]
If n is a natural number, then 4(𝑛3 − 𝑛) is always divisible by
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 24

Q15. What will be the remainder when (6767 + 67) is divisible by 68? __________

Q16. [MSQ]
Which of the following number(s) will completely divide(4949 − 1)?
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) None of these

Q17. What will be the remainder when (172022 + 1) is divided by 288? _______

Q18. Which one of the following is the common factor of

(4743 + 4343 ) and(4747 + 4347 )?
(a) 90 (b) 4 (c) 17 (d) None of these

Q19. [MSQ]
Which one of the following number(s) will completely divide
(481 + 482 + 483 + 484 )?
(a) 68 (b) 20 (c) 170 (d) 80

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 2

Q20. A number when divided by 7 leaves a remainder 4. When the square of the number is
divided by 7, the remainder is ______

Q21. On dividing a number N by 6, 7, 8 if we get 4 as remainder always, then what is the

smallest value of N? _______ [Assume N is a natural number]

Q22. On dividing a number N by 6, 7, 8 if we get 4 as remainder always, then what is the

second smallest value of N? _______ [Assume N is a natural number]

Q23. On dividing a number N by 6, 7, 8 if we get 5, 6 & 7 as remainder respectively, then

what is the smallest value of N? _______ [Assume N is a natural number]

Q24. What is the 3rd smallest natural number, which after adding 8 is divisible by 10, 11 and
12? __________
Q25. A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5, 6. The remainders were
respectively 2, 3 and 4. The number is ___________

Q26. What is the largest number N, such that the number 210, 315 and 525 are divisible by
N? ______________

Q27. What is the largest number N, such that when the number 45, 101 and 157 are divisible
by N then we get remainder 3 in each case? ______________

Q28. What is the largest number N, such that when the number 151, 193 and 424 are
divisible by N then we get same remainder in each case? ______________

Q29. What is the second largest number N, such that when the number 155, 205 and 305 are
divisible by N then we get same remainder in each case? ______________

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 3

Q30. What is the third largest number N, such that when the number 93, 128 and 199 are
divisible by N then we get remainder 3, 2 and 1 respectively? ____________

Q31. What is the value of 3510 𝑚𝑜𝑑 8? ____________

Q32. What is the unit digit of 1111 + 1212 + 1313 + 1414 + 1515 + 166 ? ________

Q33. What is the value of (𝑋 mod 5); if X = (3254)236 × (178)17 × (327)323 ? _________

Q34. A man wrote all the natural numbers starting from 1 in a series. What will be the 100th
digit of the number? _________

Q35. What is the value of(310 . 2 − 33 . 3 + 1)𝑚𝑜𝑑 (26)? ___________

Q36. [MSQ]
Let X be a natural number such that X =465374 − 235374 , then which of the following
statement is/are true?
(a) X mod 35 = 0
(b) X mod 23 = 0
(c) (𝑋 + 1)2 mod 5 = 1
(d) 𝑋 mod 161 = 0

Q37. The number 7105 + 8105 is always divisible by

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 15 (d) All of these

Q38. How many divisors of 16800? ____________

Q39. What will be the sum of all divisors of 16800? ____________

Q40. Let H.C.F and L.C.M of 4/14, 6/21 and 8/42 are X and Y respectively, then
X/Y is equal to
24 24 1
(a) 8 (b) (c) (d)
7 147 72

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 4

Q41. What will be the unit digit of 2626  (263)37  (45)63? _____________

Q42. What will be the unit digit of 2121 + 2222 + 2323 + 2424? _____________

Q43. Let N = 23253159 what is the remainder when N is divided by 17? _______________

Q44. The value of 9(999) mod 8 is __________________

Q45. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, then the sum of the two numbers
would be:
(a) 41 (b)43 (c) 37 (d) 39

Q46. The multiplication of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the greater is
divided by the smaller is 15. The sum of the numbers is:
(a) 600 (b)125 (c) 275 (d) 400

Q47. The product of the two prime numbers is 493. What will the L.C.M of these two
numbers?
(a) 493 (b)17 (c) 29 (d)Can’t be determined

Q48. What is the remainder when: 1661 + 1551 + 1441 + 1331 + 1221 is divided by 20?
(a)25 (b) 5 (c) 11 (d)1

Q49. The sum of two numbers is 45 and their product is 500. The HCF of the numbers is:
(a) 5 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 15

Q50. Which of the following is a pair of co-primes?

(a) 23, 69 (b) 37, 111 (c) 14 , 9 (d) 51, 34

Q51. The sum of two numbers is 216 and their H.C.F is 27. The numbers are:
(a)81, 135 (b) 27, 189 (c)154, 162 (d)both a & b

Q52. Which of the following number which when divides 1265 leaves quotient 84 and
remainder 5?
(a)15 (b) 18 (c) 23 (d) 61

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 5

Q53. A number gives a remainder 5 when it is divided by 8. What will be the remainder
when the square of the same number is divided by 4?
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) can’t be determined
Q54. A hundred digit number is formed by writing first 54 natural numbers one after the
other as 123456…………….5354. What will be the remainder when this number is
divided by 8?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0
Q55. If n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive positive integers, then which of
the following statements is/ are true?

(i) n is odd (ii) √𝑛 is prime (iii) n is a perfect square

(a) i only (b) i, ii only (c) i, iii only (d) All are true

Q56. If the unit digit in the product (459 × 46 × 28 * × 484) is 2, the digit in place of * is:___
Q57. A person divided 100 rupees between his friends, if there will be 5 more friends than
each will get 1 rupee less. How many friend he had?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35

Percentage
Q58. 50% of a% of b is 75% of b% of C. Which of the following is C ?
(a) 1.5a (b) 0.667a (c) 0.5a (d)1.25a

Q59. x% of y + y % of x =?
(a) 3% of xy (b) 2% of xy (c) 5% of xy (d) None of these

Q60. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B= x% of A, then the value of x is

(a) 800 (b) 300 (c)700 (d) None of these

Q61. The price of cooking oil has increased by 15%. The percentage of reduction that a family
should effect in the use of cooking oil, so as not to increase the expenditure on this account
is
2 1 1
(a)15 % (b) 13 % (c) 17 % (d)None of these
23 23 23

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 6

Q62. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
(a)Does not change
(b) Decreases by 2%
(c) Increases by 4%
(d) Decreases by 4%

Q63. The population of a town is decreased by 20% and 25% in two successive years. What
percent of population is decreased after two years?
(a)50% (b)40% (c) 60% (d)None of these

Q64. When the price of an article is reduced by 15% the sales increases by 35%. The
percentage change in the total amount of receipts is
(a)Decrease (b) Increase (c) Decrease (d) None of these

Q65. If the side of a square is increased by 30%, its area is increased by

(a) 49% (b) 69% (c) 79 % (d)None of these

Q66. For a rectangle, the length and breadth are increased by 10% and 20%, respectively.
The percentage increases in area is
(a)24% (b) 48% (c) 32 % (d) None of these

Q67. Water tax is increased by 20% but its consumption is decreased by 20%. The increase
or decrease in the expenditure is
(a)4 % decrease (b) 4% increase (c) 8% decrease (d) 8 % increase

Q68. The population of a town increases by 12% during first year and decreases by 10 %
during second year. If the present population is 50400, what it was 2 years ago?
(a) 40000 (b) 35000 (c) 50000 (d) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 7

Q69. The salary of an employee is increased twice successively by 25% and 20%
respectively. What are the two successive deductions that should be made to bring
back his salary to the original level?
50 50
(a) 20%, 25% (b) 25%, % (c) 20%, % (d) 22%, 23%
3 3

Q70. The salaries of A and B together is equal to Rs 10,000. A spends 80% of his salary and B
spends 70% of his salary. If now, their saving are the same, what is A′s salary?
(a) 6000 (b) 5000 (c) 4000 (d) 7000

Q71. A man save 40% of his monthly salary. On account of an increase in price, he has to
increase his monthly expenditure by 40% , and is able to save Rs 40 per month . What
is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs 1000 (b) Rs 500 (c) Rs 200 (d) Rs 250

Q72. Due to fall in manpower, production in a factory decreases to 40%. By what percentage
should the working hours be increased to restore the original level of production?
2 1
(a)66 % (b) 46 % (c) 25% (d)40 %
3 3

Q73. After spending 20% on machinery, 10% on buliding, 9% on raw materials and 7 % on
other, Chandra had a balance of Rs. 2700, then the money with him initially was.
(a)Rs 5000 (b)Rs 6000 (c)Rs 7000 (d) Rs 8000

Q74. The population of a city decreases by 10% at the end of first year and increases by 10
at the end of second year and again decreases by 10% at the end of the thrid year .If
the population of the city at the end of third year is 4,455,then what was the population
of the city at the beginning of the first yers ?
(a)5000 (b)4500 (c)4950 (d) 1000

Q75. Two numbers are less than a third number by 40% and 46% respectively. By what percent is
the second number less than the first, is
(a)5% (b)15% (c)20% (d)10%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 8

Q76. If Raju’s salary is increased by 40% , by what percentage should it be brought down to
bring it back to the original level?
(a)1913 % (b) 1623 % (c) 2847 % (d) 2317 %

Q77. The production of rice went up from 2000 million tonnes in 1998 to 2300 million tonnes
in 1999. What is the percentage increase in the production of rice form 1998 to 1999?
(a)20% (b)15% (c)25% (d)12 ½%

Q78. In an examination 35% of students passed in maths, 48% passes in science and 23%
passed in both the subject . What is the percentage of the student who failed in both
the subject?
(a)50% (b)40% (c)60% (d) 53%
Q79. In an election contested by two candidates. The candidates who gets 43% is rejected
by a margin of 2856 votes. What is the total number of votes polled given that all the
votes polled were vaild votes?
(a)20,400 (b)20,820 (c)16,500 (d)40,800
Q80. In an election a candidate secures 37% of the total votes polled. The only other
candidate defeated him by 520 votes. If all the votes polled are valid , the number of
votes polled was _____
(a) 1500 (b) 4000 (c) 2000 (d) 4400

PROFIT AND LOSS

Q81. An article is bought for Rs. 675 and sold for Rs. 900. Find the gain percent?
2 1 1 1
(a) 30 % (b) 31 % (c) 33 % (d) 33 %
3 3 3 6

Q82. A person buys a horse for 15 pounds. After one year, he sells it for 20 pounds. After
one year, again he buys the same horse at 30 pounds and sells it for 40 pounds. What
is the overall profit percent for that person over both the transactions?
(a) 30.33% (b) 33.33% (c) 35.33% (d) 40.33%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 9

Q83. A trader sells 85 m of cloth for Rs. 8,925 at the profit of Rs. 15/m of cloth. What is the
cost price of 1 m of cloth?
(a) Rs. 84 (b) Rs. 90 (c) Rs. 96 (d) Rs. 102

Q84. By selling an article at Rs. 800, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 25%. At what price
should he sell the article so as to make a loss of 25%?
(a) Rs. 460 (b) Rs. 480 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 520

Q85. Ankit bought 160 shirts at the rate of Rs. 225/shirt. The transport expenditure was Rs.
1,400. He paid an octroi at the rate of Rs. 1.75/shirt and labour charges were Rs. 320.
What should be the selling price of 1 shirt, if he wants a profit of 20%?
(a) Rs. 260 (b) Rs. 275 (c) Rs. 280 (d) Rs. 285

Q86. A man sold two houses for Rs. 8 lakhs each. On the one, he gained 6% and on the
other, he lost 6%. What percent is the effect of the sale on the whole?
(a) 0.36 % loss (b) 0.36 % gain (c) 36 % loss (d) 36 % gain

Q87. If two articles are bought for the same price (i.e., the cost prices are equal) and one is
sold at a profit of 30% and the second is sold at a profit of 20%, then the overall
percentage of profit is ______________

Q88. If two articles are bought for the same price (i.e., the cost prices are equal) and one is
sold at a profit of 20% and the second is sold at a loss of 30%, then the overall
percentage of profit/loss is
(a) 25 % profit (b) 10% loss (c) 5% loss (d) none of these

Q89. A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs 960 and gains 20%. At what price should he sell
the article to gain 40%?
(a) Rs. 800 (b) Rs. 1200 (c) Rs. 1120 (d) Rs. 1100

Q90. A shopkeeper professes to sell the articles at a discount of 25%, but marks the list price
of each article 40% above the cost price. What is his gain (in %) on each article?
(a) 15% (b) 10 % (c) 5% (d) 3.75%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 10

Q91. A merchant gives 25% discount on an article and still gain 20%. How much percentage
above the cost price is the article marked?
(a) 62.5 % (b) 15% (c) 37.5% (d) 60%

Q92. 400 tomatoes were bought at Rs 125 per hundred and were sold at a total profit of Rs
100. The selling price of a dozen tomatoes is _______
(a) Rs 20 (b) Rs 18 (c) Rs 25 (d) none of these

Q93. By selling a book for Rs 150, a shop owner lost 1/16 of what it costs. What is its cost
price?
(a) Rs 170 (b) Rs 180 (c) Rs 150 (d) Rs 160

Q94. By selling 44 meters of ribbon I gained the cost price of 11 meters of ribbon. My
percentage of gain is __________
1
(a) 33 % (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) None of these
3

Q95. What will be the percentage of profit after selling an article at a certain price, if there
is a loss of 10% when the article is sold at half that price?
(a)20% (b) 80% (c) 50% (d) None of these

Q96. A man buys 200 oranges for Rs 10. How many oranges a rupee can he sell so as to gain
25%? ___________

Q97. The cost price of 30 lemons is the same as selling price of 24 lemons. What is percentage
of gain/loss?
(a) 25 % profit (b) 20% profit (c) 25 % loss (d) 20% profit

Q98. The cost price of a certain number of articles is the same as the selling price of 1/3𝑟𝑑
of the same number of articles. What is the gain/loss percent?
(a) 66.67% gain (b) 200 % gain (c) 33% gain (d) 66.67% loss

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 11

Q99. A dealer weighs only 950 gm per kg. What is his error percentage?
5
(a) 5 % (b) 5% (c) 15% (d) None of these
19

Q100. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price and uses an 880 gm weight instead of
a kg. What is his percentage of gain? (Approximately)
(a) 13.13 % (b) 13.33% (c) 13.36% (d) 13.64%

Q101. A trader gains the cost of 2 kg of oil by selling 10 kg of oil. What is his gain percentage?
2 2
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 18 % (d) 11 %
3 3

Q102. After two successive discounts of 10% each are allowed, an article is sold at
Rs 2,430. What is the discount allowed?
(a) Rs 510.30 (b) Rs 570 (c) Rs 486 (d) Rs 461.70

Q103. If, after successive discounts of 5%, 10% and 25%, a customer has to pay Rs 1282.50 for
an article, then what is the approximate list price of the article?
(a) Rs 2200 (b) Rs 2250 (c) Rs 2000 (d) Rs 2400

Q104. If 10%, 20%, 30% are three successive discounts offered for an article, then what is %
effective discount/overall discount?
(a) 50% (b) 15.6% (c) 50.4 % (d) 49.6%

Q105. If 30% and 50% are two successive discounts, then it is equivalent to a single discount
percentage , which is equal to
(a) 80% (b) 40% (c) 65% (d) 60%

Q106. The listed price of a bag is Rs 160. A merchant bought it for Rs 122.40. He got two
successive discounts of which one is 10%. What is other discount?
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%
Q107. The sale price of a ‘T’ shirt, listed for Rs 400, after successive discounts 10% and 5%, is
(a) Rs 340 (b) Rs 341 (c) Rs 342 (d) Rs 343

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 12

Q108. X sells Y an article at a profit of 20%. Y sells it to Z at a loss of 20%. If Z paid Rs 960,
then what is the selling price of X? ___________

Q109. If the price of an apple is reduced by 20%, a person can buy 5 apples more for Rs 100,
what is the reduced cost of each apple?
(a) Rs 5 (b) Rs 4 (c) Rs 1 (d) Rs 4.80

Q110. A trader’s prices yield a gain of 25%. He weighs only 950 gm for each kilogram. What
is his percentage gain? (Approximately)
(a) 23.5% (b) 30.25% (c) 28.6% (d) 31.6%

CI and SI
Q111. What is the interest (in Rs) on a sum of Rs 80, 000 at a rate of 20% per anum for three
years under simple interest? ___________

Q112. A sum triples in 16 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per anum?
(a) 10% (b) 5.33% (c) 12.5% (d) none of these

Q113. A sum of Rs 60,000 amounts to Rs 80,000 in four years at simple interest. What will the
sum amount (in Rs) to in 11 years? _________

Q114. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs 1,250 in two years and Rs 1500 four years. What
is the rate of simple interest?
(a) 6.25% (b)12.5% (c) 18% (d) 25%

Q115. A sum of Rs 1,200 amounts to Rs 1,800 in 10 years under simple interest. What should
be the rate of interest so that the same sum amounts to 1800 in eight years under simple
interest?
(a) 6.25% (b)12.5% (c) 18% (d) 25%

Q116. How much will Rs 12,000 amount to in 3 years at a rate of 25% per annum
Compound interest?
(a) Rs 25000 (b) Rs 21000 (c) Rs 23437.5 (d) none

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 13

Q117. A sum of money invested at compound triples itself in four years. In how many years
will it becomes 27 times itself at the same rate of compound interest?
(a) 1.33 years (b)8 years (c) 12 years (d) 20 years

Q118. A sum of money amounts to Rs 36,000 in three years and Rs 48000 in four years at
compound interest, compounded annually in each case. What is the rate of interest per
annum?
(a) 66.67% (b) 33.33% (c) 20% (d) 25%

Q119. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the
compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
(a) Rs. 2160 (b) Rs. 3120 (c) Rs. 3972 (d) Rs. 6240

Q120. Rs. 1, 00,000 was borrowed for 3 years. What will be the compound interest if the rate
of interest for first year is 3% per annum; second year is 4% per annum and for third
year is 5% per annum respectively?
(a) Rs 120000 (b) Rs 112476 (c) Rs 150000 (d) none of these

Q121. A sum of money becomes 16 times of itself in 2 years if compounded half-yearly. How
much time it will take to become 27 times if compounded yearly.
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 5years (d) 6 years

Q122. The difference of S.I and C.I on an amount of Rs. 30000 for 2 years is Rs. 147. What is
the rate of Interest?
(a) 8 % (b) 10 % (c) 9 % (d) 7 %

Q123. If the ratio of difference of S.I and C.I. for two years and 3 years is 4:13. Find the rate
of interest.
(a) 20 % (b) 25 % (c) 30 % (d) 40 %

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 14

Q124. The difference between SI and CI for 2 years at the rate of 20% per annum is Rs 16.
What is the principal value?
(a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 400 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 800

Q125. What is the difference of compound interests accrued at 20 % per annum on Rs 10,000
for one year when interest is compounded half-yearly and when it is compounded
quarterly? __________ [Round off upto four decimal digits]

Q126. A certain sum amounts to Rs 6,300 in two years and to Rs 7,875 in three years nine
months at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
(a)10% (b)15% (c)18% (d) 20%

Q127. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on a sum of Rs. 5, 00,000
for two years is Rs 2450. What is the rate of interest, if it is compounded annually
(a)6% (b)7% (c)8% (d)10%

Q128. A sum of Rs. 7,500 invested at compound interest doubles in five years. After 20 years
it becomes.
(a)Rs 1,50,000 (b)Rs 60,000 (c)Rs 1,20,000 (d)Rs 90000

Q129. In how many years will a sum of money , when invested at 25% p.a. Compound
interest compounded annually, becomes 1.5625 times (approximately one and half
times) itself ?
(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q130. A sum amounts to Rs 8640 in three years at 20 % per anum compound interest. What
was the value of the sum?
(a)Rs 7500 (b)Rs 5000 (c)Rs 6000 (d)Rs 4500

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 15

Q131. Find the difference in the compound interest at 40% p.a when it is compound on Rs
20,000 for one year, when the interest is compounded half yearly and quarterly.
(a)Rs 284 (b)Rs 364 (c)Rs 482 (d) Rs 436

Q132. A sum of Rs P amounts to Rs 9P/4 in five years at simple interest. If the rate of interest
is decreases by ten percentage points how much interest will the same sum yield in
the same time?
3𝑃 3𝑃 5𝑃 𝑃
(a)Rs (b)Rs (c)Rs (d) Rs
8 4 8 8

Q133. The difference in compound interest accrued on Rs 20,000 for one year at 6% p/a when
interest is compounded yearly and when it is compounded half yearly is
(a)Rs 32 (b)Rs 15 (c)Rs 18 (d)Rs 21

Q134. The difference between the simple interests received from two different banks on a
sum of Rs 60,000 for two years is Rs 1,500. What is the difference of the interest rates
of the two banks in percentage points?
(a) 1.25 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.75

Q135. If the difference of the simple interest and the compound interest on a certain sum at
15% p.a. for two years is Rs 360. Find the sum.
(a) Rs 2,400 (b) Rs 20,000 (c) Rs 16,000 (d) Rs 4.800

Q136. If the simple interest on a sum of money at 10% p.a for four years is Rs 2,400 then the
compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate, when
interest is compounded annually, is
(a)Rs 2847.60 (b)7248.80 (c)2784.60 (d)Rs 4284.70
Q137. A sum of money doubles itself at a certain rate of compound interest, compounded
annually in six years. In how many years (approximately) will it triple itself at the
same rate of compound interest? (log 3: log2 = 1.5850)
1 1
(a) 11 (b) 9 (c)9 (d) 12
3 2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 16

Q138. If the simple interest on a sum of money at 5% per anum for four years is Rs 6,000 then
what will be the corresponding compound interest on the same sum at the same rate
of interest for 3 years?
(a)Rs 4,278.25 (b)Rs 4,728.75 (c)Rs 3,975.75 (d) Rs 4,4,75.75

Q139. Hari gave a loan of Rs 20 to Ram and recover at a rate of Rs 3.50 for eight months,
commencing from the end of 1st month. What is the effective rate of simple interest per
annum?
(a) 60% (b) 80% (c) 40% (d) 90%

Q140. A sum of Rs 800 amount to Rs 1,040 in four years at simple interest. By how many
percentage points should the rate of interest per annum be increased so that Rs 1,200
would amount to rs 2,400 in 8 years?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c)5 (d)None of these.

Q141. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum
payable half-yearly is:
(a) 6.06% (b) 6.07% (c) 6.08% (d) 6.09%

Q142. John invests Rs. 5,000 in a term deposit scheme. The scheme offers an interest rate of
6% per annum, compounded quarterly. What is the effective rate of interest?
(a) 0.06% (b) 61.3% (c) 6.13% (d) 6%

RATIO, PROPORTION AND VARIATION

Q143. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : P : 5. The third number is greater than the first
one by 21. Find the value of P, if the sum of the numbers is 70 ?_________
Q144. If a : b = 2 : 3; c : b = 5 : 4; d : c = 2 : 7 and d : e = 2 : 3, then a : b : c : d : e is equivalent
to
(a)56:84:105:30:45 (b)56:84:100:36:45
(c) 60:80:100:30:50 (d) 84:56:30:105:40

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 17

Q145. The expenditure and savings of a person are in the ratio of 4:1. If his savings are
increased by 25% of his income, then what is the new ratio of his expenditure and
savings?
(a)8:5 (b)7:5 (c)16:9 (d)11:9

Q146. A bag containing twelve goggles is dropped from the first floor of a building. Which
of the following cannot be the ratio of the number of goggles broken to unbroken?
(a)1:5 (b)5:7 (c)2:1 (d)4:3

Q147. The ratio of marks obtained by Ram and Das is 4 : 3. If Ram and Das get 210 marks
together and the average of their percentage is 70, find their individual marks and the
total marks for which the exam was conducted.
(a)160,120,200
(b)180,135,200
(c)150,120,200
(d)120,90,150

Q148. The ratio of ages of a son and a father is 1:4.If the present age of the son is 15 years,
then after how many years their ages will be in the ratio of 4:13?
(a)20 (b)10 (c)5 (d)15

Q149. Find the three numbers in the ratio 6:8:3 such that the difference of the square of the
first and the third number is 108.
(a)6,8,3 (b)18,24,9 (c)9,12,4 (d)12,16,6

Q150. The ratio of A’s salary to B’s was 4 : 5. A’s salary is increased by 10% and B’s by 20%,
what is the ratio of their salaries now?
(a) 14:11 (b) 15:14 (c) 11:15 (d) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 18

Q151. 300 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins, their values being in the ratio
of 10 : 4 : 3. Find the number of coins of each type.
(a) 100, 80, 120
(b) 80, 90, 100
(c) 100, 100, 80
(d) 60, 80, 100

Q152. If x varies inversely as (y2 – 1) and is equal to 24 when y =10, then the value of x when
y = 5 will be? __________________

Q153. YRs.590 is divided amongst A, B, C so that 5 times A's share, six times B's share and
eight times C's share are all equal. What is C's share?
(a) Rs.130 (b) Rs.150 (c) Rs.170 (d) Rs.175

Q154. The salary earned by a man for three months in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 5. If the difference
between the product of salaries of the first two months to that of the last two months
(in Rs) is 4,80, 00, 000, then what is the salary of the man for the second month?
_________
Q155. The force of attraction between two bodies varies inversly as the square of the distance
between them. When the distance is 20 feet, the force of attraction is 18 N. What is the
force of attraction , when the distance is 30 feet?
(a) 8 N (b) 20 N (c) 40 N (d) 80 N

Q156. The length of the edges of two cubes are in the ratio 5 : 4. What is the ratio of their
diagonal?

