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SMARTFOCUS FORM 4 TERM TWO SERIES

EXAMS

SET 2

FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE PAPERS

NAME……………………………………………..INDEX…………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………DATE…………………………………

SMARTFOCUS JOINT EXAMS 2024

BIOLOGY
(QUESTION PAPER I )
FORM FOUR
TIME: 2 HOURS

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date……………………..
INSTRUCTIONS
1. All Questions are Compulsory
2. Write your Answers in the Spaces Provided
3. Wrong Spelling of Technical Terms shall be Penalized

Max Student’s Score

Score

80
1. The diagram shown below represents a nuscleus

a) State the role of the organelle labelled Q (1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name a Kingdom whose members lack structure labelled P (1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Which is the general term given to organisms whose cells have structure P?
……………………………………………………………………………………..…(1mk

2. a) Name the TWO components of a lipid molecule (1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State TWO disadvantages of using fats as respiratory substrates (2mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. a) Name the pigment that protects humans from the negative effect of Ultraviolet lights
……………………………………………………………………………………..….(1mk
b) Explain how sunlight contributes to stronger bones and teeth in human beings (2mks

4. Name the main target organ of the following hormones: (2mks

a) Aldosterone….. ……………………………………………………………………….
b) Insulin ………………………………………………………………………………….

1|Page
5. a) What is asexual reproduction? (1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give TWO disadvantages of sexual reproduction (2mks

6. The diagram shown below represents a seeding. Use it to answer questions that follow

a) Give a reason why the plant above is a member of Class Dicotyledonae (1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why the biomass of part labelled A will be lower compared to the one found
in the seed stage of the same plant (2mks

7. a) State TWO ways in which blood clotting is important to a human being (2mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) What are the roles of thrombokinase enzyme during blood clotting? (2mks

2|Page
8. The diagram shown below represents a flower

a) Name the agent of pollination for the flower shown above (1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give TWO reasons for your answer in a) above (2mks

9. State the differences between cones and rods in terms of the following (2mks
Feature Cone Rod
Visual acuity
Photochemical

10. Use the diagram of a nerve cell shown below to answer questions that follow

a) With a reason, give the identity of the nerve cell (2mks

Identity …………………………………………………………………………………
Reason ………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Explain the significance of absence of part labelled H in nerve cells found in the
brain.

3|Page
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……………………………………………………………………………………..…(2mks

11. Give THREE features that make modern man to be more adaptable to the environment

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………..………………….….(3mks

12. The diagram below represents a living organism

a) State TWO economic importance of the above organism in the food industry (2mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………..…(2mks

b) Why does the rate of respiration reduce under the following conditions? (2mks
i) Low temperature
………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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ii) Metabolic poison
………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

13. State TWO reasons why Biotechnology is important in modern science (2mks

4|Page
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………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. a) Fill in the table shown below to give differences between continuous and
discontinuous variation
(2mks
Continuous Variation Discontinuous Variation

b) Explain how variation is important in the process of evolution? (3mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..……….
………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. a) Define the term species (1mk

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..

b) State TWO contributions of Carolus Linnaeus (1708 – 1778) to taxonomy (2mks

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. a) In an experiment, Peter counted 9 cells along the diameter of field of view of a light
microscope measuring 3.0mm. Determine the diameter of one cell in micrometers
(3mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
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5|Page
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b) Why is electron microscope safer to the eye than light microscope during use? (1mk

17. The following diagram represents results of an experiment carried out on two sets of
germinating seeds.

a) Account for the result shown in test tube X (2mks

b) What is the importance of dipping the boiled seeds in a disinfectant in test tube Y?

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………..….………(1mk

18. The diagram shown below represents a section of the vertebral column

6|Page
S
T

a) Name the part labelled S (1mk

……………………………………………………………………………………..………..

b) State TWO ways in which part T is important to movement in human beings (2mks

……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Describe how the following cells adapt the structures where they are found to their
functions
a) Companion cell (2mks

b) Schwann cell (2mks

20. A mother had a still birth and the expelled foetus showed clear signs of anaemia and
jaundice
a) Give the name of this disorder (1mk

……………………………………………………………………………………..………..

b) Describe how the disorder arose (3mks

……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
7|Page
21. The following equation represents a section of the Nitrogen Cycle
Y
Ammonia Nitrite X

Process Z
a) Name: i) Bacterium labelled Y
……………………………………………….(1mk
ii) Compound X
……………………………………………………….(1mk
b) Explain how Process Z affect plant growth in an area? (2mks

22. Samson had a road accident resulting in serious head injuries that left him with the
following conditions: Loss of balance, low body temperature; poor speech, unregulated
breathing and memory loss. Name the part of the brain affected that led to the following:
i) Low body temperature
…………………………………………..…………….…,,..(1mk
ii) Memory loss ……………………………………………………..………….……..(1mk
iii) Unregulated breathing ………………………………………….…………………(1mk

23. The graph shown below represents effect of substrate concentration on rate of enzymatic
reaction

8|Page
a) Account for the rate of enzymatic reaction when the substrate concentration was
between 0.3 to 0.5%. (2mks

b) Name the substrates for the following enzymes

i) Carbonic anhydrase …………………….………………………………………(1mk
ii) Thrombin ……………………………………………………………………....(1mk

24. A tilapia fish has a full length of 300mm but measures 200mm from the mouth tip to its
anus. Determine the tail power of the fish (2mks
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..………..

9|Page
Name………………………………………………………..Adm. No…………..Class…………
Signature……………………………………………………. Date……………………………….

101/1
ENGLISH PAPER ONE
(Functional Writing, Cloze Test and
Oral Skills)
TIME: 2 Hours

TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

i) Write your name, school, and index/admission number in the spaces provided.
ii) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in this paper.
iii) This paper has 8 printed pages. Ensure all the pages are there before you answer any
question.
iv) Answer all questions in English
v) Use BLUE ink to answer your questions.

For Examiner’s Use Only

S.NO QUESTION MAX CANDIDATE’S EXAMINER’S

SCORE SCORE
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING 20
2. CLOZE TEST 10
3. ORAL SKILLS 30
TOTAL SCORE 60

Page 1
1. You are a member of the Environmental Club in your school. Recently, the club held its
Annual General Meeting. During the meeting, 8 of the 12 club members were present. Two
members including the secretary sent apologies while two others did not state their
whereabouts. The club patron was present during the meeting. Among the issues discussed
during the meeting included; a farewell party for the leavers, recruitment of new members,
planting of trees around the school and visiting a nearby conservancy. A member raised an
issue from the previous meeting. The chairman has asked you to take down the minutes of
the meeting.
Write down the minutes that you recorded. 20 marks
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Page 2
2. Read the passage below and fill each blank space with an appropriate word. 10 marks

The biggest (1)……………………….. facing education today include the low quality of human
resources, the need to adapt to the fast-changing digital world, the discrepancy
(2)………………… classroom learning and the reality outside, and the transformation brought
by new technologies. Schools are struggling to keep (3)………. with the progress of science and
technology in the era of globalization, and there (4)……….. a lack of interest and detachment of
learners from the learning environment. (5)………………………., the education system needs
to (6)…………………… learners for the future by endorsing essential capabilities and
employing novel teaching and learning methodologies. There is a need to produce highly
innovative graduates (7)……………… can creatively apply outside-the-box solutions to global
issues. Furthermore, the transformation brought by new technologies, such as artificial
(8)……………………..and big data analysis, is also a challenge for marketing education.
Overall, (9)…………………..challenges require improvements in the quality of human
resources, the learning environment, (10)…………..the integration of new technologies in
education.

3. a) Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow. (10 marks)

AFTER DEATH

The curtains were half drawn, the floor was swept.

And strewn with rushes, rosemary and may
Lay think upon the bed on which I lay
Where through the lattice Ivy-shadows crept.
He leaned above me, thinking that I slept
And could not hear him; but I heard him say,
“Poor child, poor child” and as he turned away
Came a deep silence, and I knew he wept.
He did not touch the shroud, or raise the fold
That hid my face, or take my hand in his,
Or ruffle the smooth pillows of my head;
He did not love me living; but once dead
He pitied me; and very sweet it is
To know he is still warm though I am cold.
By Christina Roseta.

Page 3
(i) Identify any two pairs of rhyming words in the poem above? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Apart from rhyme identify and illustrate two other sound patterns in this poem
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii) How would you perform the following lines in the poem 2 marks
“Poor child, poor child” and as he turned away
Came a deep silence and I knew he wept.
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iv) If you were to recite the poem to an audience, how would you sustain their interest?
3 marks
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(v) Comment on the significance of the comma and the semi-colon as used in the poem.
1 mark
………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 4
b) Supply another word that is pronounced the same as the ones below. (3 marks)
(i) Whale …………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Bow ………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Days ……………………………………………………………………………...
c) Underline the silent letters in the following words (3 marks)
(i) Practically
(ii) Gnat
(iii) Raspberry
d) Group the words below according to the pronunciation of the sound a 4 marks
dam, band, park, add, gasp, aunt, pack, father
………………………………………………………………………………………
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e) Imagine you are the School Captain of your school. Your teacher in charge of Guidance
and Counselling requests you to move a speech to your fellow students highlighting the
negative effects of drugs. Explain how you will deal with the fear and anxiety associated
with the public speaking of this kind. 4 marks
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f) Imagine you have been appointed as the chairperson of your group discussion. State three
things you will advise your members to do before the discussion. (3 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 5
g) Read the telephone conversation below and answer the questions that follow.
Pritt: Hello, is Valentine there?
Mercy: Hello too, good afternoon to you, I am Mercy, Valentine’s cousin. May I ask who is
calling please?
Pritt: Oh, this is Pritt Heston, Valentine’s classmate. I want to talk to him.
Mercy: I am sorry; Valentine just went out a few minutes ago. Would you like to leave a
message or call...
Pritt: (clicking) Tell him he is such a disappointment, we were supposed to go to the movies
today.
Mercy: Oh, I guess you will see him soon because he told me he’s running to meet his friends.
Pritt: Oh, okay.
Mercy: Alright Pritt, thank you for calling. Bye.
(Pritt hangs up the phone)
i) How has Mercy portrayed appropriate telephone etiquette in the above conversation?
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Identify three instances of Pritt’s lack of telephone etiquette in the above conversation
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

Page 6
NAME……………………………………………..INDEX………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………DATE……………………………………..

SMARTFOCUS JOINT EXAMS 2024

BIOLOGY
(QUESTION PAPER II)
FORM FOUR
TIME:2 HOURS

Instructions to candidate
(a) Write your name, school, index number in the space provided at the top of the paper.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections, A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
(e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the answer booklet
provided.
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
80

Page 1 of 12Biology Paper 2

SECTION A (40 marks)
1. a) Using the diagrams below, construct a dichotomous key that can be used to identify the leaves.
(2mks)

COTTON WOODWHITE CLOVER

BLACK WALNUT

HONEY LOCUST
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b) State two reasons for classifying living organisms (2mks)

Page 2 of 12Biology Paper 2
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2. The diagram below is a cross section through a part of human ileum.

(a)(i) Identify the structure drawn above (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Sate the significance of the structure shown above. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the parts labelled A, B and C (3 marks)
A…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
B……………………………………………………………………………………………………
C……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Give the functions of the part labelled B and C (2 marks)
B…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
C……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Name the cell organelle more abundant in goblet cells. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. a) In human, premature baldness is controlled by a gene on the Y chromosome. Using B to

represent the gene for baldness, work out a cross between a bald man and his wife . (4mks)

Page 3 of 12Biology Paper 2

(b)i) What is the probability of their daughters being bald? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Name one genetic disorder affecting the red blood cells. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.

(a) i) Identify the type of circulatory system shown in diagram above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give a reason for your answer in (a)i) above. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Page 4 of 12Biology Paper 2
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(b) Name the parts labelled X, Y and Z. (3mks)

X…………………………………………………………………………………………

Y…………………………………………………………………………………………

Z…………………………………………………………………………………………

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(d) Explain why amoeba lack a circulatory system. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. An experiment was carried out to find out the concentration of ions in the cell sap of an aquatic plant
and that of the pond water in which they were found.

Concentration in
Ions Cell sap Pond water
Na+ 50 1.2
K+ 49 0.5
Mg2+ 11 3.0
Ca2+ 13 1.3
Cl- 101 1.3
SO42- 13 0.67

(a)(i) Name the process by which the aquatic plant absorbs ions from pond water. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) State the four roles of the process you have named in (a)(i) above in a mammalian body. (4 mks)

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Page 5 of 12Biology Paper 2

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(b) Name the cell structure that allows passage of ions in and out of the cell. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c)How can the rate of uptake of ions by the aquatic plant be increased. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer question 6 (compulsory ) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8.
6.The glucose level in mg per 100cm3 of blood was determined in two person Y and Z. Both had stayed
for six hours without taking food. They were fed on equal amount of glucose at the start of the experiment
.The amount of glucose in their blood was determined at intervals .The results are shown in the table
below.
Times in minutes Glucose level in blood in mg /100cm3

Page 6 of 12Biology Paper 2

Y Z
0 85 78
20 105 110
30 105 110
45 130 170
60 100 195
80 93 190
100 90 140
120 90 130
140 88 120

a) On the grid provided, plot graphs of glucose levels in blood against time on the same axes. (7mks)

Page 7 of 12Biology Paper 2

b) What was the concentration of glucose in the blood of Y and Z at the 50th minute? (2mks)
Y...................................................................................................................................

Z...................................................................................................................................

c) Account for the level of glucose in present Y

i) During the first 45 minutes. (2mks)

ii) After 45th minute to the end. (4mks)

Page 8 of 12Biology Paper 2

d) Account for the decrease in glucose level person Z after 60 minutes. (2mk)

e) Low blood sugar level in harmful to the body .Explain. (3mks)

7. (a) (i) Give four modes of expressing food relationship in an ecosystem. (4 marks)
(ii) Explain how food as a factor regulate the population of animals in an ecosystem.( 8 marks)
(b)How are desert plants adapted to conserving water? (8 marks)
8. Describe the structure and functions of various organelles in a mature animal cell.(20mks)

Page 9 of 12Biology Paper 2

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Page 10 of 12Biology Paper 2
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Page 11 of 12Biology Paper 2
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Page 12 of 12Biology Paper 2

NAME……………………………………………..INDEX………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………DATE……………………………………..

SMARTFOCUS JOINT EXAMS 2024

BIOLOGY
(QUESTION PAPER III)
PRACTICAL
FORM FOUR
TIME: 1 ¾ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

(a) Write your name,index number and school in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
(d) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1¾ hours allowed for
(e) this paper reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
(f) This paper has three questions.
(g) Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the papers are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
(h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score

1 14

2 12

3 14

Total Score 40
1. You are provided with visking tubing labeled J, a piece of thread and a solution labeled K.

