Discount Rate NPV (M) NPV (N) : PV Ax K K
Discount Rate NPV (M) NPV (N) : PV Ax K K
Jose
BSBAFM2-1
C. Calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) for each project. For Project M (Annuity)
For Project M (Annuity)
[
PV = Ax 1−
1
(1+k )]/K
28,500=10,000 1−
[ 1
(1+ k)]
n
/K 28,500=10,000 1−
[ 1
(1+ k)]
n
/K
D. Summarize the preferences dictated by each measure you calculated and indicate which project you
would recommend. Explain why.
M N
Payback Period 2.85 yrs 2.65yrs
NVP $640 $1148
IRR 15.086% 16,194%
In terms of Payback Period Project N has lesser Payback Period.Net Present Value both is greater than
zero but project N is larger. IRR Accept Project N because greater than cost of capital Therefore, Project
N has a greater Return of Investment in shorter time than Project M.
GIVEN:
B. Determine the taxes, if any, attributable to the sale of the old equipment
= $55,000 - $8,500 = $46,500
Taxes == $18,600
c. Find the initial investment associated with the proposed equipment replacement.
$75,000
Depreciable value
Problem 3:
A machine currently in use was originally purchased 2 years ago for $40,000. The
machine is
being depreciated under MACRS using a 5-year recovery period; it has 3 years of
usable life
remaining. The current machine can be sold today to net $42,000 after removal and
cleanup
costs. A new machine, using a 3-year MACRS recovery period, can be purchased at a
price of
$140,000. It requires $10,000 to install and has a 3-year usable life. If the new
machine is
acquired, the investment in accounts receivable will be expected to rise by
$10,000, the
inventory investment will increase by $25,000, and accounts payable will increase by
$15,000.
Earnings before depreciation, interest, and taxes are expected to be $70,000 for each of the
next
3 years with the old machine and to be $120,000 in the first year and $130,000 in the second
and
third years with the new machine. At the end of 3 years, the market value of the old machine
will
equal zero, but the new machine could be sold to net $35,000 before taxes. The firm is
subject to
a 40% tax rate.
D. Depict on a time line the relevant cash flows found in parts a, b, and c that are
associated withthe proposed replacement decision, assuming that it is terminated at the
end of year 3.$44,400 Terminal cash flow43,080Operating cash
flow$46,760$61,08087,480Total cash flow
d. Depict on a time line the relevant cash flows found in parts a, b, and c that are associated with
the proposed replacement decision, assuming that it is terminated at the end of year 3.
43,080
$46,760
$61,080
87,480
1
2
$137,120
Problem 4:
TOR most recently sold 100,000 units at $7.50 each; its variable operating costs are $3.00 per
unit, and its fixed operating costs are $250,000. Annual interest charges total $80,000, and the
firm has 8,000 shares of $5 (annual dividend) preferred stock outstanding. It currently has 20,000
shares of common stock outstanding. Assume that the firm is subject to a 40% tax rate.
Given:
FC=250,000
A. At what level of sales (in units) would the firm break even on operations (that is, EBIT $0)?
EBIT = 0FCEBIT = Q x (P - VC) - FC or Q =P−VC250,000Q =7.50−3Q = 55, 555, 56 =55,556 units
B. Calculate the firm's earnings per share (EPS) in tabular form at (1) the current level of salesand
(2) a 120,000-unit sales level.Particulars100,000 units120,000 unitsNo.
units100,000120,000Selling price per unit$7.50$7.50Variable operating costs per
unit$3.0$3.00Contribution per unit$4.50$4.50Total Contribution$450,000$540,000Fixed
operating
cost$450,000$250,000EBIT$200,000$290,000Interest$80,000$80,000EBT$120,000$210,000Tax
40% tax rate$48,000$84,000Net Income before Preferred Dividend$72,000$126,000Preferred
Dividend (8,000*$5)$40,000$40,000Net Income attributed to common stock$32,000$86,000No.
of shares20,00020,000EPS$1.60$4.30 EPS=EAC
C. c. Using the current $750,000 level of sales as a base, calculate the firm's
degree of operating leverage (DOL). At original Sales EBIT = Q(P-VC)FC EBIT
= Q(P-VC)FC 1 2 EBIT = 100,000(7.5-3) - 250,000 EBIT = 750,000(7.5-3) -
250,000 1 2 EBIT 200,000 EBIT =3,125,000 1 = 2 At 750,000 Sales
EBIT
−
EBIT
2
1
Percent change in EBIT=
Percent change in Sales = EBIT 1 750,000 − 100,000 100,000 3,125,000 − 200,000
Percent change in EBIT= Percent change in Sales = 6.5200,000
Percent change in EBIT= 14.625 % change ∈ EBIT 14.625
DOL = 2.25 % chang ∈ Sales6.5
D.