(a) 25 : 16 (b) 16 : 25 (c) √2 ∶ √3 (d) 5 : 4

Q157. The ratio of surface area of two spheres is 64 : 81. What is the ratio of their voumes?
(a) 2048 : 2407
(b) 8 : 9
(c) 512 : 729
(d) 256 : 243

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 19

 PARTNERSHIP
Q158. A, B and C invested Rs.6300, Rs.4200 and Rs.10500 respectively, in a partnership
business. What is the share of A in profit of Rs.12100 after a year?
(a) Rs.3630 (b) Rs.2840 (c) Rs.3200 (d) Rs.5600

Q159. Amit, Chintu, and Deepak decided to start a new business by investing Rs. 1,20,000,
Rs. 1,35,000, and Rs 1,50,000 respectively. If the total yearly profit of the business is Rs.
56,700 than what will be the sum of share of Amit and Deepak? __________

Q160. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3: 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity
and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is :
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000

Q161. A, B, C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1:3:5. After 4 months, A
invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their
investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year is :
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 : 15 (c) 3 : 5 : 10 (d) 5 : 6 : 10

Q162. A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5 months and
C puts 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175, how much
must C pay as his share of rent?
(a) Rs. 45 (b) Rs. 50 (c) Rs. 55 (d) Rs. 60
Q163. A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Ks. 42,500.
For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in
the ratio of 3: 1?
(a) 4 months (b) 5 months (c) 6 months (d)8 months
Q164. A, B and C enter into a partnership and their shares are in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4.
After 2 months, A withdraws half of his capital and after 10 months, a profit of Rs. 378
is divided among them. What is B's share?
(a) 144 (b) 169 (c) 225 (d) 339

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 20

Q165. A invested Rs x for 5 months and Rs y for the remaining period. B invested Rs y for
the first 8 months and Rs x for the remaining period. If at the end of the year they share
the profits equally, then what is the value x – y?
(a) x (b) 2x (c) –y (d) 0

Q166. In a business, Ajay puts in Rs 10,000 and Karishma puts in Rs 20,000. Ajay received
20% of the profit for managing the business and the rest of the profit is divided in the
ratio of their capitals. What is Ajay’s share of the profit in a profit of Rs 6000?
__________

Q167. A and B enter into partnership with capital as 7:9. At the end of 8 months, A
withdraws. If they receive the profits in the ratio of 8:9, find how long B's capital was
used?
(a) 6 months (b) 8 months (c) 10 months (d) 7 months

Q168. A, B, C invested their capitals in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. At the end of the year they shared
the profits in the ratio 8 : 9 : 8. Who among A, B and C stayed in the business for the
longest period?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Can’t say

Q169. Kamal started business with Rs 6000 and was later joined by Bharat with Rs 8, 000.
After how many months did Bharat join, if the profit at the end of the year were
divided in the ratio of 3: 2?
(a)6 (b)8 (c)9 (d) 10
Q170. A and B are partners in a business. If A stayed in the business for one year and
contributed 1/3rd of the capital while B received 3/5th of the profit, then for how long
B’s money was in the business?
(a) 8 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 10 months
(d) 9 months

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 21

 AVERAGES
Q171. There are 50, 60 and 40 students in three sections A, B and C of a class respectively. If
the average marks of the students in sections A, b and C are 65, 70 and 75
Respectively, then find the approximate average marks of all three sections put
together.
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 60 (d) 50

Q172. In a class of 20 students, the average weight of the 10 students is ‘a’ kg and that of last
10 students is b kg. What is the average weight of all the students?
(10𝑎+20 𝑏) (𝑎+𝑏)
(a) (a + b) kg (b) kg (c) kg (d) Can’t say
𝑎+𝑏 2

Q173. The average age of a girl and her parents is 28 years. If the ratio of the present ages of
the father, the mother and the girl is 7 : 6 : 1, then what will be girl’s age after 2 years?
(a) 7 years (b) 9 years (c) 6 years (d) 8 years

Q174. The average of five numbers is 39.20 and the average of three of these numbers is 41.
What is the average of other two numbers?
(a) 35.5 (b) 36.5 (c) 37.5 (d) 38.5
Q175. In a class of 60 students, the average weight of 30 students is x kg and that of the
remaining is y kg. What is the average weight of the class?
(𝑥+𝑦) 𝑥𝑦
(a)(x + y) kg (b) 30 kg (c) kg (d) ( )kg
2 2

Q176. The average age of the eight boys’ increases by one year, if a boy of 12 years of age is
replaced by a new boy. What is the age of the new boy?
(a) 9 years (b) 15 years (c) 10 years (d) 20 years

Q177. The average weight of A, B and C is 80 kg. If D joins, the average becomes 82 kg. If
another person E, whose weight is 3 kg less than D, replaces A, then the average of B,
C, D and E becomes 78 kg. What is the weight of A?
(a)101 kg (b) 92 kg (c) 85 kg (d) 97 kg

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 22

Q178. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in
place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
(a) 76 kg (b) 76.5 kg (c) 85 kg (d) Data inadequate

Q179. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of
Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The
monthly income of P is:
(a) 3500 (b)4000 (c) 4050 (d) 5000

Q180. A car owner buys petrol at Rs.7.50, Rs. 8 and Rs. 8.50 per litre for three successive
years. What approximately is the average cost per litre of petrol if he spends Rs. 4000
each year?
(a) Rs. 7.98 (b) Rs. 8 (c) Rs. 8.50 (d) Rs. 9

Q181. The average mark of 600 students in an examination is 42. Among them, the average
of the top 150 students is 76, while that of the last 250 students is 28. What are the
average marks of the remaining 200 students?
(a) 43 (b) 34 (c) 51 (d) 22.66

Q182. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average
number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:
(a) 250 (b) 276 (c) 280 (d) 285

Q183. Among P, Q, R, S and T, P weighs 2 kg less than Q, Q weighs 2 kg more than R or S,

individually. But T weighs 6 kg more than Q. the average weight of these five will be
equal to the weight of who among the following?
(a) P (b) Q (c) T (d) R

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 23

Q184. Four years ago, the average age of A and B was 20 years. If today average age of A, B
and C is 25 years, what will be age of C after 7 years?
(a) 32 years (b)34 years (c)36 years (d)38 years

Q185. In an exam, the average mark for 80 students of Class V is 35. The average of marks
in section A of the class is 55, while the average of marks in section B is 30. Find the
number of students in Class VB.
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 64 (d) 70

Q186. In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but least than 72 kg. His brother
does not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but
less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all
of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable
weights of Arun ?
(a) 55.5 kg (b) 66.5 kg (c) 77.5 kg (d) 88.5 kg

Q187. If the average weight of a group of 30 people is 50 kg and another group of 40 people
has an average weight of 60 kg, then the weighted average of two groups (i.e. , the
average weight of the combined group of 70 people) is:
(a)55 kg (b) 55. 71 kg (c) 56 kg (d) 53.5 kg

MIXTURE AND ALLEGATIONS

Q188. 12 kg of sugar costing Rs 6 per kg and 6 kg of sugar costing Rs 15 per kg are mixed.
What is the price per kg of the resultant mixture?
(a) Rs 10 (b) Rs 11 (c) Rs 8 (d) Rs 9

Q189. In what ratio must 35% milk solution be mixed with pure milk to get a resultant
solution of 56% milk?
(a) 35 : 44 (b) 44 : 21 (c) 8 : 3 (d) 56 : 9

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 24

Q190. How many kilogram of wheat at rs 9.30 per kg must be mixed with 16 kg of wheat at
Rs 13.80 per kg such that the mixture when sold at Rs 12.43 per kg gives a profit of
10%?
(a) 24 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25

Q191. The ratio of copper and zinc in two alloys is 2: 3 and 3: 5 respectively. What is the
proportion of copper and zinc in an alloy obtained by mixing equal quantities of these
two alloys?
(a) 21 : 59 (b) 41 : 39 (c) 31 : 49 (d) 69 : 11

Q192. In what ratio must two solutions containing beer and water in the ratios of
3 : 2 and 7 : 3 respectively be mixed such that the resultant solution has beer and water
in the ratio 2 : 1?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

Q193. The ratio of the volumes of milk and water in a solution is 4 : 3. By adding 28 litres of
water, the ratio gets reversed and the can becomes full. What is the capacity of the can,
in litres?
(a) 120 (b) 112 (c) 84 (d) 76

Q194. A vessel contains a mixture of spirit and water with 40% spirit in it. When 10 litres of
pure spirit is added, the vessel becomes full and contains 50% spirit. What is the
capacity of vessel (in litres)?
(a) 70 litres (b) 60 litres (c) 50 litres (d) 65 litres

Q195. A barrel has 60 litres of pure spirit. Six litres of spirit is removed and replaced with the
same amount of water. The process is repeated two more times. What is the amount
of spirit (in litres) in the resultant solution? ____

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 25

Q196. A large tank has 49 litres of pure milk. Seven litres of milk is removed and replaced
with water. How many more times should this process repeated such that the resultant
6
solution has 30 litres of milk?
7

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q197. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4: 3 and 2: 3
respectively. In what ratio, the liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain a
new mixture in vessel C containing half milk and half water?
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 7 : 5

Q198. The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg If both
Type 1 and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3.then the price per kg of the
mixed variety rice is :
(a) Rs. 18 (b) Rs. 18.50 (c) Rs. 19 (d) Rs. 19.50

Q199. A container contains 40 litres of milk From this container 4 litres of milk was

taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times.

How much milk is now contained by the container?

(a) 26.34 litres (b) 27.36 litres (c) 28 litres (d) 29.16 litres

Q200. One quality of wheat at Rs. 9.30 per kg is mixed with another quality at a certain
rate in the ratio 8: 7. If the mixture so formed be worth Rs. 10 per kg, what is the
rate per kg of the second quality of wheat?

(a) Rs. 10.30 (b) Rs. 10.60 (c) Rs. 10.80 (d) Rs. 11

Q201. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio of 8:5 and 5:2

respectively. The ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture

3
containing 69 % milk is :
13

(a)2:7 (b)3:5 (c)5:2 (d) 5:7

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 26

Q202. 4/7 of 42 litres of a mixture of phenol and water is water. When k litres of water is

added to this mixture, the ratio of phenol and water becomes 2 : 3. What is the

value of x?

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2

Q203. Tea worth of Rs. 135/kg & Rs. 126/kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio

1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per

kg will be____?

(a) Rs. 169.50 (b) Rs.1700 (c) Rs. 175.50 (d) Rs. 180

Q204. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest

at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:

(a)400 kg (b)560 kg (c)600 kg (d)640 kg

TIME AND WORK

Q205. Eight men can do a work in 12 days. If there were two men less, in how many days
can they complete one-fourth of the original work? _________

Q206. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do it in 30 days. In how many days will
they complete the work together? ___________

Q207. Forty eight clerks can clear 360 files in 15 days. How many clerks are needed to clear
480 files in 12 days? __________
Q208. The ratio of the capacity to do a work of A and B is 3 : 2. If they together can complete
a work in 18 days, then how long does A take to complete the work alone?
(a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) 40

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 27

Q209. 12 men and 8 women can do a piece of work in 16 days, while 13 men and 4 women
can do it in 18 days. How long will 13 men and 12 women take to finish the work?
6 1 3 1
(a)12 days (b) 12 days (c) 12 days (d) 13 days
13 2 5 11

Q210. A is four times as efficient as B while C is twice as efficient as B. if A can do a job in 6

days. How long will A, B and C together take to complete the work?
1 3 3
(a)3 days (b) 3 days (c) 3 days (d)none of these
2 7 4

Q211. 4 men or 8 women or 12 boys can do a certain work in 98 days. How many days will
3 men, 5 women and 8 boys together take to do the work?
(a)40 (b)44 (c)46 (d) 48

Q212. A group of 10 boys can do a job in 12 days .another group of 10 girls can do the work
in 6 days. How many days are required to complete the work if both the group work
together?
(a)8 (b)6 (c)4 (d) none of these

Q213. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. C can
empty the tank in 60 minutes. When the tank is empty all the three pipes are opened
for 12 minutes and then pipe B is closed. How many minutes, form the beginning,
does it take for the tank to be filled?
(a)42 (b)72 (c)24 (d)30

Q214. X is 50% more efficient than Y in doing a work. if the difference of their earnings upon
completing the work together is Rs 160, how much did they receive in all ?
(a)Rs 210 (b)Rs 240 (c)Rs800 (d) Rs 400

Q215. An empty tank can be filled by pipe A if it is open from 3: 00 pm to 7: 00 pm. But due
to leakage, only 3/4th of the tank is filled by 7: 00 pm. If the leakage is stopped, at what
time will the tank be full?
(a) 8 : 00 am (b) 8 : 00 pm (c) 7 : 00 am (d) 8 : 10 am

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 28

Q216. P, Q and R together can complete a work in 18 days. They work together for 2 days
and then P leaves. If their rate of work is equal, in how many days will the remaining
work be completed?
(a) 36 (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) 21

Q217. A can do a piece of work in 16 days. He works for four days and then B joins, who
alone can complete the same work in 32 days. If A gets rs 1200, then how much does
B earn?
(a) Rs 800 (b) Rs 600 (c) Rs 500 (d) 400

Q218. Sunil and Pradeep can complete a work in 5 days and 15 days respectively. They both
work for one day and then Sunil leaves. In how many days is the remaining work
completed by Pradeep? ______

Q219. A can do a work in 9 days, if B is 50% more efficient than A, then in how many days
can B do the same work?
(a) 3 days (b) 13.5 days (c) 4.5 days (d) 6 days

Q220. Pratibha is thrice as efficient as Sonia and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in
60 days less than Sonia. Pratibha and Sonia can individually complete the work
respectively in
(a) 40 days, 120 days
(b) 30 days, 60 days
(c) 60 days, 90 days
(d) 30 days, 90 days

Q221. A can build a wall measuring 20 ft × 3 ft × 15 ft in 6 days. B can build a wall measuring
30ft x 4 ft x 10 ft in 5 days. What is the ratio of work done by A and B in on day?
(a) 8 : 5 (b) 5 : 8 (c) 6 : 7 (d) 7 : 5

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 29

Q222. A can dig a pit working eight hours a day, B can fill it working ten hours a day. If both
of them start the work at the same time, after how many days, will there be a fully dug
pit available for B to fill?
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 40

Q223. Ten men can dig a 25 feet deep well in eight days. After two days a fifth of the portion
dug is filled due to rain. How many more days will the same men take to dig it
completely?
(a) 1/5 (b) 1/4 (c) 2/5 (d) 3/4

Q224. If 10 men and 4 boys working together can do twice as much work per hour as a man
and 4 boys together, then the ratio of the work done by a man to that of a boy for a
given time is
(a) 2: 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 4 (d) None of these

Q225. A is 50% more efficient than B and both are able to complete a work together in 15
days. How long would A, working alone, take to complete the work?
(a) 20 days (b)22 days (c) 24 days (d) None of these

Q226. A can do a work in 20 days and B alone can do it in 10 days. Both worked together and
were paid Rs 1,800. The share of B is
(a)Rs 1,200 (b) Rs 1,500 (c) Rs 900 (d) None of these

Q227. 16 men and 12 boys can complete a work in 26 days. 13 men can complete the same
work in 48 days. In how many days will 12 men and 6 boys complete half the work?
(a) 30 (b) 34 (c) 39 (d) 19.5

Q228. Two pipes can fill an empty tub in 5 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. An outlet
pipe can empty full tub in 3 minutes. If the tub is empty and all the pipes are opened
simultaneously when the tub will be full?
(a) 11/4 hours (b) 11/2 hours (c) 2 hours (d)13/4 hours

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 30

Q229. A cistern has a leak which would empty it in 3 hours. A tap is turned on which lets in
6 litres of water per minute. The tank is initially full when both taps are turned on and
it is emptied in 6 hours. What is the capacity of the tank?
(a) 2100 litres (b) 2160 litres (c) 2500 litres (d) None of these

Q230. Two pipes can fill a tank in 4 hours and 8 hours respectively whereas a third pipe can
empty it in 6 hours .If the tank is initially empty and the three pipes are opened at
10:00 am, 11:00 am and 12:00 noon respectively, when will the tank be full?
(a)2:00 P.M (b)1:30 P.M (c)1:48 P.M (d)None of these

TIME AND DISTANCE (AVERAGE SPEED, TRAIN, BOAT STREAM, RACES AND
CIRCULAR TRACK)
Q231. A train covers a certain distance in one hour and 45 minutes and another train covers
twice the distance travelled by first train in 2 hours and 45 minutes. What is the ratio
of their speeds?
(a) 7 : 11 (b) 11 : 14 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 7

Q232. A motorcyclist covered two-thirds of a total Journey at his usual speed. He covered
the remaining distance at three-fourth of his usual speed. As result, he arrived 30
minutes later than the time he would have taken at usual speed. If the total journey
was 180 km, then what was his usual speed?
(a)40kmph (b)36kmph (c)30kmph (d)32kmph

Q233. A man covers the distance between A and B in 30 minutes and returns from B to A

in 60 minutes the distance between A and B is 40 km, then what is average speed?

1 2
(a)26kmph (b)53 kmph (c) 66 kmph (d) 70 kmph
3 3

Q234. A person in a car moving at a speed of 64 km/h covers a certain distance in 9 hours.
How much time does another person travelling by a van at a speed of 72 km/h take
to cover the same distance?
(a) 6 hours (b) 12hours (c) 8hours (d) 7hours

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 31

Q235. A motorist covers a distance of 50 km in 45 minutes by moving at a speed of x kmph
for the first 10 minutes, x/2 kmph for the next 20 minutes and 2x kmph for the rest of
the journey. Then x is equal to
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 90

Q236. A bus covers four successive distances of 45 km each at speeds of 10 kmph, 20 kmph,
30 kmph and 60 kmph respectively. What is the average speed of the bus?

(a) 20 kmph (b) 30 kmph (c) 40 kmph (d)50 kmph

Q237. An escalator is moving up at the rate of 12 ft/sec. If a man runs on it to reach the top
at the rate of 9 ft/sec. Given that when the escalator is not moving the man has to
climb 42 feet to reach the top, what time does he take to reach the top?
(a) 14 seconds (b) 9 seconds (c)2 seconds (d) 4 seconds

Q238. A cyclist has to cover 150 km in three hours. If he covers one-third of the distance in
half of the total time, what should his average speed for the rest of the journey be?
(a ) 50 kmph (b) 66.66 kmph (c) 75 kmph (d) 30 kmph

Q239. It takes 7 hours to cover a certain distance at a speed of 75 kmph by a car. At what
speed must one travel to cover the same distance in 2 hours less time?
4 1
(a) 105 kmph (b) 53 kmph (c) 90 kmph (d) 84 kmph
7 7

Q240. In a journey, one –third of the distance is covered at 30 kmph and the remaining at
40 kmph. What is the average speed for the entire journey?
(a) 35 kmph (b) 37.5 kmph (c) 36 kmph (d)33.5kmph

Q241. A bus travels without any stoppages, form Ujjain to Indore. With an average speed of
60 kmph while with stoppages its average speed for the journey is reduced to 55 kmph.
Of many minutes does the bus stop on an average per hour?
(a)20 minutes (b)25 minutes (c)11 minutes (d) none of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 32

Q242. A train moves a certain distance in 8 hours. If it had moved 5 kmph faster, it would
have covered the distance in 6 hours 40 minutes. What is the original speed of the
train?
(a)25 kmph (b) 40 kmph (c) 45 kmph (d) 35 kmph

Q243. The speed of a train is 15 m/s. The time it takes to cross a telephone pole is 10
seconds. What is the length of the train?
(a)100m (b)1.5 km (c)150 m (d)200 m

Q244. A train 300 m long and moving at a speed of 25 m/s can cross a man standing on a
platform in

(a) 60 seconds (b) 75 seconds (c) 24 seconds (d) 12 seconds

Q245. Two trains start at the same time from two stations A and B towards each other. They
arrive at B and A respectively in 5 hours and 20 hours after they passed each other. If
the speed of the train that started from A is 56 kmph, then what is the speed of the
second train?

(a) 26 kmph (b) 28 kmph (c) 24 kmph (d) 30kmph

Q246. A train leaves Hyderabad for Bangalore at 6:00 a.m. at a speed of 72 kmph. Another
train leaves Bangalore for Hyderabad at 8:00 a.m. at a speed of 54 kmph. How far from
Hyderabad will the two trains meet?
(a) 144 km
(b) 216 km
(c) 314 km
(d) Cannot be determined

Q247. Two trains are travelling in the same direction at 40 kmph and 60 kmph. The faster
train overtakes the slower train in 3 minutes. If the length of the faster train is 400 m,
then what is length of the slower train?
(a) 200 m (b) 100 m (c) 150 m (d) 600 m

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 33

Q248. A train is 300 m long and moves at a speed of 50 km per hour. In what time does it
cross a person walking in the opposite direction at 4 km per hour?
(a) 18 sec (b) 24 sec (c) 20 sec (d) 15 sec

Q249. A train which is 225 m long travels at 45 km/h. In what time does it cross a man
running at 18 km /h in the same direction?

(a) 120 seconds (b) 30 seconds (c)25 seconds (d) 15 second

Q250. A man stands on a railway bridge which is 300 m long he finds that a train crosses him
10 seconds and the bridge in 25 seconds. What is the length of the train ,
(a)100 M (b)200 M (c)240M (d)360 M

Q251. Two trains started from a station, at the same time in the same direction, at speeds
of 72 kmph and 60 kmph. What will be the distance between the two trains after 7
hours?
(a)42 km (b)50.4 km (c)63 km (d)84 km

Q252. In what time do two trains of lengths 380 m and 470 m, travelling in opposite
directions at respective speeds 55 km/h, and 35 km/h, cross each other?

(a)34 Seconds (b)5 minutes (c)36 seconds (d)6 minutes

Q253. Two trains are running on parallel lines in the same direction at a speed of 50 kmph
and 30 kmph respectively. The faster train crosses a man in the slower train in 18
seconds. The length of the faster train is train is.
(a)170m (b)100m (c)98m (d)85 m

Q254. A man can row at 12 kmph in still water. He finds that it takes him thrice as much
time to row up the river as it takes to row down the river. What is the speed of the
current?
(a)6 kmph (b) 24 kmph (c)48kmph (d)18kmph

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 34

Q255. A man can row a certain distance against the stream in six hours. However, he would
take two hours less to cover the same distance with the current. If the speed of the
current is 2 kmph, then what is the speed of the man in still water?
(a)10 kmph (b)12 kmph (c)14 kmph (d) 8 kmph

Q256. A man can row three quarters of a kilometer against the current in 11 ¼ minutes
and return in 7 ½ minutes. Find the speed of the man in still water.
(a) 8 kmph (b) 7 kmph (c) 6 kmph, (d) 5 kmph

Q257. A man can row downstream at 12 kmph and upstream at 8 kmph. Find the ratio of
the speed of the current to the speed of the man in still water.
(a)1 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 25 : 16 (d) 16 : 25

Q258. A person can row at 9 km per hour in still water. He finds that it takes him twice as
much time to row upstream as compared to downstream. What is the speed of the
current?
(a) 3 kmph (b) 4 ½ kmph (c)6 kmph (d) 3 ½ kmph

Q259. A man can row at 6 kmph in still water and a river is flowing at 4 kmph. How long
will the man take to go to a place 1 km downstream and return?
(a) 36 minutes (b) 24 minutes (c) 12 minutes (d) 18 minutes

Q260. A person can row a distance of one km against the - stream in ten minutes and
along the stream in four minutes. What is the speed of the stream?
(a)3 km/h (b)9 km/h (c)5.6 km/h (d)4.5 km/h

Q261. A person can row 18 km downstream and 27 km upstream in three hours and 18
km upstream and 27 km downstream in two hours 42 minutes. What is the time
taken by the person to row 25 km upstream?
7 1 3
(a) 1 hours (b) 1 hours (c) 2 hours (d)2 hours
10 2 10

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 35

Q262. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by
car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio
of the speed of the train to that of the cars is:
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3

Q263. A person can row at a speed of 18 kmph in still water. For the same distance, the time
taken by him to row upstream is thrice the time taken by him to row downstream.
What is the speed of the stream?
(a)9 km/h (b)6 km/h (c)8 ½ km/h (d)3 km/h

Q264. Speed of sound is 330 m/s in air while it is 440 m/s in a liquid. the total time
taken by sound to cover a distance of 6.6 km in air and 4.4 km in that liquid is (a)20
seconds (b)2 ½ seconds (c)30 seconds (d)50 seconds

Q265. In a kilometer race, A beats B by 20 meter. In a 2 kilometers race, A beats B by _____

(a)10 m (b)20 m (c)40 m (d) 25 m

Q266. In a Km race A beats B by 50 m. In a 3 km race A beats B by ______

(a)150 m (b)300 m (c)400m (d)600m

Q267. In A kilometer race, if A gives B a start of 100 meters, both of them reach the finish
line at the same time, if A`s speed is 20 m/s, them what is B`s speed?
(a)16 m/s (b)17 m/s (c)18 m/s (d)19 m/s

Q268. In a kilometer race. A can give B a start of 40 m and B can give C a start of 25 m (In
the same race) how many metres start can A give C.
(a) 46 m (b)56m (c)66m (d)64m

Q269. In a kilometer race, A beats B by 50 metres and B beats C by 75 metres. By how many
metres does A beat C in the same race?

(a) 135 m (b) 142.5 m (c) 121.25 m (d) 125 m

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 36

Q270. A policeman chases a thief at a speed of 27 km per hour and catches him after one
minute 36 seconds. If the distance between the policeman and the thief was 240 meter
initially. What was the speed of the thief?
(a)12 km/h (b)9 km/h (c)18 km/h (d) 21 km/h

Data for next two question:

A, B, and C start running simultaneously on a circular track of length 120 meters from the
same point with the speeds 2m/s, 3m/s and 6m/s respectively. A and C are running in anti-
clockwise direction and B is running in a clockwise direction.

Q271. After how much time from the start all three will meet again at the starting point?
(a) 24 seconds (b) 30 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 120 seconds

Q272. After how much time from the start all three will meet for the first time anywhere on
the track?
(a) 24 seconds (b) 30 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 120 seconds
Q273. In a circular race of 2400m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time
with speeds of 27km/hr. and 45 km/hr. Find when will they meet again for the
first time on the track when they are running in the same direction and Opposite
direction, respectively?
(a) 120 sec, 480 sec
(b) 480 sec, 120 sec
(c) 133.33 sec, 33.33 sec
(d) 33.33 sec, 133.33 sec

Q274. In a circular race of 1200m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time
with speeds of 27kmph and 45 kmph. Find when will they meet again for the first
time on the trace when they are running in the same direction and Opposite
direction?
(a) 240 sec, 60 Sec
(b) 200 sec, 60 Sec
(c) 200 sec, 80 Sec
(d) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 37

Q275. In a circular race of 1200 m length, A and B start with speeds of 18kmph and 27 kmph
starting at the same time from the same point. When will they meet for the first time
at the starting point when running in the same direction and opposite direction?

(a) 240 sec, 160 sec

(b) 480 sec, 480 sec

(c) 240 sec, 240 sec

(d) 160 sec, 480 sec

Q276. A, B and C run around a circular track of length 1200 m with respective speeds 9, 18,
27 kmph. If they started at the same time from the same point and run in the same
direction when will they meet for the first time?

(a) 360 sec

(b)480 sec

(c)240 sec

(d)None

Q277. P, Q, R run around a circular track 1200 m long with speed of 9, 18, 27 kmph. If they

start at the same point and at the same time in the same direction, when will they meet

again at the starting point?

(a) 360 sec

(b)480 sec

(c)240 sec

(d)None

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 38

 GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION

Q278. Consider the following shape:

What is the perimeter of ∆ABC in cm? _________

Q279. In the given figure ABCD is a Parallelogram then the find out of the value of x is?

(a) 25 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 45

Q280. In the given Figure ∠PQA = 20° and ∠APQ = 120° then what is the value of
∠ PAQ? ____________

Q281. For a triangle ABC, D and E are two points on AB and AC such that AD = 1/4 AB,
AE =1/4 AC. If BC =12 CM, then DE is
(a)5cm (b)4cm (c)3cm (d)6cm

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 39

Q282. In a triangle , if orthocenter , circumcenter, incenter and centroid coincide ,then the
triangle must be
(a)obtuse angled (b) isosceles (c)equilateral (d)right-angled

Q283. In triangle ABC, a line is drawn from the vertex A to a point D on BC. If BC =9 cm
and DC = 3 cm, then what is the ratio of the areas of triangle ABD and triangle ADC
respectively?
(a)1:1 (b)2:1 (c)3:1 (d) 4:1
Q284. Consider the following figure:

Given that BAC = ADC. If AB = 15 cm, AD = 20 cm, then what is CD?

(a)12 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 18

Q285. What is the length of the inradius of a t riangle of sides 3 cm, 4cm and 5 cm?
(a) 2 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 1.8 cm (d) 1 cm

Q286. What is the number of sides of a regular polygon if the sum of the internal angles in
degrees, is numerically equal to 60 times the number of sides of the polygon?______

Q287. Consider the following figure:

In the figure above, ABC is an equilateral triangle. The bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB
meet at D. What is the value of BDC in degree? _______

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 40

Q288. A vertical stick 20 cm long casts a shadow 15 cm on the ground. What is the length of
a lamp post, if it casts a shadow 60 cm long the ground?
(a) 20 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 80 cm

Q289.

In the above figure, l1ans l2 are parallel lines. Find x.

(a) 20° (b) 30° (c) 40° (d) 50°

Q290.

In the above figure 𝑙1 and 𝑙2 are parallel lines. ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶= 80°. If the lines BD and CF are
parallel and. ∠𝐷𝐵𝐶 = 30°, then what is ∠𝐹𝐶𝐸?

(a) 30° (b) 40° (c) 50° (d) 60°

Q291.

In the above figure, AB and CD are parallel.

If BAD = ADC+10° and ABC = BAD – 40°, then what is BCE?
(a)55° (b)65° (c)75° (d) 85°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 41

Q292.

In the above figure, l1 and l2 are parallel lines. What is the value of y?
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°

Q293. In the above figure, the point C divides AE and BD in the ratio 2:1. What is ∠𝐴𝐶𝐵
given ∠𝐶𝐷𝐸 = 20°, ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶=40°?

(a) 40° (b) 80° (c) 100° (d) 120°

Q294.

In the above figure the line PS bisects ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∠𝑃𝑆𝑄= ∠𝑃𝑆𝑅, and

SPR = PRS + 10°. What is the ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅?

(a) 70° (b) 80° (c) 100° (d) 110°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 42

Q295.

In the above figure, PS is the altitude drawn to side QR of triangle PQR.

∠𝑃𝑅𝑆 = ∠𝑄𝑃𝑆 −20°. What is the value of ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 , if ∠𝑃𝑄𝑆 = 20°?
(a) 100° (b) 110° (c) 120° (d) 130°

Q296.

In the above figure, ∠𝑄𝑃𝑆=2∠𝑆𝑃𝑅=∠𝑃𝑅𝑆, Find ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅.

(a) 70° (b) 80° (c) 90° (d) 100°
Q297. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 24 times the exterior angle.
What is the number of sides of the polygon?
(a)4 (b)6 (c)8 (d)12

Q298. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 150°, then what are the number diagonals?
(a)54 (b)48 (c)66 (d)60
Q299. In a triangle ABC, the in center is O. If ∠𝐵𝐶𝐸 =100°, ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 is equal to

(a)70° (b)60° (c)20° (d)40°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 43

Q300.

In the above figure, if 2∠𝑃𝑂𝑅 = 3∠𝑅𝑂𝑄 and ∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 =100°. Then what is∠𝑃𝑂𝑅?

(a)30° (b)40° (c)50° (d)60°

Q301.

In the above figure, QP and QR are tangents to the circle. If ∠𝑃𝑄𝑅=50°, then what is
∠𝑃𝑂𝑅?
(a)130° (b)120° (c)110° (d)100°

Q302.