Dip the visking tubing in distilled water to moisten it, open it, and then tie one end tightly with the
thread provided.
Half-fill the visking tubing with solution K then tie the open end of the tubing tightly. Ensure solution
K does not spill out of the tubing.
Immerse the visking tubing into distilled water in a beaker. Ensure that the visking tubing is
completely immersed in the distilled water.
Leave the set-up for 20 minutes. Record your observations after 20 minutes.

(a) (i) Observations (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………...

(ii) Explain you observations in a (i) above. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Remove the visking tubing carefully. Ensure the contents of the visking tubing do not mix with that
of the beaker.Using the reagents provided, test for the food substance present in the visking tubing and
the beaker.
I. Visking tubing(4mks)

FOOD TEST PROCEDURE OBSERVATIONS CONCLUTION

Starch

Reducing sugars
II. Beaker(4mks)

FOOD TEST PROCEDURE OBSERVATIONS CONCLUTION

Starch

Reducing sugars

2. The photographs I and II below illustrate parts of mammalian systems. Study them and answer the
questions that follow.

PHOTOGRAPH I
X

L
M

PHOTOGRAPH II
(a) Identify the two mammalian systems shown above. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

(b) Name the membrane that covers part marked P and Z. (2mks)

P…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

Z…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

(d) How is the part labelled Y adapted to perform its function. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

(e)Identify the part labelled N. (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..

(f) State the difference in the content of blood in L and M. (1mk)

L M
(g) State the role of the inner part of X in ensuring a healthy system. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….........
........................

3. You are provided with specimens labeled S1 , S2 and S3

(a) Using a scalpel blade split S1 longitudinally and draw a well labeled diagram to show the
internal structures. (4mks)

(b) With a reason, state the class of the plant from which specimen S1 was obtained.
(i) Class(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..

Reason(1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
(c) Specimen S2 is a germinated seedling of S1.
In the table below, name three structures of S1and identify the structures they developed into in
specimen S2(3mks)

Structure in S1 Structure developed into, in S2

1_____________________ _______________________________

2_____________________ _______________________________________

3_____________________
___________________________________

(d) i) Using specimens S2and S3 ,name the type of germination. (2mks)

S2
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….

S3
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….

ii) Give a reason for your answer in S3 above. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….

iii) Account for the type of germination in S2 (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……..,..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..
565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
JULY, 2024
Time: 2½ hours.

TERM 2 EXAMINATION
FORM FOUR
565/2
Paper 2
BUSINESS STUDIES

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
➢ This paper consists of six questions.

➢ Answer any FIVE questions

➢ All questions carry equal marks.

1. (a) Explain five services rendered by retailers to producers. (10 marks)

(b) Outline five challenges one would face when measuring National income
using expenditure approach. (10 marks)

2. (a) Explain five guidelines that should be followed by the county government in
its expenditure. (10 marks)

(b) Describe the differences between private company and partnership.

(10 marks)

3. (a) The following transaction took place in the business of Kessup traders in the
first week of May 2023.

2023
May 1: Started business with sh 800,000 in bank and sh 200,000 in
cash
May 2: Purchased goods values at sh 240,000 from Silker stores on
credit
May 3: Paid rent sh 12,000 by cheque.
May 4: Purchased Business Premises for sh 560,000 from Kessup
women group and paid by cheque.
May 5: Sold goods in cash sh 85,000.
May 6: Paid Silker stores sh 100,000 by cheque.

Required:
Use the above information to:

(i) Prepare the relevant ledger accounts and balance them off as at 7th
May 2023 (8 marks)

(ii) Extract a trial balance. (4 marks)

(b) Explain four benefits of a proper filing to an organization. (8 marks)

4. (a) Explain five reasons for consumer protection. (10 marks)

(b) By aid of a diagram, explain the effect of an increase in demand of a product

while its supply is constant on equilibrium price and quantity. (10 marks)

5. (a) Explain five reasons for the popularity of current accounts among business
people. (10 marks)

(b) Explain five measures that may be used by the government to solve
unemployment problems in the country. (10 marks)
6. (a) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Kocholwa
Grocery as at 31st December, 2023

Page 2
Kocholwa Grocery
Trial balance
As at 31st December 2023

Details Dr (shs) Cr (shs)

Premises 1,500,000
Debtors and creditors 20,000 30,000
Cash at bank 90,000
Cash in hand 10,000
Purchases and sales 140,000 320,000
Stock of good on 1st Jan 2023 45,000
Discounts 6,000 2,000
Salaries and wages 50,000
Commissions 8,000
Power and lighting 12,000
Returns 15,000 19,000
Carriage outwards 2,300
Carriage inwards 5,400
Capital 1,543,700
Furniture 27,000
1,922,700 1,922,700

Additional information
Stock of goods on 31st December, 2023 was worth sh. 22, 000.

Required:

(i) Prepare Kocholwa Grocery trading, profit and loss account for the
period ended 31st December, 2023. (6 marks)

(ii) Prepare Kocholwa Grocery Balance sheet as at 31st December, 2023.

(4 marks)

(b) Explain five principles of insurance. (10 marks)

Page 3
TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

565/1 BUSINESS STUDIES Paper 1

JULY, 2024 – 2 hours

Name: …………………………………………………… Adm No.: ……………… Class …………..

Candidate’s Signature: ………………………………... Date: ………………………………………

Instructions to Candidates

(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
(c) Answer all the questions.
(d) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
(e) Do not remove any pages from this booklet.
(f) This paper consists of 9 printed pages.
(g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Teacher’s Use Only

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
TOTAL
MARKS

Page 1
1. State four characteristics of economic resources. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Outline four elements of effective communication. (4mks)

3. Outline four characteristics of monopolistic market structure. (4mks)

4. Outline four ways in which internal business environment can positively affect business
operations. (4nks)

Page 2
5. The table below shows changes in quantity demanded of a commodity.
Month April May June July August
Quantity 10,000 12,000 15,000 18,000 20,000
demanded
Give four reasons for the above trend. (4mks)

6. State four circumstances under which personal selling is appropriate. (4mks)

7. Outline four challenges faced by a country with a youthful population. (4mks)

Page 3
8. On 1st Jan 2023, Kamusi traders had cash in hand shs.15,000 and a bank credit balance of
Ksh.120,000. During the month, the following transactions took place.
2023:
Jan 3: Sold goods worth 12,000 and was paid 8,000 in cash and the balance
was to be received later.
Jan 10: Bought goods worth shs.5,000 and paid in cash.
Jan 18: Received a cheque of Ksh.18,000 from a debtor.
Jan 25: Purchased goods worth Ksh.40,000 partly paying by cheque of shs.35,000
and the rest in cash.

Required: prepare a two-column cash book. (4mks)

9. State four benefits of division of labour and specialization in an organization. (4mks)

Page 4
10. The following information relates to Maji Matamu Stores as at 31st December 2023.
Details Ksh.
Capital (31/12/2023) 1,020,000
Net loss 120,000
Additional investments 320,000
Monthly drawings 6,000

Determine the capital as at 1st January, 2023 (4mks)

11. Outline four factors that encourage entrepreneurial practices in a country. (4mks)

12. Identify the source documents from which the following information can be obtained.
(4mks)

Information Source document

Sold goods amounting to ksh.2,000 on credit to
Njeri
Goods returned by Mwangi Ksh.420
Bought goods worth Ksh.13,000 on credit from
Juma
Purchased goods from Nyayo traders and paid
Ksh.30,000 in cash

Page 5
13. Outline four circumstances under which cash payment is appropriate. (4mks)

14. Outline four benefits that accrue to a producer who uses train as a means of transport.
(4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. The diagram below represents the circular flow of national income; identify the factors
represented by arrows labeled. (4mks)
(b)
(a)

HOUSEHOLD FIRMS

(c)

(d)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 6
16. State four disadvantages of indirect taxes. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Outline four functions of money. (4mks)

18. The following balances were extracted from the books of Taptok wholesalers for the year
ended 31st December 2022. (4mks)
Ksh.
Sales 7,000,000
Debtors 1,600,000
Creditors 2,100,000
Purchases 4,200,000
Cash at Bank 700,000
Opening stock 1,000,000
Closing stock 600,000
Cash in hand 130,000
Calculate:
a). Cost of goods sold (1mk)
b). Working capital (1mk)
c). Rate of stock Turnover (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 7
19. Describe four channels that can be used to distribute locally produced perishable farm
product. (4mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. State whether the following transactions will increase, decrease or has no effect on assets,
capital and liabilities.
Transaction Assets Capital Liabilities
a). Bought stock for Ksh.80,000 on cash

b). Bought furniture worth 90,000 on

credit
c). Took some stock of goods worth
ksh.10,000 from his business to his
wife at home
d). Paid a creditor Ksh 20,000 by cheque.

21. Highlight four benefits of warehousing to a consumer. (4mks)

22. State four reasons for the privatization of state corporations. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………..…………………………

Page 8
23. Use the description below to identify the office equipment being described. (4mks)

Description Office Machine

a). For cutting unwanted documents into tiny pieces to
avoid such documents getting into the wrong hands.
b). Electronic device used for processing data, storing
information and for communication purposes.
c). Used for trimming papers into required shapes and
sizes.
d). Used to transmit printed messages such as letters,
maps, diagrams and photographs.

24. Ole Tipis owns an industrial plant valued at Ksh. 40,000,000. On September 2023, the
industrial plant was insured with two insurance companies: XYZ and ABC for Ksh.
30,000,000 and Ksh. 10,000,000 respectively. In January 2024 fire damaged 40% of the
building. Calculate the amount of compensation to be contributed by XYZ, and ABC to
cover the loss. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Outline four advantages that accrue to a firm due to the growth of the entire industry.
(4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 9
565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
JULY, 2024
Time: 2½ hours.

TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION

FORM FOUR
565/2
Paper 2
BUSINESS STUDIES

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
➢ This paper consists of six questions.

➢ Answer any FIVE questions

➢ All questions carry equal marks.

1. (a) Explain five services rendered by retailers to producers. (10 marks)

(b) Outline five challenges one would face when measuring National income
using expenditure approach. (10 marks)

2. (a) Explain five guidelines that should be followed by the county government in
its expenditure. (10 marks)

(b) Describe the differences between private company and partnership.

(10 marks)

3. (a) The following transaction took place in the business of Kessup traders in the
first week of May 2023.

Required:
Use the above information to:

(i) Prepare the relevant ledger accounts and balance them off as at 7th
May 2023 (8 marks)

(ii) Extract a trial balance. (4 marks)

(b) Explain four benefits of a proper filing to an organization. (8 marks)

4. (a) Explain five reasons for consumer protection. (10 marks)

(b) By aid of a diagram, explain the effect of an increase in demand of a product

while its supply is constant on equilibrium price and quantity. (10 marks)

5. (a) Explain five reasons for the popularity of current accounts among business
people. (10 marks)

BUSINESS PP2 @ 2024 Page 2

Kocholwa Grocery
Trial balance
As at 31st December 2023

Details Dr (shs) Cr (shs)

Additional information
Stock of goods on 31st December, 2023 was worth sh. 22, 000.

Required:

(i) Prepare Kocholwa Grocery trading, profit and loss account for the
period ended 31st December, 2023. (6 marks)

(ii) Prepare Kocholwa Grocery Balance sheet as at 31st December, 2023.

(4 marks)

(b) Explain five principles of insurance. (10 marks)

BUSINESS PP2 @ 2024 Page 3

NAME: …………………………………………………….. ADM NO: ………….. CLASS:……..
School: ………………………….. Date: ………….. Sign…………..

233/1
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1
JULY 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS

TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate to Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, admission number, date, index number and school in the spaces
provided
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
• All working MUST BE clearly shown where necessary
• Scientific calculators may be used
• Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Questions Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 – 28 80

This paper contains 13 printed pages. The candidates should check to confirm that all pages are
printed and that no question is missing.

Page 1
1. (a) Give the systematic names of the following hydrocarbons

(i) CH3(CH2)4CH3 (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) CH3 C CH2 (1Mark)

CH3

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon is C6H14
The hydrocarbon can be converted into two other hydrocarbons as shown by the equation
below.
C6H14 X + C3H8

(i) What is the name of above process? (1/2Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Write the molecular formula of X (1/2Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Mr. Rudisha went to a doctor who sent him to a pharmacy to pick some drugs. The
pharmacist wrote on the medicine packaging 2 x 3

(a) Clearly state what 2 x 3 meant? (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State one reason why it is important to adhere to the doctor’s prescription. (1Mark)

Page 2
3. The apparatus below were used by a student to study to effect of heat on hydrated copper (II)
Sulphate.
Copper (II) Sulphate

Boiling tube

Heat

Ice cold water

Liquid P

(a) What is the role of the ice-cold water? (1Mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Name liquid P. (1/2Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) What is the observation made in the boiling tube. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Name type of change illustrated above (1/2Mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The diagram below shows a paper chromatogram of substances A, B and C which are
coloured.
●

●
●
●
●

● ● ● ●
A B C D

(a) Indicate baseline on the chromatogram. (1Mark)

(b) Which substance is pure? Explain (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Substance D is a mixture of B and C. Indicate it chromatogram on the diagram (1Mark)

Page 3
5. (a) A beekeeper found that when stung by a bee, application of a little solution of sodium
hydrogen carbonate helped to relieve the irritation on the affected. Explain. (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Flower extracts can be used to Acid-bade indicators. Give two limitations of such
indicators. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. The apparatus below was a set up to show catalytic oxidation of ammonia.
Dry
NH3(g)

Hot nichrome
wire

(i) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the gas jar. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) What is the role of the hot nichrome wire (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(iii) Apart from nichrome wire what else can be used? (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 4
7. The set-u is used to investigate the properties of hydrogen.

Copper (II) oxide

Dry H2(g)

(a) On the diagram, indicate what should be done for the reaction to occur. (1Mark)
(b) Write an equation for the reaction that occur in the combustion tube. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) What property of hydrogen gas is being investigated? (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. When hydrogen is burnt and the product cooled, the following results are obtained as shown
in the diagram below.

Ice cold water

Hydrogen burning
Dry
Hydrogen
gas

Liquid Y

(a) Write the equation for the formation of liquid Y. (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give a chemical test of liquid Y. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Give two uses of hydrogen gas. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. The diagram below shows a frasch process used for extraction of sulphur.

Page 5
(i) Identify X (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) What is superheated water? (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) State two physical properties of sulphur that makes it possible for it to be extracted by
this method. (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
10. Study the information in the table below and answer question that follow.

Ions Electron arrangement Ionic radius

Na+ 2.8 0.95

K2+ 2.8.8 0.133

Mg2+ 2.8 0.065

Explain why:-
(a) Ionic radius of K+ is greater than that of Na+ (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 6
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Ionic radius of Mg2+ is smaller than that of Na+ (2Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. The table below gives properties of four substances

Substance Melting Boiling Electrical conductivity

points points Solid Liquid
A 1083 2567 Good Good
B -182 -164 Poor Poor
C 1723 2230 Poor poor
D 993 1695 poor Good

State with a reason which of the above is :-

(i) An ionic compound (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………….………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) A metallic structure (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………….………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Giant atomic structure (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Study the flow charts below and answer questions that follow.

NaOH White precipitate Step I Excess Colourless solution

Solution NaOH
dropwise L M
K

Step III NH3 Step II HCl

dropwise until
excess
White White
precipitate L precipitate

Page 7
(a) Identify
(i) Cation present in solution K (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) White precipitate L. (1Mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Write down the formula of the complex ion present in the colourless solution M (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Describe how a dry sample of Barium Sulphate can be prepared starting with Barium
Carbonate (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
(i) What are allotropes? (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)
In terms of structure and bonding explain why diamond is used in drilling through
hard rock while graphite is a lubricant. (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. (a) Define Graham’s Law of diffusion (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) 60cm3 of oxygen diffused through a porous plate in 20 seconds. How long will it take
120cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide to diffuse through same plate under same conditions?
( C = 12, O = 16) (2Marks)

Page 8
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) On the grid provided sketch a graph of pressure against volume for fixed mass of gas at
constant temperature. (1Mark)

Pressure

Volume
3
(c) 50dm of gas at one atmosphere was compress to four atmospheres at constant
temperature. Calculate the volume occupied by the gas. (2Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
-
17. R – COO Na+ and R OSO3- Na+ are cleansing agents. Identify (2Marks)

(a) (i) R – COO - NA+ _____

(ii) R OSO3- Na+ ___

Page 9
(b) Which of the two cleansing agent is not affected by hard water. Explain (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. When a hydrated sample of calcium sulphate ( CaSO4.XH2O) was heated, the following
data was recorded.

Mass of crucible = 30.2969

Mass of crucible + hydrated salt = 33.111g
Mass of crucible + anhydrous salt = 32.781g
Determine the value of X in the salt. (3Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
19. Study the set-up and answer questions that follow.

Flame

Glass tube

(a) What does the experiment demonstrate? (1Mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) When is the type of Bunsen burner flame produced? (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 10
(c) Name the type of flame above? (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. The set up below was used to electrolyze molten lead (II) bromide.

Carbon

Crucible
Molten lead (II) bromide

(a) Explain why the bulb light brightly at the beginning of the experiment and become dim
after sometimes. (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write ionic equation for the reaction that took place at the cathode. (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
21. (a) Aqueous sodium chloride and metals in liquid state conduct electricity. Explain the
difference in their conductivity. (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 11
(b) What is binary electrolysis? (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
22. The set – up below was used to collected gas F produced by the reaction between sodium
peroxide and water.

Water

Gas F
Gas jar

Water
Sodium
peroxide

(a) Name gas F (1/2Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write a balanced equation for formation of gas F (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) At the end of the experiment, the solution in round bottomed flask was found to be strong
base. Explain. (1/2Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 12
23. Study the information given below and answer questions that follows.

Bond Bond energy

KJ/Mol
C-Cl 325

C-H 414

Cl-Cl 244

H-Cl 431

CH4 + Cl2 CH3Cl + HCl

Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction. (2Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
24. A given element E has atomic number 14 and consist of isotopes as shown below

Isotope X Y Z
Isotopic mass 28 29 30
% abundance 92.2 4.7 3.1

(a) What are isotopes? (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Determine the relative atomic mass of E (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. (a) Define the term half-life. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 13
(a) X grammes of a radio isotope takes 100 days to decay to 20g. If half – life of the same
element is 25 days. Calculate the initial mass X of the radio isotope. (2Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
26. Name the process which takes place when:

(i) Iodine changes directly from solid to gas (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Fe2+ changes to Fe3+ (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) White sugar changes to black solid when mixed with excess with excess concentrated
sulphuric acid. (1Mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
27. (a) Name a suitable drying agent to be used to dry chlorine gas. (1Mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Chlorine reacts with red hot powder to give Iron(II) Chloride but not Iron (II)
Chloride. Explain. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Dilute Sodium hydroxide reacts with chlorine to form bleaching powder. Write a
balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (1Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

28. 22.2cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution containing 4.0g per litre sodium hydroxide were
required for completer neutralization of 0.1g of a dibasic acid. Calculate the relative formula
mass of dibasic acid. (Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1) (3Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 14
NAME…………………………………………………………..ADMNO…………….……
CLASS……………………. SCHOOL………………………………………………………
451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
JULY 2024
TIME: 2 ½ HRS

TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
(K.C.S.E)

451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 ½ HRS

Instructions to candidates
1. This paper consists of TWO sections; A and B
2. Answer all questions in sections A.
3. Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION

A 1 – 15
16

17
B
18

TOTAL MARKS

This paper consists of 11 printed pages.

Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and that no
question is missing.
1. Name the storage device that was introduced in each of the following computer
generations
a. Second Generation (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
b. Fifth generation (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
2. Mr. Nzioki, a games teacher at Moi Girls High school wants to invite several schools
for basketball tournament. He was advised to use mail merging technique to create
invitation letters for the respective schools to be invited. State two advantages of
using this technique to create the letters. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Susan came across the following examples of software while revising for her
computer studies exam: Linux, QuickBooks, Lotus WordPro, Windows 7, and
Classify each as either system software or application software. (2 marks)
Linux……………………………………………………………………………………
QuickBooks……………………………………………………………………………
Lotus WordPro…………………………………………………………………………
Windows 7………………………………………………………………………………
4. Distinguish between main memory and secondary memory as used in computers (2
marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Five star hotel has decided to pay its suppliers using electronic payment method.
State two benefits the hotel will get from making this decision. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State a circumstance under which the following features could be applied to a

publication
a. Text wrapping (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
b. Object grouping (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

7. Kennedy would like to edit a document prepared using word processing program.
Name four editing keyboard keys that he could use to achieve his objective. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Jacky, a secretary at Sacho High school carries out her daily duties using computers
and suffers wrist strain. State two ways she would use to reduce wrist strain.(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Faith noticed that after copying a video file in her flash disk from a cyber café in
town, the video file self-replicated in the flash disk filling all the available memory
space.
a. State one possible cause for such occurrence (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
b. State two ways that can be used to prevent the occurrence of such incidences
(2 marks

…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

10. (a)State two characteristics of a primary key field in a database system (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State and explain 2 factors to consider before enrolling for an ICT course in a
college (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State one advantage of the auto save feature in a word processing program (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Using suitable examples, distinguish between layout based DTP software and
graphical based DTP software. (3 marks
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Mark, an employee of an institution used his computer to access his boss’s computer
to get some confidential information and gave it to one of its clients at a fee.
a. State the type of crime committed by Mark (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
b. State two ways of protecting data against the crime committed by Mark (2
marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
14. Identify three roles of a system analyst (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
15.The use of ICT has affected every aspect of human life. State three ways ICT in which
ICT can be used to enhance physical fitness of the members of the society. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………1
6. a) Define the term structured programming (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain three error detecting methods in program development (3 marks)

c).i) Mokasa school deposits 100,000 in a bank at an interest rate of 10% per year. At the end of
each year, the interest earned is added to the amount on deposit and this becomes the new
deposit for the next year. Write a pseudo code to determine the year in which the amount
accumulated first exceeds 200,000. Also for each year, print the year (starting from 1), the
deposit, the Interest earned, and the total accumulated at the end of the year. (5 marks)

17. a) Distinguish between s and a radio wave transmission (4 marks)

b) Explain the role of the following protocols: (2 marks)

i) TCP

ii) IP

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) i) List three components contained in the header of an email compose window (3 marks)

ii) Define the term modulation as used in computing (2 marks)

d) The topology below is formed by combining two types of topologies

(i) Give one name for this combined topology. (1 mark)

(ii) Name the two topologies forming the combined topology in the above figure. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18.a.Using a suitable example, define the tern overflow error (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Convert each of the following numbers system.

(i) 0.7812510 to binary (2marks)

(ii) 3A916 to Octal (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

c. Perform the following binary operation. 1010.11 +111.10 -101.11 (3marks)

d) Using one’s complement, perform the arithmetic below leaving the answer the
decimal follow notation. 17 10 - 4510 (6marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. (a) (i)Jumbo School intends to acquire a software to analyse exams. Explain two
advantages of using in-house developed software. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Sakaja bought a new laptop and intends to install new softwares. State three hardware
details that he should consider before installing the software. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)(i) Distinguish between schedule feasibility and economic feasibility as used in system
development. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State two advantages of observation method in gathering information during system
analysis stage. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)State four circumstances which would prompt an organisation to develop a new
information system. (4 marks)

A B C D E F
1 Item Quantity Price Total Discount New price
2 Text book 51 500
3 Ruler 80 50
4 Calculator 15 800
5 Geometrical set 56 250
6
7 10%
8

I). Write a formula at cell D2 to calculate amount of each item purchased (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) IF a member purchase any item more than 60, a discount of 10% is given on the total
amount, IF a member purchase any item more than 55, a discount of 5% is given on the total
amount, IF a member purchase any item more than 50, a discount of 10% is given on the
total amount otherwise no discount is given. In cell E2, write a function to calculate the
discount of each item purchased basing on the quantity purchased. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) All prices of items are to be increased by 10%. Using an Absolute and relative cell
referencing, write a formula in cell F2 to calculate the New price (10% is placed in cell B7)
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) The function = sum (B$4:E4) is entered at F5 and then copied to F8. Write down the
function as it appears in the destination cell. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Differentiate between data security and data integrity. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Explain the meaning of each of the following with reference to computer crimes. (3 marks)

i) Cracking

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Hacking

iii) Tapping

d) State two ways of preventing piracy with regard to data and information. (2marks)

END
TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION
451 - COMPUTER STUDIES – Paper 2
(PRACTICAL)
Year 2024 - 2 ½ hours

Instructions to candidates

a) Write your name and admission number at the top right hand corner of each print out .
a) Write your name and admission number on the CD-RW provided .
b) Write the name and the version of the application software used for each question in the
answersheet provided.
c) Answer all the questions.
d) All questions carry equal marks
e) Passwords should not be used while saving your work.
f) All answers must be saved in CD-RW.
g) Make a printout of the answers on the answersheet provided.
h) Arrange your printouts and staple them together.
i) Hand in all the printout and the CD-RW
j) This paper consists of 4 printed pages.
k) Do not remove any pages from this booklet.
l) Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

1|Page
1. a) Open a word processor application and create the following document as it appears.
Save it as Mwangaza 1. (15 marks)
MWANAGAZA INSTITUTE,
P.O BOX 2345,
KISUMU.
TO <<TITLE>> <<NAME>>
<<ADDRESS>>
<<TOWN>>
<<PHONE NUMBER>>
DEAR <<Title>><<NAME>>

REF:COMPREHENSIVE GUIDE FOR BEGINNERS

You are notified to attend the above classes on <<date>>. Natural Language Processing (NLP)
stands as a pivotal technology in the realm of artificial intelligence, bridging the gap between
human communication and computer understanding. It is a multidisciplinary domain that
empowers computers to interpret, analyze, and generate human language, enabling seamless
interaction between humans and machines. The significance of NLP is evident in its widespread
applications, ranging from automated customer support to real-time language translation.
The table below shows the fee structure per session

Natural language processing tutorials

Amount per area in ksh
Lesson Time Area1 Area 2 Area 3
One 8.00 3400 4500 5700
Two 11.00 5500 5000 6000
Three 2.00 3200 2500 5300
. Here are some emerging trends and future developments in NLP to learn:

• Transfer learning. The application of transfer learning in NLP allows models to apply
knowledge learned from one task to another, improving efficiency and learning capability.
• Multimodal NLP. Integrating NLP with visual and auditory inputs will lead to the development
of more versatile and comprehensive models capable of multimodal understanding.

2|Page
• Real-time processing. Advancements in NLP will enable real-time language processing,
allowing for more dynamic and interactive applications.
• Ethical and responsible AI. The focus on ethical considerations and responsible AI will shape
the development of NLP models, ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability.
Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a branch of artificial intelligence that focuses on the
interaction between computers and humans through natural language. The objective is to
program computers to process and analyze large amounts of natural language data.

Yours in service

Mr. John Kamau

b) Spell check your document (1 mark)

c) i) Apply an in margin drop cap to the first letter of the first paragraph “ You are notified…”
with a spacing of 0.5” and line drop of 3 lines (2 marks)

ii) Copy the last paragraph and place it before the words “The table below….” (1 mark)

iii) Create two columns on the first paragraph and a line in between (2 marks)

d) i) insert a caption “Fee structure” below the table (1 mark)

ii) Format the label headings starting from lesson to area 3 to 900 and strikethrough
(2 marks)

iii) Using an appropriate function, calculate the total fee to be paid in lesson one (2 marks)

iv) Calculate the total fee paid in area 3 (2 marks)

e) Design the logo as it appears then place it at the top center of the application (8 marks)

MWANGAZA

N.L.P
3|Page
f)i) Insert page numbers of format x of y at the bottom of each page of the document (1 mark)

ii) Insert header as your full names and footer as you class and adm no (2 marks)

g) Save your document as Mwangaza 2 (1 mark)

h) i) Mwangaza institute intends to mail merge this document. Using the table below, create a
data source and save it as addresses (6 marks)

Title Name Address Town Phone date

number
Mr Andandi Box 10 Nyamira 011234323 25/4/2024
Dr Omondi Box 123 Kisumu 0711232323 28/4/2024
Pst Njuguna Box 324 Nyeri 0734326786 30/4/2024
Mrs Angela Box 564 Mombasa 0232456781 02/5/2024
Prf. kibet Box 876 Eldoret 0111235891 08/5/2024

ii) Merge the document Mwangaza 2 and Addreses and save it as trainees (2 marks)

i) Print Mwangaza 2 document and the Pst Njuguna’s document (2 marks)

4|Page
2. The table below shows records of fee payment kept by MOKASA UNIVERSITY accounts
department in the year 2023.
(a) (i) Open a database program and create a database named MOKASA FEES.
(b) Create the tables named Student details and fee payment in the database in (a)(i) above
using the given data types. (9 marks)
Student details

Book details

(c) Set the primary key for each table. (2 marks)

(d) Create the relationship among the tables and enforce referential integrity (2 marks)
(e) Enter the data in the respective table above. (15 marks)

5|Page
Student details

Fee payment details

(f) Create two forms named, student detail and fee payment form from the tables above.
(2 marks)
(g) Create a query that would display the following fields:
(i) Student ID, name,gender, town, faculty and age by end of year 2024. Save the
query as AgeQuery. (3 marks)

(ii) Name, gender, faculty, receipt No, town and amount paid whose name end with
letter "i".
I. Compute total amount of fees collected.
6|Page
II. Save the query as TFee Query. (3 marks)
(iii) Student ID, name, gender, receipt No, and amount paid.
(I) Compute fee balance. (Given that total fee payeable is Ksh. 100,000).
(II) Display students whose fee balance is Ksh. 50,000 and above.
(III) Save the query as BalQuery. (4 marks)

(g)Create a pie chart based on the query in b(iii) above to display students names and their
respective fee balances. (3 marks)

(h)Create a report to display Student ID, name, gender, town, faculty, amount paid, balance and
receipt number. (3 marks)

I. Group records per faculty.

II. Compute total fees paid and balances per faculty.
III. Compute the grand totals
(ii) Modify the report to appear as follows:
I. To have a report tile “Mokasa Fee Balances 2023”
II. Underline the report title.
III. Save the report as “FeeBal Report” (3 marks)

(i)Print out later each of the following: (4 marks)

• Tables: Fee payment table

• Queries: Bal_Query
• Report: Fee_Bal Report
• Chart

7|Page
NAME……………..………………………………… INDEX NO……........……….……………..…..