In the above figure, AB is a tangent to the circle O. If CD bisects ∠𝐴𝐶𝑂 then what is
∠𝐶𝑂𝐷?

(a)80° (b)90° (c)100° (d)110°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 44

Q303. In the above figure, PQRS IS A Cyclic quadrilateral. if PQR is an equilateral triangle
find ∠ RSP.

(a)120° (b)60° (c)30° (d)150°

Q304.

In the above figure, O is the center of the circle. ∠OQP + ∠ORP = 70.
What is the ORQ?
(a)20° (b)30° (c)40° (d) 50°

Q305.

In the above figure, AB is the diameter of the circle AC and BD are tangents drawn to
the circle at A and B. What is the ∠𝐴𝐶𝐷, if ∠CDB = 70°?

(a)90° (b)110° (c)120° (d)130°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 45

Q306. When a diagonal of a square is 24 cm then what is its perimeter?
(a) 28 cm (b) 48√2 cm (c) 36 √2 cm (d) 46 √2 cm

Q307.

In the figure above l1 and l2 are parallel lines. The bisectors of ∠DAC and ∠ACE
Meet at B. If AB = 40 cm and BC = 9 cm, then what is the length of AC?

(a)41 cm (b)42 cm (c)44 cm (d)45 cm

Q308.

In the above figure, ∠PSR = ∠PQT, ∠TPQ =60°, ∠PQT = ∠PRS + 40°. What is ∠PRS?
(a) 30 ° (b) 40 ° (c) 80 ° (d) 60 °
Q309.

In the figure above, CF and DG are the bisectors of ∠BCD and ∠BDC respectively.
What is the value of angle ∠GFC?
(a)50° (b)60° (c)65° (d) 75°

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 46

Q310. ABC is a right –angle triangle right angled at B the perpendicular drawn from B
meets AC at D, if AD =4 cm, DC=16 cm, then find BD.

(a)16cm (b)12cm (c)8cm (d)50cm

Q311.

In the above figure, O is the center of the circle, AB is a tangent to the circle and

OBE = 50. What is BOE?

(a)50° (b)40° (c)80° (d) 45°

Q312. How many cubes each of edge 6 cm can be cut from a cuboid wooden block of 44 cm
× 38 cm × 27 cm? _____________
Q313. The ratio of the length, breadth and height of cuboid is 5 : 4 : 2. What is the lateral
surface area (in m2) of the cuboid if the length of the longest diagonal that fits in the

cuboid is 15√5 m? ____________

Q314. The ratio of the lengths of two cuboids is 30 : 11, that of their breadths is 11: 13, and
that of their heights is 26 : 15. What is the ratio of their volumes?
(a)1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

Q315. The length of the longest rod which can fit into a cubical room of volume 2197 m3, is

(a) 13√2 𝑚 (b) 13√3 m (c) 13 m (d) none of these

Q316. The breadth of a garden is half its length. A playground measuring 4.5 square metres
occupies one fourth of the total area of the garden.
The length (in metres)of the garden is _____________

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 47

Q317. A solid metallic spherical ball of diameter 6 cm is melted and recast into a cone
with diameter of the base as 12 cm. The height of the cone is .

(a) 12 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 6 cm .

Q318. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The
radius of the sphere is:
(a) 9 cm (b) 36 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 81 cm

Q319. A right circular cone and a right circular cylinder have equal base and equal
height. If the radius of the base and the height are in the ratio 5:12, then the
ratio of the total surface area of the cylinder to that of the cone is
(a)29:18 (b)13:9 (c)17:9 (d) 34:9

1
Q320. A hollow spherical metallic ball has an external diameter 6 cm and is cm thick.
2

The volume of metal used in the ball is :

2 2 2 2
(a)37 𝑐𝑚3 (b)40 𝑐𝑚3 (c)41 𝑐𝑚3 (d)47 𝑐𝑚3
3 3 2 3

Q321. The number of coins of radius 0 .75 cm and thickness 0.2 cm to be melted to make
right circular cylinder of height 8 cm and base radius 3 cm is:

(a) 460 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 640

Q322. The curved surface of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16cm.

(a) 60 𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (b) 68 𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (c) 120 𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (d) 136𝜋𝑐𝑚2

Q323. If a right circular cone of height 24 cm has vloume of 1232 cm3. Then the area of
its curved surface is :

(a)154 cm2 (b)550 cm2 (c)704 cm2 (d) 1254 cm2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 48

Q324. A circular well with a diameter of 2 metres, is dug to a depth of 14 metres. What
is the volume of the earth dug out?
(a) 32 m3 (b) 36 m3 (c) 40 m3 (d) 44 m3

Q325. If the numbers representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the
length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be:
(a)3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d)6

Q326. The radius of the cylinder is half its height and surface area of the cylinder is 616
sq. cms. What is volume of the cylinder in cm3? ___________________

Q327. The distance between the centers of two circles touching each other internally is 7 cm.
What is the area common to both the circles, if ratio of their radii is
2 : 1? (in cm2)
(a) 154 (b) 144 (c) 6164 (d) 1386

Q328. Two circles which touch each other externally have ratio of their areas as 4 : 9. What is
the radius of bigger circle, if the distance between the centers of the two circles is 75
cm?
(a) 30 cm (b) 45 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 40 cm

Q329. What is the area of the shaded region, if O is the center of the circle and
OA = 12 cm and AOB = 120?

(a) (48𝜋 − 36√3) 𝑐𝑚2 (b) (12𝜋 − 3√3) 𝑐𝑚2

(c) (24𝜋 − 36√3) 𝑐𝑚2 (d) (4𝜋 − 3√3) 𝑐𝑚2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 49

 CLOCK AND CALENDAR
Q330. In 16 minutes, the minute hand gains over the hour hand by
(a)16° (b)80° (c)88° (d)96°

Q331. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same
straight line but, not together?
(a)5 min. past
2
(b)5 minutes past 7
11
3
(c) 5 minutes past 7
11
5
(d) 5 minutes past 7
11

Q332. At what time between 2 and 3 o'clock will the hands of a clock be together?
109
(a) min past 2
11
120
(b) min past 2
11
131
(c) min past 2
11
142
(d) min past 2
11

Q333. An accurate clock shows 7 a.m. Through how many degrees will the hour hand
rotate when the clock shows 1 p.m.?
(a)154° (b) 180° (c) 170° (d)160°

Q334. When the time is 5:40, then what is the angle between the hour hand and the minute
hand of a clock?
(a) 70° (b) 60° (c) 74° (d) 80°

Q335. What is the time between 3 and 4 will the hands of a watch point in the opposite
direction?
(a) 49(1/11) min past 3
(b) 49(3/11) min past 3
(c) 49(2/11) min past 3
(d) 49(4/11) min past 3

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 50

Q336. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
(a) 145° (b)150° (c) 155° (d) 160°

Q337. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day? __________

Q338. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day? ___________

Q339. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
true time when the clock indicates 1 p.m. on the following day?
(a) 48 min. past 12.
(b) 46 min. past 12.
(c) 45 min. past 12.
(d) 47 min. past 12.

Q340. A clock gains 5 seconds for every 3 minutes. If the clock started working at 7 a.m. in
the morning, then what will be the time in the wrong clock at 4 p.m. on the same
day?
(a) 3 : 45 pm (b) 4 : 15 am (c) 5 : 30 pm (d) 4 :15 pm

Q341. If today is a Monday then what will be the day after 68 days?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Saturday

Q342. [MSQ]
Which of the following years are leap years?
(a)700 (b) 800 (c) 2000 (d) 2100
Q343. 17th June, 1998 was a ________
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday

Q344. If it was Thursday on Aug 15, 2012, then what was the day on June 11, 2013?
(a) Wednesday (b) Monday (c) Saturday (d) Tuesday

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 51

Q345. What was the day of the week on 7th September, 1990?
(a) Wednesday (b) Thursday (c) Friday (d) Saturday

Q346. Tuesday fell on which of the following dates of April, 2002?

(a) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th (b) 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
(c) 4th, 11th , 18th , 25th (d) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th

Q347. Which of the calendars would be same as that of the year 2007?
(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018

Q348. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday

Q349. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?

(a) October, December
(b) April, November
(c) June, October
(d) April, July

Q350. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, What day will it be on
the nineteenth day of the month?
(a) Sunday
(b) Tuesday
(c)Wednesday
(d)Monday

Q351. X was born on March 6, 1993. The same year Independence Day was celebrated on
Friday. On which day was X born?
(a) Monday (b)Wednesday (c)Thursday (d)Friday

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 52

Q352. How many leap years does 100 years have?
(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 4 (d) 26

Q353. The last day of a century cannot be

(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Tuesday (d) Friday

Q354. The calendar of the year 2024 can be used again in the year?
(a) 2030 (b) 2052 (c) 2048 (d) 2036

Q355. The maximum gap (in years) between two successive leap year is?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 1

QUADRATIC EQUATION
Q356. The roots of the equation 3x2 - 12x + 10 = 0 are?
(a) rational and unequal (b)real and equal
(c) irrational and unequal (d) rational and equal

Q357. If the roots of a quadratic equation are 20 and -7, then find the equation?
(a) x2 + 13x - 140 = 0 (b)x2 - 13x + 140 = 0
(c) x2 - 13x - 140 = 0 (d) x2 + 13x + 140 = 0

Q358. If the sum and the product of the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + 20x + 3 = 0 are
𝛼 and 𝛽 , then what the value of (𝛼 + 𝛽 ) − 𝛼𝛽? _________

Q359. The sum of the squares of two consecutive positive integers exceeds their product by
91. Find the integers?
(a) 9, 10 (b) 10, 11 (c) 11, 12 (d) 12, 13

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 53

Q360. Two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and find
relation between x and y.
I. x2 – 0.5x – 39 = 0
II. y2 – 15.5y + 60 = 0
(a)𝑥 = 𝑦 (b) 𝑥 < 𝑦 (c) 𝑥 > 𝑦 (d) can’t say

Q361. Two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and find
relation between x and y.
I. x3 – 14 – 1714 = 0 II. 3y2 – 63 – 300 = 0
(a)𝑥 = 𝑦 (b) 𝑥 < 𝑦 (c) 𝑥 > 𝑦 (d) can’t say

Q362. For what values of k, the roots of the quadratic equation:

(k + 4)x2 + (k + 1)x + 1 = 0 are equal?
(a)k = -5, -3 (b) k = -5, 3 (c) k = 5 , -3 (d) k = 5, 3

Q363. If the speed of a car is increased by 15 kmph, it takes one hour less to cover a
distance of 300 km. What is the original speed of the car?
(a)40 kmph (b) 50 kmph (c) 60 kmph (d) 75 kmph

Q364. What are the value of x that satisfy the inequality 3x2 + 8x + 5 >0?
5
(a) > 𝑥 > −1
3
−5
(b) < 𝑥 < −1
3
−5
(c) > 𝑥 < −1
3
5
(d)− > 𝑥 and 𝑥 > −1
3

Q365. The two sides of a right –angled triangle containing the right angle are 3x+4 and
2x+3. If the area of the triangle is 20 m2 then what is the hypotenuse of the triangle?
3049 225 256 √3049
(a)√ m (b) √ m (c) √ (d) m
6 4 9 6

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 54

Q366. What is sum of the roots of the equation 10x4 - 63 x3 + 52 x2 + 63x + 10 = 0? ________

Q367. A person on a tour has Rs 9,600 for his expenses. If his tour is extended by sixteen
days, he has to cut done his daily expenses by Rs 20. What is the original duration of
the tour in days? _________

Q368. If one root of the quadratic equation x2 + 11x + k = 0 is 4, find the other root and the
value of k (respectively).
(a)-15,-60 (b)-4,15 (c)2,30 (d) 8,1

𝑥 11
Q369. If x < 0, what the maximum value of + ?
11 𝑥

(a)1 (b)-1 (c)-2 (d)0

Q370. Which of the following is a root of 52x – (24) × (5x) – 25 = 0?

(a) 2
(b)-2
(c)-1
(d)none of these

Q371. The roots of the equation (2 + √3)𝑥 +(2 − √3)𝑥 = 14 are

(a)2,-1
(b)1,2
(c)2,-2
(d) none of these
Q372. 1 2 1 2
If P is rational number and 12 (𝑃 + ) = 120 + 5 (𝑃 − ) , then what is P?
𝑃 𝑃
1 1 1 1
(a)2, (b) , 3 (c)3, - (d) 5,
2 3 3 5

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 55

Q373. What is the sum of all possible value of x, for which the following equation satisfies?
32𝑥 − 12.3𝑥 + 27 = 0 ________

Q374. What value of x satisfies the equation

√(4 𝑥 + 5) + √(8 𝑥 − 4) = 11?

(a)181 (b)5 (c)11 (d)none of these

Q375. If (3𝑥)2 + (27.31/𝑝 − 15)𝑥 + 4 = 0has real and equal roots, then what is the value of
P?
(a)2 (b)(-2) (c)(-1/2) (d)3

Q376. For what value of x is √7𝑥 + 7 − √4𝑥 + 1 = 2?

(a) 3, -3/9 (b) 6, -2/9 (c) 8, 2/5 (d) 16, 1/5

1 10
Q377. If √2𝑥 − 3 + = then 𝑥 is equal to
√2𝑥−3 3
14 1 1 14
(a)6, (b) 3, (c) 6, (d) 3,
9 3 3 9

Q378. The number of real solution of the equation x2 – 3|x|+ 2 = 0 is

(a)4 (b)1 (c)3 (d)2

Q379. Let two numbers have arithmetic mean 9 and geometric mean 4 . Then these
numbers are the roots of the quadratic equation
(a)x2 + 18 x - 16=0 (b) x2 – 18 x + 16 = 0
(c) x2 + 18 x + 16 =0 (d) x2 – 18 x – 16 = 0

Q380. If (1-p) is a root of quadratic equation x2 + px + (1 – p) = 0, then its roots are .

(a)0, -1 (b)-1, 1 (c)0, 1 (d) -1, 2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 56

 LOGARITHMS
Q381. [MSQ]
If 𝑥 = 1 + log 𝑎 𝑏𝑐, 𝑦 = 1 + log 𝑏 𝑐𝑎 , 𝑧 = 1 + log 𝑐 𝑎𝑏, then which of the following
statement is are true?
(a) 𝑥𝑦𝑧 + 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑧𝑥 = 0
(b) 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑧𝑥 − 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = 0
1 1 1
(c) + + = 0
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
1 1 1
(d) + + = 1
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧

Q382. If 𝑎 𝑥 = 𝑏, 𝑏 𝑦 = 𝑐, 𝑐 𝑧 = 𝑎, 𝑥 = log 𝑏 𝑎𝑝 , 𝑦 = log 𝑐 𝑏𝑞 , 𝑧 = log 𝑎 𝑐 𝑟 , 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 what is the value

of p × q × r? _________

Q383. For which value of x the equation: 3𝑥 log5 2 + 2𝑙𝑜𝑔5 𝑥 = 64, satisfies? ____

Q384. The number of the solutions of log 4 (𝑥 − 1) = log 2 (𝑥 − 3) is

(a) 3 (b) 1 (b) 2 (d) 0

Q385. 𝐼𝑓4𝑙𝑜𝑔164 + 9𝑙𝑜𝑔39 = 10log𝑥 83 , then what is the value of x? __________

PROGRESSIONS (SERIES)
Q386. The interior angles of a polygon are in arithmetic progression. The smallest angle is
120 and the common difference is 5. What is the number of sides of the polygon?
(a)16 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) Both a & b

Q387. If the sum of three numbers in H.P is 37 and the sum of their reciprocals 0.25, then
the product of these numbers will be _____

Q388. If the sum to n terms of these series, 5 + 55 + 555 + …, is

𝑝 5𝑛
(10𝑛 − 1) − , then what is the value of p + q? ______
𝑞 9

Q389. What is the sum of the series(33 − 23 ) + (53 − 43 ) + (73 − 63 ) + ⋯ 𝑡𝑜 10 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑠?

_____

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 57

Q390. What is the arithmetic mean of a series in AP, with 33 terms whose term is 2 and
common difference is 2.25?___________________

Q391. Consider three terms in arithmetic progression such that their sum is 33 and product
is 1155. What is common difference?___________________

Q392. The sum to n terms of a series in AP is 6𝑛2 + 6𝑛. What is the 4th term of the series?
__________
Q393. Three terms are in geometric series such that their sum is 49 and product 2744. What
is the sum of first term and common ratio? ________
Q394. The third term of a GP is 4. The product of first five terms is
(a)64 (b) 1024 (c) 256 (d) none of these

Q395. If (𝑎+𝑏) , 𝑏, (𝑐+𝑏) 1

are in AP, then a, , c are in
1−𝑎𝑏 1−𝑐𝑏 𝑏

(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) none of these

Q396. If a, b, c are in AP as well as in GP, then

(a) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ≠ 𝑐 (b) 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ≠ 𝑐 (c) 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 = 𝑐 (d) 𝑎 = 𝑏 = 𝑐
Q397. If the sum to infinity of the series 1 + 4x + 7x2 + 10x3 + … is 35, then what is the
16

value of x?
(a) 0.2 (b) 19/7 (c) Both a & b (d) can’t
determined

Q398. If 𝑆∞ = 1 + 22x + 32x2 + 42x3 + …….∞; where |x|< 1, then 𝑆∞ is equivalent to

(1+𝑥) (1+𝑥) (1+𝑥)

(a) (b) (1−𝑥)2 (c) (1−𝑥)3 (d) none of these
(1−𝑥)

Q399. What is sum of the series 1 + 3 + 7 + 15 + 31 +….. up to 16th term? ______

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 58

Q400. What is 60th term of the series 1 + 2 + 5 + 12 + 25 + 46 +…?_________________
Q401. What is the nth term of the series 2 + 5 + 12 + 31 + 86 +…..?
(a)3𝑛−1 (b) 3𝑛−1 − 𝑛 (c) 3𝑛−1 + 𝑛 (d) None of these

Q402. [MSQ]
How many terms series 54 + 51 + 48 + 45 +… must be taken to make 513?
(a)16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19

STATISTICS AND INEQUALITY

Q403. For the individual series compute the mean and median.
13, 15, 20, 22, 30, 35, 38, 40, 42, 53
(a)Mean = Median = 30.8 (b) Mean = 32.5, Median = 30.8
(c) Mean = 30.8, Median = 32.5 (d) None of these

Q404. What is the variance of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5? ________

Q405. What is the standard deviation of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6? _______

Q406. What is the range and quartile deviation from the following marks of 13 students in
Mathematics?
60, 40, 10, 72, 85, 96, 38, 41, 52, 28, 9, 35, 25.
(a) Range = 45 and Quartile deviation = 19.75
(b) Range = 87 and Quartile deviation = 26.5
(c) Range = 87 and Quartile deviation = 66
(d) Range = 87 and Quartile deviation = 19.75
Q407. Quartile deviation of 10, 13, 18, 21, 24, 36, 50, 84, 63, 90, 75 is __________

Q408. What is the mean deviation about the mean for the following data:
12, 18, 25, 30, 35
(a)3.5 (b) 7.2 (c) 7.5 (d)6.8

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 59

Q409. The standard deviation of 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 13 is
(a)2.25 (b) 6.25 (c) 2.35 (d) 1.5

Q410. The variance of the numbers -35, -30, -5, -20, -15 is
(a)20 (b) 50 (c)25 (d) 114

Q411. If the sum of the squares of 8 observations is 144 and their mean is 3, then the
standard deviation is
(a)9 (b) 3 (c) 1.73 (d) 81

Q412. How many integers satisfying the inequality

(𝑥 2 − 14𝑥 + 45)(𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 21)(𝑥 2 − 11𝑥 + 10) < 0? _________

Q413. What is the range of all real value of x if ||x – 3|+ 5|< 4?
(a)(3, 12) (b) (-6, 4) (c) (0, 5) (d) None of these

Q414. If |x – 3|<2, then the solution set of x is

(a)(1, 3) only (b) (3, 5) only (c) (1, 3) ∪ (3, 5) (d) (1, 5)

Q415. If (𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 2)(𝑥 + 1)2 ≤ 0, then the solution set of x for the inequality is
(a) [-3, -1]
(b) [-3, -2] U {-1}
(c) [-3, -2]
(d) (-3, -2)

Q416. If (𝑥−3) > 5, then the solution set of x for the inequality is
(𝑥+2)

(a)(2, 13/4)
(b)(-2, 13/4)
(c) (-13/4, 2)
(d) (-13/4, -2)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 60

DATA INTERPRETATION (TABLE, PIE CHART, BAR DIAGRAM AND LINE GRAPH)
Direction for next four questions: Study the following table chart carefully and answer the
questions given beside.
The table given below shows the percentage of appeared and qualified candidates in a
competitive examination from different institutes.

Q417. What is the ratio of the qualified candidates from institutes D, E and F together to the
appeared candidates from institutes A, B and C together?
(a) 11 : 17
(b) 12 : 67
(c) 19 : 75
(d) 13 : 75
Q418. What percentage of the candidates from institute C has been declared qualified out
of the total candidates appeared from this institute?
(a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d)20%

Q419. What is the percentage of students who qualified from the institute C and D together
with respect to those who appeared from the institute C and D together?
(a) 24.98% (b) 30.98% (c) 20.98% (d) 31.98%

Q420. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates qualified with respect to
those appeared?
(a) A (b) D (c) E (d) C

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 61

Directions for next four questions: Following table shows the mobile addicted population
of six different cities Mumbai, Delhi, Jaipur, Kochi, Pune and Agra and the ratio of Males to
Females among them and the ratio of Adults to Children in the total mobile addicted
population. Answer the given questions based on this table

Q421. What is the total number of addicted females in Agra?

(a) 1.432 lakh (b) 1.578 lakh
(c) 1.708 lakh (d) 1.981 lakh

Q422. What is the difference between the total number of adult and the total number
children mobile addicted population of Mumbai?
(a) 0.918 lakh (b) 1.026 lakh
(c) 1.124 lakh (d) 1.107 lakh

Q423. Which of the following cities has the maximum addicted adult population?
(a) Pune
(b) Kochi
(c) Jaipur
(d) Delhi

Q424. The female addicted population of Delhi is approximately what per cent of its male
addicted population?
(a)40%
(b) 60%
(c) 80%
(d)120%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 62

Data for next three questions:
The pie chart below shows the percentages of blood types for a group of 200 people.

Q425. How many people, in this group, have blood type AB? _______

Q426. How many people, in this group, do not have blood type O? ________

Q427. How many people, in this group, have blood types A or B? ________

Data for next two questions:

The following pie-chart shows the number of students appearing GATE Examination From
different states.

Q428. Number of students appearing from B state in 2016 was, what percent of that from
state F in 2015?
(a)94 (b) 95 (c) 96 (d) 97

Q429. The total number of students appearing from B & C together in 2015 is
approximately equal to that from which of the following pairs of states in 2016?
(a) A & F (b) C & D (c) A & C (d) D & F

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 63

Data for next four questions:
Study the pie chart and table carefully based on that answer the following questions.
The pie chart shows the percentage of Employees working in different government
department
Total number of Employees=1200

The table shows the number of females in each department:

Q430. What is total number of males working in department Manager, HR and Clerk?
(a)400 (b)380 (c)394 (d)396

Q431. What is the ratio of females working in department Manager and clerk and males in
department HR and marketing?
(a)56:37 (b)56:35 (c)55:37 (d)55:30

Q432. Number of Females working in Manager department is what percentage

(approximately) of total number of employees working in all the department?
(a)17% (b)20% (c)9% (d)15%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 64

Q433. What is the central angle corresponding to the total number of clerk?
(a)52.6 ° (b)55.2° (c)61.1° (d)57.6°

Q434. What is the ratio between total number of female employees working in all the
department together and males working in all the department?
(a) 187:200 (b)199:201 (c)199:221 (d) 201:199

Data for next five questions: Study the graph carefully and answer the following question.
Data related to Income (in Rs thousands) and Expenditure (in Rs thousands) of company
during six months.

Profit =(Income –Expenditure )

Percent profit =(Profit /Expenditure *100)
Loss =(Expenditure-Income )
Loss percent =(Loss/Expenditure *100)
Q435. What is average profit earned by company In January, February and May?
(a)280 (b)220 (c)240 (d)200

Q436. What is total loss percentage incurred by company in March and April?
(a)40 (b)50 (c)30 (d)45

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 65

Q437. Profit earned by company in Feb is by what percent more than profit earned by
company in May.
3 8 4 4
(a)44 (b)48 (c)38 (d)44
9 9 9 9

Q438. In Which month company earned the maximum profit?

(a) January (b) February (c) March (d) April

Q439. If company income increased by 20% from June to July and Expenditure decrease by
10% .What was his profit percent in month of July?
(a)4.76 (b) 2.56 (c) 5.88 (d) 3.17

Data For next five questions:

Study the following line graph and answer the questions.

Q440. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies
together are equal?
(a) 1995 and 1998 (b) 1996 and 1998
(c) 1997 and 1998 (d) 1995 and 1996

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 66

Q441. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately
what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z?
(a) 87.12% (b) 89.64% (c) 91.21% (d) 93.33%

Q442. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the
minimum?
(a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1997

Q443. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 1993
and the average exports in 1998?
(a) Rs. 15.33 crores (b) Rs. 18.67 crores
(c) Rs. 20 crores (d) Rs. 22.17 crores

Q444. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the
average annual exports over the given years? ______

Data for next five questions:

The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand numbers) from six
branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

Q445. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of
branch B4 for both years?
(a) 2:3 (b) 3:5 (c) 4:5 (d) 7:9
Q446. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years, is what percent of the total sales of
branches B3 for both the years?
(a) 68.54% (b) 71.11% (c) 73.17% (d) 75.55%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 67

Q447. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average
sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
(a) 75% (b) 77.5% (c) 82.5% (d) 87.5%

Q448. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year
2000?
(a) 73 (b) 80 (c) 83 (d)88

Q449. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand
numbers), is?
(a) 250 (b) 310 (c) 435 (d) 560
Directions for next four questions: Study the following line graph and table carefully and
answer the questions given below.
Numbers of employees working in five different banks A, B, C, D and E.

Ratio of males to females employees

Q450. What is the total number of male employees taking all the banks together?
(a) 4060 (b) 4120 (c) 4180 (d) 4280

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 68

Q451. What is the average number of female employees taking all the banks together?
(a) 656 (b) 686 (c) 668 (d) 646

Q452. Approximately by what percent is the number of male employees working in banks
A and C together more than that of the total number of female employees working in
bank B and D?
(a) 9% (b) 15% (c) 11% (d) 13%

Q453. What is the ratio of female employees working in bank D to that in E?

(a) 7 : 4 (b) 8 : 5 (c) 7 : 3 (d) None of these

Q454. Approximately by what per cent is the number of total employees in bank C more
than that of bank D?
(a) 8% (b) 6% (c) 4. 4% (d) 10%

Q455. The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who
qualified an examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the
examination over a period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.

The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was 33500 and
the number of candidates appeared in 1999 was 26500. What was the number of
candidates in 2000?
(a) 24500 (b) 22000 (c) 20500 (d) 19000

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 69

 ADVANCED LEVEL QUESTIONS
Q456. Which of the following numbers will always divide a six-digit number of the form
xyxyxy (where 1 < x < 9, 1 < y < 9)?
(a) 1010 (b) 10101 (c) 11011 (d) 11010

Q457. A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17 . Instead, he divided the
given number by 8/17 . His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given
number was
(a) 64 (b) 289 (c) 136 (d) 225

Q458. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder.
The sum of the digits of N is _________
(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10

Q459. A number when divided by 7 leave a reminder x. When divided by 19 it leave a

reminder 2x. Also when divided by 39 it leave a remindre 3x. If x = 4, then find the
least possible such number.
(a) 4305 (b)4302 (c) 4263 (d) 9489

Q460. What is the number which when successively divided by 8, 9 and 10, leaves a
remainders of 6, 7 and 8 respectively and last quotient is five?
(a)3182 (b)529 (c)4238 (d)591

Q461. It is being that (232 + 1 ) is completely divisible by whole number. Which of the
following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
(a) (216 + 1) (b) (216 − 1) (c) (7 × 233 ) (d) 296 + 1

Q462. What is the remainder when N = (1! + 2! + 3! + … 10000!)50 is divided by 10?

__________

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 70

 ∞
Q463. 7…
What is the remainder when 77 is divided by 5? ____________

Q464. [MSQ]
Let N = (n – 2)(n – 1)n(n +1)(n + 2); where n is a natural number. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) The unit digit of N is 0.
(b) N is perfectly divisible by 24.
(c) N is perfect square.
(d) (N +1)2 mod 10 = 1.