SCHOOL…………………………………………… CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE…….…............

DATE………..…………………………...

313/1
CRE
PAPER 1
JULY 2024
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

TERM 2 EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and index number in the space provided above.
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions.
• All answers must be written in the spaces provided.
• Use a blue biro pen to write your answers

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

TOTAL MARKS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6

Marks
1. (a) Outline six ways in which the study of CRE promotes the goal of international
consciousness. (6mks)

(b) Give seven reasons why the Bible is considered as the word of God. (7mks)

2. (a) Describe the making of the Sinai covenant (Exodus 24:1-8) (8mks)

(b) Give six reasons why Moses was not willing to go back to Egypt at the time of his call.
(6mks)

3. (a) Highlight seven roles of judges in Israel (7mks)

(b) Explain seven factors that led to the spread of idolatry in Israel during the time of Elijah
(7mks)

4. (a) Identify seven characteristics of false prophets in the Old Testament (7mks)

(b) Outline the concept of the day of the Lord according to the Israelites (6mks)

5. (a) Outline the message of prophet Jeremiah in his letter to the exiles (7mks).

(b) Identify six temple reforms carried out by Nehemiah to restore the worship of God in Judah.
(6mks)

6. (a) State the importance of kinship ties in Traditional African Societies. (7mks).

(b) Give seven responsibilities of priests in Traditional African Communities. (7mks).

(c) Identify six moral values promoted during the death rite in Traditional African Societies.
(6mks)
NAME…………………………………………….ADM NO …………….CLASS……...DATE……

TERM 2 JOINT EVALUATION EXAMINATION

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
TIME: 2½HOURS

JULY 2024
INSTRUCTIONS:

1. There are six questions in this paper answer any five questions.
2. Each student must verify that all pages and questions are present in the paper.
3. All answers must be in the answer sheets provided.
4. All answers must be in English.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

SCORE
1. (a) Outline Nathan’s prophecy about the coming of the Messiah in 2nd Samuel 7:3-17. (7 marks)
(b) State what angel Gabriel said about Jesus during the annunciation of His birth. (7 marks)
(c) List virtues that Christians acquire while celebrating the birth of Jesus. (6 marks)

2. (a) Give seven reasons why Jesus used parables in His teachings. (7 marks)
(b) Describe the raising of the widows son at Nain Luke 7:11-17. (8 marks)
(c) Give five reasons why Christians should ask for forgiveness from God. (5 marks)

3. (a) Identify seven reasons why Jesus used parables in His teachings. (7marks)
(b) Describe the incident when Jesus healed the ten lepers in Luke 17:11-19. (7marks)
(c) State the reasons why the resurrection of Jesus important to Christians. (6marks)

4. (a) Identify ways in which the life of Peter was transformed on the day of Pentecost. (7marks)
(b) Outline the teachings of St. Paul on the unity of believers as expressed in the image of the body of Christ.
(6marks)
(c)State seven ways in which Christians identify those who possess the gift of the Holy Spirit. (7marks)

5. (a) Identify eight problems faced by a family living with a person suffering from H.I.V /A.I.D.S (8marks).
(b) Outline the role of a Christian during a strike in the place of work. (6marks).
(c) State six rules that govern participants during leisure in traditional African societies. (6marks).

6. (a) Mention seven ways of acquiring wealth in traditional African societies. (7marks).
(b)Identify seven ways in which the introduction of money economy has changed the traditional African concept of
bride wealth. (7marks).
(c).Give six reasons why some Christians find it difficult to share their wealth with other. (5marks).
Name………………………………………………………… Adm.………… Class….........

Index Number………………………………….

Candidate’s Signature…………………………

Date……………………………………………..
101/3
ENGLISH
Paper 3
(Creative Composition and Essays Based on Set Texts)
JULY, 2024
Time 2 ½ Hours
TERM 2, 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
101/3 ENGLISH
Time: 2 ½ Hours
Instructions to students
• Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
• Question 1 and 2 are compulsory
• In question 3 choose the set text you have prepared on.
• None of your composition should exceed 450 words.
• Candidates must answer all questions in English
For examiner’s use only
Question Maximum Student’s Examiner’s
Score Score initials
1 20

2 20

3 20

Total 60

©2024, English Paper 3 , 101/3 1

Answer three questions only
1. Imaginative composition. (Compulsory) (20 marks)

Either

a) Write a composition ending with the following words: …..The events of that
day will remain etched in my mind forever.

b) Discuss how young people can use their talent for personal development.

2. Compulsory set text. (20 marks)

John Lara, The Samaritan
In life, one must stand for something in order to gain something. Write an essay to
validate this statement with close reference to Nicole in John Lara’s The
Samaritan.

3. Optional Set Text. (20 marks)

a) “Many individuals struggle with ghosts from their past.” Write a composition
with clear illustrations from the short story Ghosts by Chimamanda Adichie to
validate this statement.

©2023 Mokasa II, English Paper 3, 101/3 2

312/1
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 1
JULY, 2024
Time 2 hours 45 min.

TERM 1 JOINT EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
312/1
Paper 1
GEOGRAPHY

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
• This paper has two sections A and B
• Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer questions 6 and any other
TWO questions.

SECTION A: 25 MARKS
Answer ALL questions in this section
1. (a) Identify two divisions of physical Geography. (2 marks)
(b) Give three forces responsible for the geoid shape of the earth. (3 marks)
2. (a) A part from dew, name two other forms of precipitation. (2 marks)
(b) State three conditions necessary for formation of dew. (3 marks)
3. (a) Define faulting. (2 marks)
(b) Apart from the Rift Valley, list three other features formed due to faulting.
(3 marks)
4. (a) State three conditions necessary for the formation of a beach. (3 marks)
(b) Identify two features associated with emerged highland coasts. (2 marks)
5. (a) What is leaching? (2 marks)
(b) Describe podsolization process of leaching. (3 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section.

6. Study the map of Mumias (1:50 000) provided and answer the following questions.
(a) (i) Identify two types of scales used on the map extract. (2 marks)
(ii) Measure the length of the Dry Weather Road C532 from the junction at
grid square 6434 to the edge of the map to Likonga. Give your answer in
kilometres. (2 marks)
(iii) Give three physical features found at grid square 5829. (3 marks)
(iv) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map.
(2 marks)
(b) Draw a rectangle 14cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by Eastings 50
and 64 and Northings 30 and 40. On it mark and name; (1 mark)

• River Nzoia (1 mark)

• Papyrus swamp (1 mark)
• All Weather Road Loose Surface C528. (1 mark)
(c) (i) Citing evidence from the map, give four social services provided in
Mumias town. (4 marks)
(ii) Name two districts found in the area covered by the map. (2 marks)
(d) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (6 marks)
7. (a) (i) Describe the following characteristics of minerals. (2 marks)

• Colour
• Cleavage
(ii) Name three examples of volcanic rocks. (3 marks)
(iii) State three characteristics of sedimentary rocks. (3 marks)
(b) Describe the formation of mechanically formed sedimentary rocks.
(5 marks)
(c) Explain significance of rocks under the following subheadings:
(i) Crop farming. (2 marks)
(ii) Energy (2 marks)
(iii) Industries (2 marks)
(d) Your class is planning to carry out field study of rocks around your school
compound.
(i) Give two methods you would use to collect data. (2 marks)
(ii) State four follow-up activities you will carry out after the field study.
(4 marks)
8. (a) (i) Define folding. (2 marks)
(ii) State three factors that determine the folding of crustal rocks.
(3 marks)
(b) (i) Apart from fold mountains, give three other features formed due to
folding. (3 marks)
(ii) With the aid of well labelled diagrams, describe the formation of fold
mountains. (8 marks)
(c) (i) Give three fold mountain building period. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain three effects of fold mountains on climate of a place.
(6 marks)
9. (a) (i) What is river catchment? (2 marks)
(ii) State four conditions which lead to the rejuvenation of a river.
(4 marks)
(b) Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify the type of delta shown above. (1 mark)

(ii) Name the features marked R and S. (2 marks)
(iii) State four conditions necessary for the formation of a delta.
(4 marks)
(c) Describe each of the following drainage features;
(i) Superimposed drainage system. (4 marks)
(ii) Centripetal drainage pattern. (2 marks)
(d) Describe the process by which a river transports its load. (6 marks)
10. (a) (i) Define the term weathering. (2 marks)
(ii) Give three mechanical processes of weathering. (3 marks)
(b) Identify four methods involved in chemical weathering. (4 marks)
(c) Explain how biological weathering takes place through the following.
(i) Action of plants (4 marks)
(ii) Action of animals (4 marks)
(d) Explain four significance of weathering to human activities. (8 marks)
1

311/1 NAME: _______________________

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT CLASS: ______ ADM. NO: _______
PAPER 1 INDEX. NO: __________________
JULY 2024 FOR EXAMINERS USE
SECTION QN MAX SCORE
TIME: 2½ hours
A 1-17 25
(25 Marks)
18 15

B 19 15
TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION (45 Marks) 20 15
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education 21 15
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT 22 15
Paper 1 C 23 15
(30 Marks)
24 15

GRAND TOTAL 100%

Instructions to Candidates
(a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

(b) Answer all questions in section A, three from Section B and two from Section C.

(d) This paper consists of three printed pages

(e) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as

indicated and no questions are missing

(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English

Section A (25 marks)

Answer all questions in this section

1. State the branch of history that deals with the cultural activities of man. (1 mark)

2. State any two sub-tribes of the Ameru. (2 marks)

3. Give one social function of the Orkoiyot among the Nandi in the 19th century.
(1 mark)
4. Give two ways in which the translation of the Bible into vernacular languages facilitated
the spread of Christianity. (2 marks)
5. State two circumstances under which the right to movement of a Kenyan citizen may be
taken away. (2 marks)
6. Give one way in which corruption undermines national unity in Kenya. (1 mark)

7. Why was the independence constitution of 1962 referred to as “majimbo” constitution?

(1 mark)
8. State two characteristics of human rights in Kenya. (2 marks)

9. Give two ways in which Kenyan communities responded to British establishment of

colonial rule. (2 marks)

10. Identify one education commission established in Kenya before independence.

(1 mark)
11. Identify two features of early political organizations in Kenya. (2 marks)

12. State one social contribution of Daniel arap Moi in Kenya’s development. (1 mark)

13. Identify two types of bills in Kenya. (2 marks)

14. State one aim of Harambee philosophy in Kenya. (1 mark)

15. What is multiparty democracy? (1 mark)

16. State one principle of Devolved Government in Kenya. (1 mark)

17. Give two examples of indirect taxes. (2 marks)

Section B (45 marks)

Answer any three questions from this section

18. (a) Give five ways in which the Cushites interacted with the Agikuyu during the pre-
colonial period. (5 marks)

(b) Describe the social organization of the Borana during the pre-colonial period
(10 marks)

19. (a) State five factors that promoted the development of plantation agriculture at the
East African Coast. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five factors that hindered the work of early Christian missionaries in
Kenya. (10 marks)

20. (a) Identify five recommendations of the Devonshire White Paper of 1923.
(5 marks)

(b) Explain five reasons why settler farming was encouraged in Kenya during the
colonial period. (10 marks)

21. (a) State five features of African Socialism in Kenya. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five social impacts of National Philosophies in Kenya since

independence. (10 marks)

Section C (30 marks)

Answer any two questions from this section

22. (a) Give three reasons that can make a registered person to lose citizenship in Kenya
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six rights of an arrested person in Kenya. (12 marks)

23. (a) Identify three circumstances that may make the deputy president assume
presidency in Kenya. (3 marks)

(b) Explain six reasons why parliament is regarded as supreme in Kenya.

(12 marks)
24. (a) Outline the composition of the County Executive Committee in Kenya.
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six functions of County Governments in Kenya. (12 marks)
1

311/2 NAME:
_______________________
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT CLASS: ______ ADM. NO: _______
PAPER 2 INDEX. NO: __________________
JULY 2024 FOR EXAMINERS USE
SECTION QN MAX SCORE
TIME: 2½ hours
A 1-17 25
(25 Marks)
18 15

B 19 15
TERM 1 JOINT EXAMINATION (45 Marks) 20 15
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education 21 15
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT 22 15
Paper 2 C 23 15
(30 Marks)
24 15

GRAND TOTAL 100%

Instructions to Candidates
(a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

(b) Answer all questions in section A, three from Section B and two from Section C.

(d) This paper consists of three printed pages

(e) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as

indicated and no questions are missing

(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English

Section A (25 marks)

Answer all questions in this section
1. Identify two periods in the study of history. (2 marks)

2. Give one way in which archaeologists obtain information on the history and government.
(1 mark)
3. Give two reasons why upright posture was an important development during the
evolution of man. (2 marks)
4. Give one stage in the development of tools by early man. (1 mark)

5. Apart from tool making, identify two other early industries of man. (2 marks)

6. Identify two early urban centres that developed due to early agriculture in Mesopotamia.
(2 marks)
7. What was the main reason why early agriculture developed in Egypt? (1 mark)

8. Identify the main item of trade from North Africa during the Trans-Saharan trade
(1 mark)
9. Name two examples of early water vessels to be used for transport. (2 marks)

10. Identify the main advantage of air transport. (1 mark)

11. Give two sources of energy during the industrial revolution. (2 marks)

12. Identify the main reason which led to the development of Meroe as an early urban centre
in Africa. (1 mark)
13. Give the name of the traditional religion of the Baganda. (1 mark)

14. Identify two terms of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885. (2 marks)

15. Identify the Chartered Company used by Europeans to administer Tanganyika.

(1 mark)
16. Name the political party that secured independence of Ghana. (1 mark)

17. Identify two military alliances formed during the First World War. (2 marks)

Section B (45 marks)

Answer any three questions from this section

18. (a) Give five ways in which Homo Erectus improved his way of life. (5 marks)

(b) Describe five aspects of the culture of early man during the Middle Stone Age
period. (10 marks)

19. (a) Give five traditional forms of communication. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five impacts of the print media. (10 marks)

20. (a) Give five factors which were responsible for the emergence of ancient city of
Cairo. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five challenges facing London as an early urban centre in Europe.
(10 marks)

21. (a) Outline five roles played by Kwame Nkrumah during the struggle for
independence in Ghana. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five reasons for slow decolonization of Mozambique. (10 marks)

Section C (30 marks)

Answer any two questions from this section

22. (a) State three military wings among the Asante Empire. (3 marks)

(b) Describe the political organization of the Asante during the pre-colonial period.
(12 marks)
23. (a) Name three countries in West Africa that were colonized by the British.
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six factors that led to the failure of Assimilation policy in Senegal.
(12 marks)
24. (a) Give three reasons why the United States of America (USA) did not join the
First World War up to 1917. (3 marks)

(b) Discuss six terms of the Versailles treaty of 1919. (12 marks)
Name…………………………………………………………Admno…………………………….
Class……..……………………………………………………..Date …………………………….
HOME SCIENCE 441/1
PAPER 1(THEORY)
JULY 2024
21/2 HOURS

TERM 2 JOINT EVALUATION EXAM

Kenya certificate of secondary examination
Instructions to candidates

a) Write your name and admission no in the spaces provided.

b) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two from section C.

c) Answers to all questions must be written in the spaces provided.

For examiners use only.

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score

A 1-40 40

B 41 20

C 42-44 40

Total score 100

SECTION A :40(MARKS)

1|Page
Attempt ALL questions in this section. Write answers in the spaces provided.

1. Define boiling as used in cooking. (1mk)

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2. Mention two reasons as to why frozen foods should be thawed completely before cooking.
(1mk)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3. What is the cause of marasmus deficiency disease? (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4. Name the two forms of malnutrition. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5. State two categories of people who may need packed meals. (1mk)

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2|Page
6. Unhygienic handling of food and kitchen equipment leads to symptoms of infections. List

two such symptoms. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

7. List two uses of nuts in cake making. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

8. Give two examples of agents introduced to flour to make it light. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

9. Highlight two importance safe parenthood guarantees. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

10. Name two effects of nutrient deficiency to the foetus. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

11. Mention two vaccines administered to children at the age of 9 months. (1mk)

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3|Page
12. What is the cause of breast engorgements? (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

13. Outline two needs of the patient that must be met to enhance their healing process. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

14. State two causes of foreign bodies in the (ear). (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

15. Apart from protection, give two other importance of a house to a family. (1mk)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

16. Outline two uses of wood ash in the home. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

17. Give two qualities of good artificial light. (1mk)

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4|Page
18. List two examples of lighting fixtures. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

19. Mention two reasons of separating clothes during laundry processes. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

20. Name two stain removal agents for banana sap stain. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

21. Highlight two negative effects of advertisements to a consumer. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

22. Differentiate between goods and services. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

23. Highlight two advantages of credit cards. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5|Page
24. Name two examples of fixed expenses in budgeting (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

25. A consumer considers the overall appearance of a sofa set when purchasing, what does it
involve majorly. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

26. Outline two importance of managing fullness in garment construction. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

27. Highlight two uses of fastenings. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

28. List two factors that determine width of a hem on a garment. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

29. Name three examples of garments elasticating can be applied. (1mk)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

6|Page
30. Mention the two types of darts. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

31. Give the other two names of a seam line. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

32. List two measurements taken across the body. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

33. State two instances of using double stitched seam. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

34. Name two seams whose seam turnings are trimmed to 1 cm during neatening. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

35. Define the term seam. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

7|Page
36. Outline two uses of embroidery scissors. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

37. Name the two categories of essential sewing tools and equipment. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

38. State two remedies of missing stiches. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

39. Highlight two further grouping of permanent stitches according to their functions. (1mk)

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

40. Differentiate between cutting line and grain line diagrammatically. (1mk)

a) Cutting line

b) Grain line

8|Page
SECTION B

41. You have visited your sister over weekend and she asked you to assist in thorough cleaning
of her baby`s personal items.
a) Soiled baby’s napkin (9mks)
b) Plastic Basin (4mks)
c) Making baby`s cot. (7mks)

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9|Page
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10 | P a g e
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11 | P a g e
SECTION C (40MARKS)

42.
a) Explain the function of the following ingredients used in yeast mixtures. (4mks)
i. Salt
ii. Flour
iii. Sugar
iv. Fat

b) Apart from ash describe four ways of improvising abrasives used for cleaning in the
kitchen (4mks)

c) State four importance of budgeting to a consumer. (4mks)

d) Discuss the method of working double stitched seam. (4mks)

e) State four factors that affect normal foetal development (4mks)

43.
a) Explain four hygiene practices that should be observed by food handlers. (4mks)

b) Differentiate the two groups of detergents used in laundry. (4mks)

c) Briefly discuss the four sources of information for the consumer. (4mks)
d) State four disadvantages of supplementary feeding. (4mks)
e) Describe the procedure of threading a sewing machine. (4mks)

44.
a) Highlight the four changes that occurs on the bodies of elderly persons that affect
their meal planning. (4mks)
b) State four points on the choice of indoor drying rack. (4mks)
c) Highlight four factors that prevent the mother from breastfeeding (4mks)
d) State four roles of advertisement to public. (4mks)
e) Describe how to make an inverted pleat to include the final diagram in readiness for
attachment. (4mks)

12 | P a g e
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13 | P a g e
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14 | P a g e
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15 | P a g e
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16 | P a g e
17 | P a g e
Name:…………………………………………………..AdmNo;………………IndexNo:………

Candidate`s Sign: ………..... Class ……………………

441/3
HOMESCIENCE
FOOD AND NUTRITION
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
JULY- 2024
Time: 30 minutes

TERM 2 JOINT EXAMINATION

Kenya certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
441/3
Home science
Paper 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Fill in your details in the spaces provided above

• Read the test carefully
• Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials
• You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning
session
• Previously written plans are not allowed into the examination room
• You are not allowed to bring additional notes during the practical session

This paper consists of two printed pages candidates should check the question paper to ensure
that all pages are printed.
THE TEST
Your teenage friend is paying you a visit. Using the ingredients listed below;
Plan, prepare, cook and serve a two course lunch for both of you.
Ingredients
Rice / Irish potatoes
Oil / Cooking fat
Beef
Capsicum
Kales / Cabbage
Beef masala
Sugar
Tomatoes
Salt
Onions
Coriander leaves
A fruit in season
PLANNING SESSION- 30 MINUTES

Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and carbon paper to make duplicate
copies. Then proceed as follows; -

1. Identify the food items and write down their recipes.

2. Write down your order of work.

3. Make a list of foodstuffs, materials and equipment you will require.

END
Jina ………………………………………………… Nambari ya usajili: ………..……….
Mkondo………...…Sahihi…………. Tarehe: …………
102/2
KISWAHILI
Karatasi ya 1
Insha
JULAI, 2024
Saa : 2 ¾ hours

MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA PILI

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
KISWAHILI
Karatasi ya 1
102/2
MAAGIZO:
a) Andika jina lako na nambari ya usajili kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa
hapo juu.
c) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
d) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
g) Insha zote sharti ziandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa kwenye kijitabu hiki.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE
SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 20
20
40
JUMLA
1. Lazima
Wewe ni kiranja mkuu katika Shule ya Upili ya Utubora. Umepewa fursa ya kuwahutubia
wageni mashuhuri Pamoja na wanafunzi katika hafla iliyofanyika shuleni kuhusu nafasi
ya vipakatalishi katika asasi ya elimu. Andika hotuba yako. (alama 20)
2. Wanafunzi ndio wa kulaumiwa kwa matokeo duni yanayoshihudiwa katika mitihani ya
kitaifa. Jadili. (alama 20)
3. Andika kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali: (alama 20)
Mchuma janga hula na wa kwao.
4. Andika kisa kitakachomalizika kwa kauli ifuatayo: (alama 20)
… Baada ya kusombwa na kuwekwa ndani ya karandinga lile, nilijirudi nafsini dhidi ya
kupapia safari nisiyofahamu kipaji wala kisogo chake.
MTIHANI WA MWIGO 2024
102/2
Karatasi ya 2
KISWAHILI
LUGHA

JULAI 2024 – Muda: Saa 2 ½

Jina: ................................................................................................................. Nambari ya Mtahiniwa .................

Sahihi ya Mtahiniwa ..................................................... Darasa .............................................

Maagizo

(a) Andika jina lako na namba yako ya usajili katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike darasa lako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali yote.
(d) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
(e) Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(f) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.
(g) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 11 zilizopigwa chapa.
(h) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE: -

Swali Upeo Alama

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

JUMLA 80

1
1. UFAHAMU

Ratiba ya siku hiyo ilipokuwa ikiendelea,machozi yalimlengalenga Ghamu hata akawa na

ukungu mbeleni mwake asiweze kuona mbele. Kilichomtia huzuni zaidi ni usuhuba wake wa
karibu na Zawadi. Alianza kukumbuka maisha yao ya awali na Zawadi. Alikumbuka walipoanza
pamoja masomo katika shule ya chekechea. Walitembea hatua kwa hatua masomoni. Walikwea
vidato vya masomo pamoja. Walikuwa marafiki wa kufa kuzikana. Urafiki wao ulikuwa ule
ambao mmoja akijikwaa mwingine anahisi uchungu. Zawadi na Ghamu walipendana kwa kweli.

Ghamu alikumbuka walipofanya mtihani wao wa kuhitimu katika shule ya msingi. Ilikuwa sadfa
kwao kwani matokeo yalipotangazwa walijipata katika shule moja ya upili. Fauka ya hayo,
hatimaye, walijiunga katika chuo kikuu kimoja na kuishia kufanya kozi moja. Sasa Ghamu
anaghubikwa na huzuni zaidi anapokumbuka hayo yote.

" Pandeni gari hili la kifahari twende zetu. Hii ni bahati yenu. Bahati huja tu mara moja. Pandeni
gari warembo. Kwa nini wasichana warembo kama nyinyi wapigwe na jua. " Ghamu alikumbuka
maneno ya mzee yule aliyejitambulisha kama Mzito. Zawadi alikuwa ameketi na rafikiye,
Ghamu, kwenye bustani ya Hewa. Ilikuwa mazoea yao kuenda kupunga hewa katika mazingira
hayo wikendi. Mzee mmoja alishusha kioo cha gari lake aina ya Mercedes Benz. Gari hilo
lilikuwa jipya kabisa. Zawadi na Ghamu walidinda kuingia ila mzee yule wa umri wa miaka
kama sabini hivi alisema. Alikuwa na upara na mvi kwenye sehemu ndogo ya kichwa
kilichokuwa na nywele.

Mzee yule alizidi kujaribu kuwashawishi mabinti hawa. Ushawishi wa Mzito ulifua dafu Zawadi
alipomwashiria Ghamu waingie garini. Hii ni baada ya mzee kuwaahidi kuwapeleka hoteli ya
kifahari wale na kunywa. Ghamu alishangazwa na uamuzi wa Zawadi. Alijaribu kumshauri
asiingie kwenye gari hilo lakini Zawadi alitia sikio nta. Hatimaye, Ghamu alikataa katakata na
Zawadi akaingia kwenye gari lile. Zawadi alipungia mkono na kumwambia, " ishi kwa ufukara
wako, mimi sasa ninauaga.

Tangu siku hiyo, maisha ya Zawadi ilibadilika. Alipangiwa jumba la kifahari jijini. Akanunuliwa
nguo mpya za kifahari. Kila siku alivalia nguo mpya alipoingia darasani. Si sketi, si suruali
ndefu, si viatu. Alijitia vipodozi ainati. Alisuka mitindo mbalimbali ya nywele. Alikula katika
hoteli za kifahari. Kila wikendi,hawakwenda tena bustani ya Hewa kama ilivyokuwa ada yao.
2
Alienda visiwa vya Lamu, Kwale, Mombasa na maeneo mengine ya kifahari. Maisha haya
yalimtenga na Ghamu kama mbingu na ardhi. Kila alipomwona Ghamu, Zawadi alimtazama kwa
bezo.

" Unamjua msichana anayeitwa Zawadi? " Ghamu aliambiwa kwa simu. Awali hili lilimtia
kiwewe. Alipojibu kuwa anamjua, alifahamishwa kuwa mwili wake umepatikana kule Mto Yala.
Habari hizo zilisambaa sana katika mitandao ya kijamii hata zikawafikia wazaziwe Zawadi bila
hodi. Huzuni ilitanda. Zawadi alikuwa mtoto wa pekee kwa wazazi wao. Alikuwa nyota yao.

Uchunguzi ulifanywa na kubaini kuwa Zawadi alikuwa ameuawa, viungo vyake vya mwili
kutolea na kupelekwa kusikojulikana. Mzito alidaiwa kuwa alikuwa raia wa nchi nyingine
aliyekuwa Kenya kwa njia isiyokuwa halali. Alikuwa keshatoroka baada ya kutenda unyama ule.

MASWALI

a) Yape masimulizi haya anwani mwafaka. (alama 1)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Zawadi na Ghamu walikuwa marafiki wa dhati. Thibitisha. (alama 2)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Tamaa mbele mauti nyuma. Tetea ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kurejelea kifungu hiki. (alama 4)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
.

d) Eleza kwa hoja tatu kinaya kinachojitokeza katika kifungu hiki. (alama 3)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

e) Eleza jinsi mabadiliko yanavyojitokeza katika masimulizi haya. (alama 2)

f) Fafanua matumizi ya taswira onevu katika kifungu hiki. (alama 1)

g) Eleza maana ya kauli zifuatazo kama zilivyotumiwa na mwandishi : (alama 2)

i) anapoenda mbele ya haki

….………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) aligubikwa

….………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. UFUPISHO
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kasha ujibu maswali.
Kila msanii anacho kifaa chake ambacho anakitumia, ambacho kinakuwa alama ya usanii wake.
Mchoraji anategemea sana kalamu au rangi zake na mchongaji anao ubao au mti wake.
Vivyo hivyo mwanafasihi naye anategemea lugha katika usanii wake. Matumizi ya lugha ni
miongoni mwa mambo muhimu yanayotofautisha kazi ya fasihi na kazi isiyo ya fasihi. Jinsi
ambavyo mwandishi anavyoitumia lugha yake na kiwango cha usanii anachofurahia ndivyo
alama muhimu inayomtofautisha na mwandishi mwingine wa fasihi.

Katika uhakiki wa kazi za fasihi za hivi karibuni, hasa katika Kiswahili, kumekuwa na msisitizo
mkubwa katika maudhui ya kazi hizo au kwa lugha rahisi, ujumbe unaotolewa na mwandishi.

4
Hivyo maswali yanayoulizwa ni kama: Kazi hii ina umuhimu gani katika jamii ya leo?
Inajengaje tabia, mwenendo na mwelekeo wa jamii? Ina maadili gani?

Mara nyingi, wahakiki hawaulizi mwandishi alivyofaulu kisanaa isipokuwa kama jambo la
ziada tu mwishoni. Uhakiki wa namna hii hasa umehusu kazi za fasihi zisizo za ushauri, kwa
sababu imekubalika kwa muda mrefu kuwa mshauri ni lazima aitawale lugha yake vizuri ndipo
aweze kuleta ule mvuto maalum unaotakiwa na kufikia viwango vinavyokubalika katika fani hii.

Haiwezekani kutenganisha maudhui na usanii katika kazi yoyote ile ya fasihi. Ujumbe unaoletwa
katika kazi ya fasihi unaweza kutolewa na mtu mwingine yeyote kwa njia nyingine. Ujumbe huo
unaweza kutolewa kwa njia ya hotuba, vitabu au maongezi ya kawaida.