Q465. Let N = n2 + n + 41; where n is a natural number. For which smallest value of n, N is a
perfect square? __________

Q466. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves remainder 1 and 4

respectively. When it is successively divided by 5 and 4, then the respective
remainders will be
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) 3, 2 (d) 4, 1

Data for next two questions: A trader gives a discount of 16% and earns a profit of 40%. If
the difference between the marked price and the cost price is Rs 400, then
Q467. What will be the selling price (in Rs)? _______

Q468. What is the cost price in Rs? ________

Q469. A shopkeeper marked a product, 20% above the cost price and sold the product for
Rs. 3888 by giving two successive discounts of 10% each. Find the cost price of the
product and the loss percentage of the shopkeeper.
(a) 4200, 7.4% (b) 4000, 2.8% (c) 4100, 5.1% (d) 4050, 4%

Q470. The marked price of a John Players Denim is Rs. 1490. On the occasion of
Janmashtami, the showroom offered two successive discounts of 11.25% and D%
respectively. If an individual purchased the Denim for Rs. 1193.44, then find the
value of value of ‘D’?
(a) 9.75 (b) 8.75 (c) 5.5 (d) 10.75

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 71

Q471. The C.P of a Denim is 10% more than C.P of a T-shirt. The shopkeeper marked up
Denim at 20% above the C.P and T-shirt at 30% above the C.P. Find the sum of
marked price of 4 Denims and 5 T-shirts, if shopkeeper allowed discount of 20% on
T-shirt and 25% on Denim and the difference between selling prices of both is Rs. 50.
_______________

Q472. An Article costs Rs. 5000 and it is marked up 40% by the shopkeeper. A customer
walks into the shop and seems really interested in the article. Sensing this, the
shopkeeper gets greedy and he raises the markup % to 80% and gives a discount of
20% to the customer. How much more/less money would he had made, had he not
gotten greedy?
(a) Rs. 200 more (b) Rs. 200 less (c)Rs. 400 more (d)Rs. 400 less

Q473. The marked price of an article is Rs. 3,000. If two successive discounts, each of x%, on
the marked price is equal to a single discount of Rs. 1,174.80, then what will be the
selling price of the article if a single discount of x% is given on the marked price?
____________

Q474. There four articles are sold at the same price (i.e., the selling prices are equal).
 First one is sold at a profit of 20%,
 Second one is sold at a profit of 20%,
 Third one is sold at a loss of 20%, and
 Fourth is sold at a loss of 20%.
What is the overall percentage of profit/loss?
(a) 0% loss (b) 4 % profit (c) 4% loss (d) Insufficient data
Q475. There four articles are sold at the same price (i.e., the selling prices are equal).
 First one is sold at a profit of 25%,
 Second one is sold at a profit of 50%,
 Third one is sold at a loss of 25%, and
 Fourth is sold at a loss of 20%.
What is the overall percentage of profit/loss?
(a) 1.2345% loss (b) 1.2345 % profit
(c) 25% profit (d) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 72

Q476. Rs. 39030 is divided between ‘a’ and ‘b’ in such a way that amount given to ‘a’ on C.I.
in 7 years is equal to the amount given to ‘b’ on C.I. in 9 years. Find the part of ‘a’. If
the rate of interest is 4%.
(a) 20200 (b) 20900 (c) 20280 (d) 20100

Q477. What will be the difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.
4500 put for 2 years at 5% per annum?
(a) 12.45 (b) 12.95 (c) 11.25 (d) 10.25

Q478. What will be the amount if a sum of Rs. 5000 is placed at compound interest for 3
years while the rate of interest for the first, second and third years is 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively?
(a) 5473.12 (b) 5463.12 (c) 5163.12 (d) 5353.12

Q479. The compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in 2 years at 4% per annum the interest being
compounded half-yearly, is :
(a) 824.3216 Rs (b) 804.3216 Rs (c) 814.3216 Rs (d) 834.3216 Rs

Q480. The compound interest on a certain sum of money invested for 2 years at 5% per
annum is Rs. 328. The simple interest on the sum, at the same rate and for the same
period will be?
(a) 340 (b)320 (c)330 (d)390

Q481. A sum of Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 4000 in two years at compound interest. In how
many years does the same amount becomes Rs. 8000?
(a) 2 years (b) 4years (c) 6 years (d) 8 years

Q482. A, B and C are partners. A got the (2/3)rd of the total profit. B and C got the rest
amount in equal ratio. When the rate of profit is increased from 5 to 7%, there is a
increase of Rs. 400 in profit of A. What will be the profit of B?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 250 (c) Rs. 480 (d) Rs. 350

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 73

Q483. P, Q and R signed for a project of Rs. 23600. P invested Rs. 5000 more than Q and Q
invested Rs. 3000 more than R. If the profit is Rs. 35400, find the share of Q.
(a)Rs. 21800 (b) Rs. 18000 (c) Rs. 10800 (d) Rs. 11400

Q484. In a mixture of milk and water the proportion of water by weight was 75%. If in 60
gm of mixture 15 gm water was added, what would be the percentage of water?
(Weight in gm)
(a) 80% (b) 70% (c) 75% (d) 62%

Q485. The average weight of boys in a class is 30 kg and the average weight of girls in the
same class is 20kg. If the average weight of the whole class is 23.25 kg, what could be
the possible strength of boys and girls respectively in the same class?
(a) 14 and 16 (b) 13 and 27 (c) 17 and 27 (d) None of these

Q486. How many litres of pure water must be mixed with 175 litres of pure spirit in order
to gain (100/7) % by selling the spirit it at its cost price?
(a)24 litres (b) 25 litres (c) 50 litres (d) 75 litres

Q487. A person employed 15 men to do a work in 76 days. After 20 days he realized that the
work cannot be finished the scheduled time with the present work force. So he
employed five more men and the work is finished one day earlier. How many days
would he have been behind the schedule if he had not admitted the new men?
(a) 73.33 days (b) 93.33 days (c) 95.33 days (d)17.33 days
Q488. Three cars leave A for B in equal time intervals. They reach B simultaneously and then
leave for Point C which is 240 km away from B. The first car arrives at C an hour after
the second car. The third car, having reached C, immediately turns back and heads
towards B. The first and the third car meet a point that is 80 km away from C. What is
the difference between the speed of the first and the third car?
(a) 60 kmph (b) 20 kmph (c) 40 kmph (d) 80 kmph

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 74

Q489. Ankit when going slower by 15 Km/hr, reaches late by 45 hours. If he goes faster by
10 Km/hr from his original speed, he reaches early by 20 hours than the original time.
What is the distance he covered by Ankit?
(a) 8750 Km (b) 9750 Km (c) 1000 Km (d) 3750 Km

Q490. Three friends A, B and C decide to run around a circular track. They start at the same
time and run in the same direction. A is the quickest and when A finishes a lap, it is
seen that C is as much behind B as B is behind A. When A completes 3 laps, C is the
exact same position on the circular track as B was when A finished 1 lap. What is the
ratio of the speeds of A, B and C?
(a) 5 : 4 : 2 (b) 4 : 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 4 : 3 (d) 3 : 2 : 1

Q491. A, B, C, and D are moving on a circular track in the same direction. All started running
simultaneously and from the same point such that the ratio of their speeds is 1 : 2 : 3 :
4. At how many distinct points any two of them will meet? _________

Q492. Two persons A and B are racing along a circular track. The speed of A is twice the
speed of B. The length of the circular track is 800 m and the length of the race is 7200
m. After the start of the race, A meets B for the first time at the end of the third
minute. If A and B start the race from the same point, What is the time taken by A to
finish the race?
(a)19 minute (b)9.5 minute (c)27 minute (d)13.5 minute

Q493. A boy agrees to work at the rate of one rupee on the first day, two rupees on the second
day, and four rupees on third day and so on. How much will the boy get if he started
working on the 1st of February and finishes on the 20th of February?
(a) 220 (b) 220 -1 (c)219 -1 (d) 219

Q494. A house has two wall clocks, one in kitchen and one more in the bedroom. The time
displayed on both the watches is 12.A.M right now. The clock in the bedroom gains
five minutes every hour, whereas the one in the kitchen is slower by five minutes every
hour. After how many hours the watches show the same time again?
(a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 72 hours (d) 96 hours

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 75

Q495. Aparna was born on 29th, Feb 2016 which happened to be a Monday. If she lives to
be till 2099, how many birthdays would she celebrate on a Monday?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

Q496. If a 𝑎 ≠ 𝛽 but 𝛼 2 = 5𝛼 − 3 and 2 = 5 - 3, then the equation whose roots are a /

and /a, is
(a) 3x2 - 25x + 3 = 0
(b) x2 + 5x – 3 = 0
(c) x2 - 5x + 3 = 0
(d) 3x2 - 19x + 3 = 0

Q497. The vlaue of 𝛼 for which one root of the quadratic equation
(𝛼 2 − 5𝛼 + 3)𝑥 2 + (3𝛼 − 1)𝑥 + 2 = 0 , is twice as large as the other is
(a)-2/3
(b)1/3
(c)-1/3
(d) 2/3

Q498. If p and q are roots of the equation x2+px+q=0 , then

(a)p=1, q=−2
(b)p=0, q=1
(c)p=−2, q=0
(d) p=−2, q=1

Q499. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax2+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
the squares of their reciprocals then , , and , are in .
𝑐 𝑎 𝑏

(a)Geometric progression
(b)Harmonic progression
(c)Arithmetic - geometric progression
(d)Arithmetic progression

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 76

Q500. [MSQ]

If a1, a2, a3……..an are in AP, where ai >0 for all i, which of the following statement

Is/are true?

1 1 1 (𝑛+1)
(a) + +….,+ =
√𝑎1 +√𝑎2 √𝑎2 +√𝑎3 √𝑎𝑛−1 +√𝑎𝑛 √𝑎1 +√𝑎𝑛

1 1 1 (𝑛−1)
(b) + +….,+ =
√𝑎1 +√𝑎2 √𝑎2 +√𝑎3 √𝑎𝑛−1 +√𝑎𝑛 √𝑎1 +√𝑎𝑛

(c) 𝑎𝑛 + 𝑎1 = 𝑎3 + 𝑎𝑛−3
(d) 𝑎𝑛−5 − 𝑎𝑛−2 = 𝑎3 − 𝑎6

Q501. [MSQ]
Which of the following statement is/are true?
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
(a) If √𝑎 = √𝑏 = √𝑐 and if a,b,c are in G.P , then x,y,z are in A.P.
(b) If qth and rth terms of an A.P and be a,b and c respectively then
𝑎𝑏−𝑐 . 𝑏𝑐−𝑎 . 𝑐 𝑎−𝑏 = 1.
(c) If 𝑎 𝑥 = 𝑏 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑧 and x, y, z are in G.P., thenlog 𝑏 𝑎 = log𝑐 𝑏.

(d) If a, b and c are in A.P. and 𝑎2 , 𝑏2 and 𝑐 2 are in H.P., then either a = b= c or a, b
and –c/2 are in G.P.

Q502. Consider a small unit of a factory where there are 5 employees : a supervisor and
four labourers. The workers earn a salary of Rs. 5,000 per month each while the
supervisor gets Rs. 15,000 per month. What is relation between the mean, median
and mode of the salaries?
(a)Mean = Median = Mode
(b) Mean < Medin = Mode
(c) Mean > Median = Mode
(d) Mean > Median > Mode

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 77

Directions for next five questions: Following bar chart represents the number of people in 6
different villages (A, B, C, D, E and F) and the tabular column depicts the ratio of literate to
illiterate people and percentage of male living in those villages.

Q503. If 40% of the female from village B is literate, then what is the percentage of male,
who is illiterate from village B?
(a) 38% (b)35% (c)37% (d) None of these

Q504. What is the percentage of literate people in all the six villages together?
(a) 55% (b)53% (c)51% (d)None of these

Q505. What is the ratio between numbers of illiterate people from villages B, C & D to
number of female from villages A, E & F?
(a) 320 : 527 (b) 527 : 330 (c) 330 : 527 (d) 527 : 320

Q506. If 3% of female from village D & 5% of female from village E are literate then what is
the total number of literate male from D & F together?
(a) 1823 (b) 1723 (c) 1623 (d) Cannot determine

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 78

Q507. The number of female from villages A & C is how much percentage more or less
than number of female from villages D & F?
(a) 24.76% (b) 24.72% (c) 25.76% (d) 25.72%
Directions for next five questions:
Following Pie charts represent the number of students, who have appeared and cleared
phase I of Civil Service Exam from various departments of an Arts and Science College.

Q508. Approximately what is the difference between the number of students cleared phase
I from Maths department and number of students appeared from English
department?
(a) 1350 (b) 1240 (c) 1340 (d) 1250

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 79

Q509. The total number of students clearing phase I from commerce and other department
is what percentage of the number of students clearing phase I from physics
department?
(a) 340 %
(b) 310 %
(c) 320 %
(d) 330 %

Q510. What has the ratio between numbers of students appeared from Maths and physics
departments to the number of students appeared from chemistry and commerce
departments?
(a) 16 : 15
(b) 15 : 17
(c) 16 : 17
(d) 15 : 16

Q511. From which department is the difference between the number of students cleared
and the number of students appeared is the second minimum?
(a) Chemistry
(b) Physics
(c) Commerce
(d) Maths

Q512. What is the percentage of students, who did not clear the phase I of the exam?
(a) 84.45%
(b) 84.55%
(c) 83.55%
(d) 83.45%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 80

Directions for next five questions: The following pie chart shows the distance travelled by
boat on different days. The speed of the stream is same in both upstream and downstream
direction. The table shows the speed of stream at different days. Study the data given
carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Q513. On Wednesday the difference between speeds of the boat going downstream and
upstream is 7km/hr and also the ratio of the speed of boat going downstream and
upstream 11: 4. If the total time taken by boat to cover downstream and upstream
distances on Wednesday is 26 hours 36 minutes. What is the speed of stream on that
day?
(a) 1 kmph (b) 1.5 kmph (c) 2 kmph (d) 2.5 kmph
Q514. If the total speed of a boat in still water on Sunday and Tuesday is 12.5 km/hr and
also time taken to cover the downstream distance on Sunday is equal to the time
taken to cover the upstream distance on Tuesday. Find the ratio of speed in still
water on Sunday and Tuesday.
(a) 9 : 16 (b) 16 : 17 (c) 16 : 9 (d) 19 : 16

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 81

Q515. On Thursday the boat takes total 30 hours to cover upstream and downstream
distances. If the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water going downstream and
upstream is 5:3. Find the speed of the boat in still water while going in an upstream
direction.
(a) 8km/hr
(b) 12km/hr
(c) 6 km/hr
(d) 19km/hr

Q516. Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Monday is 8 hours more than the time
taken to cover the downstream distance on Thursday and total speed in still water
on Monday and Thursday is 23 km/hr. What is the ratio of speed in still water on
Monday and Thursday?
(a) 5 : 18
(b) 7 : 16
(c) 10 : 13
(d) 11 : 12
Q517. On Sunday the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water going upstream and
downstream is 5:7. The difference between the time to cover upstream and
downstream distance is 6 hours. Find the total time to cover the upstream and
downstream distance.
(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 18 hours
(d) 15 hours

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 82

Data for next five questions:

Q518. What is the increase in the number of COVID -19 cases in Delhi and Rajasthan
together from Monday to Wednesday?
(a) 250 (b) 230 (c) 225 (d) 180
Q519. The number of cases in UP on Thursday is what percent of the number of cases in
Delhi on Friday?
(a) 9.33% (b) 16.67% (c) 15% (d) 12.5%
Q520. What is the difference between the number of cases in Delhi and Rajasthan on
Friday?
(a) 724 (b) 792 (c) 1080 (d) 856
Q521. What is the ratio of the increase in the number of COVID-19 cases from Tuesday to
Thursday in UP to that in Delhi?
(a) 5 : 21 (b) 7 : 20 (c) 11 : 25 (d) 5 : 18
Q522. The percentage increase in UP from Wednesday to Thursday is what percent of the
percentage increase in Delhi from Tuesday to Wednesday?
(a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 45% (d) 30%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 83

Data for next five questions:
The chart given below shows the number of positive COVID-19 cases reported in four
countries and percentage of people who died and those who recovered from the reported
cases. Rest of them are active cases.

Q523. What is the difference between the death count in Italy and Spain?
(a) 890 (b) 840 (c) 825 (d) 850

Q524. What is the total number of active cases in Spain?

(a) 16560 (b) 13750 (c) 17260 (d) 16860

Q525. What is the total number of deaths in four countries?

(a) 10012 (b) 9457 (c) 9324 (d) 9487

Q526. If 25% of the active cases in Iran are females, what is the number of active male
cases in Iran?
(a) 7250 (b) 7380 (c) 6450 (d) 7460

Q527. The number of people who recovered in India are what percent of the people who
recovered in Spain?
(a) 5.83%
(b) 7.14%
(c) 8.25%
(d) 6.67%

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 84

 SPATIAL APTITUDE
SERIES
Q1. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q2. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 85

Q3. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q4. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q5. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures

(a)1 (b)5 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 86

Q6. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q7. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q8. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 87

Q9. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q10. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q11. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 88

 ANALYTICAL REASONING
Q12. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a)8 (b)10 (c)12 (d)14

Q13. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a)12 (b)18 (c)22 (d)26

Q14. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

(a)13 (b)15 (c)17 (d)19

Q15. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a)15 (b)16 (c)17 (d)18

Q16. Count the number of squares in the given figure.

(a)32 (b)30 (c)29 (d)28

Q17. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.

(a) 28 triangles, 3 squares (b) 24 triangles, 5 squares

(c) 28 triangles, 5 squares (d)24 triangles, 3 squares

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 89

Q18. Count the number of parallelogram in the given figure.

(a) 20 (b)18 (c)16 (d)12

Q19. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.

(a) 28 triangles, 10 squares

(b) 28 triangles, 8 squares
(c) 32 triangles, 10 squares
(d)32 triangles, 8 squares
PAPER FOLDING
Directions :
In each of the following problems, a square transparent sheet (X) with a pattern is given.
Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the patter would appear when the
transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
Q20. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 90

Q21. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q22. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q23. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q24. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 91

Q25. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q26. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q27. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q28. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 92

Q29. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q30. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q31. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q32. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 93

Q33. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Q34. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1

(b)2

(c)3

(d)4

Q35. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(a)1

(b)2

(c)3

(d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 94

 GROUPING OF IMAGES
Directions to Solve:
In each of the following questions, group the given figures into three classes using each
figure only once.
Q36. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

(a) 1,4 ; 2,3 ; 5,6 (b) 1,5 ; 2,6 ; 4,3

(c) 1,6 ; 2,3 ; 4,5 (d)1,2 ; 3,6 ; 4,5
Q37. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

(a) 7,8,9 ; 2,4,3 ; 1,5,6 (b)1,3,2 ; 4,5,7 ; 6,8,9

(c)1,6,8 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,9 (d)1,6,9 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,8
Q38. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

(a) 1,5,7 ; 2,4,6 ; 3,9,8 (b)1,5,7 ; 2,4,8 ; 3,6,9

(c) 1,4,7 ; 2,5,8 ; 3,6,9 (d) 1,7,9 ; 3,5,8 ; 2,4,6

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 95

Q39. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

(a) 1,3,5 ; 2,6,9 ; 4,7,8

(b) 2,3,4 ; 5,6,8 ; 9,1,7
(c) 1,3,5 ; 2,6,8 ; 4,7,9
(d) 3,2,4 ; 6,5,8 ; 7,9,1

ANALOGY
Figures A, B, C and D constitute the Problem Set while figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 constitute the
Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures A and B. Establish a similar
relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer Set that
would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (D).
Q40. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).Problem Figures:

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 96

Q41. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q42. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures:

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 97

Q43. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q44. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)5

Q45. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).Problem Figures:

(a)1 (b)4 (c)3 (d)5

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 98

Q46. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).Problem Figures:

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

MIRROR IMAGES
In each of the following questions you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers
followed by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative which is closely
resembles the mirror image of the given combination
Q47. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q48. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 99

Q49. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q50. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror images of the given image of
the Fig.(X) from amongst the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.
Q51. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q52. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 100

Q53. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q54. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q55. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q56. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 101

Q57. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

PATTERN COMPLETION
Directions to Solve:
In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which
when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
Q58. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q59. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 102

Q60. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q61. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q62. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q63. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 103

Q64. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q65. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

PAPER CUTTING
Directions to Solve:
Each of the following questions consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a
sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure (Z) shows the manner in which the folded
paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you
have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z).
Q66. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 104

Q67. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Q68. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure
(Z).

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Q69. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 105

Q70. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q71. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q72. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q73. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z)

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 106

Q74. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q75. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q76. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q77. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 107

Q78. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q79. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

CUBES AND DICE
Directions to Solve:
The sheet of paper shown in the figure (X) given on the left hand side, in each problem, is
folded to form a box. Choose from amongst the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4), the boxes that
are similar to the box that will be formed.
Q80. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 108

Q81. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Q82. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Q83. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 109

Q84. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper
(X).Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 only (b)2 only (c)3 only (d) 4 only

Q85. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Q86. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 110

Q87. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 4 only
Q88. When the following figure is folded to form a cube, how many dots lie opposite the
face bearing five dots?

(a) 1
(b)2
(c)3
(d) 4
Q89. Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on
the top?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)5
(d)6

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 111

Q90. What will be the number at the bottom, if 5 is at the top; the two positions of the dice
being as given below

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)6

CLASSIFICATION
Q91. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

Q92. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

Q93. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

Q94. Choose the figure which is different from therest.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 112

Q95. Choose the figure which is different from the rest

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

Q96. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

(e)5

WATER IMAGES

Q97. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q98. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given
combination.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

In each of the following questions, choose the water image of the Fig.(X) from amongst the
four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it

Q99. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 113

Q100. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q101. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four

alternatives.

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

SHAPE CONSTRUCTION
Q102. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q103. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q104. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 114

Q105. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q106. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q107. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

Q108. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to
form a’

(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 115

 VERBAL APTITUDE
SOLVED EXAMPLES

SPOTTING THE ERRORS

Q1. Some nouns are singular in form, but they are used as plural nouns and always take a
plural verb. Cattle, gentry, vermin, peasantry, artillery, people, clergy, company,
police
a) The cattle is grazing in the ground. (Incorrect)
b) The cattle are grazing in the ground. (Correct)
a) The clergy is in the church. (Incorrect)
b) The clergy are in the church. (Correct)

Q2. Some nouns are always used in a plural form and always take a plural verb. Trousers,
scissors, spectacles, stockings, shorts, measles, goods, alms, premises, thanks, tidings,
annals, chattels, etc
a)Where is my trousers? (Incorrect)
b) Where are my trousers? (Correct)
a) Spectacles is now a costly item. (Incorrect)
b) Spectacles are now a costly item. (Correct)

Q3. Collective nouns such as jury, public, team, committee, government, audience,
orchestra, company, etc. are used both as singular and plural depending on the
Meaning. When these words indicate a unit, the verb is singular, otherwise the verb
will be plural.
a) The jury was divided in this case. (Incorrect)
b) The jury were divided in this case. (Correct)
a) The team have not come as yet. (Incorrect)
b) The team has not come as yet. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 116

Q4. People are often confused or they commit mistakes in the use of certain nouns.
1) Lecturership is wrong: lectureship is correct.
a) There are twenty candidates for lecturership. (Incorrect)
b) There are twenty candidates for lectureship. (Correct)
2) Freeship is wrong; free-studentship is correct. (Incorrect)
a) Ramesh has applied for freeship. (Incorrect)
b) Ramesh has applied for free-studentship. (Correct)
3) Family members is wrong; members of the family is correct.
a) Vivek and Ramesh are my family members. (Incorrect)
b) Vivek and Ramesh are the members of my family. (Correct)
4) English teacher is wrong; the teacher of English is correct.
a) Dr. Raina is our English teacher. (Incorrect)
b) Dr. Raina is our teacher of English. (Correct)
5) Cousin-brother or sister is wrong; only cousin is correct.
a) Geeta is my cousin sister. (Incorrect)
b) Geeta is my cousin. (Correct)
6) Ours, yours, hers, theirs are correct.
a) This house is our’s. (Incorrect)
b) This house is ours. (Correct)
Note: The same principle applies to ‘yours’, ‘hers’ and ‘theirs’.

Q5. A pronoun must agree with its antecedent in person, number and gender.
For example:
Every man must bring his luggage.
All students must do their home work.
Each of the girls must carry her own bag.
Each student must bring their books. (Incorrect)
Each student must bring his books. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 117

Q6. While using ‘everybody’, ‘anyone’, ‘anybody’, and ‘each’ the pronoun of the
masculine or the feminine
gender is used according to the content.
I shall be happy to help each of the boys in this practice.
But when the sex is not mentioned, we use the pronoun of the masculine gender.
Anyone can do this job if he tries.
Each of the six boys in the class has finished their task. (Incorrect)
Each of the six boys in the class has finished his task. (Correct)

Q7. The pronoun ‘one’ must be followed by ‘one’s’.

One must finish his task in time. (Incorrect)
One must finish one’s task in time. (Correct)

Q8. ‘Who’ denotes the subject and ‘whom’ is used for the object?
Whom do you think won the award? (Incorrect)
Who do you think won the award? (Correct)
Who are you talking to? (Incorrect)
Whom are you talking to? (Correct)

Q9. When two or more singular nouns are joined together by ‘either or’; ‘neither nor’; and
‘or’, the pronoun is singular.
Either Ram or Shyam will give their book. (Incorrect)
Either Ram or Shyam will give his book. (Correct)

Q10. ‘Whose’ is used for living persons and ‘which’ for lifeless objects?
Which book did you select?
Whose photograph is lying there?
What book do you read? (Incorrect)
Which book do you read? (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 118

Q11. ‘Each other’ is used when there are two subjects or objects and ‘one another’ when
there are more than two.
Romeo and Juliet loved each other.
Those five friends, who are sitting there, love one another.
All the students of the class are friendly; they love each other. (Incorrect)
All the students of the class are friendly; they love one another. (Correct)

Q12. When a pronoun stands for a collective noun, it must be in the singular number and
in the neuter gender if the collective noun is viewed as a whole.
The jury gave ‘its’ verdict.
Here the ‘jury’ gives the idea of one whole.
If the collective noun conveys the idea of separate individuals comprising the whole,
the pronoun standing for it must be plural.
The jury were divided in their opinions.
Here the ‘jury’ gives the idea of several individuals.
The team are divided in this opinion about playing on Sunday. (Incorrect)
The team are divided in their opinion about playing on Sunday. (Correct)

Q13. If pronoun of different persons are to be used together in a sentence, the serial order
of persons should be as follows: second person + third person + first person in a good
normal sentence. But if a fault is to be confessed, the order will be:
first person + second
person + third person.
You, he and I have finished the work. (Normal sentence)
I, you and he are to blame. (Confession)
Ram, I and you have finished our studies. (Incorrect)
You, Ram and I have finished our studies. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 119

Q14. ‘Some’ is used in affirmative sentences to express quantity or degree. ‘Any’ is used in
negative or interrogative sentences.
I shall buy some applies.
I shall not buy any apples.
Have you bought any applies?
But ‘Some’ may be correctly used in interrogative sentences which are, in fact,
requests. Will you please give me some milk?
I shall read any book. (Incorrect)
I shall read some book. (Correct)
Have you bought some apples? (Incorrect)
Have you bought any apples? (Correct)
Q15. The use of ‘few’, ‘a few’ and ‘the few’ should be used with care. They denote ‘number’.
‘Few’ means ‘not many’. It is the opposite of many. A ‘few’ is positive and means
‘some at least’. It is the opposite of none. ‘The few’ means ‘whatever there is’.
A few men are free from fault. (Incorrect)
Few men are free from fault. (Correct)
Here the sense is negative and thus ‘a few’ is wrong.
Few boys will pass in the examination. (Incorrect)
A few boys will pass in the examination. (Correct)
Here the sense is positive and thus ‘few’ is incorrect.
I have already read a few books that are on the bookshelf. (Incorrect)
I have already read the few books that are on the bookshelf. (Correct)
Here the sense is ‘whatever there is’.

Q16. Use of ‘less’ and ‘fewer’.

‘Less’ denotes quantity and ‘fewer’ denotes number.
No less than fifty persons were killed. (Incorrect)
No fewer than fifty persons were killed. (Correct)
There are no fewer than five litres of water in the jug. (Incorrect)
There are no less than five litres of water in the jug. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 120

Q17. Use of little, a little, the little.
‘Little’ means ‘hardly any’.
There is a little hope of his recovery. (Incorrect)
There is little hope of his recovery. (Correct)
‘A little’ means ‘some’, though not much.
Little knowledge is a dangerous thing. (Incorrect)
A little knowledge is a dangerous thing. (Correct)
‘The little’ means ‘not much but all there is’.
A little milk that is in the pot may be used for the patient. (Incorrect)
The little milk that is in the pot may be used for the patient. (Correct)

Q18. Use of elder, older.