Katika isimu ya lugha, tunaposema ya kwamba mwanadamu anajua lugha yake, tuna maana
kuwa “amemeza” mfumo wa lugha yake wa matamshi, muundo wa maneno, muundo wa
sentensi na maana zinazokusudiwa. Ujuzi alio nao mwanadamu huyu ni sawa, na ujuzi walionao
wanadamu wengine wa jamii yake wanaozungumza lugha moja. Hivyo tukisema kuwa
mwanadamu aongee lugha. hatuna maana tu ya kule kumeza mfumo wake wa lugha bali ni
uwezo wake wa kuitumia katika mahusiano yake na wanajamii wengine. Katika lugha yoyote ile
kuna mitindo mingi inayotumika kutegemea kile kinachozungumziwa.Hivyo, tunaweza kuwa na
mtindo wa siasa, sheria dini na kadhalika. Pia upo mtindo wa kawaida unaotumika.

Katika mawasiliano ya kila siku ya wanajamii moja, katika mtindo huu, kuna matumizi ya aina
mbalimbali yakihusiana na nyanja tofauti za maisha. Matumizi haya yanaitwa rejesta kwa lugha
ya kitaalam. Rejesta yoyote ile inategemea nani anazungumza nini na nani, wapi kuhusu nini na
kwa sababu gani.

Mtu anayejua lugha yake vizuri, tunategemea aweze kuitumia katika mitindo iliyobadilika na
aweze kujua mazingira anayopaswa kutumia mtindo mmoja badala ya mwingine. Katika
mahusiano ya kawaida, mtumiaji wa lugha anapaswa kujua ni rejesta gani anapaswa kutumia kila
wakati. Mwandishi wa habari lazima awe “amefuzu” katika kuweka haya matumizi tofauti ya
lugha.

5
Mwandishi huyu anatakiwa kuwa mtafiti ili ajue yale matumizi ambayo yeye hana haja nayo
katika mahusiano yake ya kawaida na huyo aweze kuchora jamii yake inayostahili katika kazi
yake. Sababu kubwa ya kumtaka mwanafasihi kuyajua kinaganaga matumizi tofauti ni ule
ukweli kuwa kazi ya fasihi haina mpaka na utumizi wa lugha.
Maswali.
(a) Eleza kwa nini lugha ni kipengele muhimu katika uwasilishaji wa fasihi(maneno 70-80)
(alama 8)
Nakala ya matayarisho
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Nakala safi
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(b) Fupisha aya tatu za mwisho(maneno 75-85) (alama 7)

6
Nakala ya matayarisho
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Nakala safi
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA
(a) Linganua sifa za konsonanti katika neno: ng’ofoa. (alama 3)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Bainisha silabi katika neno lifuatalo: nge (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Bainisha silabi inayowekwa shadda katika maneno yaliyokolezwa wino. (alama 2)
Ala! Barabara iliyokarabatiwa kwa ala za kisasa ina walakini.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7
(d) Ainisha sentensi ifuatayo kwa kuzingatia dhima yake. (alama 1)
Meno yote yameng’oka.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Andika neno lenye muundo ufuatao.
(i) kiambishi kikanushi cha nafsi ya tatu umoja, kikanushi cha wakati uliopita, yambwa,
mzizi, kauli tendea, kauli tenda (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) wingi (ngeli ya U – ZI), mzizi, kiishio (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Tunga sentensi ukitumia kitenzi –cha- katika wakati ujao hali timilifu.(kauli tendewa)
(alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Andika upya sentensi ifuatayo katika kauli ya kutendesha kwa kuzingatia maneno
yaliyopigwa mstari. (alama 2)
Mama alimfanya anawe mikono kwa maji baridi yaliyomfanya aogope.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(h)Tunga sentensi ukitumia nomino kutokana na kitenzi: tafakari. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(i) Eleza jinsi viambishi vilivyopigiwa mstari vilivyotumiwa katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
“Simameni!” mwalimu akaamuru, “ninyi ndinyi wanafunzi waliojikimbiza uwanjani?”
akawauliza.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(j) Kando na herufi ndogo, eleza matumizi mawili ya kiakifishi kilichotumika katika kirai
nomino kifuatacho. (alama 2)
ng’ombe wawili
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8
(k) Andika upya sentensi zifuatazo kulingana na maagizo yaliyo mabanoni.
(i) Mwanafunzi aliyeadhibiwa jana aliiba vitabu vya wenzake. (andika sentensi mbili
sahili kutokana na sentensi hii) (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Ukiadilika utajiepusha na kuwadhulumu wengine. (Iandike sentensi upya ukitumia
vivumishi vya sifa vilivyotokana na vitenzi vilivyokolezwa wino.) (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii) Vile vyenye alisema sikuelewa juu hadi sikusikia. (sahihisha) (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(l) Bainisha yambwa, kiarifu na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 4)
Cheworei alibebewa mizigo kwa punda.
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(m)Changanua kwa njia ya mistari. (alama 3)
Yule mwanariadha aliyepata ajali alipendwa na wengi.
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(n) Ainisha virai katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
Vile viwili vililetwa na mwalimu wa Kiswahili.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(o) Tumia kihusishi cha mtenda katika sentensi. (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9
(p) Eleza maana mbili za sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
Mlango unafungika.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(q) Chakaa ni kwa zeeka. ________________________ ni kwa bahati, ________________ni
kwa linda. (alama 1)
(r) Andika uyakinisho wa sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 1)
Usiponieleza sitakupa.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(s) Tunga sentensi moja kutofautisha maana ya: fuja na vuja. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. ISIMUJAMII
(a) Eleza namna kaida zifuatazo zinaathiri matumizi ya lugha katika jamii.
(alama 4)
(i) tabaka
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) uana
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Ningependa kutoa maoni yangu ya kuunga mkono mswada uliowasilishwa katika kikao
hiki na Mheshimiwa Obongita. Mswada huu, ikiwa utaidhinishwa, utachangia kupunguza
uharibifu wa Ozone Layer, ambao huchangia madhara mengi kwa mwili wa binadamu.
Kumbuka, mheshimiwa spika, katiba yetu, katika kifungu cha 140 ibara ya 5 (a),
inamhakikishia kila raia haki ya kuishi katika mazingira safi. This is a right for every
citizen. Sadakta.
(i) Tambua sajili hii. (alama 1)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10
(ii) Eleza sifa za sajili hii kama zinavyojitokeza katika kifungu hiki. (alama 5)

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11
NAME……………………………………………..INDEX………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………DATE……………………………………..

SMARTFOCUS JOINT EXAMS 2024

Term 2 - 2024
AGRICULTURE
(QUESTION PAPER I)
FORM FOUR
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and index number in the space provided.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided
• This paper consists of three section A, B and C.
• Answer all questions in section A and B.
• Answer any two questions in section C
• All the questions should be answered in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTINS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17-20 20
C 21 20
22 20
23 20
TOTAL 90

1
SECTION A (30MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the space provided.
1. Give four advantages of intensive farming. (2mks)
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2. State four benefits of agroforestry to a maize crop. (2mks)
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3. Name the plant part used for vegetative propagation of each of the following plants.
(i) Sisal (½ mk)
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(ii) Pyrethrum (½ mk)
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(iii) Sweet potatoes (½ mk)
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(iv) Sugar cane (½ mk)
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4. State four cultural ways of controlling couch grass (2mks)
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5. Name three sources of underground water (1½mks)
2
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6. State three causes of blossom end of rot in tomatoes (1½mks)
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7. Give three qualities of a good green manuring plant (1½mks)
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8. State four reasons for practicing minimum tillage. (2mks)
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9. Name four farm records that should be kept by a poultry farmer. (2mks)
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10. Give three ways in which pastures are classified (1½mks)
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11. State four ways in which land reforms can be implemented in Kenya. (2mks)
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3
12. State four factors that determine the stage at which a crop is harvested. (2mks)
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13. Give four beneficial effects of weeds to a farmer. (2mks)
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14. Give four advantages of practicing crop rotation. (2mks)
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15. Name four methods of controlling pests. (2mks)
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16. Distinguish between intensive hedgerow and border planting forms of agroforestry (2mk)
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4
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. The following illustrations show different production function curves in agricultural
economics. Study them and answer the questions which follows;

(a) Identify the production function curves labeled A, B and C

A …………………...………………………………………………………….. (1mk)
B ……………………….……………………………………………………… (1mk)
C. ………………………………………………………………………………. (1mk)
(b) What does the law derived from the production function labeled C state? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)
(i) Which one of the three production functions curves is rare in Agriculture (1mk)

5
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(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (i) above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

18. The table below shows the population and gross domestic products of countries A and B
Country Gross Domestic product Population
(million Ksh) (million)
A 1800 36
B 1200 15

(a) Calculate the per capita income for each country show your working (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………...………….
(b) Which of the two countries is more developed economically (1mk)
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(c) Give a reason for your answer in (b) above (1mk)
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(d) How can agriculture increase the gross domestic product of a country (1mk)
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19. The diagram below illustrate investigation on a property of soil using soil samples labeled J, K
and L.

6
(a) Name the property of soil being investigated (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) What is the relationship between the soil property above and the size of soil particles?
(1mk)
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(c) Which soil sample would be suitable for growing paddy rice? (1mk)
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(d) Give a reason for your answer in (c) above (1mk)
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20. The following is a list of nutrients: copper, calcium, nitrogen, molybdenum, zinc, phosphorus,
carbon, sulphSSSSSur, iron and magnesium. Which of the above nutrients are;
(a) Macro – nutrients (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Micro – nutrient (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Fertilizer elements (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Liming elements (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………….
(e) Primary macro nutrients (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………

7
SECTION C
Answer any two questions in this section in the spaces provided after question.
21.
(a) Explain five functions of a live fence in a farm. (5mks)
(b) Describe various risks and uncertainties in crop farming (10mks)
(c) State five functions of young farmers clubs in Kenya (5mks)
22.
(a) Explain five factors that should be considered in farm planning (10mks)
(b) Explain the different ways in which each of the following environmental factors influence
crop production.
(i) Wind (5mks)
(ii) Temperature (5mks)
23.
(a) Outline the information contained in a purchase order. (5mks)
(b) Describe the harvesting of tea (7mks)
(c) Explain the cultural methods of controlling soil erosion (8mks)

8
MOKASA I EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

121/1 - MATHEMATICS - Paper 1

𝟏
July. 2024 - 𝟐 𝟐 𝑯𝒐𝒖𝒓𝒔
Name………………………………………………...Adm………….. Class........
School……………….…………….Signature………….……Date…………..……
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
(c) Answer ALL questions in section I and ANY five questions in section II.
(d) All answers and workings must be written on the question paper in the spaces
provided below each question.
(e) Show all the steps in your calculation, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces
below each question.
(f) Non – Programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may
be used, except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

Grand Total

1
SECTION I (50 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section

3𝑎 3
1. Find the LCM of 𝑎2 − 𝑎𝑏 − 2𝑏 2 and 𝑎 + 𝑏 Hence simplify −
𝑎2 −𝑎𝑏−2𝑏2 𝑎+𝑏
(3 marks)

2. Use the tables of squares, square roots, reciprocals and cubes to evaluate: (3 marks)
3 30
√((45.54)2 + )
√0.248

𝑥+2 1 3𝑥−4
3. Solve for 𝑦 in the equation = − (4𝑥 + 4) + (3 marks)
−2 4 −2

2
1
4. Solve for 𝑥 in × 2(−3𝑥)2 − 2 = 0 (3 marks)
4

5. Draw the net of a solid consisting of a cube of sides 4 𝑐𝑚 and a pyramid of slanting
height 3.5 𝑐𝑚 at the top. (3 marks)

6. Without using mathematical tables or calculator evaluate: (4 marks)

3 0.4 × 1.28
√
0.0608 + 0.0032

3
7. In a certain committee, the ratio of men and women is 4:3. If 20 men pulled out, the
new ratio of men to women is 2:3. Find the number of the committee members.
(3 marks)

8. The exterior angle of a regular polygon is equal to one third of its corresponding
interior angle. Calculate the sum of interior angles of the polygon. (3 marks)

9. A salesperson is paid commission at a rate of 2% on goods above Ksh 30,000 and 3%

on goods above Ksh 100,000. He is also paid a basic fee of Ksh 2,000 per month on goods
worth 30,000. In the month of January, he sold goods worth Ksh 175,000. Calculate his
earnings that month. (3 marks)

4
10. The masses of two similar cans are 6.4kg and 12,500g respectively. If the total surface
are of the smaller can is 144cm2. Determine the surface area of the larger can.
(3 marks)

4 5
11. Given that 𝑷 = 3𝒂 + 2𝒃 such that 𝒂 = ( ) and 𝒃 = ( ) Find;
1 6
(a) the column vector P (2 marks)

−9
(b) P1 the image of P under translation vector ( ) (1 mark)
3

12. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct a trapezium ABCD in which

AB = 8 cm, AD = 5.5 cm, angle DAB = 52.50, angle ABC = 67.50 and AB is parallel to
DC. Measure the shortest distance between the two parallel sides of the trapezium.

(4 marks)

5
13. Solve the inequality 4𝑥 − 3 ≤ 6𝑥 + 1 < 3𝑥 + 16 and hence represent the solution on
the number line. (3 marks)

2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥𝑦−2𝑦 2
14. Simplify the expression 2 (3 marks)
4𝑥 2− 𝑦

15. A cylindrical container holds 800𝑔 of substance whose density is 0.8𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 . The
container has a height of 15 𝑐𝑚. Find the radius of the container to one decimal place.
(3 marks)

6
16. The figure below shows a quadrilateral ABCD and mirror line EF.

(a) Draw a quadrilateral A’B’C’D’, the image of ABCD, under a reflection in the mirror
EF. (2 marks)

(b) State the type of congruency between ABCD and A’B’C’D’. (1 mark)

7
SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer any FIVE questions in this section

17. (a) A point 𝑄(−1,4) is reflected in the line 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 4. Find the coordinates of 𝑄 ′ the
image of Q. (4 marks)

(b) A translation vector T maps point 𝑅(−4,2) onto 𝑅’(−1, −2). Given that, T maps
triangle ABC onto 𝐴’(−1,2), 𝐵’(2,0) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶’(4,3). Find the vector position of A, B and C
in terms of 𝒊 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝒋. (3 marks)

(c) A point 𝑀(−3,4) is mapped onto 𝑀’(12, −18) under an enlargement scale factor
of −2. By calculation, find the centre of enlargement. (3 marks)

8
18. Four towns P, Q, R and S are such that Q is 162𝑘𝑚 on a bearing of S360 E from P while
Q is 98𝑘𝑚 on a bearing of 0550 from R. Town S is due west of town R and on a bearing
of 2200 from town P.
(a) Using a scale of 1 𝑐𝑚 𝑡𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 20 𝑘𝑚, show the above information in a scale
drawing. (4 marks)

(b) From the scale drawing determine:

(i) The distance, in kilometres, of S and P (2 marks)

(ii) The bearing of P from R. (2 marks)

(c) Determine the perimeter of the map in (a) above. (2 marks)

9
19. A Sacho High School van left Sacho at 7:40 am for MOKASA first setters meeting at
Moi Girls Eldoret travelling at an average speed of 51𝑘𝑚/ℎ. On the same day, Moi High
School Kabarak van left Kabarak for the same meeting travelling at a speed of 75𝑘𝑚/ℎ.
The two vans arrived in Moi Girls Eldoret at the same time.
(a) Given that the distance covered by Sacho Van is 31 𝑘𝑚 less than Kabarak Van and
the total distance covered by the two vans to Moi Girls is 269km.
(i) Calculate the distance covered by each of the van to Moi Girls Eldoret. (4 marks)

(ii) Calculate the time Moi High School Kabarak van left Kabarak. (2 marks)

1
(b) After 5 4 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 from the time of arrival the meeting ended. Moi High School
Kabarak van left for Kabarak at a speed of 80𝑘𝑚/ℎ. After 45 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠, another personal
car left Moi Girls Eldoret for Kabarak and overtook Moi High School Kabarak van at
4: 50 𝑝𝑚. Calculate the speed of the personal car. (4 marks)

10
1 1
20. (a) Given that matrix 𝐴 = ( ) , find A-1 the inverse of A. (2 marks)
3 4

(b) Ogunde is at a café buying drinks for his friends. Some of them want coffee
while others want tea. At this particular café, take away tea and coffee cost
Ksh. 300 and Ksh. 400 respectively. If he buys 7 drinks for a total of Ksh 2,600;
(i) Form simultaneous equations to represent this information. (2 marks)

(ii) Using A-1 in (a) above, solve the simultaneous equations in (i) using matrix
method. (3 marks)

(c) Ogunde later came back to buy 3 cans of tea and 2 cans of coffee at discounted
prices of 10% and 5% respectively. Calculate the total cost of this purchase. (3 marks)

11
21. A straight line 𝐿1 passes through points 𝑃(2,5) and 𝑄(−3,3).
(a) Find the equation of the line 𝐿2 which is perpendicular to the line 𝐿1 and passes
5
through the 𝑥 − 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 of 𝑦 − 2𝑥 − 4 = 0. Giving your answer in the form
2

𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0. (4 marks)

(b) Another line 𝐿3 is parallel to the line 𝐿2 and passes through the point of intersection
of lines 𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 0 and 3𝑥 − 5𝑦 = −3. Find the equation of the 𝐿3 in the form
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐. (4 marks)

12
22. The marks scored in test by 40 students were recorded as follows:
35 85 50 55 45 52 40 73 60 41

71 63 32 67 45 51 66 52 74 53

78 62 47 65 53 56 51 45 48 63

89 35 54 68 45 50 64 37 58 69

(a) Starting with 30 and using a class size of 10, prepare a frequency distribution table
for the data (2 marks)

(b) Using the frequency distribution table in (a) above, calculate the estimate of
(i) the mean mark. (2 marks)

(ii) the median mark. (3 marks)

13
(c) On the same axes, draw the histogram representing the above data (3 marks)

14
23. There is a certain solid used in Sacho High School having a shape of square-based
pyramid frustum whose top is a plane parallel to its base and slant length of 9 𝑐𝑚. Given
that the top square is of side 8 𝑐𝑚 while the base square is of side 12 𝑐𝑚.
(a) Find the surface area of the frustum. (5 marks)

(b) Volume of the material used to make the frustum. (5 marks)

15
24. The figure below shows a quadrilateral PQRS and circle passing through points S and
R. Given that QR is a tangent line to the circle at point R, 𝑃𝑆 = 15 𝑐𝑚, 𝑄𝑆 = 8𝑐𝑚 𝑆𝑅 =
10𝑐𝑚 and 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑃𝑆𝑄 = 500 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑄𝑅 = 640

Find, correct to 4 significant figures:

(a) the length PQ; (3 marks)

(b) the angle QSR; (2 marks)

16
(c) the length of the chord QT; (2 marks)

(d) the area between the chord SR and the arc SR; (3 marks)

17
TERM 2 EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

121/2 - MATHEMATICS - Paper 2

𝟏
JULY. 2024 - 𝟐 𝟐 𝑯𝒐𝒖𝒓𝒔
Name……………………………………………….Adm…………..Class………..
School……………………………..……Signature….……….…Date….…………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
(c)Answer ALL questions in section I and ANY five questions in section II.
(d) All answers and workings must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided
below each question.
(e)Show all the steps in your calculation, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
(f) Non – Programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

Grand Total

Lenovo 1
SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section
2𝑥+𝑦
1. If 6.1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 8.2 and 2.2 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 3.9 find the minimum value of (2 marks)
−𝑦+𝑥

2. Solve for 𝑘 in (log 3 𝑘)2 − log 3 𝑘 0.5 − 1.5 = 0 (3 marks)

2 𝐹
3. Make 𝑡 the subject of the formula in 𝑀 = 3𝑃 √2𝐾−𝑡 (3 marks)

Lenovo 2
4. Three quantities T, X and Y are such that T varies directly as X and inversely as the square
root of Y. Find the percentage change in T if X increases by 5% when Y decreases by 45%
(4 marks)

5. Solve the equation 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 − 1 = 0 , where 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 360 (4 marks)

2 −1
6. The roots of a quadratic equation are and respectively. Express the equation in the
3 5
form 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 where a, b and c are integral values. (3 marks)

Lenovo 3
7. Simplify the expression below by rationalizing the denominator.

2
(2 marks)
2−√3

8. The marked price of a dining set is Ksh 22,800. The hire purchase value of the set is 35%
more than the marked price. Rop bought the dining set by paying a deposit of Ksh 8,580
followed by monthly installments of Ksh 1,850 each. Calculate the monthly rate of interest.
(4 marks)

9. Kamau started working for a company where he earned K₤8,640 per annum during the first
year. He recorded an increment of K₤900 every year. Calculate the total amount he earned in
the first 8 years. (3 marks)

Lenovo 4
10. Points A and B have the coordinates (3, -2, 1) and (4, 1, -3) respectively. Express the column
vector AB in terms of i, j and k. (2 marks)

11. A triangle ABC whose area is 15.3cm2 mapped onto ∆A’B’C’ by transformation whose
3 −2
matrix is M = ( ) find the area of ∆A’B’C’. (2 marks)
−1 2

12. Calculate the mean absolute deviation of the set of data below: (3 marks)
1, 6, 4, 7, 3, 8, 4, 6, 5, 2

Lenovo 5
13. In the figure below the tangent DC meets the chord AB produced at C. 𝐴𝐵 = 4.5𝑐𝑚 and
𝐵𝐶 = 8 𝑐𝑚. Calculate the length of DC. (2 marks)

14. Grade A rice costing Ksh 250 per kg is mixed with Grade B rice costing ksh. 180 per kg. In
what ratio must we mix Grade A to Grade B so that a profit of 20% is realized by selling the
blend at Ksh 240 per kg. (3 marks)

15. Points with coordinates (6, 2) and (-2, - 4) are the ends of a diameter of a circle centre O.
Find the equation of the circle, expressing it in the form 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 where a, b
and c are constants. (4 marks)

Lenovo 6
16. (a) Expand (3 + 𝑥)5 in ascending powers of x up to the term in 𝑥3. (1 mark)

(b) Use the expansion in (a) above to approximate the value of (3.02)5 correct to 4 decimal
places. (3 marks)

Lenovo 7
SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer any FIVE questions in this section
17. (a) Using a ruler and pair of compasses only, construct triangle ABC in which
𝐴𝐵 = 7.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 5.3 𝑐𝑚 and angle 𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 600 . Measure AC (3 marks)

(b) On same side of AB as C, construct the locus of points P such that angle 𝐴𝑃𝐶 = 600 .
(3 marks)
(c) Construct the locus of points R such that 𝑨𝑹 = 3.0 𝑐𝑚. (2 marks)
(d) Mark point T where locus P and locus R intersect. Hence, Construct locus Q equidistant
from line AC and pass through point T. (2 marks)

Lenovo 8
18. The following table show the distribution of masses to the nearest kilogram of 80 animals in
a certain farm.

Mass Kg 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45 46-50 51-55

frequency 12 15 22 18 8 5

(a) On the grid provided, draw a cumulative frequency curve for the given information.
(4 marks)

(b) Using the graph in (a) above, estimate:

(i) the quartile deviation (2 marks)
(ii) the number of animals whose mass is at least 38 kg. (2 marks)
(iii) the range of masses obtained by the middle 60% of the animals. (2 marks)

Lenovo 9
19. The table below show the income tax rates for a certain year.
Taxable income (K£) per annum Rate (Ksh per K£)
1 – 1500 2
1501 – 3000 3
3001 – 4500 5
4501 - 6000 7
6001 – 7500 9
Over 7500 10

During the year, Ken’s monthly income was as follows: Basic Salary Ksh. 12,500, Commuter
allowance Ksh.2,620, House allowance Ksh. 1,500, Hardship allowance 30% of the basic salary.
Ken is entitled to a tax relief of Ksh 1,460 per month. He pays a taxable housing levy which is
1.5% of his basic salary. He also contributes Ksh. 800 monthly towards his pension scheme. This
contribution is exempted from taxation. Calculate:
(a) Ken’s annual taxable income in K£. (2 marks)

(b) The monthly tax payable by Ken in Ksh. (6 marks)

(c) From his salary, the following deductions were also made every month;
NHIF Ksh 500, NSSF Ksh 720, SACCO shares Ksh 1,500. Calculate Ken’s net salary per
month in Ksh. (2 marks)

Lenovo 10
20. A team of 3 form four students are chosen from a group of 12, to represent the school in a
math contest. The students comprise of five girls and seven boys.
(a) Draw a probability tree diagram to represent the possible outcome. (2 marks)

(b) Use the tree diagram above to calculate the:

(i) Probability that all the three students are of the same gender. (2 marks)

(ii) Probability that there is at most two girls. (2 marks)

(iii) Probability that there are more boys than girls. (2 marks)

(iv) Probability that two boys are chosen first before a girl or two girls first before
a boy. (2 marks)

Lenovo 11
21. In the figure below, PQRS is a trapezium, PQ is parallel to SR. Diagonals PR and SQ
1
intersect at X and 𝑷𝑸 = 2 𝑺𝑹, 𝑷𝑸 = 𝒒 and 𝑺𝑷 = 𝒑. Given further that, 𝑷𝑿 = 𝑘𝑷𝑹
and 𝑺𝑿 = ℎ𝑺𝑸 , where ℎ and 𝑘 are constants.
P
Q

S R
(a) Find in terms of 𝒑 and 𝒒, the vectors:
𝑸𝑹 (1 mark)

(b) Find in terms of 𝒑, 𝒒 ℎ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘, the vectors:

(i) 𝑷𝑿 (2 marks)

(ii) 𝐒𝐗 (1 mark)

(c) By expressing 𝐏𝐗 in two ways, determine the values of ℎ and 𝑘. (5 marks)

(d) Hence, state the ratio in which X divides SQ. (1 mark)

Lenovo 12
22. A triangle with vertices at P(-1,1) Q(-4,2) and R(-2,4) is transformed by a matrix
0 −1
𝑇=( ) to a triangle 𝑃𝐼 𝑄 𝐼 𝑅 𝐼 .
1 0
(a) Determine the coordinates of triangle 𝑃𝐼 𝑄 𝐼 𝑅 𝐼 . (2 marks)

(b) On the grid provided, draw the object and the image. (3 marks)
(Use a scale of 1cm to represent 1 unit on the y-axis and the x-axis)

(d) 𝑃𝐼 𝑄 𝐼 𝑅 𝐼 is mapped onto 𝑃𝐼𝐼 𝑄 𝐼𝐼 𝑅 𝐼𝐼 under a shear transformation with 𝑥 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠

invariant and 𝑄 𝐼 is mapped onto 𝑄 𝐼𝐼 (6, −2). Determine the coordinates of 𝑃𝐼𝐼 𝑄 𝐼𝐼 𝑅 𝐼𝐼 hence
draw the triangle 𝑃𝐼𝐼 𝑄 𝐼𝐼 𝑅 𝐼𝐼 on the same grid. (4 marks)

Lenovo 13
23. In the figure below, O1 and O2 are the centres of the smaller circle and bigger circle
respectively. Line 𝐴𝐶 = 𝐵𝐶. XAB is a straight line and RBT is a tangent to the bigger circle at
point B. AD is a diameter of the smaller circle. Angle 𝐴𝐷𝐶 = 1100 and Angle 𝐵𝐶𝐷 = 800 .

Find the values of the following angles, stating reasons in each case:
(a) Angle 𝐴𝑋𝐷 (2 marks)

(b) Angle 𝐴𝐵𝐶 (2 marks)

(c) Angle 𝐴𝐵𝑅 (2 marks)

(d) Angle 𝑋𝐴𝐷 (2 marks)

(e) Angle A𝑂2 B (2 marks)

Lenovo 14
24. (a) Complete the table below for the function 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 4 for −3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2
(2 marks)

x -3 -2 -1 0 1 2
y

(b) On the grid provided, draw a graph of y = x 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 3x − 4 (3 marks)

Use the scale: 1 cm represents 1 unit on both axes

(c) Use the graph to solve the equation:

(i) x 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 3x = 4 (2 marks)

(ii) x 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 5x − 6 = 0 (3 marks)

Lenovo 15
NAME…………………………………….CLASS………ADM……….

SCHOOL………………………………DATE……………SIGN……….

PHYSICS PAPER 1 TIME 2HOURS

TERM 2 EXAMINATION
Instructions to candidates

✓ Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

✓ This paper consists of 16 printed pages
✓ Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided after each question.
✓ ALL working MUST be clearly shown.
✓ Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1-16 80

1
SECTION A.(25mks)
1. List down one precaution to observe in physics laboratory while handling electrical
circuits and equipment. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Give a reason why displacement method is unsuitable for determining the volume of
irregular shaped solid ice. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Give a reason for the random movement of particles suspended in a fluid. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. An oil drop of volume 1.0 x 10-10m3 is placed on a clean water surface. The oil drop
spreads to form a thin film as shown in the figure 1 below. The measuring instrument is a
metre rule.

(a) Determine the area of the oil patch. (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Determine the size of the oil molecule. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

2
5. Explain why a glass container with thick walls is more likely to crack than the one with
thin walls when a hot liquid is poured into them. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. A metal pail feels colder than a plastic pail on a cold morning even though both have the
same temperature. Explain this observation. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Water flows along a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 48cm2 which has a
constriction of cross-sectional area 12cm2 at one place. If the speed of water at the
constriction is 36m/s, Determine the speed in the wider section. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. (a) State the principle of moments. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). A uniform metre rule of mass 180g is pivoted freely at 0cm mark. Determine the
upward vertical force needed to maintain the metre rule horizontally at 60cm mark.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Explain why the handle of the door is usually placed as far as possible from the hinge
……………………………………………………………………………………(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

3
9. (a) Define the centre of gravity of a body. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain why bus-body builders build luggage compartments under the seats rather
than on the roof racks. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. (a) State the Hooke’s law. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b). The diagram below shows three identical springs which obey Hooke’s law.