‘Older’ refers to persons as well as things and is followed by ‘than’.
Ram is elder than all other boys of this area. (Incorrect)
Ram is older than all other boys of this area. (Correct)
‘Elder’ is used for members of the family.
Suresh is my older brother. (Incorrect)
Suresh is my elder brother. (Correct)

Q19. Normally ‘than’ is used in the comparative degree, but with words like superior,
Inferior, senior, junior, prior, anterior, posterior and prefer ‘to’ is used. Shelley is junior
than Wordsworth. (Incorrect)
Shelley is junior to Wordsworth. (Correct)
I prefer reading than sleeping. (Incorrect)
I prefer reading to sleeping. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 121

Q20. When a comparison is made by using a comparative followed by ‘than’, the word
‘other’ must be used to exclude the thing compared from the class of things with which
it is compared.
He is stronger than any man. (Incorrect)
He is stronger than any other man. (Correct)
‘Any man’ includes the man himself and thus the sentence will be absurd.

Q21. ‘Many a’ is always followed by the singular verb.

Many a man were drowned in the sea. (Incorrect)
Many a man was drowned in the sea. (Correct)

Q22. If the subject is ‘the number of’ the singular verb is used.
The number of students are very small. (Incorrect)
The number of students is very small. (Correct)
If the subject is ‘a number of’, the plural verb is used.
A number of books is missing. (Incorrect)
A number of books are missing. (Correct)

Q23. When ‘as well as’, ‘along with’, ‘together with’, ‘no less than’, ‘in addition to’ and ‘not’
and ‘with’ join two subjects, the verb will be according to the first subject.
Ram, as well as his ten friends, are going. (Incorrect)
Ram, as well as his ten friends, is going. (Correct)
The teacher, along with the students, were going. (Incorrect)
The teacher, along with the students, was going. (Correct)

Q24. ‘A great many’ is always followed by a plural noun and a plural verb.
A great many student has been declared successful. (Incorrect)
A great many students have been declared successful. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 122

Q25. If two subjects are joined by ‘either or’, ‘neither nor’, the verb agrees with the subject
that is near.
Either Ramesh or I are to do this work. (Incorrect)
Either Ramesh or I am to do this work. (Correct)
Neither he nor his friends is reading. (Incorrect)
Neither he nor his friends are reading. (Correct)

Q26. When two singular nouns joined by ‘and’ point out the same thing or person, the verb
will be singular.
Bread and butter make a good breakfast. (Incorrect)
Bread and butter makes a good breakfast. (Correct)
The Collector and the District Magistrate are on leave. (Incorrect)
The Collector and District Magistrate is on leave. (Correct)

Q27. ‘One of’ always takes a plural noun after it.

It is one of the important day in my life. (Incorrect)
It is one of the important days in my life. (Correct)

Q28. Use of ‘not only’ and ‘but also’: Examine the sentences given below.
He not only comes for swimming but also for coaching the learners. (Incorrect)
He comes not only for swimming but also for coaching the learners. (Correct)
Here the error is due to misplacement.
The expression ‘not only’ must be placed before the right word, otherwise the meaning
changes. Here this expression is meant for swimming and not for coming.

Q29. ‘Scarcely’ and ‘hardly’ are followed by ‘when’ and not by ‘than’.
I had scarcely entered the room than the phone rang. (Incorrect)
I had scarcely entered the room when the phone rang. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 123

Q30. Though’ is followed by ‘yet’ and not by ‘but’.
Though he is poor but he is honest. (Incorrect)
Though he is poor, yet he is honest. (Correct)

Q31. ‘No sooner’ is followed by ‘than’.

No sooner had I entered the class when the students stood up. (Incorrect)
No sooner had I entered the class than the students stood up. (Correct)
Attention must also be given to the verb form while using ‘no sooner than’. The correct
forms are past perfect or past indefinite.
No sooner had I entered the class than the students stand up. (Incorrect)
No sooner had I entered the class than the students stood up. (Correct)

Q32. ‘Lest’ must be followed by ‘should’.

Read regularly lest you will fail. (Incorrect)
Read regularly lest you should fail. (Correct)

Q33. ‘Such’ is followed by ‘as’.

He is such a writer that everybody should read his books. (Incorrect)
He is such a writer as everybody should read his books. (Correct)
‘Such’ is also followed by ‘that’ if we emphasize the degree of something by
mentioning the result. The extent of the disaster was such that the authorities were
quite unable to cope.

Q34. ‘Unless’ expresses a condition. It is always used in the negative sense. Thus ‘not’ is
never used with ‘unless’.
Unless you do not labour hard, you will not pass. (Incorrect)
Unless you labour hard, you will not pass. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 124

Q35. Until expresses time. It has a negative sense and thus ‘not’ should never be used with
it.
Wait here until I do not return. (Incorrect)
Wait here until I return. (Correct)
Q36. ‘Since’ indicates a point of time and ‘for’ stands for the length of time.
He has been reading the book since two hours. (Incorrect)
He has been reading the book for two hours. (Correct)
Two hours is a length of time and thus ‘for’ is correct.
It has been raining for Monday last. (Incorrect)
It has been raining since Monday last. (Correct)
Q37. ‘As if’ is used to convey the sense of pretension. When ‘as if’ is used in this sense,
‘were’ is used in all cases, even with third person singular.
He behaves as if he was a king. (Incorrect)
He behaves as if he were a king. (Correct)
The sense of time and tense is also very important. Certain important rules are listed
below.
Q38. Past tense in the principal clause is followed by a past tense in the subordinate clause.
He saw that the clock has stopped. (Incorrect)
He saw that the clock had stopped. (Correct)
There are, however, two exceptions to this rule:
(1) A past tense in the principal clause may be followed by a present tense in the
subordinate clause, when it expresses a universal truth.
The teacher observed that the Earth moved round the Sun. (Incorrect)
The teacher observed that the Earth moves round the Sun. (Correct)
(2) When the subordinate clause is introduced by ‘than’, even if there is past tense in
the principal clause, it may be followed by any tense required by the sense in the
Subordinate clause.
He helped him more than he helped his own children. (Incorrect)
He helped him more than he helps his own children. (Correct)

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Q39. If two actions in a sentence are shown happening in the past, one after the other, the
tense of the action happening first should be past perfect and that of the second should
be past indefinite.
The patient died before the doctor arrived. (Incorrect)
The patient had died before the doctor arrived. (Correct)

Q40. Two actions in the past, one depending on the other, should have the sequence as
follows:
Past perfect + Future perfect
Had + past participle + would + have + past participle
If you had worked hard, you would have succeeded in the examination.
Or
Had you worked hard, you would have succeeded in the examination.
If you would have practised regularly, you would win the match. (Incorrect)
If you had practised regularly, you would have won the match. (Correct)

Q41. If, in a sentence, two actions are indicated and both are to take place in future, the
sequence of tenses will be as follows:
The principal clause in present indefinite; and the subordinate clause in future
indefinite.
If I go to Delhi, I shall attend the seminar.
‘If I go to Delhi’ is the principal clause and ‘I shall attend the seminar’ is the
subordinate clause.
If it will rain, I shall not attend the meeting. (Incorrect)
If it rains, I shall not attend the meeting. (Correct)

Q42. When an action has taken place in two clauses of a sentence, it is used in both the
clauses according to the requirement.
My brother has and is still doing excellent work for his organisation. (Incorrect)
My brother has done and is still doing excellent work for his organisation. (Correct)

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Q43. When there is a sense of continuity, that is, when a thing has taken place in the past
and still continues in the present, the perfect continuous tense form of the verb should
be used.
India is independent for the last forty-six years. (Incorrect)
India has been independent for the last forty-six years. (Correct)
The use of articles is also an important matter and one must be careful about it.

Q44. Before a consonant ‘a’ is used.

A boy, a horse, a woman.
But ‘a’ is also used before words like university, useful, unicorn, union, European, and
one, etc., because these words begin with a consonant sound.
Here is an university. (Incorrect)
Here is a university. (Correct)
An European lives in my area. (Incorrect)
A European lives in my area. (Correct)
It is an one-rupee note. (Incorrect)
It is a one-rupee note. (Correct)

Q45. Similarly, words like ‘hour’, ‘honest’, ‘heir’, etc. take ‘an’ before them as they begin
with a vowel sound.
I have been waiting for him for a hour. (Incorrect)
I have been waiting for him for an hour. (Correct)

Q46. Some important points to remember regarding the omission of a/an/the

1. Before a common noun used in its widest sense, e.g.,
Man is mortal.
2. Before names of materials.
Bronze is a useful metal.
3. Usually before proper names.
Patna is the capital of Bihar.
4. Before abstract nouns used in general sense.
Beauty fascinates people.
5. Before languages.
English is a very popular language in the Delhi University.
6. Before ‘school’, ‘college’, ‘church’, ‘bed’, ‘table’, ‘hospital’, ‘market’, and ‘prison’,
When these places are visited or used for their common purpose. My Christian
Friends go to church every Sunday. But ‘the’ is used with these words when we

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 127

 refer to them as a definite place, building or object rather than to the normal
Activity that goes on there.
I met my friend at the church.
7. Before names of relations, like ‘father’, ‘mother’, ‘aunt’, ‘uncle’, ‘cook’ and ‘nurse’.
Father is very happy today.
8. Before predicative nouns denoting a unique position that is normally held at one
time by one person only.
He was elected chairman of the Board.

Q47. Uses of ‘the’.

1. When the object is unique
The earth, the sky, the equator
2. Before superlatives
The best, the finest, the most
3. With proper nouns like ‘seas’, ‘rivers’, ‘group of islands’, ‘chains of mountains’,
‘deserts’, ‘newspapers’, ‘buildings’, ‘religious books’, ‘gulfs’.
The Arabian sea, The Ganges, The Taj Mahal,
The Times of India, The Ramayana.
4. Before a proper noun, when it is qualified by an adjective.
The immortal Kalidas.
5. Before an adjective, when the noun is hidden.
The rich should be kind and helping.
6. Before musical instruments.
I know how to play the harmonium.
7. With a class of things.
The crow is a clever bird.
8. ‘The’ should be used before both comparative degrees when they are used in a
sentence for proportion.
Higher we go, cooler we feel. (Incorrect)
The higher we go, the cooler we feel. (Correct)

Q48. ‘What to speak of’ is incorrect; the correct expression is ‘not to speak of’.
What to speak of running, he cannot even walk. (Incorrect)
Not to speak of running, he cannot even walk. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 128

Q49. When there is the sense of dislike, hesitation, risk, etc., in a sentence, we should use a
gerund instead of a verb. A gerund is that form of the verb which ends in ‘ing’ and
can be used in the place of a noun.
I dislike to see a film late in the night. (Incorrect)
I dislike seeing a film late in the night. (Correct)
Young girls hesitate to talk to strangers. (Incorrect)
Young girls hesitate talking to strangers. (Correct)

Q50. ‘Cent per cent’ and ‘word by word’ are wrong. ‘Hundred per cent’ and ‘word for
word’ are correct expressions.
You are never cent per cent sure of your success in a competitive examination.
(Incorrect)
You are never hundred per cent sure of your success in a competitive examination.
(Correct)
I can reproduce this lesson word by word. (Incorrect)
I can reproduce this lesson word for word.(Correct)

Q51. ‘Since’, ‘because’, ‘as’ and ‘for’ – all mean ‘because’, but there is a difference in their
degree. ‘Since’ and ‘because’ are used for stronger cases and ‘as’ and ‘for’ for weak
cases.
I respect him as he is my teacher. (Incorrect)
I respect him because he is my teacher. (Correct)
I could not attend the meeting because it was very hot today. (Incorrect)
I could not attend the meeting as it was very hot today. (Correct)

Q52. Use of ‘when’ and ‘while’: Proper attention must be paid to these words. ‘When’
indicates a general sense and ‘while’ implies a time during the process of doing a work.
When learning to swim, one of the most important things is to relax. (Incorrect)
While learning to swim, one of the most important things is to relax. (Correct)

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Q53. Sometimes the error lies in the use of words. Proper attention must, therefore, be given
to the appropriateness of words.
Prakash was leading a happy and leisurely life after his retirement from his
service. (Incorrect)
Prakash was living a happy and leisurely life after his retirement from his
service. (Correct)
Here the word ‘leading’ is inappropriate.

Q54. Proper, abstract and material nouns have no plural except when they are used as
common nouns.
The house is built of bricks. (Incorrect)
The house is built of brick. (Correct)
When such nouns are used in the plural, they become common nouns with changed
meanings; as
Coppers = Copper coins; Irons = fetters.
Tins = cans made of tin; Woods = forest.
He lives in the woods. It means he lives in a forest.

Q55. The relative pronoun should be placed as near as possible to its antecedent so that no
ambiguity arises.
The boy is my cousin who stood first in the mile race. (Incorrect)
The boy, who stood first in the mile race, is my cousin. (Correct)

Q56. When two singular nouns joined by ‘and’ are preceded by ‘each’ or ‘every’ the
pronoun used for them is singular.
Each man and each boy is responsible for their action. (Incorrect)
Each man and each boy is responsible for his action. (Correct)

Q57. Sometimes a pronoun is used where it is not required at all.

He being an M.A., he is qualified for the post. (Incorrect)
He, being an M.A., is qualified for the post. (Correct)

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Q58. If a pronoun comes after a preposition it should be used in the objective case.
Between you and I neither of us is correct. (Incorrect)
Between you and me neither of us is correct. (Correct

Q59. When a pronoun comes after ‘like’ and ‘unlike’ it takes an objective case.
A man like I will not do it. (Incorrect)
A man like me will not do it. (Correct)
Q60. A pronoun takes an objective case after ‘let’.
Let I do it. (Incorrect)
Let me do it. (Correct)

Q61. Pronouns joined by ‘and’ remain in the same case:

He and her are sister. (Correct)
He and me are friends. Brother and sister. (Incorrect)
He and she are brother and (Incorrect)
He and I are friends. (Correct)

Q62. When pronouns of second person and third person are used as subjects, the pronoun
Following them will be according to the second person pronoun.
You and he must bring his books. (Incorrect)
You and he must bring your books. (Correct)

Q63. When pronouns of second person and first person are used as subjects, the pronoun
following them will be first person plural form.
You and I must finish your work in time. (Incorrect)
You and I must finish our work in time. (Correct)

Q64. ‘But’ is also used as a relative pronoun. When a sentence has a negative noun or
pronoun, ‘but’ can be used with it. In this case ‘but’ means: who not; that not.
Here was none but laughed to see the joker.
Here the meaning of ‘but laughed’ is ‘who did not laugh.’
There is no bird but flies.
‘But flies’ means ‘that does not fly’.

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Q65. The relative pronoun ‘that’ is used in preference to ‘who’ or ‘which’ after adjectives in
the superlative degree.
The wisest man who ever lived made mistakes. (Incorrect)
The wisest man that ever lived made mistakes. (Correct)
This is the best which we can do. (Incorrect)
This is the best that we can do. (Correct)
Q66. The relative pronoun ‘that’ is also used in preference to ‘who’ and ‘which’ after the
words ‘all’, ‘same’, ‘any’, ‘none’, ‘nothing’ and (the) ‘only’.
He is the same man who he has seen. (Incorrect)
He is the same man that he has seen. (Correct)
Man is the only animal who can talk. (Incorrect)
Man is the only animal that can talk. (Correct)
Q67. The same rule applies after the interrogative pronouns ‘who’ and ‘what’.
What is there which I do not know? (Incorrect)
What is there that I do not know? (Correct)

Q68. When there are two antecedents, a man and an animal or two things before the relative
pronoun, we should use ‘that’.
The man and his dog which passed through this road were killed. (Incorrect)
The man and his dog that passed through this road were killed. (Correct)

Q69. The case of the noun or pronoun preceding or succeeding the verb ‘to be’ should be
the same.
It is him who came to see us. (Incorrect)
It is he who came to see us. (Correct)
It is me who caught the thief. (Incorrect)
It is I who caught the thief. (Correct)

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Q70. When two qualities of a person or thing are compared ‘more’ or ‘less’ is used before
the adjective and the adjective following them takes positive degree.
Suman is better than brave. (Incorrect)
Suman is more good than brave. (Correct)

Q71. When two or more adjectives are used to show the qualities of the same man or thing,
all the adjectives must be in the same degree.
Sita is more intelligent and wise than Rita. (Incorrect)
Sita is more intelligent and wiser than Rita. (Correct)
Ramesh is the wisest and strong boy of the class. (Incorrect)
Ramesh is the wisest and the strongest boy of the class. (Correct)

Q72. ‘Very’ is used with adjectives in the positive degree and with present participles.
He is a much strong man. (Incorrect)
He is a very strong man. (Correct)
It is a much interesting book. (Incorrect)
It is a very interesting book. (Correct)
‘Much’ is used with adjective in the comparative degree and with past participles.
He is very stronger than I am. (Incorrect)
He is much stronger than I am. (Correct)
I am very obliged to my friend. (Incorrect)
I am much obliged to my friend. (Correct)

Q73. To show equality ‘as’ is used before and after the adjective.
I can run as fast, if not faster, than you. (Incorrect)
I can run as fast as, if not faster, than you. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 133

Q74. Certain adjectives do not admit of comparison and thus they always remain in the
positive degree:
‘Absolute’, ‘annual’, ‘chief’, ‘circular’, ‘complete’, ‘entire’, ‘extreme’, ‘excellent’, ‘full’,
‘impossible’, ‘perfect’, ‘right’, ‘round’, ‘unique’, ‘universal’, ‘whole’, etc.
This is the most unique building that I have seen. (Incorrect)
This is the unique building that I have seen. (Correct)

Q75. ‘More than one’ indicates a plural sense, but it is treated as a sort of compound of one.
Thus it agrees with a singular noun and takes a singular verb.
More than one employees were killed in the accident. (Incorrect)
More than one employee was killed in the accident. (Correct)

Q76. ‘More than one’ indicates a plural sense, but it is treated as a sort of compound of one.
Thus it agrees with a singular noun and takes a singular verb.
More than one employees were killed in the accident. (Incorrect)
More than one employee was killed in the accident. (Correct)

Q77. If the plural subject denotes a definite amount or quantity taken as a whole, the verb
is singular.
Forty miles are a good distance. (Incorrect)
Forty miles is a good distance. (Correct)
Two-thirds of the book were rubbish. (Incorrect)
Two-thirds of the book was rubbish. (Correct)

Q78. When qualified by ‘each’ or ‘every’ two singular subjects, if even connected by ‘and’,
take a singular verb.
Each boy and every girl were given rewards. (Incorrect)
Each boy and every girl was given rewards. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 134

Q79. The following verbs are always followed by an infinitive:
‘decide’, ‘plan’, ‘expect’, ‘fail’, ‘hope’, ‘intend’, ‘learn’, ‘promise’, ‘refuse’, ‘want’,
‘agree’, ‘consent’, ‘try’, ‘love’, etc.
I refuse meeting him. (Incorrect)
I refuse to meet him. (Correct)

Q80. The following verbs and phrases should be followed by a gerund which is a verbal
noun: ‘enjoy’, ‘admit’, ‘deny’, ‘appreciate’, ‘accustomed to’, ‘is used to’, ‘do not mind’,
‘object to’, etc.
I am looking forward to receive your reply. (Incorrect)
I am looking forward to receiving your reply. (Correct)
He is used to work hard. (Incorrect)
He is used to working hard. (Correct)

Q81. The word ‘to’ is frequently used with the infinitive, but it is not an essential part of it.
For example, after certain verbs (‘bid’, ‘let’, ‘make’, ‘need’, ‘dare’, ‘see’, ‘hear’) we use
the infinitive without ‘to’.
Bid him to go there. (Incorrect)
Bid him go there. (Correct)
Make him to stand. (Incorrect)
Make him stand. (Correct)

Q82. The infinitive is used without ‘to’ after ‘had better’, ‘had rather’, ‘would rather’,
‘sooner than’ and ‘rather than’.
You had better to ask permission from him. (Incorrect)
You had better ask permission from him. (Correct)

Q83. ‘Than’ should be used after ‘no other’.

I met no other man but Mr. Roy. (Incorrect)
I met no other man than Mr. Roy. (Correct)
Ram has no other claim except his degrees. (Incorrect)
Ram has no other claim than his degrees. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 135

Q84. After the word ‘know’, ‘how’, or ‘when’ should be used before using an infinitive.
I know to write French. (Incorrect)
I know how to write French. (Correct)
Q85. A verb may take an infinitive or a gerund according to its implication. If the verb
indicates a purpose, an infinitive should be used and if the verb indicates a cause, a
gerund should be used.
He went to school for seeing the principal. (Incorrect)
He went to school to see the principal. (Correct)
He was turned out to copy answers. (Incorrect)
He was turned out for copying answers. (Correct)
Q86. Adverb ‘as’ is not used with verbs like ‘appointed’, ‘elected’, ‘considered’, ‘called’ but
it is used with ‘regard’.
He was elected as President of our society. (Incorrect)
He was elected President of our society. (Correct)
I regard Ramesh my friend. (Incorrect)
I regard Ramesh as my friend. (Correct)
Q87. After the verb ‘doubt’ ‘that’ should not be used. ‘If’ or ‘whether’ should be used in its
place.
I doubt that Ravi will come. (Incorrect)
I doubt if Ravi will come. (Correct)
Q88. It is a common practice in conversation to make a statement and ask for confirmation;
as ‘It’s very hot, isn’t it?’ Two points are to be kept in mind. If the statement is positive,
the pattern will be Auxiliary + n’t + subject.
If the statement is negative, the pattern will be
Auxiliary + subject
Examples:
It is raining, is it? (Incorrect)
It is raining, isn’t it? (Correct)
You are not busy, aren’t you? (Incorrect)
You are not busy, are you? (Correct)

Q89. There are certain common errors which should be avoided.

(a) ‘Only’ should be placed immediately before the word it qualifies.
He only lost his ticket in the stampede. (Incorrect)
Only he lost his ticket in the stampede. (Correct)
(b) An infinitive verb should not be split.
I request you to kindly help me. (Incorrect)
I request you kindly to help me. (Correct)

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 136

 Miscellaneous Exercise
EXERCISE-1
Q1. (A) One of the firmest belief / (B) was that her friend shouted at her /(C) with a view

to make her / (D) aware of her repeated lapses. / (E) No error.

Q2. (A) The pretty woman / (B) sitting in the car is /(C) the daughter of / (D) the one of

the headman of the village. / (E) No error.

Q3. (A) You are among those / (B) luckiest man who /(C) attained name and fame not by

/ (D) labour but by chance. / (E) No error.

Q4. (A) The Board of Directors / (B) want all possible facilities /(C) and allowances for /

(D) itself. /(E) No error.

Q5. (A) You and I / (B) have done /(C) my best in /(D) the examination. / (E) No error.

Q6. (A) His efforts /(B) will bring him /(C) more success /(D) than your. /(E) No error.

Q7. (A) Every teacher and /(B) every student of this college /(C) is determined to do their

best for /(D) the glorious prospects of the college. /(E) No error.

Q8. (A) The Vice-President of India and /(B) the Vice-Chancellor of this university /(C)

have given /(D) his consent to join the meeting. /(E) No error.

Q9. (A) She hates everybody /(B) and everything who /(C) reminds her /(D) of her

mistakes. /(E) No

Q10. (A) None /(B) of these two Principals /(C) has been looking /(D) after his college well.

/(E) No error.

Q11. (A) One should / (B) be true to his /(C) word in all /(D) circumstances. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 137

Q12. (A) The criminal / (B) which was chained /(C) grumbled at the Police Inspector /(D)

who was taking him to jail. / (E) No error.

Q13. (A) The officer / (B) as well as the assistants /(C) absented themselves / (D) from the

office. / (E) No error.

Q14. (A) As a student /(B) of science /(C) you are far better /(D) than him. /(E) No error.

Q15. (A) This is the same / (B) dog which barked /(C) at him but fortunately did not /(D)

bite him. / (E) No error.

Q16.
(A) Whomever /(B) comes late will not be allowed /(C) to make his presence /(D) in the

register. /(E) No error.

Q17.
(A) You and myself /(B) will enjoy the party /(C) to be arranged in honour of /(D) the new

Chief Justice. /(E) No error

Q18. (A) You say /(B) it’s your problems /(C) but I say it’s /(D) my also. /(E) No error.

Q19. (A) The hotels / (B) of Patna are more /(C) costly than /(D) Muzaffarpur. / (E) No

error.

Q20. (A) She was more /(B) garrulous than /(C) either of her /(D) three sisters. / (E) No

error.

Q21. (A) When you will find out /(B) any solution to this problem, /(C) you will become

able /(D) to finalise the project. /(E) No error.

Q22. (A) Whenever /(B) you are coming here, /(C) you bring a lot of /(D) sweets for me.

/(E) No error.

Q23. (A) It is appearing to me /(B) that you are plotting /(C) against your /(D) friends and

their parents. / (E) No error

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 138

 EXERCISE-2
Q1. (A) A misogynist is a person /(B) who is hating woman /(C) but a philogynist is

aperson /(D) who loves woman. /(E) No error.

Q2. (A) The secret of his good /(B) health lies in the fact that /(C) he is getting up before

sunrise /(D) and has a two mile walk. /(E) No error.

Q3. (A) She says /(B) that she will take /(C) her umbrella /(D) in case it will rain. /(E)

No error.

Q4. (A) Before the alarm /(B) had stopped ringing /(C) Veera had pulled up /(D) the

shade. /(E) No error.

Q5. (A) I have been knowing /(B) him for ten years /(C) but I don’t know /(D) where he

lives. /(E) No error.

Q6. (A) All the flowers /(B) in his garden will surely die /(C) before the rains /(D) will

fall. /(E) No error.

Q7. (A) If I would have done this, /(B) I would have done wrong /(C) and would have

disappointed /(D) many of my friends. /(E) No error.

Q8. (A) I wish /(B) he saw you /(C) when you were /(D) living in England. /(E) No

error.

Q9. (A) The judge had not given /(B) any dicision /(C) until he had /(D) studied the

case. /(E) No error.

Q10. (A) Radha came /(B) to the meeting /(C) much later /(D) than I expect. /(E) No

error

Q11. (A) If I was you /(B) I would have told /(C) the Chairman to keep /(D) his mouth
shut. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 139

Q12. (A) The victim tried to tell us /(B) what has happened /(C) but his words /(D) were

not audible. /(E) No error.

Q13. (A) The problems that our /(B) country has and is bound to face /(C) are the

outcome of the selfishness /(D) of our so called saviours. /(E) No error.

Q14. (A) Never before /(B) the students of India have so much been frustrated /(C) as

today when the problems /(D) of unemployment are dominant. /(E) No error.

Q15. (A) Being a rainy day /(B) Vijay decided to stay /(C) at home and work /(D) further

on the problem. /(E) No error

Q16. (A) School offers many opportunities of meeting /(B) helpful people, reading useful

books /(C) and obtain information about /(D) a variety of public careers. /(E) No

error.

Q17. (A) Taking tea, /(B) he went to the office /(C) and disposed /(D) of a lot of work.

/(E) No error.

Q18. (A) Only one dispute /(B) has been settled /(C) and others left to both the parties

/(D) to settle. /(E) No error.

Q19. (A) Without taking proper care, /(B) the doctors could not have been saved /(C) this

patient who received /(D) a bullet injury in the chest. /(E) No error.

Q20. (A) Going towards them /(B) with some cups of /(C) tea in the tray, somebody

knocked /(D) at the door. /(E) No error.

Q21. (A) During the course of investigation /(B) the police learnt that not only /(C) the

house was looted but /(D) also the things taken away. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 140

Q22. (A) He does nothing /(B) but to find /(C) faults in others and laugh /(D) at them.

/(E) No error.

Q23. (A) We advised him /(B) to marry his daughter /(C) because she had /(D) come to

marriageable age. /(E) No error.

Q24. (A) The criminal /(B) will certainly be hung /(C) because the charges brought upon

/(D) him are very serious. /(E) No error.

Q25. (A) Owing to his /(B) ill health, he will /(C) not be able to give this examination,

which means /(D) he will have to lose one year. /(E) No error.

EXERCISE-3
Q1. (A) Walking in the field /(B) late at night, a snake bit me /(C) and that was the

reason /(D) why I was in a hurry. /(E) No error.

Q2. (A) When she entered /(B) the room, she found the /(C) child sleeping peacefully

and /(D) the fan move slowly. /(E) No error.

Q3. (A) Two miles beyond /(B) that pasture was hundreds /(C) of cattle including /(D)

some lambs. /(E) No error.

Q4. (A) It is noticed that /(B) the elite class have no soft /(C) corner for the downtrodden

who are the /(D) real victims of the present social set-up. /(E) No error.

Q5. (A) Ritu as well as /(B) some of her friends /(C) have fallen in love with Sonu who

/(D) is the eldest son of an S.D.O. /(E) No error.