Determine the length X using the information from the figure 2 above. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4
SECTION B.(55mks)
11. A skydiver jumps out of an aircraft. The figure 3 below shows the two forces acting on
the skydiver.

(a) State what cause forces A and B (2marks)

A …………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………….
(b) The graph shows how her velocity changes before she opens her parachute.

Determine the skydiver’s terminal velocity. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) What is the relationship between the two forces on the skydiver, (2marks)
(i) Before she reaches terminal velocity;

…………………………………………………………………………………………

5
(ii) When she is travelling at terminal velocity?

………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) A bullet is fired horizontally at a velocity of 400m/s from a cliff which is 50m tall as
shown in the figure 5 below.

Figure 4
(i) On the same diagram draw the trajectory of the bullet until it comes to rest.
(1mark)
(ii) Determine the time taken for the bullet to hit the ground. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Determine the range. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..
(iv) The figure below shows the velocity – time graph for the motion of a body.

Figure 5

6
Sketch the speed time graph for the same motion. (2marks)

12. An object of weight 900N is pushed up along an inclined plane of length 20m as shown
below.

If 500 Joules of energy was wasted in this operation, determine;

(i) The work output. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

7
(ii) Efficiency of the machine. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Mechanical advantage. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Effort needed. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
13. (a). Define the term specific latent heat of fusion of a substance. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). The graph below shows a temperature Ɵ(oC) against time, t(s) of 20g of Naphthalene
that was heat to 80oC then cooled to room temperature.

If the rate of heat given out on PQ was at the rate of 30W;

8
(i) State what happens in part PQ. (1mark)

(ii) Use the graph to determine the specific latent heat of fusion of Naphthalene.
(3marks)

14. The graph shows a graph that can be used to verify Charles law. Use the information
provided to answer the questions below.

Figure 8
(a) What is the volume of the air at 0oC? (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The value of 0 K in Celsius scale. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

9
(c) The glass tube in figure 9 below contains air enclosed by a thread of mercury as
shown in a horizontal position at a temperature of 27oC.

Figure 9
The tube is then raised until its positioned vertically upwards with the opened end at
the top, determine the length of the enclosed air in mm when in its new position.
…………………………………………………………………………… (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….
15. (a). State Pascal’s Principle of Transmission of pressure. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The figure 10 below shows a mercury manometer. Some dry gas is trapped in the
closed space in one of the limbs while the other is open. Alongside is mercury barometer

Figure 10
Determine the pressure of the trapped gas given that the density of mercury is
13600kg/m3 in SI units. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..

10
(c) The figure 11 below shows a simple hydraulic used to raise a car.

Figure 11
(i) Determine the pressure exerted by the piston given that F1=120N,
A1= 0.006m2 and A2=0.2m2. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Determine the weight of the car. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) Give one property which make the oil suitable for use in the above machine.
………………………………………………………………………..(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) State what contributes to centripetal force when a bucket full of water is at the top
while being rotated in a vertical circle. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). (i) Distinguish between angular velocity and linear velocity. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

11
(c). A particle moves in a semi-circular path of radius 3.5m with a constant speed of
20m/s as shown in the figure 12 below.

Figure 12

Calculate

(i) Determine the distance moved by the particle from A to B. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The time taken to travel from A to B. (2marks)

(iii). The angular velocity of the particle. (3marks)

(d) State any two applications of uniform circular motion. (2marks)

12
Name:……………………….............................................................ADM:…………… No: Class:…………

232/2
PHYSICS-THEORY
JULY 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS.

TERM 2 EXAMINATION-2024
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
o Write your name and your index number in the spaces provided above.
o This paper consists of two sections A and B
o Answer all questions in section A and B in the space provided
o All working must be shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
o Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used
o This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing

FOR OFFICIAL USE

Section Question Max. score Candidate’s score

A 1-7 25

B 8 09

9 09

10 10

11 06

12 11

13 10

TOTAL SCORE 80

1|Page
SECTION A

1. a) Figure 1 below shows a point object O placed in front of a plane mirror M. Using a ray diagram, locate the
position of the image formed. (3 Marks)

Figure 1

2. A magnetic material is placed in the north-south direction and hammered several times. Using the domain
theory, explain the magnetization process. (3 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Figure 2 below shows a virtual image formed by a concave mirror. Complete the diagram to show the
position of the object. (3 Marks)

Figure 2

2|Page
4. Figure 3 below shows a simple electric bell circuit.

a) Name the parts labelled;

A: ……………………………………………………………………. (1 Mark)
B: ……………………………………………………………………. (1 Mark)
b) State the function of the part labelled Q in the circuit. (1 Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State the effect of the part labelled C being made of steel metal. (1 Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………...………….....…

5. Figure 4 below shows a set up by a student to investigate the properties of sound.

Figure 4

3|Page
a) State and explain the observation made on the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled
to 0°C. (2 Marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

b) An ultrasound signal of wavelength 5 cm and frequency of 0.05 MHz is sent by a ship to the seabed. Determine
the depth of the sea given that the echo is received after 10 seconds. (2 Marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

6. Figure 5 below shows a narrow beam of light incident on the face XY of a glass prism. The refractive index
of the glass is 1.5091.

Figure 5

Use the provided information to answer the following questions.

(i) Determined the critical angle of the glass. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

(ii) On the same diagram, show how the ray will emerge from the prism. (1 mark)

4|Page
(iii) Determine the angle of refraction of the resultant emergent ray. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

7. Consider the table below for some electromagnetic waves.

Radiation Production Detection Application

Radio A: ………………………..………… Aerials B:……………………………….

waves
……………………………………… ………………………………….

Infrared Thermal vibration of atoms of hot C: D:

bodies ………………………… ………………………………….

Fill in the spaces labeled A,B and C. (3 Marks)

5|Page
SECTION B

8. a) Explain how polarization affects the working of a simple cell. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Figure 6 below shows an electric circuit with two switches S1 and S2 and three identical lamps L1, L2 and.L3.

Figure 6
State and explain what will be observed if both switches S1 and S2 are closed simultaneously. (2 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) (i) Apart from length, state one other physical factor that should be kept constant in a copper conductor for
Ohm’s law to hold. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The Figure 7 below shows a resistor network connected to a power supply of 12V. The resistor R1= 5Ω, R2=
2Ω and R3= 3Ω.

Figure 7

6|Page
Determine:
I. the equivalent resistance in the circuit (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II. the reading in the ammeter A. (1 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. the potential difference across the resistor R3. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. (a) Figure 8 below shows a charged electroscope and two aluminum plates A and B.

d
B Earthling

Figure 8

State and explain the observations made on the leaf divergence when plate A is moved closer to B. (2 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7|Page
b) Figure 9 below shows a circuit having the following components: source of E.m.f of 20 V, a voltmeter, three
switches S1, S2 and S3 and two capacitors C1 and C2 of capacitances 13µF and 8µF respectively.

Figure 9

(i) Determine the charge on C1 when switches S2 and S3 are closed while S1 is open. (2 Marks)
....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) After some time, S3 is opened and both S1 and S2 are closed. Find the maximum voltage V recorded by the
voltmeter. (2 Marks)
....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Determine the energy stored in C2. (3 Marks)

....................................................................................................................................................................................

8|Page
10. a) Figure 10 below illustrates waves emanating from two coherent sources S1 and S2.

Figure 10

What would be observed at the central point P if the waves are:

(i) Light waves (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Sound waves (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Define the term diffraction as applied in waves. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Figure 11 below shows water waves moving from a deep to a shallow region.

Figure 11
9|Page
(i) In the same diagram, sketch the wave pattern beyond the barrier. (2 Marks)

(ii) State two changes that will occur to the wave when it moves from the shallow to the deep region if the
frequency is kept constant. (2 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

iii) The distance between the antinode and its nearest node of a stationary wave is 0.08 m. Given that the wave
has a velocity of 10ms-1, determine the frequency of the wave. (2 Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) State one difference between light waves and sound waves in terms of their propagation. (1 Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

11. (a) (i) State one application of a fuse in an electric circuit. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) A kitchen is fitted with a kettle rated 6kW, 240V, select a suitable fuse for use by the appliance if the available
fuses are 35A, 25A, 24A, 26A. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A current of 2A is passed through a circuit connected to an electrical heater. Determine the time taken by the
heater to produce 1000 J of heat if the voltage across the heater is 10 V. (2 Marks)

10 | P a g e
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State one reason why fluorescent tubes are preferred to filament lumps in lighting homes. (1 Marks)
……………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. a) A scientist wanted to determine the focal length of the convex lens of thickness 0.5 cm using an optical pin

and a plane mirror. Figure 12 below shows the set-up of apparatus when there is no parallax between the pin and

the image.

Figure 12

Determine the focal length of the lens. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11 | P a g e
b) A lens forms a focused image on a screen when the distance between the object and the image is 50 cm.

(i) State with a reason the type of the lens used. (2 Marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Determine the object distance. (3 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Figure 13 below shows a human eye with a certain defect.

Figure 13

(i) Identify the defect. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State one cause of the defect. (1 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) On the same diagram, sketch the appropriate lens to correct defect and sketch rays to show the effect of the
lens. (2 Marks)

12 | P a g e
13. a) In figure 14 below, a magnet is made to approach a coil as shown.

Figure 14

It is observed that the galvanometer deflects to one direction and goes back to zero.

Explain the observation made. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Figure 15 below shows a simple illustration of an a.c generator.

Figure 15

13 | P a g e
(i) Indicate on the diagram the direction of the induced current through R when the coil is in the horizontal
position. (1 Mark)

(ii) Give one way of increasing the amount of induced current in the set up. (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) On the axes of Figure 16 below, sketch the output of P.d across R. The coil is initially horizontal. (1 Mark)

Figure 16

d) A transformer has 600 turns in the primary coil and 9000 turns in the secondary coil. The secondary coil is
connected to a 250V mains and the current in it is 0.15A. Determine:

(i) Power in the primary coil if the transformer is 95% efficient. (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Current in the primary coil. (3 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PAGE

14 | P a g e
NAME……………………………………………..INDEX…………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………DATE…………………………………

SMARTFOCUS JOINT EXAMS 2024

AGRICULTURE
(QUESTION PAPER II)
FORM FOUR
TIME: 2½ HOURS

SECTION A: (30 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. Name three meat breeds of sheep. (1½ marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
………………………………………………………………………………..……………………
………………………………………………………
2. List two methods of identifying pigs. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
………………………………………………………………………
3. Differentiate between oestrus cycle and heat period. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
………………………………………………………………………………..……………………
……………………………………………………………………..………………………………
………………………………………

4. State three qualities of marketable eggs. (1½mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
………………………………………………………………………………..……………………
……………………………………………………………………..………………………………
………………………………………
5. Name any four notifiable diseases in livestock. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………….……………
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………
………………………………………………………………..……………………………………
……………………………………………

6. State four factors that affect maintenance ration required by an animal (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………….…………
………………………………………………………………………………..……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………
7. Give a reason why ruminant animals are able to digest grass. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………….………………
…………………………………………………………………….
8. Give the difference in meaning of the following terms as used in livestock health.
(a) Quarantine and Isolation (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………….………………
…………………………………………………………………….………………………………
…………………………………………………….………………………………………………
………………………………….

(b) Zoonotic and notifiable diseases (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………….………………
…………………………………………………………………….………………………………
…………………………………………………….
9. Give four reasons for feeding calves with colostrum. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………
10. Differentiate between cropping and harvesting in fish production.(1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………

11. State four major routes of administering vaccines in day old chicks. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………..………………
……………………………………………………………………..………………………………
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………
…………………………………...…………………………………………………………………
………………..
12. Give two reasons for feeding bees (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………

13. Name the vectors for each of the following livestock diseases. (2 marks)

a) East coast fever……………………………………………………………

b) Rift valley fever…………………………………………………………...
c) Trypanosomiasis……………………………………………………….
d) Nairobi sheep disease…………………………………………………...
14. (a) Name the tools used in ( 2 marks)
(i) Cutting curves on thin wood………………………………………
(ii) Measuring the inner diameter of a circular object/surface…………………..
(iii) Cutting thin sheets of metal……………………………………………………
(iv)Tightening wires during fencing…………………………………………….

b) State Four care and maintenance practices of masonry tools and equipment. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………

15. State two ways in which proper feeding contributes to disease control in livestock. (1
mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………

16. Outline four factors which would be considered when culling layers. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………..………………
……………………………………………………………………..………………………………
……………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………..

17. a. What is parasitism? (½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………

b. Name one parasite of bees. (½ mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………

c. Give any four harmful effects of lice on livestock. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………
18. Name two methods used in ration computation. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

19. Below is a diagram of a bee hive.

a) Identify the type of hive above. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Give t wo advantages of using this type of hive on the farm. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………
c) State two reasons why bees swarm. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………

20. The following diagram illustrate symptoms of a disease in poultry. Study it carefully and
answer the question that follows.
Lesions or
wound

Lesions or
wound

(a) Identify: (i) The disease. (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………

(ii) The causal organism. (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………

(b) State two other symptoms of the disease apart from lesion.(2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………...

(c) State two control measures for the disease. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………………………………………...
21. The illustrations below shows behavior of chicks in a brooder in response to certain
conditions. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A B KEY
REPRESENT CHICKS.

Heat source

C D

(a)Explain the reasons for the behavior of chicks in the above diagrams (4 marks)

A……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
B……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
C……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
D……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
(b) Give two other signs the chick will show other than the ones you have given in( a) above.(1
mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….

22. The diagrams below show some farm tools. Study them and answer the question that
follow.

a) Name the tools. (2 marks)

A………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………
C………………………………………………………………………
W……………………………………………………………………..
b) State the functional differences between tools K and W. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
……………….………………………………
c) What advantage does C have over A and B? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) State one common maintenance practice carried out tool C and

W. (1 mark)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................

SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.

23. a) Describe trypanosomiasis disease under the following sub-headings.

i) Causal organism (1 Mk)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................

ii) Animal attacked (1 Mk)

iii) Symptoms of attacked animals (5 Mks)

iv) Control measures (3 Mks)

b) Describe five control measures for cannibalism in poultry (5 Mks)

............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................

(c) Explain the procedure in establishment of foundation in farm buildings (5mks)

............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................
24. a) State the functions of any six parts of a plunge dip (5mks)
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
..........

b) State five signs of parturition in cattle (5mks)

c) State five maintenance practices of a fish pond (5mks)

d) Explain five factors considered when selecting livestock for breeding (5mks)

25.

11
a) Describe the management of a sow during parturition. (10 marks)
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................

b) Describe the lifecycle of a three host tick. (7 marks)

c) Outline three effects of endo-parasites to the host animals (3mks)

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