Q6. (A) More than one successful candidate /(B) have given interviews for one /(C) of

the popular magazines /(D) being published from Delhi. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 141

Q7. (A) The leader as well as /(B) his followers are fatally injured in /(C) the train

accident which occurred last night /(D) near this railway crossing. /(E) No error.

Q8. (A) Just outside /(B) the hotel is /(C) two bars, extremely beautiful /(D) as well as

crowdy. /(E) No .

Q9. (A) We should not forget that /(B) we have a right to criticize but /(C) at the same

time each of us /(D) have to remember the duty also. /(E) No error.

Q10. (A) One of /(B) the biggest industrial houses /(C) in Bombay is on the verge of /(D)

declaring a lock out. /(E) No error.

Q11. (A) Each of the students, /(B) whom I have chosen to take part /(C) in the cultural

programmes to be performed /(D) in the City Hall, are up to the mark. /(E) No error.

Q12. (A) Everybody among the businessmen /(B) were injoying drinking /(C) when the

Manager of the hotel /(D) was shot dead. /(E) No error.

Q13. (A) Although these buildings are /(B) in need of repair, /(C) there have been much

improvement /(D) in their appearance. /(E) No error.

Q14. (A) Not only the doctor /(B) but also the nurses of this nursing /(C) home is very kind

and helpful /(D) to the attendants. /(E) No error.

Q15. (A) Each faculty member as /(B) well as most of the students /(C) were of the view

that there should /(D) be many more new courses. /(E) No error.

Q16. (A) Either the manager /(B) or his assistants always try to misguide the public /(C)

regarding the vacancy /(D) in the factory. /(E) No error.

Q17. (A) Every man and woman /(B) of the village have come out /(C) to see this strange

child /(D) who claims to know everything about his pre-natal existence. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 142

Q18. In our college, it /(B) was obligatory for each of /(C) the students to buy /(D) his own

instruments. /(E) No error.

Q19. (A) One of the developing or underdeveloped /(B) countries are in favour of

launching /(C) chemical warfare because it trembles /(D) to imagine its repercussions.

/(E) No error.

Q20. (A) Neither Rajni /(B) nor Ragini were to take to her heels /(C) when they saw a cobra

laying /(D) at the gate. /(E) No error.

Q21. (A) If Mahatma Gandhi /(B) was alive /(C) he would start weeping /(D) to see the

present condition of India. /(E) No error.

Q22. (A) Was she a bird /(B) she would definitely fly to you /(C) and say that she could not

/(D) live without you. /(E) No error.

Q23. (A) He was not /(B) so well versed in /(C) English that we /(D) had expected. /(E)

No error.

Q24. (A) Mrs. Varun /(B) not only stopped coming /(C) here but also going to any place

/(D) which is related to her past tragedy. /(E) No error.

Q25. (A) Neither the doctor /(B) nor his assistants /(C) were asleep when /(D) the phone

rang up. /(E) No error.

EXERCISE-4
Q1. (A) You must either /(B) inform the police /(C) else be prepared /(D) to suffer any loss.

/(E) No error.

Q2. (A) As soon as the peon /(B) rings the first bell, then all /(C) the students assemble

/(D) on the ground for prayer. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 143

Q3. (A) He not only comes /(B) here for shopping but also for /(C) having a glimpse of

/(D) the extremely beautiful sales girl. /(E) No error.

Q4. (A) Hardly had he /(B) come out of the bus /(C) then the bomb exploded /(D) and

shattered the bus into pieces. /(E) No error.

Q5. (A) Scarcely had he bought /(B) the ticket when the guard /(C) showed the flag and

/(D) the train started. /(E) No error.

Q6. (A) This is not such /(B) a major problem /(C) which cannot be solved /(D) with a little

effort. /(E) No error

Q7. (A) This is perhaps /(B) the same dog which /(C) bit her while she was returning /(D)

from market. /(E) No error.

Q8. (A) Both Hari /(B) as well as his wife /(C) are determined to bring /(D) about some

changes in the plan. /(E) No error.

Q9. (A) As he is / (B) a perfectionist, /(C) so he always insists / (D) on regular practice. /

(E) No error.

Q10. (A) Although these rooms /(B) are in need of repair, /(C) but the owner does not take

/(D) any notice of their condition. /(E) No error.

Q11. (A) He suggested me /(B) that I should /(C) do all the work as /(D) quickly like him.

/(E) No error.

Q12. (A) No sooner did /(B) he find out any solution /(C) to the problem when /(D) another

problem appeared. /(E) No error.

Q13. (A) The robbers had /(B) hardly put the ornaments /(C) in his bag than /(D) the

housewife woke up. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 144

Q14. (A) Scarcely had he /(B) gone a few steps /(C) that he was told by someone /(D) that

his mother was no more. /(E) No error.

Q15. (A) Mrs. Sen told me that though /(B) her son had worked hard but /(C) he failed to

make /(D) any mark in the last examination. /(E) No error.

Q16. (A) Dr. Sinha was not only /(B) sympathetic to the rich /(C) patients but also /(D) to

the poor ones. /(E) No error.

Q17. (A) Because he is intelligent, /(B) therefore he gets good /(C) marks in all the /(D)

examinations he takes. /(E) No error.

Q18. (A) Both the rich along with /(B) the poor are responsible for a /(C) great many vices

with which our society /(D) as well as country is inflicted. /(E) No error.

Q19. (A) He exclaimed with sorrow /(B) that his brother died /(C) just two /(D) months

before. /

Q20. (A) Instead of going to London /(B) he went to America /(C) and stays /(D) there for

a month. /(E) No error.

Q21. (A) The prisoners walked slowly /(B) for they knew that as /(C) soon as they cross the

gate, /(D) the jailor would ask them to jog. /(E) No error.

Q22. (A) The prisoners walked slowly /(B) for they knew that as /(C) soon as they cross the

gate, /(D) the jailor would ask them to jog. /(E) No error.

Q23. (A) When Meena said /(B) that she was coming to see /(C) me the next day, I wondered

/(D) what problems she will bring. /(E) No error.

Q24. (A) I suggested that Ragini should /(B) stay here at night if she /(C) got late but she

does /(D) not pay any attention to my suggestion. /(E) No error

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 145

Q25. (A) He asked me /(B) why had I gone to the Cinema /(C) late at night in spite of /(D)

his clear instructions. /(E) No error.

EXERCISE-5
Q1. (A) On reaching the station /(B) he found that /(C) he left the papers /(D) in the

drawing room.

Q2. (A) He requested the teacher /(B) to allow him to go home /(C) as he got /(D) a severe

headache. /(E) No error.

Q3. (A) Jyoti asked me /(B) what could she do /(C) for me in that /(D) critical situation.

/(E) No error.

Q4. (A) The Director knowing of my /(B) interest in Environmental Science /(C) asked me

that I would /(D) like to attend the National Seminar. /(E) No error.

Q5. (A) The Government warned the shopkeepers that if /(B) they persist in /(C) charging

high prices, their /(D) licences would be cancelled. /(E) No error.

Q6. (A) I was surprised /(B) to know why had he turned /(C) down such a good offer /(D)

of marriage.

Q7. (A) My father wanted to know /(B) that I had done /(C) all the work /(D) assigned to

me. /

Q8. (A) In his famous sonnet, /(B)Milton says that /(C) “They also serve /(D) who only

stand and wait” /(E) No error.

Q9. (A) Any step that the centre /(B) takes to establish /(C) peace and harmony in the

country /(D) will be appreciate. /(E) No error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 146

Q10. (A) The policemen /(B) who were on duty in this area /(C) were discovered /(D) two

drug addicts. /(E) No error.

Q11. (A) As the first President /(B) of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad /(C) was known by all

types /(D) of people in the world. /(E) No error.

Q12. (A) The teacher asked /(B) the students whether they could /(C) tell the name of the

man /(D) who had been discovered America. /(E) No error.

Q13. (A) She held something /(B) at her side which /(C) was totally hiding /(D) by the folds

of her sari. /(E) No error.

Q14. (A) I was surprising /(B) at not having seen /(C) her even though she was standing

/(D) just beside my wife. /(E) No error.

Q15. (A) In case you apologise /(B) for having broken your /(C) promises you will /(D)

certainly be forgave. /(E) No error.

Q16. (A) Had the police not /(B) reached here /(C) on time, I would /(D) have killed by the

robbers/(E) No error.

Q17. (A) By whom /(B) was he helped /(C) when he seriously wounded /(D) by a terrorist?

/(E) No error.

Q18. (A) A Police Inspector sent /(B) to my house /(C) and all the rooms /(D) were checked.

/(E) No error.

Q19. (A) The needy man /(B) was approached to the money lender /(C) and requested him

to /(D) lend him some money. /€ No error.

Q20. (A) It was suggested /(B) by the doctor /(C) that the patient /(D) should be taken care.

/€ No error

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 147

Q21. (A) She was extremely /(B) annoyed by /(C) her lover’s unreasonable /(D) 148ehavior.

/€ No error.

Q22. (A) Five persons killed /(B) and a baby was /(C) badly injured in the /(D) bus accident

which took place last night. /€ No error.

Q23. (A) When he lent me /(B) some books, he asked /(C) me to return them back /(D) by

the end of the month. /€ No Error.

EXERCISE-6
Q1. (A) He denied /(B) that he was not /(C) present at the spot of /(D) occurrence. /€ No

Error.

Q2. (A) My father asked me /(B) if I had /(C) sufficient enough money /(D) to pay the fees.

/€ No Error.

Q3. (A) The candidate /(B) requested the chairman /(C) to repeat the /(D) question again.

/€ No Error.

Q4. (A )The principal forbade /(B) the students not to /(C) stage a /(D) walk out. /€ No
Error.
Q5. (A) “The patient is comparatively better /(B) today and I hope /(C) that he will

recover soon”, /(D) said the doctor. /€ No Error

Q6. (A) She asked me politely /(B) where I was going to /(C) and what I would /(D) bring

for her. /€ No Error.

Q7. (A) Probably by the end /(B) of the year he will /(C) leave for the USA/(D) with bag

and baggage. /€ No Error.

Q8. (A) Throughout the whole year /(B) there was not /(C) a single day /(D) without
some violence. /€ No Error.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 148

Q9. (A) She reimbursed back /(B) the money which I had /(C) spent during our /(D)
journey to Kathmandu. /€ No Error
Q10. (A) Unless you do not /(B) go through your books /(C) you cannot get through the
examination. /(D) No Error.
Q11. (A) The last project of /(B) the company was /(C) equally as successful /(D) as the
first project. /€ No Error.
Q12. (A) In spite of his insincerity, /(B) he was awarded /(C) cent-percent marks /(D) in
mathematics. /€ No Error.
Q13. (A) Each competitor /(B) tried his best /(C) to defeat /(D) the one-another. /€ No
Error.
Q14. (A) He ran as fastly /(B) as he could to /(C) win the race /(D) but ultimately he lost.
/€ No Error.
Q15. (A) He put his sign /(B) at the foot of the /(C) letter and posted it /(D) without delay.
/€ No Error
EXERCISE-7
ANTONYMS
In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
Q1. ENORMOUS
(a) Soft (b) Average (c) Tiny (d) Weak
Q2. COMMISSIONED
(a)Started (b)Closed (c)Finished (d)Terminated
Q3. ARTIFICIAL
(a)Red (b)Natural (c)Truthful (d)Solid
Q4. EXODUS
(a)Influx (b)Home-coming (c)Return (d)Restoration
Q5. RELINQUISH
(a)Abdicate (b)Renounce (c)Possess (d)Deny
Q6. EXPAND
(a)Convert (b)Condense (c)Congest (d)Conclude

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 149

Q7. MORTAL
(a) Divine (b)Immortal (c)Spiritual (d)Eternal

Q8. QUIESCENT
(a) ACTIVE (b)Dormant (c)Weak (d)Unconcerned

Q9. OBEYING
(a) Ordering (b)Following (c) Refusing (d) Contradicting

Q10. FRAUDULENT
(a)Candid (b)Direct (c) Forthright (d)Genuine
EXERCISE-8
SYNONYMS
In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given
word.
Q1. CORPULENT
(a) Lean (b)Gaunt (c)Emaciated (d)Obese

Q2. BRIEF
(a)Limited (b)Small (c)Little (d)Short

Q3. EMBEZZLE
(a) Misappropriate (b)Balance (c)Remunerate (d)Clear

Q4. VENT
(a)Opening (b)Stodge (c)End (d)Past tense of go

Q5. AUGUST
(a) Common (b) Ridiculous (c) Dignified (d)Petty

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 150

Q6. CANNY
(a) Obstinate (b)Handsome (c)Clever (d)Stout

Q7. ALERT
(a) Energetic (b) Observant (c)Intelligent (d)Watchful

Q8. WARRIOR
(a) Soldier (b)Sailor (c)Pirate (d)Spy

Q9. DISTANT
(a)Far (b)Removed (c)Reserved (d)Separate

Q10. ADVERSITY
(a) Failure (b)Helplessness (c)Misfortune (d)Crisis
EXERCISE-9
IDIOMS AND PHRASE:
Directions for next Ten questions : Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with
Their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom.
Q1. To make clean breast of
(a)To gain prominence
(b)To praise oneself
(c)To confess without of reserve
(d)To destroy before it blooms

Q2. To keeps one's temper

(a) To become hungry
(b) To be in good mood
(c) To preserve ones energy
(d) To be aloof from

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 151

Q3. To catch a tartar
(a) To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
(b) To catch a dangerous person
(c) To meet with disaster
(d) To deal with a person who is more than one's match

Q4. To have an axe to grind

(a) A private end to serve
(b) To fail to arouse interest
(c) To have no result
(d) To work for both sides

Q5. To cry wolf

(a) To listen eagerly
(b) To give false alarm
(c) To turn pale
(d) To keep off starvation

Q6. To end in smoke

(a)To make completely understand
(b) To ruin oneself
(c)To excite great applause
(d)To overcome someone

Q7. To be above board

(a)To have a good height
(b) To be honest in any business deal
(c) They have no debts
(d) To try to be beautiful

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 152

Q8. To pick holes
(a) To find some reason to quarrel
(b) To destroy something
(c) To criticize someone
(d) To cut some part of an item

Q9. To leave someone in the lurch

(a) To come to compromise with someone
(b) Constant source of annoyance to someone
(c) To put someone at ease
(d) To desert someone in his difficulties

Q10. To beg the question

(a) To refer to
(b) To take for granted
(c) To raise objections
(d) To be discussed

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 153

 ANALYTICAL APTITUDE
Direction sense Test
Data for next two questions: Ankit starts from his house TOWARDS West After walking a
distance of 30 metres, he again turned towards right and walked 20 metres. He then turned
left and moving a distance of 10 m turned to his left and walked 40 metres, turns to the left
and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his left
Q1. In which direction is he walking now?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) South-West
Q2. Now, how far is he from his starting point (in meters)?
(a)20 m (b) 25 m (c) 21.62 m (d) 20.62 m
Data for next two questions: A rat runs 20 feet towards East and turns a right, runs 10 feet
and turns to right, runs 8 feet and again turns to left, runs 5 feet and then turns to left, runs 12
feet and finally turns to left and runs 8 feet.
Q3. Now, which direction is the rat facing?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
Q4. Now, how far is he from his starting point (in meters)?
(a)31 ft (b) 25 ft (c) 24.62 ft (d) none of these
Q5. Arushi leaves tram her home. She first walks 30 metres in North-west direction and
then 30 m in South-West direction. Next, she walks 30 metres in South-east direction.
Finally, she turns towards her house. In which direction is she moving?
(a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South-east (d) South-west

Q6. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 in. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m.
Then I turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right
again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I from the starting point?
(a) North (b) North-west (c) East (d)North-east

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 154

Q7. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he
turns to East and walks 2 km, after this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now, how
far is he from his starting point (in km)? _______

Q8. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Ankita turns /left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which
direction is she walking now?
(a) North-west (b) North (c) South-east (d) East

Q9. Manoj walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and
walks 35 m Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15
m. In which direction and how many metres away is he from his original position?
(a) 45 metres east (b) 30 metres east
(c) 30 metres west (d) 45 metres west
Q10. Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Deepak is to the left of Sameer, Tushar
and Shailendra. Sameer, Tushar and Shailendra are to the left of Sushil. Shailendra is
between Sammer and Tushar. If Tushar is fourth from the left, how far is Sameer from
the right?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth

Q11. Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below it :
(i) There are six flat on a floor in two rows facing north and south are allotted to
allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.
Q12. Which of the following combination get south facing flats?
(a) QTS (b)UPT
(c)URP (d)Data is inadequate

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 155

Q13. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a)T (b)U (c)R (d)P
Q14. If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U?
(a)P (b)Q (c)R (d)T
Q15. The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) QP (b) QR (c) PT (d) TS
Q16. From the original position, B and D move one and a half-length of sides clockwise and
anticlockwise respectively. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and C
(b) D is at the midpoint between A and C, and B at the corner originally occupied by
A.
(c) B is at the midpoint between A and C, and D at the corner originally occupied by
A.
(d) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and D .
Q17. Anoop starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m he turns towards North.
After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards
south and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?
(a)10m, North (b) 10 m, South (c) 10m, West (d)10m, East

Q18. Village ‘C’ is 20 km to the North of village ‘R’. Village ‘B’ is 18 km to the East of village
‘R’. Village ‘A’ is 12 km to the West of ‘C’. If Sanjay starts from village ‘B’ and goes to
village ‘A’, in which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) North (b) North-West (c)South (d)South-East
Q19. From a point, Rajneesh started walking East and walked 35 m. He then turned on his
right and walked 20 m and he again turned to right and walked 35 m. Finally, he
turned his left and walked 20 m and reached his destination. Now, how far is he from
the starting point?
(a)50 m (b)55 m (c)20 m (d)40 m

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 156

Q20. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right run 9 m
and again turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to
left and runs 6 m. Now, which direction is the rat facing?
(a)East (b)North (c)West (d)South

Q21. Vijayan started walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turned to the left and
walked 15 m. He again turned to his left and walked 15 m. How far is he from his
original position and in which direction?
(a)30 m, East (b)15 m, South (c)15 m, East (d)15 m, West

Q22. Rakesh is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East and further
10 m towards the South, then he walks 35 m towards the West and further
5 m towards the North, then he walks 15 m towards the East. What is the straight
distance in metres between his starting point and the point where he reached last?
(a) 0 m (b)5m (c)10 m (d)None of these
Q23. Rahim started from point X and walked straight 5 km West, then turned left and
walked straight 2 km and again turned left and walked straight 7 km. In which
direction is he from the point X?
(a)North-East
(b)South-West
(c)South-East
(d)North-West

Q24. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 km straight,
then turned right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?
(a)8 km (b)10 km (c) 12 km (d)18 km

Q25. Mohan started from point ‘A’ and proceeded 7 km straight towards East, then he
turned left and proceeded straight for a distance of 10 km. He then turned left again
and proceeded straight for a distance of 6 km, and then turned left again and

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 157

 proceeded straight for another 10 km. In which direction is Mohan from his starting
point?
(a)East
(b)West
(c)North
(d)South

Q26. B is to the South-West of A, C is to the East of B and South-East of A and D is to the

North of C in line with B and A. In which direction of A is D located?
(a) North
(b)East
(c)South-East
(d)North-East

Q27. Starting from a point, Raju walked 12 m North, he turned right and walked 10 m, he
again turned right and walked 12 m, then he turned left and walked 5 m. How far is
he now and in which direction from the starting point?
(a)27 m towards East
(b)5 m towards East
(c)10 m towards West
(d)15 m towards East

Q28. A watch reads 4.30. If the minute hand points East, in what direction will the hour
hand point?
(a) South-East
(b) North-East
(c) North
(d)North-West

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 158

Q29. ‘A’ walks 10 m, towards East and then 10 m to his right. Then every time turning to
his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m, respectively. How far is he now from his starting
point?
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m

Q30. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the north.
When the post office, was 100 m away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50
m to deliver the last letter at the Shanti villa. He, then moved in the same direction for
40 m, turned to his right and moved 100 m. How many metres was he away from the
post office?
(a) 0 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 90 m
(d) 100 m
BLOOD RELATION
Q31. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A related
to D?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Grandmother
(c) Daughter
(d) Granddaughter

Q32. In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple,
A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the
sister of D. B is the daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has died. How is E related
to C ?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter (c) Cousin (d) Mother

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 159

Q33. Q is the brother of R;
P is the sister of Q;
T is the brother of S;
S is the daughter of R.
Who are the cousins of Q ?
(a) R and P (b) P and T (c) Q and T (d) S and T

Q34. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A

is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows
that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
(a) Q - N + M x P
(b) P + S x N - Q
(c) P - M + N x Q
(d) Q - S % P
Q35. Introducing a man, a woman said, 'He is the only son of my mother's mother." How
is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Niece

Data for next two questions:

A + B means A is daughter of B
A × B means A is son of B
A − B means A is wife of B
Q36. If T-S x B-M, which of the following is not true /
(a)B is mother of S (b)M is husband of B
(c)T is wife of S (d)S is daughter of B .

Q37. If Z x T –S x U +P, what is U to Z.

(a)Mother (b)Grand Mother
(c)Father (d)Can’t be determined

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 160

Q38. (i) In a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples.
(ii) D is grandmother of A and mother of B.
(iii) C is wife of B and mother of F.
(iv) F is the grand daughter of E.
Who among the following is one of the couples ?
(a) CD (b) DE (c) EB (d) DF

Q39. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the
statements is/are necessary?

1. 1. The son of D is the grandson of C.

2. B is the sister of D.
(a) Only 1 (b)Only 2
(c)Either 1 or 2 (d)1 and 2 both are required
Q40. If 'A $ B' means 'A is brother of B', 'A @ B'means 'A is wife of B', 'A # B' means 'A is
daughter of B' and 'A & B'means 'A is father of B', then which of the following
expressions indicates the relationship 'K' is father-in-law of H'?
(a) H @ J $ L # P & K
(b) H @ J $ P & L # K
(c) H @ J $ L # K & P
(d) H @ P $ J & L # K
Q41. If A is the brother of B and K, D is the mother of B and E is the father of A. Which one
of the following statements is not definitely true?
(a)B is the brother of K (b)A is the father of K
(c)A is the son of D (d)D is the wife of E

Q42. Looking at a portrait of a man, Sanjay said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son.
Brothers and sisters I have none.” At whose portrait was Sanjay looking?
(a)His son (b) His nephew
(c)His cousin (d) His uncle

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Q43. Old man’s son is my son’s uncle, then what relation has the old man to me?
(a)Brother (b)Father
(c)Grandfather (d)Uncle
Q44. If (1) ‘S + K’ means ‘S is the sister of K’; (2) ‘S – K’ means ‘S is the father of K’; (3) ‘S ×
K’ means ‘S is the brother of K’; which of the following means ‘P is the aunt of D’?
(a)P + M – D (b)P – M × D
(c)P – M + D (d)P × M – D
Directions (Q.45 – 46): Read following statements carefully and answer questions given
below:
(A) P × Q means P is the brother of Q
(B) P + Q means P is the father of Q
(C) P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q
Q45. Which of the following represents A is uncle of M?
(a) A + D ÷ M (b)A × D + M
(c) A+D×M (d)A ÷ D + M
Q46. Which of the statements is superfluous to answer the above question?
(a)C only (b)B or C only
(c)A only (d)None of these
Q47. P is brother of Q. R is sister of Q. How P is related to R?
(a)Uncle (b)Data inadequate
(c)Brother (d)None of these
Q48. If P $ Q means P is father of Q, P # Q means P is mother of Q, P * Q means P is sister
of Q, then how is Q related to N in N # L $ P * Q?
(a)None of these (b)Granddaughter
(c)Nephew (d)Data inadequate

Q49. A$B means B is father of A, A#B means B is mother of A, A*B means B is sister of A,
A@B means B is husband of A, then which of the following indicates the relationship
‘N’ is grandmother of Q?
(a) P * Q # M $ N (b)P @ Q $ M # N
(c) P#Q$N*M (d)P $ Q # M @ N

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Q50. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is brother of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is sister of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is
wife of B’, and ‘A * B’ means ‘A is father of B’, then which of the following indicates ‘S
is son of P’?
(a) P × Q * R + S – T
(b) P × Q * S – R + T
(c) P×Q*R–T+S
(d) P × Q * R – S + T

Directions (Q.51 – 52): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions based on it.
i. ‘P × Q’ means ‘Q is mother of P’
ii. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
iii. ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q.
iv. ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is sister of P’.
Q51. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of T’?
(a)M ÷ D + T × R (b)T – D + R ÷ M
(c)T × D + R ÷ M (d)Data inadequate

Q52. Which of the following statements is superfluous to answer the above questions?
(a)i only (b)ii only
(c)Either i or ii only (d)Either iii or iv only

Directions (Q.53–54): Study meaning of given symbols and answers questions based on it.
i. ‘P × Q’ means ‘Q is mother of P.
ii. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
iii. ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
iv. ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is father of P’.
Q53. Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a)R × T ÷ K (b)R + M × T ÷ K
(c)M – R × T ÷ K (d)None of these

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Q54. Which of the following statements is superfluous to answer the above questions?
(a)iv only (b)i only
(c)ii only (d)iii only

Q55. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’, ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’, ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is

brother of Q’ and ‘P÷Q’ means ‘Q is wife of P’ then which of following means ‘G is
paternal uncle of S’?
(a) G – M ÷ T + S (b) G – M + S
(c) T×G–Q+S (d) S + M ÷ N – G

Directions (Q.56 – 57): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions following it.
i. ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
ii. ‘P + Q’ means ‘Q is mother of P’.
iii. ‘P – Q’ means ‘Q is sister of P’
iv. ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
Q56. Which of the following means T is nephew of R?
(a)R × J ÷ T (b) R – M + T – J
(c)R × J ÷ T × K (d) None of these

Q57. Which of the following means is superfluous to answer the above questions?
(a)i only (b)ii only
(c)ii and iii only (d)iii only

Q58. ‘A + B’ means ‘B is brother of A’, ‘A × B’ means ‘B is husband of A’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A

is mother of B’ and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is father of B’. Then which of the following
expressions indicates ‘P’ is grandmother of ‘T’?
(a)Q – P + R ÷ T (b)P × Q ÷ R – T
(c)P × Q ÷ R + T (d)P + Q ÷ R – T
Q59. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A ÷ B’ means
‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, then which of following
expresses the relationship that ‘T is the daughter of P’?
(a) P × Q ÷ R + S – T (b)P × Q ÷ R – T + S
(c) P × Q ÷ R + T – S (d)P × Q ÷ R + S + T

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 ANALYTIC PUZZLES
Directions (Q.1 – 4): Read the following information and answer the questions given below
it: Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in the field. A and B are from Nehru House while
the rest belong to Gandhi House. D and F are tall while the others are short. A, C and D are
wearing glasses while the others are not.
Q60. Which two students, who are not wearing glasses are short?
(a) A and F (b)C and E (c)B and E (d) E and F

Q61. Which short student of Gandhi House is not wearing glasses?

(a) F (b)E (c) B (d) A

Q62. Which tall student of Gandhi House is not wearing glasses?

(a) B (b)C (c) E (d) F

Q63. On a shelf are placed six volumes side-by-side labelled A, B, C, D, E and F. B, C, E, F

have green covers while others have yellow covers. A, D, B are new volumes while the
rest are old volumes. A, C, B are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which
two volumes are old medical extracts and have green covers?
(a) B, C (b) C, D (c) C, E (d) E, F

Directions (Q.5 – 9): Read following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two
subjects, one compulsory subject and the other optional subject. D’s optional subject was
History while three others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their
subjects. F’s compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E.
History and English are A’s subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they
are just reverse of those of D’s. Chemistry in an optional subject of only one of them. The only
female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.

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Q64. What is C’s compulsory subject?
(a) History (b)Physics
(c)Chemistry (d) English

Q65. Who is a female member in the group?

(a) A (b) B (c)C (d)D

Q66. Which of the following has same compulsory and optional subjects as those of F’s?
(a) D (b) B (c) A (d)C

Q67. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the
Same two subject combination as F?
(a) A (b) B (c) E (d)D

Q68. Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject?
(a) A, C, D (b) B, C, D (c) C, D (d)A, B, C

Q69. Compare the knowledge of persons X, Y, Z, A, B and C in relation to each other:

1. X knows more than A
2. Y knows as much as B
3. Z knows less than C
4. A knows more than Y
The best knowledgeable person amongst all is:
(a) X (b) Y (c) A (d)C

Q70. Five children were administered psychological tests to know their intellectual levels.
In the report, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less intelligent than the
child B. The child C is less intelligent than the child D. The child B is less intelligent
than the child C and child A is more intelligent than the child E. Which child is the
most intelligent?
(a) A (b)B (c) D (d)E

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Q71. If (i) P is taller than Q; (ii) R is shorter than P; (iii) S is taller than T but shorter than Q,
then who among them is the tallest?
(a) P (b)Q (c) S (d) T

Q72. Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas
was ranked higher than Dinesh. Kamal’s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was
ranked highest?
(a) Sanjay (b)Vikas (c) Dinesh (d) Kamal

Q73. Ashish is heavier than Govind. Mohit is lighter than Jack. Pawan is heavier than Jack
but lighter than Govind. Who among them is the heaviest?
(a) Govind (b)Jack (c) Pawan (d) Ashish

Q74. Rohan is taller than Anand but shorter than Seema. Krishna is taller than Pushpa but
shorter than Anand. Dhiraj is taller than Krishna but shorter than Seema. Who among
them is the tallest?
(a) Rohan
(b)Seema
(c) Krishna
(d) Data inadequate
Directions (Q.75 – 77): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it:
(A)Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than Kunal
(B) Navin is shorter than Kunal
(C) Jayesh is taller than Navin
(D)Ashok is taller than Jayesh
Q75. Who among them is the tallest?
(a) Gopal (b)Ashok (c)Kunal (d)Navin

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Q76. Which of the given information is not necessary to answer the above question?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Q77. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but twice the age
of D. Which two persons form the pair of oldest and youngest?
(a) F and A (b) F and D (c) B and F (d) F and C

Directions (Q.19 – 23): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T and U are travelling in a bus. There are two reporters, two technicians, one photographer
and one writer in the group. The photographer P is married to S who is a reporter. The writer is married
to Q who is of the same profession as that of U. P, R, Q, S are two married couples and nobody in the
group has same profession. U is brother of R.
Q78. Which of the following is a pair of technicians?
(a) RS (b) SU (c) PT (d) QU

Q79. Which of the following is a pair of reporters?

(a) PQ (b) RT (c) ST (d) SU

Q80. How is R related to U?

(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Uncle
(d) Data inadequate

Q81. Which of the following pairs is a couple?

(a) PQ (b) QR (c) QS (d) PT

Q82. Which of the following is a pair of husbands?

(a) PQ (b) PR (c) QS (d) Data inadequate

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 168

Q83. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena.
Manju is to the right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be
second from the left in the photograph?
(a) Reena (b) Shikha (c)Manju (d)Rita

Q84. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. K is sitting next to R
who is sitting on the extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent
to S?
(a) K and P (b)R and P (c)Only P (d)P and T

Q85. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is
not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the
row. Then, Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?
(a) Rashi (b)Sulekha (c)Abha (d)Monika

Q86. There are five friends. They are standing in a row facing South. Jayesh is to the
immediate right of Alok. Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh. Subodh is
between Jayesh and Pramod. Who is in the middle?
(a) Bhagat (b)Jayesh (c)Pramod (d) Subodh

Q87. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left
of C and B is on the right of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E
occupies a corner position, then who is sitting in the centre?
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d) D

Directions (Q.7– 9): Study given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east.
(ii) C is on the immediate right of D.
(iii)B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour.
(iv)G is between E and F.
(v) D is sitting third from the south end.

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Q88. Who is FOURTH to the right of ‘B’?
(a) H
(b)D
(c)A
(d)None of these

Q89. In which of the following pairs, second person is to the immediate left of the first
person?
(a) ‘H, E’
(b)‘D, A’
(c) ‘B, G’
(d) ‘B, C’
Q90. Which of the following is definitely true?
(a) ‘D’ is second to the left of ‘H’
(b) ‘A’ is second to the right of ‘E’
(c) ‘C’ is to the immediate right of ‘B’
(d) ‘E’ is to the immediate left of ‘C’

Q91. Who is the immediate left of ‘E’?

(a) ‘D’ (b)‘A’ (c) ‘H’ (d)‘F’
Q92. Who is third to the right of ‘G’?
(a) ‘E’ (b) ‘A’ (c) ‘C’ (d)‘D’
Directions (Q.93– 97): Study following information carefully and answer the questions below:
B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. B is an immediate
neighbour of F and C. E is second to the left of F. G is second to the right of C. D is not an
immediate neighbour of G. There are two persons between C and J.
Q93. Who is to the immediate left of F?
(a) J (b) D (c) E (d) H

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Q94. Who is to the immediate right of C?
(a) J
(b) D
(c) H
(d)Data inadequate

Q95. Who is sitting between D and J?

(a) E (b) G (c) Data inadequate (d)None of these

Q96. What is J’s position with respect to B?

I. Fourth to the right II. Fourth to the left
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Either I or II (d)Both I and II

Q97. How many persons are between C and D?

(a) 2 only (b) 4 only (c) 5 only (d) Either 2 or 4

Q98. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before Mohit but behind Gaurav. Ashish finished
before Sanchit but behind Mohit. Who won the race?
(a) Raj (b) Gaurav (c) Mohit (d) Ashish
Directions (Q.99 – 104): Study following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Std. VI, VII
and VIII with not more than three in any Std. Each of them has a favourite subject from
Physics, Geography, English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and Economics not
necessarily in the same order.D likes Chemistry and studies in Std. VIII with only H. B does
not study in Std. VII. E and A study in the same Std. but not with B. C and F study in the same
Std. Those who study in Std. VI do not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one
who studies in Std. VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A’s favourite subject is
Marathi and G does not like Biology.
Q99. Which subject does H like?
(a) English (b) Marathi
(c) Science (d) Data inadequate

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Q100. What is G’s favorite subject?
(a)Biology
(b)Physics
(c)Marathi
(d)None of these

Q101. What is C’s favourite subject?

(a)Economics
(b)Biology
(c)English
(d)Geography

Q102. Which of the following combinations of student-Std-Subject is correct?

(a) C-VII-Economics
(b) D-VI-Chemistry
(c) G-VII-Physics
(d) None is correct

Q103. Which of the following group of students study in VII Std?

(a) EAF
(b) EGC
(c) EAG
(d) Data inadequate

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 Syllogism
Directions (Q.104 – 105): In each of the following questions, select one alternative in which
the third statement is implied by the first two statements.
Q104. (a) All elephants are wild. All lions are wild. So, all lions are elephants.
(b) All mangoes are red. Some apples are mangoes. So, all apples are red.
(c) All roads are boxes. All foxes are roads. So, all boxes are foxes.
(d) All XYZ can run. All ABC are XYZ. So, all ABC can run.

Q105. (a) All dogs are mad. All sick persons are mad. So, all sick persons are dogs.
(b) All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So, all figs are black.
(c) All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So, all windows are doors.
(d) No man can fly. No kite can fly. So, all men are kites
Directions (Q.106 – 108): Each of these questions consists of two statements P and Q. They
May look factually absurd. You have to ignore this absurdity and concentrate only upon the
Logic involved therein. Mark your answer as
(a) If both P and Q are true.
(b) If both P and Q are false or doubtful
(c) If P is true and Q is false or doubtful
(d) If P is false or doubtful and Q is true
Q106. P: Jackals live in forests. Cities are in forests. Therefore jackals live in cities.
Q: Some tables are grass. All stools are grass. Therefore all tables are stools

Q107. P: Cups play chess. Chess is a difficult game. Therefore cups play a difficult game.
Q: Ritu is a girl. All girls are timid. Therefore Ritu is timid.

Q108. P: Some musicians are not rich. All musicians are polite. Therefore not all polite
persons are rich.
Q: All musicians are rich. No rich person is polite. Therefore musicians are not
polite.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 173

Directions (Q.109 – 111): In each of these questions, two statements P and Q are given. You
May look into their logical acceptability and mark your answer as
(a) if both P and Q are true
(b) If P is correct and Q is wrong or doubtful
(c) If P is wrong or doubtful and Q is correct
(d) If both P and Q are wrong or doubtful
Q109. P: All A’s are B’s. All B’s are C’s. Therefore all C’s are A’s.
Q: Some A’s are B’s. All B’s are C’s. Therefore some A’s are C’s

Q110. P: Some A’s and some B’s are C’s. Some C’s are both A’s and B’s. Therefore some
A’s are B’s.
Q: All A’s are B’s. Some C’s are A’s. Therefore, some C’s are B’s.

Q111. P: All A’s are B’s. Some B’s are C’s. Therefore some A’s are C’s.
Q: Some A’s are B’s. All C’s are A’s. Therefore some C’s are B’s.

Directions (Q.112 – 115): Each question given below has a set of three or four statements. Each
set of statements is further divided into three segments. Choose the alternative where the third
segment in the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just
from one of them.
Q112. A: X is an actor. Some actors are pretty. X is pretty.
B: Some men are cops. All cops are brave. Some brave people are cops.
C: All actors are brave. Some men are actors. Some men are brave.
D: All actors are pretty. X is not an actor. X is not pretty.
(a) A only (b)B and C (c)C only (d) D only

Q113. A: All beautiful things are sad. She is beautiful. She is sad.
B: All nice things are flat. TVs are flat. TVs are nice things.
C: Potatoes are stems. All stems are fruits. Potatoes are fruits.
(a) A only (b)A and B (c) C only (d) A and C

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Q114. A: All mammals are viviparous. Some fish are viviparous. Some fish are mammals.
B: All birds are oviparous. Some fish are not oviparous. Some fish are birds.
C: No mammal is oviparous. Some creatures are oviparous. Some creatures are not
mammals.
D: Some creatures are mammals. Some creatures are viviparous. Some mammals are
viviparous.
(a)A only (b)B only (c)C only (d) D only

Q115. A: All good people are knights. All warriors are good people. All knights are
warriors.
B: No footballers are ministers. All footballers are tough. Some ministers are players.
C: All pizzas are snacks. Some meals are pizzas. Some meals are snacks.
D: Some barkers are musk deer. All barkers are sloth bears. Some sloth bears are
musk deer.
(a)A only (b)B and C (c) C only (d) C and D

Directions (Q.116 – 121): Each question given below consists of five or six statements followed
by Options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option
which indicates a valid argument containing logically related statements that is, where the
third Statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
Q116. A: All synopses are poets. B: Some synopses are mentors.
C: Some X are not mentors. D: All X are poets.
E: All synopses are mentors. F: All synopses are X.
(a)ACB (b) AEC (c) FEC (d) DFA

Q117. A: All synopses are poets. B: Some synopses are mentors.

C: Some X are not mentors. D: All X are poets.
E: All synopses are mentors. F: All synopses are X.
(a) ACB (b) AEC (c) FEC (d) DFA

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Q118. A: All cushions are pillows. B: Some pillows are sheets.
C: Some sheets are cushions. D: Some pillows are not cushions.
E: All pillows are sheets. F: No pillows are sheets.
(a)ABC (b) BCD (c) EAC (d) EDC

Q119. A: No window is a door. B: All poles are doors.

C: No pole is a window. D: Some poles are not windows.
E: Some windows are poles. F: Some doors are not windows.
(a)ABC (b) ACB (c) BDA (d) DFA

Q120. A: Apples are not sweets. B: Some apples are sweet.

C: All sweets are tasty. D: Some apples are not tasty.
E: No apple is tasty.
(a)EAC (b) CEA (c) BDC (d) CBD

Q121. A: Apples are not sweets. B: Some apples are sweet.

C: All sweets are tasty. D: Some apples are not tasty.
E: No apple is tasty.
(a)EAC (b) CEA (c) BDC (d) CBD

Directions (Q.122 – 123): Each of these questions is based on a set of given propositions
I to IV.
Select the best answer to each of these questions.
I: All P are Q.
II: Some P are not Q.
III: Some, but not all, P are Q.
IV: No P is Q
Q122. Considered only by themselves, which of the following pairs of statements might
either both be true or both be false?
(a)I and II (b)II and III (c)I and III (d)I and IV
Q123. Considered only by themselves, all of the following pairs of statements might both be
false but could not both be true except
(a) I and II (b)I and III (c)I and IV (d)II and I

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 Series Completion
Directions: find the missing term in each of the following series:
Q124. 1,6,15,?,45,66,91
(a)25 (b)26 (c)27 (d)28

Q125. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,?

(a)73 (b)75 (c)76 (d)78

Q126. 4, 8, 28, 80,244?

(a) 278 (b) 428 (c) 628 (d) 728

Q127. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210?

(a)240 (b)290 (c)336 (d)504

Q128. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, ?, 12, 21
(a)10 (b)11 (c)12 (d)13

Q129. Which fraction comes next in the sequence1 , 3 , 5 , 7 ?

2 4 8 16
9 10 11 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
32 17 34 35

Q130. 2, 3, 8, 27, 112,?

(a)226 (b)339 (c)452 (d)565

Q131. 2, 2, 5, 13, 28,?

(a)49 (b)50 (c)51 (d)52

Q132. 2, 7, 27, 107, 427,?

(a)1262 (b)1707 (c)4027 (d)4207

Q133. 24, 60, 120, 210,?

(a)300 (b)336 (c)420 (d)625

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 177

Q134. Which term comes next in the sequence: AC, FH, KM, PR,?
(a)UW (b)VW (c)UX (d)TV

Q135. Find the next term in the series: BMO, EOQ, HQS,?
(a)KSU (b)LMN (c)SOV (d)SOW

Q136. Which term comes next in the series: YES, WFD, UHG, SKI,?
(a)QOL (b) QGL (c) TOL (d) QNL

Q137. Which term will replace the question mark in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB,
SBL, ?
(a)ZKU (b)ZKW (c)ZAB (d)XKW

Q138. Find the next term in the alpha-numeric series :

Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, P445P,?
(a)N2676S (b)N2676T (c)T2670N (d)T2676N

Q139. find the term which does not fit into the series given below:
G4T,J10R,M20P,P43N,S90L,
(a)G4T (b)J10R (c)M20P (d)P43N

CODING- DECODING
Directions (Q.140 – 151): In each of the following questions below, find out the correct
Answer from the given alternatives.
Q140. In a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIGTANCI. How is MIRACLES written in
that code?
(a) MIRLCAES (b) MIRLACSE (c) RIMCALSE
(d) RIMLCAES (e) RIMSCASE

Q141. In a certain code, GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR. How is GREATNESS coded

in that code?
(a) HQFZUODTR (b) HQFZUMFRT (c) HQFZSMFRT
(d) FSDBSODTR (e) HQFZUFRTM

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 178

Q142. In a certain code, EXPLAINING is written as PXEALNIGNI. How is PRODUCED
written in that code?
(a)ORPBUDEC (b) ROPUDECD (c) ORPUDECD
(d)DORPDECU (e) None of these

Q143. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is
PILLER written in that code?
(a)318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d)328816 (e)None of these
Q144. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473,
what will be the code for SEARCH?
(a)246173 (b) 214673 (c) 214763
(d)216473 (e) None of these

Q145. In a certain code, PRODUCTS is written as NPMBSARQ. How is COMPREHENSION

written in that code?
(a)AMKNPCFCLOMLQ (b) AMKNPCFCLQGML
(c)AMKNPCFCLQGNL (d) AMKNPCFCKOML
(e)None of these

Q146. In a certain code language, QUEUE is written as Q22, and CHURCH is written as
1UR1. Which of the following would be most appropriate code for BANANA in that
language?
(a)B5A5 (b) 5N5A (c) B55A
(d)BA5A5A (e)B5A5A

Q147. If PAINTER is written in a code language as NCGPRGP, then REASON would be

written as
(a)PCYQMN (b) PGYQMN (c) PGYUMP
(d)PGYUPM (e) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 179

Q148. If CARPET is coded as TCEAPR, then the code for NATIONAL would be
(a)NLATNOIA (b) LANOITAN (c) LNAANTOI
(d)LNOINTAA (e) None of these

Q149. If FESTIVAL is coded as MBWJUTFG, then OPIUM would be coded as

(a)NOHTL (b) NTHNO (c) NVJQP (d)MUIPO

Q150. In a code language if POSE is coded as OQNPRTDF, then the word TYPE will be
coded as
(a)SUXZOQFD (b) SUXZQOFD (c) SUXZOQDF (d)SUXZQODE

Q151. In a certain code, ORGANISM is written as ROAGINMS. How is BOARDING written

in that code?
(a)RAOBIDGN (b) OBRAGNID (c) OBRAIDGN (d) OBIDRAGN
(e)None of these

Q152. In a certain code, BRIGHTEN is written as HJSCMDSG. How is COMPLETE written

in that code?
(a)DSDKQNPD (b) QNPDDSDK (c) QNPDFUFM (d) OLNBFUFM
(e)None of these

Q153. In a certain code RAIN is written as 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How is
REMAIN written in that code?
(a)8@7$%6 (b) 7@#$%6 (c) #@&$%6 (d) #@7$%

Directions (Q.53 – 55): In each of the following questions find the correct answer from the
given alternatives.
Q154. In a certain language ‘pre not bis’ means ‘smoking is harmful’, ‘vog dor not’ means
‘avoid harmful habit’, and ‘dor bis yel’ means ‘please avoid smoking’, which of the
following means ‘habit’ in that language?
(a)vog (b) not (c) dor (d) bis

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 180

Q155. In a certain code,
 ‘bright fresh sunny day’ means ‘cin bin zin hin’,
 ‘scent of fresh flower’ means ‘din zin lin bin’,
 ‘bright light of trucks’ means ‘lin min hin rin’,
 ‘trucks loaded with flowers’ means ‘fin nin din min’.
What is the code for ‘bright’ in that language?
(a) cin (b) bin (c) hin (d) zin

Number, Ranking & Time sequence

Q156. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there
in the row?
(a)8 (b)9 (c)10 (d) 11

Q157. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind and Mamta
is just in the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue, what position does
Mamta occupy from the front?
(a)20th (b)19th (c)18th (d) 17th

Q158. Raman ranks sixteenth from the top and forty ninth from the bottom is a class. How
many students are there in the class?
(a)64 (b)65 (c)66 (d)Data Inadequate

Q159. Sanjeev ranks seventh from the top and twenty eighth from the bottom in a class. How
many students are there in the class?
(a)37 (b)36 (c)35 (d)34

Q160. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left,
how many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line?
(a)12 (b) 13 (c)14 (d)20

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 181

Q161. Manish ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five
failed in it. How many boys were there in the class?
(a)40 (b) 44 (c)50 (d) 55

Q162. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh
from the right. If there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys are there in the
row?
(a)25 (b) 23 (c)21 (d) 19

Q163. Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty-six from the left. What will be her rank from the
right?
(a)33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (d) 37

Q164. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the
last, what is Ravi’s rank from the start?
(a)14th (b) 15th (c) 16th (d) 17th
Q165. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the
top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(a)3 (b) 7 (c)12 (d)23

Q166. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became
seventh from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?
(a)First (b) Second (c)Fourth (d)Sixth

Q167. In a queue, Vijay is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end,
while Mary is in between Vijay and Jack. If Vijay be ahead of Jack and there be 48
persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Vijay and Mary?
(a)8 (b) 7 (c)6 (d)5

Q168. In a row of girls, Shilpa is 8th from left and Reena is 17th from the right. If they
Interchange their positions, Shilpa becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls
are there in the row?
(a)25 (b) 27 (c)29 (d)none of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 182

Q169. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right.
When they interchange their places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth
from the left. Then, what will be Mona’s position from the right?
(a) 4th (b)8th (c)14th (d)15th

Q170. In a row of boys, Kapil is eighth from the right and Nikunj is twelfth from the left.
When Kapil and Nikunj interchange positions, Nikunj becomes twenty first from the
left. Which of the following will be Kapil’s position from the right?
(a)8th (b)17th (c)21st (d)None of these

Q171. Sangeeta remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after eighth but before
thirteenth of December. Her sister Natasha remembers that their father’s birthday was
definitely after ninth but before fourteenth of December. On which date of December
was their father’s birthday?
(a)10th (b)11th (c)12th (d)None of these

Q172. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more than ten kilometres
but less than fifteen kilometres from there. Sunita knew that it was more than twelve
but less then fourteen kilometres from there. If both of them were correct, which of the
following could be the distance of Aligarh from the platform?
(a)11 km (b)12 km (c) 13 km (d) 14km

Q173. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes before 08.30 hours, Anuj found
himself half an hour earlier than the man who was 40 minutes late. What was the
scheduled time of the meeting?
(a)8.00 hrs (b)8.05 hrs (c)8.15 hrs (d)8.45 hrs

Q174. The priest told the devotee, “The temple bell is rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes.
The last bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7.45 a.m.”
At what time did the priest give this information to the devotee?
(a)7.40 a.m. (b)7.05 a.m. (c)7.00 a.m. (d)6.55a.m.

Q175. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half from New Delhi Railway Station.
An announcement was made at the station that the train for Lucknow had left 40
minutes ago and the next train will leave at 18.00 hrs. At what time was the
announcement made?
(a)15.30 hrs (b) 17.10 hrs (c) 16.00 hrs (d)None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 183

 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSIONS(LOGICAL REASONING )
Directions (Q.1 to 13): In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is
given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself, choose the
conclusion which logically follows from the given statement(s).

Q176. Statement: Most dresses in that shop are expensive.

Conclusions:
(a) There are no cheap dresses available in that shop.
(b) Handloom dresses in that shop are cheap.
(c) There are cheap dresses also in that shop.
(d) Some dresses in that shop are expensive.

Q177. Statement: Every library has books.

Conclusions:
(a) Books are only in library.
(b) Libraries are meant for books only.
(c) No library is without books.
(d) Some libraries do not have readers.

Q178. Statement: The government is soon going to introduce a bill which would permit the
instituting of private universities under very strict direction.
Conclusions:
(a) We have some private universities in our country even now.
(b) The demand for more universities is being stepped up.
(c) Such directions can also be issued without informing the Parliament.
(d) The government gives directions to establish anything in private sector.
(e) Unless and until the directions are given, the private universities can charge
exorbitant fees.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 184

Q179. Statement: To pass the examination, one must work hard.
Conclusions:
(a) Examination is related with hard work.
(b) All those who work hard, pass.
(c) Examination causes some anxiety and those who work hard overcome it.
(d) Without hard work, one does not pass.
(e) Hard-working person is a satisfied person.

Q180. Statement: In the university examination, most of the candidates write in Hindi
medium.
Conclusions:
(a) Some candidates of this examination write in Hindi.
(b) Mostly candidates with Hindi medium appear in this examination.
(c) In this examination no candidate writes answers in medium other than Hindi.
(d) All the candidates who appear in this examination write answers in Hindi.

Q181. Statement: This book can help because all good books help.
Conclusions:
(a)This is not a good book.
(b)This is a good book.
(c)No good book helps.
(d)Some good books help.

Q182. Statement: All that glitters is not gold.

Conclusions:
(a)Non-metals also glitter.
(b)Only gold glitters.
(c)Not all metals glitter.
(d)Glittering things may be deceptive.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 185

Q183. Statement: A forest has as many sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourth of
the trees are old ones and half of the trees are at the flowering stage.
Conclusions:
(a) All Ashoka trees are at the flowering stage.
(b) All sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
(c) At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old.
(d) One-half of the sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
(e) None of these
Q184. Statement: Many business offices are located in buildings having two to eight floors.
If a building has more than three floors, it has lift.
Conclusions:
(a) All floors may be reached by lifts.
(b) Only floors above the third floor have lifts.
(c) Seventh floors have lifts.
(d) Second floors do not have lifts.

Q185. Statement: In this company, 60% of the employees are males, 40% are females, 80% of
the employees are sincere and 40% of the employees are from this city – Rawalpura.
Conclusions:
(a) All male employees are from out station.
(b) All male employees are sincere.
(c) 20% of female employees are not sincere.
(d) All female employees are from Rawalpura.
(e) None of these
Q186. Statement: In a class, three-fourth of the boys play football, one-half play cricket, one
fourth of those who play cricket do not play football.
Conclusions:
(a) Two-third of the boys play only football.
(b) One-fourth of the boys play neither cricket nor football.
(c) One-third of the boys play neither cricket nor football.
(d) One-eighth of the boys play neither cricket nor football.
(e) Two-fifth of the boys play only football.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 186

Directions (Q.188 – 192): In the following questions there are given some statements followed
by conclusions that can be drawn from them. Choose the conclusion which appeals to you to
be the most correct.
Q187. The Taj is in Agra. Agra is in India. Therefore, the Taj is in India.
(a)True (b)Probably false (c) False (d) Can’t say

Q188. The presence of calcium in milk makes it white. Rice, too, is white. Therefore, rice also
contains calcium.
(a)False (b)Probably true (c) True (d) Can’t say

Q189. Hydrogen is lighter than oxygen. Hydrogen is lighter than helium. Therefore, oxygen
is the heaviest of the three gases.
(a) False (b)Probably false (c) True (d) Can’t say

Q190. People who are bald are generally of the intellectual type. Arun is bald. Therefore
Arun is an intellectual.
(a)False (b)Probably true (c)True (d)Can’t say

Directions (Q.192– 197): In each of the following questions, certain statements are given
followed by a conclusion based upon them. Choose the alternative which best applies to the
given statements and conclusion.
Q191. Statements:
1. A triangle has three angles.
2. A square has four angles.
Conclusion: A polygon has many angles.
The conclusion drawn is
(a)definitely true
(b)definitely false
(c)either probably true or probably false
(d) irrelevant

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 187

Q192. Statements:
1. Some persons are weak in Mathematics.
2. All those, who are weak in Mathematics, are musicians.
Conclusion: Some musicians are weak in Mathematics.
The conclusion drawn is
(a)definitely true
(b)irrelevant
(c)probably true
(d)definitely false

Q193. Statements:
1. Some very effective medicines are made from spider venom.
2. Poison of snake is also need for curing certain diseases.
Conclusion: All poisons cure some or the other disease.
The conclusion drawn is
(a) definitely follows from the given statements
(b) does not follow from the given statements
(c) is probably true
(d) Can’t say

Q194. Statements:
1. Water boils at 100C.
2. Water freezes at 0C.
Conclusion: At low pressure, water boils at lower temperatures.
The conclusion drawn is
(a) definitely true
(b) definitely false
(c) either probably true or probably false
(d) irrelevant

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 188

Q195. Statements:
1. During volcanic eruptions, molten lava oozes out in a stream.
2. The lava comes from under the crust of the earth.
Conclusion: The inside of the earth must be very hot.
The conclusion drawn is
(a) definitely true
(b) probably true
(c) definitely false
(d) irrelevant

Q196. Statements:
1. Oxygen is a gas.
2. This cylinder contains gas.
Conclusion: This cylinder contains oxygen.
The conclusion drawn is
(a)irrelevant
(b)definitely true
(c)either probably true or probably false
(d)definitely false
Directions (Q.198– 202): In each of the following questions, a conclusion is given followed by
two statements labeled A and B. Give your answer as:
(a) if statement A alone is needed to draw the conclusion;
(b) if statement B alone is needed to draw the conclusion;
(c) if both A and B are needed to draw the conclusion;
(d) if both A and B are not sufficient to draw the conclusion.

Q197. He looks dangerous.

A. He has a lean and hungry look.
B. He thinks too much.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 189

Q198. Shaving is smoother if some soap is applied with warm water.
A. Brushing the soap to make lather increases the time it takes to shave.
B. The face also gets a wash as it is shaved.

Q199. Spices deteriorate after prolonged boiling.

A. The essential oils in spices easily evaporate.
B. Spices are put in pickles to add to the flavor.

Q200. Sometimes a single observation makes us recall innumerable events which have
occurred in the past.
A. Man has the gift of memory.
B. Man is basically a dreamer.

Q201. Plants can also be sick.

A. Only mammals can be ill.
B. Improper nutrition will create aberrations in a plant’s growth.

(THEME DETECTION)
Directions: Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question
on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it:
Q202. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately ruled
by anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work in order to
bring it into being. Art requires that nothing shall attain the work except through art
itself.
This passage best supports the statement that:
(a) art is governed by external rules and conditions.
(b) art is for the sake of art and life.
(c) art is for the sake of art alone.
(d) artist realizes his dreams through his artistic creation.
(e) artist should use his art for the sake of society.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 190

Q203. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet fashions
have come to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is not required
is that strong efforts should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion from
the minds of these youngsters.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) fashion is the need of the day.
(b) the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one’s personality.
(c) the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the
constructive development.
(d) work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance

Q204. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has
been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great
impunity. There is no doubt that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 191

Q205. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child’s powers by the
demands of the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands
he is stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness
of action and feeling, and to conceive himself from the standpoint of the welfare of the
group to which he belongs.
The passage best supports the statement that real education:
(a) will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.
(b) will take place if the children are physically strong.
(c) is not provided in our schools today.
(d) comes through the interaction with social situations.
(e) comes from the self-centred approach of the students.

Q206. Emerson said that the poet was landlord, sealord, airlord. The flight of imagination
made the poet master of land, sea and air. But a poet’s dream of yesterday becomes
today an actual achievement and a reality for all men. Even those who invented,
improved and perfected the aeroplane could hardly have dreamt of the possibility of
flight into outer space.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) seemingly impossible imaginations make one a good poet.
(b) all imaginations become a reality some day.
(c) what man imagined has never been impossible; he has always turned it a reality
through his conception of ideas and sheer hard labour.
(d) man has reached the climax of technological development with his exploration
into outer space.
Q207. The prevention of accident makes it necessary not only that safety devices be used to
guard exposed machinery but also that mechanics be instructed in safety rules which
they must follow for their own protection, and that lighting in the plant be adequate.
The passage best supports the statement that industrial accidents:
(a) are always avoidable.
(b) may be due to ignorance.
(c) cannot be entirely overcome.
(d) can be eliminated with the help of safety rules.
(e) usually result from inadequate machinery.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 192

Q208. It is upto our government and planners to devise ways and means for the mobilization
of about ten crore workers whose families total up about forty crore men, women and
children. Our agriculture is over manned. A lesser number of agriculturists would
mean more purchasing or spending power to every agriculturist. This will result in
the shortage of man-power for many commodities to be produced for which there will
be a new demand from a prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by
surplus man-power released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) employment in production is more fruitful than employment in agriculture.
(b) Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of man-
power.
(c) a shift of labour from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift the
living standard.
(d) the industrial sector is labour-deficient while the agricultural sector is over-
manned in our country.

Q209. To forgive an injury is often considered to be a sign of weakness; it is really a sign of

strength. It is easy to allow oneself to be carried away by resentment and hate into an
act of vengeance; but it takes a strong character to restrain those natural passions. The
man who forgives an injury proves himself to be the superior of the man who wronged
himself and puts the wrong-doer to shame.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) the sufferer alone knows the intensity of his sufferings.
(b) people tend to forgive the things happened in the past.
(c) natural passions are difficult to suppress.
(d) mercy is the noblest form of revenge.
(e) a person with calm and composed nature has depth of thought and vision.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 193

Q210. Exports and imports, a swelling favourable balance of trade, investments and bank
balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national prosperity. Till the beginning
of the Second World War, English exports were noticeably greater than what they are
today. And yet England has greater national prosperity today than it ever had.
Because the income of average Englishmen, working as field and factory labourers,
clerks, policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop assistants, domestic workers and other
low-paid workers, has gone up.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) a country’s economic standard can be best adjudged by per capita income.
(b) a country’s balance of trade is the main criteria of determining its economic
prosperity.
(c) a nation’s economy strengthens with the increase in exports.
(d) English trade has continually increased since the Second World War.

Q211. Throughout the ages the businessman has helped build civilisation’s great cities,
provided people with luxuries and artists with patronage, and lift his fellow citizens
to understand the standard of living. In the last few centuries the businessman has
seeded the Industrial Revolution around the world.
The passage best supports the statement that the businessman:
(a) is accountable to the society.
(b) lives luxurious and comfortable life.
(c) is the beneficiary of the industrial Revolution.
(d) is capable of raising his standard of living.
(e) has contributed to the growth of civilization.
Q212. One of the important humanitarian by products of technology is the greater dignity
and value that it imparts to human labour. In a highly industrialized society, there is
no essential difference between Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are
equally useful and hence equally valuable, for in the industrial society individual
productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and this fixes social status.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) technology decides individual’s social status.
(b) castes and religions are man-made.
(c) human labour has dignity and value.
(d) all individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal.
(e) industrial society is a great leveler of men.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 194

Q213. The paragraph above also supports the statement that:
(a) there are individual differences in industrial productivity
(b) there are numerous side-effects of technology.
(c) size of the pay and social status contradict each other.
(d) labour force is treated well in modern day industries.
(e) division of labour based on caste was justified.

Q214. The press should not be afraid of upholding and supporting a just and righteous cause.
It should not be afraid of criticizing the government in a healthy manner. The press
has to be eternally vigilant to protect the rights of the workers, backward and
suppressed sections of the society. It should also give a balanced view of the things so
that people can be helped in the formation of a healthy public opinion.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) press has a great role to play in a democracy.
(b) the press is the only means to project to the masses the policies of the government.
(c) the freedom of press is essential for the proper functioning of democracy.
(d) the press can be used by the governments as an effective media for the upliftment
of the backward sections of society.
(e) all the information given by the press should be well articulated so as to gain a
good opinion towards the ruling party

Q215. There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The
increase in service-sector will require the managers to work more with people rather
than with objects and things from the assembly line.
This passage best supports the statement that:
(a) managers should have a balanced mind.
(b) assembly line will exist in service organizations.
(c) interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place.
(d) manufacturing organizations ignore importance of people.
(e) service organizations will not deal with objects and things.

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 (READING COMPREHENSION)
Q216. After the attacks on the World Trade Centre in America, security at airports has
become a thorough nuisance and a waste of time and a lot of money all over the
world. So many ordinary objects have been banned, and so much time is spent
checking people and their baggage but air travel has not really become safer.
According to the author of this passage, if security is a waste of time and money,
which of the following studies will support his claim?
(a) Spending money on newer gadgets to detect explosives during checks should be
a priority
(b) Airport security staff has never really dealt with a security breach as serious as
9/11.
(c) We should spend money on intelligence, investigation and emergency response.
(d) Airport staff at security checks are prepared for any hint of terrorist attack while
screening.

Q217. America is one country that has no shortage of guns. Almost anyone can lay his
hands on them. It isn't surprising then that the number of gun-related crimes is
always on the rise. Which is why law-abiding citizens must be allowed to keep a gun
on their person or property and therefore protect themselves? Which of the
following statements will weaken the argument?
(a) Using guns for protection is everyone's fundamental right
(b) Policemen cannot be available whenever a crime is underway
(c) 55% of all guns used in crimes are stolen from the homes of law-abiding citizens
(d) Guns are dangerous regardless of who has them

Q218. All over the world, there is a severe shortage of organs for those requiring a
transplant. A family member can donate an organ only if medical tests show that the
organ will be accepted by patient's body. In some cases, the family member donates
an organ to someone else, who arranges for the required organ to be donated; this
can be a complicated chain of donors and organs. In some countries selling organs is

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 illegal. Considering the huge requirement for organs, and the long waitlist of those
who require it, organ donation should be made compulsory.
Which of the following arguments will weaken the case for making organ donation
compulsory?
(a)People who pledge to donate their organs are medically fit.
(b)Donated organs are a huge boost for medical research.
(c)Scientists have discovered a quick and easy way to create organs artificially.
(d)Both A and C

Q219. Since we pay for food and shelter, which are necessary for life, it is perfectly morally
acceptable to pay for water and allow private entities to market it.
Which of the following statements strengthens the argument that water usage should
be payable?
(a) Profit-oriented private sector will ensure regular water supply.
(b) Water is a renewable resource and need not be commodified.
(c) Water is a basic human right and should not be paid for by the common man.
(d) Private companies have always wanted to sell water.

Q220. Banning books that can ruffle minorities is the right approach in a democratic
country like India. Which of the following is an assumption?
(A) India is still home to a huge socialist movement.
(B) India has experienced a violent partition on religious grounds
(C) In a democratic set-up, minorities' interests need to be safe guarded.
(D) India has 28 states and 9 union territories.

Q221. To prevent its environmental exploitation, the Antarctic Treaty of 1959 was signed. It
has been agreed that Antarctica should be used exclusively for peaceful purposes
and that military activities would be prohibited. It also guaranteed continued
freedom for scientific research and promoted international scientific cooperation.

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 Which of the following statements will weaken the argument for preserving
Antarctica as a site for scientific research and cooperation?
(a) The scientists themselves are damaging to Antarctica.
(b) The climate and terrain of the Antarctica doesn't match any other place on earth.
(c)Scientists are unable to correlate results of experiments here with the rest of the
world.
(d) Not many people have visited the Antarctica.

Q222. The rise of inflammatory bowel diseases could be down to our shifting diets causing
a "boom in bad bacteria", according to researchers. The researchers said the high-fat
diet changed the way food was digested and encouraged harmful bacteria.
Microbiologists said modifying gut bacteria might treat the disease.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the proposed treatment for
IBDs?
(a) Reduction in consumption of monosaturated milk fats can ease the pain
(b) A balanced diet comprising fiber and proteins is the best solution.
(c) Reshaping the microbial balance of the gut could solve the IBD problem.
(d) Strengthening the bowel muscles is the most effective solution.

Q223. Racist attacks are on the rise in most countries prompting Indian students to do a
rethink on their decision to study abroad. However, governments in the countries
concerned have promised to take up active campaigns to educate the public and
ensure that students are provided a safe and healthy atmosphere to live in. The fact
that hate crimes are on the rise, does not reflect positively on their efforts. The
argument "hate crimes are increasing despite efforts by the authorities" would
weaken if:
(a) Students have to study abroad due to lack of the right teaching facilities in India.
(b) The police have reported 30 hate crimes as compared to last year's figures.
(c)Racist crimes are now a punishable offence and can lead to imprisonment.
(d) 911 call centers report an 80% reduction in SOS calls received by them in this
category.

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Q224. Delaying fatherhood may offer survival advantages, say Asian scientists who have
found children with older fathers and grandfathers appear to be "genetically
programmed" to live longer.
The argument that late fatherhood is beneficial for future generations can be
strengthened greatly by which of the following statements?
(a) Delayed fatherhood increases chances of miscarriages but also health benefits.
(b) Older fatherhood translates into stronger immune systems and better tissue
growth for the child.
(c) The health status of the offspring has not been analysed.
(d) Scientists are trying to figure out the ideal fatherhood age for the child.

Q225. In a recent study, scientists discovered that the new miracle cure for headaches,
Tagoprax, can be addictive. For those who are addicted to the pill to ward off
migraines, common side-effects include seeing colorful dancing spots, decrease in
colour sensitivity, etc. The scientists say that if one is having the pill more than once
a week, the dose of Tagoprax needs to be increased if the effect on the migraine has
to be constant. All this points to the fact that, Tagoprax, is a helpful little pill, but to
get hooked on to it, can lead to unpleasant vision-related problems.
Which of the following assumptions does the above argument make?
(a) Tagoprax is not dangerous.
(b) People who have migraines suffer from it regularly.
(c) Those who get hooked on to Tagoprax will find it hard to have only one pill a
week.
(d) A study has found that Tagoprax can be addictive.

Q226. In the early twentieth century, the biggest crisis in America was addiction to liquor.
It was leading to a rise in domestic violence, anger-fuelled crimes, and absenteeism
from work, and pushed society towards self-destruction. Prohibition in the 1930s just
made matters worse, by pushing the business underground, and into the hands of
those who were aggressively pushing for profits, used nefarious means to get their

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 way, and weren't averse to selling badly brewed liquor, for money. Today, society is
hurtling towards self-destruction again, and this time the reason is marijuana
addiction. But enforcing a Prohibition on the drug could just make the problem
worse as it did in the 1930s.
Which of the following statements is the underlying assumption?
(a) The biggest crisis in America was addiction to liquor.
(b) Prohibition made matters worse, by pushing the business underground.
(c) Since prohibition against alcohol failed, prohibition against marijuana will fail
too.
(d) None of these
Q227. After the huge public rally in support of Hitesh Shah, a businessman and an
independent candidate, whose squeaky clean image is attracting the attention of
voters, the government is in a quandary. The problem was made worse by a media
blitz following an interview with Mr. Shah, who said, 'Before a thief starts stealing,
he gets elected'. This seems to have swung public opinion heavily in his favour, and
the election this time will be a very different affair. Which statement is central to the
argument that Mr. Shah is making?
(a) Politicians are no match for articulate businessmen.
(b) The media favours the underdog.
(c) All politicians are corrupt.
(d) The elections will be affected by the recession.

Q228. Huge problems are heading our way. With global warming spiralling out of control
and extreme weather-related phenomena causing unheard of destruction regularly,
we are now at a stage where we have to live to eat. Food is going to become more
and more expensive; we will work in our offices way past our retirement age to be
able to afford all the basic meals.
Which of the following statements is not stated in the passage?
(a) Food is going to become more and more expensive
(b) We will work in our offices way past our retirement age.
(c) We are now at a stage where we have to live to eat.
(d)Huge problems are heading out of our way.

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Q229. Team meetings convened to find solutions to problems are largely silent affairs. But,
brainstorming is the modern manager's answer to getting employees to open up.-
Gather the team in a room, place a whiteboard in front of them, and eventually, after
a series of free associations, the solution everyone is looking for will appear. The
rules are that nobody must scoff at even the most unlikely idea. Which of the
following statements is the underlying assumption of this argument?
(a) Team meetings are useless
(b) Brainstorming sessions need to be challenging
(c) If people are scared of saying the wrong thing, they'll hardly open up.
(d) CEOs prefer to think about solutions together

Q230. In the last five years, the number of students seeking admission to the government-
funded Godhpur University has been falling by 68%. During a recent budget review,
the state's home minister proposed shutting down the university and using the funds
for other purposes. He has recently shut down two other Universities based on the
minister's claims that the state's funds were being poured into a loss-making
institution. But, even a quick look at the University's distance education programme
shows that the university has about 2.3 lakh students enrolled for various online
courses, this number has been growing steadily for the last five years, filling the
University's coffers.
What can you conclude from the above passage?
(a) Ministers feel that the University is a drain of funds
(b) There are more students in Godhpur than in Delhi
(c)The University has more virtual students than regular ones
(d) Offering distance education courses has been a monetary boon for the University

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Q231. A new television advert for Diet Bhujia featuring singer D has been cleared by the
Advertising Standards in an Indian state after they received 22 complaints.
The advert depicts D cycling through a supermarket during a concert she was
performing in. Eighteen viewers complained because she was not wearing reflective
clothing and her bicycle had no lights, and that children could copy her actions.
AS upheld Diet Bhujia's argument that the ad was supposed to reflect D's fantasy
and her escape from the pressures of being a celebrity. Which of the following
statements is the underlying assumption of the AS's judgment?
(a) Children will not copy an ad based on a fantasy.
(b) D is an extremely careful person in real life.
(c) Ads do not exercise any influence on people.
(d) The brand team of diet Bhujia understands the pressures celebrities are under.

Q232. An advert by fast food restaurant Burger King could be banned from British
television over claims that it is misleading. The campaign for the new TenderCrisp
chicken burger received two complaints over the fact that the burger appears
significantly larger on the advert than in real life. The Advertising Standards
Authority (ASA) investigated the complaints and purchased three burgers from a
Burger King restaurant. They reported that both the thickness and the height were
"considerably less" than in the advertisement.
Which of the following statements can strengthen Burger King's case?
(a) Advertisements are actually supposed to show the real size of products.
(b) Normally, people do measure the product on the TV screen.
(c) The advert needed to make all the ingredients in the product clearly visible.
(d) Both 1 and 2

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Q233. In the United States, The Walt Disney Company has announced its intentions to
prohibit junk food adverts from being shown during programming on their
television and radio channels, as well as on the Internet. US First Lady Michelle
Obama described the move as ''a game changer for the health of our children",
adding: "For years, people told us that no matter what we did to get our kids to eat
well and exercise, we would never solve our childhood obesity crisis until companies
changed the way they sell food to our children. We all know the conventional
wisdom about that". Which of the following statements can be inferred from this
passage?
(a) Walt Disney really doesn't cares about children.
(b) Michelle Obama's fight against irresponsible advertising has finally borne fruit.
(c) Childhood obesity will soon be a thing of the past.
(d) The Walt Disney is an exception to conventional wisdom.

Q234. Dr. Mira Nair has collected data about student obesity. Her goal is to make students
aware of maintaining healthy eating habits before lifestyle diseases have a chance to
set in. Which of the following statements can be inferred from this passage?
(a) Dr Mira Nair is working towards the immediate well being of the adults.
(b) Dr Mira Nair is working towards the immediate well being of the aged.
(c) Dr Mira Nair is working towards the well being of the students.
(d) Dr Mira Nair is working towards the well being of herself.

Q235. President Vladimir Putin of Russia today signed a new law increasing the fines
against those involved in unlawful protests, overriding concerns from his human
rights advisor and the Council of Europe. The people of Russia believe this law is not
only draconian, but will set Russia apart from the rest of the world by making it look
like a nation still living in the middle ages. The new legislation increases maximum
fines for individuals involved in illegal protests from 100 roubles to 10,000 roubles.
Protestors are banned from concealing their faces and nobody with a criminal record
may organize a protest. Which of the following will weaken the protestor's stand of
'living in the middle ages'?

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 203

 (a) The government decides to replace a fine with community work.
(b) The law matched similar legislation in other European nations.
(c) If the protestors manage to get the fine reduced by a thousand roubles.
(d) The Americans decide to campaign against the law.
Q236. Summer temperatures and a desire to save energy usually expended on air-
conditioning have left many South Koreans hot and uncomfortable this year - but
while attempts have been made to relax dress codes, many office workers find
conservative clothing habits die hard. The air-conditioning in all government offices
remains resolutely off during the hot summers in a bid to combat electricity shortages,
which last summer led to blackouts in major cities and red faces in the cabinet room.
The president himself has been setting an example by conducting cabinet meetings in
his shirt-sleeves -a shocking state of undress for a Korean president. Despite their
leader's example, senior officials in the president's office are still walking around in
suit jackets, even in the sauna-like conditions. One of the president's staff told me the
older men had complained that T-shirts and jeans left them nowhere to put their
wallet. The real reason may be more complex - a fear that dressing down in front of
their junior colleagues might diminish their authority. Which of the following
statements is snyc with the data provided in the passage?
(a) South Koreans are a stickler for appearance more than performance.

(b) Dress codes determine how much respect a superior will get.

(c) To dress casually means to take work lightly in South Korea.

(d) Without proper protocol, South Koreans cannot work efficiently.

Q237. Opponents of euthanasia erroneously argue that human death is always wrong;
exceptions exist. Which of the following can be concluded?
(a) Human death is not always wrong.
(b) Euthanasia is the act of putting to death painlessly.
(c) The body dies but the soul lives forever.
(d) Memories of a person who chooses euthanasia are painful. .

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Q238. A team from Kyoto University, Japan, tested how macaque monkey calls affected the
feeding behaviour of the Sika deer that live on Yakushima Island.
Which of the following is a logical deduction?
(a) Interdependence was never proposed in Darwin's Evolution Theory.
(b) Yakushima is home to more than one species of animals.
(c) Japanese scientists believe in fundamental research.
(d) Kyoto university is financed by researchers themselves. .

Q239. Teachers are now in touch with their students on Facebook. This now means social
sites will soon be accepted as a compulsory means of communication by all schools.
Soon all students and teachers should compulsorily have an account with Facebook.
Which of the following is analogous to the logic provided above?
(a) Olive oil has been proven to have huge benefits for people suffering from heart
problems. This would mean that soon olive oil would be an integral part of every
doctor's medication list for their heart patients.
(b) Cycling has proven to have a positive effect on the environment. So all cyclists
will soon have their own freeways with plenty of green cover.
(c)Swimming with dolphins helps children lose their fear of water faster. So all
aquariums will offer swimming classes soon.
(d) A house with pets is more friendly that one with none. So all housing societies
will have it as a norm to help foster better relations between inhabitants.
Q240. In a recent survey it was found that 80% of meat eaters lived longer as compared to
vegetarians. Hence it is safe to assume that meat provides us with nutrients that
cannot be replicated by any other food source.
Which of the following is not stated in the passage?
(a) 80% of meat eaters lived longer than non-meat eaters.
(b)A survey was conducted in the not so distant past.
(c)Nutrients provided by a vegetarian diet are not provided by a meat diet.
(d)None of these

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 LOGICAL DEDUCTION
Directions (Q.1 – 11): In each of these questions, there are two statements A and B followed
by two conclusion numbered I and II. Decide which of the two given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Mark your
answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
(e) If both I and II follows
Q241. Statements: I. All graduates are chairs. II. All chairs are tables.
Conclusion: A:All graduates are tables. B: All tables are graduates.

Q242. Statements: I. No bat is ball. II. No ball is wicket.

Conclusion: A: No bat is wicket. B: All wickets are bats.

Q243. Statements: I. All fish are tortoise. II. No tortoise is a crocodile.

Conclusion: A: No crocodile is a fish. B: No fish is a crocodile.

Q244. Statements: I. All players are chair. II. Some chairs are Table.
Conclusions: I. All chairs are players. II. Some Table are chair.

Q245. Statements: I. All women are ministers. II. All ministers are fruit.
Conclusions: I. All women are fruit. II. All ministers are women.

Q246. Statements: I. All jails are guest houses. II. All guest houses are bench.
Conclusions: I. All jails are bench. II. No jail is bench.

Q247. Statements: I. Some doctors are hospital. II. Some hospital are rich.
Conclusion: I. Some doctors are rich. II. Some rich are doctors.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 206

Q248. Statements: I. All milk is water. II. No water is liquid.
Conclusion: I. No milk is liquid. II. No liquid is milk.

Q249. Statements: I. Some pens are tables. II. No table is blue.

Conclusions: I. No pen is blue. II. No blue is pen.

Q250. Statements: I. Some trees are horses. II. Some ships are trees.
Conclusions: I. Some horses are ships. II. Some trees are not ships.

Q251. Statements: I. All poets are readers. II. No reader is writer.

Conclusions: A: No poet is writer. B: All readers are poets.

Directions (Q.12 – 24): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
Q252. Statements:
A. Some chairs are flowers.
B. All flowers are trees.
C. Some trees are leaves.
Conclusions:
I. some trees are chairs.
II.Some leaves are flowers.
III. No chair is a leaf.
(a)None follows
(b) Only I follow
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only I and III follow
(e) All follow

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 207

Q253. Statements:
A. All buildings are mountains.
B. All glasses are mountains.
C. Some mountains are book.
Conclusions:
I. Some book are glasses.
II. Some buildings are book.
III. Some mountains are glasses.
(a) Only I follow (b)Only II follows (c)Only III follows
(d) None follows (e)All follow

Q254. Statements:
A. All trains are room.
B. No room is a bus.
C. All boats are rooms.
Conclusions:
I. No boat is a train. II. No bus is a boat. III. No train is a room.
(a) None follows (b) Only I and II follow (c)Only II and III follow
(d) Only I and III follow (e)Only II follow

Q255. Statements:
A. Some rings are phones.
B. Some phones are computers.
C. Some computers are stations.
Conclusions:
I. Some stations are rings. II. Some phones are stations.
III. Some computers are rings. IV. All rings are stations.
(a) None follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c)Only I, II and III follow (d) Only II and III follow
(e)All follows

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 208

Q256. Statements:
A. All needles are threads.
B. All threads are boxes.
C. All trees boxes.
Conclusions:
I. No needle is tree. II. Some trees are threads.
III. Some boxes are needles. IV. Some trees are needles.
(a) Only either I or IV follow (b) Only either I or IV and II follow
(c) Only III follows (d) None follows
(e) Only either I or IV and III follow

Q257. Statements:
A. All trees are hills.
B. Some hills are animals.
C. All animals are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some birds are hills. II. Some birds are trees.
III. Some animals are trees. IV. No animal is tree.
(a) None follows (b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only I and IV follow (d) Only either III or IV and I follow
(e) None of these

Q258. Statements:
A. All lions are jungles.
B. Some jungles are rabbits.
C. All rabbits are elephants.
Conclusions:
I. Some rabbits are lions. II. Some elephants are jungles.
III. Some elephants are lions. IV. Some elephants are rabbits.
(a) Only I and III follow (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III and IV follow
(e)None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 209

Q259. Statements:
A. All books are pens.
B. No pens are houses.
C. All houses are doors.
Conclusions:
I. No books are houses. II. No books are doors.
III. Some doors are pens. IV. Some houses are books.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III and IV follow
(e) None of these

Q260. Statements:
A. Some dogs are rats.
B. All rats are trees.
C. Some trees are not dogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are dogs. II. All dogs are trees.
III. All rats are dogs. IV. All trees are dogs.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follow
(c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow
(e) All follows

Q261. Statements:
A. Some boys are rains.
B. All rains are clouds.
C. Some clouds are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some clouds are boys. II. Some cars are boys.
III. Some cars are rains. IV. Some rains are boys.
(a) None follows (b) Only IV follows
(c)Only I follow (d) Both I and IV follow

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 210

Q262. Statements:
A. All bricks are flowers.
B. Some houses are flowers.
C. All pens are houses.
Conclusions:
I. Some houses are bricks. II. Some pens are flowers.
III. Some flowers are bricks. IV. No pen is flowers.
(a) Only either II or IV and III follow (b) Only either II or IV and I follow
(c) Only either I or II and IV follow (d) None follows
(e) All follows
Q263. Statements:
A. All lions are ducks.
B. No duck is a horse.
C. All houses are fruits.
Conclusions:
I. No lion is a horse. II. Some fruits are horses.
III. Some ducks are lions. IV. Some lions are horses.
(a) All follows
(b) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow
(c) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow
(d) Only either I or IV and II follow
(e) None of these
Q264. Statements:
A. Some mountains are rivers.
B. Some rivers are roads.
C. Some roads are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are roads. II. Some rivers are mountains.
III. Some roads are mountains. IV. Some windows are rivers.
(a) All follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only III and IV follow (d) Only I and IV follow
(e) None follow

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 211

 CLASSIFICATION
Directions In each of the following questions, five words are given, out of which four are
same in one way or the other and the fifth one is different from the these four. Select the odd
one.
Q265. (a)Sun (b) Moon (c) Venus (d)Mars

Q266. (a)Diamond (b)Ruby (c)Emerald (d) Turquoise

Q267. (a)Green (b)Violet (c)Brown (d)Yellow

Q268. (a)Writer (b)Printer (c)Publisher (d) Reader

Q269. (a)Under (b)Near (c)Beside (d)Where

Q270. (a)Fragrance (b)Smell (c)Aroma (d)Incense

Q271. (a)Ink (b)Pen (c)Pencil (d)Brush

Q272. (a)Guitar (b)Piano (c)Harmonium (d)Banjo

Q273. (a)Freeze (b)Simmer (c)Bake (d)Boil

Q274. (a)Mother (b)Sister (c)Brother (d)Aunt

Q275. (a)Lemon (b)Orange (c)Citron (d)Banana

Q276. (a)Manganese (b)Rubber (c)Salt (d)Gold

Q277. (a)Rectangle (b)Rhombus (c)Square (d)Circle

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 212

Q278. (a)Aluminum (b)Copper (c)Brass (d)Brick

Q279. (a)Metre (b)Yard (c)Litre (d)Inch

Q280. (a)Mars (b)Jupiter (c)Saturn (d)Sun

Q281. (a)Onion (b)Tomato (c)Potato (d)Garlic

Q282. (a)Sparrow (b)Parrot (c)Cuckoo (d)Duck

Q283. (a)Sparrow (b)Parrot (c)Cuckoo (d)Duck

Q284. (a)Sparrow (b)Parrot (c)Cuckoo (d)Duck

Q285. (a)Gold (b)Silver (c)Bronze (d)Iron

Q286. (a)Gold (b)Silver (c)Bronze (d)Iron

Q287. (a)Milk (b)Orange (c)Cotton (d)Snow

Q288. (a)Yen (b)Lira (c)Dollar (d)Ounce

Q289. (a)Huge (b)Tiny (c)Heavy (d)Small

Q290. (a)Rigveda
(b)Yajurveda
(c)Atharveda
(d)Ayurveda

Q291. (a)Violin (b)Guitar (c)Sitar (d)Piano

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 213

Q292. Three of the following words-form a group, while one does not belong to the group.
Find out that word.
(a)Intestines (b) Eyes (c) Hands (d) Ears

Q293. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to the group?
(a)Volume (b) Size (c) Large (d) Shape

Q294. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
One that does not belong to the group?
(a)Guava
(b)Orange
(c)Apple
(d)Lichy

Q295. Four of the following five pairs of alphabets and numerals have same relationship
between their elements as in the case of the pair PROBLEM : 2948375 and hence form
a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a)BORE : 8497
(b)MOEP : 5972
(c)LBOR : 3849
(d)OMEP : 4572

Q296. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which one does not belong to the group?
(a)DONE : NOED
(b)WANT : NATW
(c)WITH : TIHW
(d)HAVE : AVEH

Q297. (a)144 (b) 169 (c) 256 (d) 288

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PAGE 214

 ANALOGIES
Directions: A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a
sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the
same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with
the third word
Q1. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to
(a) speed
(b) hiking
(c)needle
(d)direction

Q2. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

(a)winter
(b)bear
(c)dream
(d)sleep

Q3. Window is to pane as book is to

(a)novel
(b)glass
(c)cover
(d)page

Q4. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to

(a) dish
(b)soup
(c) spoon
(d)food

Q5. Yard is to inch as quart is to

(a) gallon
(b)ounce
(c)milk
(d)liquid

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